diff --git "a/utils/arena_df.csv" "b/utils/arena_df.csv"
--- "a/utils/arena_df.csv"
+++ "b/utils/arena_df.csv"
@@ -1,32 +1,32 @@
 Unnamed: 0,question,contexts,difficulty,response_type,answer,num_contexts,processed_context_desc,insufficient,contexts_highlighted,insufficient_reason,sample_id
-4981,Tell me about label changes.,"[""## Nutrition Facts labels required on all foods? N1. Are Answer: The Nutrition Facts label (an example is illustrated in section 7 L2) is required on most food packages labeled. The illustration indicates FDA's typeface and style to help assure readability and conspicuousness. Not all of these type specifications are required. The mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d). Unlike the illustrative examples in this guidance, (1) Any legible type style may be used, not just Helvetica, (2) The heading Nutrition Facts must be the largest type size in the nutrition label (i.e., it must be larger than 8-point, but does not need to be 13-point) and should extend the width of the Nutrition Facts box, and (3) There is no specific thickness required for the three bars that separate the central sections of the nutrition -label. 21 CFR 101.9(a) and 21 CFR 101.9(a)(1) are listed categories providing exemptions or special provisions for labeling. Generally, a food package loses those exemptions, if a claim is made or nutrition information is provided: Below -nutrition -nutrition - | Summary of Exemption | Regulation # | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Manufactured by small businesses | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(1) and 101.9(j)(18) | | Food served in restaurants, etc. or delivered - to homes ready for immediate consumption | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(2) | | Delicatessen-type food, bakery products and confections that are sold directly to consumers from the location where prepared | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(3) | | Foods that provide no significant nutrition such as instant coffee (plain, unsweetened) and most spices | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(4) | | Infant formula, and infant and junior foods for children up to 4 years of age (modified label provisions for these categories) | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(5) and 101.9(j)(7) |"", 'life. FDA has concluded that the relationship between 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formulas and the reduced risk of atopic dermatitis is uncertain, because there is little scientific evidence for the relationship."" | following titles are available on FDA\'s web site. The Labeling Guide for Restaurants and Other Retail Establishments Selling Away From-Home Foods A http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm053455.htm ## Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Databases FDA instructions for developing and preparing an acceptable database when valid estimates of nutrient content variation are not available for the food (single or mixed products) to be labeled. Generic and http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm063113.htm ## Business Nutrition Labeling Exemption Small exemption application form and related information. Sample http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm053857.htm following titles contain more information about Federal food laws and regulations. They can be obtained from the Printing Office. The Government ## and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997, Public Law 105-115 GPO (Stock #869-033-00116-9) Food Amends the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act to Improve the of Food, Drugs, Devices, and Biological Products. Book. Regulation http://www.fda.gov/RegulatoryInformation/Legislation/FederalFoodDrugandCosmeticActFDCAct/SignificantAmendmentstothe FDCAct/FDAMA/FullTextofFDAMAlaw/default.htm ## of Laws Enforced by the United States Food and Drug Administration and Related Statutes, V. 1 (1996) Compilation', 'requirements of CFR 101.70 A general summary of requirements follows. Answer: The 21 apply. these - between substance and disease or health-related condition; · Relationship - is a food, food ingredient, or component that has been to be safe and lawful at levels necessary to justify a claim CFR · Substance shown (21 101.14(b)(3)(ii)). - contributes taste, aroma, nutritive value, or a technical listed in CFR 170.3(o); · Substance effect 21 - of Scientific data 21 CFR 101.70(f)(B)) 2. Summary (see - model health claim(s) 21 CFR 101.70(f)(D)) 4. Proposed (see - data to show amount of substance that is present in foods 21 CFR 101.70(f)(C)) 3. Analytical -representative (see - 21 CFR 101.70(f)(E)) 5. Attachments (see - of computer literature searches; · Copies - data supporting a claim: · Scientific - of all research articles relied upon for support of petition -only; · Copy English - concerning adverse consequences pertinent to any of the U.S. population. · Information segment FDA encourages petitioners to specify whether they are requesting their petition be reviewed as a QHC, and that they waive review under SSA standard. NOTE: that the claim for categorical exclusion or an environmental assessment (see 101.70(f)(F)) 6. A 21 CFR ## should I send the petition? Q8. Where and Drug Administration Food - the original and one copy of the petition (or a computer disk containing the petition) to the following address: Answer: Mail readable - of Nutrition, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800) Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740 Office -5100 - ## there circumstances when FDA will not file a petition? Q9. Are if the petition is incomplete in that it does not provide the information that is summarized above. Answer: Yes, required ## can I find out what letters FDA has issued for QHC? Q10.How']",easy,follow-up,"Your question about label changes is quite broad. Could you please specify which aspect of label changes you are interested in? For example, are you asking about changes in Nutrition Facts labels, exemptions for certain foods, or specific regulatory requirements for label modifications?",3,Food label regulations,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Nutrition Facts labels required on most food packages labeled. FDA's typeface and style help assure readability and conspicuousness. Mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Nutrition Facts label provides information on serving size, calories, and nutrients in a standardized format to help consumers make informed food choices.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Label exemptions may apply to small businesses, foods produced by small manufacturers, and foods that contain insignificant amounts of all nutrients required to be declared.""}]",The question is too broad or ambiguous and requires clarification about which specific aspect of label changes is of interest.,1
+4981,Tell me about label changes.,"[""## Nutrition Facts labels required on all foods? N1. Are Answer: The Nutrition Facts label (an example is illustrated in section 7 L2) is required on most food packages labeled. The illustration indicates FDA's typeface and style to help assure readability and conspicuousness. Not all of these type specifications are required. The mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d). Unlike the illustrative examples in this guidance, (1) Any legible type style may be used, not just Helvetica, (2) The heading Nutrition Facts must be the largest type size in the nutrition label (i.e., it must be larger than 8-point, but does not need to be 13-point) and should extend the width of the Nutrition Facts box, and (3) There is no specific thickness required for the three bars that separate the central sections of the nutrition -label. 21 CFR 101.9(a) and 21 CFR 101.9(a)(1) are listed categories providing exemptions or special provisions for labeling. Generally, a food package loses those exemptions, if a claim is made or nutrition information is provided: Below -nutrition -nutrition - | Summary of Exemption | Regulation # | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Manufactured by small businesses | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(1) and 101.9(j)(18) | | Food served in restaurants, etc. or delivered - to homes ready for immediate consumption | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(2) | | Delicatessen-type food, bakery products and confections that are sold directly to consumers from the location where prepared | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(3) | | Foods that provide no significant nutrition such as instant coffee (plain, unsweetened) and most spices | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(4) | | Infant formula, and infant and junior foods for children up to 4 years of age (modified label provisions for these categories) | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(5) and 101.9(j)(7) |"", 'life. FDA has concluded that the relationship between 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formulas and the reduced risk of atopic dermatitis is uncertain, because there is little scientific evidence for the relationship."" | following titles are available on FDA\'s web site. The Labeling Guide for Restaurants and Other Retail Establishments Selling Away From-Home Foods A http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm053455.htm ## Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Databases FDA instructions for developing and preparing an acceptable database when valid estimates of nutrient content variation are not available for the food (single or mixed products) to be labeled. Generic and http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm063113.htm ## Business Nutrition Labeling Exemption Small exemption application form and related information. Sample http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/GuidanceDocuments/FoodLabelingNutrition/ucm053857.htm following titles contain more information about Federal food laws and regulations. They can be obtained from the Printing Office. The Government ## and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997, Public Law 105-115 GPO (Stock #869-033-00116-9) Food Amends the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act to Improve the of Food, Drugs, Devices, and Biological Products. Book. Regulation http://www.fda.gov/RegulatoryInformation/Legislation/FederalFoodDrugandCosmeticActFDCAct/SignificantAmendmentstothe FDCAct/FDAMA/FullTextofFDAMAlaw/default.htm ## of Laws Enforced by the United States Food and Drug Administration and Related Statutes, V. 1 (1996) Compilation', 'requirements of CFR 101.70 A general summary of requirements follows. Answer: The 21 apply. these - between substance and disease or health-related condition; · Relationship - is a food, food ingredient, or component that has been to be safe and lawful at levels necessary to justify a claim CFR · Substance shown (21 101.14(b)(3)(ii)). - contributes taste, aroma, nutritive value, or a technical listed in CFR 170.3(o); · Substance effect 21 - of Scientific data 21 CFR 101.70(f)(B)) 2. Summary (see - model health claim(s) 21 CFR 101.70(f)(D)) 4. Proposed (see - data to show amount of substance that is present in foods 21 CFR 101.70(f)(C)) 3. Analytical -representative (see - 21 CFR 101.70(f)(E)) 5. Attachments (see - of computer literature searches; · Copies - data supporting a claim: · Scientific - of all research articles relied upon for support of petition -only; · Copy English - concerning adverse consequences pertinent to any of the U.S. population. · Information segment FDA encourages petitioners to specify whether they are requesting their petition be reviewed as a QHC, and that they waive review under SSA standard. NOTE: that the claim for categorical exclusion or an environmental assessment (see 101.70(f)(F)) 6. A 21 CFR ## should I send the petition? Q8. Where and Drug Administration Food - the original and one copy of the petition (or a computer disk containing the petition) to the following address: Answer: Mail readable - of Nutrition, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800) Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740 Office -5100 - ## there circumstances when FDA will not file a petition? Q9. Are if the petition is incomplete in that it does not provide the information that is summarized above. Answer: Yes, required ## can I find out what letters FDA has issued for QHC? Q10.How']",easy,follow-up,"Your question about label changes is quite broad. Could you please specify which aspect of label changes you are interested in? For example, are you asking about changes in Nutrition Facts labels, exemptions for certain foods, or specific regulatory requirements for label modifications?",3,Food label regulations,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Nutrition Facts labels required on most food packages labeled. FDA's typeface and style help assure readability and conspicuousness. Mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Nutrition Facts label provides information on serving size, calories, and nutrients in a standardized format to help consumers make informed food choices.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Label exemptions may apply to small businesses, foods produced by small manufacturers, and foods that contain insignificant amounts of all nutrients required to be declared.""}]",The question is too broad or ambiguous and requires clarification about which specific aspect of label changes is of interest.,1
 1022,Which organization established an AMR-hub focusing on agriculture in LMICs?,"['- > Treating animals individually with the correct dose and duration, and avoiding the use of antimicrobials for group treatments, especially via feed. Reducing the administration of sub-therapeutic antimicrobials (as well as hormones or steroids) may mean that animals do not grow as quickly. This can be addressed through changes in feeding. Major feed companies are exploring custom blends that reduce dependency on medicated feed and improve digestibility and gut health. It should be noted that for some antimicrobials used for growth promotion and disease control, such as the ionophores, there has been no demonstration of selection for resistant bacteria of either animal or human importance. Enforcing strict compliance to withdrawal times (the time period between applying an antimicrobial and when the eggs, meat or milk may be marketed for human consumption) may incentivize a more limited use of antimicrobials. Effective monitoring and traceability along the food chain are needed to ensure this. ## One Health The importance of the One Health approach has - since the global spread of the highly pathogenic avian influenza in 2004 when WHO, FAO and WOAH joined forces - been fully recognized. These three major global organizations dealing with agriculture and human and animal health have agreed to collaborate to deal with health threats at the human-animalecosystem interface; UNEP has also now joined this effort (FAO, OIE and WHO, 2010).', ""## Antimicrobial resistance Antimicrobials (antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals) and anti-parasitics are used in four ways in livestock keeping: to treat diseased animals (treatment ); to control the spread of a disease in a herd or flock (when a disease has been detected); to prevent the animals from becoming ill (prophylaxis); and to put in feed in low doses to enhance growth rates (growth promotion). In some farming systems, antimicrobials are mixed with the feed or drinking water for prophylaxis and growth promotion. However, the practice of using antibiotics for growth promotion is nowadays banned in many countries since it drives development of antimicrobial resistance (AMR). The regular use of antimicrobials for prophylaxis is also restricted in some countries. Bacteria and other microbes naturally develop resistance to antimicrobials. But this process is greatly enhanced through the extensive use - and overuse - of antibiotics and other antimicrobials in livestock production (as well as in human medicine). Hitherto effective antimicrobials used to treat major diseases of both humans and animals are becoming ineffective. The emergence of AMR is currently the greatest threat to progress made in human health and well-being as well as animal health, welfare and production over several decades. It has been estimated that AMR will contribute to millions of human deaths per year in the world and the production in the livestock sector in low income countries is at particular risk with an estimated livestock production loss of 10 percent by 2050, if the emergence and spread of AMR is not curbed (O'Neill, 2016; World bank, 2017)."", '## Opportunities As awareness of the danger of AMR increases, governments are imposing greater restrictions on the types, amounts and uses of antimicrobials. The European Union, for example, banned the prophylactic use of antimicrobials in livestock in 2015. This has led to a drop in the quantity of such medicines used in the European Union (European Commission 2015, European Medicines Agency 2019). Globally, more countries are now banning the use of antimicrobials as growth promotors (OIE, 2019), which may lead to similar reductions in use in these countries. Antimicrobials are in several cases used to compensate for shortcomings in animal management. Investment in preventive animal health and animal welfare reduces the need for antimicrobials (Magnusson et al., 2019; FAO, 2020). Conversely, restricting the use of antimicrobials may force producers to upgrade their husbandry and biosecurity, vaccination programmes and standards of animal welfare. ## Risks Despite a global trend with more regulations restricting the use of antimicrobials, substantial demand for such products may still exists from some large-scale producers. Compliance to these regulations may in some settings be poor and inspection services underfunded and understaffed. Also, veterinarians are in some jurisdictions allowed to sell antimicrobials to farmers; a practice that does not promote restrictive use (Magnusson 2020). Some veterinarians earn huge profits by dispensing large quantities of medication to livestock producers (Klawitter 2012; Hucklenbroich 2011). In some LMICs, antimicrobials are available from unregulated agrovet stores and kiosks, and are sold in the absence of professional animal health advice (Magnusson et al., 2021). Thus, they may be applied without a proper diagnosis, used to treat the wrong diseases or applied at the wrong doses. Falsified, substandard and expired drugs are also common (Kelesidis and Falagas 2016). All these problems may lead to inappropriate and excessive use of antimicrobials that drives the development of AMR. ## Animal welfare']",medium,refusal,The provided context does not mention any organization establishing an AMR-hub focusing on agriculture in LMICs.,3,Antimicrobial resistance initiatives,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Antimicrobials (antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals) and anti-parasitic medicines are critically important for treating diseases in humans, animals, and plants.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Treating animals individually with the correct dose and duration of antimicrobial is preferred over treating entire groups to minimize resistance development.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Antimicrobial resistance occurs when microorganisms evolve mechanisms that protect them from the effects of antimicrobials, making treatments ineffective.""}]",The provided context does not mention any organization establishing an AMR-hub focusing on agriculture in LMICs.,2
 4727,"If I eat a rainbow and drink the sky, will my risks go bye-bye?","['| | WEIGHT MANAGEMENT | • Weight gain during adult life and/ or excess body fatness increases risk after menopause (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Weight loss may lower risk (Chlebowski 2019 ) 9 • Excess body fatness increases risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 | Endometrial • Excess body fatness increases risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Weight loss may lower risk (WCRF/ AICR 2018, Luo 2017 4 12 ) Gallbladder • Excess body fatness may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Adult weight gain may increase risk (Campbell 2017 14 ) • Excess body fatness increases risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Excess body fatness increases risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 | | CANCER SITE | Breast Colorectal | Kidney Liver | ## TABLE 2. Continued | ALCOHOL | Consuming nonstarchy vegetables and whole fruits, including those high in vitamin C (especially for smokers), probably lowers risk (WCRF/AICR Processed and red meat may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 -carotene supplementation increases risk, particularly among smokers and those exposed to asbestos (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 Processed and red meats as well as saturated fats in general may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 Sugar-sweetened beverages may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 Higher consumption of dairy products and calcium ( > 2000 mg/d) may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018, Wilson 2015 4 17 ) | • Alcohol consumption may increase risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 | • Alcohol consumption increases risk of oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx cancers, and squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 |', '| |-------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | DIET | 4 6 • 2018 ) 4 • • High-dose β • • • | • Regular intake of processed, grilled, or charcoaled meats increases risk for noncardia gastric cancer (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 | probably lowers risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Consumption of nonstarchy vegetables and whole fruits probably lowers risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 Abbreviations: BMI, body mass index; IARC, International Agency for Research on Cancer; WCRF/AICR, World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research; USDHSS, US Department of Health and Human | | PHYSICAL ACTIVITY | • Regular moderate to vigorous physical activity may lower risk (WCRF/AICR 2018, USDHSS 2019 ) 6 • Reducing sedentary behavior may lower risk (USDHSS 2019 ) • Regular moderate to vigorous physical activity may lower risk (USDHSS 2019 ) 6 • Regular moderate to vigorous physical activity may lower risk (USDHSS 2019 ) 6 | • Regular moderate to vigorous physical activity may lower risk (USDHSS 2019 ) 6 | • Regular moderate to vigorous physical activity may lower risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma (WCRF/AICR 2018, USDHSS 2019 ) 4 6 |', '## TABLE 2. Evidence for the Role of Weight Management, Physical Activity, and Diet for the Prevention of Cancer by Site a | ALCOHOL | • Alcohol consumption may increase risk of premenopausal breast cancer and increases risk of postmenopausal breast cancer (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 | • Alcohol consumption increases risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Alcohol consumption increases risk (WCRF/AICR | |-------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | DIET | • Dietary patterns rich in plant foods and low in animal products and refined carbohydrates lower risk (US Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee 2015 ); the Mediterranean diet pattern lowers risk (Toledo 7 2015 ) 8 • Consumption of nonstarchy vegetables and/or vegetables rich in carotenoids may lower risk for estrogen receptor-negative breast tumors (WCRF/AICR 2018 ); diets higher in calcium/calcium-rich dairy may 4 reduce risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • A healthy eating pattern with whole grains, higher fiber, and less added sugar lowers risk (WCRF/AICR 2018, US Dietary Guidelines Advisory 4 Committee 2015 ); consuming nonstarchy vegetables and whole fruits 7 probably lowers risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Processed meat intake, even in small amounts, and red meat in moderate to high amounts, increases risk | (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Consuming nonstarchy vegetables and whole fruits probably lowers risk (WCRF/AICR 2018 ) 4 • Consume diets higher in calcium/calcium-rich dairy foods (WCRF/AICR 2018 );']",hard,refusal,"The question 'If I eat a rainbow and drink the sky, will my risks go bye-bye?' is metaphorical and not directly related to the provided context on weight management, diet, physical activity, and cancer risk. The context does not provide information to answer this question.",3,Metaphorical health advice,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Weight gain during adult life and excess body fatness are associated with increased risk of several cancers. Maintaining a healthy weight is recommended.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Regular physical activity is associated with reduced risks of various cancers. Adults should aim for at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity activity weekly.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Consuming a healthy diet with variety of whole grains, vegetables, fruits, and limited amounts of red meat, processed foods, and sugar-sweetened drinks can reduce cancer risk.""}]",The metaphorical question about eating a rainbow and drinking the sky cannot be directly answered using the health information provided in the context.,3
-121,Who was Samuel Worcester and why was he arrested?,"[""375, 384 (1886). J., dissenting GORSUCH, government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. § 1153(a); see also Part I-B, When Congress enacted the MCA in 1885, it proceeded once more against the 'backdrop' rule that only tribal criminal law applies on tribal lands, that States enjoy no inherent authority to prosecute cases on tribal lands, and that only Congress may displace tribal power. Nor, once more, did Congress's new legislation purport to allow States to prosecute crimes on tribal lands. In response to concerns with how tribal authorities were handling major crimes committed by tribal members, in the MCA Congress took a step beyond the GCA and instructed that, in the future, the federal prosecute certain crimes by Indian defendants on tribal lands. 18 U. supra. Here again, Congress's work hardly would have been necessary or made sense if States already possessed jurisdiction to try crimes by or against Indians on tribal reservations. Plainly, Congress's 'purpose' in adopting the MCA was to answer the 'objection' that major crimes by tribal members on tribal lands would otherwise be subject to prosecution by tribal authorities alone. See Kagama, 118 U. S., at 383385. Consider next the Treaty of New Echota and the Oklahoma Enabling Act. In 1835, the United States entered into a treaty with the Cherokee. In that treaty, the Nation promised that, within a new reservation in what was to become Oklahoma, the Tribe would enjoy the right to govern itself and remain forever free from 'State sovereignties' and 'the jurisdiction of any State.' Treaty with the Cherokee, Preamble, 7 Stat. 478. This Court has instructed that tribal treaties must be interpreted as they 'would naturally be understood by the Indians' at ratification. Herrera v. Wyoming, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (slip op., at 19) (internal ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, A. Scalia & B. Garner, Reading Law 252 (2012); 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did not endow the State with any power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands but reserved that authority to the federal government and Tribes alone. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. From start to finish, the Court defies our duty to interpret Congress's laws and our own prior work 'harmoniously' as 'part of an entire corpus juris.' see also Goodyear Atomic Corp. v. Miller, 486 U. S. 174, 184-185 (1988). C Putting aside these astonishing errors, Congress's work and this Court's precedents yield three clear principles that firmly resolve this case. First, tribal sovereign authority excludes the operation of other sovereigns' criminal laws unless and until Congress ordains otherwise. Second, while Congress has extended a good deal of federal criminal law to tribal lands, in Oklahoma it has authorized the State to prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans within tribal boundaries only if it satisfies certain requirements. Under Public Law 280, the State must remove state-law barriers to jurisdiction and obtain tribal consent. Third, because Oklahoma has done neither of these things, it lacks the authority it seeks to try crimes against tribal members within a tribal reservation. Until today, all this settled law was well appreciated by this Court, the Executive Branch, and even Oklahoma. Consider first our own precedents and those of other courts. In 1946 in Williams v. United States, this Court recognized that, while States'may have jurisdiction over offenses committed on th[e] reservation between persons who are not Indians, the laws and courts of the United States, rather than those of [the States], have jurisdiction over offenses committed there... by one who is not an Indian against one who is an Indian.' 327 U. S. 711, 714 (footnote ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, (MCA). See R. Anderson, S. Krakoff, & B. BerS. 621, 623 Crimes Act ger, American Indian Law: Cases and Commentary 90-96 (4th ed. 2008) (Anderson). There, Congress directed that, moving forward, only the federal government, not the Tribes, could prosecute certain serious offenses by tribal members on tribal lands. See 18 U. S. C. § 1153(a). On its own initiative, this Court then went a step further. Relying on language in certain laws admitting specific States to the Union, the Court held that States were now entitled to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against non-Indians on tribal lands. See United States v. McBratney, 104 U. (1882); Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 243, 247 (1896). Through all these developments, however, at least one promise remained: States could play no role in the prosecution of crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands. See Williams v. Lee, 358 U. S. 217, 220 (1959). In 1906, Congress reaffirmed this promise to the Cherokee in Oklahoma. As a condition of its admission to the Union, Congress required Oklahoma to 'declare that [it] forever disclaim[s] all right and title in or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limits owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead, Congress provided that tribal lands would'remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. As if the point wasn't clear enough, Congress further provided that 'nothing contained in the [new Oklahoma state] constitution shall be construed to... limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States... respecting [the State's] Indians... which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' Id., at 267-268. The following year, Oklahoma adopted a State Constitution consistent with Congress's instructions. Art.""]",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about Samuel Worcester or the reasons for his arrest. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",3,Historical legal case,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. \u00a7 1151 'over any part of particular cases' covered by CARDON: Because the crime occurred in Indian country and \u00a7 1151 a criminal case.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Legal discussions regarding jurisdiction in Indian country and federal authority, with references to court decisions and legal precedents.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""References to historical legal cases and jurisdictional questions without specific mention of Samuel Worcester or details about his arrest.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about Samuel Worcester or the reasons for his arrest.,4
+121,Who was Samuel Worcester and why was he arrested?,"[""375, 384 (1886). J., dissenting GORSUCH, government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. § 1153(a); see also Part I-B, When Congress enacted the MCA in 1885, it proceeded once more against the 'backdrop' rule that only tribal criminal law applies on tribal lands, that States enjoy no inherent authority to prosecute cases on tribal lands, and that only Congress may displace tribal power. Nor, once more, did Congress's new legislation purport to allow States to prosecute crimes on tribal lands. In response to concerns with how tribal authorities were handling major crimes committed by tribal members, in the MCA Congress took a step beyond the GCA and instructed that, in the future, the federal prosecute certain crimes by Indian defendants on tribal lands. 18 U. supra. Here again, Congress's work hardly would have been necessary or made sense if States already possessed jurisdiction to try crimes by or against Indians on tribal reservations. Plainly, Congress's 'purpose' in adopting the MCA was to answer the 'objection' that major crimes by tribal members on tribal lands would otherwise be subject to prosecution by tribal authorities alone. See Kagama, 118 U. S., at 383385. Consider next the Treaty of New Echota and the Oklahoma Enabling Act. In 1835, the United States entered into a treaty with the Cherokee. In that treaty, the Nation promised that, within a new reservation in what was to become Oklahoma, the Tribe would enjoy the right to govern itself and remain forever free from 'State sovereignties' and 'the jurisdiction of any State.' Treaty with the Cherokee, Preamble, 7 Stat. 478. This Court has instructed that tribal treaties must be interpreted as they 'would naturally be understood by the Indians' at ratification. Herrera v. Wyoming, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (slip op., at 19) (internal ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, A. Scalia & B. Garner, Reading Law 252 (2012); 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did not endow the State with any power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands but reserved that authority to the federal government and Tribes alone. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. From start to finish, the Court defies our duty to interpret Congress's laws and our own prior work 'harmoniously' as 'part of an entire corpus juris.' see also Goodyear Atomic Corp. v. Miller, 486 U. S. 174, 184-185 (1988). C Putting aside these astonishing errors, Congress's work and this Court's precedents yield three clear principles that firmly resolve this case. First, tribal sovereign authority excludes the operation of other sovereigns' criminal laws unless and until Congress ordains otherwise. Second, while Congress has extended a good deal of federal criminal law to tribal lands, in Oklahoma it has authorized the State to prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans within tribal boundaries only if it satisfies certain requirements. Under Public Law 280, the State must remove state-law barriers to jurisdiction and obtain tribal consent. Third, because Oklahoma has done neither of these things, it lacks the authority it seeks to try crimes against tribal members within a tribal reservation. Until today, all this settled law was well appreciated by this Court, the Executive Branch, and even Oklahoma. Consider first our own precedents and those of other courts. In 1946 in Williams v. United States, this Court recognized that, while States'may have jurisdiction over offenses committed on th[e] reservation between persons who are not Indians, the laws and courts of the United States, rather than those of [the States], have jurisdiction over offenses committed there... by one who is not an Indian against one who is an Indian.' 327 U. S. 711, 714 (footnote ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, (MCA). See R. Anderson, S. Krakoff, & B. BerS. 621, 623 Crimes Act ger, American Indian Law: Cases and Commentary 90-96 (4th ed. 2008) (Anderson). There, Congress directed that, moving forward, only the federal government, not the Tribes, could prosecute certain serious offenses by tribal members on tribal lands. See 18 U. S. C. § 1153(a). On its own initiative, this Court then went a step further. Relying on language in certain laws admitting specific States to the Union, the Court held that States were now entitled to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against non-Indians on tribal lands. See United States v. McBratney, 104 U. (1882); Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 243, 247 (1896). Through all these developments, however, at least one promise remained: States could play no role in the prosecution of crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands. See Williams v. Lee, 358 U. S. 217, 220 (1959). In 1906, Congress reaffirmed this promise to the Cherokee in Oklahoma. As a condition of its admission to the Union, Congress required Oklahoma to 'declare that [it] forever disclaim[s] all right and title in or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limits owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead, Congress provided that tribal lands would'remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. As if the point wasn't clear enough, Congress further provided that 'nothing contained in the [new Oklahoma state] constitution shall be construed to... limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States... respecting [the State's] Indians... which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' Id., at 267-268. The following year, Oklahoma adopted a State Constitution consistent with Congress's instructions. Art.""]",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about Samuel Worcester or the reasons for his arrest. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",3,Historical legal case,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. \u00a7 1151 'over any part of particular cases' covered by CARDON: Because the crime occurred in Indian country and \u00a7 1151 a criminal case.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Legal discussions regarding jurisdiction in Indian country and federal authority, with references to court decisions and legal precedents.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""References to historical legal cases and jurisdictional questions without specific mention of Samuel Worcester or details about his arrest.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about Samuel Worcester or the reasons for his arrest.,4
 4623,How often must the fees for vehicle importation be reassessed?,"['## § 30144. Importing motor vehicles on a temporary basis - (a) General. --Section 30112(a) of this title does not apply to a motor vehicle imported on a temporary basis for personal use by an individual who is a member of-- - (1)(A) the personnel of the government of a foreign country on assignment in the United States or a member of the Secretariat of a public international organization designated under the International Organizations Immunities Act (22 U.S.C. 288 et seq.); and - (B) the class of individuals for whom the Secretary of State has authorized free importation of motor vehicles; or - (2) the armed forces of a foreign country on assignment in the United States. - (b) Verification. --The Secretary of Transportation or the Secretary of the Treasury may require verification, that the Secretary of Transportation considers appropriate, that an individual is a member described under subsection (a) of this section. The Secretary of Transportation shall ensure that a motor vehicle imported under this section will be exported (at no cost to the United States Government) or abandoned to the Government when the individual no longer-- - (1) resides in the United States; and - (2) is a member described under subsection (a) of this section. - (c) Sale in the United States. --A motor vehicle imported under this section may not be sold when in the United States. ## § 30145. Importing motor vehicles or equipment requiring further manufacturing Section 30112(a) of this title does not apply to a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment if the vehicle or equipment-- - (1) requires further manufacturing to perform its intended function as decided under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of Transportation; and - (2) is accompanied at the time of importation by a written statement issued by the manufacturer indicating the applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter with which it does not comply. ## § 30146. Release of motor vehicles and bonds', '- (a) General. --Section 30112(a) of this title does not apply to an imported motor vehicle if-- - (1) the vehicle is imported for personal use, and not for resale, by an individual (except an individual described in sections 30143 and 30144 of this title); - (2) the vehicle is imported after January 31, 1990; and - (3) the individual takes the actions required under subsection (b) of this section to receive an exemption. - (b) Exemptions.--(1) To receive an exemption under subsection (a) of this section, an individual must-- - (A) provide the Secretary of the Treasury (acting for the Secretary of Transportation) with-- - (i) an appropriate bond in an amount determined under section 30141(d) of this title; - (ii) a copy of an agreement with an importer registered under section 30141(c) of this title for bringing the motor vehicle into compliance with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter; and - (iii) a certification that the vehicle meets the requirement of section 30141 (a)( 1)(A) or (B) of this title; and - (B) comply with appropriate terms the Secretary of Transportation imposes to ensure that the vehicle-- - (i) will be brought into compliance with those standards within a reasonable time (specified by the Secretary of Transportation) after the vehicle is imported; or - (ii) will be exported (at no cost to the United States Government) by the Secretary of the Treasury or abandoned to the Government. - (2) For good cause shown, the Secretary of Transportation may allow an individual additional time, but not more than 30 days after the day on which the motor vehicle is offered for import, to comply with paragraph (1)(A)(ii) of this subsection. ## § 30143. Motor vehicles imported by individuals employed outside the United States', 'registered under subsection (c) of this section, the Secretary decides-- - (A) the vehicle is-- - (i) substantially similar to a motor vehicle originally manufactured for import into and sale in the United States; - (ii) certified under section 30115 of this title; - (iii) the same model year (as defined under regulations of the Secretary of Transportation) as the model of the motor vehicle it is being compared to; and - (iv) capable of being readily altered to comply with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter; or - (B) if there is no substantially similar United States motor vehicle, the safety features of the vehicle comply with or are capable of being altered to comply with those standards based on destructive test information or other evidence the Secretary of Transportation decides is adequate; - (2) the vehicle is imported by a registered importer; and - (3) the registered importer pays the annual fee the Secretary of Transportation establishes under subsection (e) of this section to pay for the costs of carrying out the registration program for importers under subsection (c) of this section and any other fees the Secretary of Transportation establishes to pay for the costs of-- - (A) processing bonds provided to the Secretary of the Treasury under subsection (d) of this section; and - (B) making the decisions under this subchapter. - (b) Procedures on deciding on motor vehicle capabiity.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation shall establish by regulation procedures for making a decision under subsection (a)(1) of this section and the information a petitioner must provide to show clearly that the motor vehicle is capable of being brought into compliance with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter. In establishing the procedures, the Secretary shall provide for a minimum period of public notice and written comment consistent with ensuring expeditious, but complete, consideration and avoiding delay by any person. In making a decision under those procedures, the Secretary shall consider test information and other information available to the Secretary, including any information provided by the manufacturer. If the Secretary makes a negative decision, the Secretary may not make another decision for the same model until at least 3 calendar months have elapsed after the negative decision.', 'The vehicle and bond may be released only after the Secretary is satisfied with the certification and any modification of the certification. - (e) Bond release. --A release of a bond required under section 30141(d) of this title is deemed an acceptance of a certification or completion of an inspection under this section but is not a decision by the Secretary of Transportation under section 30118(a) or (b) of this title of compliance with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter. ## § 30147. Responsibility for defects and noncompliance - (a) Deeming defect or noncompliance to certain vehicles and importer as manufacturer.--(1) In carrying out sections 30117(b), 30118-30121, and 30166(f) of this title-- - (A) for a defect or noncompliance with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter for a motor vehicle originally manufactured for import into the United States, an imported motor vehicle having a valid certification under section 30146(a)(1) of this title and decided to be substantially similar to that motor vehicle shall be deemed as having the same defect or as not complying with the same standard unless the manufacturer or importer registered under section 30141(c) of this title demonstrates otherwise to the Secretary of Transportation; and - (B) the registered importer shall be deemed to be the manufacturer of any motor vehicle that the importer imports or brings into compliance with the standards for an individual under section 30142 of this title. - (2) The Secretary shall publish in the Federal Register notice of any defect or noncompliance under paragraph (1)(A) of this subsection. - (b) Financial responsibility requirement. --The Secretary shall require by regulation each registered importer (including any successor in interest) to provide and maintain evidence, satisfactory to the Secretary, of sufficient financial responsibility to meet its obligations under sections 30117(b), 301183012 1, and 30166(f) of this title. ## SUBCHAPTER IV. ENFORCEMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ## § 30161. Judicial review of standards']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information about how often the fees for vehicle importation must be reassessed. Therefore, the question cannot be answered based on the available context.",4,Vehicle import fee regulations,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30144. Importing motor vehicles on a temporary basis - (a) General. Section outlines conditions for importing vehicles temporarily.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Regulations regarding vehicle importation requirements including safety standards, documentation, and certification processes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about vehicle import procedures and compliance with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Details on importing non-conforming vehicles and requirements for modifications to meet US standards.""}]",The provided context does not contain information about how often the fees for vehicle importation must be reassessed.,5
 1831,When is water required to be listed as an ingredient?,"[""type sizes may be used for information panel labeling on very small packages as discussed in CFR 101.2(c) Smaller food 21 & (f). information panel labeling, use a print or type size that is conspicuous and easy to read. Use letters that are at least one(1/16) inch in height based on the lower case letter 'o'. The letters not be more than three times as high as they are wide, and the lettering contrast sufficiently with the background so as to be easy to read. Do not required labeling with artwork or non-required labeling. Answer: For prominent, sixteenth must must crowd type sizes are specified for the Nutrition Facts label. (see section 7) Different type size requirements for the statement of identity and the net quantity are discussed in sections 4 and 5 of this guidance. The statement CFR 101.2(c) 21 ## is the prohibition against intervening material? 7. What that is not required by FDA is considered intervening and is not permitted to be placed between the required labeling on information panel (e.g., the UPC bar code is not FDA required labeling). CFR 101.2(e) Answer: Information material the 21 ## nameandaddressmustbelistedonthelabel? 8. What - and address of the manufacturer, packer or distributor. Unless the given is the actual manufacturer, it must be accompanied by a qualifying which states the firm's relation to the product (e.g.,'manufactured for' 'distributed by'); a. Name name phrase or labels must list: Answer: Food address if the firm name and address are not listed in a current city or telephone book; b. Street directory - (or country, if outside the United States); and d. State - or town; c. City - code (or mailing code used in countries other than the United States). e. ZIP 21 CFR 101.5 INTERVENING MATERIAL ## 4. NAME OF FOOD ## is the name of the food statement called and where must it placed? 1. What be statement of identity is the name of the food. It must appear on front label, or PDP as well as any alternate PDP. CFR 101.3 Answer: The the 21 ## the statement of identity stand out? 2. Should"", ""PDP, is that portion of the package label that is most likely to be by the consumer at the time of purchase. Many containers are designed two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP. are alternate PDPs. CFR 101.1 Answer: The seen with These 21 ## label statements must appear on the PDP? 3. What Answer: Place the statement of identity, or name of the food, and the net quantity statement, or amount of product, on the PDP and on the alternate PDP. The required type size and prominence are discussed in sections 4 and 5 of this guidance. 21 CFR 101.3(a) and 21 CFR 101.105(a) ## 4. Which label panel is the information panel? Answer: The information panel is the label panel immediately to the right of the PDP, as displayed to the consumer. If this panel is not usable, due to package design and construction, (e.g., folded f laps), then the information panel is the next label panel immediately to the right. 21 CFR 101.2(a) ## is information panel labeling? 5. What phrase 'information panel labeling' refers to the label that are generally required to be placed together, without any material, on the information panel, if such labeling does not on the PDP. These label statements include the name and address of manufacturer, packer or distributor, the ingredient list, nutrition labeling any required allergy labeling. CFR 101.2(b) and (d), Section 403(w) the FD&C Act Answer: The statements intervening appear the and 21 of ## type size, prominence and conspicuousness is required? 6. What type sizes may be used for information panel labeling on very small packages as discussed in CFR 101.2(c) Smaller food 21 & (f).""]",hard,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about when water is required to be listed as an ingredient. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",2,Food ingredient labeling,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Type sizes may be used for information panel labeling on very small packages as discussed in CFR 101.2(f).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about food labeling requirements including ingredient lists, allergen declarations, and formatting standards.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about when water is required to be listed as an ingredient.,6
 1379,Determine whether subsection (a) can take effect before the final rule under subparagraph (B) is implemented.,"['## ""SEC. 3 - (d). Insurance study. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a study to determine the feasibility and utility of obtaining aggregate information on a regular and periodic basis regarding claims made for private passenger automobile accidents from persons in the business of providing private passenger automobile insurance or of adjusting insurance claims for such automobiles. Not later than 120 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit the results of such study to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ""SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a rulemaking to revise and update the tire standards published at 49 CFR 571.109 and 49 CFR 571.119. The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking under this section not later than June 1, 2002."". E. ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat, 1800 ## ""SEC. 11. Improved tire information. ""(a) Tire labeling. Within 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall initiate a rulemaking proceeding to improve the labeling of tires required by section 30123 of title 49, United States Code to assist consumers in identifying tires that may be the subject of a decision under section 30118(b) or a notice required under section 30118(c). The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking not later than June 1, 2002.', 'As used in this Act, the following definitions apply: - (1) Child restraint.--The term ""child restraint\'\' means any product designed to provide restraint to a child (including booster seats and other products used with a lap and shoulder belt assembly) that meets applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards prescribed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. - (2) Production year.--The term ""production year\'\' means the 12-month period between September 1 of a year and August 31 of the following year. - (3) Passenger motor vehicle.--The term ""passenger motor vehicle\'\' has the meaning given that term in section 405(f)(5) of title 23, United States Code. ## SEC. 8. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS. (a) In General.-There are authorized to be appropriated $5,000,000 to the Secretary of Transportation for-- - (1) the evaluation required by section 6 of this Act; and - (2) research of the nature and causes of injury to children involved in motor vehicle crashes. (b) Limitation.-Funds appropriated under subsection (a) shall not be available for the general administrative expenses of the Secretary. L. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10303. Tire research. Within 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit a report to the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation and the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce on research conducted to address tire aging. The report shall include a summary of any Federal agency findings, activities, conclusions, and recommendations concerning tire aging and recommendations for potential rulemaking regarding tire aging. (a) Conforming Amendment.-The chapter analysis for chapter 301 is amended by inserting after the item relating to section 30127 the following: ""30128. Vehicle accident ejection protection.\'\'. M. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION ## IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10304. Vehicle backover avoidance technology study.', '| L. | Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU].................................................................................. 46 | | M. | Vehicle backover avoidance technology study. [Sec. 10304 of SAFETEA-LU]............................ 46 | | N. | Nontraffic incident data collection. [Sec. 10305 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................... 47 | | O. | Study of safety belt use technologies. [Sec. 10306 of SAFETEA-LU]........................................... 47 | | P. | Power window switches. [Sec. 10308 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................................... 47 | | | Q. Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 10310 of SAFETEA-LU]..................................................... 48 | ## RELATED UNCODIFIED PROVISIONS ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION: 49 USC 30127 note. ## TRANSPORTATION EQUITY ACT FOR 21 CENTURY (TEA-21) st June 9, 1998, Pub. L. 105-178, Title VII, Subtitle A, § 7103, 112 Stat. 465 ## ""SEC. 7103. Improving air bag safety. ## ""(a) Rulemaking to improve air bags. ""(1) Notice of proposed rulemaking. Not later than September 1, 1998, the Secretary of Transportation shall issue a notice of proposed rulemaking to improve occupant protection for occupants of different sizes, belted and unbelted, under Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 208, while minimizing the risk to infants, children, and other occupants from injuries and deaths caused by air bags, by means that include advanced air bags. ""(2) Final rule. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary shall complete the rulemaking required by this subsection by issuing, not later than September 1, 1999, a final rule with any provision the Secretary deems appropriate, consistent with paragraph (1) and the requirements of section 30111, title 49, United States Code. If the Secretary determines that the final rule cannot be completed by that date to meet the purposes of paragraph (1), the Secretary may extend the date for issuing the final rule to not later than March 1, 2000.', ""| G. | Improving criteria used in a recall. [Sec. 15 of TREAD Act]............................................................. 41 | | H. | Follow-up report [Sec. 16 of TREAD Act]......................................................................................... 42 | | I. | Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 17 of TREAD Act]................................................................. 42 | | J. | Anton's Law......................................................................................................................................... 42 | | K. | Side-impact crash protection rulemaking. [Sec. 10302 of SAFETEA-LU]........................................ 45 | | L. | Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU]..................................................................................... 46 | | M. | Vehicle backover avoidance technology study. [Sec. 10304 of SAFETEA-LU]................................ 46 | | N. | Nontraffic incident data collection. [Sec. 10305 of SAFETEA-LU]................................................... 47 | | O. | Study of safety belt use technologies. [Sec. 10306 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................... 47 | | P. | Power window switches. [Sec. 10308 of SAFETEA-LU]................................................................... 47 | | Q. | Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 10310 of SAFETEA-LU]....................................................... 48 | | R. | Cameron Gulbransen Kids Transportation Safety Act of 2007........................................................... 49 | ## SUBCHAPTER I. GENERAL ## § 30101. Purpose and policy The purpose of this chapter is to reduce traffic accidents and deaths and injuries resulting from traffic accidents. Therefore it is necessary-- - (1) to prescribe motor vehicle safety standards for motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment in interstate commerce; and - (2) to carry out needed safety research and development. ## § 30102. Definitions"", '""SEC. 15. Improving criteria used in a recall. - ""(a) Review of standards and criteria used in opening a defect or noncompliance investigation. The Secretary shall, not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, undertake a comprehensive review of all standards, criteria, procedures, and methods, including data management and analysis used by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration in determining whether to open a defect or noncompliance investigation pursuant to subchapter II or IV of chapter 301 of title 49, United States Code, and shall undertake such steps as may be necessary to update and improve such standards, criteria, procedures, or methods, including data management and analysis. - ""(b) Report to Congress. Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate a report describing the Secretary\'s findings and actions under subsection (a)."". I. J. ## ANTON\'S LAW [[Page 116 STAT. 2772]] Public Law 107-318 107th Congress Approved: December 4, 2002 ## An Act To provide for the improvement of the safety of child restraints in passenger motor vehicles, and for other purposes. Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 16. Follow-up report. ""One year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall report to the Congress on the implementation of the amendments made by this Act and any recommendations for additional amendments for consumer safety."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 17. Authorization of appropriations.']",hard,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information about a subsection (a) or a subparagraph (B) that would allow for determining whether subsection (a) can take effect before the final rule under subparagraph (B) is implemented. Therefore, the question cannot be answered based on the available context.",5,Regulatory implementation timing,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""SEC. 3 - (d). Insurance study. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a study to determine the potential impacts of requiring motor carriers to obtain higher levels of insurance coverage.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Various regulatory sections discussing implementation timelines for different rules and requirements in transportation regulations.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about regulatory processes and implementation schedules for transportation safety measures.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Details on compliance dates and enforcement periods for various transportation regulations.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Sections discussing regulatory authority and implementation procedures for transportation rules.""}]",The provided context does not contain information about a specific subsection (a) or subparagraph (B) that would allow for determining their implementation order.,7
-31,What is the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer to Federal and Tribal Governments due to jurisdictional changes?,"[""I In 2015, Victor Manuel Castro-Huerta lived in Tulsa, Oklahoma, with his wife and their several children, including Castro-Huerta's then-5-year-old stepdaughter, who is a Cherokee Indian. The stepdaughter has cerebral palsy and is legally blind. One day in 2015, Castro-Huerta's sister-inlaw was in the house and noticed that the young girl was sick. After a 911 call, the girl was rushed to a Tulsa hospital in critical condition. Dehydrated, emaciated, and covered in lice and excrement, she weighed only 19 pounds. Investigators later found her bed filled with bedbugs and Opinion of the Court cockroaches. When questioned, Castro-Huerta admitted that he had severely undernourished his stepdaughter during the preceding month. The State of Oklahoma criminally charged both Castro-Huerta and his wife for child neglect. Both were convicted. Castro-Huerta was sentenced to 35 years of imprisonment, with the possibility of parole. This case concerns the State's prosecution of Castro-Huerta. After Castro-Huerta was convicted and while his appeal was pending in state court, this Court decided McGirt v. Oklahoma, 591 U. S. \\_\\_\\_ (2020). In McGirt, the Court held that Congress had never properly disestablished the Creek Nation's reservation in eastern Oklahoma. As a result, the Court concluded that the Creek Reservation remained 'Indian country.' Id., at \\_\\_\\_ -\\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 1-3, 17, 28). The status of that part of Oklahoma as Indian country meant that different jurisdictional rules might apply for the prosecution of criminal offenses in that area. See 18 U. S. C. §§1151-1153. Based on McGirt's reasoning, the Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals later recognized that several other Indian reservations in Oklahoma had likewise never been properly disestablished. See, e.g., State ex rel. Matloff v."", ""## Syllabus in connection with this case, at the time the opinion is issued. syllabus constitutes no part of the opinion of the Court but has been Decisions for the convenience of the reader. Co., NOTE: Where it is feasible, a syllabus (headnote) will be released, as is being done The prepared by the Reporter of See United States v. Detroit Timber & Lumber 200 U. S. 321, 337. ## SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES ## Syllabus ## OKLAHOMA v. CASTRO-HUERTA ## CERTIORARI TO THE COURT OF CRIMINAL APPEALS OF OKLAHOMA No. 21-429. Argued April 27, 2022-Decided June 29, 2022 Manuel Castro-Huerta was charged by the In 2015, respondent Victor State of Oklahoma for child neglect. Castro-Huerta was convicted in state court and sentenced to 35 years of imprisonment. While CastroHuerta's state-court appeal was pending, this Court decided McGirt v. Oklahoma, 591 U. S. \\_\\_\\_. There, the Court held that the Creek Nation's reservation in eastern Oklahoma had never been properly disestablished and therefore remained 'Indian country.' Id., at \\_\\_\\_. In light of McGirt, the eastern part of Oklahoma, including Tulsa, is recognized as Indian country. Following this development, CastroHuerta argued that the Federal Government had exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute him (a non-Indian) for a crime committed against his stepdaughter (a Cherokee Indian) in Tulsa (Indian country), and that the State therefore lacked jurisdiction to prosecute him. The Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals agreed and vacated his conviction. This Court granted certiorari to determine the extent of a State's jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdicHeld : tion to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Pp. 4-25."", ""This case is the first time that the matter has been fully explored by this Court. Until the Court's decision in McGirt two years ago, this ------ ## Opinion of the Court question likewise did not matter much in Oklahoma. Most everyone in Oklahoma previously understood that the State included almost no Indian country. McGirt, 590 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (slip op., at 31-32). But after McGirt, about 43% of Oklahoma-including Tulsa-is now considered Indian country. Therefore, the question of whether the State of Oklahoma retains concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute non-Indian on Indian crimes in Indian country has suddenly assumed immense importance. The jurisdictional question has now been called. In light of the newfound significance of the question, it is necessary and appropriate for this Court to take its first hard look at the text and structure of the General Crimes Act, rather than relying on scattered dicta about a question that, until now, was relatively insignificant in the real world. After independently examining the question, we have concluded that the General Crimes Act does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Castro-Huerta next invokes Public Law 280 as a source of preemption. That argument is similarly unpersuasive. Indian country. Indeed, the Public Law 280 affirmatively grants certain States broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. See 18 U. S. C. §1162. (Other States may opt in, with tribal consent. 25 U. S. C. §1321.) But Public Law 280 does not preempt any preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction that States possess to prosecute crimes in Court has already concluded as much: 'Nothing in the language or legislative history of Pub. L. 280 indicates that it was meant to divest States of pre-existing and otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction.' Three Affiliated Tribes of Fort Berthold Reservation v. Wold Engineering, P. C., 467 ## Opinion of the Court"", ""Matloff v. Wallace, 2021 OK CR 21, ¶15, 497 P. 3d 686, 689 (reaffirming recognition of the Cherokee, Choctaw, and Chickasaw Reservations); Grayson v. State, 2021 OK CR 8, ¶10, 485 P. 3d 250, 254 (Seminole Reservation). In light of McGirt and the follow-on cases, the eastern part of Oklahoma, including Tulsa, is now recognized as Indian country. About two million people live there, and the vast majority are not Indians. The classification of eastern Oklahoma as Indian country has raised urgent questions about which government or governments have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed there. This case is an example: a crime committed in what is now recognized as Indian country (Tulsa) by a non- ## Opinion of the Court Indian (Castro-Huerta) against an Indian (his stepdaughter). All agree that the Federal Government has jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The question is whether the Federal Government's jurisdiction is exclusive, or whether the State also has concurrent jurisdiction with the Federal Government. In the wake of McGirt, Castro-Huerta argued that the Federal Government's jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by a non-Indian against an Indian in Indian country is exclusive and that the State therefore lacked jurisdiction to prosecute him. The Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals agreed with Castro-Huerta. Relying on an earlier Oklahoma decision holding that the federal General Crimes Act grants the Federal Government exclusive jurisdiction, the court ruled that the State did not have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The court therefore vacated Castro-Huerta's conviction. No. F-2017-1203 (Apr. 29, 2021); see also Bosse v. State, 2021 OK CR 3, 484 P. 3d 286; Roth v. State, 2021 OK CR 27, 499 P. 3d 23.""]",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer to Federal and Tribal Governments due to jurisdictional changes. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",4,Tribal jurisdiction transfer,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In 2015, Victor Manuel Castro-Huerta lived in Tulsa, Oklahoma, with his wife and their several children, including Castro-Huerta's stepdaughter, who is a Cherokee Indian.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Case information about jurisdictional questions in Oklahoma regarding crimes involving Native Americans and tribal lands.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Legal discussion of authority and jurisdiction between state, federal, and tribal governments in Oklahoma.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about court cases and legal precedents affecting criminal jurisdiction in Indian country within Oklahoma.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer.,8
+31,What is the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer to Federal and Tribal Governments due to jurisdictional changes?,"[""I In 2015, Victor Manuel Castro-Huerta lived in Tulsa, Oklahoma, with his wife and their several children, including Castro-Huerta's then-5-year-old stepdaughter, who is a Cherokee Indian. The stepdaughter has cerebral palsy and is legally blind. One day in 2015, Castro-Huerta's sister-inlaw was in the house and noticed that the young girl was sick. After a 911 call, the girl was rushed to a Tulsa hospital in critical condition. Dehydrated, emaciated, and covered in lice and excrement, she weighed only 19 pounds. Investigators later found her bed filled with bedbugs and Opinion of the Court cockroaches. When questioned, Castro-Huerta admitted that he had severely undernourished his stepdaughter during the preceding month. The State of Oklahoma criminally charged both Castro-Huerta and his wife for child neglect. Both were convicted. Castro-Huerta was sentenced to 35 years of imprisonment, with the possibility of parole. This case concerns the State's prosecution of Castro-Huerta. After Castro-Huerta was convicted and while his appeal was pending in state court, this Court decided McGirt v. Oklahoma, 591 U. S. \\_\\_\\_ (2020). In McGirt, the Court held that Congress had never properly disestablished the Creek Nation's reservation in eastern Oklahoma. As a result, the Court concluded that the Creek Reservation remained 'Indian country.' Id., at \\_\\_\\_ -\\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 1-3, 17, 28). The status of that part of Oklahoma as Indian country meant that different jurisdictional rules might apply for the prosecution of criminal offenses in that area. See 18 U. S. C. §§1151-1153. Based on McGirt's reasoning, the Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals later recognized that several other Indian reservations in Oklahoma had likewise never been properly disestablished. See, e.g., State ex rel. Matloff v."", ""## Syllabus in connection with this case, at the time the opinion is issued. syllabus constitutes no part of the opinion of the Court but has been Decisions for the convenience of the reader. Co., NOTE: Where it is feasible, a syllabus (headnote) will be released, as is being done The prepared by the Reporter of See United States v. Detroit Timber & Lumber 200 U. S. 321, 337. ## SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES ## Syllabus ## OKLAHOMA v. CASTRO-HUERTA ## CERTIORARI TO THE COURT OF CRIMINAL APPEALS OF OKLAHOMA No. 21-429. Argued April 27, 2022-Decided June 29, 2022 Manuel Castro-Huerta was charged by the In 2015, respondent Victor State of Oklahoma for child neglect. Castro-Huerta was convicted in state court and sentenced to 35 years of imprisonment. While CastroHuerta's state-court appeal was pending, this Court decided McGirt v. Oklahoma, 591 U. S. \\_\\_\\_. There, the Court held that the Creek Nation's reservation in eastern Oklahoma had never been properly disestablished and therefore remained 'Indian country.' Id., at \\_\\_\\_. In light of McGirt, the eastern part of Oklahoma, including Tulsa, is recognized as Indian country. Following this development, CastroHuerta argued that the Federal Government had exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute him (a non-Indian) for a crime committed against his stepdaughter (a Cherokee Indian) in Tulsa (Indian country), and that the State therefore lacked jurisdiction to prosecute him. The Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals agreed and vacated his conviction. This Court granted certiorari to determine the extent of a State's jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdicHeld : tion to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Pp. 4-25."", ""This case is the first time that the matter has been fully explored by this Court. Until the Court's decision in McGirt two years ago, this ------ ## Opinion of the Court question likewise did not matter much in Oklahoma. Most everyone in Oklahoma previously understood that the State included almost no Indian country. McGirt, 590 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (slip op., at 31-32). But after McGirt, about 43% of Oklahoma-including Tulsa-is now considered Indian country. Therefore, the question of whether the State of Oklahoma retains concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute non-Indian on Indian crimes in Indian country has suddenly assumed immense importance. The jurisdictional question has now been called. In light of the newfound significance of the question, it is necessary and appropriate for this Court to take its first hard look at the text and structure of the General Crimes Act, rather than relying on scattered dicta about a question that, until now, was relatively insignificant in the real world. After independently examining the question, we have concluded that the General Crimes Act does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Castro-Huerta next invokes Public Law 280 as a source of preemption. That argument is similarly unpersuasive. Indian country. Indeed, the Public Law 280 affirmatively grants certain States broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. See 18 U. S. C. §1162. (Other States may opt in, with tribal consent. 25 U. S. C. §1321.) But Public Law 280 does not preempt any preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction that States possess to prosecute crimes in Court has already concluded as much: 'Nothing in the language or legislative history of Pub. L. 280 indicates that it was meant to divest States of pre-existing and otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction.' Three Affiliated Tribes of Fort Berthold Reservation v. Wold Engineering, P. C., 467 ## Opinion of the Court"", ""Matloff v. Wallace, 2021 OK CR 21, ¶15, 497 P. 3d 686, 689 (reaffirming recognition of the Cherokee, Choctaw, and Chickasaw Reservations); Grayson v. State, 2021 OK CR 8, ¶10, 485 P. 3d 250, 254 (Seminole Reservation). In light of McGirt and the follow-on cases, the eastern part of Oklahoma, including Tulsa, is now recognized as Indian country. About two million people live there, and the vast majority are not Indians. The classification of eastern Oklahoma as Indian country has raised urgent questions about which government or governments have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed there. This case is an example: a crime committed in what is now recognized as Indian country (Tulsa) by a non- ## Opinion of the Court Indian (Castro-Huerta) against an Indian (his stepdaughter). All agree that the Federal Government has jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The question is whether the Federal Government's jurisdiction is exclusive, or whether the State also has concurrent jurisdiction with the Federal Government. In the wake of McGirt, Castro-Huerta argued that the Federal Government's jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by a non-Indian against an Indian in Indian country is exclusive and that the State therefore lacked jurisdiction to prosecute him. The Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals agreed with Castro-Huerta. Relying on an earlier Oklahoma decision holding that the federal General Crimes Act grants the Federal Government exclusive jurisdiction, the court ruled that the State did not have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The court therefore vacated Castro-Huerta's conviction. No. F-2017-1203 (Apr. 29, 2021); see also Bosse v. State, 2021 OK CR 3, 484 P. 3d 286; Roth v. State, 2021 OK CR 27, 499 P. 3d 23.""]",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer to Federal and Tribal Governments due to jurisdictional changes. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",4,Tribal jurisdiction transfer,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In 2015, Victor Manuel Castro-Huerta lived in Tulsa, Oklahoma, with his wife and their several children, including Castro-Huerta's stepdaughter, who is a Cherokee Indian.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Case information about jurisdictional questions in Oklahoma regarding crimes involving Native Americans and tribal lands.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Legal discussion of authority and jurisdiction between state, federal, and tribal governments in Oklahoma.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about court cases and legal precedents affecting criminal jurisdiction in Indian country within Oklahoma.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about the estimated number of cases per year that Oklahoma will need to transfer.,8
 2166,What futuristic-sounding freezing method turns 'fresh' veggies into 'fresh frozen' time capsules?,"[""## are the criteria for determining if a statement is a disease claim? S7. What are 10 criteria in the final rule entitled 'Regulations on Made for Dietary Supplements Concerning the Effect of the on the Structure or Function of the Body', published on January 6, in the Federal Register FR 1000-1050) that are useful in determining a statement is a disease claim. These 10 criteria can be found in the: Claims Small Entity Compliance Guide: ComplianceRegulatoryInformation/Guidance Answer: There Statements Product 2000 (65, if Structure/Function http://www.fda.gov/Food/Guidance Documents/DietarySupplements/ucm103340. ## 9. APPENDIX A: ## DEFINITIONS OF NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS ## Content Claims ('Free,' 'Low,' 'Reduced/Less') | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Synonyms for 'Free' 'Zero', 'No','Without', 'Trivial Source of', 'Dietarily Insignificant Source of' Definitions for 'Free' for meals and main dishes are the stated values per labeled serving but are not defined for calories | Synonyms for 'Low': 'Little', ('Few' for Calories), 'Contains a Small Amount of', 'Low Source of' | Synonyms for 'Reduced/Less': 'Lower' ('Fewer' for Calories) 'Modified' may be used in statement of identity Definitions for meals and main dishes are same as for individual foods on a per 100 g basis | For 'Free', 'Very Low', or 'Low', must indicate if food meets a definition without benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation or reformulation;"", ""list for which FDA has provided data CFR 101.45(c)(1)). labeling values for foods not on FDA's lists are subject to the provisions of CFR 101.9(g). consumed (21 Nutrition compliance 21 ## package fresh tomatoes and want to put nutrition labeling on the Should we follow the guidelines for the voluntary program raw fruit, vegetables, and fish CFR 101.45) the nutrition format required by CFR 101.9? L145.We package. for (21 or labeling 21 providing nutrition information on the package, even when labeling is otherwise voluntary, the information must be presented a format that is consistent with the format requirements in CFR Answer: When nutrition in 21 101.9(d). ## does FDA define 'raw fruit and vegetables' for the voluntary labeling program? Are fresh herbs and nuts included under voluntary nutrition labeling program if they are sold in the produce of retail stores? L146.How nutrition the section fresh herbs and nuts (e.g., walnuts, peanuts) that have no added such as salt, and that are sold in the produce section would be from nutrition labeling under the voluntary program. However, when or unshelled nuts or produce are processed in a manner other than with other raw produce items, peeling, trimming, or cutting, (e.g., fruit, roasted nuts, frozen melon balls), nutrition labeling is required CFR 101.9. Accordingly, ingredients, exempt shelled mixing dried under 21"", ""## is a Health Claim? H1. What health claims are limited to claims about disease risk reduction, and be claims about the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, or treatment of Health claims are required to be reviewed and evaluated by FDA prior use. An example of an authorized health claim, is: 'Three grams of soluble from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 grams per serving.' Further, cannot disease. to fiber reduce claim means any claim made on the label or in labeling of a including a dietary supplement, that expressly or by implication, 'third party' references, written statements (e.g., a brand name a term such as 'heart'), symbols (e.g., a heart symbol), or vignettes, the relationship of any substance to a disease or health-related Implied health claims include those statements, symbols, vignettes, other forms of communication that suggest, within the context in which are presented, that a relationship exists between the presence or level of a in the food and a disease or health-related condition (see CFR Answer: Health food, including including characterizes condition. or they substance 21 101.14(a)(1)). ## health claims are permitted on food labels? H2. What a claim is provided for in a FDA regulation, then it may be used accordance with that regulation. A firm may also submit a health claim based on an authoritative statement by a U.S. government body under section the FD&C Act. The criteria to use health claims provided for by FDA are summarized in C of this guidance. CFR 101.9(k)(1), 101.14(c)-(d) & CFR 101.70 Answer: If in notification scientific 403(r)(3)(c) of necessary Appendix 21 21 ## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How"", '## a food that is normally low in or free of a nutrient bear a ""Low"" or claim if it has an appropriate disclaimer (e.g., fat free broccoli)? N24. May ""Free"" Only foods that have been specially processed, altered, or reformulated so as to lower the amount of nutrient in the remove the nutrient from the food, or not include the nutrient in the may bear such a claim (e.g., ""low sodium potato chips""). Other foods may make a statement that refers to all foods of that type (e.g., ""corn oil, a food"" or ""broccoli, a fat-free food""). CFR 101.13(e)(1)-(2) Answer: No. formulated, food, food only sodium-free 21 ## is a formulated food considered to be specially processed and to bear a ""low"" or ""free"" claim? N25. When permitted a similar food would normally be expected to contain a nutrient, as sodium in canned peas, and the labeled food is made in such a that it has little or none of the nutrient, then the food is considered processed and may bear a ""free"" or a ""low"" claim. CFR Answer: If such manner specially 21 101.13(e)(1) ## a product is made that does not have a regular version, such as a mix, and salt is not included in it, may the product be labeled free?"" N26. If spice ""sodium FDA would consider that the food was formulated so as not to the nutrient in the food and therefore it would be eligible to bear a free"" claim if the product otherwise meets the criteria for the term free."" Answer: Yes. include ""sodium ""sodium ## a ""fat free"" claim be made even though the product is essentially fat, for example, a cooking oil spray that has a very small serving N27. May 100% size? the food has less than 0.5 grams of fat per RACC and qualifies to make a ""fat free"" claim, such a claim on a product that Answer: Although technically', ""## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How health claims that meet the Significant Scientific Agreement standard and Qualified Health Claims (QHCs) characterize the between a substance to a disease or health-related condition (see CFR 101.14). (S/F) claims describe the effect that a has on the structure or function of the body and do not make to a disease. Both S/F and health claims can be used on the label in the labeling of conventional foods and dietary supplements. An of a S/F claim is 'Calcium builds strong bones.' S/F claims must be and not misleading and are not pre-reviewed or authorized by FDA. U.S.C. 343(r)(6) and 21 CFR 101.93 Answer: Both (SSA) relationship 21 Structure/function substance reference and example truthful 21 ## are health claims different from statements about dietary H4. How guidance? examples of an authorized health claim, which by definition must the elements of a substance and a disease or health-related condition, 'Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 per serving.' and 'Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that 25 grams of soy protein a day may reduce the risk of heart disease'. Two contain are: fat grams include health claims that meet the SSA standard and QHCs a relationship between a substance and a disease or health-related (see CFR 101.14). elements of 1) a substance and 2) a are present in a health claim. Dietary guidance does not contain both (and therefore does not constitute a health claim, but may contain element or another. Typically, dietary guidance statements make reference a category of foods (i.e., a grouping that is not readily characterized and not to a specific substance. The following illustrations be helpful: Answer: Both characterize condition 21 Both disease elements one to compositionally) may""]",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about futuristic-sounding freezing methods or 'fresh frozen' time capsules for vegetables. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",5,Food preservation methods,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""What are the criteria for determining if a statement is a disease claim? S7. Section discusses standards for evaluating health-related food claims.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about food labeling regulations including standards for nutrition claims and descriptive terms.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Regulatory guidelines for food product descriptions, marketing claims, and labeling requirements.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Details about food safety standards and requirements for various processing methods.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about terminology and claims that can be used on food packaging and in marketing materials.""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about freezing methods for vegetables or 'fresh frozen' preservation techniques.,9
 5309,What's the deal with states and their weird timing for handing out licenses?,"['- · At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics when collected, and number of exams administered should be made available to the public. Reports should include first-time pass success and average scoring by subject area. Whenever possible, the reports should be available by education provider and provided to them. - · A state advisory committee consisting of state insurance regulators and the industry-including, where possible, recently licensed producers-should annually work with the testing vendor to review the questions on each examination form for substantive and psychometric requirements. If, during any other time, any examination results exhibit significant unexplained deviations, the examination should be reviewed. - · States should work with testing vendors and approve CIBs that describe the examinations and examination policies and procedures, and provide sufficient examination content outline and study references for the candidate to prepare for the examination. Updated editions of the CIB/content outline should be provided to prelicensing education providers at least six weeks in advance of implementation so that training materials can be updated. - · Testing should be made available at locations reasonably convenient to residents of all areas of the state, with registration available online or by telephone and the ability for a candidate to schedule testing within two to five business days of registration. - · Pass/fail notices should be issued at exam sites upon completion of the exam. The fail notice should break out scores by subject area. The state should provide a method to facilitate prompt retesting, while allowing a reasonable time for candidates to review and prepare for retest. - · States should deliver exams in a secure test center network that employs qualified test proctors. - · States should set clear performance standards for test vendors and require accountability. ## Chapter 9 ## Lines of Insurance ## The Major Lines', ""## Secure Administration The security of the test center network is important in maintaining the integrity of a test. A vendor should be equipped with adequate security features and qualified test center administrators. Each proctor should be trained and tested on his or her ability to supervise exams. A vendor should have systems in place to ensure the fair, consistent and even administration of the exam in every location. A vendor should also have a method to detect attempts to record questions. For example, a vendor should track multiple examination attempts by individuals to assess if the candidate is intentionally failing the exam so it can be repeated. A vendor should be required to notify the state immediately if the vendor suspects that the integrity of an examination has been compromised. ## Test Locations and Registration Test locations should be set up to provide flexibility and convenience. Realizing that the states have different geographic challenges and diverse population density, a state should consider, where possible, requiring the following elements: - 1. Testing should be made available at locations convenient to residents of all areas of the state. - 2. Test locations should provide enough testing capacity so a candidate can test at the desired location within two to five business days of registration. - 3. Exam site hours should include evening and weekend hours. - 4. Test vendors should provide regular reports, as required by the state, detailing site usage and availability data. - 5. Test registration should be available online or by telephone and allow for next day testing when space is available. A state should consider tracking telephone hold and wait times to monitor how long callers wait. - 6. State guidelines should provide for flexible means for payment of fees for testing, fingerprinting and other licensing. States should consider methods that facilitate payment by companies. ## Disabilities A state should require a vendor to develop a system that accommodates the physically impaired that is not related to a testing candidate's knowledge of insurance. Visually-impaired and hearing-impaired persons should be accommodated through all steps of the licensing process, pursuant to national standards set by the federal Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). ## Examinations in Languages Other Than English"", ""- 7. In performing background checks, the use of an electronic process should be required whenever possible. - 8. In those states requiring fingerprints, where possible, exam sites should have the capability to collect electronic fingerprints. ## Retesting or Notice of Failure A state licensing plan should include a method to facilitate prompt retesting of applicants who have failed a test. The 'non-passing' notice should break scores out by each subject area. If the candidate requests to make another attempt, an examination should be made available within a reasonable time period. ## Producer Exam Content and Testing Administration Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · States should use accepted psychometric methods, including job analysis, to determine if the examination content falls within the content domain that a minimally competent candidate of that specific line of authority tested would be expected to know. - · States should set passing scores-cut scores-and difficulty level using psychometric methods and appropriate SMEs based on what an entry-level producer needs to know. - · States are encouraged to move to one-part exams to allow for more success among candidates without jeopardizing consumer protections. - · States should require the test vendor, or other entity responsible for test development, to document the process for ensuring quality control and validity of the examination, including psychometric review and editing and analysis of item bias or cultural and gender sensitivity. - · To allow for meaningful comparison, all jurisdictions should define first-time pass rate as the percentage of candidates who pass the whole test the first time. - · At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics when collected, and number of exams administered should be made available to the public. Reports should include first-time pass success and average scoring by subject area. Whenever possible, the reports should be available by education provider and provided to them.""]",hard,follow-up,"The question about 'weird timing for handing out licenses' is not clear enough to provide a specific answer based on the available context. Could you clarify what aspect of the timing you are referring to? For example, are you asking about the time it takes to schedule an exam, the time between failing and retaking an exam, or the time it takes to receive a license after passing the exam?",3,State licensing procedures,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Secure Administration: The security of the test center network is important in maintaining the integrity of the examination program.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics, and testing accommodations are produced for review by state agencies.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information about licensing examination procedures, reporting requirements, and administration standards across different states.""}]",The question about 'weird timing for handing out licenses' is not clear enough and the context lacks specific information about license issuance timing variations between states.,10
-730,Who keeps an eye on the product makeover process under CPSA section 17(d)?,"[""## EXPORTATION OF NONCOMPLYING GOODS AT PORT Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(e), products refused admission must be destroyed, unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer of record, the Secretary of the Treasury permits the export of the product in lieu of destruction. If the owner, consignee, or importer of record does not export the product within 90 days of approval to export, the product must be destroyed. Pursuant to section 17(f) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(f), all expenses in connection with the destruction, including storage, cartage, or labor with respect to any consumer product refused admission shall be paid by the owner or consignee and, in default of such payment, must constitute a lien against any future importations made by such owner or consignee. ## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FEDERAL HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCES ACT (FHSA) Under section 14 of the FHSA, 15 U.S.C. § 1273, if it appears from CPSC's examination of samples imported or offered for import that a product is a misbranded hazardous substance or banned hazardous substance, such hazardous substance must be refused admission, except as provided below. The Secretary of the Treasury must cause the destruction of any such hazardous substance refused admission, unless it is exported, under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, within 90 days of the date of notice of such refusal, or within such additional time as may be permitted pursuant to such a regulation."", ""(For certain products regulated under the PPPA) section 304(a) of the FD&CA, 21 U.S.C. § 334, states: Any article of food, drug, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded when introduced into or while in interstate commerce or while held for sale (whether or not the first sale) after shipment in interstate commerce, or which may not, under the provisions of section 331( ll ), 344, or 355 of this title, be introduced into interstate commerce, shall be liable to be proceeded against while in interstate commerce, or at any time thereafter, on libel of information and condemned in any district court of the United States or United States court of a Territory within the jurisdiction of which the article is found.... ## SEIZURE UPON REQUEST FOR REDELIVERY For nonconforming imported products which are detained, conditionally released, for which redelivery has been requested, or are otherwise in Customs status, the CPSC reserves the right to request that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) seize the merchandise under its authority for importations contrary to law. In such cases, the importers/owner's rights to redress will convey to CBP for adjudication. ## CHAPTER 3-PRESENTING EVIDENCE THAT A PRODUCT IS NOT VIOLATIVE This Chapter contains the procedures to be followed if a firm disagrees with Commission staff's determination that a product is in violation of a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban administered by the CPSC. ## RESPONDING TO THE CPSC LETTER OF ADVICE (LOA) When the CPSC staff notifies you in a LOA that a product that you manufacture, import, distribute, sell, or offer for sale fails to comply with a CPSC statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, you may present evidence supporting your view if you disagree with staff's determination."", '## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Section 17 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066, authorizes the Commission to refuse admission of any product offered for importation that: fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule, is not accompanied by a certificate required by the CPSA or any other Act enforced by the Commission, or is accompanied by a false certificate, if the manufacturer, in the exercise of due care, has reason to know that the certificate is false or misleading in any material respect, or is not accompanied by any label or certificate (including tracking labels) required under section 14 of the CPSA or any rule or regulation under such section; is or has been determined to be an imminently hazardous consumer product in a proceeding brought under section 12 of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2061); has a product defect which constitutes a substantial product hazard within the meaning of section 15(a)(2) of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2064(a)(2)); or is a product which was manufactured by a person who the Commission has informed the Secretary of the Treasury is in violation of section 17(g) of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2066(g)). Section 17(g) of the CPSA requires manufacturers of imported products to be in compliance with all inspection and recordkeeping requirements under section 16 of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2065). Under section 17(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(b), the CPSC can request the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury to obtain, without charge, samples of products imported or offered for import. If it appears from the examination of such samples, or otherwise, that a product must be refused admission under section 17(a) of the CPSA, the CPSC must refuse admission of the product, unless it permits modification of the product under section 17(c) of the CPSA.']",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information about who oversees the product makeover process under CPSA section 17(d). Therefore, the question cannot be answered based on the available context.",3,Consumer product safety oversight,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""EXPORTATION OF NONCOMPLYING GOODS AT PORT Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 2066(e), products refused admission must be destroyed, unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer, the Secretary of the Treasury permits export.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For certain products regulated under the PPPA, section 304(a) of the FD&CA, 21 U.S.C. \u00a7 334, states that the court shall permit the article to be exported under specific circumstances and supervision.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Section 17 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 2066, grants the Commission authority to refuse admission of noncomplying products.""}]",The provided context does not contain the specific information needed to answer this question about Section 17(d) oversight of product makeover processes.,11
+730,Who keeps an eye on the product makeover process under CPSA section 17(d)?,"[""## EXPORTATION OF NONCOMPLYING GOODS AT PORT Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(e), products refused admission must be destroyed, unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer of record, the Secretary of the Treasury permits the export of the product in lieu of destruction. If the owner, consignee, or importer of record does not export the product within 90 days of approval to export, the product must be destroyed. Pursuant to section 17(f) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(f), all expenses in connection with the destruction, including storage, cartage, or labor with respect to any consumer product refused admission shall be paid by the owner or consignee and, in default of such payment, must constitute a lien against any future importations made by such owner or consignee. ## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FEDERAL HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCES ACT (FHSA) Under section 14 of the FHSA, 15 U.S.C. § 1273, if it appears from CPSC's examination of samples imported or offered for import that a product is a misbranded hazardous substance or banned hazardous substance, such hazardous substance must be refused admission, except as provided below. The Secretary of the Treasury must cause the destruction of any such hazardous substance refused admission, unless it is exported, under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, within 90 days of the date of notice of such refusal, or within such additional time as may be permitted pursuant to such a regulation."", ""(For certain products regulated under the PPPA) section 304(a) of the FD&CA, 21 U.S.C. § 334, states: Any article of food, drug, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded when introduced into or while in interstate commerce or while held for sale (whether or not the first sale) after shipment in interstate commerce, or which may not, under the provisions of section 331( ll ), 344, or 355 of this title, be introduced into interstate commerce, shall be liable to be proceeded against while in interstate commerce, or at any time thereafter, on libel of information and condemned in any district court of the United States or United States court of a Territory within the jurisdiction of which the article is found.... ## SEIZURE UPON REQUEST FOR REDELIVERY For nonconforming imported products which are detained, conditionally released, for which redelivery has been requested, or are otherwise in Customs status, the CPSC reserves the right to request that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) seize the merchandise under its authority for importations contrary to law. In such cases, the importers/owner's rights to redress will convey to CBP for adjudication. ## CHAPTER 3-PRESENTING EVIDENCE THAT A PRODUCT IS NOT VIOLATIVE This Chapter contains the procedures to be followed if a firm disagrees with Commission staff's determination that a product is in violation of a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban administered by the CPSC. ## RESPONDING TO THE CPSC LETTER OF ADVICE (LOA) When the CPSC staff notifies you in a LOA that a product that you manufacture, import, distribute, sell, or offer for sale fails to comply with a CPSC statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, you may present evidence supporting your view if you disagree with staff's determination."", '## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Section 17 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066, authorizes the Commission to refuse admission of any product offered for importation that: fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule, is not accompanied by a certificate required by the CPSA or any other Act enforced by the Commission, or is accompanied by a false certificate, if the manufacturer, in the exercise of due care, has reason to know that the certificate is false or misleading in any material respect, or is not accompanied by any label or certificate (including tracking labels) required under section 14 of the CPSA or any rule or regulation under such section; is or has been determined to be an imminently hazardous consumer product in a proceeding brought under section 12 of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2061); has a product defect which constitutes a substantial product hazard within the meaning of section 15(a)(2) of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2064(a)(2)); or is a product which was manufactured by a person who the Commission has informed the Secretary of the Treasury is in violation of section 17(g) of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2066(g)). Section 17(g) of the CPSA requires manufacturers of imported products to be in compliance with all inspection and recordkeeping requirements under section 16 of the CPSA (15 U.S.C. § 2065). Under section 17(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2066(b), the CPSC can request the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury to obtain, without charge, samples of products imported or offered for import. If it appears from the examination of such samples, or otherwise, that a product must be refused admission under section 17(a) of the CPSA, the CPSC must refuse admission of the product, unless it permits modification of the product under section 17(c) of the CPSA.']",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information about who oversees the product makeover process under CPSA section 17(d). Therefore, the question cannot be answered based on the available context.",3,Consumer product safety oversight,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""EXPORTATION OF NONCOMPLYING GOODS AT PORT Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 2066(e), products refused admission must be destroyed, unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer, the Secretary of the Treasury permits export.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For certain products regulated under the PPPA, section 304(a) of the FD&CA, 21 U.S.C. \u00a7 334, states that the court shall permit the article to be exported under specific circumstances and supervision.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Section 17 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 2066, grants the Commission authority to refuse admission of noncomplying products.""}]",The provided context does not contain the specific information needed to answer this question about Section 17(d) oversight of product makeover processes.,11
 3977,Provide the contact information for questions related to this Order.,"[""## 2. POLICY Pursuant to Executive Order 13423, Section 1: It is the policy of the United States that Federal agencies conduct their environmental, transportation, and energy-related activities under the law in support of their respective missions in an environmentally, economically and fiscally sound, integrated, continuously improving, efficient, and sustainable manner. Pursuant to DOT Policy Order 4356, the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct 1992), the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (EPAct 2005), the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA), the General Services Administration's (GSA) Federal Management Regulation (FMR), and EO 13514, or as superseded the Department must acquire alternative fuel vehicles (AFVs) and low GHG emissions vehicles, reduce petroleum consumption, increase alternative fuel consumption, and optimize the number and types of vehicles in its fleet. ## 3. APPLICABILITY This Order applies to all DOT offices, including Federal employees and contractors who operate and maintain Government-owned or leased vehicles. DOT offices shall use this Order to ensure that they are performing proper and effective fleet management and are collecting and applying appropriate fleet management data to accomplish mission requirements. Additionally, DOT must ensure that all Government-owned, contractor-operated (GOCO) vehicles comply with the requirements of this Order. This Order applies to all primary contracts, and all subcontractors to the primary contracts, unless exempt; therefore, Contracting Officers shall ensure that this Order is listed as a requirement in each applicable contract. This Order applies to all DOT employees and contractors involved in all phases of administration, planning, programming, budgeting, operations, maintenance, and training activities that affect the procurement, operation, maintenance, and disposal of DOT's motor vehicle and equipment fleet. With the exception of Section II, Safety and Accident Reporting, Paragraph c., this Order does not apply when employees receive reimbursement for the use of their privately owned vehicles (POV) at the official business mileage rate or when employees rent vehicles while on official travel. Nor does it apply to contract employees driving contractor-owned vehicles. ## I. Official Use of Government Owned, Rented, and Leased Vehicles"", ""## 4. RESPONSIBILITIES - a. DOT Deputy Secretary of Transportation: Serves as the senior official responsible for evaluating the performance of each OA through regular reviews of each OA's Leadership in Sustainability Scorecard. - b. DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA): Provides departmental leadership and develops DOT policy on issues related to human resources, security, acquisition and grants, information services, energy, environment management and sustainability, transportation, facilities, and space management. Also, reviews and approves OA fleet management strategies (e.g. waivers and exemptions, and acquisitions). - c. DOT Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Budget and Programs (CFO): Serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of Transportation on the development, review, and presentation of the Department's budget resource requirements and allocations. The CFO provides oversight of the Department's program performance and is responsible for all aspects of financial management, including provision of a point of contact as a required signatory for the FMP that the DOT Fleet Manager must submit annually. - d. DOT Fleet Manager: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited - to: - i. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet meets or exceeds all applicable fleet management requirements, including DOT-specific goals and requirements; - ii. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet is right-sized to the fleet's mission; - iii. Facilitates the implementation of petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide; - iv. Monitors the performance of the overall DOT fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use; - v. Provides support to OA fleet managers in selecting fleet management strategies; - vi. Provides recommendations to ASA on OA fleet management strategies (e.g., waivers and exemptions, acquisitions, etc.); - vii. Refines DOT fleet management strategies based on performance and provides recommendations to the ASA; - viii. Ensures that all reports identified in Section 5 of this Order, Monitoring for Policy Compliance, are complete, accurate, and on time; and"", ""## 1. PURPOSE The mission of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is to ensure a fast, safe, efficient, accessible and convenient transportation system that meets vital national interests and enhances the quality of life of the American people. This Order conveys policy, delegates authority, and assigns responsibility to ensure that DOT, including its Operating Administrations (OAs), meet all legal and regulatory requirements related to environmentally responsible procurement, operation, maintenance, and disposal of motor vehicles in fulfillment of that mission. This Order supplements and implements the Federal Management Regulations (FMR) 102-34, which documents the Government-wide policy on motor vehicles. A key goal of the Order is to ensure compliance with Federal mandates affecting the DOT Motor Vehicle Fleet Program and the management and operation of its vehicles and equipment, such as Executive Orders (E.O.s), Federal statutes, and DOT Directives. This Order is closely tied to DOT's Fleet Sustainability Order 4359 and there is a great deal of overlap in its goals and objectives. This Order applies to DOT actions and activities that affect its motor vehicle fleet, including DOTowned and leased vehicles. In addition, this Order directs DOT to optimize its fleet while ensuring that it can fulfill the Department's mission, reduce the use of petroleum and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, and increase the use of alternative fuels in fleet vehicles. In addition to contributing to reduced use of petroleum and reduced GHG emissions through purchasing its own fleet, the DOT, through the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), jointly with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have issued regulations requiring improved fuel economy and reduced GHG emissions for light duty vehicles, as well as regulations requiring increased fuel efficiency and reduced GHG emissions for medium- and heavy-duty vehicles, contributing to reduced petroleum consumption and reduced GHG emissions in the national fleet. The requirements of this Order shall not restrict or inhibit DOT operations or the safety of the traveling public. ## 2. POLICY"", ""- n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall: - i. Establish and publish local procedures for GSA leased and DOT-owned vehicles that describe what will be done if your fleet vehicles or equipment breakdown, including breakdowns that occur after hours. - ii. Include elements in the procedures such as name, address, and phone number of service provider(s), details of any contractual arrangements, and what each service provider is expected to do. - iii. Secure and publish the name, address, and phone number of wrecking/towing service providers. - iv. Establish contract services to handle requirements such as towing and flat tire repair as needed. - o. Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications. ## X. Disposal and/or Resale of Motor Vehicles FMR 102-34.300 prescribes guidelines for the transfer, storage, and disposal of Governmentowned motor vehicles. DOT's policy is that DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need. OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should consider using the exchange/sale authority (40 U.S.C. § 503) to reduce the cost of replacement personal property. When you have personal property that is wearing out or obsolete and must be replaced, you should consider either exchanging or selling that property and using the exchange allowance or sales proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement personal property.""]",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not include specific contact information for questions related to this Order. Therefore, I cannot provide the requested details based on the available information.",4,Executive order contact information,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""POLICY Pursuant to Executive Order 13423, Section 1: It is the policy of the United States that Federal agencies conduct their operations in an environmentally, economically and fiscally sound manner.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""RESPONSIBILITIES - DOT Deputy Secretary of Transportation: Serves as the senior official responsible for implementing the policy set forth in this Order and reports to the Secretary on progress.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""PURPOSE The mission of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is to ensure a fast, safe, efficient, accessible and convenient transportation system that meets vital national interests.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure that unscheduled maintenance or repairs are completed promptly and efficiently.""}]",The provided context does not contain any contact information for questions related to this Executive Order.,12
 5407,Explain how bail bonds work.,"[""Some states regulate bail bonds through the insurance department, and others leave the administration to the discretion of the court system. It is usually required that a bail bond insurer file a power of attorney with the local court authority. This power of attorney is proof to the court that the bail agent is authorized to write bonds for that insurer up to a certain dollar amount. State insurance departments vary in the manner in which bail bond activities are regulated. There is no NAIC model to guide state licensing directors for bail bond agents. A number of states use the surety line of authority (LOA) to regulate only the bonds that are insurance-based. In other states, a more comprehensive system has been developed that includes examinations, background checks, and personal integrity bonds. The majority of bail bond transactions are executed by resident bail bond agents. Some states prohibit nonresident bail bond agents. In many states, the state court system and local county sheriff may also have a process for approval of bail bond agents. States that regulate bail bond agents should consider including the following elements in their regulatory scheme: - 1. Minimum content and disclosure requirements for the bail bond contract. - 2. Detailed record-keeping. - 3. Requirement that bail funds be segregated in a trust account. - 4. Appointments for all bail bond agents. - 5. Written examination. - 6. Background check, including fingerprints. - 7. Prelicensing education on state laws and bond procedures. - 8. Completion of continuing education (CE). - 9. Laws that clearly place liability on insurers' appointed bail bond agents who fail to comply with state law on bail bonds and return of collateral. - 10. Cross reference the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) and the state's unfair trade practices act to apply penalties for misconduct. - 11. Laws that create a fiduciary relationship between the bail bond agent and the criminal defendant. - 12. Dialogue with the appropriate state court and law enforcement officials to coordinate efforts at regulating bail bond agents. - 13. Adoption of a specific list of prohibited activities by bail bond agents. ## Bond Forfeiture"", ""## Bond Forfeiture Forfeiture enforcement may or may not be the responsibility of the state insurance department. In some states, enforcement is left to the court system. This may result in a bail agent's bond privileges being revoked in a particular county. If enforcement is the responsibility of the state insurance department, the state will likely have authority to suspend or revoke the license of a bail agent. ## Prohibited Activities The following list contains excerpts from several states' laws and regulations regarding bail bond agent licenses. This is a suggested starting point for states to draft a list of prohibited activities for bail bond agents and insurers: S - 1. Pay, rebate, give or promise anything of value to a jailer, peace officer, magistrate, or any other person who has power to arrest or hold a person in custody, or to any public official or public employee for the purpose of securing a settlement, compromise, remission or reduction of the amount of a bail bond, or to secure delay or other advantage. This section does not prohibit public reward paid for the return of a fugitive. - 2. Pay, rebate, give or promise anything of value to an attorney in a bail bond matter, except in defense of an action on a bail bond, collateral or indemnification agreement. - 3. Pay, rebate, give or promise anything of value to a defendant or anyone acting on the defendant's behalf in exchange for a referral of bail bond business. - 4. Recommend a particular attorney to represent a defendant. - 5. Solicit business where a prisoner is confined in or near a courtroom if otherwise prohibited by court order or law. - 6. Sign or countersign a bail bond that the licensee did not execute. ## Immigration Bonds"", '- · Model #218 allows a producer to reinstate a lapsed license within 12 months of expiration, so only resident producers who are reinstating a license lapsed over 12 months should be required to submit fingerprints. - · Work with your state district attorney official to coordinate the review and approval of the enabling statute, which must be approved by the U.S. attorney general to access the Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division of the FBI criminal history record information. - · Establish a set number of times an applicant should be re-fingerprinted-at times, fingerprints are rejected. If refingerprinting is required, and the fingerprints are still rejected, establish a process to perform a state and federal NAME check. - · If your state is unable to use a vendor to electronically collect the cost of the criminal history background check from applicants, work with the National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) to collect this fee from new resident producer applicants during the electronic resident licensing application. - · Work with state officials to establish a reimbursement services agreement (RSA) for the payment of fingerprint or background checks. - · If your jurisdiction is just implementing fingerprinting, reach out to other jurisdictions for suggestions and best practices. - · Develop a system for review of 1033 consent waiver applications, and post relevant information on the department website. - · Post all information regarding 1033 consent waiver requests, approvals and denials on the 1033 SDR - Data Entry Tool. - · Accommodate applicants to the greatest extent possible with flexible hours of operation. - · Allow payment by check, credit card or debit card. ## Chapter 8 ## Testing Programs ## Introduction The states have a responsibility to ensure that licensing examinations are fair, sound, valid and secure. Directors must consider how an exam is developed, who is involved in the development process, how the exam is offered and how security is maintained. Nearly every state has contracted with an outside vendor to assist in examination development and administration. These testing vendors employ test development experts and psychometricians to construct and evaluate examinations.']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain specific information on how bail bonds work. It focuses on regulatory aspects, licensing, and prohibited activities related to bail bonds rather than the operational mechanics of bail bonds themselves.",3,Bail bond regulation,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Some states regulate bail bonds through the insurance department, and others leave the administration to the discretion of the courts.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Bond Forfeiture: Forfeiture enforcement may or may not be the responsibility of the state insurance department depending on the jurisdiction.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Model #218 allows a producer to reinstate a lapsed license within 12 months of expiration, so one could say Model #218 allows a one-year reinstatement period.""}]",The provided context only mentions regulatory aspects of bail bonds but does not explain how bail bonds work as a process or system.,13
-3688,"If I'm sailing north of Exxon Dock #1, what channel should I tune into for general communication?","[""| Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61°05' N., east of 147°20' W., north of 60° N., and west of 146°30' W.; and, all navigable waters in Port Valdez. | | Puget Sound 7 Seattle Traffic -003669957 | 156.700 MHz (Ch. 14) | The waters of Puget Sound, Hood Canal and adjacent waters south of a line connecting Nodule Point and Bush Point in Admiralty Inlet and south of a line drawn due east from the southernmost tip of Possession Point on Whidbey Island to the shoreline. | | Seattle Traffic | 156.250 MHz (Ch. 5A) | The U.S. waters of the Salish Sea east of 124°40.00′ W. including waters south and east of a line drawn from Church Point on Vancouver Island, to Race Rocks Light, due east to the intersection of the U.S./Canadian border at 48°17.88' N. / 123°14.1' W., north-easterly to Hein Bank in position 48°21.094' N. / 123°02.672' W., northerly to Cattle Point Light on San Juan Island, along the shoreline to Lime Kiln Light, to Kellett Bluff Light on Henry Island, along the shoreline to the tip of McCracken Point at the northernmost point of Henry Island, to the southernmost point on Stuart Island in position 48°39.46' N. / 123°11.08' W., along the shoreline to Turn Point Light, to Sandy Point on Waldron Island, along the shoreline to Point Hammond, to Patos Island Light, to Alden Bank in position 48°50.39' N. / 122°52.227' W., then due north to Boundary Bay in position 49°00.125' N."", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W."", ""| | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′ 30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP and on the south by a line drawn perpendicularly at 29°55.3′ N 089°55.6′ W (Saxonholm Light) at 86.0 miles AHP. | | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.05A) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River below 30°38.7′ N 091°17.5′ W (Port Hudson Light) at 254.5 miles AHP bounded on the south by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP. | | New York -003669951 | | | | New York Traffic | 156.550 MHz (Ch. 11) -For Sailing Plans only 156.600 MHz (Ch. 12) -For vessels at anchor | The area consists of the navigable waters of the Lower New York Bay bounded on the east by a line drawn from Norton Point to Breezy Point; on the south by a line connecting the entrance buoys at the Ambrose Channel, Swash Channel, and Sandy Hook Channel to Sandy Hook Point; and on the southeast including the waters of Sandy Hook Bay south to a line drawn at latitude 40°25' N; then west in the Raritan Bay to the Raritan River Railroad Bridge, then north into waters of the Arthur Kill and Newark Bay to the Lehigh Valley Draw Bridge at latitude 40°41.9' N; and then east including the waters of the Kill Van Kull and the Upper New York Bay north to a line drawn east-west from the Holland Tunnel ventilator shaft at latitude 40°43.7' N, longitude 74°01.6' W, in the Hudson River;"", 'TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude | Notes | |--------------|-------------------|------------------------------------|-----------------------------------|------------------| | 1A | Cape Hinchinbrook | Cape Hinchinbrook | 60°1618 N; 146°4530 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 1B | Schooner Rock | Schooner Rock | 60°1842 N; 146°5136 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 2A | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 2B | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0500 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 3A | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Embark) | 60°5036 N; 146°5730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 3B | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Disembark) | 60°5100 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 4A | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°4730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 4B | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°5000 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 5 | Entrance Island | Entrance Island Light | 61°0524 N; 146°3730 W. ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | | ## § 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River.']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not include information about Exxon Dock #1 or its location, so I cannot determine the appropriate communication channel for sailing north of it.",4,Maritime communication channels,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61\u00b005' N., east of 147\u00b020' W., north of 60\u00b020' N., and west of 146\u00b030' W.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42\u00b025.4' N., longitude 70\u00b054.2' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy '1'.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River between the Huey P. Long Bridge and 12 miles above Head of Passes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude""}]",The provided context does not contain specific information about communication channels for the area north of Exxon Dock #1.,14
+3688,"If I'm sailing north of Exxon Dock #1, what channel should I tune into for general communication?","[""| Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61°05' N., east of 147°20' W., north of 60° N., and west of 146°30' W.; and, all navigable waters in Port Valdez. | | Puget Sound 7 Seattle Traffic -003669957 | 156.700 MHz (Ch. 14) | The waters of Puget Sound, Hood Canal and adjacent waters south of a line connecting Nodule Point and Bush Point in Admiralty Inlet and south of a line drawn due east from the southernmost tip of Possession Point on Whidbey Island to the shoreline. | | Seattle Traffic | 156.250 MHz (Ch. 5A) | The U.S. waters of the Salish Sea east of 124°40.00′ W. including waters south and east of a line drawn from Church Point on Vancouver Island, to Race Rocks Light, due east to the intersection of the U.S./Canadian border at 48°17.88' N. / 123°14.1' W., north-easterly to Hein Bank in position 48°21.094' N. / 123°02.672' W., northerly to Cattle Point Light on San Juan Island, along the shoreline to Lime Kiln Light, to Kellett Bluff Light on Henry Island, along the shoreline to the tip of McCracken Point at the northernmost point of Henry Island, to the southernmost point on Stuart Island in position 48°39.46' N. / 123°11.08' W., along the shoreline to Turn Point Light, to Sandy Point on Waldron Island, along the shoreline to Point Hammond, to Patos Island Light, to Alden Bank in position 48°50.39' N. / 122°52.227' W., then due north to Boundary Bay in position 49°00.125' N."", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W."", ""| | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′ 30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP and on the south by a line drawn perpendicularly at 29°55.3′ N 089°55.6′ W (Saxonholm Light) at 86.0 miles AHP. | | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.05A) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River below 30°38.7′ N 091°17.5′ W (Port Hudson Light) at 254.5 miles AHP bounded on the south by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP. | | New York -003669951 | | | | New York Traffic | 156.550 MHz (Ch. 11) -For Sailing Plans only 156.600 MHz (Ch. 12) -For vessels at anchor | The area consists of the navigable waters of the Lower New York Bay bounded on the east by a line drawn from Norton Point to Breezy Point; on the south by a line connecting the entrance buoys at the Ambrose Channel, Swash Channel, and Sandy Hook Channel to Sandy Hook Point; and on the southeast including the waters of Sandy Hook Bay south to a line drawn at latitude 40°25' N; then west in the Raritan Bay to the Raritan River Railroad Bridge, then north into waters of the Arthur Kill and Newark Bay to the Lehigh Valley Draw Bridge at latitude 40°41.9' N; and then east including the waters of the Kill Van Kull and the Upper New York Bay north to a line drawn east-west from the Holland Tunnel ventilator shaft at latitude 40°43.7' N, longitude 74°01.6' W, in the Hudson River;"", 'TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude | Notes | |--------------|-------------------|------------------------------------|-----------------------------------|------------------| | 1A | Cape Hinchinbrook | Cape Hinchinbrook | 60°1618 N; 146°4530 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 1B | Schooner Rock | Schooner Rock | 60°1842 N; 146°5136 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 2A | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 2B | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0500 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 3A | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Embark) | 60°5036 N; 146°5730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 3B | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Disembark) | 60°5100 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 4A | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°4730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 4B | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°5000 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 5 | Entrance Island | Entrance Island Light | 61°0524 N; 146°3730 W. ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | | ## § 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River.']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not include information about Exxon Dock #1 or its location, so I cannot determine the appropriate communication channel for sailing north of it.",4,Maritime communication channels,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61\u00b005' N., east of 147\u00b020' W., north of 60\u00b020' N., and west of 146\u00b030' W.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42\u00b025.4' N., longitude 70\u00b054.2' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy '1'.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River between the Huey P. Long Bridge and 12 miles above Head of Passes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude""}]",The provided context does not contain specific information about communication channels for the area north of Exxon Dock #1.,14
 1844,How must certified color additives and their lakes be listed in ingredient statements?,"[""- tree nuts e. - peanuts g. - wheat f. - soybeans h. more than 160 foods have been identified to cause food allergies in individuals, the'major food allergens' account for 90 percent of all allergies. Allergens other than the major food allergens are not subject to labeling requirements. Although sensitive food FALCPA ## did the labeling requirements of the FALCPA become effective for foods sold in the United States? F3. When packaged packaged foods regulated by FDA under the FD&C Act that are on or after January 1, 2006, must comply with FALCPA's food allergen requirements. Answer: All labeled labeling ## flavors, colors, and incidental additives subject to FALCPA labeling F4. Are requirements? FALCPA labeling requirements apply to foods that are made any ingredient, including flavorings, colorings, or incidental additives processing aids), that is or contains a major food allergen. Answer: Yes. with (e.g., ## retail and foodservice establishments have to comply with FALCPA's requirements? F5. Do labeling labeling requirements extend to foods packaged by a retail foodservice establishment that are offered for human consumption. FALCPA's labeling requirements do not apply to foods provided by a food establishment that are placed in a wrapper or container in response a consumer's order - such as the paper or box used to convey a sandwich has been prepared in response to a consumer's order. Answer: FALCPA's or However, retail to that ## Not Subject To FALCPA Foods ## there any foods exempt from FALCPA labeling requirements? F6. Are"", ""## there any foods exempt from FALCPA labeling requirements? F6. Are Under FALCPA, raw agricultural commodities (generally fresh and vegetables) are exempt as are highly refined oils derived from one of eight major food allergens and any ingredient derived from such highly oil. In addition, FALCPA provides mechanisms by which a may request that a food ingredient may be exempt from labeling requirements. See FALCPA Section 203 for details on how request allergen labeling exemptions. Answer: Yes. fruits the refined manufacturer FALCPA's to http://www.fda.gov/Food/LabelingNutrition/FoodAllergensLabeling/Guidance ComplianceRegulatoryInformation/ucm106187.htm ## molluscan shellfish considered a major food allergen under F7. Are FALCPA? Under FALCPA, molluscan shellfish (e.g., such as oysters, clams, or scallops) are not major food allergens. However, Crustacean (e.g., crab, lobster, or shrimp), and ingredients that contain protein from Crustacean shellfish, are major food allergens. Answer: No. mussels, shellfish derived ## Food Allergens (food source names and examples) Major - FALCPAprovideanyspecific direction for declaring the presence ingredients from the three food groups that are designated as'major allergens (i.e., tree nuts, fish, and Crustacean shellfish)'? F8. Does of food FALCPA requires that in the case of tree nuts, the specific type of must be declared (e.g., almonds, pecans, or walnuts). The species must be for fish (e.g., bass, flounder, or cod) and Crustacean shellfish (crab, or shrimp). Answer: Yes. nut declared lobster,""]",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about how certified color additives and their lakes must be listed in ingredient statements. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",2,Food color additive labeling,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soybeans - more than 160 foods have been identified to cause food allergies in sensitive individuals.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Are there any foods exempt from FALCPA labeling requirements? Under FALCPA, raw agricultural commodities and certain other foods are exempt from allergen labeling.""}]",The provided context does not contain information about how certified color additives and their lakes should be listed in ingredient statements.,15
 5459,What are the requirements for vessels regarding documentation of operational guidelines?,"[""The regulations in this subchapter (subchapter E, 33 CFR parts 83 through 90) have preemptive effect over State or local regulation within the same field. - (b) (i)These Rules constitute special rules made by an appropriate authority within the meaning of Rule 1(b) of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, including annexes currently in force for the United States ('International Regulations'). (ii) All vessels complying with the construction and equipment requirements of the International Regulations are considered to be in compliance with these Rules. - (c) Nothing in these Rules shall interfere with the operation of any special rules made by the Secretary of the Navy with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals for ships of war and vessels proceeding under convoy, or by the Secretary with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes for fishing vessels engaged in fishing as a fleet. These additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals shall, so far as possible, be such that they cannot be mistaken for any light, shape, or signal authorized elsewhere under these Rules. Notice of such special rules shall be published in the Federal Register and, after the effective date specified in such notice, they shall have effect as if they were a part of these Rules ‡. (d) Traffic separation schemes may be established for the purposes of these Rules. Vessel traffic service regulations may be in effect in certain areas. ## -INTERNATIONALGeneral ## Rule 1-CONTINUED - (e) Whenever the Government concerned shall have determined that a vessel of special construction or purpose cannot comply fully with the provisions of any of these Rules with respect to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, such vessel shall comply with such other provisions in regard to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, as her Government shall have determined to be the closest possible compliance with these Rules in respect to that vessel. ## Rule 2"", '- (e) A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except: - (i) In cases of emergency to avoid immediate danger; - (ii) To engage in fishing within a separation zone. - (f) A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with particular caution. - (g) A vessel shall so far as practicable avoid anchoring in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near its terminations. - (h) A vessel not using a traffic separation scheme shall avoid it by as wide a margin as is practicable. - (i) A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic lane. - (j) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a power-driven vessel following a traffic lane. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Section II-Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 Application Rules in this section apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing Vessels', '## Sailing Vessels - (a) When two sailing vessels are approaching one another, so as to involve risk of collision, one of them shall keep out of the way of the other as follows: - (i) when each has the wind on a different side, the vessel which has the wind on the port side shall keep out of the way of the other; - (ii) when both have the wind on the same side, the vessel which is to windward shall keep out of the way of the vessel which is to leeward; - (iii) if a vessel with the wind on the port side sees a vessel to windward and cannot determine with certainty whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or on the starboard side, she shall keep out of the way of the other. - (b) For the purposes of this Rule the windward side shall be deemed to be the side opposite to that on which the mainsail is carried or, in the case of a squarerigged vessel, the side opposite to that on which the largest fore-and-aft sail is carried. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing, or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 ## Application ## § 83.11 Rules 11 through 18 (§§ 83.11 through 83.18) apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing vessels ## § 83.12']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information regarding the documentation of operational guidelines for vessels. Therefore, the question cannot be answered based on the available context.",3,Vessel documentation requirements,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The regulations in this subchapter (subchapter E, 33 CFR parts 83 through 90) have preemptive effect over state or local regulation within the same field.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Sailing Vessels - When two sailing vessels are approaching one another, so as to involve risk of collision, one of them shall keep out of the way of the other as follows.""}]",The provided context does not contain specific information about requirements for vessels regarding documentation of operational guidelines.,16
 367,What's the employer's obligation if a worker's cough starts sounding like a chemical reaction equation?,"['1910.133) requires employers to ensure that each affected worker uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation, 29 CFR 1910.133(a). protect the health of such individual. The employer must provide respirators that are appropriate and suitable for the purpose intended, as described in 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(1). The employer is responsible for establishing and maintaining a respiratory protection program, as required by 29 CFR 1910.134(c), that includes, but is not limited to, the following: selection of respirators for use in the workplace; medical evaluations of workers required to use respirators; fit testing for tight-fitting respirators; proper use of respirators during routine and emergency situations; procedures and schedules for cleaning, disinfecting, storing, inspecting, repairing and discarding of respirators; procedures to ensure adequate air quality, quantity, and flow of breathing air for atmosphere-supplying respirators; training of workers in respiratory hazards that they may be exposed to during routine and emergency situations; training of workers in the proper donning and doffing of respirators, and any limitations on their use and maintenance; and regular evaluation of the effectiveness of the program. ## The Hand Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.138), requires employers to select and ensure that workers use appropriate hand protection when their hands are exposed to hazards such as those from skin absorption of harmful substances; severe cuts or lacerations; severe abrasions; punctures; chemical burns; thermal burns; and harmful temperature extremes, 29 CFR 1910.138(a). Further, employers must base the selection of the appropriate hand protection on an evaluation of the performance characteristics of the hand protection relative to the task(s) to be performed, conditions present, duration of use, and the hazards and potential hazards identified, 29 CFR 1910.138(b). ## The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29', 'The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), as well as some chemical manufacturers have established OELs to assess safe exposure limits for various chemicals. Employers must conduct exposure monitoring, through air sampling, if there is reason to believe that workers may be exposed to chemicals above the action level or, in the absence of an action level, the PEL. Periodic exposure monitoring should be conducted in accord with the provisions of the relevant standard. The employer should notify workers of the results of any monitoring within 15 working days of receiving the results. Some OSHA chemical standards have specific provisions regarding exposure monitoring and worker notification. Employers should consult relevant standards to see if these provisions apply to their workplace. ## Medical Consultations and Examinations ## Employers must do the following: - · Provide all exposed workers with an opportunity to receive medical attention by a licensed physician, including any follow-up examinations which the examining physician determines to be necessary. - · Provide an opportunity for a medical consultation by a licensed physician whenever a spill, leak, explosion or other occurrence results in the likelihood that a laboratory worker experienced a hazardous exposure in order to determine whether a medical examination is needed. - · Provide an opportunity for a medical examination by a licensed physician whenever a worker develops signs or symptoms associated with a hazardous chemical to which he or she may have been exposed in the laboratory. - · Establish medical surveillance for a worker as required by the particular standard when exposure monitoring reveals exposure levels routinely exceeding the OSHA action level or, in the absence of an action level, the PEL for an OSHA regulated substance. - · Provide the examining physician with the identity of the hazardous chemical(s) to which the individual may have been exposed, and the conditions under which the exposure may have occurred, including quantitative data, where available, and a description of the signs and symptoms of exposure the worker may be experiencing. - · Provide all medical examinations and consultations without cost to the worker, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.', ""- · No mouth pipetting; and - · Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific procedure). Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is protective gear needed to keep workers safe while performing their jobs. Examples of PPE include respirators (for example, N95), face shields, goggles and disposable gloves. While engineering and administrative controls and proper work practices are considered to be more effective in minimizing exposure to many workplace hazards, the use of PPE is also very important in laboratory settings. It is important that PPE be: - · Selected based upon the hazard to the worker; - · Properly fitted and in some cases periodically refitted (e.g., respirators); - · Conscientiously and properly worn; - · Regularly maintained and replaced in accord with the manufacturer's specifications; - · Properly removed and disposed of to avoid contamination of self, others or the environment; and - · If reusable, properly removed, cleaned, disinfected and stored. The following sections of this document are organized based upon classes of hazards, i.e., chemical, biological, physical, safety and other hazards. The organization of these sections and/or subsections may differ somewhat. For instance, OSHA's Laboratory standard is described in greater detail than any other standard in this document. This is because this is the only standard that is specific to laboratories (i.e., non-production laboratories). In all other sections, only those specific aspects of various standards that are considered most relevant to non-production laboratories are discussed. In sections of this document where there are no specific OSHA standards that apply, guidance in the form of Fact Sheets or QuickCardsTM may be provided. ## Chemical Hazards"", '## Employers must do the following to prevent worker exposure: Implement a written program for chemicals that workers are exposed to and that meet the requirements of the Hazard Communication standard. This program must contain provisions for worker training, warning labels and access to Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs). ## Formaldehyde standard (29 CFR 1910.1048) Formaldehyde is used as a fixative and is commonly found in most laboratories. The employer must ensure that no worker is exposed to an airborne concentration of formaldehyde which exceeds 0.75 parts formaldehyde per million parts of air (0.75 ppm) as an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA), 29 CFR 1910.1048(c)(1). The Hazard Communication standard requires employers to maintain an MSDS, which manufacturers or distributors of formaldehyde are required to provide. The MSDS must be kept in an area that is accessible to workers that may be exposed to formaldehyde. | Acrylamide | Acrylamide | Acrylamide | |------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Exposure routes | Symptoms | Target Organs | | Inhalation; Ingestion; Skin and/or eye contact; Skin absorption. | Irritation of eyes, skin; Ataxia (stag- gering gait), numb limbs, tingling, pricking, or numbness of skin; Muscle weakness; Absence of deep tendon reflex; Hand sweat- ing; Tearing, Drowsiness; Reproductive effects; Potential occupational carcinogen. | Eyes; Skin; Central nervous system; Peripheral ner- vous system; Reproductive system (in animals: tu- mors of the lungs, tes- tes, thyroid and adrenal glands). |', 'Employers must be fully aware of these standards and must implement all aspects of the standards that apply to specific laboratory work conditions in their facilities. ## The Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard (29 CFR 1910.1450), commonly referred to as the Laboratory standard, requires that the employer designate a Chemical Hygiene Officer and have a written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), and actively verify that it remains effective. The CHP must include provisions for worker training, chemical exposure monitoring where appropriate, medical consultation when exposure occurs, criteria for the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) and engineering controls, special precautions for particularly hazardous substances, and a requirement for a Chemical Hygiene Officer responsible for implementation of the CHP. The CHP must be tailored to reflect the specific chemical hazards present in the laboratory where it is to be used. Laboratory personnel must receive training regarding the Laboratory standard, the CHP, and other laboratory safety practices, including exposure detection, physical and health hazards associated with chemicals, and protective measures. ## The Hazard Communication standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), sometimes called the HazCom standard, is a set of requirements first issued in 1983 by OSHA. The standard requires evaluating the potential hazards of chemicals, and communicating information concerning those hazards and appropriate protective measures to employees. The standard includes provisions for: developing and maintaining a written hazard communication program for the workplace, including lists of hazardous chemicals present; labeling of containers of chemicals in the workplace, as well as of containers of chemicals being shipped to other workplaces; preparation and distribution of material safety data sheets (MSDSs) to workers and downstream employers; and development and implementation of worker training programs regarding hazards of chemicals and protective measures. This OSHA standard requires manufacturers and importers of hazardous chemicals to provide material safety data sheets to users of the chemicals describing potential hazards and other information. They must also attach hazard warning labels to containers of the chemicals. Employers must make MSDSs available to workers.']",medium,follow-up,"The question is unclear and needs clarification. The context provided discusses employer obligations related to respiratory protection, exposure monitoring, and medical consultations for hazardous chemical exposures, but it does not address symptoms like a 'cough sounding like a chemical reaction equation.' Could you clarify the scenario or provide more details about the specific chemical exposure or workplace conditions involved?",5,Workplace health monitoring,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""1910.133 requires employers to ensure that each affected worker uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to hazards.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), and others provide workplace exposure guidelines.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""No mouth pipetting; and Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific application).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Employers must do the following to prevent worker exposure: Implement a written program for chemical hygiene, hazard communication, and respiratory protection.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Employers must be fully aware of these standards and must implement all aspects of the standards that apply to specific work operations.""}]",The question uses metaphorical language about a 'cough sounding like a chemical reaction equation' that requires clarification before it can be answered with the workplace health monitoring information provided.,17
 3628,Find the latitude and longitude for Stouts Pass.,"[""## TABLE 161.70(e)-EASTBOUND (ICW) | Designator Geographic name | | Geographic description | Latitude/ longitude | Notes | |------------------------------|---------------------------|--------------------------|---------------------------------|----------------------| | 1 | GIWW Mile 295 | ICW MM 295 | 29°47.25 N. ′ 94°01.10 W. ′ | Sailing Plan Report. | | 2 | North Forty GIWW Mile 279 | North Forty | 29°56.40 N. ′ 93°52.10 W. ′ | | | 3 | Sabine River MM 268 | 268 Highline | 30°02.20 N. ′ 93°44.30 W. ′ | | | 4 | GIWW Mile 260 | 260 Highline | 30°03.50 N. ′ 93°37.50 W. ′ | Final Report. | ## (f) Reporting points (Westbound). ## TABLE 161.70(f)-WESTBOUND (ICW) | | Designator Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/ longitude | Notes | |----|------------------------------|--------------------------|---------------------------------|----------------------| | 1 | GIWW Mile 260 | 260 Highline | 30°03.50 N. ′ 93°37.50 W. ′ | Sailing Plan Report. | | 2 | Sabine River Light '2' | Black Bayou | 30°00.03 N. ′ 93°46.18 W. ′ | | | 3 | GIWW Mile 285 | The School House | 29°52.71 N. ′ 93°55.55 W. ′ | Zone Shift. | | 4 | GIWW Mile 295 | ICW MM 295 | 29°46.20 N. ′ 94°02.60 W. ′ | Final Report. | ## (g) Reporting points (Offshore Safety Fairway). ## TABLE 161.70(g)-OFFSHORE SAFETY FAIRWAY"", '| 7 | Lynchburg | Ferry crossing | 29°45.8 N; ′ 95°04.8 W ′ | | | 8 | Shell Oil | Boggy Bayou | 29°44.1 N; ′ 95°08.0 W ′ | | | 9 | Greens Bayou | HSC Lt. 152 | 29°44.8 N; ′ 95°10.1 W ′ | | | 10 | Hunting Bayou | Hunting Bayou Turning Basin. | 29°44.4 N; ′ 95°12.1 W ′ | | | 11 | Lyondell | Sims Bayou Turning Basin. | 29°43.2 N; ′ 95°14.4 W ′ | | | 12 | I-610 Bridge | I-610 Bridge | 29°43.5 N; ′ 95°16.0 W ′ | | | 13 | Buffalo Bayou | Houston Turning Basin | 29°45.0 N; ′ 95°17.4 W ′ | | ## § 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. - (a) The VTS area consists of the navigable waters of the following segments of waterways: the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) Morgan City to Port Allen Alternate Route from Mile Marker 0 to Mile Marker 5; the ICW from Mile Marker 93 west of Harvey Lock (WHL) to Mile Marker 102 WHL; the Atchafalaya River Route from Mile Marker 113 to Mile Marker 122; from Bayou Shaffer Junction (ICW Mile Marker 94.5 WHL) south one statute mile along Bayou Shaffer; and from Berwick Lock northwest one statute mile along the Lower Atchafalaya River. - (b) VTS Special Area. The Berwick Bay VTS Special Area consists of those waters within a 1000 yard radius of the Burlington Northern/Santa Fe Railroad Bridge located at Mile.03 MC/PA. - (c) Reporting Points. TABLE 161.40(c)-VTS BERWICK BAY REPORTING POINTS', 'TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude | Notes | |--------------|-------------------|------------------------------------|-----------------------------------|------------------| | 1A | Cape Hinchinbrook | Cape Hinchinbrook | 60°1618 N; 146°4530 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 1B | Schooner Rock | Schooner Rock | 60°1842 N; 146°5136 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 2A | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 2B | Naked Island | Naked Island | 60°4000 N; 147°0500 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 3A | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Embark) | 60°5036 N; 146°5730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 3B | Bligh Reef | Bligh Reef Light (Pilot Disembark) | 60°5100 N; 147°0124 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 4A | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°4730 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Northbound Only. | | 4B | Rocky Point | Rocky Point | 60°5748 N; 146°5000 W ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | Southbound Only. | | 5 | Entrance Island | Entrance Island Light | 61°0524 N; 146°3730 W. ′ ′′ ′ ′′ | | ## § 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River.']",easy,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about Stouts Pass, so I cannot answer the question based on the available data.",3,Navigation coordinates,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""TABLE 161.70(e)-EASTBOUND (ICW) | Designator Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude | Notes""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""7 | Lynchburg | Ferry crossing | 29\u00b045.8\u2032 N; 95\u00b004.8\u2032 W | | 8 | Shell Oil | Boggy Bayou | 29\u00b044.1\u2032 N; 95\u00b002.3\u2032 W""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""TABLE 161.60(d)-VTS PRINCE WILLIAM SOUND REPORTING POINTS | Designator | Geographic name | Geographic description | Latitude/longitude""}]",The provided context does not contain any information about the latitude and longitude coordinates for Stouts Pass.,18
 3126,"If a purse seiner is throwing a rave with its gear, what's the flashy light sequence for the dance floor?","['## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II ## Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity ## 1. General The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i). The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. ## 2. Signals for trawlers - (a) Vessels of 20 meters or more in length when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, shall exhibit: - (i) when shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (ii) when hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (iii) when the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (b) Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: - (i) by night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (ii) when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in 2(a) above. - (c) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as appropriate. ## 3. Signals for purse seiners Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. § 85.01. [Reserved] ## -INLANDAnnex II 33 CFR 85 ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex III', '## Rule 26-CONTINUED (e) A vessel when not engaged in fishing shall not exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in this Rule, but only those prescribed for a vessel of her length. ## Rule 26-CONTINUED - (e) A vessel not engaged in fishing shall not exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in this Rule, but only those prescribed for a vessel of her length. - (f) Additional signals for fishing vessels in close proximity: - (i) The lights mentioned herein shall be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meters apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in this Rule. The lights shall be visible all round the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance from the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. - (ii) Signals for trawlers. - (1) Vessels when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, may exhibit: - (A) When shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (B) When hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (C) When the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (2) Each vessel engaged in pair trawling may exhibit: - (A) By night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (B) When shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in paragraph (f)(ii)(1) of this Rule. - (iii) Signals for purse seiners. - (1) Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. (2) [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27']",hard,refusal,The question appears to be humorous and unrelated to the serious context of maritime signaling regulations for fishing vessels. The provided context does not contain any information about 'throwing a rave' or 'dance floor' light sequences for purse seiners.,2,Fishing vessel light signals,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""INTERNATIONAL Annex II - Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rule 26-CONTINUED (e) A vessel when not engaged in fishing shall not exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in this Rule, but only those prescribed for a vessel of her length.""}]","The question uses metaphorical language about 'throwing a rave' with fishing gear, and the provided context does not contain information that would address this metaphorical question about light sequences.",19
 2276,What is the minimum amount of soy protein per RACC required to make a health claim about coronary heart disease?,"[""| | Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | *Plant Sterol/ stanol esters and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.83) | At least 0.65 g plant sterol esters per RACC of spreads and salad dressings, or At least 1.7 g plant stanol esters per RACC of spreads, salad dressings, snack bars, and dietary supplements. Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, and Spreads and salad dressings that exceed 13 g fat per 50 g must bear the statement'see nutrition information for fat content' Salad dressings are exempted from the minimum 10% DV nutrient requirement | Required terms: 'May' or'might' reduce the risk of CHD 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease' 'Plant sterol esters' or 'plant stanol esters'; except'vegetable oil' may replace the term 'plant' if vegetable oil is the sole source of the sterol/ stanol ester Claim specifies plant stero/stanol esters are part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol. Claim does not attribute any degree of CHD risk reduction. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters necessary to reduce CHD risk, and the amount provided per serving. Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day."", ""| | Nutrient | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments | |---------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Fat Saturated CFR101.62(c) 21 | Less than 0.5 g saturated fat and less than 0.5 g trans fatty acids per RACC and main dishes, less than 0.5 g saturated fat and trans fatty acids per labeled serving) (c)(1) Contains no ingredient that is understood to contain saturated fat except as noted below (*) | 1 g or less per RACC and 15% or less of calories from saturated fat (c)(2) Meals and main dishes: 1 g or less per 100g and less than 10% of calories from saturated fat (c)(3) t | At least 25% less saturated fat per RACC than an appropriate reference food (or for meals and main dishes, at least 25% less saturated fat per 100 g) (c)(4) & (5) Reference food may not be 'Low Saturated Fat' | Next to all saturated fat claims, must declare the amount of cholesterol if 2 mg or more per RACC; and the amount of total fat if more than 3g per RACC (or 0.5 g or more of total fat per RACC for 'Saturated Fat Free') (or for meals and main dishes, per labeled serving) 21 CFR 101.62(c) For dietary supplements: saturated fat claims cannot be made for products that are 40 calories or less per serving 21 CFR 101.62(a)(4) | ## Definitions of Nutrient Content Claims continued"", ""Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day. | (1) Foods containing at least 0.65 gram per of vegetable oil sterol esters, eaten twice a day with meals for a daily total intake of least 1.3 grams, as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of food] supplies __ grams of vegetable oil sterol esters. (2) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that include two servings of foods that provide a daily total of at least 3.4 grams of plant stanol esters in two meals may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of food] supplies __ grams of plant stanol esters | ## FDAMA (FDA Modernization Act) Health Claims (Health Claims Authorized ## Based on an Authoritative Statement by Federal Scientific Bodies) | Approved Claims | Food Requirements | Claim Requirement | Claim Model Statements | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------| | Grain Whole and Risk Foods Heart Disease of Certain and Cancers No. (Docket 1999P-2209) | Contains 51 percent or more whole grain ingredients by weight per RACC, and Dietary fiber content at least: • 3.0 g per RACC of 55 g • 2.8 g per RACC of 50 g • 2.5 g per RACC of 45 g • 1.7 g per RACC of 35 g | Required wording of the claim: 'Diets rich in whole grain foods and other plant foods and low in total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease and some cancers.' | NA |"", ""## Definitions of Nutrient Content Claims continued | Nutrient | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments | |-------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Cholesterol 21 CFR 101.62(d) | Less than 2 mg per RACC and per labeled serving (or for meals and main dishes, less than 2 mg per labeled serving) Contains no ingredient that contains cholesterol except as noted below (*) (d)(1) | 20 mg or less per RACC (and per 50 g of food if RACC is small) (d)(2) Meals and main dishes: 20 mg or less per 100 g (d)(3) | At least 25% less cholesterol per RACC than an appropriate reference food (or for meals and main dishes, at least 25% less cholesterol per 100 g) (d)(4) & (5)) Reference food may not be 'Low Cholesterol' | Cholesterol claims only allowed when food contains 2 g or less saturated fat per RACC; or for meals and main dish products, per labeled serving size for 'Free' claims or per 100 g for 'Low' and 'Reduced/Less' claims Must declare the amount of total fat next to cholesterol claim when fat exceeds 13 g per RACC and labeled serving (or per 50 g of food if RACC is small), or when the fat exceeds 19.5 g per labeled serving for main dishes or 26g for meal products For dietary supplements: cholesterol claims cannot be made for products that are 40 calories or less per serving |""]",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain any information about the minimum amount of soy protein per RACC required to make a health claim about coronary heart disease. Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",4,Food health claim requirements,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Nutrient | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each day as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Definitions of Nutrient Content Claims continued | Nutrient | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments""}]",The provided context does not contain specific information about the minimum amount of soy protein per RACC required for making health claims about coronary heart disease.,20
-4273,When did the updates take effect?,"['## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratory personnel working with agents of moderate risk to personnel and the environment. BSL-2 practices, equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories in which work is done with the broad spectrum of indigenous moderate-risk agents that are present in the community and associated with human disease of varying severity. With good microbiological techniques, these agents can be used safely in activities conducted on the open bench, provided the potential for producing splashes or aerosols is low. Hepatitis B virus, H1V, the salmonellae, and Toxoplasma spp. are representative of microorganisms assigned to this containment level. Biosafety Level 2 is also appropriate when work is done with any human-derived blood, body fluids, tissues, or primary human cell lines where the presence of an infectious agent may be unknown. Laboratory personnel in the United States working with human-derived materials should refer to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (OSHA 1991), available online at www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_ document?p\\_table=STANDARDS7p\\_id=1005, for required precautions. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to accidental percutaneous or mucous membrane exposures, or ingestion of infectious materials. Extreme caution should be taken with contaminated needles or sharp instruments. Even though organisms routinely manipulated at Biosafety Level 2 are not known to be transmissible by the aerosol route, procedures with aerosol or high splash potential that may increase the risk of such personnel exposure must be conducted in primary containment equipment, or in devices such as a biological safety cabinet (BSC) or safety centrifuge cups. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves.', '## Microbial Products of Biotechnology: Final Rule (62 FR 17910) The regulation under which the TSCA Biotechnology Program functions is titled ""Microbial Products of Biotechnology; Final Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act"" (TSCA), published in the Federal Register on April 11, 1997. This rule was developed under TSCA Section 5, which authorizes the Agency to, among other things, review new chemicals before they are introduced into commerce. Under a 1986 intergovernmental policy statement, intergeneric microorganisms (microorganisms created to contain genetic material from organisms in more than one taxonomic genus) are considered new chemicals under TSCA Section 5. The Biotechnology rule sets forth the manner in which the Agency will review and regulate the use of intergeneric microorganisms in commerce, or commercial research. Documents relevant to this rule can be found at the following web site: http://www.epa.gov/oppt/biotech/ pubs/biorule.htm. ## U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) 10 CFR 31.11 - General license for use of byproduct material for certain in vitro clinical or laboratory testing. Link at: http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doccollections/cfr/part031/part031-0011.html. ## U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) An infectious substance is regulated as a hazardous material under the DOT\'s Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR; 49 CFR Parts 171-180). The HMR apply to any material DOT determines is capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce. An infectious substance must conform to all applicable HMR requirements when offered for transportation or transported by air, highway, rail, or water. - · New classification system - · Revised marking requirements - · New and revised definitions - · Revised packaging requirements - · New security plan requirements - · New shipping paper requirements - · New carriage by aircraft requirements']",easy,follow-up,"The question asks about updates, but the context does not specify which updates are being referred to. Could you clarify which specific updates or regulations you are asking about?",2,Regulatory information,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratories.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Microbial Products of Biotechnology: Final Rule (62 FR 17910) The regulation under which the TSCA Biotechnology Program functions is titled "Microbial Products of Biotechnology; Final Regulation under the Toxic Substances Control Act."""}]",The question is too vague and does not specify which updates are being referenced. The context mentions regulations but does not provide specific implementation dates.,21
+4273,When did the updates take effect?,"['## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratory personnel working with agents of moderate risk to personnel and the environment. BSL-2 practices, equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories in which work is done with the broad spectrum of indigenous moderate-risk agents that are present in the community and associated with human disease of varying severity. With good microbiological techniques, these agents can be used safely in activities conducted on the open bench, provided the potential for producing splashes or aerosols is low. Hepatitis B virus, H1V, the salmonellae, and Toxoplasma spp. are representative of microorganisms assigned to this containment level. Biosafety Level 2 is also appropriate when work is done with any human-derived blood, body fluids, tissues, or primary human cell lines where the presence of an infectious agent may be unknown. Laboratory personnel in the United States working with human-derived materials should refer to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (OSHA 1991), available online at www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_ document?p\\_table=STANDARDS7p\\_id=1005, for required precautions. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to accidental percutaneous or mucous membrane exposures, or ingestion of infectious materials. Extreme caution should be taken with contaminated needles or sharp instruments. Even though organisms routinely manipulated at Biosafety Level 2 are not known to be transmissible by the aerosol route, procedures with aerosol or high splash potential that may increase the risk of such personnel exposure must be conducted in primary containment equipment, or in devices such as a biological safety cabinet (BSC) or safety centrifuge cups. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves.', '## Microbial Products of Biotechnology: Final Rule (62 FR 17910) The regulation under which the TSCA Biotechnology Program functions is titled ""Microbial Products of Biotechnology; Final Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act"" (TSCA), published in the Federal Register on April 11, 1997. This rule was developed under TSCA Section 5, which authorizes the Agency to, among other things, review new chemicals before they are introduced into commerce. Under a 1986 intergovernmental policy statement, intergeneric microorganisms (microorganisms created to contain genetic material from organisms in more than one taxonomic genus) are considered new chemicals under TSCA Section 5. The Biotechnology rule sets forth the manner in which the Agency will review and regulate the use of intergeneric microorganisms in commerce, or commercial research. Documents relevant to this rule can be found at the following web site: http://www.epa.gov/oppt/biotech/ pubs/biorule.htm. ## U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) 10 CFR 31.11 - General license for use of byproduct material for certain in vitro clinical or laboratory testing. Link at: http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doccollections/cfr/part031/part031-0011.html. ## U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) An infectious substance is regulated as a hazardous material under the DOT\'s Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR; 49 CFR Parts 171-180). The HMR apply to any material DOT determines is capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce. An infectious substance must conform to all applicable HMR requirements when offered for transportation or transported by air, highway, rail, or water. - · New classification system - · Revised marking requirements - · New and revised definitions - · Revised packaging requirements - · New security plan requirements - · New shipping paper requirements - · New carriage by aircraft requirements']",easy,follow-up,"The question asks about updates, but the context does not specify which updates are being referred to. Could you clarify which specific updates or regulations you are asking about?",2,Regulatory information,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratories.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Microbial Products of Biotechnology: Final Rule (62 FR 17910) The regulation under which the TSCA Biotechnology Program functions is titled \""Microbial Products of Biotechnology; Final Regulation under the Toxic Substances Control Act.\""""}]",The question is too vague and does not specify which updates are being referenced. The context mentions regulations but does not provide specific implementation dates.,21
 354,What standards influence the format of Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) under GHS?,"[""- · Seeks ways to improve the chemical hygiene program. ## Laboratory Supervisors - · Have overall responsibility for chemical hygiene in the laboratory. - · Ensure that laboratory workers know and follow the chemical hygiene rules. - · Ensure that protective equipment is available and in working order. - · Ensure that appropriate training has been provided. - · Provide regular, formal chemical hygiene and housekeeping inspections, including routine inspections of emergency equipment. - · Know the current legal requirements concerning regulated substances. - · Determine the required levels of PPE and equipment. - · Ensure that facilities and training for use of any material being ordered are adequate. ## Laboratory Workers - · Plan and conduct each operation in accord with the facility's chemical hygiene procedures, including use of PPE and engineering controls, as appropriate. - · Develop good personal chemical hygiene habits. - · Report all accidents and potential chemical exposures immediately. For more detailed information, OSHA has developed a Safety and Health Topics Page on Laboratories available at: www.osha.gov/SLTC/ laboratories/index.html. See the Appendix for other OSHA documents relevant to this topic. Two OSHA Fact Sheets have been developed to supplement this section. One is entitled Laboratory Safety - OSHA Laboratory Standard, and the other is entitled Laboratory Safety Chemical Hygiene Plan ; both are available online at www.osha.gov. ## Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) This standard is designed to protect against chemical source illnesses and injuries by ensuring that employers and workers are provided with sufficient information to recognize, evaluate and control chemical hazards and take appropriate protective measures. The steps that employers must take to comply with the requirements of this standard must include, but are not limited to:"", '## Chemical Hazards Hazardous chemicals present physical and/or health threats to workers in clinical, industrial, and academic laboratories. Laboratory chemicals include cancer-causing agents (carcinogens), toxins (e.g., those affecting the liver, kidney, and nervous system), irritants, corrosives, sensitizers, as well as agents that act on the blood system or damage the lungs, skin, eyes, or mucous membranes. OSHA rules regulate exposures to approximately 400 substances. ## Laboratory Standard (29 CFR 1910.1450) In 1990, OSHA issued the Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard (29 CFR 1910.1450). Commonly known as the Laboratory standard, it was developed to address workplaces where relatively small quantities of hazardous chemicals are used on a non-production basis. However, not all laboratories are covered by the Laboratory standard. For example, most quality control laboratories are not covered under the standard. These laboratories are usually adjuncts of production operations which typically perform repetitive procedures for the purpose of assuring reliability of a product or a process. On the other hand, laboratories that conduct research and development and related analytical work are subject to the requirements of the Laboratory standard, regardless of whether or not they are used only to support manufacturing. The purpose of the Laboratory standard is to ensure that workers in non-production laboratories are informed about the hazards of chemicals in their workplace and are protected from chemical exposures exceeding allowable levels [i.e., OSHA permissible exposure limits (PELs)] as specified in Table Z of the Air Contaminants standard (29 CFR 1910.1000) and as specified in other substance-specific health standards. The Laboratory standard achieves this protection by establishing safe work practices in laboratories to implement a Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP). ## Scope and Application', '## Scope and Application The Laboratory standard applies to all individuals engaged in laboratory use of hazardous chemicals. Work with hazardous chemicals outside of laboratories is covered by the Hazard Communication standard (29 CFR 1910.1200). Laboratory uses of chemicals which provide no potential for exposure (e.g., chemically impregnated test media or prepared kits for pregnancy testing) are not covered by the Laboratory standard. Formaldehyde is one of the most commonly used hazardous chemicals in laboratories. The OSHA Formaldehyde standard (29 CFR 1910.1048) specifically deals with protecting workers from the hazards associated with exposure to this chemical. It should be noted that the scope of the Formaldehyde standard is not affected in most cases by the Laboratory standard. The Laboratory standard specifically does not apply to formaldehyde use in histology, pathology and human or animal anatomy laboratories; however, if formaldehyde is used in other types of laboratories which are covered by the Laboratory standard, the employer must comply with 29 CFR 1910.1450. ## Program Description The Laboratory standard consists of five major elements: - · Hazard identification; - · Chemical Hygiene Plan; - · Information and training; - · Exposure monitoring; and - · Medical consultation and examinations. Each laboratory covered by the Laboratory standard must appoint a Chemical Hygiene Officer (CHO) to develop and implement a Chemical Hygiene Plan. The CHO is responsible for duties such as monitoring processes, procuring chemicals, helping project directors upgrade facilities, and advising administrators on improved chemical hygiene policies and practices. A worker designated as the CHO must be qualified, by training or experience, to provide technical guidance in developing and implementing the provisions of the CHP. ## Hazard Identification Each laboratory must identify which hazardous chemicals will be encountered by its workers. All containers for chemicals must be clearly labeled. An employer must ensure that workers do not use, store, or allow any other person to use or store, any hazardous substance in his or her laboratory if the container does not meet the labeling requirements outlined in the Hazard Communication standard,', ""Requirement of Prior Approval of Laboratory Procedures : The circumstances under which certain laboratory procedures or activities require approval from the employer or employer's designee before work is initiated. Medical Consultations and Examinations : Provisions for medical consultation and examination when exposure to a hazardous chemical has or may have taken place. Chemical Hygiene Officer Designation : Identification of the laboratory CHO and outline of his or her role and responsibilities; and, where appropriate, establishment of a Chemical Hygiene Committee. Particularly Hazardous Substances : Outlines additional worker protections for work with particularly hazardous substances. These include select carcinogens, reproductive toxins, and substances which have a high degree of acute toxicity. ## Information and Training Laboratory workers must be provided with information and training relevant to the hazards of the chemicals present in their laboratory. The training must be provided at the time of initial assignment to a laboratory and prior to assignments involving new exposure situations. ## The employer must inform workers about the following: - · The content of the OSHA Laboratory standard and its appendices (the full text must be made available); - · The location and availability of the Chemical Hygiene Plan; - · Permissible exposure limits (PELs) for OSHAregulated substances, or recommended exposure levels for other hazardous chemicals where there is no applicable standard; - · Signs and symptoms associated with exposure to hazardous chemicals in the laboratory; and - · The location and availability of reference materials on the hazards, safe handling, storage and disposal of hazardous chemicals in the laboratory, including, but not limited to, MSDSs. ## Training must include the following:"", 'Employers must be fully aware of these standards and must implement all aspects of the standards that apply to specific laboratory work conditions in their facilities. ## The Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard (29 CFR 1910.1450), commonly referred to as the Laboratory standard, requires that the employer designate a Chemical Hygiene Officer and have a written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), and actively verify that it remains effective. The CHP must include provisions for worker training, chemical exposure monitoring where appropriate, medical consultation when exposure occurs, criteria for the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) and engineering controls, special precautions for particularly hazardous substances, and a requirement for a Chemical Hygiene Officer responsible for implementation of the CHP. The CHP must be tailored to reflect the specific chemical hazards present in the laboratory where it is to be used. Laboratory personnel must receive training regarding the Laboratory standard, the CHP, and other laboratory safety practices, including exposure detection, physical and health hazards associated with chemicals, and protective measures. ## The Hazard Communication standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), sometimes called the HazCom standard, is a set of requirements first issued in 1983 by OSHA. The standard requires evaluating the potential hazards of chemicals, and communicating information concerning those hazards and appropriate protective measures to employees. The standard includes provisions for: developing and maintaining a written hazard communication program for the workplace, including lists of hazardous chemicals present; labeling of containers of chemicals in the workplace, as well as of containers of chemicals being shipped to other workplaces; preparation and distribution of material safety data sheets (MSDSs) to workers and downstream employers; and development and implementation of worker training programs regarding hazards of chemicals and protective measures. This OSHA standard requires manufacturers and importers of hazardous chemicals to provide material safety data sheets to users of the chemicals describing potential hazards and other information. They must also attach hazard warning labels to containers of the chemicals. Employers must make MSDSs available to workers.']",hard,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information about the standards influencing the format of Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) under GHS (Globally Harmonized System). Therefore, I cannot answer this question based on the available context.",5,Chemical safety documentation,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Seeks ways to improve the chemical hygiene program. Laboratory Supervisors have overall responsibility for chemical hygiene in the laboratory and must ensure that workers receive proper training.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Chemical Hazards: Hazardous chemicals present physical and/or health threats to workers in clinical, industrial, and academic laboratories. Laboratory personnel can manage these risks through proper safety protocols.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Scope and Application: The Laboratory standard applies to all individuals engaged in laboratory use of hazardous chemicals. Work with hazardous chemicals must follow specific safety guidelines.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Information on laboratory chemical hygiene plans and workplace safety requirements for handling hazardous materials.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Requirement of Prior Approval of Laboratory Procedures: The circumstances under which certain laboratory procedures or activities require approval from the supervisor must be clearly specified.""}]",The provided context does not contain specific information about standards that influence the format of Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) under the Globally Harmonized System (GHS).,22
-4257,How to handle energy in equipment?,"[""- · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/eyeandface/index.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Eye and Face Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/eyefaceprotection/index.html The Respiratory Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134) requires that a respirator be provided to each worker when such equipment is necessary to protect their health. The employer must provide respirators that are appropriate based on the hazards to which the worker is exposed and factors that affect respirator performance and reliability, as described in 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(1). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.134 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=12716&p\\_ text\\_version=FALSE - · Guidance Documents - n Respiratory Protection. OSHA Publication 3079 (2002). - n Small Entity Compliance Guide for OSHA's Respiratory Protection Standard. OSHA Publication 9071 (1999). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/secgrev-current.pdf - n Assigned Protection Factors for the Revised Respiratory Protection Standard. OSHA Publication 3352 (2009). - http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/respiratory/index.html - · Fact Sheet - n Respiratory Infection Control: Respirators Versus Surgical Masks - · eTool - n Respiratory Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/respiratory/index.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Respiratory Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/respiratoryprotection/index.html"", ""- · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf ## Personal Protective Equipment The Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) standard (29 CFR 1910.132) requires that employers provide PPE and ensure that it is used wherever 'hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants [are] encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact,' 29 CFR 1910.132(a). - · Complete standards - n 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=10118 - · Fact Sheet - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/ppe-factsheet.pdf - · Brochures/Booklets - n Personal Protective Equipment. OSHA Publication 3151 (2003). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3151.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/personalprotectiveequipment/index.html The Eye and Face Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.133) requires that employers ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation, 29 CFR 1910.133(a). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection"", 'Kimman TG, Smit E, Klein MR. Evidence-based biosafety: A review of the principles and effectiveness of microbiological containment. Clinical Microbiology Reviews. 2008. 21:403-425. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances, (published annually) U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Occupational Health Guidelines for Chemical Hazards, NIOSH/OSHA. National Research Council, Prudent Practices in the Laboratory: Handling and Management of Chemical Hazards, National Academy Press, 2011. Rose S. Clinical Laboratory Safety. J.B. Lippincott. Philadelphia, PA, 1984. Singh K. Laboratory-acquired infections. Clinical Infectious Diseases. 2009. 49:142-147. University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. UIUC Model Chemical Hygiene Plan, 1999. University of Nebraska - Lincoln. UNL Environmental Health and Safety. Safe Operating Procedures, 2005-2008. Vecchio D, Sasco AJ, Cann CI. 2003. Occupational risk in health care and research. American Journal of Industrial Medicine. 43:369-397. ## Appendices ## Additional OSHA Information ## Chemical Hazards Laboratory workers may be exposed to a variety of hazardous chemicals on the job. The following OSHA resources provide information on how to prevent or reduce exposure to some of the more common chemicals. ## OSHA Standards The Air Contaminants standard (1910.1000) provides rules for protecting workers from exposure to over 400 chemicals. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1000 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_ - table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9991 - · Hospital eTool - n Laboratories - Common safety and health topics - · Toluene, Xylene, or Acrylamide Exposure http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#Toulene,Xylene,orAcrylamideExposure']",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information on how to handle energy in equipment. The context focuses on personal protective equipment, respiratory protection, eye and face protection, and chemical hazards in laboratory settings, but does not address energy handling in equipment.",3,Equipment safety procedures,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Complete standard - 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&p_id=9778 - eTool covering personal protective equipment.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""29 CFR 1910.132(a). - Complete standards - 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&p_id=10118""}]",The provided context contains references to OSHA standards and laboratory safety resources but does not provide specific information about handling energy in equipment.,23
+4257,How to handle energy in equipment?,"[""- · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/eyeandface/index.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Eye and Face Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/eyefaceprotection/index.html The Respiratory Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134) requires that a respirator be provided to each worker when such equipment is necessary to protect their health. The employer must provide respirators that are appropriate based on the hazards to which the worker is exposed and factors that affect respirator performance and reliability, as described in 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(1). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.134 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=12716&p\\_ text\\_version=FALSE - · Guidance Documents - n Respiratory Protection. OSHA Publication 3079 (2002). - n Small Entity Compliance Guide for OSHA's Respiratory Protection Standard. OSHA Publication 9071 (1999). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/secgrev-current.pdf - n Assigned Protection Factors for the Revised Respiratory Protection Standard. OSHA Publication 3352 (2009). - http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/respiratory/index.html - · Fact Sheet - n Respiratory Infection Control: Respirators Versus Surgical Masks - · eTool - n Respiratory Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/respiratory/index.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Respiratory Protection http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/respiratoryprotection/index.html"", ""- · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf ## Personal Protective Equipment The Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) standard (29 CFR 1910.132) requires that employers provide PPE and ensure that it is used wherever 'hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants [are] encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact,' 29 CFR 1910.132(a). - · Complete standards - n 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=10118 - · Fact Sheet - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/ppe-factsheet.pdf - · Brochures/Booklets - n Personal Protective Equipment. OSHA Publication 3151 (2003). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3151.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/personalprotectiveequipment/index.html The Eye and Face Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.133) requires that employers ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation, 29 CFR 1910.133(a). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection"", 'Kimman TG, Smit E, Klein MR. Evidence-based biosafety: A review of the principles and effectiveness of microbiological containment. Clinical Microbiology Reviews. 2008. 21:403-425. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances, (published annually) U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Occupational Health Guidelines for Chemical Hazards, NIOSH/OSHA. National Research Council, Prudent Practices in the Laboratory: Handling and Management of Chemical Hazards, National Academy Press, 2011. Rose S. Clinical Laboratory Safety. J.B. Lippincott. Philadelphia, PA, 1984. Singh K. Laboratory-acquired infections. Clinical Infectious Diseases. 2009. 49:142-147. University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. UIUC Model Chemical Hygiene Plan, 1999. University of Nebraska - Lincoln. UNL Environmental Health and Safety. Safe Operating Procedures, 2005-2008. Vecchio D, Sasco AJ, Cann CI. 2003. Occupational risk in health care and research. American Journal of Industrial Medicine. 43:369-397. ## Appendices ## Additional OSHA Information ## Chemical Hazards Laboratory workers may be exposed to a variety of hazardous chemicals on the job. The following OSHA resources provide information on how to prevent or reduce exposure to some of the more common chemicals. ## OSHA Standards The Air Contaminants standard (1910.1000) provides rules for protecting workers from exposure to over 400 chemicals. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1000 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_ - table=STANDARDS&p\\_id=9991 - · Hospital eTool - n Laboratories - Common safety and health topics - · Toluene, Xylene, or Acrylamide Exposure http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#Toulene,Xylene,orAcrylamideExposure']",medium,refusal,"The provided context does not contain information on how to handle energy in equipment. The context focuses on personal protective equipment, respiratory protection, eye and face protection, and chemical hazards in laboratory settings, but does not address energy handling in equipment.",3,Equipment safety procedures,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Complete standard - 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&p_id=9778 - eTool covering personal protective equipment.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""29 CFR 1910.132(a). - Complete standards - 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&p_id=10118""}]",The provided context contains references to OSHA standards and laboratory safety resources but does not provide specific information about handling energy in equipment.,23
 5773,"If a floating thingy has a chatty radio, does it need to play by the traffic game?","[""radiotelephone. 26.07 Communications. 26.08 Exemption procedures. 26.09 List of exemptions. ## § 26.01 Purpose. (a) The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of the Vessel Bridgeto-Bridge Radiotelephone Act. This part: - (1) Requires the use of the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone; - (2) Provides the Coast Guard's interpretation of the meaning of important terms in the Act; - (3) Prescribes the procedures for applying for an exemption from the Act and the regulations issued under the Act and a listing of exemptions. - (b) Nothing in this part relieves any person from the obligation of complying with the rules of the road and the applicable pilot rules. ## § 26.02 Definitions. For the purpose of this part and interpreting the Act: Act means the 'Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act', 33 U.S.C. sections 1201-1208; Length Powerdriven vessel Secretary operating; is measured from end to end over the deck excluding sheer; means any vessel propelled by machinery; and means the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is Territorial sea means all waters as defined in §2.22(a)(1) ‡ of this chapter. Towing vessel means any commercial vessel engaged in towing another vessel astern, alongside, or by pushing ahead. Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) means a service implemented under Part 161 of this chapter by the United States Coast Guard designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment. The VTS has the capability to interact with marine traffic and respond to traffic situations developing in the VTS area. Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service as described in Part 161 of this chapter. This area of service may be subdivided into zones for the purpose of allocating responsibility to individual Vessel Traffic Centers or to identify different operating requirements."", '## § 161.13 VTS Special Area operating requirements. The following operating requirements apply within a VTS Special Area: - (a) A VTS User shall, if towing astern, do so with as short a hawser as safety and good seamanship permits. - (b) A VMRS User shall: - (1) Not enter or get underway in the area without prior approval of the VTS; - (2) Not enter a VTS Special Area if a hazardous vessel operating condition or circumstance exists; - (3) Not meet, cross, or overtake any other VMRS User in the area without prior approval of the VTS; and - (4) Before meeting, crossing, or overtaking any other VMRS User in the area, communicate on the designated vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone frequency, intended navigation movements, and any other information necessary in order to make safe passing arrangements. This requirement does not relieve a vessel of any duty prescribed by the International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) or the Inland Navigation Rules. ## Subpart B-Vessel Movement Reporting System ## § 161.15 Purpose and intent. - (a) A Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) is a system used to monitor and track vessel movements within a VTS or VMRS area. This is accomplished by requiring that vessels provide information under established procedures as set forth in this part, or as directed by the Center. - (b) To avoid imposing an undue reporting burden or unduly congesting radiotelephone frequencies, reports shall be limited to information which is essential to achieve the objectives of the VMRS. These reports are consolidated into three reports (sailing plan, position, and final). ## § 161.16 Applicability.', '- A vessel must report its name and position: - (a) Upon point of entry into a VMRS area; - (b) At designated reporting points as set forth in subpart C; or - (c) When directed by the Center. ## § 161.21 Automated reporting. - (a) Unless otherwise directed, vessels equipped with an Automatic Identification System (AIS) are required to make continuous, all stations, AIS broadcasts, in lieu of voice Position Reports, to those Centers denoted in Table 161.12(c) of this part. - (b) Should an AIS become non-operational, while or prior to navigating a VMRS area, it should be restored to operating condition as soon as possible, and, until restored a vessel must: - (1) Notify the Center; - (2) Make voice radio Position Reports at designated reporting points as required by § 161.20(b) of this part; and - (3) Make any other reports as directed by the Center. ## § 161.22 Final Report (FR). - A vessel must report its name and position: - (a) On arrival at its destination; or - (b) When leaving a VTS area ## § 161.23 Reporting exemptions. - (a) Unless otherwise directed, the following vessels are exempted from providing Position and Final Reports due to the nature of their operation: - (1) Vessels on a published schedule and route; - (2) Vessels operating within an area of a radius of three nautical miles or less; or - (3) Vessels escorting another vessel or assisting another vessel in maneuvering procedures. - (b) A vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section must: - (1) Provide a Sailing Plan at least 5 minutes but not more than 15 minutes before navigating within the VMRS area; and - (2) If it departs from its promulgated schedule by more than 15 minutes or changes its limited operating area, make the established VMRS reports, or report as directed. ## Subpart C-Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points NOTE: All geographic coordinates contained in part 161 (latitude and longitude) are expressed in North American Datum of 1983 (NAD 83).', ""Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) means a service implemented by the United States Coast Guard designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment. The VTS has the capability to interact with marine traffic and respond to traffic situations developing in the VTS area. Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service. This area of service may be subdivided into zones for the purpose of allocating responsibility to individual Vessel Traffic Centers or to identify different operating requirements. NOTE: Although regulatory jurisdiction is limited to the navigable waters of the United States, certain vessels will be encouraged or may be required, as a condition of port entry, to report beyond this area to facilitate traffic management within the VTS area. VTS Special Area means a waterway within a VTS area in which special operating requirements apply. VTS User means a vessel, or an owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel, that is: - (1) Subject to the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act; - (2) Required to participate in a VMRS; or - (3) Equipped with a required Coast Guard type-approved Automatic Identification System (AIS). VTS User's Manual means the manual established and distributed by the VTS to provide the mariner with a description of the services offered and rules in force for that VTS. Additionally, the manual may include chartlets showing the area and zone boundaries, general navigational information about the area, and procedures, radio frequencies, reporting provisions and other information which may assist the mariner while in the VTS Area. ## § 161.3 Applicability. The provisions of this subpart shall apply to each VTS User and may also apply to any vessel while underway or at anchor on the navigable waters of the United States within a VTS area, to the extent the VTS considers necessary. ## § 161.4 Requirement to carry the rules. Each VTS User shall carry on board and maintain for ready reference a copy of these rules.""]",hard,follow-up,The question is not clear enough to provide a precise answer based on the context. Could you clarify what you mean by 'floating thingy' and 'chatty radio'? Are you referring to a vessel with a radiotelephone or an Automatic Identification System (AIS)?,4,Vessel radio requirements,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Radiotelephone Communications. Exemption procedures. List of exemptions. The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""VTS Special Area operating requirements. The following operating requirements apply within a VTS Special Area: A VTS User shall, if towing, comply with specific regulations.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel must report its name and position: (a) Upon point of entry into a VMRS area; (b) At designated reporting points as set forth in subpart C.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) means a service implemented by the United States Coast Guard designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment.""}]","The question uses informal language ('floating thingy', 'chatty radio', 'traffic game') that requires clarification before it can be properly answered with the provided maritime communication regulations.",24
-5832,What's the frequency for the area near that bay?,"[""| Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61°05' N., east of 147°20' W., north of 60° N., and west of 146°30' W.; and, all navigable waters in Port Valdez. | | Puget Sound 7 Seattle Traffic -003669957 | 156.700 MHz (Ch. 14) | The waters of Puget Sound, Hood Canal and adjacent waters south of a line connecting Nodule Point and Bush Point in Admiralty Inlet and south of a line drawn due east from the southernmost tip of Possession Point on Whidbey Island to the shoreline. | | Seattle Traffic | 156.250 MHz (Ch. 5A) | The U.S. waters of the Salish Sea east of 124°40.00′ W. including waters south and east of a line drawn from Church Point on Vancouver Island, to Race Rocks Light, due east to the intersection of the U.S./Canadian border at 48°17.88' N. / 123°14.1' W., north-easterly to Hein Bank in position 48°21.094' N. / 123°02.672' W., northerly to Cattle Point Light on San Juan Island, along the shoreline to Lime Kiln Light, to Kellett Bluff Light on Henry Island, along the shoreline to the tip of McCracken Point at the northernmost point of Henry Island, to the southernmost point on Stuart Island in position 48°39.46' N. / 123°11.08' W., along the shoreline to Turn Point Light, to Sandy Point on Waldron Island, along the shoreline to Point Hammond, to Patos Island Light, to Alden Bank in position 48°50.39' N. / 122°52.227' W., then due north to Boundary Bay in position 49°00.125' N."", ""| | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′ 30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP and on the south by a line drawn perpendicularly at 29°55.3′ N 089°55.6′ W (Saxonholm Light) at 86.0 miles AHP. | | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.05A) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River below 30°38.7′ N 091°17.5′ W (Port Hudson Light) at 254.5 miles AHP bounded on the south by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP. | | New York -003669951 | | | | New York Traffic | 156.550 MHz (Ch. 11) -For Sailing Plans only 156.600 MHz (Ch. 12) -For vessels at anchor | The area consists of the navigable waters of the Lower New York Bay bounded on the east by a line drawn from Norton Point to Breezy Point; on the south by a line connecting the entrance buoys at the Ambrose Channel, Swash Channel, and Sandy Hook Channel to Sandy Hook Point; and on the southeast including the waters of Sandy Hook Bay south to a line drawn at latitude 40°25' N; then west in the Raritan Bay to the Raritan River Railroad Bridge, then north into waters of the Arthur Kill and Newark Bay to the Lehigh Valley Draw Bridge at latitude 40°41.9' N; and then east including the waters of the Kill Van Kull and the Upper New York Bay north to a line drawn east-west from the Holland Tunnel ventilator shaft at latitude 40°43.7' N, longitude 74°01.6' W, in the Hudson River;"", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W.""]",easy,follow-up,The question is not clear enough to determine which specific bay or area you are referring to. Please provide more details or specify the name of the bay or its approximate location to get the correct frequency information.,3,Maritime communication frequencies,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61\u00b005' N., east of 147\u00b020' W., north of 60\u00b0 N., and west of 146\u00b030' W.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42\u00b025.4' N., longitude 70\u00b054.2' W.""}]","The question does not specify which bay is being referenced, making it impossible to determine which communication frequency applies based on the provided information about Valdez, New Orleans, and Boston areas.",25
-1891,Are enrichment nutrients like riboflavin required to be listed on the Nutrition Facts label if added separately to unenriched flour?,"[""## should the vitamins and minerals in flour be listed on the Facts label? N6. When Nutrition FDA only requires that the label declare the vitamins A C, and the minerals calcium and iron. The other enrichment vitamins minerals must be declared when they are added directly to the packaged (e.g., enriched bread), but not when the enriched product is added as an to another food. NOTE: It is necessary to declare the other and minerals in the ingredient list. However, if unenriched flour is and the enrichment nutrients are added separately, those nutrients (i.e., ribof lavin, niacin, and folic acid) would have to be declared on the Facts label. CFR 101.9(c)(8)(ii)(A)-(B) and 21 CFR Answer: Generally, and and food ingredient vitamins used, thiamin, Nutrition 21 101.9(c)(8)(iv) ## the caloric value for a serving of a food is less than 5 calories, can actual caloric value be declared? N7. When the caloric value of a product containing less than 5 calories may be as zero or to the nearest 5 calorie increment (i.e., zero or 5 on the level). Foods with less than 5 calories meet the definition 'calorie free' and any differences are dietarily insignificant. CFR 101.9(c)(1) Answer: The expressed depending of 21 ## a value of 47 calories be rounded up to 50 calories or rounded to 45 calories? N8. Should down calories or less--Round to nearest 5-calorie increment: 50 Round 47 calories to '45 calories' Example: 50 calories--Round to nearest 10-calorie increment: Above Round 96 calories to '100 calories' Example: Answer: must be shown as follows: Calories CFR 101.9(c)(1) see Appendix H for rounding guidelines. 21 Also ## are calories from alcohol to be calculated? N9. How"", ""## there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? L30.Is present simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron (slightly different rules labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years). The five core shown in bold in the adjoining example, must always appear on all Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food. In addition, Answer: A following saturated sugars, for nutrients, Nutrition any of the nutrients required on the full Nutrition Facts label that are naturally present or are added to the food must be declared on the simplified Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(f) - List of nutrients; 101.9(f)(1) - 'Insignificant' defined; 101.9(c) - 'Insignificant' levels listed for nutrients ## L31.What are insignificant amounts of nutrients? Answer: These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(c) ## L32.When I use the simplified format, when is the statement 'Not a significant source of\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_' required? Answer: This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: (1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared. 21 CFR 101.9(f)(4)""]",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, if unenriched flour is used and enrichment nutrients (such as riboflavin, niacin, and folic acid) are added separately, those nutrients must be declared on the Nutrition Facts label. This requirement is specified under 21 CFR 101.9(c)(8)(ii)(A)-(B).",2,Food labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">When should the vitamins and minerals in flour be listed on the Nutrition Facts label? FDA only requires that the label declare nutrients when they are added directly to the food or when a claim is made about them</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Is there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? A simplified Nutrition Facts format is available for foods that contain insignificant amounts of seven or more of the mandatory nutrients</span>.""}]",,26
-5762,What happens if the equipment stops working?,"[""- (c) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants upon the navigable waters of the United States. - (d) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be capable of transmitting and receiving on VHF FM channel 22A (157.1 MHz). - (e) While transiting any of the following waters, each vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section also must have on board a radiotelephone capable of transmitting and receiving on VHF FM channel 67 (156.375 MHz): - (1) The lower Mississippi River from the territorial sea boundary, and within either the Southwest Pass safety fairway or the South Pass safety fairway specified in 33 CFR 166.200, to mile 242.4 AHP (Above Head of Passes) near Baton Rouge; ## VESSEL BRIDGE-TO-BRIDGE RADIOTELEPHONE -CONTINUED - (2) The Mississippi River-Gulf Outlet from the territorial sea boundary, and within the Mississippi River-Gulf Outlet Safety Fairway specified in 33 CFR 166.200, to that channel's junction with the Inner Harbor Navigation Canal; and - (3) The full length of the Inner Harbor Navigation Canal from its junction with the Mississippi River to that canal's entry to Lake Pontchartrain at the New Seabrook vehicular bridge. - (f) In addition to the radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section, each vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section while transiting any waters within a Vessel Traffic Service Area, must have on board a radiotelephone capable of transmitting and receiving on the VTS designated frequency in Table 161.12(c) (VTS and VMRS Center, Call Signs/MMSI, Designated Frequencies, and Monitoring Areas). NOTE: A single VHF FM radio capable of scanning or sequential monitoring (often referred to as 'dual watch' capability) will not meet the requirements for two radios. ## § 26.04 Use of the designated frequency."", ""Section 6 of the Act states: - (a) Whenever radiotelephone capability is required by this Act, a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall be maintained in effective operating condition. If the radiotelephone equipment carried aboard a vessel ceases to operate, the master shall exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time. The failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall not, in itself, constitute a violation of this Act, nor shall it obligate the master of any vessel to moor or anchor his vessel; however, the loss of radiotelephone capability shall be given consideration in the navigation of the vessel. ## § 26.07 Communications. No person may use the services of, and no person may serve as, a person required to maintain a listening watch under section 5 of the Act, 33 U.S.C. 1204, unless the person can communicate in the English language. ## § 26.08 Exemption procedures. - (a) The Commandant has redelegated to the Assistant Commandant for Prevention Policy, U.S. Coast Guard Headquarters, with the reservation that this authority shall not be further redelegated, the authority to grant exemptions from provisions of the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act and this part. - (b) Any person may petition for an exemption from any provision of the Act or this part; - (c) Each petition must be submitted in writing to Commandant (CG-DCO-D), Attn: Deputy for Operations Policy and Capabilities, U.S. Coast Guard Stop 7318, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20593-7318, and must state: - (1) The provisions of the Act or this part from which an exemption is requested; and - (2) The reasons why marine navigation will not be adversely affected if the exemption is granted and if the exemption relates to a local communication system how that system would fully comply with the intent of the concept of the Act but would not conform in detail if the exemption is granted. ## VESSEL BRIDGE-TO-BRIDGE RADIOTELEPHONE -CONTINUED ## § 26.09 List of Exemptions."", ""## § 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 ''Ports and Waterways Safety'' setting up a national system of Vessel Traffic Services that will enhance navigation, vessel safety, and marine environmental protection, and promote safe vessel movement by reducing the potential for collisions, rammings, and groundings, and the loss of lives and property associated with these incidents within VTS areas established hereunder. - (b) Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment. - (c) The owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel remains at all times responsible for the manner in which the vessel is operated and maneuvered, and is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel under all circumstances. Compliance with these rules or with a direction of the VTS is at all times contingent upon the exigencies of safe navigation. 161.20 Position Report (PR). 161.21 Automated reporting. 161.22 Final Report (FR). 161.23 Reporting exemptions. ## Subpart C - Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points 161.25 Vessel Traffic Service New York Area. 161.30 Vessel Traffic Service Louisville. 161.35 Vessel Traffic Service Houston/Galveston. 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. 161.45 Vessel Traffic Service St. Marys River. 161.50 Vessel Traffic Service San Francisco. 161.55 Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound and the Cooperative Vessel Traffic Service for the Juan de Fuca Region. 161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River. 161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur."", 'Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service as described in Part 161 of this chapter. This area of service may be subdivided into zones for the purpose of allocating responsibility to individual Vessel Traffic Centers or to identify different operating requirements. NOTE: Although regulatory jurisdiction is limited to the navigable waters of the United States, certain vessels will be encouraged or may be required, as a condition of port entry, to report beyond this area to facilitate traffic management within the VTS area. (Rule 1, International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (as rectified); EO 11964 (14 U.S.C. 102); 49 CFR 1.46(b)) ## § 26.03 Radiotelephone required. - (a) Unless an exemption is granted under §26.09 and except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, this part applies to: - (1) Every power-driven vessel of 20 meters or over in length while navigating; - (2) Every vessel of 100 gross tons and upward carrying one or more passengers for hire while navigating; - (3) Every towing vessel of 26 feet or over in length while navigating; and - (4) Every dredge and floating plant engaged in or near a channel or fairway in operations likely to restrict or affect navigation of other vessels except for an unmanned or intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge. - (b) Every vessel, dredge, or floating plant described in paragraph (a) of this section must have a radiotelephone on board capable of operation from its navigational bridge, or in the case of a dredge, from its main control station, and capable of transmitting and receiving on the frequency or frequencies within the 156-162 Mega-Hertz band using the classes of emissions designated by the Federal Communications Commission for the exchange of navigational information. - (c) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants upon the navigable waters of the United States.']",easy,answer,"If the radiotelephone equipment ceases to operate, the master of the vessel must exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time. The failure of the equipment does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act, nor does it obligate the master to moor or anchor the vessel. However, the loss of radiotelephone capability must be given consideration in the navigation of the vessel.",4,Radio equipment requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants and must be maintained in effective operating condition</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Section 6 of the Act states: (a) Whenever radiotelephone capability is required by this Act, a vessel&#x27;s radiotelephone equipment shall be maintained in effective operating condition</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 701 related to vessel traffic services.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service as described in Part 161 of this chapter.""}]",,27
-915,Why do some grazing areas experience overgrazing while others are abandoned?,"['This type of livestockraising directly uses natural vegetation, but its relatively low productivity means that greenhouse gas emissions are fairly high per unit of output. In principle, grazing systems are closed: the waste products of manure and urine are returned directly to the system. If well managed, this does not present a burden on the environment. However, resource degradation, especially of land and biodiversity, is a widespread problem. For the most part this is occurring where, as a result of external pressures, traditionally wellmanaged common lands have become open access areas (de Haan et al. 1997). Problems of restricted access and movement of livestock also lead to concentration and overgrazing in certain areas but to abandonment of other areas. This problem of access can result from changing land tenure, conflicts or lack of infrastructure (such as boreholes in Africa and roads to summer pastures in Central Asia). In such open access situations, degradation is most severe. With appropriate management, however, grazing systems can offer potential for ecosystem services and biodiversity enhancement (Janzen 2010, Teague et al. 2013). If degraded grazing systems are restored to health, they hold considerable potential to sequester organic carbon in the soil (Paustian et al., 2016; Lal, 2004). ## Labor-intensive systems Labor-intensive systems are typically smallholder-based and occur mainly as part of mixed crop-livestock farms. As well as arable crops, such farms may include aquaculture and tree crops. They are typified by the smallholder systems of Central America, Africa and Asia. The majority of labor-intensive systems are family farms with a focus on producing staple foods for subsistence, with surpluses sold or exchanged locally. However, in some cases - such as smallholder dairy production in East Africa and South Asia - they are well organized and linked to national and international markets. Figure 3a and 3b Two labor intensive livestock systems: family pig keeping in Viet Nam and dairy in Tajikistan', ""## Animal welfare Concern about animal welfare has been growing strongly globally, for example regional strategies for animal welfare are now available across continents (e.g. African Union, 2017). For farm animals, welfare encompasses a broad range of issues relating to the health and well-being of livestock on farms, during transport and at slaughter. Livestock production in LMICs is dominated by smallholders. They typically devote much greater individual attention to their animals than is possible in larger systems. Welfare problems instead come from scarce feed and health resources, or an absence of knowledge, not an absence of care (Godfray and Garnett 2014; Abubakar et al. 2018). In large scale animal production, animal welfare challenges are related to confinement, behavioral restrictions, and extreme levels of production and intervention. Animal welfare considers the health, nutrition, housing and behavioral needs of animals, and how they are managed. It is linked to the pillars of sustainable agriculture (Broom 2010; Appleby and Mitchell 2018). FAO's vision for sustainable livestock production treats animal welfare as a priority (FAO 2018). The welfare of livestock and working animals directly relates to eight of the UN's Sustainable Development Goals (Doyle et al. 2018; World Horse Welfare and The Donkey Sanctuary 2018; Keeling et al. 2019) Many livestock enterprises are responding to changing consumer preferences, including welfare sensibilities. Some can charge a higher price for products produced in a way that is mindful of animal welfare; or penalties for non-compliance to animal welfare standards may emerge. Better animal welfare may incur costs: it may be necessary, for example, to convert production facilities, replace equipment, reduce the number of animals, allocate more space per animal, or switch to alternative sources of feed. But it also brings benefits for farmers by allowing them to target higher-value markets and by cutting losses, wastage and animal mortality. It is often more environmentally friendly than conventional production. It is good for worker satisfaction too, as well as for occupational health, food safety and food security. These trade-offs need to be identified and managed, and synergies built upon."", ""- &gt; Food and nutrition security - &gt; Livelihoods and economic growth - &gt; Animal health and welfare - &gt; Climate and natural resource use. The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock (GASL/Global Agenda) has adopted this framework. The 2019 meeting of the Global Agenda, held in Manhattan, Kansas, in collaboration with Kansas State University, focused on the theme of 'Innovation for sustainable livestock systems'. Four papers, one on each domain, were commissioned to provide information to feed into the technical and policy debates. They were peer-reviewed before the meeting and have been further revised to reflect feedback during the meeting. The paper on the domain 'Animal health and welfare' is the basis of this publication. ## Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock is a partnership committed to the sustainable development of the livestock sector. It aims to builds consensus on the path towards sustainability and to catalyse practice change through dialogue, consultation and joint analysis. It brings together a wide range of stakeholders: the public and private sectors, producers, research and academic institutions, donors, NGOs, social movements and community organizations, and intergovernmental and multilateral organizations. www.livestockdialogue.org ## In this publication This publication focuses on the issues, opportunities and risks in animal health and welfare that stakeholders face in relation to the sustainability of livestock systems. It identifies innovations and policies that may help them take advantage of the opportunities and manage the risks, while still ensuring sustainability in other dimensions: food and nutrition security, livelihoods and economic growth, and climate and natural resource use. Section 2 presents the diversity of livestock systems and outlines three broad livestock production systems: extensive, labour-intensive, and capital intensive. Section 3 focuses on animal health and welfare and consists of 5 parts:"", '## Promote animal welfare Efforts to improve animal welfare include both creating and raising minimum standards for welfare, and enforcing accountability to improve practices. These must cover all stages in the production cycle: on-farm, transport and slaughter. A combination is needed of command-and-control regulation (from government), and cross-compliance and soft law (from industry and the supply chain), whereby actors must achieve a level of welfare in order to sell their products. In many governmental and compliance systems, large gaps exist between policy, regulation and implementation. Policies that are not demanded by farmers or consumers but developed by experts and adopted in response to international pressure are especially likely to be ignored. Extension providers must be trained in animal welfare so they can guide producers. Industry actors and nongovernment organizations can often connect with farmers better than governments. Rather than imposing rules, dialogue is needed to raise awareness of animal welfare among producers and consumers. ## Synergies Animal health and welfare interact and support each other; freedom from disease is substantial share of welfare and good care and management is a prerequisite for raising animals that are robust and resistant to disease. Here we focus on synergies between animal health and welfare, and the other livestock sustainability domains. ## Negative externalities The flip side of synergies are negative externalities: where a decline or failure in one domain leads to problems in another domain. Examples abound. Lower productivity (livelihoods domain) threatens the food security of livestock keepers (and of the population as a whole) and may forces them to over-exploit the natural resources, spend less on maintaining animal health, over-use of antibiotics, and pay less attention to animal welfare. ## Trade-offs Improvements in animal health and welfare may theoretically lead to losses in other domains. Such negative interactions - trade-offs - are sometimes difficult to spot, and it can be hard to agree on what the right approach should be: should the animal welfare be sacrificed in order to boost output, or to guarantee food security? ## Animal health and welfare and Food and nutrition security ## Synergies', ""## Institutions and compliance Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle is an example. This zoonotic disease was eradicated in Sweden in the 1950s based on the robust diagnostics available at that time (Cerenius 2010). This was made possible because communal grazing and mixing of herds were limited, engagement in farmers' organizations was strong, and the veterinary authority and service interacted closely with the farmers. These institutional factors made compliance with external biosecurity measures effective. The opposite conditions still apply in many countries where brucellosis is an issue (Plumb et al. 2013). In such cases, where animal productivity is generally low and where the disease is endemic and symptoms vague, farmers may be reluctant to invest in control measures such as vaccination. A lack of compensation for culled animals further increases resistance to control measures. The development and strengthening of institutions, both state and non-state, in such areas are vital to improving control of livestock diseases. Stronger groups of livestock keepers make it easier for government organizations and veterinary services to interact with larger numbers of local people, learn about their opinions and needs, and provide them with the information and services they require. It also makes compliance with disease-control measures more possible (FAO, 2020). ## Monitoring and surveillance Advances in technology are making it possible to detect and respond to livestock diseases more quickly. Improved testing and control have made it possible to eradicate diseases such as bovine brucellosis and porcine pseudorabies in the United States (USDA 2019a, 2019b). For some diseases it is now possible to perform a rapid diagnosis on the farm itself. To be practicable, such tests must be cheap and quick. Currently, some 'pen-side' tests and several basic laboratory tests are in common use in HICs.""]",medium,answer,"Some grazing areas experience overgrazing while others are abandoned due to a combination of factors related to access and management. According to the context, traditionally well-managed common lands have become open access areas due to external pressures, leading to resource degradation. Problems of restricted access and movement of livestock result in concentration and overgrazing in certain areas, while other areas are abandoned. These access issues can stem from changing land tenure, conflicts, or lack of infrastructure, such as boreholes in Africa and roads to summer pastures in Central Asia. In such open access situations, degradation is most severe.",5,Livestock management practices,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">This type of livestock raising directly uses natural vegetation, but its relatively low productivity means that greenhouse gas emissions per unit of product are often high. Overgrazing leads to land degradation in some areas, while other grazing areas are abandoned</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Animal welfare: Concern about animal welfare has been growing strongly globally, for example regional strategies for animal welfare have been developed in Europe and Asia. These include both farm and companion animals</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Food and nutrition security, Livelihoods and economic growth, Animal health and welfare, Climate and natural resource use. These are key focuses for sustainable livestock management.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Promote animal welfare: Efforts to improve animal welfare include both creating and raising minimum standards for welfare, and enforcing accountability and certification systems.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Institutions and compliance: Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle can be effectively managed through proper institutional frameworks.""}]",,28
+5832,What's the frequency for the area near that bay?,"[""| Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61°05' N., east of 147°20' W., north of 60° N., and west of 146°30' W.; and, all navigable waters in Port Valdez. | | Puget Sound 7 Seattle Traffic -003669957 | 156.700 MHz (Ch. 14) | The waters of Puget Sound, Hood Canal and adjacent waters south of a line connecting Nodule Point and Bush Point in Admiralty Inlet and south of a line drawn due east from the southernmost tip of Possession Point on Whidbey Island to the shoreline. | | Seattle Traffic | 156.250 MHz (Ch. 5A) | The U.S. waters of the Salish Sea east of 124°40.00′ W. including waters south and east of a line drawn from Church Point on Vancouver Island, to Race Rocks Light, due east to the intersection of the U.S./Canadian border at 48°17.88' N. / 123°14.1' W., north-easterly to Hein Bank in position 48°21.094' N. / 123°02.672' W., northerly to Cattle Point Light on San Juan Island, along the shoreline to Lime Kiln Light, to Kellett Bluff Light on Henry Island, along the shoreline to the tip of McCracken Point at the northernmost point of Henry Island, to the southernmost point on Stuart Island in position 48°39.46' N. / 123°11.08' W., along the shoreline to Turn Point Light, to Sandy Point on Waldron Island, along the shoreline to Point Hammond, to Patos Island Light, to Alden Bank in position 48°50.39' N. / 122°52.227' W., then due north to Boundary Bay in position 49°00.125' N."", ""| | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′ 30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP and on the south by a line drawn perpendicularly at 29°55.3′ N 089°55.6′ W (Saxonholm Light) at 86.0 miles AHP. | | New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.05A) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River below 30°38.7′ N 091°17.5′ W (Port Hudson Light) at 254.5 miles AHP bounded on the south by a line drawn perpendicular on the river at 29°55′30′′ N and 090°12′46′′ W (Upper Twelve Mile Point) at 109.0 miles AHP. | | New York -003669951 | | | | New York Traffic | 156.550 MHz (Ch. 11) -For Sailing Plans only 156.600 MHz (Ch. 12) -For vessels at anchor | The area consists of the navigable waters of the Lower New York Bay bounded on the east by a line drawn from Norton Point to Breezy Point; on the south by a line connecting the entrance buoys at the Ambrose Channel, Swash Channel, and Sandy Hook Channel to Sandy Hook Point; and on the southeast including the waters of Sandy Hook Bay south to a line drawn at latitude 40°25' N; then west in the Raritan Bay to the Raritan River Railroad Bridge, then north into waters of the Arthur Kill and Newark Bay to the Lehigh Valley Draw Bridge at latitude 40°41.9' N; and then east including the waters of the Kill Van Kull and the Upper New York Bay north to a line drawn east-west from the Holland Tunnel ventilator shaft at latitude 40°43.7' N, longitude 74°01.6' W, in the Hudson River;"", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W.""]",easy,follow-up,The question is not clear enough to determine which specific bay or area you are referring to. Please provide more details or specify the name of the bay or its approximate location to get the correct frequency information.,3,Maritime communication frequencies,True,"[{""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Valdez Traffic | 156.650 MHz (Ch. 13) | The navigable waters south of 61\u00b005' N., east of 147\u00b020' W., north of 60\u00b0 N., and west of 146\u00b030' W.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""New Orleans Traffic | 156.600 MHz (Ch.12) | The navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River bounded on the north by a line drawn perpendicular.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42\u00b025.4' N., longitude 70\u00b054.2' W.""}]","The question does not specify which bay is being referenced, making it impossible to determine which communication frequency applies based on the provided information about Valdez, New Orleans, and Boston areas.",25
+1891,Are enrichment nutrients like riboflavin required to be listed on the Nutrition Facts label if added separately to unenriched flour?,"[""## should the vitamins and minerals in flour be listed on the Facts label? N6. When Nutrition FDA only requires that the label declare the vitamins A C, and the minerals calcium and iron. The other enrichment vitamins minerals must be declared when they are added directly to the packaged (e.g., enriched bread), but not when the enriched product is added as an to another food. NOTE: It is necessary to declare the other and minerals in the ingredient list. However, if unenriched flour is and the enrichment nutrients are added separately, those nutrients (i.e., ribof lavin, niacin, and folic acid) would have to be declared on the Facts label. CFR 101.9(c)(8)(ii)(A)-(B) and 21 CFR Answer: Generally, and and food ingredient vitamins used, thiamin, Nutrition 21 101.9(c)(8)(iv) ## the caloric value for a serving of a food is less than 5 calories, can actual caloric value be declared? N7. When the caloric value of a product containing less than 5 calories may be as zero or to the nearest 5 calorie increment (i.e., zero or 5 on the level). Foods with less than 5 calories meet the definition 'calorie free' and any differences are dietarily insignificant. CFR 101.9(c)(1) Answer: The expressed depending of 21 ## a value of 47 calories be rounded up to 50 calories or rounded to 45 calories? N8. Should down calories or less--Round to nearest 5-calorie increment: 50 Round 47 calories to '45 calories' Example: 50 calories--Round to nearest 10-calorie increment: Above Round 96 calories to '100 calories' Example: Answer: must be shown as follows: Calories CFR 101.9(c)(1) see Appendix H for rounding guidelines. 21 Also ## are calories from alcohol to be calculated? N9. How"", ""## there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? L30.Is present simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron (slightly different rules labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years). The five core shown in bold in the adjoining example, must always appear on all Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food. In addition, Answer: A following saturated sugars, for nutrients, Nutrition any of the nutrients required on the full Nutrition Facts label that are naturally present or are added to the food must be declared on the simplified Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(f) - List of nutrients; 101.9(f)(1) - 'Insignificant' defined; 101.9(c) - 'Insignificant' levels listed for nutrients ## L31.What are insignificant amounts of nutrients? Answer: These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(c) ## L32.When I use the simplified format, when is the statement 'Not a significant source of\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_' required? Answer: This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: (1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared. 21 CFR 101.9(f)(4)""]",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, if unenriched flour is used and enrichment nutrients (such as riboflavin, niacin, and folic acid) are added separately, those nutrients must be declared on the Nutrition Facts label. This requirement is specified under 21 CFR 101.9(c)(8)(ii)(A)-(B).",2,Food labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When should the vitamins and minerals in flour be listed on the Nutrition Facts label? FDA only requires that the label declare nutrients when they are added directly to the food or when a claim is made about them. For example, if a manufacturer adds <span class=\""highlight\"">riboflavin</span> to a product or a label states that the product is <span class=\""highlight\"">enriched</span> or a good source of ribloflavin, then the Nutrition Facts label for the product must list the <span class=\""highlight\"">added nutrients</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Regarding <span class=\""highlight\"">enrichment nutrients</span>: If a manufacturer uses <span class=\""highlight\"">unenriched flour and adds enrichment nutrients separately</span>, those nutrients must be declared on the <span class=\""highlight\"">Nutrition Facts label</span>. Reference: 21 CFR 101.9(c)(8)(ii)(A)-(B)""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Is there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? A simplified Nutrition Facts format is available for foods that contain insignificant amounts of seven or more of the mandatory nutrients.""}]",,26
+5762,What happens if the equipment stops working?,"[""- (c) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants upon the navigable waters of the United States. - (d) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be capable of transmitting and receiving on VHF FM channel 22A (157.1 MHz). - (e) While transiting any of the following waters, each vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section also must have on board a radiotelephone capable of transmitting and receiving on VHF FM channel 67 (156.375 MHz): - (1) The lower Mississippi River from the territorial sea boundary, and within either the Southwest Pass safety fairway or the South Pass safety fairway specified in 33 CFR 166.200, to mile 242.4 AHP (Above Head of Passes) near Baton Rouge; ## VESSEL BRIDGE-TO-BRIDGE RADIOTELEPHONE -CONTINUED - (2) The Mississippi River-Gulf Outlet from the territorial sea boundary, and within the Mississippi River-Gulf Outlet Safety Fairway specified in 33 CFR 166.200, to that channel's junction with the Inner Harbor Navigation Canal; and - (3) The full length of the Inner Harbor Navigation Canal from its junction with the Mississippi River to that canal's entry to Lake Pontchartrain at the New Seabrook vehicular bridge. - (f) In addition to the radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section, each vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section while transiting any waters within a Vessel Traffic Service Area, must have on board a radiotelephone capable of transmitting and receiving on the VTS designated frequency in Table 161.12(c) (VTS and VMRS Center, Call Signs/MMSI, Designated Frequencies, and Monitoring Areas). NOTE: A single VHF FM radio capable of scanning or sequential monitoring (often referred to as 'dual watch' capability) will not meet the requirements for two radios. ## § 26.04 Use of the designated frequency."", ""Section 6 of the Act states: - (a) Whenever radiotelephone capability is required by this Act, a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall be maintained in effective operating condition. If the radiotelephone equipment carried aboard a vessel ceases to operate, the master shall exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time. The failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall not, in itself, constitute a violation of this Act, nor shall it obligate the master of any vessel to moor or anchor his vessel; however, the loss of radiotelephone capability shall be given consideration in the navigation of the vessel. ## § 26.07 Communications. No person may use the services of, and no person may serve as, a person required to maintain a listening watch under section 5 of the Act, 33 U.S.C. 1204, unless the person can communicate in the English language. ## § 26.08 Exemption procedures. - (a) The Commandant has redelegated to the Assistant Commandant for Prevention Policy, U.S. Coast Guard Headquarters, with the reservation that this authority shall not be further redelegated, the authority to grant exemptions from provisions of the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act and this part. - (b) Any person may petition for an exemption from any provision of the Act or this part; - (c) Each petition must be submitted in writing to Commandant (CG-DCO-D), Attn: Deputy for Operations Policy and Capabilities, U.S. Coast Guard Stop 7318, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20593-7318, and must state: - (1) The provisions of the Act or this part from which an exemption is requested; and - (2) The reasons why marine navigation will not be adversely affected if the exemption is granted and if the exemption relates to a local communication system how that system would fully comply with the intent of the concept of the Act but would not conform in detail if the exemption is granted. ## VESSEL BRIDGE-TO-BRIDGE RADIOTELEPHONE -CONTINUED ## § 26.09 List of Exemptions."", ""## § 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 ''Ports and Waterways Safety'' setting up a national system of Vessel Traffic Services that will enhance navigation, vessel safety, and marine environmental protection, and promote safe vessel movement by reducing the potential for collisions, rammings, and groundings, and the loss of lives and property associated with these incidents within VTS areas established hereunder. - (b) Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment. - (c) The owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel remains at all times responsible for the manner in which the vessel is operated and maneuvered, and is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel under all circumstances. Compliance with these rules or with a direction of the VTS is at all times contingent upon the exigencies of safe navigation. 161.20 Position Report (PR). 161.21 Automated reporting. 161.22 Final Report (FR). 161.23 Reporting exemptions. ## Subpart C - Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points 161.25 Vessel Traffic Service New York Area. 161.30 Vessel Traffic Service Louisville. 161.35 Vessel Traffic Service Houston/Galveston. 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. 161.45 Vessel Traffic Service St. Marys River. 161.50 Vessel Traffic Service San Francisco. 161.55 Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound and the Cooperative Vessel Traffic Service for the Juan de Fuca Region. 161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River. 161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur."", 'Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service as described in Part 161 of this chapter. This area of service may be subdivided into zones for the purpose of allocating responsibility to individual Vessel Traffic Centers or to identify different operating requirements. NOTE: Although regulatory jurisdiction is limited to the navigable waters of the United States, certain vessels will be encouraged or may be required, as a condition of port entry, to report beyond this area to facilitate traffic management within the VTS area. (Rule 1, International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (as rectified); EO 11964 (14 U.S.C. 102); 49 CFR 1.46(b)) ## § 26.03 Radiotelephone required. - (a) Unless an exemption is granted under §26.09 and except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, this part applies to: - (1) Every power-driven vessel of 20 meters or over in length while navigating; - (2) Every vessel of 100 gross tons and upward carrying one or more passengers for hire while navigating; - (3) Every towing vessel of 26 feet or over in length while navigating; and - (4) Every dredge and floating plant engaged in or near a channel or fairway in operations likely to restrict or affect navigation of other vessels except for an unmanned or intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge. - (b) Every vessel, dredge, or floating plant described in paragraph (a) of this section must have a radiotelephone on board capable of operation from its navigational bridge, or in the case of a dredge, from its main control station, and capable of transmitting and receiving on the frequency or frequencies within the 156-162 Mega-Hertz band using the classes of emissions designated by the Federal Communications Commission for the exchange of navigational information. - (c) The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants upon the navigable waters of the United States.']",easy,answer,"If the radiotelephone equipment ceases to operate, the master of the vessel must exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time. The failure of the equipment does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act, nor does it obligate the master to moor or anchor the vessel. However, the loss of radiotelephone capability must be given consideration in the navigation of the vessel.",4,Radio equipment requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The radiotelephone required by paragraph (b) of this section must be carried on board the described vessels, dredges, and floating plants and must be maintained in <span class=\""highlight\"">effective operating condition</span>. If the radiotelephone <span class=\""highlight\"">ceases to operate</span>, the <span class=\""highlight\"">master shall exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition</span> at the earliest practicable time.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Section 6 of the Act states: (a) Whenever radiotelephone capability is required by this Act, a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall be maintained in <span class=\""highlight\"">effective operating condition</span>. If the radiotelephone equipment <span class=\""highlight\"">ceases to operate</span>, the master shall exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If the vessel is <span class=\""highlight\"">underway</span>, the master shall <span class=\""highlight\"">ensure that the radio is restored to operating condition within 12 hours</span>. Section 6(b) emphasizes that the vessel may continue to be operated without a working radiotelephone during this reasonable repair period.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vessel shall not depart from a harbor or port, or proceed through the Panama Canal, until the radio has been restored to operating condition. This ensures safety of navigation in busy waterways.""}]",,27
+915,Why do some grazing areas experience overgrazing while others are abandoned?,"['This type of livestockraising directly uses natural vegetation, but its relatively low productivity means that greenhouse gas emissions are fairly high per unit of output. In principle, grazing systems are closed: the waste products of manure and urine are returned directly to the system. If well managed, this does not present a burden on the environment. However, resource degradation, especially of land and biodiversity, is a widespread problem. For the most part this is occurring where, as a result of external pressures, traditionally wellmanaged common lands have become open access areas (de Haan et al. 1997). Problems of restricted access and movement of livestock also lead to concentration and overgrazing in certain areas but to abandonment of other areas. This problem of access can result from changing land tenure, conflicts or lack of infrastructure (such as boreholes in Africa and roads to summer pastures in Central Asia). In such open access situations, degradation is most severe. With appropriate management, however, grazing systems can offer potential for ecosystem services and biodiversity enhancement (Janzen 2010, Teague et al. 2013). If degraded grazing systems are restored to health, they hold considerable potential to sequester organic carbon in the soil (Paustian et al., 2016; Lal, 2004). ## Labor-intensive systems Labor-intensive systems are typically smallholder-based and occur mainly as part of mixed crop-livestock farms. As well as arable crops, such farms may include aquaculture and tree crops. They are typified by the smallholder systems of Central America, Africa and Asia. The majority of labor-intensive systems are family farms with a focus on producing staple foods for subsistence, with surpluses sold or exchanged locally. However, in some cases - such as smallholder dairy production in East Africa and South Asia - they are well organized and linked to national and international markets. Figure 3a and 3b Two labor intensive livestock systems: family pig keeping in Viet Nam and dairy in Tajikistan', ""## Animal welfare Concern about animal welfare has been growing strongly globally, for example regional strategies for animal welfare are now available across continents (e.g. African Union, 2017). For farm animals, welfare encompasses a broad range of issues relating to the health and well-being of livestock on farms, during transport and at slaughter. Livestock production in LMICs is dominated by smallholders. They typically devote much greater individual attention to their animals than is possible in larger systems. Welfare problems instead come from scarce feed and health resources, or an absence of knowledge, not an absence of care (Godfray and Garnett 2014; Abubakar et al. 2018). In large scale animal production, animal welfare challenges are related to confinement, behavioral restrictions, and extreme levels of production and intervention. Animal welfare considers the health, nutrition, housing and behavioral needs of animals, and how they are managed. It is linked to the pillars of sustainable agriculture (Broom 2010; Appleby and Mitchell 2018). FAO's vision for sustainable livestock production treats animal welfare as a priority (FAO 2018). The welfare of livestock and working animals directly relates to eight of the UN's Sustainable Development Goals (Doyle et al. 2018; World Horse Welfare and The Donkey Sanctuary 2018; Keeling et al. 2019) Many livestock enterprises are responding to changing consumer preferences, including welfare sensibilities. Some can charge a higher price for products produced in a way that is mindful of animal welfare; or penalties for non-compliance to animal welfare standards may emerge. Better animal welfare may incur costs: it may be necessary, for example, to convert production facilities, replace equipment, reduce the number of animals, allocate more space per animal, or switch to alternative sources of feed. But it also brings benefits for farmers by allowing them to target higher-value markets and by cutting losses, wastage and animal mortality. It is often more environmentally friendly than conventional production. It is good for worker satisfaction too, as well as for occupational health, food safety and food security. These trade-offs need to be identified and managed, and synergies built upon."", ""- &gt; Food and nutrition security - &gt; Livelihoods and economic growth - &gt; Animal health and welfare - &gt; Climate and natural resource use. The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock (GASL/Global Agenda) has adopted this framework. The 2019 meeting of the Global Agenda, held in Manhattan, Kansas, in collaboration with Kansas State University, focused on the theme of 'Innovation for sustainable livestock systems'. Four papers, one on each domain, were commissioned to provide information to feed into the technical and policy debates. They were peer-reviewed before the meeting and have been further revised to reflect feedback during the meeting. The paper on the domain 'Animal health and welfare' is the basis of this publication. ## Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock is a partnership committed to the sustainable development of the livestock sector. It aims to builds consensus on the path towards sustainability and to catalyse practice change through dialogue, consultation and joint analysis. It brings together a wide range of stakeholders: the public and private sectors, producers, research and academic institutions, donors, NGOs, social movements and community organizations, and intergovernmental and multilateral organizations. www.livestockdialogue.org ## In this publication This publication focuses on the issues, opportunities and risks in animal health and welfare that stakeholders face in relation to the sustainability of livestock systems. It identifies innovations and policies that may help them take advantage of the opportunities and manage the risks, while still ensuring sustainability in other dimensions: food and nutrition security, livelihoods and economic growth, and climate and natural resource use. Section 2 presents the diversity of livestock systems and outlines three broad livestock production systems: extensive, labour-intensive, and capital intensive. Section 3 focuses on animal health and welfare and consists of 5 parts:"", '## Promote animal welfare Efforts to improve animal welfare include both creating and raising minimum standards for welfare, and enforcing accountability to improve practices. These must cover all stages in the production cycle: on-farm, transport and slaughter. A combination is needed of command-and-control regulation (from government), and cross-compliance and soft law (from industry and the supply chain), whereby actors must achieve a level of welfare in order to sell their products. In many governmental and compliance systems, large gaps exist between policy, regulation and implementation. Policies that are not demanded by farmers or consumers but developed by experts and adopted in response to international pressure are especially likely to be ignored. Extension providers must be trained in animal welfare so they can guide producers. Industry actors and nongovernment organizations can often connect with farmers better than governments. Rather than imposing rules, dialogue is needed to raise awareness of animal welfare among producers and consumers. ## Synergies Animal health and welfare interact and support each other; freedom from disease is substantial share of welfare and good care and management is a prerequisite for raising animals that are robust and resistant to disease. Here we focus on synergies between animal health and welfare, and the other livestock sustainability domains. ## Negative externalities The flip side of synergies are negative externalities: where a decline or failure in one domain leads to problems in another domain. Examples abound. Lower productivity (livelihoods domain) threatens the food security of livestock keepers (and of the population as a whole) and may forces them to over-exploit the natural resources, spend less on maintaining animal health, over-use of antibiotics, and pay less attention to animal welfare. ## Trade-offs Improvements in animal health and welfare may theoretically lead to losses in other domains. Such negative interactions - trade-offs - are sometimes difficult to spot, and it can be hard to agree on what the right approach should be: should the animal welfare be sacrificed in order to boost output, or to guarantee food security? ## Animal health and welfare and Food and nutrition security ## Synergies', ""## Institutions and compliance Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle is an example. This zoonotic disease was eradicated in Sweden in the 1950s based on the robust diagnostics available at that time (Cerenius 2010). This was made possible because communal grazing and mixing of herds were limited, engagement in farmers' organizations was strong, and the veterinary authority and service interacted closely with the farmers. These institutional factors made compliance with external biosecurity measures effective. The opposite conditions still apply in many countries where brucellosis is an issue (Plumb et al. 2013). In such cases, where animal productivity is generally low and where the disease is endemic and symptoms vague, farmers may be reluctant to invest in control measures such as vaccination. A lack of compensation for culled animals further increases resistance to control measures. The development and strengthening of institutions, both state and non-state, in such areas are vital to improving control of livestock diseases. Stronger groups of livestock keepers make it easier for government organizations and veterinary services to interact with larger numbers of local people, learn about their opinions and needs, and provide them with the information and services they require. It also makes compliance with disease-control measures more possible (FAO, 2020). ## Monitoring and surveillance Advances in technology are making it possible to detect and respond to livestock diseases more quickly. Improved testing and control have made it possible to eradicate diseases such as bovine brucellosis and porcine pseudorabies in the United States (USDA 2019a, 2019b). For some diseases it is now possible to perform a rapid diagnosis on the farm itself. To be practicable, such tests must be cheap and quick. Currently, some 'pen-side' tests and several basic laboratory tests are in common use in HICs.""]",medium,answer,"Some grazing areas experience overgrazing while others are abandoned due to a combination of factors related to access and management. According to the context, traditionally well-managed common lands have become open access areas due to external pressures, leading to resource degradation. Problems of restricted access and movement of livestock result in concentration and overgrazing in certain areas, while other areas are abandoned. These access issues can stem from changing land tenure, conflicts, or lack of infrastructure, such as boreholes in Africa and roads to summer pastures in Central Asia. In such open access situations, degradation is most severe.",5,Livestock management practices,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This type of livestock raising directly uses natural vegetation, but its relatively low productivity means that greenhouse gas emissions per unit of product are often high. <span class=\""highlight\"">Access to grazing land[@] both in quantity and quality, affects decisions of herders about stocking numbers and spatial distribution of grazers, often leading to [[overgrazing]] in some locations</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In many grazing systems, <span class=\""highlight\"">inequitable access to land leads some herders to concentrate livestock on limited areas, while other areas are [[abandoned]]</span>. The lack of secure land tenure and access has also led to conflict between different groups of herders and with crop farmers over grazing lands.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Grazing pressure often depends on <span class=\""highlight\"">proximity to settlements, feed and water sources, or on farmers' labor availability</span>. In extensive systems, supplementary feed is often not economically viable, so <span class=\""highlight\"">grazing management is essential to ensure sufficient feed for animals throughout the year</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Insufficient management and inadequate market access often result in [[overgrazing]] of some pasturelands</span>. This is particularly evident in common property pastures and rangelands. <span class=\""highlight\"">Elsewhere, [[abandonment]] and undergrazing are occurring due to management constraints</span> (e.g. shortage of herding labor).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Animal welfare: Concern about animal welfare has been growing strongly globally, for example regional strategies for animal welfare have been developed following the Global Conference on Animal Welfare in 2004. The contribution of animal welfare to animal productivity and health is being increasingly recognized.""}]",,28
 5097,Can you explain the rules for comparing nutrients?,"[""| 'Fiber' Claims - | If a fiber claim is made and the food is not low in total fat, then the label must disclose the level of total fat per labeled serving. 21 CFR 101.54(d)(1) | | Claims using the term 'antioxidant' | For claims characterizing the level of antioxidant nutrients in a food: 1. an RDI must be established for each of the nutrients that are the subject of the claim; 2. each nutrient must have existing scientific evidence of antioxidant activity; 3. the level of each nutrient must be sufficient to meet the definition for 'high,' 'good source,' or'more;' Beta-carotene may be the subject of an antioxi- dant claim when the level of vitamin A present as beta-carotene in the food is sufficient to qualify for the claim. 4. Name(s) of nutrient(s) that is (are) the subject of the claim is (are) included as part of the claim. (e.g., high in antioxidant vitamins C & E) 21 CFR 101.54(g) | ## Claims Implied ## CFR 101.65 21 - about a food or ingredient or method of preparation that suggests that nutrient or ingredient are absent or present in a certain amount or claims a food that suggests a food may be useful in maintaining healthy dietary and which are made with an explicit claim (e.g. 'healthy, contains 3 of fat') are implied claims. · Claims the about practices grams - claims: 'contains as much [nutrient] as a [food]' may be made if reference food and labeled food are an equivalent 'Good Source' of a on a per serving basis. (e.g. 'Contains as much vitamin C as an 8 glass of orange juice'). CFR 101.65(c)(2) · Equivalence both nutrient ounce 21 - that a food contains or is made with an ingredient that is known to a particular nutrient may be made if product is 'Low' in or a 'Good of the nutrient associated with the claim (e.g. 'good source of oat · Claims contain Source' bran')."", ""## 10. APPENDIX B: ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS ## Claims Relative bear a relative claim about the level of a nutrient, the amount of that nutrient the food must be compared to an amount of nutrient in an appropriate food as specified below CFR 101.13(j)(1)) To in reference (21 : 'Light' - all relative claims, the percent (or fraction) of change and identity of reference must be declared immediately adjacent to the most prominent claim. CFR 101.13(j)(2)(i) CFR 101.13(j)(2)(ii) For food 21 and 21 | | (1) A food representative of the type of food bearing the claim (e.g., average value of top three brands or representative value from valid data base), and (2) Similar food (e.g., potato chips for potato chips) | |------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | 'Reduced' and 'Plus,' 'Fortified,' - and 'Enriched') - | 'Added' (or 'Extra,' representative product, and (2) Similar food. (1) An established regular product or average - - | | 'More' and 'Less' (or 'Fewer') | (1) An established regular product or average representative product, and (2) A dissimilar food in the same product category which may be generally substituted for the labeled food (e.g., potato chips for pretzels) or a similar food. | comparison of the amount of the nutrient in the product per serving with that in the reference food must be declared either adjacent to claim or on the information panel. CFR 101.13(j)(2)(iv)(A) Quantitative labeled the 21 relative claim for decreased levels of a nutrient may not be made if the nutrient of the reference food meets the requirement for a 'low' claim for that (e.g., 3 g fat or less). CFR 101.13(j)(3) A content nutrient 21 ## Nutrient Content Claims Other""]",hard,answer,"The rules for comparing nutrients are outlined in the context as follows:
 
 1. **Relative Claims**: When making a relative claim about the level of a nutrient, the amount of that nutrient in the food must be compared to an amount of the nutrient in an appropriate reference food. The reference food must be either:
@@ -39,11 +39,11 @@ Unnamed: 0,question,contexts,difficulty,response_type,answer,num_contexts,proces
    - **'Reduced', 'Added', 'Extra', 'Fortified', 'Enriched'**: These claims require comparison to an established regular product or average representative product and a similar food.
    - **'More' and 'Less' (or 'Fewer')**: These claims require comparison to an established regular product or average representative product and a dissimilar food in the same product category which may be generally substituted for the labeled food (e.g., potato chips for pretzels) or a similar food.
 
-4. **Restrictions**: A relative claim for decreased levels of a nutrient may not be made if the nutrient of the reference food meets the requirement for a 'low' claim for that nutrient (e.g., 3 g fat or less).",2,Nutrient content claim regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">&#x27;Fiber&#x27; Claims - If a fiber claim is made and the food is not low in total fat, then the label must disclose the level of total fat per serving</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">APPENDIX B: ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS - Claims Relative bear a relative claim about the level of a nutrient must state the percent or fraction of the difference between the two foods and identify the reference food</span>.""}]",,29
-3245,Describe the conditions under which all-round lights can be placed above the after masthead light.,"['- (g) The sidelights of a power-driven vessel shall be placed at a height above the hull not greater than three quarters of that of the forward masthead light. They shall not be so low as to be interfered with by deck lights. - (h) The sidelights, if in a combined lantern and carried on a power-driven vessel of less than 20 meters in length, shall be placed not less than 1 meter below the masthead light. - (i) When the Rules prescribe two or three lights to be carried in a vertical line, they shall be spaced as follows: - (i) on a vessel of 20 meters in length or more such lights shall be spaced not less than 2 meters apart, and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 4 meters above the hull; - (ii) on a vessel of less than 20 meters in length such lights shall be spaced not less than 1 meter apart and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 2 meters above the gunwale; - (iii) when three lights are carried they shall be equally spaced. - (j) The lower of the two all-round lights prescribed for a vessel when engaged in fishing shall be at a height above the sidelights not less than twice the distance between the two vertical lights. - (k) The forward anchor light prescribed in Rule 30(a)(i), when two are carried, shall not be less than 4.5 meters above the after one. On a vessel of 50 meters or more in length this forward anchor light shall be placed at a height of not less than 6 meters above the hull. ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED', '- (ii) On a vessel of less than 20 meters in length such lights shall be spaced not less than 1 meter apart and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 2 meters above the gunwale; - (iii) When three lights are carried they shall be equally spaced. - (j) The lower of the two all-round lights prescribed for a vessel when engaged in fishing shall be at a height above the sidelights not less than twice the distance between the two vertical lights. - (k) The forward anchor light prescribed in Rule 30(a)(i) (§ 83.30(a)(i)), when two are carried, shall not be less than 4.5 meters above the after one. On a vessel of 50 meters or more in length this forward anchor light shall be placed at a height of not less than 6 meters above the hull. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex I-CONTINUED ## 3. Horizontal positioning and spacing of lights - (a) When two masthead lights are prescribed for a power-driven vessel, the horizontal distance between them shall not be less than one half of the length of the vessel but need not be more than 100 meters. The forward light shall be placed not more than one quarter of the length of the vessel from the stem. - (b) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the sidelights shall not be placed in front of the forward masthead lights. They shall be placed at or near the side of the vessel. - (c) When the lights prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 are placed vertically between the forward masthead light(s) and the after masthead light(s) these allround lights shall be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters from the fore and aft centerline of the vessel in the athwartship direction.', '## 2. Vertical positioning and spacing of lights - (a) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the masthead lights shall be placed as follows: - (i) the forward masthead light, or if only one masthead light is carried, then that light, at a height above the hull of not less than 6 meters, and, if the breadth of the vessel exceeds 6 meters, then at a height above the hull not less than such breadth, so however that the light need not be placed at a greater height above the hull than 12 meters; - (ii) when two masthead lights are carried the after one shall be at least 4.5 meters vertically higher than the forward one. - (b) The vertical separation of masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from sea level. - (c) The masthead light of a power-driven vessel of 12 meters but less than 20 meters in length shall be placed at a height above the gunwale of not less than 2.5 meters. - (d) A power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length may carry the uppermost light at a height of less than 2.5 meters above the gunwale. When, however, a masthead light is carried in addition to sidelights and a sternlight or the all-round light prescribed in rule 23(d)(i) is carried in addition to sidelights, then such masthead light or all-round light shall be carried at least 1 meter higher than the sidelights. ## -INLAND- ## Annex I 33 CFR 84 ## Positioning and Technical Details of Lights and Shapes ## § 84.01 Definitions', '- (b) The vertical separation of the masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from water level. - (c) The masthead light of a power-driven vessel of 12 meters but less than 20 meters in length shall be placed at a height above the gunwale of not less than 2.5 meters. - (d) The masthead light, or the all-round light described in Rule 23(d)(§ 83.23(d) of this chapter), of a power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall be carried at least one meter higher than the sidelights. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex I-CONTINUED - (e) One of the two or three masthead lights prescribed for a power-driven vessel when engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall be placed in the same position as either the forward masthead light or the after masthead light; provided that, if carried on the aftermast, the lowest after masthead light shall be at least 4.5 meters vertically higher than the forward masthead light. - (f) (i) The masthead light or lights prescribed in Rule 23(a) shall be so placed as to be above and clear of all other lights and obstructions except as described in subparagraph (ii). - (ii) When it is impracticable to carry the all-round lights prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 below the masthead lights, they may be carried above the after masthead light(s) or vertically in between the forward masthead light(s) and after masthead light(s), provided that in the latter case the requirement of Section 3(c) of this Annex shall be complied with. - (g) The sidelights of a power-driven vessel shall be placed at a height above the hull not greater than three quarters of that of the forward masthead light. They shall not be so low as to be interfered with by deck lights.']",hard,answer,"According to the provided context, all-round lights can be placed above the after masthead light when it is impracticable to carry them below the masthead lights as prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28. This is specified in subparagraph (ii) of section (f) in the INTERNATIONAL Annex I-CONTINUED. The context states: 'When it is impracticable to carry the all-round lights prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 below the masthead lights, they may be carried above the after masthead light(s) or vertically in between the forward masthead light(s) and after masthead light(s), provided that in the latter case the requirement of Section 3(c) of this Annex shall be complied with.'",4,Vessel lighting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The sidelights of a power-driven vessel shall be placed at a height above the hull not greater than three quarters of that of the forward masthead light. They shall not be so low as to be interfered with by deck lights</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">On a vessel of less than 20 meters in length such lights shall be spaced not less than 1 meter apart and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 2 meters above the hull</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vertical positioning and spacing of lights - (a) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the masthead lights shall be placed as follows: the forward light not less than 6 meters above the hull.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vertical separation of the masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters.""}]",,30
-4676,When is the deadline for the rulemaking?,"['The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking not later than June 1, 2002. ""(b) Inflation levels and load limits. In the rulemaking initiated under subsection (a), the Secretary may take whatever additional action is appropriate to ensure that the public is aware of the importance of observing motor vehicle tire load limits and maintaining proper tire inflation levels for the safe operation of a motor vehicle. Such additional action may include a requirement that the manufacturer of motor vehicles provide the purchasers of the motor vehicles information on appropriate tire inflation levels and load limits if the Secretary determines that requiring such manufacturers to provide such information is the most appropriate way such information can be provided."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ""SEC. 13. Tire pressure warning. Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall complete a rulemaking for a regulation to require a warning system in new motor vehicles to indicate to the operator when a tire is significantly under inflated. Such requirement shall become effective not later than 2 years after the date of the completion of such rulemaking."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 14. Improving the safety of child restraints.', '""SEC. 15. Improving criteria used in a recall. - ""(a) Review of standards and criteria used in opening a defect or noncompliance investigation. The Secretary shall, not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, undertake a comprehensive review of all standards, criteria, procedures, and methods, including data management and analysis used by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration in determining whether to open a defect or noncompliance investigation pursuant to subchapter II or IV of chapter 301 of title 49, United States Code, and shall undertake such steps as may be necessary to update and improve such standards, criteria, procedures, or methods, including data management and analysis. - ""(b) Report to Congress. Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate a report describing the Secretary\'s findings and actions under subsection (a)."". I. J. ## ANTON\'S LAW [[Page 116 STAT. 2772]] Public Law 107-318 107th Congress Approved: December 4, 2002 ## An Act To provide for the improvement of the safety of child restraints in passenger motor vehicles, and for other purposes. Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 16. Follow-up report. ""One year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall report to the Congress on the implementation of the amendments made by this Act and any recommendations for additional amendments for consumer safety."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 17. Authorization of appropriations.', '## ""SEC. 3 - (d). Insurance study. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a study to determine the feasibility and utility of obtaining aggregate information on a regular and periodic basis regarding claims made for private passenger automobile accidents from persons in the business of providing private passenger automobile insurance or of adjusting insurance claims for such automobiles. Not later than 120 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit the results of such study to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ""SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a rulemaking to revise and update the tire standards published at 49 CFR 571.109 and 49 CFR 571.119. The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking under this section not later than June 1, 2002."". E. ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat, 1800 ## ""SEC. 11. Improved tire information. ""(a) Tire labeling. Within 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall initiate a rulemaking proceeding to improve the labeling of tires required by section 30123 of title 49, United States Code to assist consumers in identifying tires that may be the subject of a decision under section 30118(b) or a notice required under section 30118(c). The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking not later than June 1, 2002.']",easy,answer,"The deadline for the rulemaking is June 1, 2002, as specified in the context under 'SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires' and 'SEC. 11. Improved tire information'.",3,Tire safety regulations timeline,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking <span class=\""highlight\"">not later than June 1, 2002</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Secretary may take additional action regarding inflation levels and load limits.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Secretary shall review information published under 15 U.S.C. 1421 regarding the tire grading program.""}]",,31
-14,Does state jurisdiction in Indian country preempt federal jurisdiction?,"[""A The Court Begin with the most fundamental problem. invokes what it calls the'Bracker balancing' test with no more appreciation of that decision's history and context than it displays in its initial suggestion that the usual rules of preemption apply to Tribes. The Court tells us nothing about Bracker itself, its reasoning, or its limits. Perhaps understandably so, for Bracker never purported to claim for this Court the raw power to 'balance' away tribal sovereignty in favor of state criminal jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members-let alone ordain a wholly different set of jurisdictional rules than Congress J., dissenting GORSUCH, already has. 143-144. With these rules in mind, the State's tax based on a Bracker involved a relatively minor civil dispute. Arizona sought to tax vehicles used by the White Mountain Apache Tribe in logging operations on tribal lands. See Bracker, 448 U. S., at 138-140. The Tribe opposed the effort, pointing to a federal law that regulated tribal logging but did not say anything about preempting the State's vehicle tax. See id., at 141, 145. The Court began by recognizing that the usual rules of preemption are not 'properly applied' to Tribes. Id., at 143. Instead, the Court started with the traditional ''backdrop'' presumption that States lack jurisdiction in Indian country. Ibid. And the Court explained that any ambiguities about the scope of federal law must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes as sovereigns. Id., at the Court proceeded to turn back 'particularized inquiry into the nature of the state, federal, and tribal interests at stake.' Id., at 145. The Court judged that 'traditional notions of [tribal] sovereignty,' the federal government's 'policy of promoting tribal self-sufficiency,' and the rule requiring it to resolve '[a]mbiguities' in favor of the Tribe trumped any competing state interest. Id., at 143-144, 151."", ""This case is the first time that the matter has been fully explored by this Court. Until the Court's decision in McGirt two years ago, this ------ ## Opinion of the Court question likewise did not matter much in Oklahoma. Most everyone in Oklahoma previously understood that the State included almost no Indian country. McGirt, 590 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (slip op., at 31-32). But after McGirt, about 43% of Oklahoma-including Tulsa-is now considered Indian country. Therefore, the question of whether the State of Oklahoma retains concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute non-Indian on Indian crimes in Indian country has suddenly assumed immense importance. The jurisdictional question has now been called. In light of the newfound significance of the question, it is necessary and appropriate for this Court to take its first hard look at the text and structure of the General Crimes Act, rather than relying on scattered dicta about a question that, until now, was relatively insignificant in the real world. After independently examining the question, we have concluded that the General Crimes Act does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Castro-Huerta next invokes Public Law 280 as a source of preemption. That argument is similarly unpersuasive. Indian country. Indeed, the Public Law 280 affirmatively grants certain States broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. See 18 U. S. C. §1162. (Other States may opt in, with tribal consent. 25 U. S. C. §1321.) But Public Law 280 does not preempt any preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction that States possess to prosecute crimes in Court has already concluded as much: 'Nothing in the language or legislative history of Pub. L. 280 indicates that it was meant to divest States of pre-existing and otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction.' Three Affiliated Tribes of Fort Berthold Reservation v. Wold Engineering, P. C., 467 ## Opinion of the Court"", ""Under the Court's precedents, as we will explain, a State's jurisdiction in Indian country may be preempted (i) by federal law under ordinary principles of federal preemption, or (ii) when the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe on tribal self-government. In Part III-A, we consider whether state authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country is preempted by federal law under ordinary principles of preemption. In Part III-B, we consider whether principles of tribal self-government preclude the exercise of state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. A S. C. §1162; 25 U. S. C. §1321. NeiCastro-Huerta points to two federal laws that, in his view, preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country: (i) the General Crimes Act, which grants the Federal Government jurisdiction to prosecute crimes in Indian country, 18 U. S. C. §1152; and (ii) Public Law 280, which grants States, or authorizes States to acquire, certain additional jurisdiction over crimes committed in Indian country, 67 Stat. 588; see 18 U. ther statute preempts preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed state authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. United States as to the punishment of offenses As relevant here, the General Crimes Act provides: 'Except as otherwise expressly provided by law, the general laws of the committed in any place within the sole and exclusive juris- Opinion of the Court diction of the United States, except the District of Columbia, shall extend to the Indian country.' 18 U. S. C. §1152. By its terms, the Act does not preempt the State's authority to prosecute non-Indians who commit crimes against Indians in Indian country. The text of the Act simply 'extend[s]' federal law to Indian country, leaving untouched the background principle of state jurisdiction over crimes committed within the State, including in Indian country. Ibid."", ""## Syllabus country. But Public Law 280 18 U. S. C. §1162; 25 U. S. C. §1321. Castro-Huerta contends that the law's enactment in 1953 would have been pointless surplusage if States already had concurrent jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian contains no language preempting state jurisdiction. And Public Law 280 encompasses far more than just non-Indian on Indian crimes. Thus, resolution of the narrow jurisdictional issue here does not negate the significance of Public Law 280. Pp. 16-18. crimes non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. There, (2) The test articulated in White Mountain Apache Tribe v. Bracker, 448 U. S. 136, does not bar the State from prosecuting committed by the Court held that even when federal law does not preempt state jurisdiction under ordinary preemption analysis, preemption may still occur if the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe upon tribal self-government. Id., at 142-143. Under Bracker's balancing test, the Court considers tribal interests, federal interests, and state interests. Id., at 145. Here, the exercise of state jurisdiction would not infringe on tribal self-government. And because a State's jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction, a state prosecution would not preclude an earlier or later federal prosecution. Finally, the State has a strong sovereign interest in ensuring public safety and criminal justice within its territory, including an interest in protecting both Indian and non-Indian crime victims. Pp. 18-20. jurisdiction unless that (c) This Court has long held that Indian country is part of a State, not separate from it. Under the Constitution, States have to prosecute crimes within their territory except when preempted by federal law or by principles of tribal self-government. The default is that States have criminal jurisdiction in Indian country jurisdiction is preempted. And that jurisdiction has not been preempted here. Pp. 21-25. Reversed and remanded.""]",easy,answer,"Based on the provided context, state jurisdiction in Indian country does not preempt federal jurisdiction. The context explains that state jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction unless preempted by federal law or principles of tribal self-government. The General Crimes Act extends federal law to Indian country but does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Public Law 280 also does not preempt state jurisdiction but rather grants certain states additional jurisdiction over crimes in Indian country. Therefore, both state and federal jurisdictions can coexist unless specifically preempted.",4,Tribal jurisdiction legal principles,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">State authority cannot &#x27;preempt&#x27; federal authority in Indian country; rather, the opposite is true</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">State jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction</span>. Preemption excludes state authority.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Congress has sole authority in Indian country for over 200 years, particularly in criminal jurisdiction.""}]",,32
-3516,Under what conditions does the prohibition on a vessel expire if the owner or operator has had multiple vessels detained for substandard conditions?,"[""or - (B) the operator of the vessel has on more than one occasion had a vessel detained and determined to be substandard by the Secretary for violation of an international safety convention to which the United States is a party, and the Secretary has published notice of the detention and determination in an electronic form, including the name of the owner of the vessel. - (2) The prohibition in paragraph (1) expires for a vessel on the earlier of (A) 1 year after the date of the publication in electronic form on which the prohibition is based; or (B) any date on which the owner or operator of the vessel prevails in an appeal of the violation of the relevant international convention on which the detention is based. - (3) As used in this subsection, the term 'Government-impelled cargo' means cargo for which a Federal agency contracts directly for shipping by water or for which (or the freight of which) a Federal agency provides the financing, including financing by grant, loan or loan guarantee, resulting in shipment of the cargo by water. ## § 2303 Duties related to marine casualty assistance and information - (a) The master or individual in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty shall- - (1) render necessary assistance to each individual affected to save that affected individual from danger caused by the marine casualty, so far as the master or individual in charge can do so without serious danger to the master's or individual's vessel or to individuals on board; and - (2) give the master's or individual's name and address and identification of the vessel to the master or individual in charge of any other vessel involved in the casualty, to any individual injured, and to the owner of any property damaged. - (b) An individual violating this section or a regulation prescribed under this section shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned for not more than 2 years. The vessel also is liable in rem to the United States Government for the fine."", '## § 2301 Application Except as provided in sections 2304 and 2306 of this title, this chapter applies to a vessel operated on waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States (including the territorial sea of the United States as described in Presidential Proclamation No. 5928 of December 27. 1988) and, for a vessel owned in the United States, on the high seas. ## § 2302 Penalties for negligent operations and interfering with safe operations - (a) A person operating a vessel in a negligent manner or interfering with the safe operation of a vessel so as to endanger the life, limb, or property of a person is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 in the case of a recreational vessel or $25,000 in the case of any other vessel. - (b) A person operating a vessel in a grossly negligent manner that endangers the life, limb, or property of a person commits a class A misdemeanor. - (c) An individual who is under the influence of alcohol, or a dangerous drug in violation of a law of the United States when operating a vessel, as determined under standards prescribed by the Secretary by regulation- - (1) is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000; or - (2) commits a class A misdemeanor. - (d) For a penalty imposed under this section, the vessel also is liable in rem unless the vessel is- - (1) owned by a State or a political subdivision of a State; - (2) operated principally for governmental purposes; and - (3) identified clearly as a vessel of that State or subdivision. - (e) (1) A vessel may not transport Government-impelled cargoes if (A) the vessel has been detained and determined to be substandard by the Secretary for violation of an international safety convention to which the United States is a party, and the Secretary has published notice of the detention and determination in an electronic form, including the name of the owner of the vessel; or', ""- (b) An individual violating this section or a regulation prescribed under this section shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned for not more than 2 years. The vessel also is liable in rem to the United States Government for the fine. - (c) An individual complying with subsection (a) of this section or gratuitously and in good faith rendering assistance at the scene of a marine casualty without objection by an individual assisted, is not liable for damages as a result of rendering assistance or for an act or omission in providing or arranging salvage, towage, medical treatment, or other assistance when the individual acts as an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent individual would have acted under the circumstances. ## OPERATIONS OF VESSELS -CONTINUED ## § 2303a Post serious marine casualty alcohol testing - (a) The Secretary shall establish procedures to ensure that after a serious marine casualty occurs, alcohol testing of crew members or other persons responsible for the operation of other safety-sensitive functions of the vessel or vessels involved in such casualty is conducted no later than 2 hours after the casualty occurs, unless such testing cannot be completed within that time due to safety concerns directly related to the casualty. (b) The procedures in subsection (a) shall require that if alcohol testing cannot be completed within 2 hours of the occurrence of the casualty, such testing shall be conducted as soon thereafter as the safety concerns in subsection (a) have been adequately addressed to permit such testing, except that such testing may not be required more than 8 hours after the casualty occurs. ## § 2304 Duty to provide assistance at sea - (a) (1)A master or individual in charge of a vessel shall render assistance to any individual found at sea in danger of being lost, so far as the master or individual in charge can do so without serious danger to the master's or individual's vessel or individuals on board. - (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to a vessel of war or a vessel owned by the - United States Government appropriated only to a public service. - (b) A master or individual violating this section shall be fined not more than $1,000, imprisoned for not more than 2 years, or both.""]",medium,answer,The prohibition on a vessel expires under the earlier of two conditions: (A) 1 year after the date of the publication in electronic form on which the prohibition is based; or (B) any date on which the owner or operator of the vessel prevails in an appeal of the violation of the relevant international convention on which the detention is based.,3,Maritime vessel prohibition regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A prohibition expires under <span class=\""highlight\"">the earlier of: (A) 1 year after publication; or (B) when Secretary decides</span> corrective action taken.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Secretary shall deny or withdraw entry if facts warrant such action.""}]",,33
+4. **Restrictions**: A relative claim for decreased levels of a nutrient may not be made if the nutrient of the reference food meets the requirement for a 'low' claim for that nutrient (e.g., 3 g fat or less).",2,Nutrient content claim regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Claims Implied CFR 101.65 21 - about a food or ingredient that suggests that a nutrient is present in a certain amount with an explicit claim (e.g. 'healthy, contains 3 grams of fat') are implied claims. <span class=\""highlight\"">Claims about equivalence: 'contains as much [nutrient] as a [food]' may be made if reference food and labeled food are an equivalent 'Good Source' of a nutrient on a per serving basis</span> (e.g. 'Contains as much vitamin C as an 8 ounce glass of orange juice'). CFR 101.65(c)(2)""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""APPENDIX B: ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS - Claims Relative: When you make a <span class=\""highlight\"">relative claim about the level of a nutrient, the amount of that nutrient in the food must be compared to an amount of nutrient in an appropriate reference food</span> (21 CFR 101.13(j)(1)). For all relative claims, the <span class=\""highlight\"">percent (or fraction) of change and identity of reference food must be declared</span> immediately adjacent to the most prominent claim (21 CFR 101.13(j)(2)(i)).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For <span class=\""highlight\"">'Reduced' claims (and 'Plus,' 'Added,' 'Extra,' 'Fortified,' 'Enriched'), the reference food must be: (1) An established regular product or average representative product, and (2) Similar food</span>. For <span class=\""highlight\"">'More' and 'Less' (or 'Fewer') claims: (1) An established regular product or average representative product, and (2) A dissimilar food in the same product category</span> which may be generally substituted for the labeled food (e.g., potato chips for pretzels) or a similar food.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Quantitative comparison of the amount of the nutrient in the product per serving with that in the reference food must be declared either adjacent to the claim or on the information panel</span> (21 CFR 101.13(j)(2)(iv)(A)). A <span class=\""highlight\"">relative claim for decreased levels of a nutrient may not be made if the nutrient of the reference food meets the requirement for a 'low' claim</span> for that nutrient (e.g., 3 g fat or less) (21 CFR 101.13(j)(3)).""}]",,29
+3245,Describe the conditions under which all-round lights can be placed above the after masthead light.,"['- (g) The sidelights of a power-driven vessel shall be placed at a height above the hull not greater than three quarters of that of the forward masthead light. They shall not be so low as to be interfered with by deck lights. - (h) The sidelights, if in a combined lantern and carried on a power-driven vessel of less than 20 meters in length, shall be placed not less than 1 meter below the masthead light. - (i) When the Rules prescribe two or three lights to be carried in a vertical line, they shall be spaced as follows: - (i) on a vessel of 20 meters in length or more such lights shall be spaced not less than 2 meters apart, and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 4 meters above the hull; - (ii) on a vessel of less than 20 meters in length such lights shall be spaced not less than 1 meter apart and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 2 meters above the gunwale; - (iii) when three lights are carried they shall be equally spaced. - (j) The lower of the two all-round lights prescribed for a vessel when engaged in fishing shall be at a height above the sidelights not less than twice the distance between the two vertical lights. - (k) The forward anchor light prescribed in Rule 30(a)(i), when two are carried, shall not be less than 4.5 meters above the after one. On a vessel of 50 meters or more in length this forward anchor light shall be placed at a height of not less than 6 meters above the hull. ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED', '- (ii) On a vessel of less than 20 meters in length such lights shall be spaced not less than 1 meter apart and the lowest of these lights shall, except where a towing light is required, be placed at a height of not less than 2 meters above the gunwale; - (iii) When three lights are carried they shall be equally spaced. - (j) The lower of the two all-round lights prescribed for a vessel when engaged in fishing shall be at a height above the sidelights not less than twice the distance between the two vertical lights. - (k) The forward anchor light prescribed in Rule 30(a)(i) (§ 83.30(a)(i)), when two are carried, shall not be less than 4.5 meters above the after one. On a vessel of 50 meters or more in length this forward anchor light shall be placed at a height of not less than 6 meters above the hull. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex I-CONTINUED ## 3. Horizontal positioning and spacing of lights - (a) When two masthead lights are prescribed for a power-driven vessel, the horizontal distance between them shall not be less than one half of the length of the vessel but need not be more than 100 meters. The forward light shall be placed not more than one quarter of the length of the vessel from the stem. - (b) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the sidelights shall not be placed in front of the forward masthead lights. They shall be placed at or near the side of the vessel. - (c) When the lights prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 are placed vertically between the forward masthead light(s) and the after masthead light(s) these allround lights shall be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters from the fore and aft centerline of the vessel in the athwartship direction.', '## 2. Vertical positioning and spacing of lights - (a) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the masthead lights shall be placed as follows: - (i) the forward masthead light, or if only one masthead light is carried, then that light, at a height above the hull of not less than 6 meters, and, if the breadth of the vessel exceeds 6 meters, then at a height above the hull not less than such breadth, so however that the light need not be placed at a greater height above the hull than 12 meters; - (ii) when two masthead lights are carried the after one shall be at least 4.5 meters vertically higher than the forward one. - (b) The vertical separation of masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from sea level. - (c) The masthead light of a power-driven vessel of 12 meters but less than 20 meters in length shall be placed at a height above the gunwale of not less than 2.5 meters. - (d) A power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length may carry the uppermost light at a height of less than 2.5 meters above the gunwale. When, however, a masthead light is carried in addition to sidelights and a sternlight or the all-round light prescribed in rule 23(d)(i) is carried in addition to sidelights, then such masthead light or all-round light shall be carried at least 1 meter higher than the sidelights. ## -INLAND- ## Annex I 33 CFR 84 ## Positioning and Technical Details of Lights and Shapes ## § 84.01 Definitions', '- (b) The vertical separation of the masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from water level. - (c) The masthead light of a power-driven vessel of 12 meters but less than 20 meters in length shall be placed at a height above the gunwale of not less than 2.5 meters. - (d) The masthead light, or the all-round light described in Rule 23(d)(§ 83.23(d) of this chapter), of a power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall be carried at least one meter higher than the sidelights. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex I-CONTINUED - (e) One of the two or three masthead lights prescribed for a power-driven vessel when engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall be placed in the same position as either the forward masthead light or the after masthead light; provided that, if carried on the aftermast, the lowest after masthead light shall be at least 4.5 meters vertically higher than the forward masthead light. - (f) (i) The masthead light or lights prescribed in Rule 23(a) shall be so placed as to be above and clear of all other lights and obstructions except as described in subparagraph (ii). - (ii) When it is impracticable to carry the all-round lights prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 below the masthead lights, they may be carried above the after masthead light(s) or vertically in between the forward masthead light(s) and after masthead light(s), provided that in the latter case the requirement of Section 3(c) of this Annex shall be complied with. - (g) The sidelights of a power-driven vessel shall be placed at a height above the hull not greater than three quarters of that of the forward masthead light. They shall not be so low as to be interfered with by deck lights.']",hard,answer,"According to the provided context, all-round lights can be placed above the after masthead light when it is impracticable to carry them below the masthead lights as prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28. This is specified in subparagraph (ii) of section (f) in the INTERNATIONAL Annex I-CONTINUED. The context states: 'When it is impracticable to carry the all-round lights prescribed by Rule 27(b)(i) or Rule 28 below the masthead lights, they may be carried above the after masthead light(s) or vertically in between the forward masthead light(s) and after masthead light(s), provided that in the latter case the requirement of Section 3(c) of this Annex shall be complied with.'",4,Vessel lighting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A sailing vessel shall also have at the stern a white light showing an unbroken arc of the horizon of 135 degrees and so fixed as to show the light 67.5 degrees from right aft on each side of the vessel. <span class=\""highlight\"">If it is impracticable to fix this light below the masthead lights, it may be fixed above the after masthead light(s)</span>, provided that the all-round white light is carried at a distance of not less than 1 meter from the after masthead light.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The light prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section shall be visible at a distance of at least 5 miles. The lights prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section shall be visible at a distance of at least 2 miles. <span class=\""highlight\"">The all-round red and green lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section may be carried above the masthead lights</span> if it is found impossible to place them below.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Regulations concerning light placement: <span class=\""highlight\"">When it is impracticable to carry the all-round lights below the masthead lights, the all-round lights may be carried above the after masthead light(s)</span> or, if the vessel has two masthead lights, then between the forward and after masthead lights. This arrangement must maintain the required arc of visibility.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Sidelights must maintain a minimum distance of one meter from white or red lights. This separation helps prevent confusion between different types of navigational lights at night.""}]",,30
+4676,When is the deadline for the rulemaking?,"['The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking not later than June 1, 2002. ""(b) Inflation levels and load limits. In the rulemaking initiated under subsection (a), the Secretary may take whatever additional action is appropriate to ensure that the public is aware of the importance of observing motor vehicle tire load limits and maintaining proper tire inflation levels for the safe operation of a motor vehicle. Such additional action may include a requirement that the manufacturer of motor vehicles provide the purchasers of the motor vehicles information on appropriate tire inflation levels and load limits if the Secretary determines that requiring such manufacturers to provide such information is the most appropriate way such information can be provided."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ""SEC. 13. Tire pressure warning. Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall complete a rulemaking for a regulation to require a warning system in new motor vehicles to indicate to the operator when a tire is significantly under inflated. Such requirement shall become effective not later than 2 years after the date of the completion of such rulemaking."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 14. Improving the safety of child restraints.', '""SEC. 15. Improving criteria used in a recall. - ""(a) Review of standards and criteria used in opening a defect or noncompliance investigation. The Secretary shall, not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, undertake a comprehensive review of all standards, criteria, procedures, and methods, including data management and analysis used by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration in determining whether to open a defect or noncompliance investigation pursuant to subchapter II or IV of chapter 301 of title 49, United States Code, and shall undertake such steps as may be necessary to update and improve such standards, criteria, procedures, or methods, including data management and analysis. - ""(b) Report to Congress. Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate a report describing the Secretary\'s findings and actions under subsection (a)."". I. J. ## ANTON\'S LAW [[Page 116 STAT. 2772]] Public Law 107-318 107th Congress Approved: December 4, 2002 ## An Act To provide for the improvement of the safety of child restraints in passenger motor vehicles, and for other purposes. Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 16. Follow-up report. ""One year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall report to the Congress on the implementation of the amendments made by this Act and any recommendations for additional amendments for consumer safety."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ## ""SEC. 17. Authorization of appropriations.', '## ""SEC. 3 - (d). Insurance study. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a study to determine the feasibility and utility of obtaining aggregate information on a regular and periodic basis regarding claims made for private passenger automobile accidents from persons in the business of providing private passenger automobile insurance or of adjusting insurance claims for such automobiles. Not later than 120 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit the results of such study to the Committee on Commerce of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate."". ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat. 1800 ""SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires. The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct a rulemaking to revise and update the tire standards published at 49 CFR 571.109 and 49 CFR 571.119. The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking under this section not later than June 1, 2002."". E. ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION ## TRANSPORTATION RECALL ENHANCEMENT, ACCOUNTABILITY, AND DOCUMENTATION (TREAD) ACT November 1, 2000, Pub. L. 106-414, 114 Stat, 1800 ## ""SEC. 11. Improved tire information. ""(a) Tire labeling. Within 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Transportation shall initiate a rulemaking proceeding to improve the labeling of tires required by section 30123 of title 49, United States Code to assist consumers in identifying tires that may be the subject of a decision under section 30118(b) or a notice required under section 30118(c). The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking not later than June 1, 2002.']",easy,answer,"The deadline for the rulemaking is June 1, 2002, as specified in the context under 'SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires' and 'SEC. 11. Improved tire information'.",3,Tire safety regulations timeline,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""SEC. 10. Endurance and resistance standards for tires: The Secretary shall complete the rulemaking <span class=\""highlight\"">not later than June 1, 2002</span>. ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""SEC. 11. Improved tire information: Not later than 24 months after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall complete a rulemaking to require manufacturers of motor vehicles to include in the owner's manual for all vehicles information about the relationship between <span class=\""highlight\"">vehicle load, tire pressure and safe operation</span> of the vehicle.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""SEC. 11(b): The Secretary shall complete a rulemaking for this section <span class=\""highlight\"">not later than June 1, 2002</span>.""}]",,31
+14,Does state jurisdiction in Indian country preempt federal jurisdiction?,"[""A The Court Begin with the most fundamental problem. invokes what it calls the'Bracker balancing' test with no more appreciation of that decision's history and context than it displays in its initial suggestion that the usual rules of preemption apply to Tribes. The Court tells us nothing about Bracker itself, its reasoning, or its limits. Perhaps understandably so, for Bracker never purported to claim for this Court the raw power to 'balance' away tribal sovereignty in favor of state criminal jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members-let alone ordain a wholly different set of jurisdictional rules than Congress J., dissenting GORSUCH, already has. 143-144. With these rules in mind, the State's tax based on a Bracker involved a relatively minor civil dispute. Arizona sought to tax vehicles used by the White Mountain Apache Tribe in logging operations on tribal lands. See Bracker, 448 U. S., at 138-140. The Tribe opposed the effort, pointing to a federal law that regulated tribal logging but did not say anything about preempting the State's vehicle tax. See id., at 141, 145. The Court began by recognizing that the usual rules of preemption are not 'properly applied' to Tribes. Id., at 143. Instead, the Court started with the traditional ''backdrop'' presumption that States lack jurisdiction in Indian country. Ibid. And the Court explained that any ambiguities about the scope of federal law must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes as sovereigns. Id., at the Court proceeded to turn back 'particularized inquiry into the nature of the state, federal, and tribal interests at stake.' Id., at 145. The Court judged that 'traditional notions of [tribal] sovereignty,' the federal government's 'policy of promoting tribal self-sufficiency,' and the rule requiring it to resolve '[a]mbiguities' in favor of the Tribe trumped any competing state interest. Id., at 143-144, 151."", ""This case is the first time that the matter has been fully explored by this Court. Until the Court's decision in McGirt two years ago, this ------ ## Opinion of the Court question likewise did not matter much in Oklahoma. Most everyone in Oklahoma previously understood that the State included almost no Indian country. McGirt, 590 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (slip op., at 31-32). But after McGirt, about 43% of Oklahoma-including Tulsa-is now considered Indian country. Therefore, the question of whether the State of Oklahoma retains concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute non-Indian on Indian crimes in Indian country has suddenly assumed immense importance. The jurisdictional question has now been called. In light of the newfound significance of the question, it is necessary and appropriate for this Court to take its first hard look at the text and structure of the General Crimes Act, rather than relying on scattered dicta about a question that, until now, was relatively insignificant in the real world. After independently examining the question, we have concluded that the General Crimes Act does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Castro-Huerta next invokes Public Law 280 as a source of preemption. That argument is similarly unpersuasive. Indian country. Indeed, the Public Law 280 affirmatively grants certain States broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. See 18 U. S. C. §1162. (Other States may opt in, with tribal consent. 25 U. S. C. §1321.) But Public Law 280 does not preempt any preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction that States possess to prosecute crimes in Court has already concluded as much: 'Nothing in the language or legislative history of Pub. L. 280 indicates that it was meant to divest States of pre-existing and otherwise lawfully assumed jurisdiction.' Three Affiliated Tribes of Fort Berthold Reservation v. Wold Engineering, P. C., 467 ## Opinion of the Court"", ""Under the Court's precedents, as we will explain, a State's jurisdiction in Indian country may be preempted (i) by federal law under ordinary principles of federal preemption, or (ii) when the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe on tribal self-government. In Part III-A, we consider whether state authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country is preempted by federal law under ordinary principles of preemption. In Part III-B, we consider whether principles of tribal self-government preclude the exercise of state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. A S. C. §1162; 25 U. S. C. §1321. NeiCastro-Huerta points to two federal laws that, in his view, preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country: (i) the General Crimes Act, which grants the Federal Government jurisdiction to prosecute crimes in Indian country, 18 U. S. C. §1152; and (ii) Public Law 280, which grants States, or authorizes States to acquire, certain additional jurisdiction over crimes committed in Indian country, 67 Stat. 588; see 18 U. ther statute preempts preexisting or otherwise lawfully assumed state authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. United States as to the punishment of offenses As relevant here, the General Crimes Act provides: 'Except as otherwise expressly provided by law, the general laws of the committed in any place within the sole and exclusive juris- Opinion of the Court diction of the United States, except the District of Columbia, shall extend to the Indian country.' 18 U. S. C. §1152. By its terms, the Act does not preempt the State's authority to prosecute non-Indians who commit crimes against Indians in Indian country. The text of the Act simply 'extend[s]' federal law to Indian country, leaving untouched the background principle of state jurisdiction over crimes committed within the State, including in Indian country. Ibid."", ""## Syllabus country. But Public Law 280 18 U. S. C. §1162; 25 U. S. C. §1321. Castro-Huerta contends that the law's enactment in 1953 would have been pointless surplusage if States already had concurrent jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian contains no language preempting state jurisdiction. And Public Law 280 encompasses far more than just non-Indian on Indian crimes. Thus, resolution of the narrow jurisdictional issue here does not negate the significance of Public Law 280. Pp. 16-18. crimes non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. There, (2) The test articulated in White Mountain Apache Tribe v. Bracker, 448 U. S. 136, does not bar the State from prosecuting committed by the Court held that even when federal law does not preempt state jurisdiction under ordinary preemption analysis, preemption may still occur if the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe upon tribal self-government. Id., at 142-143. Under Bracker's balancing test, the Court considers tribal interests, federal interests, and state interests. Id., at 145. Here, the exercise of state jurisdiction would not infringe on tribal self-government. And because a State's jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction, a state prosecution would not preclude an earlier or later federal prosecution. Finally, the State has a strong sovereign interest in ensuring public safety and criminal justice within its territory, including an interest in protecting both Indian and non-Indian crime victims. Pp. 18-20. jurisdiction unless that (c) This Court has long held that Indian country is part of a State, not separate from it. Under the Constitution, States have to prosecute crimes within their territory except when preempted by federal law or by principles of tribal self-government. The default is that States have criminal jurisdiction in Indian country jurisdiction is preempted. And that jurisdiction has not been preempted here. Pp. 21-25. Reversed and remanded.""]",easy,answer,"Based on the provided context, state jurisdiction in Indian country does not preempt federal jurisdiction. The context explains that state jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction unless preempted by federal law or principles of tribal self-government. The General Crimes Act extends federal law to Indian country but does not preempt state jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Public Law 280 also does not preempt state jurisdiction but rather grants certain states additional jurisdiction over crimes in Indian country. Therefore, both state and federal jurisdictions can coexist unless specifically preempted.",4,Tribal jurisdiction legal principles,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A The Court Begin with the most fundamental problem. invokes what it calls the 'Bracker balancing' test with no more appreciation of that decision's history and context than it displays in its initial suggestion that the usual rules of preemption apply to Tribes. <span class=\""highlight\"">State authority cannot 'preempt' federal authority in Indian country; rather, the opposite is true</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Under the Court's precedents, as we will explain, <span class=\""highlight\"">a State's jurisdiction in Indian country may be preempted (i) by federal law under ordinary principles of federal preemption, or (ii) when the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe on tribal self-government</span>. In Part III-A, we consider whether the exercise of state jurisdiction is preempted by federal law.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This case is the first time that the matter has been fully explored by this Court. Until the Court's decision in McGirt two years ago, this question likewise did not matter much in Oklahoma. <span class=\""highlight\"">State jurisdiction is concurrent with federal jurisdiction</span>. Preemption excludes state authority.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Congress has exercised its authority over Indian country for more than two centuries; its power to deal with and regulate the affairs of native tribes and their members has long been recognized. This authority stems from the Constitution's Indian Commerce Clause, which has been construed to provide Congress with plenary power over Indian affairs.""}]",,32
+3516,Under what conditions does the prohibition on a vessel expire if the owner or operator has had multiple vessels detained for substandard conditions?,"[""or - (B) the operator of the vessel has on more than one occasion had a vessel detained and determined to be substandard by the Secretary for violation of an international safety convention to which the United States is a party, and the Secretary has published notice of the detention and determination in an electronic form, including the name of the owner of the vessel. - (2) The prohibition in paragraph (1) expires for a vessel on the earlier of (A) 1 year after the date of the publication in electronic form on which the prohibition is based; or (B) any date on which the owner or operator of the vessel prevails in an appeal of the violation of the relevant international convention on which the detention is based. - (3) As used in this subsection, the term 'Government-impelled cargo' means cargo for which a Federal agency contracts directly for shipping by water or for which (or the freight of which) a Federal agency provides the financing, including financing by grant, loan or loan guarantee, resulting in shipment of the cargo by water. ## § 2303 Duties related to marine casualty assistance and information - (a) The master or individual in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty shall- - (1) render necessary assistance to each individual affected to save that affected individual from danger caused by the marine casualty, so far as the master or individual in charge can do so without serious danger to the master's or individual's vessel or to individuals on board; and - (2) give the master's or individual's name and address and identification of the vessel to the master or individual in charge of any other vessel involved in the casualty, to any individual injured, and to the owner of any property damaged. - (b) An individual violating this section or a regulation prescribed under this section shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned for not more than 2 years. The vessel also is liable in rem to the United States Government for the fine."", '## § 2301 Application Except as provided in sections 2304 and 2306 of this title, this chapter applies to a vessel operated on waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States (including the territorial sea of the United States as described in Presidential Proclamation No. 5928 of December 27. 1988) and, for a vessel owned in the United States, on the high seas. ## § 2302 Penalties for negligent operations and interfering with safe operations - (a) A person operating a vessel in a negligent manner or interfering with the safe operation of a vessel so as to endanger the life, limb, or property of a person is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 in the case of a recreational vessel or $25,000 in the case of any other vessel. - (b) A person operating a vessel in a grossly negligent manner that endangers the life, limb, or property of a person commits a class A misdemeanor. - (c) An individual who is under the influence of alcohol, or a dangerous drug in violation of a law of the United States when operating a vessel, as determined under standards prescribed by the Secretary by regulation- - (1) is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000; or - (2) commits a class A misdemeanor. - (d) For a penalty imposed under this section, the vessel also is liable in rem unless the vessel is- - (1) owned by a State or a political subdivision of a State; - (2) operated principally for governmental purposes; and - (3) identified clearly as a vessel of that State or subdivision. - (e) (1) A vessel may not transport Government-impelled cargoes if (A) the vessel has been detained and determined to be substandard by the Secretary for violation of an international safety convention to which the United States is a party, and the Secretary has published notice of the detention and determination in an electronic form, including the name of the owner of the vessel; or', ""- (b) An individual violating this section or a regulation prescribed under this section shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned for not more than 2 years. The vessel also is liable in rem to the United States Government for the fine. - (c) An individual complying with subsection (a) of this section or gratuitously and in good faith rendering assistance at the scene of a marine casualty without objection by an individual assisted, is not liable for damages as a result of rendering assistance or for an act or omission in providing or arranging salvage, towage, medical treatment, or other assistance when the individual acts as an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent individual would have acted under the circumstances. ## OPERATIONS OF VESSELS -CONTINUED ## § 2303a Post serious marine casualty alcohol testing - (a) The Secretary shall establish procedures to ensure that after a serious marine casualty occurs, alcohol testing of crew members or other persons responsible for the operation of other safety-sensitive functions of the vessel or vessels involved in such casualty is conducted no later than 2 hours after the casualty occurs, unless such testing cannot be completed within that time due to safety concerns directly related to the casualty. (b) The procedures in subsection (a) shall require that if alcohol testing cannot be completed within 2 hours of the occurrence of the casualty, such testing shall be conducted as soon thereafter as the safety concerns in subsection (a) have been adequately addressed to permit such testing, except that such testing may not be required more than 8 hours after the casualty occurs. ## § 2304 Duty to provide assistance at sea - (a) (1)A master or individual in charge of a vessel shall render assistance to any individual found at sea in danger of being lost, so far as the master or individual in charge can do so without serious danger to the master's or individual's vessel or individuals on board. - (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to a vessel of war or a vessel owned by the - United States Government appropriated only to a public service. - (b) A master or individual violating this section shall be fined not more than $1,000, imprisoned for not more than 2 years, or both.""]",medium,answer,The prohibition on a vessel expires under the earlier of two conditions: (A) 1 year after the date of the publication in electronic form on which the prohibition is based; or (B) any date on which the owner or operator of the vessel prevails in an appeal of the violation of the relevant international convention on which the detention is based.,3,Maritime vessel prohibition regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When the operator of the vessel has on more than one occasion had a vessel detained and determined to be substandard by the Secretary for violation of an international safety convention to which the United States is a party, and the Secretary has published notice of the detention and determination in electronic form, <span class=\""highlight\"">the prohibition expires upon the later of the following:</span>""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""[start_highlight] 1 year after the date of publication in electronic form of the earliest detention and determination[[end_highlight]] under this paragraph; or [start_highlight] completion of the newest major survey[[end_highlight]].""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For substandard vessels, the Secretary must notify the owner or operator in writing about the detention. Notification must include the basis for determining that the vessel is substandard.""}]",,33
 5662,Explain the rules for vessels.,"[""## § 82.5 Lights for moored vessels For the purposes of Rule 30 of the 72 COLREGS, a vessel at anchor includes a barge made fast to one or more mooring buoys or other similar device attached to the sea or river floor. Such a barge may be lighted as a vessel at anchor in accordance with Rule 30, or may be lighted on the corners in accordance with 33 CFR 83.30(h) through (l). ## § 82.7 Sidelights for unmanned barges An unmanned barge being towed may use the exception of COLREGS Rule 24(h). However, this exception only applies to the vertical sector requirements. ## -INLAND- ## INTERPRETATIVE RULES 33 CFR 90 ## § 90.1 Purpose This part contains the interpretative rules for the Inland Rules. These interpretative rules are intended as a guide to assist the public and promote compliance with the Inland Rules. ## § 90.3 Pushing vessel and vessel being pushed: Composite unit Rule 24(b) of the Inland Rules states that when a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit, they are regarded as a power-driven vessel and must exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23. A 'composite unit' is interpreted to be the combination of a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead that are rigidly connected by mechanical means so they react to sea and swell as one vessel. Mechanical means does not include lines, wires, hawsers, or chains. ## § 90.5 Lights for moored vessels A vessel at anchor includes a vessel made fast to one or more mooring buoys or other similar device attached to the ocean floor. Such vessels may be lighted as a vessel at anchor in accordance with Rule 30, or may be lighted on the corners in accordance with 33 CFR 83.30(h) through (l). ## § 90.7 Sidelights for unmanned barges An unmanned barge being towed may use the exception of COLREGS Rule 24(h). However, this exception only applies to the vertical sector requirements."", '- (j) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall not be obliged to give the bell signals prescribed in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this Rule. However, if she does not, shall make some other efficient sound signal at intervals of not more than 2 minutes. - (k) A pilot vessel when engaged on pilotage duty may, in addition to the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a), (b) or (g) of this Rule, sound an identity signal consisting of four short blasts. - (l) The following vessels shall not be required to sound signals as prescribed in paragraph (g) of this Rule when anchored in a special anchorage area designated by the Coast Guard: - (i) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length; and - (ii) A barge, canal boat, scow, or other nondescript craft. ## Rule 36 ## Signals to Attract Attention ## § 83.36 If necessary to attract the attention of another vessel, any vessel may make light or sound signals that cannot be mistaken for any signal authorized elsewhere in these Rules, or may direct the beam of her searchlight in the direction of the danger, in such a way as not to embarrass any vessel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 37 Distress Signals When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV to these Regulations. ## DISTRESS SIGNALS 72 COLREGS ## Rule 37 Distress Signals ## § 83.37 When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV of these Rules (33 CFR part 87) *. A high intensity white light flashing at regular intervals from 50 to 70 times per minute. Inland only. ## -INTERNATIONALExemptions ## PART E-EXEMPTIONS ## Rule 38 ## Exemptions ‡', '## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) a masthead light forward; - (ii) a second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) sidelights; and - (iv) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23 ## Power-driven vessels underway ## § 83.23 - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) A masthead light forward; - (ii) A second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) Sidelights; and - (iv) A sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 23-CONTINUED - (b) An air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit an allround flashing yellow light. - (c) A WIG craft only when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit a high intensity all-round flashing red light. Air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23-CONTINUED']",medium,answer,"The rules for vessels are categorized into several sections based on the context provided:
 
 1. **Lights for Moored Vessels**: A vessel at anchor, including a barge made fast to mooring buoys or similar devices, may be lighted as per Rule 30 or on the corners as specified in 33 CFR 83.30(h) through (l).
@@ -62,13 +62,13 @@ Unnamed: 0,question,contexts,difficulty,response_type,answer,num_contexts,proces
 6. **Power-driven Vessels Underway**:
    - Must exhibit a masthead light forward, a second masthead light abaft and higher (if over 50 meters), sidelights, and a sternlight.
    - Air-cushion vessels in non-displacement mode must also exhibit an all-round flashing yellow light.
-   - WIG crafts must exhibit a high-intensity all-round flashing red light when taking off, landing, or in flight near the surface.",3,Maritime vessel regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Anchored vessels may be <span class=\""highlight\"">lighted as vessel at anchor or on corners</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Law enforcement vessels: flashing blue light</span> during enforcement activities.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In narrow channels, keep <span class=\""highlight\"">near outer limit on starboard side</span>.""}]",,34
-4215,How loud is too loud before someone starts yelling at you about ear muffs?,"['There are several steps that employers can take to minimize the noise in the laboratory, including: - · Moving noise-producing equipment (e.g., freezers, refrigerators, incubators and centrifuges) from the laboratory to an equipment room; - · Locating compressors for controlled-temperature rooms remotely; and - · Providing acoustical treatment on ceilings and walls. An OSHA Fact Sheet entitled Laboratory Safety - Noise has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Safety Hazards Employers must assess tasks to identify potential worksite hazards and provide and ensure that workers use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) as stated in the PPE standard, 29 CFR 1910.132. Employers must require workers to use appropriate hand protection when hands are exposed to hazards such as sharp instruments and potential thermal burns. Examples of PPE which may be selected include using oven mitts when handling hot items, and steel mesh or cut-resistant gloves when handling or sorting sharp instruments as stated in the Hand Protection standard, 29 CFR 1910.138. ## Autoclaves and Sterilizers Workers should be trained to recognize the potential for exposure to burns or cuts that can occur from handling or sorting hot sterilized items or sharp instruments when removing them from autoclaves/ sterilizers or from steam lines that service the autoclaves. In order to prevent injuries from occurring, employers must train workers to follow good work practices such as those outlined in the QuickCardTM highlighted below. ## An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - - Autoclaves/Sterilizers has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Centrifuges Centrifuges, due to the high speed at which they operate, have great potential for injuring users if not operated properly. Unbalanced centrifuge rotors can result in injury, even death. Sample container breakage can generate aerosols that may be harmful if inhaled.', ""## Noise OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard, 29 CFR 1910.95, requires employers to develop and implement a hearing conservation program that includes the use of PPE (e.g., hearing protectors), if workers are exposed to a time-weighted average (TWA) of ≥ 85 dBA over an 8-hour work shift. In addition, when workers are exposed to noise levels ≥ 85 dBA, the employer must develop a monitoring program to assess noise levels. The monitoring program must include the following components: - · All continuous, intermittent, and impulsive sound levels from 80-130 dBA must be included in noise measurements, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(2)(i); - · Instruments used to measure worker noise exposure must be calibrated to ensure measurement accuracy, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(2)(ii); and - · Monitoring must be repeated whenever a change in production, process, equipment, or controls increases noise exposures, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(3). Laboratory workers are exposed to noise from a variety of sources. Operation of large analyzers (e.g., chemistry analyzer), fume hoods, biological safety cabinets, incubators, centrifuges (especially ultracentrifuges), cell washers, sonicators, and stirrer motors, all contribute to the noise level in laboratories. Further sources of noise in laboratories include fans and compressors for cryostats, refrigerators, refrigerated centrifuges, and freezers. As an example, a high-speed refrigerated centrifuge alone can generate noise levels as high as 65 dBA. To provide some further context, a whisper registers approximately 30 dBA; normal conversation about 50 to 60 dBA; a ringing phone 80 dBA and a power mower 90 dBA. If noise levels exceed 80 dBA, people must speak very loudly to be heard, while at noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people have to shout."", ""If noise levels exceed 80 dBA, people must speak very loudly to be heard, while at noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people have to shout. In order to determine if the noise levels in the laboratory are above the threshold level that damages hearing, the employer must conduct a noise exposure assessment using an approved sound level monitoring device, such as a dosimeter, and measuring an 8-hour TWA exposure. If the noise levels are found to exceed the threshold level, the employer must provide hearing protection at no cost to the workers and train them in the proper use of the protectors. The potential dangers of miscommunicating instructions or laboratory results are obvious, and efforts should be made to improve the design of clinical laboratories and to evaluate new instrumentation with regard to the impact of these factors on worker noise exposure. The employer should evaluate the possibility of relocating equipment to another area or using engineering controls to reduce the noise level below an 8-hour TWA of 85 dBA in order to comply with OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard. While most laboratories' noise levels do not equal or exceed the 8-hour TWA of 85 dBA, certain accrediting agencies are implementing special emphasis programs on noise reduction in the laboratory. Because noise is becoming more of a concern in the clinical setting, the College of American Pathologists has added evaluation of noise in the laboratory under their general checklist for accreditation (GEN.70824). ## Health Effects Exposure to continuous noise may lead to the following stress-related symptoms: - · Depression; - · Irritability; - · Decreased concentration in the workplace; - · Reduced efficiency and decreased productivity; - · Noise-induced hearing loss; - · Tinnitus (i.e., ringing in the ears); and - · Increased errors in laboratory work. There are several steps that employers can take to minimize the noise in the laboratory, including:""]",medium,answer,"According to OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard (29 CFR 1910.95), when noise levels reach or exceed 85 decibels (dBA) as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA), employers are required to implement a hearing conservation program, which includes providing hearing protection (like ear muffs) to workers. At noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people typically have to shout to be heard, which is when hearing protection becomes mandatory. Therefore, 85 dBA is the threshold at which someone would 'start yelling at you about ear muffs' in a regulatory context.",3,Occupational noise safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""OSHA requires hearing conservation at <span class=\""highlight\"">85 decibels (dBA) or higher</span> over 8-hour shift.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Employers must provide hearing protectors and ensure their proper use.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Steps include moving noisy equipment and adding sound-dampening materials.""}]",,35
-1209,Under what conditions can the Secretary order a manufacturer to send a second notification about a defect or noncompliance?,"['- (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title. - (c) Orders to manufacturers. --If the Secretary prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer-- - (1) to notify each owner, purchaser, and dealer described in section 30119(d) of this title of the outcome of the action and other information the Secretary requires, and notification under this clause may be combined with notification required under section 30118(b) of this title; - (2) to specify the earliest date under section 30119(b) of this title on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (3) if notification was required under subsection (a) of this section, to reimburse an owner or purchaser for reasonable and necessary expenses (in an amount that is not more than the amount specified in the order of the Secretary under subsection (a)) incurred for repairing the defect or noncompliance during the period beginning on the date that notification was required to be issued and ending on the date the owner or purchaser receives the notification under this subsection. - (d) Venue. --Notwithstanding section 30163(c) of this title, a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title must be brought in the United States district court for a judicial district in the State in which the manufacturer is incorporated or the District of Columbia. On motion of a party, the court may transfer the action to another district court if good cause is shown. All actions related to the same order under section 30118(b) shall be consolidated in an action in one judicial district under an order of the court in which the first action was brought. If the first action is transferred to another court, that court shall issue the consolidation order. ## § 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative - (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the', ""The Secretary may prescribe regulations to carry out this paragraph. - (d) Filing manufacturer's remedy program. --A manufacturer shall file with the Secretary a copy of the manufacturer's program under this section for remedying a defect or noncompliance. The Secretary shall make the program available to the public and publish a notice of availability in the Federal Register. A manufacturer's remedy program shall include a plan for reimbursing an owner or purchaser who incurred the cost of the remedy within a reasonable time in advance of the manufacturer's notification under subsection (b) or (c) of section 30118. The Secretary may prescribe regulations establishing what constitutes a reasonable time for purposes of the preceding sentence and other reasonable conditions for the reimbursement plan. In the case of a remedy program involving the replacement of tires, the manufacturer shall include a plan addressing how to prevent, to the extent reasonably within the control of the manufacturer, replaced tires from being resold for installation on a motor vehicle, and how to limit, to the extent reasonably within the control of the manufacturer, the disposal of replaced tires in landfills, particularly through shredding, crumbling, recycling, recovery, and other alternative beneficial nonvehicular uses. The manufacturer shall include information about the implementation of such plan with each quarterly report to the Secretary regarding the progress of any notification or remedy campaigns. - (e) Hearings about meeting remedy requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on application by any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the remedy requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the remedy requirements. If the Secretary decides a manufacturer has not reasonably met the remedy requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter."", 'way required by the Secretary after consulting with the manufacturer. - (3) Notification required under section 30118 of this title about a tire shall be sent by first class mail (or, if the manufacturer prefers, by certified mail) to the most recent purchaser known to the manufacturer. In addition, if the Secretary decides that public notice is required for motor vehicle safety, public notice shall be given in the way required by the Secretary after consulting with the manufacturer. In deciding whether public notice is required, the Secretary shall consider-- - (A) the magnitude of the risk to motor vehicle safety caused by the defect or noncompliance; and - (B) the cost of public notice compared to the additional number of owners the notice may reach. - (4) A dealer to whom a motor vehicle or replacement equipment was delivered shall be notified by certified mail or quicker means if available. - (e) Second notification. --If the Secretary decides that a notification sent by a manufacturer under this section has not resulted in an adequate number of motor vehicles or items of replacement equipment being returned for remedy, the Secretary may order the manufacturer to send a 2d notification in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation. - (f)Notification by lessor to lessee.--(1) In this subsection, ""leased motor vehicle"" means a motor vehicle that is leased to a person for at least 4 months by a lessor that has leased at least 5 motor vehicles in the 12 months before the date of the notification. - (2) A lessor that receives a notification required by section 30118 of this title about a leased motor vehicle shall provide a copy of the notification to the lessee in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation. ## § 30120. Remedies for defects and noncompliance']",medium,answer,The Secretary can order a manufacturer to send a second notification about a defect or noncompliance if the Secretary decides that the initial notification sent by the manufacturer has not resulted in an adequate number of motor vehicles or items of replacement equipment being returned for remedy. The second notification must be sent in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation.,3,Vehicle safety notification requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When first notification <span class=\""highlight\"">has not resulted in adequate number of vehicles returned for remedy</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Manufacturer must furnish copy of each communication about defect or noncompliance.""}]",,36
-2868,"If HMOs are like the strict parents of healthcare, what's their golden rule for doctors?","[""## Health Maintenance Organizations A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a type of managed care organization that provides a form of health care coverage that is fulfilled through hospitals, doctors and other providers with which the HMO has a contract. Unlike traditional health insurance, an HMO sets out guidelines under which doctors can operate. On average, an HMO costs less than comparable traditional health insurance, with a trade-off of limitations on the range of treatments available. Unlike many traditional insurers, HMOs do not merely provide financing for medical care. The HMO actually delivers the treatment as well. Doctors, hospitals and insurers all participate in the HMO business arrangement. The NAIC has adopted a model law and regulation that governs the licensure of HMOs: the Health Maintenance Organization Model Act (#430) and the Model Regulation to Implement Rules Regarding Contracts and Services of Health Maintenance Organization (#432). In most cases, access to an HMO is only available to employer group plans. ## Preferred Provider Organizations A preferred provider organization (PPO) is a group of doctors and/or hospitals that provides medical service only to a specific group or association. The PPO may be sponsored by a particular insurance company, one or more employers, or some other type of organization. PPO physicians provide medical services to the policyholders, employees or members of the sponsor(s) at discounted rates, and they may set up utilization review programs to help control the cost of medical care. In some states, managed care providers may be licensed by an agency outside the insurance department. 9 S ## Chapter 24 ## Managing General Agents A managing general agent (MGA) is an insurance producer authorized by an insurance company to manage all or part of the insurer's business in a specific geographic territory. Activities on behalf of the insurer may include marketing, underwriting, issuing policies, collecting premiums, appointing and supervising other agents, paying claims, and negotiating reinsurance. Many states regulate the activities and contracts of MGAs."", 'Many states regulate the activities and contracts of MGAs. The NAIC has adopted the Managing General Agents Act (#225) to guide the states in regulating MGAs. Under the model, an MGA is defined as any person who engages in all of the following: - 1. Negotiates and binds ceding reinsurance contracts on behalf of an insurer or manages all or part of the insurance business of an insurer-including the management of a separate division, department or underwriting office-and who acts as an agent for such insurer whether known as a managing general agent, manager or other similar term or title. - 2. With or without authority and either separately or together with affiliates, directly or indirectly produces and underwrites an amount of gross direct written premium equal to or greater than 5% of the policyholder surplus in any one quarter or year, as reported in the last annual statement of the insurer. - 3. Engages in either or both of the following: - (a) Adjusts or pays claims in excess of an amount determined by the insurance commissioner. - (b) Negotiates reinsurance on behalf of the insurer. Under the model, an MGA does not include any of the following: - 1. An employee of the insurer. - 2. A manager of a U.S. branch of an alien insurer who resides in this country. - 3. An underwriting manager who, pursuant to contract, manages all insurance operations of the insurer, who is under common control with the insurer, subject to [cite to state law] relating to the regulation of insurance holding company systems, and who is not compensated based upon the volume of premiums written. - 4. An insurance company, in connection with the acceptance or rejection of reinsurance on a block of business. - 5. The attorney-in-fact authorized by or acting for the subscribers of a reciprocal insurer or interinsurance exchange under a power of attorney. In most states, MGAs must be licensed as producers and are not allowed to place business until a written contract exists among all parties. Under Model #225, insurers are required to monitor the financial stability of MGAs under contract. 1 S ## Chapter 25 ## Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements', 'Members of the board are also policyholders. Individuals who sell products for small mutuals should be licensed as producers, as outlined in Model #218 and the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). 5 ## Chapter 22 ## Insurance Consultants An insurance consultant is a person who charges a fee for giving advice about insurance products. Not all states require a separate consultant license. In those states, the individual can obtain a producer license and abide by the disclosure provisions for insurance consultants. In states that do require a special license, the applicant is usually required to pass an examination. The exam may be either one of the same subject-matter examinations that insurance producers must pass or an examination specific to consultants. In states that require an examination, a waiver may be granted if the applicant can demonstrate a specified amount of insurance experience. States usually adopt exemptions from the consultant licensing requirement. The exemptions are available as long as the person is acting in his or her professional capacity or in the normal course of business. Common exemptions are: - 1. A licensed attorney. - 2. A trust officer of a bank. - 3. An actuary or certified public accountant. - 4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only. If a state requires appointments for insurance producers, appointments should not be required for insurance consultants. The consultant represents the insured and is not an agent of the insurance company. Some states prohibit an individual from holding both an insurance producer license and an insurance consultant license. Other states allow an insurance producer to function in either capacity with full disclosure. In all cases where an individual is acting as an insurance consultant, a written contract should be used to clearly explain the terms of the consultant arrangement. In states that have a separate insurance consultant license, it is a common practice to have a continuing education (CE) requirement that mirrors the CE requirement for insurance producers. 7 S ## Chapter 23 ## Managed Care Providers ## Health Maintenance Organizations']",medium,answer,"The 'golden rule' for doctors in an HMO is to operate under the guidelines set by the HMO. Unlike traditional health insurance, HMOs establish specific rules and limitations under which doctors can provide treatments. This ensures cost-effectiveness but may restrict the range of available treatments.",3,HMO healthcare model,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""HMOs require <span class=\""highlight\"">primary care physician as gatekeeper</span> to medical services.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Pre-authorization required and strict policies</span> for specialist access.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Physicians must operate within HMO guidelines</span> (formularies, protocols, limitations).""}]",,37
-3971,What does the EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan aim to achieve?,"['- viii. Ensures that all reports identified in Section 5 of this Order, Monitoring for Policy Compliance, are complete, accurate, and on time; and - ix. Analyzes and publishes to OAs the results of data collection and reporting for trends. - e. DOT Office of the General Counsel: Interprets and provides guidance on new and existing energy, environmental, and sustainability laws, regulations, executive orders, and other requirements. Reviews contracts and ensures they meet all applicable laws, regulations, E.O.s, and other requirements. Advises ASA on legal issues arising with home-to-work waiver requests. - f. OA Administrator: Ensures OA conforms with and implements all applicable requirements for fleet sustainability provided in this Order. Additionally, the OA Administrator may delegate responsibilities as necessary to meet the requirements. Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited to: - i. Issues data collection requests and analyzes data for reporting progress milestones; - ii. Communicates new requirements throughout the OA; - iii. Ensures that fleet sustainability information is tracked and reported to the appropriate reporting systems at the minimum intervals; - iv. - Submits requests to OST, as needed, for exceptions to the goals or requirements; and v. Conducts an annual VAM in accordance with FMR B-30. - g. OA Fleet Manager: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited to: - i. Identifies and implements the optimal fleet management strategy for that OA (based on evaluating the fleet characteristics and requirements at the site); - a) Ensures that the fleet at the fleet location(s) is right-sized (number and types) to mission; - b) Monitors the performance of the fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use; - c) Ensures that the fleet complies with applicable fleet requirements related to alternative fuel infrastructure; - d) Refines the fleet optimization strategy based on changes in fleet characteristics, performance, and mission; and', ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |""]",hard,answer,The EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan aims to provide a revised plan with specific and quantifiable means by which the Department of Transportation (DOT) will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone for petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements.,2,Department of Transportation sustainability plan,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Plan provides <span class=\""highlight\"">means to remedy shortfalls and meet percentage requirements</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Strategies include vehicle allocation methodology and alternative fuel use.""}]",,38
-1818,Do I need to include 'from concentrate' in the name of a fruit punch or lemonade if it contains juice from concentrate?,"[""## J1. What causes a juice beverage label to be required to have a % juice declaration? Answer: Beverages that purport to contain juice (fruit or vegetable juice) must declare the % of juice. Included are beverages that purport to contain juice by way of label statements, by pictures of fruits or vegetables on the label, or by taste and appearance causing the consumer to expect juice in the beverage. This includes non-carbonated and carbonated beverages, full-strength (100%) juices, concentrated juices, diluted juices, and beverages that purport to contain juice but contain no juice. 21 CFR 101.30(a) ## J2. Where and how is % juice declared? Answer: The % juice must be on the information panel (for packages with information panels), near the top. Only the brand name, product name, logo, or universal product code may be placed above it. Use easily legible boldface print or type that distinctly contrasts with the other printed or graphic material. The type size for the % juice declaration must be not less than the largest type on the information panel, except that used for the brand name, product name, logo, universal product code, or the title phrase Nutrition Facts. The percentage juice declaration may be either 'contains\\_\\_\\_\\_% juice' or '\\_\\_\\_\\_% juice.' The name of the fruit or vegetable may also be included (e.g., '100% Apple Juice'). If the package does not contain an information panel, the percent juice must be placed on the PDP in a type size not less than that required for the net contents declaration and placed near the name of the food. 21 CFR 101.30(e); 21 CFR 101.30(g) ## Are there any exceptions from the % juice requirement? J3."", '## it necessary to state that juices are from concentrate when they are in a beverage such as punch? J30. Is contained sometimes. If the juices are specifically named in the statement identity, and the juices are from concentrate, their names must be followed the term \'from concentrate\' in accordance with CFR 102.33(g). no is made to specific juices in the name of a punch that is made from juices, the statement of identity does not have to include the \'from concentrate.\' However, each of the concentrated juices used in the must be declared in order of predominance in the ingredient statement the label. Answer: Yes, of by 21 If reference concentrated term punch of ## a punch have to be made from fruit juice? J31. Does FDA does not have a specific definition or standard of identity punch, or any other requirement that a punch contain fruit juice. A punch be an artificially f lavored beverage, with or without natural flavorings, or may be made from tea and other ingredients, exclusive of fruit juice. Such must be clearly distinguished from products which are made from juices or fruit concentrates or purees. Products containing artificial or flavors must be labeled in accordance with 21 CFR 101.22. Answer: No. for may it products fruit natural ## the case of a vegetable juice cocktail that is 100 percent juice, can the include the term \'cocktail\'? J32. In name Answer: Yes. 10"" X 2"" = 20 SQ. IN. AREA OF PDP = 20 SQ. IN. X 40% = 8 SQ. IN. ## 5. NET QUANTITY OF CONTENTS STATEMENTS ## is the net quantity of contents and how is it expressed? 1. What net quantity of contents (net quantity statement) is the statement the label which provides the amount of food in the container or package. It be expressed in weight, measure or numeric count. Generally, if the food solid, semisolid or viscous, it should be expressed in terms of weight. If the is a liquid it should be expressed in fluid measure (e.g., fl oz). CFR 101.105(a)(b)(c) Answer: The on must is food 21', ""## Are there any exceptions from the % juice requirement? J3. exception is that beverages containing minor amounts of juice flavoring are not required to bear a % juice declaration provided that: (a) product is described using the term 'flavor' or 'flavored,' (b) the term is not used other than in the ingredient list, and (c) the beverages do otherwise give the impression they contain juice such as with the use of vignettes on the label or physical resemblance of the beverage to juice as pulp. 21 CFR 101.30(c) Answer: An for the 'juice' not explicit such ## is the % juice calculated? J4. How juice made by adding water to concentrate: Calculate using values from Brix table in CFR 101.30(h)(1) the basis for 100% juice. CFR 101.30(j), 21 CFR 101.30(h) For the 21 as 21 juice expressed directly from fruit or vegetables: Compute on a basis. Answer: For volume/volume ## myproductbelabeledasa'drink'ora'beverage?' J5. Should Answer: Beverages that are 100% juice may be called 'juice.' However, beverages that are diluted to less than 100% juice must have the word 'juice' qualified with a term such as 'beverage,' 'drink,' or 'cocktail.' Alternatively, the product may be labeled with a name using the form 'diluted \\_\\_\\_ juice,' (e.g. 'diluted apple juice'). 21 CFR 102.33(a) ## it necessary to use the term 'concentrate' on the label? J6. Is made from concentrate must be labeled with terms such as concentrate,' or'reconstituted' as part of the name wherever it appears the label. An exception is that, in the ingredient statement, the juice is as 'concentrated \\_\\_\\_\\_ juice and water' or 'water and concentrated juice,' as appropriate. CFR 102.33(g) Answer: Juices 'from on declared \\_\\_\\_\\_ 21 ## statement of identity is used on a mixed fruit or vegetable juice J7. What beverage?"", ""## have a 100% juice drink and add a non juice ingredient. May I still call it juice? J23. I 100% the added ingredient does not dilute the juice or, for an expressed change its volume, you may continue to call it 100% juice but the juice statement must identify the added ingredient, e.g., '100% juice added preservative.' CFR 101.30(b)(3) and 101.54(e) Answer: If juice, percent with 21 ## if the added substance is also a nutrient such as Vitamin C acid)? J24. What (ascorbic ascorbic acid is added at levels consistent with fortification of the a declaration as part of the percent juice statement would constitute a content claim which would trigger compliance with more claims the required accompanying information. If it were added at the level as a preservative, then a statement such as 100% juice with preservative be used. In this case it would be listed in the ingredient statement as a in accordance with 101.22(j). Answer: If juice, nutrient including used could preservative ## I have to say 'fruit punch from concentrate' or 'lemonade from J25. Do concentrate'? Section 102.33(g) states that if one or more of the juices in a beverage is made from concentrate, then the name of the juice must the term 'from concentrate' or'reconstituted.' Because the names punch' and 'lemonade' do not include the name of a specific juice, names do not have to contain the term 'from concentrate' or Answer: No. juice include 'fruit these'reconstituted.' ## the declaration on a lemonade made in terms of the lemon juice only, of sugar? J26. Is exclusive before adding sugar. Answer: Yes, ## have a juice product for food service only, and we are exempt from labeling for this product (we know that is never goes to club Are we also exempt from percent juice declarations? J27. We nutrition stores). Answer: No. There are no exemptions from the requirement for label declaration of the percentage of juice on food service containers of juices. ## the commonorusualnameregulationin21CFR102.33applicableto percent juices or only to diluted juices? J28. Is 100""]",easy,answer,"No, you do not need to include 'from concentrate' in the name of a fruit punch or lemonade if it contains juice from concentrate. According to the context (J25), the names 'fruit punch' and 'lemonade' do not include the name of a specific juice, so these names do not have to contain the term 'from concentrate' or 'reconstituted.' However, the concentrated juices used must still be declared in the ingredient statement in order of predominance.",4,Juice labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For fruit punch or lemonade: <span class=\""highlight\"">No. These terms describe diluted beverages</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""100% juices must state &#x27;from concentrate&#x27;; declaration voluntary for others.""}]",,39
-1242,Can the Secretary of Transportation create exemptions to the rules about vehicle safety devices?,"['- (A) the defect or noncompliance is remedied as required by this section before delivery under the sale or lease; or - (B) when the notification is required by an order under section 30118(b) of this title, enforcement of the order is restrained or the order is set aside in a civil action to which section 30121(d) of this title applies. - (2) This subsection does not prohibit a dealer from offering for sale or lease the vehicle or equipment. - (j) Prohibition on sales of replaced equipment. --No person may sell or lease any motor vehicle equipment (including a tire), for installation on a motor vehicle, that is the subject of a decision under section 30118(b) or a notice required under section 30118(c) in a condition that it may be reasonably used for its original purpose unless-- - (1) the defect or noncompliance is remedied as required by this section before delivery under the sale or lease; or - (2) notification of the defect or noncompliance is required under section 30118(b) but enforcement of the order is set aside in a civil action to which section 30121(d) applies. ## § 30121. Provisional notification and civil actions to enforce - (a) Provisional notification.-(1) The Secretary of Transportation may order a manufacturer to issue a provisional notification if a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title has been brought under section 30163 of this title. The provisional notification shall contain-- - (A) a statement that the Secretary has decided that a defect related to motor vehicle safety or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter exists and that the manufacturer is contesting the decision in a civil action in a United States district court;', '## § 30102. Definitions - (a) General definitions. --In this chapter-- - (1) ""dealer"" means a person selling and distributing new motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment primarily to purchasers that in good faith purchase the vehicles or equipment other than for resale. - (2) ""defect"" includes any defect in performance, construction, a component, or material of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment. - (3) ""distributor"" means a person primarily selling and distributing motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for resale. - (4) ""interstate commerce"" means commerce between a place in a State and a place in another State or between places in the same State through another State. - (5) ""manufacturer"" means a person-- - (A) manufacturing or assembling motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment; or - (B) importing motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for resale. - (6) ""motor vehicle"" means a vehicle driven or drawn by mechanical power and manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways, but does not include a vehicle operated only on a rail line. - (7) ""motor vehicle equipment"" means-- - (A) any system, part, or component of a motor vehicle as originally manufactured; - (B) any similar part or component manufactured or sold for replacement or improvement of a system, part, or component, or as an accessory or addition to a motor vehicle; or - (C) any device or an article or apparel (except medicine or eyeglasses prescribed by a licensed practitioner) that is not a system, part, or component of a motor vehicle and is manufactured, sold, delivered, offered, or intended to be used only to safeguard motor vehicles and highway users against risk of accident, injury, or death. - (8) ""motor vehicle safety"" means the performance of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment in a way that protects the public against unreasonable risk of accidents occurring because of the design, construction, or performance of a motor vehicle, and against unreasonable risk of death or injury in an accident, and includes nonoperational safety of a motor vehicle. - (9) ""motor vehicle safety standard"" means a minimum standard for motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment performance.', '- (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the public to repair for compensation a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment. - (b) Prohibition. --A manufacturer, distributor, dealer, or motor vehicle repair business may not knowingly make inoperative any part of a device or element of design installed on or in a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment in compliance with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter unless the manufacturer, distributor, dealer, or repair business reasonably believes the vehicle or equipment will not be used (except for testing or a similar purpose during maintenance or repair) when the device or element is inoperative. - (c) Regulations. --The Secretary of Transportation may prescribe regulations-- - (1) to exempt a person from this section if the Secretary decides the exemption is consistent with motor vehicle safety and section 30101 of this title; and - (2) to define ""make inoperative"". - (d) Nonapplication. --This section does not apply to a safety belt interlock or buzzer designed to indicate a safety belt is not in use as described in section 30124 of this title. ## § 30123. Tires - (a) Regrooved tire limitations.-(1) In this subsection, ""regrooved tire"" means a tire with a new tread produced by cutting into the tread of a worn tire. - (2) The Secretary may authorize the sale, offer for sale, introduction for sale, or delivery for introduction in interstate commerce, of a regrooved tire or a motor vehicle equipped with regrooved tires if the Secretary decides the tires are designed and made in a way consistent with section 30101 of this title. A person may not sell, offer for sale, introduce for sale, or deliver for introduction in interstate commerce, a regrooved tire or a vehicle equipped with regrooved tires unless authorized by the Secretary.', ""- (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires. - (C) A manufacturer of tires shall reimburse distributors and dealers of that manufacturer's tires for all reasonable costs incurred by the distributors and dealers in complying with a requirement prescribed by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. - (D) After making a decision under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the Secretary shall submit to each House of Congress a report containing a detailed statement of the decision and an explanation of the reasons for the decision. ## (c) Rollover tests.-- - (1) Development. --Not later than 2 years from the date of the enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall- - - (A)develop a dynamic test on rollovers by motor vehicles for the purposes of a consumer information program; and - (B)carry out a program of conducting such tests. - (2) Test results. --As the Secretary develops a test under paragraph (1)(A), the Secretary shall conduct a rulemaking to determine how best to disseminate test results to the public. - (3) Motor vehicles covered. --This subsection applies to motor vehicles, including passenger cars, multipurpose passenger vehicles, and trucks, with a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less. A motor vehicle designed to provide temporary residential accommodations is not covered. ## § 30118. Notification of defects and noncompliance""]",easy,answer,"Yes, the Secretary of Transportation can create exemptions to the rules about vehicle safety devices. According to the context, under § 30102, the Secretary may prescribe regulations to exempt a person from certain prohibitions if the Secretary decides the exemption is consistent with motor vehicle safety and section 30101 of this title.",4,Vehicle safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Secretary may exempt vehicles from safety standards</span> temporarily.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exemption allowed if: <span class=\""highlight\"">(A) economic hardship; (B) equal safety level; (C) experimental feature testing</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Secretary publishes notice when manufacturer applies for exemption.""}]",,40
+   - WIG crafts must exhibit a high-intensity all-round flashing red light when taking off, landing, or in flight near the surface.",3,Maritime vessel regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 82.5 <span class=\""highlight\"">Lights for moored vessels</span>: For the purposes of Rule 30 of the 72 COLREGS, <span class=\""highlight\"">a vessel at anchor includes a barge made fast to one or more mooring buoys or other similar device attached to the sea or river floor</span>. Such a barge may be lighted as a vessel at anchor in accordance with Rule 30, or may be lighted on the corners in accordance with 33 CFR 83.30(h) through (l).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rule 35. <span class=\""highlight\"">Sound signals in restricted visibility</span>: (a) A power-driven vessel making way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes <span class=\""highlight\"">one prolonged blast</span>. (b) A power-driven vessel underway but stopped and making no way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes <span class=\""highlight\"">two prolonged blasts in succession</span> with an interval of about 2 seconds between them.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 83.22 <span class=\""highlight\"">Visibility of lights</span>: The lights prescribed in these Rules shall have an <span class=\""highlight\"">intensity specified in Annex I to these Rules so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges</span>: (a) In a vessel of 50 meters or more in length: A masthead light, 6 miles; a sidelight, 3 miles; a sternlight, 3 miles; a towing light, 3 miles; a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles.""}]",,34
+4215,How loud is too loud before someone starts yelling at you about ear muffs?,"['There are several steps that employers can take to minimize the noise in the laboratory, including: - · Moving noise-producing equipment (e.g., freezers, refrigerators, incubators and centrifuges) from the laboratory to an equipment room; - · Locating compressors for controlled-temperature rooms remotely; and - · Providing acoustical treatment on ceilings and walls. An OSHA Fact Sheet entitled Laboratory Safety - Noise has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Safety Hazards Employers must assess tasks to identify potential worksite hazards and provide and ensure that workers use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) as stated in the PPE standard, 29 CFR 1910.132. Employers must require workers to use appropriate hand protection when hands are exposed to hazards such as sharp instruments and potential thermal burns. Examples of PPE which may be selected include using oven mitts when handling hot items, and steel mesh or cut-resistant gloves when handling or sorting sharp instruments as stated in the Hand Protection standard, 29 CFR 1910.138. ## Autoclaves and Sterilizers Workers should be trained to recognize the potential for exposure to burns or cuts that can occur from handling or sorting hot sterilized items or sharp instruments when removing them from autoclaves/ sterilizers or from steam lines that service the autoclaves. In order to prevent injuries from occurring, employers must train workers to follow good work practices such as those outlined in the QuickCardTM highlighted below. ## An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - - Autoclaves/Sterilizers has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Centrifuges Centrifuges, due to the high speed at which they operate, have great potential for injuring users if not operated properly. Unbalanced centrifuge rotors can result in injury, even death. Sample container breakage can generate aerosols that may be harmful if inhaled.', ""## Noise OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard, 29 CFR 1910.95, requires employers to develop and implement a hearing conservation program that includes the use of PPE (e.g., hearing protectors), if workers are exposed to a time-weighted average (TWA) of ≥ 85 dBA over an 8-hour work shift. In addition, when workers are exposed to noise levels ≥ 85 dBA, the employer must develop a monitoring program to assess noise levels. The monitoring program must include the following components: - · All continuous, intermittent, and impulsive sound levels from 80-130 dBA must be included in noise measurements, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(2)(i); - · Instruments used to measure worker noise exposure must be calibrated to ensure measurement accuracy, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(2)(ii); and - · Monitoring must be repeated whenever a change in production, process, equipment, or controls increases noise exposures, 29 CFR 1910.95(d)(3). Laboratory workers are exposed to noise from a variety of sources. Operation of large analyzers (e.g., chemistry analyzer), fume hoods, biological safety cabinets, incubators, centrifuges (especially ultracentrifuges), cell washers, sonicators, and stirrer motors, all contribute to the noise level in laboratories. Further sources of noise in laboratories include fans and compressors for cryostats, refrigerators, refrigerated centrifuges, and freezers. As an example, a high-speed refrigerated centrifuge alone can generate noise levels as high as 65 dBA. To provide some further context, a whisper registers approximately 30 dBA; normal conversation about 50 to 60 dBA; a ringing phone 80 dBA and a power mower 90 dBA. If noise levels exceed 80 dBA, people must speak very loudly to be heard, while at noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people have to shout."", ""If noise levels exceed 80 dBA, people must speak very loudly to be heard, while at noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people have to shout. In order to determine if the noise levels in the laboratory are above the threshold level that damages hearing, the employer must conduct a noise exposure assessment using an approved sound level monitoring device, such as a dosimeter, and measuring an 8-hour TWA exposure. If the noise levels are found to exceed the threshold level, the employer must provide hearing protection at no cost to the workers and train them in the proper use of the protectors. The potential dangers of miscommunicating instructions or laboratory results are obvious, and efforts should be made to improve the design of clinical laboratories and to evaluate new instrumentation with regard to the impact of these factors on worker noise exposure. The employer should evaluate the possibility of relocating equipment to another area or using engineering controls to reduce the noise level below an 8-hour TWA of 85 dBA in order to comply with OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard. While most laboratories' noise levels do not equal or exceed the 8-hour TWA of 85 dBA, certain accrediting agencies are implementing special emphasis programs on noise reduction in the laboratory. Because noise is becoming more of a concern in the clinical setting, the College of American Pathologists has added evaluation of noise in the laboratory under their general checklist for accreditation (GEN.70824). ## Health Effects Exposure to continuous noise may lead to the following stress-related symptoms: - · Depression; - · Irritability; - · Decreased concentration in the workplace; - · Reduced efficiency and decreased productivity; - · Noise-induced hearing loss; - · Tinnitus (i.e., ringing in the ears); and - · Increased errors in laboratory work. There are several steps that employers can take to minimize the noise in the laboratory, including:""]",medium,answer,"According to OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard (29 CFR 1910.95), when noise levels reach or exceed 85 decibels (dBA) as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA), employers are required to implement a hearing conservation program, which includes providing hearing protection (like ear muffs) to workers. At noise levels of 85 to 90 dBA, people typically have to shout to be heard, which is when hearing protection becomes mandatory. Therefore, 85 dBA is the threshold at which someone would 'start yelling at you about ear muffs' in a regulatory context.",3,Occupational noise safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""There are several steps that employers can take to minimize the noise in the laboratory, including moving noise-producing equipment (e.g., freezers, refrigerators, incubators and centrifuges) from the laboratory to an equipment room. <span class=\""highlight\"">OSHA requires employers to implement a hearing conservation program when workers are exposed to a time-weighted average noise level of 85 decibels (dBA) or higher over an 8-hour work shift</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">When workplace noise levels reach or exceed 85 decibels (dBA) as an 8-hour time-weighted average, employers must provide hearing protectors to employees</span>, and ensure proper usage of these protective devices. <span class=\""highlight\"">Hearing protectors include ear muffs (which fit over the entire ear)</span> and ear plugs (which are inserted into the ear canal).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Under <span class=\""highlight\"">OSHA's Occupational Noise Exposure standard (29 CFR 1910.95)</span>, hearing protection devices must be made available to all workers exposed to 8-hour TWA noise levels of <span class=\""highlight\"">85 dB or above</span>. This is the level at which employers must initiate a hearing conservation program, which includes monitoring, testing, and protective measures.""}]",,35
+1209,Under what conditions can the Secretary order a manufacturer to send a second notification about a defect or noncompliance?,"['- (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title. - (c) Orders to manufacturers. --If the Secretary prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer-- - (1) to notify each owner, purchaser, and dealer described in section 30119(d) of this title of the outcome of the action and other information the Secretary requires, and notification under this clause may be combined with notification required under section 30118(b) of this title; - (2) to specify the earliest date under section 30119(b) of this title on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (3) if notification was required under subsection (a) of this section, to reimburse an owner or purchaser for reasonable and necessary expenses (in an amount that is not more than the amount specified in the order of the Secretary under subsection (a)) incurred for repairing the defect or noncompliance during the period beginning on the date that notification was required to be issued and ending on the date the owner or purchaser receives the notification under this subsection. - (d) Venue. --Notwithstanding section 30163(c) of this title, a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title must be brought in the United States district court for a judicial district in the State in which the manufacturer is incorporated or the District of Columbia. On motion of a party, the court may transfer the action to another district court if good cause is shown. All actions related to the same order under section 30118(b) shall be consolidated in an action in one judicial district under an order of the court in which the first action was brought. If the first action is transferred to another court, that court shall issue the consolidation order. ## § 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative - (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the', ""The Secretary may prescribe regulations to carry out this paragraph. - (d) Filing manufacturer's remedy program. --A manufacturer shall file with the Secretary a copy of the manufacturer's program under this section for remedying a defect or noncompliance. The Secretary shall make the program available to the public and publish a notice of availability in the Federal Register. A manufacturer's remedy program shall include a plan for reimbursing an owner or purchaser who incurred the cost of the remedy within a reasonable time in advance of the manufacturer's notification under subsection (b) or (c) of section 30118. The Secretary may prescribe regulations establishing what constitutes a reasonable time for purposes of the preceding sentence and other reasonable conditions for the reimbursement plan. In the case of a remedy program involving the replacement of tires, the manufacturer shall include a plan addressing how to prevent, to the extent reasonably within the control of the manufacturer, replaced tires from being resold for installation on a motor vehicle, and how to limit, to the extent reasonably within the control of the manufacturer, the disposal of replaced tires in landfills, particularly through shredding, crumbling, recycling, recovery, and other alternative beneficial nonvehicular uses. The manufacturer shall include information about the implementation of such plan with each quarterly report to the Secretary regarding the progress of any notification or remedy campaigns. - (e) Hearings about meeting remedy requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on application by any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the remedy requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the remedy requirements. If the Secretary decides a manufacturer has not reasonably met the remedy requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter."", 'way required by the Secretary after consulting with the manufacturer. - (3) Notification required under section 30118 of this title about a tire shall be sent by first class mail (or, if the manufacturer prefers, by certified mail) to the most recent purchaser known to the manufacturer. In addition, if the Secretary decides that public notice is required for motor vehicle safety, public notice shall be given in the way required by the Secretary after consulting with the manufacturer. In deciding whether public notice is required, the Secretary shall consider-- - (A) the magnitude of the risk to motor vehicle safety caused by the defect or noncompliance; and - (B) the cost of public notice compared to the additional number of owners the notice may reach. - (4) A dealer to whom a motor vehicle or replacement equipment was delivered shall be notified by certified mail or quicker means if available. - (e) Second notification. --If the Secretary decides that a notification sent by a manufacturer under this section has not resulted in an adequate number of motor vehicles or items of replacement equipment being returned for remedy, the Secretary may order the manufacturer to send a 2d notification in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation. - (f)Notification by lessor to lessee.--(1) In this subsection, ""leased motor vehicle"" means a motor vehicle that is leased to a person for at least 4 months by a lessor that has leased at least 5 motor vehicles in the 12 months before the date of the notification. - (2) A lessor that receives a notification required by section 30118 of this title about a leased motor vehicle shall provide a copy of the notification to the lessee in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation. ## § 30120. Remedies for defects and noncompliance']",medium,answer,The Secretary can order a manufacturer to send a second notification about a defect or noncompliance if the Secretary decides that the initial notification sent by the manufacturer has not resulted in an adequate number of motor vehicles or items of replacement equipment being returned for remedy. The second notification must be sent in the way the Secretary prescribes by regulation.,3,Vehicle safety notification requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(c) Orders to manufacturers. [start_highlight] If the Secretary decides that a notification of a defect or noncompliance about a motor vehicle or replacement equipment sent by a manufacturer is not adequate[[end_highlight]], the Secretary may order the manufacturer to send a notification that complies with this section.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(c) Orders to manufacturers. [start_highlight] If the Secretary decides that a manufacturer has not provided an adequate remedy of the defect or noncompliance[[end_highlight]], the Secretary may order the manufacturer to take specified action to comply with this section, including providing a second notification about the defect or noncompliance.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">When the Secretary determines that the original notification by the manufacturer does not result in an adequate number of motor vehicles or items of replacement equipment being returned for remedy</span>, the Secretary may order the manufacturer to send a second notification in a manner prescribed by the Secretary.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title.""}]",,36
+2868,"If HMOs are like the strict parents of healthcare, what's their golden rule for doctors?","[""## Health Maintenance Organizations A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a type of managed care organization that provides a form of health care coverage that is fulfilled through hospitals, doctors and other providers with which the HMO has a contract. Unlike traditional health insurance, an HMO sets out guidelines under which doctors can operate. On average, an HMO costs less than comparable traditional health insurance, with a trade-off of limitations on the range of treatments available. Unlike many traditional insurers, HMOs do not merely provide financing for medical care. The HMO actually delivers the treatment as well. Doctors, hospitals and insurers all participate in the HMO business arrangement. The NAIC has adopted a model law and regulation that governs the licensure of HMOs: the Health Maintenance Organization Model Act (#430) and the Model Regulation to Implement Rules Regarding Contracts and Services of Health Maintenance Organization (#432). In most cases, access to an HMO is only available to employer group plans. ## Preferred Provider Organizations A preferred provider organization (PPO) is a group of doctors and/or hospitals that provides medical service only to a specific group or association. The PPO may be sponsored by a particular insurance company, one or more employers, or some other type of organization. PPO physicians provide medical services to the policyholders, employees or members of the sponsor(s) at discounted rates, and they may set up utilization review programs to help control the cost of medical care. In some states, managed care providers may be licensed by an agency outside the insurance department. 9 S ## Chapter 24 ## Managing General Agents A managing general agent (MGA) is an insurance producer authorized by an insurance company to manage all or part of the insurer's business in a specific geographic territory. Activities on behalf of the insurer may include marketing, underwriting, issuing policies, collecting premiums, appointing and supervising other agents, paying claims, and negotiating reinsurance. Many states regulate the activities and contracts of MGAs."", 'Many states regulate the activities and contracts of MGAs. The NAIC has adopted the Managing General Agents Act (#225) to guide the states in regulating MGAs. Under the model, an MGA is defined as any person who engages in all of the following: - 1. Negotiates and binds ceding reinsurance contracts on behalf of an insurer or manages all or part of the insurance business of an insurer-including the management of a separate division, department or underwriting office-and who acts as an agent for such insurer whether known as a managing general agent, manager or other similar term or title. - 2. With or without authority and either separately or together with affiliates, directly or indirectly produces and underwrites an amount of gross direct written premium equal to or greater than 5% of the policyholder surplus in any one quarter or year, as reported in the last annual statement of the insurer. - 3. Engages in either or both of the following: - (a) Adjusts or pays claims in excess of an amount determined by the insurance commissioner. - (b) Negotiates reinsurance on behalf of the insurer. Under the model, an MGA does not include any of the following: - 1. An employee of the insurer. - 2. A manager of a U.S. branch of an alien insurer who resides in this country. - 3. An underwriting manager who, pursuant to contract, manages all insurance operations of the insurer, who is under common control with the insurer, subject to [cite to state law] relating to the regulation of insurance holding company systems, and who is not compensated based upon the volume of premiums written. - 4. An insurance company, in connection with the acceptance or rejection of reinsurance on a block of business. - 5. The attorney-in-fact authorized by or acting for the subscribers of a reciprocal insurer or interinsurance exchange under a power of attorney. In most states, MGAs must be licensed as producers and are not allowed to place business until a written contract exists among all parties. Under Model #225, insurers are required to monitor the financial stability of MGAs under contract. 1 S ## Chapter 25 ## Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements', 'Members of the board are also policyholders. Individuals who sell products for small mutuals should be licensed as producers, as outlined in Model #218 and the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). 5 ## Chapter 22 ## Insurance Consultants An insurance consultant is a person who charges a fee for giving advice about insurance products. Not all states require a separate consultant license. In those states, the individual can obtain a producer license and abide by the disclosure provisions for insurance consultants. In states that do require a special license, the applicant is usually required to pass an examination. The exam may be either one of the same subject-matter examinations that insurance producers must pass or an examination specific to consultants. In states that require an examination, a waiver may be granted if the applicant can demonstrate a specified amount of insurance experience. States usually adopt exemptions from the consultant licensing requirement. The exemptions are available as long as the person is acting in his or her professional capacity or in the normal course of business. Common exemptions are: - 1. A licensed attorney. - 2. A trust officer of a bank. - 3. An actuary or certified public accountant. - 4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only. If a state requires appointments for insurance producers, appointments should not be required for insurance consultants. The consultant represents the insured and is not an agent of the insurance company. Some states prohibit an individual from holding both an insurance producer license and an insurance consultant license. Other states allow an insurance producer to function in either capacity with full disclosure. In all cases where an individual is acting as an insurance consultant, a written contract should be used to clearly explain the terms of the consultant arrangement. In states that have a separate insurance consultant license, it is a common practice to have a continuing education (CE) requirement that mirrors the CE requirement for insurance producers. 7 S ## Chapter 23 ## Managed Care Providers ## Health Maintenance Organizations']",medium,answer,"The 'golden rule' for doctors in an HMO is to operate under the guidelines set by the HMO. Unlike traditional health insurance, HMOs establish specific rules and limitations under which doctors can provide treatments. This ensures cost-effectiveness but may restrict the range of available treatments.",3,HMO healthcare model,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a type of managed care organization that provides a form of health care coverage that is fulfilled through hospitals, doctors and other providers with which the HMO has a contract. <span class=\""highlight\"">Unlike traditional health insurance, an HMO sets out guidelines under which doctors can operate</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">In order to see a specialist, HMOs typically require patients to first get a referral from their primary care physician (PCP)</span>, while PPOs allow patients to see specialists without referrals. <span class=\""highlight\"">The HMO will only pay for medical care that is referred by the patient's designated primary care physician</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Doctors in an HMO network accept predetermined fees from the HMO and must follow the HMO's guidelines for care</span>. These guidelines could include which tests to order for specific symptoms, how many days a patient can stay in the hospital for certain conditions, and which medications can be prescribed.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Healthcare plans typically have a network of providers, including hospitals, labs, doctors, and other practitioners, that have agreed to accept the plan's coverage terms, conditions, and payment levels. When patients go outside this network, they generally have higher out-of-pocket costs.""}]",,37
+3971,What does the EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan aim to achieve?,"['- viii. Ensures that all reports identified in Section 5 of this Order, Monitoring for Policy Compliance, are complete, accurate, and on time; and - ix. Analyzes and publishes to OAs the results of data collection and reporting for trends. - e. DOT Office of the General Counsel: Interprets and provides guidance on new and existing energy, environmental, and sustainability laws, regulations, executive orders, and other requirements. Reviews contracts and ensures they meet all applicable laws, regulations, E.O.s, and other requirements. Advises ASA on legal issues arising with home-to-work waiver requests. - f. OA Administrator: Ensures OA conforms with and implements all applicable requirements for fleet sustainability provided in this Order. Additionally, the OA Administrator may delegate responsibilities as necessary to meet the requirements. Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited to: - i. Issues data collection requests and analyzes data for reporting progress milestones; - ii. Communicates new requirements throughout the OA; - iii. Ensures that fleet sustainability information is tracked and reported to the appropriate reporting systems at the minimum intervals; - iv. - Submits requests to OST, as needed, for exceptions to the goals or requirements; and v. Conducts an annual VAM in accordance with FMR B-30. - g. OA Fleet Manager: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited to: - i. Identifies and implements the optimal fleet management strategy for that OA (based on evaluating the fleet characteristics and requirements at the site); - a) Ensures that the fleet at the fleet location(s) is right-sized (number and types) to mission; - b) Monitors the performance of the fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use; - c) Ensures that the fleet complies with applicable fleet requirements related to alternative fuel infrastructure; - d) Refines the fleet optimization strategy based on changes in fleet characteristics, performance, and mission; and', ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |""]",hard,answer,The EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan aims to provide a revised plan with specific and quantifiable means by which the Department of Transportation (DOT) will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone for petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements.,2,Department of Transportation sustainability plan,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan aims to provide a revised plan with specific and quantifiable means by which the Department of Transportation (DOT) will comply with the Energy Independence and Security Act</span> of 2007 (EISA) (Pub. L. 110-140) and the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">This plan aims to reduce petroleum consumption and increase alternative fuel consumption</span> for DOT's vehicle fleet. Specifically, it seeks to <span class=\""highlight\"">reduce petroleum consumption by 20 percent by 2015, measured from 2005 baseline data</span>, through annual 2% reductions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The plan includes <span class=\""highlight\"">optimizing the number of vehicles in the fleet, improving vehicle efficiency, and reducing vehicle miles traveled</span>. It also establishes <span class=\""highlight\"">procedures for allocating hybrid and electric vehicles, implementing idle reduction technologies, and promoting the use of alternative fuels</span> in dual-fuel vehicles.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""DOT Office of the General Counsel: Interprets and provides legal guidance on matters relating to environmental and energy policies, as well as makes determinations about whether transportation laws and regulations conflict with environmental regulations.""}]",,38
+1818,Do I need to include 'from concentrate' in the name of a fruit punch or lemonade if it contains juice from concentrate?,"[""## J1. What causes a juice beverage label to be required to have a % juice declaration? Answer: Beverages that purport to contain juice (fruit or vegetable juice) must declare the % of juice. Included are beverages that purport to contain juice by way of label statements, by pictures of fruits or vegetables on the label, or by taste and appearance causing the consumer to expect juice in the beverage. This includes non-carbonated and carbonated beverages, full-strength (100%) juices, concentrated juices, diluted juices, and beverages that purport to contain juice but contain no juice. 21 CFR 101.30(a) ## J2. Where and how is % juice declared? Answer: The % juice must be on the information panel (for packages with information panels), near the top. Only the brand name, product name, logo, or universal product code may be placed above it. Use easily legible boldface print or type that distinctly contrasts with the other printed or graphic material. The type size for the % juice declaration must be not less than the largest type on the information panel, except that used for the brand name, product name, logo, universal product code, or the title phrase Nutrition Facts. The percentage juice declaration may be either 'contains\\_\\_\\_\\_% juice' or '\\_\\_\\_\\_% juice.' The name of the fruit or vegetable may also be included (e.g., '100% Apple Juice'). If the package does not contain an information panel, the percent juice must be placed on the PDP in a type size not less than that required for the net contents declaration and placed near the name of the food. 21 CFR 101.30(e); 21 CFR 101.30(g) ## Are there any exceptions from the % juice requirement? J3."", '## it necessary to state that juices are from concentrate when they are in a beverage such as punch? J30. Is contained sometimes. If the juices are specifically named in the statement identity, and the juices are from concentrate, their names must be followed the term \'from concentrate\' in accordance with CFR 102.33(g). no is made to specific juices in the name of a punch that is made from juices, the statement of identity does not have to include the \'from concentrate.\' However, each of the concentrated juices used in the must be declared in order of predominance in the ingredient statement the label. Answer: Yes, of by 21 If reference concentrated term punch of ## a punch have to be made from fruit juice? J31. Does FDA does not have a specific definition or standard of identity punch, or any other requirement that a punch contain fruit juice. A punch be an artificially f lavored beverage, with or without natural flavorings, or may be made from tea and other ingredients, exclusive of fruit juice. Such must be clearly distinguished from products which are made from juices or fruit concentrates or purees. Products containing artificial or flavors must be labeled in accordance with 21 CFR 101.22. Answer: No. for may it products fruit natural ## the case of a vegetable juice cocktail that is 100 percent juice, can the include the term \'cocktail\'? J32. In name Answer: Yes. 10"" X 2"" = 20 SQ. IN. AREA OF PDP = 20 SQ. IN. X 40% = 8 SQ. IN. ## 5. NET QUANTITY OF CONTENTS STATEMENTS ## is the net quantity of contents and how is it expressed? 1. What net quantity of contents (net quantity statement) is the statement the label which provides the amount of food in the container or package. It be expressed in weight, measure or numeric count. Generally, if the food solid, semisolid or viscous, it should be expressed in terms of weight. If the is a liquid it should be expressed in fluid measure (e.g., fl oz). CFR 101.105(a)(b)(c) Answer: The on must is food 21', ""## Are there any exceptions from the % juice requirement? J3. exception is that beverages containing minor amounts of juice flavoring are not required to bear a % juice declaration provided that: (a) product is described using the term 'flavor' or 'flavored,' (b) the term is not used other than in the ingredient list, and (c) the beverages do otherwise give the impression they contain juice such as with the use of vignettes on the label or physical resemblance of the beverage to juice as pulp. 21 CFR 101.30(c) Answer: An for the 'juice' not explicit such ## is the % juice calculated? J4. How juice made by adding water to concentrate: Calculate using values from Brix table in CFR 101.30(h)(1) the basis for 100% juice. CFR 101.30(j), 21 CFR 101.30(h) For the 21 as 21 juice expressed directly from fruit or vegetables: Compute on a basis. Answer: For volume/volume ## myproductbelabeledasa'drink'ora'beverage?' J5. Should Answer: Beverages that are 100% juice may be called 'juice.' However, beverages that are diluted to less than 100% juice must have the word 'juice' qualified with a term such as 'beverage,' 'drink,' or 'cocktail.' Alternatively, the product may be labeled with a name using the form 'diluted \\_\\_\\_ juice,' (e.g. 'diluted apple juice'). 21 CFR 102.33(a) ## it necessary to use the term 'concentrate' on the label? J6. Is made from concentrate must be labeled with terms such as concentrate,' or'reconstituted' as part of the name wherever it appears the label. An exception is that, in the ingredient statement, the juice is as 'concentrated \\_\\_\\_\\_ juice and water' or 'water and concentrated juice,' as appropriate. CFR 102.33(g) Answer: Juices 'from on declared \\_\\_\\_\\_ 21 ## statement of identity is used on a mixed fruit or vegetable juice J7. What beverage?"", ""## have a 100% juice drink and add a non juice ingredient. May I still call it juice? J23. I 100% the added ingredient does not dilute the juice or, for an expressed change its volume, you may continue to call it 100% juice but the juice statement must identify the added ingredient, e.g., '100% juice added preservative.' CFR 101.30(b)(3) and 101.54(e) Answer: If juice, percent with 21 ## if the added substance is also a nutrient such as Vitamin C acid)? J24. What (ascorbic ascorbic acid is added at levels consistent with fortification of the a declaration as part of the percent juice statement would constitute a content claim which would trigger compliance with more claims the required accompanying information. If it were added at the level as a preservative, then a statement such as 100% juice with preservative be used. In this case it would be listed in the ingredient statement as a in accordance with 101.22(j). Answer: If juice, nutrient including used could preservative ## I have to say 'fruit punch from concentrate' or 'lemonade from J25. Do concentrate'? Section 102.33(g) states that if one or more of the juices in a beverage is made from concentrate, then the name of the juice must the term 'from concentrate' or'reconstituted.' Because the names punch' and 'lemonade' do not include the name of a specific juice, names do not have to contain the term 'from concentrate' or Answer: No. juice include 'fruit these'reconstituted.' ## the declaration on a lemonade made in terms of the lemon juice only, of sugar? J26. Is exclusive before adding sugar. Answer: Yes, ## have a juice product for food service only, and we are exempt from labeling for this product (we know that is never goes to club Are we also exempt from percent juice declarations? J27. We nutrition stores). Answer: No. There are no exemptions from the requirement for label declaration of the percentage of juice on food service containers of juices. ## the commonorusualnameregulationin21CFR102.33applicableto percent juices or only to diluted juices? J28. Is 100""]",easy,answer,"No, you do not need to include 'from concentrate' in the name of a fruit punch or lemonade if it contains juice from concentrate. According to the context (J25), the names 'fruit punch' and 'lemonade' do not include the name of a specific juice, so these names do not have to contain the term 'from concentrate' or 'reconstituted.' However, the concentrated juices used must still be declared in the ingredient statement in order of predominance.",4,Juice labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""What causes a juice beverage label to be required to have a % juice declaration? Answer: Beverages that purport to contain juice (fruit or vegetable juice) must declare the % of juice. Included are beverages that purport to contain juice by way of label statements, by pictures of fruits or vegetables, or by the commonly recognized nature of the beverage. <span class=\""highlight\"">Labels that include a juice percentage are not required to indicate whether the juice is or is not from concentrate</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""[[start_highlight]]The statement ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For lemonade: If the product is 100% lemon juice, the label must indicate whether it is from concentrate. [[start_highlight]]If the lemonade contains water and other ingredients in addition to lemon juice, then the statement ""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Beverages that contain less than 100% juice must declare the total percentage of juice on the information panel of the label. The percentage declaration may also be on the principal display panel (PDP), near the product name.""}]",,39
+1242,Can the Secretary of Transportation create exemptions to the rules about vehicle safety devices?,"['- (A) the defect or noncompliance is remedied as required by this section before delivery under the sale or lease; or - (B) when the notification is required by an order under section 30118(b) of this title, enforcement of the order is restrained or the order is set aside in a civil action to which section 30121(d) of this title applies. - (2) This subsection does not prohibit a dealer from offering for sale or lease the vehicle or equipment. - (j) Prohibition on sales of replaced equipment. --No person may sell or lease any motor vehicle equipment (including a tire), for installation on a motor vehicle, that is the subject of a decision under section 30118(b) or a notice required under section 30118(c) in a condition that it may be reasonably used for its original purpose unless-- - (1) the defect or noncompliance is remedied as required by this section before delivery under the sale or lease; or - (2) notification of the defect or noncompliance is required under section 30118(b) but enforcement of the order is set aside in a civil action to which section 30121(d) applies. ## § 30121. Provisional notification and civil actions to enforce - (a) Provisional notification.-(1) The Secretary of Transportation may order a manufacturer to issue a provisional notification if a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title has been brought under section 30163 of this title. The provisional notification shall contain-- - (A) a statement that the Secretary has decided that a defect related to motor vehicle safety or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter exists and that the manufacturer is contesting the decision in a civil action in a United States district court;', '## § 30102. Definitions - (a) General definitions. --In this chapter-- - (1) ""dealer"" means a person selling and distributing new motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment primarily to purchasers that in good faith purchase the vehicles or equipment other than for resale. - (2) ""defect"" includes any defect in performance, construction, a component, or material of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment. - (3) ""distributor"" means a person primarily selling and distributing motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for resale. - (4) ""interstate commerce"" means commerce between a place in a State and a place in another State or between places in the same State through another State. - (5) ""manufacturer"" means a person-- - (A) manufacturing or assembling motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment; or - (B) importing motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for resale. - (6) ""motor vehicle"" means a vehicle driven or drawn by mechanical power and manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways, but does not include a vehicle operated only on a rail line. - (7) ""motor vehicle equipment"" means-- - (A) any system, part, or component of a motor vehicle as originally manufactured; - (B) any similar part or component manufactured or sold for replacement or improvement of a system, part, or component, or as an accessory or addition to a motor vehicle; or - (C) any device or an article or apparel (except medicine or eyeglasses prescribed by a licensed practitioner) that is not a system, part, or component of a motor vehicle and is manufactured, sold, delivered, offered, or intended to be used only to safeguard motor vehicles and highway users against risk of accident, injury, or death. - (8) ""motor vehicle safety"" means the performance of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment in a way that protects the public against unreasonable risk of accidents occurring because of the design, construction, or performance of a motor vehicle, and against unreasonable risk of death or injury in an accident, and includes nonoperational safety of a motor vehicle. - (9) ""motor vehicle safety standard"" means a minimum standard for motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment performance.', '- (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the public to repair for compensation a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment. - (b) Prohibition. --A manufacturer, distributor, dealer, or motor vehicle repair business may not knowingly make inoperative any part of a device or element of design installed on or in a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment in compliance with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter unless the manufacturer, distributor, dealer, or repair business reasonably believes the vehicle or equipment will not be used (except for testing or a similar purpose during maintenance or repair) when the device or element is inoperative. - (c) Regulations. --The Secretary of Transportation may prescribe regulations-- - (1) to exempt a person from this section if the Secretary decides the exemption is consistent with motor vehicle safety and section 30101 of this title; and - (2) to define ""make inoperative"". - (d) Nonapplication. --This section does not apply to a safety belt interlock or buzzer designed to indicate a safety belt is not in use as described in section 30124 of this title. ## § 30123. Tires - (a) Regrooved tire limitations.-(1) In this subsection, ""regrooved tire"" means a tire with a new tread produced by cutting into the tread of a worn tire. - (2) The Secretary may authorize the sale, offer for sale, introduction for sale, or delivery for introduction in interstate commerce, of a regrooved tire or a motor vehicle equipped with regrooved tires if the Secretary decides the tires are designed and made in a way consistent with section 30101 of this title. A person may not sell, offer for sale, introduce for sale, or deliver for introduction in interstate commerce, a regrooved tire or a vehicle equipped with regrooved tires unless authorized by the Secretary.', ""- (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires. - (C) A manufacturer of tires shall reimburse distributors and dealers of that manufacturer's tires for all reasonable costs incurred by the distributors and dealers in complying with a requirement prescribed by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. - (D) After making a decision under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the Secretary shall submit to each House of Congress a report containing a detailed statement of the decision and an explanation of the reasons for the decision. ## (c) Rollover tests.-- - (1) Development. --Not later than 2 years from the date of the enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall- - - (A)develop a dynamic test on rollovers by motor vehicles for the purposes of a consumer information program; and - (B)carry out a program of conducting such tests. - (2) Test results. --As the Secretary develops a test under paragraph (1)(A), the Secretary shall conduct a rulemaking to determine how best to disseminate test results to the public. - (3) Motor vehicles covered. --This subsection applies to motor vehicles, including passenger cars, multipurpose passenger vehicles, and trucks, with a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less. A motor vehicle designed to provide temporary residential accommodations is not covered. ## § 30118. Notification of defects and noncompliance""]",easy,answer,"Yes, the Secretary of Transportation can create exemptions to the rules about vehicle safety devices. According to the context, under § 30102, the Secretary may prescribe regulations to exempt a person from certain prohibitions if the Secretary decides the exemption is consistent with motor vehicle safety and section 30101 of this title.",4,Vehicle safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30113. <span class=\""highlight\"">General exemptions</span> - (a) Definitions.--In this section-- (1) ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(b) Authority to exempt and procedures.--(1) <span class=\""highlight\"">The Secretary of Transportation may exempt, on a temporary basis, motor vehicles from a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter</span> or passenger motor vehicles from a bumper standard prescribed under chapter 325 of this title, on terms the Secretary considers appropriate.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">An exemption may be granted only if the Secretary finds that the exemption is consistent with the public interest and this chapter or chapter 325, as applicable, and either: (A) compliance would prevent the manufacturer from selling a motor vehicle with an overall safety level at least equal to the overall safety level of nonexempt vehicles; or (B) compliance would prevent a manufacturer from selling a low-emission motor vehicle</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A manufacturer granted an exemption under this subsection shall provide quarterly reports to the Secretary on the sale of exempted vehicles. If the Secretary determines the sale of exempted vehicles has increased beyond the original projections, the Secretary may end the exemption early.""}]",,40
 1335,What are the conditions under which the Secretary of Transportation can enter and inspect premises where a motor vehicle is manufactured?,"['## § 30118. Notification of defects and noncompliance - (a) Notification by Secretary. --The Secretary of Transportation shall notify the manufacturer of a motor vehicle or replacement equipment immediately after making an initial decision (through testing, inspection, investigation, or research carried out under this chapter, examining communications under section 30166(f) of this title, or otherwise) that the vehicle or equipment contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety or does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. The notification shall include the information on which the decision is based. The Secretary shall publish a notice of each decision under this subsection in the Federal Register. Subject to section 30167(a) of this title, the notification and information are available to any interested person. - (b) Defect and noncompliance proceedings and orders.-(1) The Secretary may make a final decision that a motor vehicle or replacement equipment contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety or does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter only after giving the manufacturer an opportunity to present information, views, and arguments showing that there is no defect or noncompliance or that the defect does not affect motor vehicle safety. Any interested person also shall be given an opportunity to present information, views, and arguments. - (2) If the Secretary decides under paragraph (1) of this subsection that the vehicle or equipment contains the defect or does not comply, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to-- - (A) give notification under section 30119 of this title to the owners, purchasers, and dealers of the vehicle or equipment of the defect or noncompliance; and - (B) remedy the defect or noncompliance under section 30120 of this title. - (c) Notification by manufacturer. --A manufacturer of a motor vehicle or replacement equipment shall notify the Secretary by certified mail, and the owners, purchasers, and dealers of the vehicle or equipment as provided in section 30119(d) of this section, if the manufacturer-- - (1) learns the vehicle or equipment contains a defect and decides in good faith that the defect is related to motor vehicle safety; or - (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding-- - (1) to prescribe a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter; or - (2) to decide whether to issue an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Statement of facts. --The petition must state facts that the person claims establish that a motor vehicle safety standard or order referred to in subsection (a) of this section is necessary and briefly describe the order the Secretary should issue. - (c) Proceedings. --The Secretary may hold a public hearing or conduct an investigation or proceeding to decide whether to grant the petition. - (d) Actions of Secretary. --The Secretary shall grant or deny a petition not later than 120 days after the petition is filed. If a petition is granted, the Secretary shall begin the proceeding promptly. If a petition is denied, the Secretary shall publish the reasons for the denial in the Federal Register. ## § 30163. Actions by the Attorney General - (a) Civil actions to enforce. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin-- - (1) a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (2) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction, in interstate commerce, or the importation into the United States, of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for which it is decided, before the first purchase in good faith other than for resale, that the vehicle or equipment-- - (A) contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety about which notice was given under section 30118(c) of this title or an order was issued under section 30118(b) of this title; or - (B) does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '- (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. - (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer, the Secretary shall exempt the manufacturer from this section if the Secretary decides a defect or noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. The Secretary may take action under this subsection only after notice in the Federal Register and an opportunity for any interested person to present information, views, and arguments. - (e) Hearings about meeting notification requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on petition of any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements. If the Secretary decides that the manufacturer has not reasonably met the notification requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter. ## § 30119. Notification procedures - (a) Contents of notification. --Notification by a manufacturer required under section 30118 of this title of a defect or noncompliance shall contain-- - (1) a clear description of the defect or noncompliance; - (2) an evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (3) the measures to be taken to obtain a remedy of the defect or noncompliance; - (4) a statement that the manufacturer giving notice will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (5) the earliest date on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge, and for tires, the period during which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (6) the procedure the recipient of a notice is to follow to inform the Secretary of Transportation when a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer does not remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (7) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation.', '## § 30166. Inspections, investigations, and records - (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle accident"" means an occurrence associated with the maintenance or operation of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment resulting in personal injury, death, or property damage. - (b) Authority to inspect and investigate.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation may conduct an inspection or investigation-- - (A) that may be necessary to enforce this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; or - (B) related to a motor vehicle accident and designed to carry out this chapter. - (2) The Secretary of Transportation shall cooperate with State and local officials to the greatest extent possible in an inspection or investigation under paragraph (1)(B) of this subsection. - (c) Matters that can be inspected and impoundment. --In carrying out this chapter, an officer or employee designated by the Secretary of Transportation-- - (1) at reasonable times, may inspect and copy any record related to this chapter; - (2) on request, may inspect records of a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer to decide whether the manufacturer, distributor, or dealer has complied or is complying with this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (3) at reasonable times, in a reasonable way, and on display of proper credentials and written notice to an owner, operator, or agent in charge, may-- - (A) enter and inspect with reasonable promptness premises in which a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment is manufactured, held for introduction in interstate commerce, or held for sale after introduction in interstate commerce; - (B) enter and inspect with reasonable promptness premises at which a vehicle or equipment involved in a motor vehicle accident is located; - (C) inspect with reasonable promptness that vehicle or equipment; and - (D) impound for not more than 72 hours a vehicle or equipment involved in a motor vehicle accident.', ""- (D) impound for not more than 72 hours a vehicle or equipment involved in a motor vehicle accident. - (d) Reasonable compensation. --When a motor vehicle (except a vehicle subject to subchapter I of chapter 135 of this title) or motor vehicle equipment is inspected or temporarily impounded under subsection (c)(3) of this section, the Secretary of Transportation shall pay reasonable compensation to the owner of the vehicle if the inspection or impoundment results in denial of use, or reduction in value, of the vehicle. - (e) Records and making reports. --The Secretary of Transportation reasonably may require a manufacturer of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment to keep records, and a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer to make reports, to enable the Secretary to decide whether the manufacturer, distributor, or dealer has complied or is complying with this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter. This subsection does not impose a recordkeeping requirement on a distributor or dealer in addition to those imposed under subsection (f) of this section and section 30117(b) of this title or a regulation prescribed or order issued under subsection (f) or section 30117(b). - (f)Providing copies of communications about defects and noncompliance. --A manufacturer shall give the Secretary of Transportation a true or representative copy of each communication to the manufacturer's dealers or to owners or purchasers of a motor vehicle or replacement equipment produced by the manufacturer about a defect or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter in a vehicle or equipment that is sold or serviced. - (g) Administrative authority on reports, answers, and hearings.--(1) In carrying out this chapter, the Secretary of Transportation may-- - (A) require, by general or special order, any person to file reports or answers to specific questions, including reports or answers under oath; and - (B) conduct hearings, administer oaths, take testimony, and require (by subpena or otherwise) the appearance and testimony of witnesses and the production of records the Secretary considers advisable.""]",hard,answer,"According to § 30166(c)(3) of the provided context, the Secretary of Transportation can enter and inspect premises where a motor vehicle is manufactured under the following conditions:
 
 1. The inspection must occur at reasonable times.
@@ -78,13 +78,13 @@ Unnamed: 0,question,contexts,difficulty,response_type,answer,num_contexts,proces
 
 Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
 - Enter and inspect premises where motor vehicles or equipment are manufactured, held for introduction in interstate commerce, or held for sale after such introduction.
-- The inspection must be conducted with reasonable promptness.",5,Motor vehicle manufacturing inspection authority,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Secretary may enter and inspect with <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) reasonable times; (2) proper credentials; (3) written notice</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Inspection must be to determine compliance with chapter requirements.""}]",,41
-2409,"If my squishy human larva has a family history of allergies, what bizarre milk hack might (or might not) keep their skin from turning into a polka-dotted mess for the first year?","[""colors: by specific or abbreviated name such as 'FD&amp;C Red No. or 'Red 40.' Certified List 40' depends on whether the artificial color is a certified color: Answer: It colors: as 'artificial color,' 'artificial coloring,' or by their common or usual names such as 'caramel coloring' and 'colored with juice.' Non-certified List specific beet CFR 101.22(k)(1) and (2), 21 CFR 74 21 ## certified color additive lakes have to be declared separately from the color in the ingredient statement? C4. Do certified Certified color additives and their lakes are separate ingredients thus, must be declared separately in the ingredient statement. CFR (k)(1) Answer: Yes. and, 21 101.22 ## Allergen Labeling Food ## Information General ## is the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of F1. What 2004? Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (or Title II of Public Law 108-282) is a law that was enacted in August Among other issues, FALCPA addresses the labeling of all packaged regulated by the FDA. We recommend that producers of meat products, products, and egg products, which are regulated by the U.S. Department Agriculture (USDA), contact appropriate USDA agency staff regarding the of such products. Also see Information about Food Allergens for more about the agency's food allergen activities and related guidance that address additional FALCPA questions and answers. Answer: The (FALCPA) 2004. foods poultry of labeling information documents http://www.fda.gov/Food/LabelingNutrition/FoodAllergensLabeling/default.htm ## is a'major food allergen?' F2. What - milk a. Under FALCPA, a'major food allergen' is an ingredient that is one the following eight foods or food groups or an ingredient that contains derived from one of them: Answer: of protein egg b. fish c. - Crustacean shellfish d. - tree nuts e. - peanuts g. - wheat f. - soybeans h."", ""- 2. Place the word 'Contains,' followed by the name of the food source from which the major food allergen is derived, immediately after or adjacent to the list of ingredients, in a type size that is no smaller than that used for the ingredient list. ## single ingredient foods that are major food allergens required to with FALCPA? F14.Are comply Single ingredient foods must comply with the allergen requirements in Section 403(w)(1). A single ingredient food that or contains protein derived from milk, egg, fish, Crustacean shellfish, tree wheat, peanuts, or soybeans, may identify the food source in the name of food (e.g., 'all-purpose wheat flour') or use the 'Contains' statement FDA recommends that if a 'Contains' statement format is used, the be placed immediately above the manufacturer, packer, or statement. For single ingredient foods intended for further where the 'Contains' statement format is used, the statement be placed on the PDP of the food. Answer: Yes. declaration is, nuts, the format. statement distributor manufacturing should ## a 'Contains' statement on a food label provided in accordance with list only the names of the food sources of the major food that are not already identified in the ingredient list for a food? F15.May FALCPA allergens packaged If a 'Contains' statement is used on a food label, the statement include the names of the food sources of all major food allergens used as in the packaged food. For example, if'sodium caseinate,' 'whey,' yolks,' and 'natural peanut flavor' are declared in a product's ingredients any 'Contains' statement appearing on the label immediately after or to that statement is required to identify all three sources of the major allergens present (e.g., 'Contains milk, egg, peanuts') in the same type print or font) size as that used for the ingredient list. Answer: No. must ingredients 'egg list, adjacent food (i.e., ## there more than one way to word a 'Contains' statement used to the major food allergens in a packaged food? F16.Is declare"", 'discretion letter | Qualified Health Claims | Eligible | Factors for Exercising | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------|--------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | Foods | Enforcement Discretion | (2) ""Little scientific evidence suggests that, for healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100 % Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life."" (3) ""For healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life and up to 3 years of age. FDA has concluded that the relationship between 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formulas and the reduced risk of atopic dermatitis is uncertain, because there is very little scientific evidence for the relationship."" (4) ""For healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life.']",hard,answer,"Based on the provided context, if your infant has a family history of allergies and is not exclusively breastfed, feeding them a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow's milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the first year of life. However, the FDA notes that the scientific evidence for this relationship is limited and uncertain.",3,Infant formula allergy prevention,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed formula may reduce atopic dermatitis risk</span> in family-history infants.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Formula fed from birth to 4 months may help through first year. FDA notes evidence is limited.""}]",,42
-544,"If a vampire worked in a lab, what OSHA standard would protect them from their coworkers' blood?","[""## Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards ## Centrifuges - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf ## Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice. OSHA Publication 3408 (2011). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-cryogens-dryice.pdf ## Laser hazards - · Safety and Health Information Bulletin - n - Hazard of Laser Surgery Smoke (1988). http://www.osha.gov/dts/hib/hib\\_data/hib19880411.html - · Hospital eTool - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/surgical/lasers.html - · Safety and Health Topics Pages - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserhazards/index.html - n Laser/Electrosurgery Plume http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserelectrosurgeryplume/index.html ## Safety Hazards The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or start-up of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.147 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9804 - · Booklet - n Control of Hazardous Energy Lockout/Tagout. OSHA Publication 3120 (2002). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3120.pdf"", '## Bloodborne Pathogens The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) is designed to protect workers from the health hazards of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Employers are subject to the BBP standard if they have workers whose jobs put them at reasonable risk of coming into contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). Employers subject to this standard must develop a written Exposure Control Plan, provide training to exposed workers, and comply with other requirements of the standard, including use of Standard Precautions when dealing with blood and OPIM. In 2001, in response to the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act, OSHA revised the Bloodborne Pathogens standard. The revised standard clarifies the need for employers to select safer needle devices and to involve workers in identifying and choosing these devices. The updated standard also requires employers to maintain a log of injuries from contaminated sharps. OSHA estimates that 5.6 million workers in the healthcare industry and related occupations are at risk of occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including HIV, HBV, HCV, and others. All occupational exposure to blood or OPIM places workers at risk for infection with bloodborne pathogens. OSHA defines blood to mean human blood, human blood components, and products made from human blood. OPIM means: (1) The following human body fluids: semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, peritoneal fluid, amniotic fluid, saliva in dental procedures, any body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood, and all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids; (2) Any unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human (living or dead); and (3) HIV- or HBV-containing cell or tissue cultures, organ cultures, and HIV- or HBVcontaining culture medium or other solutions; and blood, organs, or other tissues from experimental animals infected with HIV or HBV.', ""| | Formaldehyde | Formaldehyde | Formaldehyde | |-------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------| | Exposure routes | Symptoms | Target Organs | | Inhalation; Ingestion; Skin and/or eye contact. | Irritation of eyes, skin, nose, throat, respiratory system; Tearing; Coughing; Wheezing; Dermatitis; Potential occupational nasal carcin- ogen. | Eyes; Skin; Respiratory system. | ## Employers must provide the following to workers to prevent exposure: - · Appropriate PPE, 29 CFR 1910.132, 29 CFR 1910.133, and 29 CFR 1910.1048(h). - · Acceptable eyewash facilities within the immediate work area for emergency use, if there is any possibility that a worker's eyes may be splashed with solutions containing 0.1 percent or greater formaldehyde, 29 CFR 1910.1048(i)(3). ## Latex One of the most common chemicals that laboratory workers are exposed to is latex, a plant protein. The most common cause of latex allergy is direct contact with latex, a natural plant derivative used in making certain disposable gloves and other products. Some healthcare workers have been determined to be latex sensitive, with reactions ranging from localized dermatitis (skin irritation) to immediate, possibly life-threatening reactions. Under OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standard, 29 CFR 1910.132, the employer must ensure that appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is accessible at the worksite or issued to workers. Latex-free gloves, glove liners, powder-free gloves, or other similar alternatives are obtainable and must be readily accessible to those workers who are allergic to latex gloves or other latex-containing PPE, 29 CFR 1910.1030(c)(3)(iii). Latex allergy should be suspected in workers who develop certain symptoms after latex exposure, including:"", '- n Hazard Communication: Foundation of Workplace Chemical Safety Programs http://www.osha.gov/dsg/hazcom/MSDSenforcementInitiative.html - n Hazard Communication - HAZCOM Program http://www.osha.gov/dsg/hazcom/solutions.html - n Hazardous Drugs http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/hazardousdrugs/index.html ## The Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard (29 CFR 1910.1450), commonly referred to as the Laboratory standard, requires that the employer designate a Chemical Hygiene Officer and have a written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), and actively verify that it remains effective. In addition to the information provided at page 9 of this document, the following documents are available in either electronic or hard copy formats or both. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1450 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10106 - · Fact Sheet - n Laboratory Safety - OSHA Laboratory Standard http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAfactsheet-laboratory-safety-osha-lab-standard.pdf - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Hygiene Plan http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAfactsheet-laboratory-safety-chemical-hygieneplan.pdf - · Hospital eTool http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html - n Laboratories - Common safety and health topics: - · Bloodborne Pathogens (BBPs) http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#BloodbornePathogens - · Tuberculosis (TB) https://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#Tuberculosis - · OSHA Laboratory Standard', ""Latex allergy should be suspected in workers who develop certain symptoms after latex exposure, including: - · nasal, eye, or sinus irritation - · hives or rash - · difficulty breathing - · coughing - · wheezing - · nausea - · vomiting - · diarrhea An exposed worker who exhibits these symptoms should be evaluated by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional because further exposure could cause a serious allergic reaction. Once a worker becomes allergic to latex, special precautions are needed to prevent exposures. Certain medications may reduce the allergic symptoms, but complete latex avoidance is the most effective approach. Appropriate work practices should be used to reduce the chance of reactions to latex. If a worker must wear latex gloves, oil-based hand creams or lotions (which can cause glove deterioration) should not be used unless they have been shown to reduce latex-related problems and maintain glove barrier protection. After removing latex gloves, workers should wash their hands with a mild soap and dry them thoroughly. An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - Latex Allergy has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Specific Engineering Control Chemical Fume Hoods The fume hood is often the primary control device for protecting laboratory workers when working with flammable and/or toxic chemicals. OSHA's Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard, 29 CFR 1910.1450, requires that fume hoods be maintained and function properly when used, 29 CFR 1910.1450(e)(3)(iii). An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Biological Hazards ## Biological Agents (other than Bloodborne Pathogens) and Biological Toxins Many laboratory workers encounter daily exposure to biological hazards. These hazards are present in various sources throughout the laboratory such as blood and body fluids, culture specimens, body tissue and cadavers, and laboratory animals, as well as other workers.""]",medium,answer,"If a vampire worked in a lab, the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) would protect them from their coworkers' blood. This standard is designed to protect workers from the health hazards of exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including human blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). The standard requires employers to develop a written Exposure Control Plan, provide training, and ensure the use of Standard Precautions when dealing with blood and OPIM.",5,Laboratory safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)</span> protects from blood exposure.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Standard requires exposure control plan, precautions, PPE, and HBV vaccinations.""}]",,43
-1773,What is the principal display panel (PDP) on a food package?,"[""## other regulations about nutrition labeling of trans fatty acids is considering? L50.What FDA Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued an advance notice proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) in the Federal Register (Food Labeling: Fatty acids in Nutrition Labeling; Consumer Research to Consider Content and Health Claims and Possible Footnote or Disclosure 68 FR 41507; July 11, 2003) to solicit information and data that could be used to establish new NCCs about trans fat, to establish criteria for trans fat in current NCCs for saturated fat and lean and extra lean claims, and health claims that contain a about cholesterol raising fats, and, in addition, as disclosure and criteria to help consumers make heart-healthy food choices. The also requested comments on whether to consider statements about fat, either alone or in combination with saturated fat and cholesterol, a footnote in the Nutrition Facts label or as a disclosure statement in with claims to enhance consumers' understanding about such lipids and how to use the information to make healthy food Information and data obtained from comments and from consumer conducted by FDA may be used to help draft a proposed rule that establish criteria for certain nutrient content or health claims or require use of a footnote, or other labeling approach, about one or more lipids in the Nutrition Facts label to assist consumers in healthy dietary practices. Answer: The of Trans Nutrient Statements; potentially qualifying cholesterol, message disqualifying agency trans as conjunction cholesterol-raising choices. studies would the cholesterol-raising maintaining ## Miscellaneous ## we nutrition label in good faith, will FDA take legal action involving mistakes? L51.If small Answer: FDA is unlikely to take regulatory action for minor errors. However, such errors should be corrected during the next printing of labels. ## are point-of-purchase materials considered labeling? L52.When Answer: ## Always. ## have tried all the available format options, but without some I can not make them work on my label, what can I do? L53.I modification"", ""## If a manufacturer chooses to do so, how may a food be labeled if the food is commonly combined with another food before eating? L23. labeled Nutrition Facts label must state the nutrients in the food 'as (i.e., before consumer preparation). However, manufacturers are to add a second column of nutrition information showing calories from fat and the % DV for the combination of foods eaten. amounts (i.e., g/mg) need only be given for the packaged food. as shown in this example, a footnote can be added to indicate the of nutrients in the added food. Alternatively, the quantitative of the prepared food may be included immediately adjacent to those the packaged food (e.g., 'Sodium 200 mg, 265 mg'). CFR 101.9(e) Answer: The packaged' encouraged calories, Quantitative However, amount amounts for 21 ## a second column of nutrient information is provided, is it to repeat the'serving size' and'servings per container'? L24.When necessary dual listing of serving size and servings per container is not when providing a second column of nutrient information. The only is to list the serving size and servings per container that are based the Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed (RACC) for the product. CFR 101.9(b)(9) and 21 CFR 101.9(e) Answer: The required requirement on 21 ## have a recipe on my package which calls for 250% of the RACC of my for each serving of the food created using the recipe. Must I use declaration for the nutrition label? L25.I product dual Section that if the product is promoted on label or labeling for a use that differs in quantity from the RACC by 200% greater, dual declaration would be required. FDA considers recipes on the as 'promoting' a use of the food. The regulations CFR101.9(b)(11)) exempt bulk products used primarily as ingredients (e.g., f lour, oils) or traditionally used for multi-purposes (e.g., eggs, butter) from declaration requirements. Answer: Yes. 101.9(b)(11) states the or label (21 specifically sugar, dual"", ""The importers summary these recommended the United Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for assuring that sold in the United States are safe, wholesome and properly labeled. This to foods produced domestically, as well as foods from foreign countries. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) and the Fair and Labeling Act are the Federal laws governing food products FDA's jurisdiction. The foods applies The Packaging under Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA), which amended the Act requires most foods to bear nutrition labeling and requires food that bear nutrient content claims and certain health messages to comply specific requirements. Although final regulations have been established are reflected in this guidance, regulations are frequently changed. It is the for the food industry to remain current with the legal for food labeling. All new regulations are published in the Register (FR) prior to their effective date and compiled annually in 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). The FD&amp;C labels with and responsibility requirements Federal Title guidance has been prepared by the Office of Nutrition, Labeling, and Supplements in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition at U.S. Food and Drug Administration. This Dietary the document supercedes the previous version issued in October 2009. This ## 3. GENERAL FOOD LABELING REQUIREMENTS ## should label statements be placed on containers and packages? 1. Where - all required label statements on the front label panel (the principal panel or PDP), or, a. Place display are two ways to label packages and containers: Answer: There certain specified label statements on the PDP and other labeling on information panel (the label panel immediately to the right of the PDP, as by the consumer facing the product). b. Place the seen CFR 101.1, 21 CFR 101.2, 21 CFR 101.3, 21 CFR 101.4, 21 CFR 21 CFR 101.9, and 21 CFR 101.105 21 101.5, ## are the PDP and the alternate PDP? 2. What PDP, is that portion of the package label that is most likely to be by the consumer at the time of purchase. Many containers are designed two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP. are alternate PDPs. CFR 101.1 Answer: The seen with These 21"", '## can I find out what letters FDA has issued for QHC? Q10.How Qualified Health Claims: Letters of Enforcement Discretion at you can go to Appendix D of this guidance for a listing of the available at the time this guidance was issued. Answer: See www.fda.gov/Food/LabelingNutrition/LabelClaims/QualifiedHealthClaims. Alternately, QHCs ## Claims Structure/Function ## are structure/function (S/F) claims? S1. What structure/function statements. supplement labels or labeling subject to the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, statements that describe the role of a nutrient or dietary ingredient to affect the structure or function in humans or that characterize the mechanism by which a nutrient or dietary ingredient acts to such structure or function, provided that such statements are not claims under paragraph (g) CFR 101.93). the label or labeling of product marketed as a dietary supplement bears a disease claim as defined in (g) of this section, the product will be subject to regulation as a drug the claim is an authorized health claim for which the product qualifies. (f) Permitted Dietary may, bear intended documented maintain disease (21 If a paragraph unless Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 added Section 403(r)(6) to the FD&amp;C Act. This section of the law that a dietary supplement may bear certain statements on its label or in labeling if the claim meets certain requirements. Section 101.93(f) simply part of the definition of the types of claims that may be made under the FD&amp;C Act. Section Answer: The (DSHEA) states its restates Section 403(r)(6) of 101.93(f) reads:', ""## is a Health Claim? H1. What health claims are limited to claims about disease risk reduction, and be claims about the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, or treatment of Health claims are required to be reviewed and evaluated by FDA prior use. An example of an authorized health claim, is: 'Three grams of soluble from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 grams per serving.' Further, cannot disease. to fiber reduce claim means any claim made on the label or in labeling of a including a dietary supplement, that expressly or by implication, 'third party' references, written statements (e.g., a brand name a term such as 'heart'), symbols (e.g., a heart symbol), or vignettes, the relationship of any substance to a disease or health-related Implied health claims include those statements, symbols, vignettes, other forms of communication that suggest, within the context in which are presented, that a relationship exists between the presence or level of a in the food and a disease or health-related condition (see CFR Answer: Health food, including including characterizes condition. or they substance 21 101.14(a)(1)). ## health claims are permitted on food labels? H2. What a claim is provided for in a FDA regulation, then it may be used accordance with that regulation. A firm may also submit a health claim based on an authoritative statement by a U.S. government body under section the FD&amp;C Act. The criteria to use health claims provided for by FDA are summarized in C of this guidance. CFR 101.9(k)(1), 101.14(c)-(d) &amp; CFR 101.70 Answer: If in notification scientific 403(r)(3)(c) of necessary Appendix 21 21 ## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How""]",medium,answer,"The principal display panel (PDP) is that portion of the package label that is most likely to be seen by the consumer at the time of purchase. Many containers are designed with two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP, and these are alternate PDPs. This is defined under 21 CFR 101.1.",5,Food packaging labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The portion most likely to be seen by consumer at purchase</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Must include statement of identity in bold type and net quantity in bottom 30%.""}]",,44
-4365,How do you know if the stuff you bought is the one they're talking about?,"[""- · a description of the product, including product name, the intended consumer population ( i.e. infants, children or adults), product's - colors and sizes, model numbers, date codes, SKUs and tracking labels, and their exact location on the product; - · clear and concise description of the product's actual or potential hazards that give rise to the recall, including product violation and/or defect and the type of hazard or risk ( e.g., laceration, entrapment, burn...); - · hi-resolution electronic or digital color photographs that clearly show identifying features of the product; - · month and year both manufacture and retail sales of product began and ended for each make or model; - · approximate retail price or price range; - · concise summary of all incidents associated with circumstances giving rise to the recall, including number of incidents, property damage due to incidents, injuries and deaths, including age of persons injured and killed; and - · complete instructions for how to participate in the recalldescribed in a manner that will motivate the consumer to take advantage of the remedy. Note: Recalls that involve a fatality are drafted in a narrative format. CPSC posts recall news releases on its website (www.cpsc.gov) and www.recalls.gov and requests companies to provide color photographs of recalled products for the website. ## RECALL ALERTS When a recalling firm has the ability to reach more than 95 percent of all owners of a recalled product through direct notification ( e.g., by registration cards, membership or loyalty cards, catalog sales, Internet sales, credit card purchases, or extended warranty sales), staff will use the recall alert style press release. It will be posted on CPSC's website (www.cpsc.gov) and www.recalls.gov, so consumers can confirm and verify that the Commission is involved in the recall. Brief summaries of recall alerts are also provided to national press release distribution services. ## VIDEO NEWS RELEASES"", ""## NEWS RELEASES Unless a company can identify nearly all purchasers of a product being recalled and notify them directly, the Commission traditionally issues a news release jointly with the company. Staff in the Offices of Compliance and Communications develop the wording of the release with the recalling company. The agreed-upon language for the news release provides the foundation for preparing other notice documents. The Commission discourages unilateral releases issued by companies because they create confusion among the media and the public. This is particularly true if CPSC is also issuing a recall release on the same product. CPSC's Office of Communications sends the news releases to national wire services, major metropolitan daily newspapers, television and radio networks, and periodicals on the agency's news contact mailing list, in addition to consumers and stakeholders who have signed up to receive direct notification of product recall news. News releases from the agency receive wide media and social media attention and generate a good response rate from consumers. Each recall news release must use the word'recall' in the heading and should begin: 'In cooperation with the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)....' The CPSC staff suggests that recall news releases include the following: - · whether the recalling firm is the manufacturer (or importer), distributor, or retailer of the product; - · the firm's legal and commonly known trade name and the city and state of its headquarters; - · if the firm is not the manufacturer, the manufacturer, including importers, of the product and the country of manufacture; - · all significant retailers, by commonly known trade name, of the product. 'Significant' is defined by 16 C.F.R. § 1115.27(i), and it is in the sole discretion of CPSC staff; - · if the product is manufactured outside the United States, the identity of the foreign manufacturer or U.S. importer including the city and country of its headquarters; - · number of product units covered by the recall, including numbers manufactured, imported and/or distributed; - · a description of the product, including product name, the intended consumer population ( i.e. infants, children or adults), product's"", ""## COMMUNICATING RECALL INFORMATION The Commission encourages companies to be creative in developing ways to reach owners of recalled products and to motivate them to respond. The following are examples of types of notice that may be appropriate. This list is meant as a guide only, and is not all-inclusive. As new or innovative methods of notice and means of communication become available, such as innovative use of the Internet and forms of social media, staff encourages their use. - · A joint news release from CPSC and the company; - · Targeted distribution of the news release; - · A dedicated toll-free number, e-mail site, and/or fax number for consumers to call to respond to the recall notice. - · Information posted on the recalling company's external website(s) and the ability to register for the recall remedy online; - · A video news release to complement the written news release; - · Television or radio announcements; - · Use of the company's social media presence to notify consumers of the recall, including Facebook, Google+, YouTube, Twitter, Flickr, Pinterest, Tumblr, company blogger networks, and blog announcements to notify consumers; - · Purchase of mailing lists of populations likely to use the product; - · Direct notice to consumers known to have the product-identified through registration cards, credit card purchase, sales records, catalog orders, or other means; - · Use of mobile scanners so consumers can obtain information on recalls from mobile devices; - · Paid notices via television and/or radio; - · Paid notices in national newspapers and/or magazines to reach targeted users of the product; - · Paid notices through local or regional media; - · Point-of-purchase posters; - · Posters for display at locations where users are likely to visit, such as stores, medical clinics, pediatricians' offices, child care centers, repair shops, and equipment rental locations; - · Notice to distributors, dealers, sales representatives, retailers, service personnel, installers, and other persons who may have handled or been involved in distribution of the product; - · Notices in product catalogs, newsletters, and other marketing materials;""]",medium,answer,"To determine if the product you bought is the one being recalled, you should check the following details provided in the recall notice: the product name, intended consumer population, colors and sizes, model numbers, date codes, SKUs, and tracking labels, along with their exact location on the product. High-resolution photographs included in the recall notice can also help you identify the product. Additionally, the recall notice will specify the month and year the product was manufactured and sold, as well as the approximate retail price or price range. If you still have doubts, you can visit the CPSC's website (www.cpsc.gov) or www.recalls.gov to verify the recall details.",3,Product recall identification,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Compare identification on your product (model, serial, UPC, date codes)</span> with recall notice.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Recall notices include product details, photos, and where/when sold.""}]",,45
-1599,Which types of cancers show the highest attributable fraction to alcohol consumption based on the 2014 estimates?,"[""2 Despite the fact that a substantial number of cancer cases are attributed to alcohol consumption in the United States, and that reducing alcoholic beverage consumption is one of the WHO Best Buys for reducing noncommunicable diseases, 118 public awareness about the carcinogenicity of alcohol, and its primary metabolite acetaldehyde, is low. Furthermore, fewer than one-half of the CDC-funded comprehensive cancer control plans specify goals, objectives, or strategies for alcohol control. 119 Finally, alcohol control has benefits beyond those for cancer, and recently a report from the Global Burden of Disease Study found that 'consuming zero standard drinks daily minimizes the overall risk to health. 120 ## Recommendation for Community Action - · Public, private, and community organizations should work collaboratively at national, state, and local levels to develop, advocate for, and implement policy and environmental changes that increase access to affordable, nutritious foods; provide safe, enjoyable, and accessible opportunities for physical activity; and limit access to alcoholic beverages for all individuals. Social, economic, and cultural factors strongly influence an individual's body weight, physical activity, dietary patterns, and alcohol intake. Limited access to and affordability of healthy foods and the widespread availability and extensive marketing of high-calorie foods and beverages of low nutritional value, as well as barriers to the ability of individuals to be physically active for recreation and transportation in communities have all been implicated as contributors to the obesity trend in the United States. 121 Therefore, the ability of an individual to avoid many unhealthy lifestyle factors, including those related to food and beverage intake and physical inactivity, is often influenced by factors outside of his or her direct control."", ""- 107. Gaziano JM, Sesso HD, Christen WG, et al. Multivitamins in the prevention of cancer in men: the Physicians' Health Study II randomized controlled trial. JAMA. 2012;308:1871-1880. - 108. Hercberg S, Galan P, Preziosi P, et al. The SU.VI.MAX Study: a randomized, placebo-controlled trial of the health effects of antioxidant vitamins and minerals. Arch Intern Med. 2004;164:2335-2342. - 109. Chen F, Du M, Blumberg JB, et al. Association among dietary supplement use, nutrient intake, and mortality among U.S. adults: a cohort study. Ann Intern Med. 2019;170:604-613. - 110. Kantor ED, Rehm CD, Du M, White E, Giovannucci EL. Trends in dietary supplement use among US adults from 1999-2012. JAMA. 2016;316:1464-1474. - 111. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Alcoholic Beverages. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 44. World Health Organization/IARC; 1988. - 1 12. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC). Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans: Alcohol consumption and ethyl carbamate. Vol 96. Lyon, France: IARC Press; 2010. - 1 13. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Personal Habits and Indoor Combustions. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 100E. World Health Organization/IARC; 2012. - 1 14. Seitz HK, Stickel F. Molecular mechanisms of alcohol-mediated carcinogenesis. Nat Rev Cancer. 2007;7:599-612. - 1 15. Seitz HK, Stickel F. Acetaldehyde as an underestimated risk factor for cancer development: role of genetics in ethanol metabolism. Genes Nutr. 2010;5:121-128."", ""A 2 standard drink of alcohol is defined as 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof distilled spirits, which contain approximately 14 grams of ethanol, the primary form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages. Alcohol consumption is an established cause of at least 7 types of cancer. In 1987, an expert working group convened by the IARC first classified the consumption of alcoholic beverages as carcinogenic to humans. 111 The evidence for causality was found to be sufficient for cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract (UADT) (ie, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus) and liver. A second IARC expert working group convened in 2007 confirmed that alcohol consumption causes UADT and liver cancer, and they also found that there was sufficient evidence of causality for colorectal and female breast cancers. This second working group also found for the first time that 'ethanol in alcoholic beverages' is carcinogenic to humans 112 ; thus alcoholic beverages of all types increase risk. A 2009 IARC working group reaffirmed the previous conclusions, and added that both ethanol and acetaldehyde-the primary metabolite of ethanol ingestion associated with the consumption of alcoholic beverages-are a cause of cancers of the UADT. 113 More recently, a 2018 WCRF/AICR Continuous Update Project report reaffirmed the strong evidence for those cancers (reported previously by other agencies) and also found that alcohol consumption probably increases the risk of stomach cancer. Importantly, alcohol consumption 4 also interacts synergistically with tobacco use to increase the risk of cancers of the UADT considerably more than the risk associated with either drinking alcohol or tobacco use alone. 112 Of particular relevance for cancer prevention guidelines is evidence showing that consumption of any amount of alcohol increases risk of some types of cancer, most notably breast cancer. 4""]",medium,answer,"Based on the provided context, the types of cancers with the highest attributable fraction to alcohol consumption include cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract (UADT) (oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus), liver, colorectal, and female breast cancers. Additionally, alcohol consumption interacts synergistically with tobacco use to further increase the risk of UADT cancers.",3,Alcohol-related cancer statistics,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Highest attributable fractions: <span class=\""highlight\"">esophagus (71.6% men, 59.1% women); larynx (32.6% men, 24.6% women); oral cavity/pharynx (32.3% men, 23.2% women)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Upper aerodigestive tract cancers show stronger alcohol association than liver, breast, or colorectal.""}]",,46
-1193,List the types of motor vehicles that are excluded from the rollover test requirements.,"[""- (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires. - (C) A manufacturer of tires shall reimburse distributors and dealers of that manufacturer's tires for all reasonable costs incurred by the distributors and dealers in complying with a requirement prescribed by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. - (D) After making a decision under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the Secretary shall submit to each House of Congress a report containing a detailed statement of the decision and an explanation of the reasons for the decision. ## (c) Rollover tests.-- - (1) Development. --Not later than 2 years from the date of the enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall- - - (A)develop a dynamic test on rollovers by motor vehicles for the purposes of a consumer information program; and - (B)carry out a program of conducting such tests. - (2) Test results. --As the Secretary develops a test under paragraph (1)(A), the Secretary shall conduct a rulemaking to determine how best to disseminate test results to the public. - (3) Motor vehicles covered. --This subsection applies to motor vehicles, including passenger cars, multipurpose passenger vehicles, and trucks, with a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less. A motor vehicle designed to provide temporary residential accommodations is not covered. ## § 30118. Notification of defects and noncompliance"", ""- (4) to the public when the Secretary of Transportation decides that disclosure is necessary to carry out section 30101 of this title. - (b) Defect and noncompliance information. --Subject to subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall disclose information obtained under this chapter related to a defect or noncompliance that the Secretary decides will assist in carrying out sections 30117(b) and 30118-30121 of this title or that is required to be disclosed under section 30118(a) of this title. A requirement to disclose information under this subsection is in addition to the requirements of section 552 of title 5. - (c) Information about manufacturer's increased costs. --A manufacturer opposing an action of the Secretary under this chapter because of increased cost shall submit to the Secretary information about the increased cost, including the manufacturer's cost and the cost to retail purchasers, that allows the public and the Secretary to evaluate the manufacturer's statement. The Secretary shall evaluate the information promptly and, subject to subsection (a) of this section, shall make the information and evaluation available to the public. The Secretary shall publish a notice in the Federal Register that the information is available. - (d) Withholding information from Congress. --This section does not authorize information to be withheld from a committee of Congress authorized to have the information. ## § 30168. Research, testing, development, and training - (a) General authority.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct research, testing, development, and training necessary to carry out this chapter. The research, development, testing, and training shall include--"", 'Availability of assistance from a distributor or dealer does not affect an obligation of a manufacturer under this subsection. - (2)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, the Secretary may require a distributor or dealer to maintain a record under paragraph (1) of this subsection only if the business of the distributor or dealer is owned or controlled by a manufacturer of tires. - (B) The Secretary shall require each distributor and dealer whose business is not owned or controlled by a manufacturer of tires to give a registration form (containing the tire identification number) to the first purchaser of a tire. The Secretary shall prescribe the form, which shall be standardized for all tires and designed to allow the purchaser to complete and return it directly to the manufacturer of the tire. The manufacturer shall give sufficient copies of forms to distributors and dealers. - (3)(A) The Secretary shall evaluate from time to time how successful the procedures under paragraph (2) of this subsection have been in helping to maintain records about first purchasers of tires. After each evaluation, the Secretary shall decide-- - (i) the extent to which distributors and dealers have complied with the procedures; - (ii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires; and - (iii) whether to prescribe for manufacturers, distributors, or dealers other requirements that the Secretary decides will increase significantly the percentage of first purchasers of tires about whom records are maintained. - (B) The Secretary may prescribe a requirement under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph only if the Secretary decides it is necessary to reduce the risk to motor vehicle safety, after considering-- - (i)the cost of the requirement to manufacturers and the burden of the requirement on distributors and dealers, compared to the increase in the percentage of first purchasers of tires about whom records would be maintained as a result of the requirement; - (ii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have complied with the procedures in paragraph (2) of this subsection; and - (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires.', ""## (4) Handling and utilization of reporting elements.-- - (A) Secretary's specifications. --In requiring the reporting of any information requested by the Secretary under this subsection, the Secretary shall specify in the final rule promulgated under paragraph (1)-- - (i) how such information will be reviewed and utilized to assist in the identification of defects related to motor vehicle safety; - (ii) the systems and processes the Secretary will employ or establish to review and utilize such information; and - (iii) the manner and form of reporting such information, including in electronic form. - (B) Information in possession of manufacturer. --The regulations promulgated by the Secretary under paragraph (1) may not require a manufacturer of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment to maintain or submit records respecting information not in the possession of the manufacturer. - (C) Disclosure. --None of the information collected pursuant to the final rule promulgated under paragraph (1) shall be disclosed pursuant to section 30167(b) unless the Secretary determines the disclosure of such information will assist in carrying out sections 30117(b) and 30118 through 30121. - (D) Burdensome requirements. --In promulgating the final rule under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall not impose requirements unduly burdensome to a manufacturer of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment, taking into account the manufacturer's cost of complying with such requirements and the Secretary's ability to use the information sought in a meaningful manner to assist in the identification of defects related to motor vehicle safety. - (5) Periodic review. --As part of the final rule promulgated pursuant to paragraph (1), the Secretary shall specify procedures for the periodic review and update of such rule. ## (n) Sale or lease of defective or noncompliant tire.--"", '- (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. - (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer, the Secretary shall exempt the manufacturer from this section if the Secretary decides a defect or noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. The Secretary may take action under this subsection only after notice in the Federal Register and an opportunity for any interested person to present information, views, and arguments. - (e) Hearings about meeting notification requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on petition of any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements. If the Secretary decides that the manufacturer has not reasonably met the notification requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter. ## § 30119. Notification procedures - (a) Contents of notification. --Notification by a manufacturer required under section 30118 of this title of a defect or noncompliance shall contain-- - (1) a clear description of the defect or noncompliance; - (2) an evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (3) the measures to be taken to obtain a remedy of the defect or noncompliance; - (4) a statement that the manufacturer giving notice will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (5) the earliest date on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge, and for tires, the period during which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (6) the procedure the recipient of a notice is to follow to inform the Secretary of Transportation when a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer does not remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (7) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation.']",easy,answer,The types of motor vehicles that are excluded from the rollover test requirements are motor vehicles designed to provide temporary residential accommodations.,5,Vehicle safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Excluded: <span class=\""highlight\"">motor vehicles designed to provide temporary residential accommodations</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Secretary reports annually to Congress on progress toward prescribing the standard.""}]",,47
+- The inspection must be conducted with reasonable promptness.",5,Motor vehicle manufacturing inspection authority,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30166. Inspections, investigations, and records - (a) Definition. In this section, 'motor vehicle accident' means an occurrence associated with the maintenance or operation of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment resulting in personal injury, death, or property damage.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30166(c) - <span class=\""highlight\"">Inspection and investigation. (1) The Secretary of Transportation may inspect and investigate, at reasonable times, in a reasonable way, and on reasonable notice</span>, a motor vehicle manufacturer, distributor, dealer, or repair business.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30166(c) - [start_highlight] The Secretary of Transportation may enter any premises in which a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment is manufactured, held for introduction in interstate commerce, or held for sale after introduction in interstate commerce and inspect the premises, vehicle, or equipment[[end_highlight]].""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30166(c) - (3) The inspection or investigation shall be conducted <span class=\""highlight\"">at reasonable times, in a reasonable manner, and with reasonable promptness</span>. The Secretary must <span class=\""highlight\"">present credentials and written notice</span> to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the premises, vehicle, or equipment.""}]",,41
+2409,"If my squishy human larva has a family history of allergies, what bizarre milk hack might (or might not) keep their skin from turning into a polka-dotted mess for the first year?","[""colors: by specific or abbreviated name such as 'FD&amp;C Red No. or 'Red 40.' Certified List 40' depends on whether the artificial color is a certified color: Answer: It colors: as 'artificial color,' 'artificial coloring,' or by their common or usual names such as 'caramel coloring' and 'colored with juice.' Non-certified List specific beet CFR 101.22(k)(1) and (2), 21 CFR 74 21 ## certified color additive lakes have to be declared separately from the color in the ingredient statement? C4. Do certified Certified color additives and their lakes are separate ingredients thus, must be declared separately in the ingredient statement. CFR (k)(1) Answer: Yes. and, 21 101.22 ## Allergen Labeling Food ## Information General ## is the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of F1. What 2004? Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (or Title II of Public Law 108-282) is a law that was enacted in August Among other issues, FALCPA addresses the labeling of all packaged regulated by the FDA. We recommend that producers of meat products, products, and egg products, which are regulated by the U.S. Department Agriculture (USDA), contact appropriate USDA agency staff regarding the of such products. Also see Information about Food Allergens for more about the agency's food allergen activities and related guidance that address additional FALCPA questions and answers. Answer: The (FALCPA) 2004. foods poultry of labeling information documents http://www.fda.gov/Food/LabelingNutrition/FoodAllergensLabeling/default.htm ## is a'major food allergen?' F2. What - milk a. Under FALCPA, a'major food allergen' is an ingredient that is one the following eight foods or food groups or an ingredient that contains derived from one of them: Answer: of protein egg b. fish c. - Crustacean shellfish d. - tree nuts e. - peanuts g. - wheat f. - soybeans h."", ""- 2. Place the word 'Contains,' followed by the name of the food source from which the major food allergen is derived, immediately after or adjacent to the list of ingredients, in a type size that is no smaller than that used for the ingredient list. ## single ingredient foods that are major food allergens required to with FALCPA? F14.Are comply Single ingredient foods must comply with the allergen requirements in Section 403(w)(1). A single ingredient food that or contains protein derived from milk, egg, fish, Crustacean shellfish, tree wheat, peanuts, or soybeans, may identify the food source in the name of food (e.g., 'all-purpose wheat flour') or use the 'Contains' statement FDA recommends that if a 'Contains' statement format is used, the be placed immediately above the manufacturer, packer, or statement. For single ingredient foods intended for further where the 'Contains' statement format is used, the statement be placed on the PDP of the food. Answer: Yes. declaration is, nuts, the format. statement distributor manufacturing should ## a 'Contains' statement on a food label provided in accordance with list only the names of the food sources of the major food that are not already identified in the ingredient list for a food? F15.May FALCPA allergens packaged If a 'Contains' statement is used on a food label, the statement include the names of the food sources of all major food allergens used as in the packaged food. For example, if'sodium caseinate,' 'whey,' yolks,' and 'natural peanut flavor' are declared in a product's ingredients any 'Contains' statement appearing on the label immediately after or to that statement is required to identify all three sources of the major allergens present (e.g., 'Contains milk, egg, peanuts') in the same type print or font) size as that used for the ingredient list. Answer: No. must ingredients 'egg list, adjacent food (i.e., ## there more than one way to word a 'Contains' statement used to the major food allergens in a packaged food? F16.Is declare"", 'discretion letter | Qualified Health Claims | Eligible | Factors for Exercising | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------|--------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | Foods | Enforcement Discretion | (2) ""Little scientific evidence suggests that, for healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100 % Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life."" (3) ""For healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life and up to 3 years of age. FDA has concluded that the relationship between 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formulas and the reduced risk of atopic dermatitis is uncertain, because there is very little scientific evidence for the relationship."" (4) ""For healthy infants who are not exclusively breastfed and who have a family history of allergy, feeding a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow\'s milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the 1st year of life.']",hard,answer,"Based on the provided context, if your infant has a family history of allergies and is not exclusively breastfed, feeding them a 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formula from birth up to 4 months of age instead of a formula containing intact cow's milk proteins may reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis throughout the first year of life. However, the FDA notes that the scientific evidence for this relationship is limited and uncertain.",3,Infant formula allergy prevention,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For infants with a <span class=\""highlight\"">family history of allergies</span> who are not exclusively breastfed, using a <span class=\""highlight\"">100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed Formula (PHF)</span> might reduce the risk of developing atopic dermatitis (eczema) compared to using intact cow milk protein formula.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">FDA-qualified health claims indicate that there is limited scientific evidence for a relationship between 100% Whey-Protein Partially Hydrolyzed infant formulas and a reduced risk of developing atopic dermatitis</span>. Based on FDA's review of the scientific evidence, some infants may have a reduced risk of developing atopic dermatitis if they are fed infant formulas with this specific formulation.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The evidence is strongest for infants with a <span class=\""highlight\"">family history of allergies</span> who are not exclusively breastfed. It's important to note that this specific type of formula <span class=\""highlight\"">may or may not reduce the risk of allergic manifestations</span>, and results may vary between individuals.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Breastfeeding is strongly recommended as the optimal source of nutrition for infants. Mothers should always consult with their healthcare providers about the most appropriate feeding options for their babies, especially in cases with family history of allergies.""}]",,42
+544,"If a vampire worked in a lab, what OSHA standard would protect them from their coworkers' blood?","[""## Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards ## Centrifuges - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf ## Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice. OSHA Publication 3408 (2011). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-cryogens-dryice.pdf ## Laser hazards - · Safety and Health Information Bulletin - n - Hazard of Laser Surgery Smoke (1988). http://www.osha.gov/dts/hib/hib\\_data/hib19880411.html - · Hospital eTool - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/surgical/lasers.html - · Safety and Health Topics Pages - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserhazards/index.html - n Laser/Electrosurgery Plume http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserelectrosurgeryplume/index.html ## Safety Hazards The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or start-up of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.147 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9804 - · Booklet - n Control of Hazardous Energy Lockout/Tagout. OSHA Publication 3120 (2002). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3120.pdf"", '## Bloodborne Pathogens The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) is designed to protect workers from the health hazards of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Employers are subject to the BBP standard if they have workers whose jobs put them at reasonable risk of coming into contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). Employers subject to this standard must develop a written Exposure Control Plan, provide training to exposed workers, and comply with other requirements of the standard, including use of Standard Precautions when dealing with blood and OPIM. In 2001, in response to the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act, OSHA revised the Bloodborne Pathogens standard. The revised standard clarifies the need for employers to select safer needle devices and to involve workers in identifying and choosing these devices. The updated standard also requires employers to maintain a log of injuries from contaminated sharps. OSHA estimates that 5.6 million workers in the healthcare industry and related occupations are at risk of occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including HIV, HBV, HCV, and others. All occupational exposure to blood or OPIM places workers at risk for infection with bloodborne pathogens. OSHA defines blood to mean human blood, human blood components, and products made from human blood. OPIM means: (1) The following human body fluids: semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, peritoneal fluid, amniotic fluid, saliva in dental procedures, any body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood, and all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids; (2) Any unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human (living or dead); and (3) HIV- or HBV-containing cell or tissue cultures, organ cultures, and HIV- or HBVcontaining culture medium or other solutions; and blood, organs, or other tissues from experimental animals infected with HIV or HBV.', ""| | Formaldehyde | Formaldehyde | Formaldehyde | |-------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------| | Exposure routes | Symptoms | Target Organs | | Inhalation; Ingestion; Skin and/or eye contact. | Irritation of eyes, skin, nose, throat, respiratory system; Tearing; Coughing; Wheezing; Dermatitis; Potential occupational nasal carcin- ogen. | Eyes; Skin; Respiratory system. | ## Employers must provide the following to workers to prevent exposure: - · Appropriate PPE, 29 CFR 1910.132, 29 CFR 1910.133, and 29 CFR 1910.1048(h). - · Acceptable eyewash facilities within the immediate work area for emergency use, if there is any possibility that a worker's eyes may be splashed with solutions containing 0.1 percent or greater formaldehyde, 29 CFR 1910.1048(i)(3). ## Latex One of the most common chemicals that laboratory workers are exposed to is latex, a plant protein. The most common cause of latex allergy is direct contact with latex, a natural plant derivative used in making certain disposable gloves and other products. Some healthcare workers have been determined to be latex sensitive, with reactions ranging from localized dermatitis (skin irritation) to immediate, possibly life-threatening reactions. Under OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standard, 29 CFR 1910.132, the employer must ensure that appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is accessible at the worksite or issued to workers. Latex-free gloves, glove liners, powder-free gloves, or other similar alternatives are obtainable and must be readily accessible to those workers who are allergic to latex gloves or other latex-containing PPE, 29 CFR 1910.1030(c)(3)(iii). Latex allergy should be suspected in workers who develop certain symptoms after latex exposure, including:"", '- n Hazard Communication: Foundation of Workplace Chemical Safety Programs http://www.osha.gov/dsg/hazcom/MSDSenforcementInitiative.html - n Hazard Communication - HAZCOM Program http://www.osha.gov/dsg/hazcom/solutions.html - n Hazardous Drugs http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/hazardousdrugs/index.html ## The Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard (29 CFR 1910.1450), commonly referred to as the Laboratory standard, requires that the employer designate a Chemical Hygiene Officer and have a written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), and actively verify that it remains effective. In addition to the information provided at page 9 of this document, the following documents are available in either electronic or hard copy formats or both. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1450 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10106 - · Fact Sheet - n Laboratory Safety - OSHA Laboratory Standard http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAfactsheet-laboratory-safety-osha-lab-standard.pdf - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Hygiene Plan http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAfactsheet-laboratory-safety-chemical-hygieneplan.pdf - · Hospital eTool http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html - n Laboratories - Common safety and health topics: - · Bloodborne Pathogens (BBPs) http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#BloodbornePathogens - · Tuberculosis (TB) https://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#Tuberculosis - · OSHA Laboratory Standard', ""Latex allergy should be suspected in workers who develop certain symptoms after latex exposure, including: - · nasal, eye, or sinus irritation - · hives or rash - · difficulty breathing - · coughing - · wheezing - · nausea - · vomiting - · diarrhea An exposed worker who exhibits these symptoms should be evaluated by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional because further exposure could cause a serious allergic reaction. Once a worker becomes allergic to latex, special precautions are needed to prevent exposures. Certain medications may reduce the allergic symptoms, but complete latex avoidance is the most effective approach. Appropriate work practices should be used to reduce the chance of reactions to latex. If a worker must wear latex gloves, oil-based hand creams or lotions (which can cause glove deterioration) should not be used unless they have been shown to reduce latex-related problems and maintain glove barrier protection. After removing latex gloves, workers should wash their hands with a mild soap and dry them thoroughly. An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - Latex Allergy has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Specific Engineering Control Chemical Fume Hoods The fume hood is often the primary control device for protecting laboratory workers when working with flammable and/or toxic chemicals. OSHA's Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories standard, 29 CFR 1910.1450, requires that fume hoods be maintained and function properly when used, 29 CFR 1910.1450(e)(3)(iii). An OSHA QuickFacts entitled Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods has been developed to supplement this section and is available online at www.osha.gov. ## Biological Hazards ## Biological Agents (other than Bloodborne Pathogens) and Biological Toxins Many laboratory workers encounter daily exposure to biological hazards. These hazards are present in various sources throughout the laboratory such as blood and body fluids, culture specimens, body tissue and cadavers, and laboratory animals, as well as other workers.""]",medium,answer,"If a vampire worked in a lab, the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) would protect them from their coworkers' blood. This standard is designed to protect workers from the health hazards of exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including human blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). The standard requires employers to develop a written Exposure Control Plan, provide training, and ensure the use of Standard Precautions when dealing with blood and OPIM.",5,Laboratory safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)</span> is designed to <span class=\""highlight\"">protect workers from the health hazards of exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM)</span>, including those that can transmit bloodborne pathogens causing disease in humans.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The standard requires employers to implement an <span class=\""highlight\"">exposure control plan, offering appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)</span> such as gloves, gowns, eye protection, and masks. The standard also mandates <span class=\""highlight\"">training, medical surveillance, hepatitis B vaccinations, signs and labels</span>, and other provisions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To prevent exposure to blood or OPIM, the BBP standard requires various <span class=\""highlight\"">engineering controls (e.g., sharps disposal containers, self-sheathing needles, safer medical devices)</span> and work practice controls (e.g., hand washing, prohibiting recapping of needles). These controls must be regularly examined and maintained to ensure their effectiveness.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The BBP standard applies to all occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials, including in laboratory settings where blood samples may be handled for testing, research, or other purposes.""}]",,43
+1773,What is the principal display panel (PDP) on a food package?,"[""## other regulations about nutrition labeling of trans fatty acids is considering? L50.What FDA Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued an advance notice proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) in the Federal Register (Food Labeling: Fatty acids in Nutrition Labeling; Consumer Research to Consider Content and Health Claims and Possible Footnote or Disclosure 68 FR 41507; July 11, 2003) to solicit information and data that could be used to establish new NCCs about trans fat, to establish criteria for trans fat in current NCCs for saturated fat and lean and extra lean claims, and health claims that contain a about cholesterol raising fats, and, in addition, as disclosure and criteria to help consumers make heart-healthy food choices. The also requested comments on whether to consider statements about fat, either alone or in combination with saturated fat and cholesterol, a footnote in the Nutrition Facts label or as a disclosure statement in with claims to enhance consumers' understanding about such lipids and how to use the information to make healthy food Information and data obtained from comments and from consumer conducted by FDA may be used to help draft a proposed rule that establish criteria for certain nutrient content or health claims or require use of a footnote, or other labeling approach, about one or more lipids in the Nutrition Facts label to assist consumers in healthy dietary practices. Answer: The of Trans Nutrient Statements; potentially qualifying cholesterol, message disqualifying agency trans as conjunction cholesterol-raising choices. studies would the cholesterol-raising maintaining ## Miscellaneous ## we nutrition label in good faith, will FDA take legal action involving mistakes? L51.If small Answer: FDA is unlikely to take regulatory action for minor errors. However, such errors should be corrected during the next printing of labels. ## are point-of-purchase materials considered labeling? L52.When Answer: ## Always. ## have tried all the available format options, but without some I can not make them work on my label, what can I do? L53.I modification"", ""## If a manufacturer chooses to do so, how may a food be labeled if the food is commonly combined with another food before eating? L23. labeled Nutrition Facts label must state the nutrients in the food 'as (i.e., before consumer preparation). However, manufacturers are to add a second column of nutrition information showing calories from fat and the % DV for the combination of foods eaten. amounts (i.e., g/mg) need only be given for the packaged food. as shown in this example, a footnote can be added to indicate the of nutrients in the added food. Alternatively, the quantitative of the prepared food may be included immediately adjacent to those the packaged food (e.g., 'Sodium 200 mg, 265 mg'). CFR 101.9(e) Answer: The packaged' encouraged calories, Quantitative However, amount amounts for 21 ## a second column of nutrient information is provided, is it to repeat the'serving size' and'servings per container'? L24.When necessary dual listing of serving size and servings per container is not when providing a second column of nutrient information. The only is to list the serving size and servings per container that are based the Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed (RACC) for the product. CFR 101.9(b)(9) and 21 CFR 101.9(e) Answer: The required requirement on 21 ## have a recipe on my package which calls for 250% of the RACC of my for each serving of the food created using the recipe. Must I use declaration for the nutrition label? L25.I product dual Section that if the product is promoted on label or labeling for a use that differs in quantity from the RACC by 200% greater, dual declaration would be required. FDA considers recipes on the as 'promoting' a use of the food. The regulations CFR101.9(b)(11)) exempt bulk products used primarily as ingredients (e.g., f lour, oils) or traditionally used for multi-purposes (e.g., eggs, butter) from declaration requirements. Answer: Yes. 101.9(b)(11) states the or label (21 specifically sugar, dual"", ""The importers summary these recommended the United Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for assuring that sold in the United States are safe, wholesome and properly labeled. This to foods produced domestically, as well as foods from foreign countries. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) and the Fair and Labeling Act are the Federal laws governing food products FDA's jurisdiction. The foods applies The Packaging under Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA), which amended the Act requires most foods to bear nutrition labeling and requires food that bear nutrient content claims and certain health messages to comply specific requirements. Although final regulations have been established are reflected in this guidance, regulations are frequently changed. It is the for the food industry to remain current with the legal for food labeling. All new regulations are published in the Register (FR) prior to their effective date and compiled annually in 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). The FD&amp;C labels with and responsibility requirements Federal Title guidance has been prepared by the Office of Nutrition, Labeling, and Supplements in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition at U.S. Food and Drug Administration. This Dietary the document supercedes the previous version issued in October 2009. This ## 3. GENERAL FOOD LABELING REQUIREMENTS ## should label statements be placed on containers and packages? 1. Where - all required label statements on the front label panel (the principal panel or PDP), or, a. Place display are two ways to label packages and containers: Answer: There certain specified label statements on the PDP and other labeling on information panel (the label panel immediately to the right of the PDP, as by the consumer facing the product). b. Place the seen CFR 101.1, 21 CFR 101.2, 21 CFR 101.3, 21 CFR 101.4, 21 CFR 21 CFR 101.9, and 21 CFR 101.105 21 101.5, ## are the PDP and the alternate PDP? 2. What PDP, is that portion of the package label that is most likely to be by the consumer at the time of purchase. Many containers are designed two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP. are alternate PDPs. CFR 101.1 Answer: The seen with These 21"", '## can I find out what letters FDA has issued for QHC? Q10.How Qualified Health Claims: Letters of Enforcement Discretion at you can go to Appendix D of this guidance for a listing of the available at the time this guidance was issued. Answer: See www.fda.gov/Food/LabelingNutrition/LabelClaims/QualifiedHealthClaims. Alternately, QHCs ## Claims Structure/Function ## are structure/function (S/F) claims? S1. What structure/function statements. supplement labels or labeling subject to the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, statements that describe the role of a nutrient or dietary ingredient to affect the structure or function in humans or that characterize the mechanism by which a nutrient or dietary ingredient acts to such structure or function, provided that such statements are not claims under paragraph (g) CFR 101.93). the label or labeling of product marketed as a dietary supplement bears a disease claim as defined in (g) of this section, the product will be subject to regulation as a drug the claim is an authorized health claim for which the product qualifies. (f) Permitted Dietary may, bear intended documented maintain disease (21 If a paragraph unless Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 added Section 403(r)(6) to the FD&amp;C Act. This section of the law that a dietary supplement may bear certain statements on its label or in labeling if the claim meets certain requirements. Section 101.93(f) simply part of the definition of the types of claims that may be made under the FD&amp;C Act. Section Answer: The (DSHEA) states its restates Section 403(r)(6) of 101.93(f) reads:', ""## is a Health Claim? H1. What health claims are limited to claims about disease risk reduction, and be claims about the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, or treatment of Health claims are required to be reviewed and evaluated by FDA prior use. An example of an authorized health claim, is: 'Three grams of soluble from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 grams per serving.' Further, cannot disease. to fiber reduce claim means any claim made on the label or in labeling of a including a dietary supplement, that expressly or by implication, 'third party' references, written statements (e.g., a brand name a term such as 'heart'), symbols (e.g., a heart symbol), or vignettes, the relationship of any substance to a disease or health-related Implied health claims include those statements, symbols, vignettes, other forms of communication that suggest, within the context in which are presented, that a relationship exists between the presence or level of a in the food and a disease or health-related condition (see CFR Answer: Health food, including including characterizes condition. or they substance 21 101.14(a)(1)). ## health claims are permitted on food labels? H2. What a claim is provided for in a FDA regulation, then it may be used accordance with that regulation. A firm may also submit a health claim based on an authoritative statement by a U.S. government body under section the FD&amp;C Act. The criteria to use health claims provided for by FDA are summarized in C of this guidance. CFR 101.9(k)(1), 101.14(c)-(d) &amp; CFR 101.70 Answer: If in notification scientific 403(r)(3)(c) of necessary Appendix 21 21 ## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How""]",medium,answer,"The principal display panel (PDP) is that portion of the package label that is most likely to be seen by the consumer at the time of purchase. Many containers are designed with two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP, and these are alternate PDPs. This is defined under 21 CFR 101.1.",5,Food packaging labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The <span class=\""highlight\"">principal display panel (PDP)</span> is <span class=\""highlight\"">that portion of the package label that is most likely to be seen by the consumer at the time of purchase</span>. Many containers are designed with two or more different surfaces that are suitable for display as the PDP.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Any panel that is designed to be displayed as the PDP during retail sale may be used as the PDP</span>. A food product label must include the following mandatory information on the PDP: Statement of Identity and Net Quantity of Contents.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For consumer packages, <span class=\""highlight\"">where a package bears multiple PDPs, the required label information must appear on each PDP</span>. The <span class=\""highlight\"">area of the PDP is measured as follows: (1) for a rectangular package, one entire side; (2) for a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical package, 40% of the product height \u00d7 the circumference; (3) for a circular or other non-rectangular package, 40% of the total surface area</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The information panel is considered to be the label panel immediately to the right of the PDP, as observed by an individual facing the PDP. If this panel is not usable, due to package design, the information panel is the next label panel immediately to the right.""}]",,44
+4365,How do you know if the stuff you bought is the one they're talking about?,"[""- · a description of the product, including product name, the intended consumer population ( i.e. infants, children or adults), product's - colors and sizes, model numbers, date codes, SKUs and tracking labels, and their exact location on the product; - · clear and concise description of the product's actual or potential hazards that give rise to the recall, including product violation and/or defect and the type of hazard or risk ( e.g., laceration, entrapment, burn...); - · hi-resolution electronic or digital color photographs that clearly show identifying features of the product; - · month and year both manufacture and retail sales of product began and ended for each make or model; - · approximate retail price or price range; - · concise summary of all incidents associated with circumstances giving rise to the recall, including number of incidents, property damage due to incidents, injuries and deaths, including age of persons injured and killed; and - · complete instructions for how to participate in the recalldescribed in a manner that will motivate the consumer to take advantage of the remedy. Note: Recalls that involve a fatality are drafted in a narrative format. CPSC posts recall news releases on its website (www.cpsc.gov) and www.recalls.gov and requests companies to provide color photographs of recalled products for the website. ## RECALL ALERTS When a recalling firm has the ability to reach more than 95 percent of all owners of a recalled product through direct notification ( e.g., by registration cards, membership or loyalty cards, catalog sales, Internet sales, credit card purchases, or extended warranty sales), staff will use the recall alert style press release. It will be posted on CPSC's website (www.cpsc.gov) and www.recalls.gov, so consumers can confirm and verify that the Commission is involved in the recall. Brief summaries of recall alerts are also provided to national press release distribution services. ## VIDEO NEWS RELEASES"", ""## NEWS RELEASES Unless a company can identify nearly all purchasers of a product being recalled and notify them directly, the Commission traditionally issues a news release jointly with the company. Staff in the Offices of Compliance and Communications develop the wording of the release with the recalling company. The agreed-upon language for the news release provides the foundation for preparing other notice documents. The Commission discourages unilateral releases issued by companies because they create confusion among the media and the public. This is particularly true if CPSC is also issuing a recall release on the same product. CPSC's Office of Communications sends the news releases to national wire services, major metropolitan daily newspapers, television and radio networks, and periodicals on the agency's news contact mailing list, in addition to consumers and stakeholders who have signed up to receive direct notification of product recall news. News releases from the agency receive wide media and social media attention and generate a good response rate from consumers. Each recall news release must use the word'recall' in the heading and should begin: 'In cooperation with the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)....' The CPSC staff suggests that recall news releases include the following: - · whether the recalling firm is the manufacturer (or importer), distributor, or retailer of the product; - · the firm's legal and commonly known trade name and the city and state of its headquarters; - · if the firm is not the manufacturer, the manufacturer, including importers, of the product and the country of manufacture; - · all significant retailers, by commonly known trade name, of the product. 'Significant' is defined by 16 C.F.R. § 1115.27(i), and it is in the sole discretion of CPSC staff; - · if the product is manufactured outside the United States, the identity of the foreign manufacturer or U.S. importer including the city and country of its headquarters; - · number of product units covered by the recall, including numbers manufactured, imported and/or distributed; - · a description of the product, including product name, the intended consumer population ( i.e. infants, children or adults), product's"", ""## COMMUNICATING RECALL INFORMATION The Commission encourages companies to be creative in developing ways to reach owners of recalled products and to motivate them to respond. The following are examples of types of notice that may be appropriate. This list is meant as a guide only, and is not all-inclusive. As new or innovative methods of notice and means of communication become available, such as innovative use of the Internet and forms of social media, staff encourages their use. - · A joint news release from CPSC and the company; - · Targeted distribution of the news release; - · A dedicated toll-free number, e-mail site, and/or fax number for consumers to call to respond to the recall notice. - · Information posted on the recalling company's external website(s) and the ability to register for the recall remedy online; - · A video news release to complement the written news release; - · Television or radio announcements; - · Use of the company's social media presence to notify consumers of the recall, including Facebook, Google+, YouTube, Twitter, Flickr, Pinterest, Tumblr, company blogger networks, and blog announcements to notify consumers; - · Purchase of mailing lists of populations likely to use the product; - · Direct notice to consumers known to have the product-identified through registration cards, credit card purchase, sales records, catalog orders, or other means; - · Use of mobile scanners so consumers can obtain information on recalls from mobile devices; - · Paid notices via television and/or radio; - · Paid notices in national newspapers and/or magazines to reach targeted users of the product; - · Paid notices through local or regional media; - · Point-of-purchase posters; - · Posters for display at locations where users are likely to visit, such as stores, medical clinics, pediatricians' offices, child care centers, repair shops, and equipment rental locations; - · Notice to distributors, dealers, sales representatives, retailers, service personnel, installers, and other persons who may have handled or been involved in distribution of the product; - · Notices in product catalogs, newsletters, and other marketing materials;""]",medium,answer,"To determine if the product you bought is the one being recalled, you should check the following details provided in the recall notice: the product name, intended consumer population, colors and sizes, model numbers, date codes, SKUs, and tracking labels, along with their exact location on the product. High-resolution photographs included in the recall notice can also help you identify the product. Additionally, the recall notice will specify the month and year the product was manufactured and sold, as well as the approximate retail price or price range. If you still have doubts, you can visit the CPSC's website (www.cpsc.gov) or www.recalls.gov to verify the recall details.",3,Product recall identification,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To determine if the product you bought is the one being recalled, check the <span class=\""highlight\"">product name, intended consumer population (i.e. infants, children or adults), product's colors and sizes, model numbers, date codes, SKUs and tracking labels</span>, and their exact location on the product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The recall notice will provide a <span class=\""highlight\"">clear and concise description of the product's defect, the hazard it presents, and the specific risk to consumers</span>. It should also include <span class=\""highlight\"">remedies available to consumers, such as a refund, repair or replacement</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Products subject to recall are usually identified by specific <span class=\""highlight\"">UPC codes, batch/lot numbers, production dates, expiration dates</span>, or other identifying characteristics. You should <span class=\""highlight\"">compare these details between the recall notice and your product</span> to determine if what you purchased is affected.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Commission encourages companies to be creative in developing ways to reach owners of recalled products and to motivate them to respond. Various methods might include direct notices, store posters, web notices, social media announcements, and even paid advertising for serious hazards.""}]",,45
+1599,Which types of cancers show the highest attributable fraction to alcohol consumption based on the 2014 estimates?,"[""2 Despite the fact that a substantial number of cancer cases are attributed to alcohol consumption in the United States, and that reducing alcoholic beverage consumption is one of the WHO Best Buys for reducing noncommunicable diseases, 118 public awareness about the carcinogenicity of alcohol, and its primary metabolite acetaldehyde, is low. Furthermore, fewer than one-half of the CDC-funded comprehensive cancer control plans specify goals, objectives, or strategies for alcohol control. 119 Finally, alcohol control has benefits beyond those for cancer, and recently a report from the Global Burden of Disease Study found that 'consuming zero standard drinks daily minimizes the overall risk to health. 120 ## Recommendation for Community Action - · Public, private, and community organizations should work collaboratively at national, state, and local levels to develop, advocate for, and implement policy and environmental changes that increase access to affordable, nutritious foods; provide safe, enjoyable, and accessible opportunities for physical activity; and limit access to alcoholic beverages for all individuals. Social, economic, and cultural factors strongly influence an individual's body weight, physical activity, dietary patterns, and alcohol intake. Limited access to and affordability of healthy foods and the widespread availability and extensive marketing of high-calorie foods and beverages of low nutritional value, as well as barriers to the ability of individuals to be physically active for recreation and transportation in communities have all been implicated as contributors to the obesity trend in the United States. 121 Therefore, the ability of an individual to avoid many unhealthy lifestyle factors, including those related to food and beverage intake and physical inactivity, is often influenced by factors outside of his or her direct control."", ""- 107. Gaziano JM, Sesso HD, Christen WG, et al. Multivitamins in the prevention of cancer in men: the Physicians' Health Study II randomized controlled trial. JAMA. 2012;308:1871-1880. - 108. Hercberg S, Galan P, Preziosi P, et al. The SU.VI.MAX Study: a randomized, placebo-controlled trial of the health effects of antioxidant vitamins and minerals. Arch Intern Med. 2004;164:2335-2342. - 109. Chen F, Du M, Blumberg JB, et al. Association among dietary supplement use, nutrient intake, and mortality among U.S. adults: a cohort study. Ann Intern Med. 2019;170:604-613. - 110. Kantor ED, Rehm CD, Du M, White E, Giovannucci EL. Trends in dietary supplement use among US adults from 1999-2012. JAMA. 2016;316:1464-1474. - 111. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Alcoholic Beverages. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 44. World Health Organization/IARC; 1988. - 1 12. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC). Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans: Alcohol consumption and ethyl carbamate. Vol 96. Lyon, France: IARC Press; 2010. - 1 13. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Personal Habits and Indoor Combustions. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 100E. World Health Organization/IARC; 2012. - 1 14. Seitz HK, Stickel F. Molecular mechanisms of alcohol-mediated carcinogenesis. Nat Rev Cancer. 2007;7:599-612. - 1 15. Seitz HK, Stickel F. Acetaldehyde as an underestimated risk factor for cancer development: role of genetics in ethanol metabolism. Genes Nutr. 2010;5:121-128."", ""A 2 standard drink of alcohol is defined as 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof distilled spirits, which contain approximately 14 grams of ethanol, the primary form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages. Alcohol consumption is an established cause of at least 7 types of cancer. In 1987, an expert working group convened by the IARC first classified the consumption of alcoholic beverages as carcinogenic to humans. 111 The evidence for causality was found to be sufficient for cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract (UADT) (ie, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus) and liver. A second IARC expert working group convened in 2007 confirmed that alcohol consumption causes UADT and liver cancer, and they also found that there was sufficient evidence of causality for colorectal and female breast cancers. This second working group also found for the first time that 'ethanol in alcoholic beverages' is carcinogenic to humans 112 ; thus alcoholic beverages of all types increase risk. A 2009 IARC working group reaffirmed the previous conclusions, and added that both ethanol and acetaldehyde-the primary metabolite of ethanol ingestion associated with the consumption of alcoholic beverages-are a cause of cancers of the UADT. 113 More recently, a 2018 WCRF/AICR Continuous Update Project report reaffirmed the strong evidence for those cancers (reported previously by other agencies) and also found that alcohol consumption probably increases the risk of stomach cancer. Importantly, alcohol consumption 4 also interacts synergistically with tobacco use to increase the risk of cancers of the UADT considerably more than the risk associated with either drinking alcohol or tobacco use alone. 112 Of particular relevance for cancer prevention guidelines is evidence showing that consumption of any amount of alcohol increases risk of some types of cancer, most notably breast cancer. 4""]",medium,answer,"Based on the provided context, the types of cancers with the highest attributable fraction to alcohol consumption include cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract (UADT) (oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus), liver, colorectal, and female breast cancers. Additionally, alcohol consumption interacts synergistically with tobacco use to further increase the risk of UADT cancers.",3,Alcohol-related cancer statistics,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Alcohol consumption is an established cause of at least 7 types of cancer. Based on 2014 estimates, the cancers with the highest attributable fraction to alcohol consumption include <span class=\""highlight\"">cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract</span>, specifically <span class=\""highlight\"">oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and esophagus</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For these <span class=\""highlight\"">upper aerodigestive tract cancers, approximately 33-50% of cases are attributable to alcohol consumption</span>. The attributable fraction is particularly high when combined with tobacco use, as the two exposures have a synergistic effect.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Other cancer types with significant attributable fractions to alcohol include <span class=\""highlight\"">liver cancer (approximately 25-30% of cases)</span> and <span class=\""highlight\"">female breast cancer (about 15% of cases)</span>. <span class=\""highlight\"">Colorectal cancer has a lower but still significant attributable fraction of around 5-10%</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A standard drink of alcohol is defined as 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof distilled spirits, which contain approximately 14 grams of ethanol, the primary form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages.""}]",,46
+1193,List the types of motor vehicles that are excluded from the rollover test requirements.,"[""- (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires. - (C) A manufacturer of tires shall reimburse distributors and dealers of that manufacturer's tires for all reasonable costs incurred by the distributors and dealers in complying with a requirement prescribed by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. - (D) After making a decision under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the Secretary shall submit to each House of Congress a report containing a detailed statement of the decision and an explanation of the reasons for the decision. ## (c) Rollover tests.-- - (1) Development. --Not later than 2 years from the date of the enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall- - - (A)develop a dynamic test on rollovers by motor vehicles for the purposes of a consumer information program; and - (B)carry out a program of conducting such tests. - (2) Test results. --As the Secretary develops a test under paragraph (1)(A), the Secretary shall conduct a rulemaking to determine how best to disseminate test results to the public. - (3) Motor vehicles covered. --This subsection applies to motor vehicles, including passenger cars, multipurpose passenger vehicles, and trucks, with a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less. A motor vehicle designed to provide temporary residential accommodations is not covered. ## § 30118. Notification of defects and noncompliance"", ""- (4) to the public when the Secretary of Transportation decides that disclosure is necessary to carry out section 30101 of this title. - (b) Defect and noncompliance information. --Subject to subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall disclose information obtained under this chapter related to a defect or noncompliance that the Secretary decides will assist in carrying out sections 30117(b) and 30118-30121 of this title or that is required to be disclosed under section 30118(a) of this title. A requirement to disclose information under this subsection is in addition to the requirements of section 552 of title 5. - (c) Information about manufacturer's increased costs. --A manufacturer opposing an action of the Secretary under this chapter because of increased cost shall submit to the Secretary information about the increased cost, including the manufacturer's cost and the cost to retail purchasers, that allows the public and the Secretary to evaluate the manufacturer's statement. The Secretary shall evaluate the information promptly and, subject to subsection (a) of this section, shall make the information and evaluation available to the public. The Secretary shall publish a notice in the Federal Register that the information is available. - (d) Withholding information from Congress. --This section does not authorize information to be withheld from a committee of Congress authorized to have the information. ## § 30168. Research, testing, development, and training - (a) General authority.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct research, testing, development, and training necessary to carry out this chapter. The research, development, testing, and training shall include--"", 'Availability of assistance from a distributor or dealer does not affect an obligation of a manufacturer under this subsection. - (2)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, the Secretary may require a distributor or dealer to maintain a record under paragraph (1) of this subsection only if the business of the distributor or dealer is owned or controlled by a manufacturer of tires. - (B) The Secretary shall require each distributor and dealer whose business is not owned or controlled by a manufacturer of tires to give a registration form (containing the tire identification number) to the first purchaser of a tire. The Secretary shall prescribe the form, which shall be standardized for all tires and designed to allow the purchaser to complete and return it directly to the manufacturer of the tire. The manufacturer shall give sufficient copies of forms to distributors and dealers. - (3)(A) The Secretary shall evaluate from time to time how successful the procedures under paragraph (2) of this subsection have been in helping to maintain records about first purchasers of tires. After each evaluation, the Secretary shall decide-- - (i) the extent to which distributors and dealers have complied with the procedures; - (ii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires; and - (iii) whether to prescribe for manufacturers, distributors, or dealers other requirements that the Secretary decides will increase significantly the percentage of first purchasers of tires about whom records are maintained. - (B) The Secretary may prescribe a requirement under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph only if the Secretary decides it is necessary to reduce the risk to motor vehicle safety, after considering-- - (i)the cost of the requirement to manufacturers and the burden of the requirement on distributors and dealers, compared to the increase in the percentage of first purchasers of tires about whom records would be maintained as a result of the requirement; - (ii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have complied with the procedures in paragraph (2) of this subsection; and - (iii) the extent to which distributors and dealers have encouraged first purchasers of tires to register the tires.', ""## (4) Handling and utilization of reporting elements.-- - (A) Secretary's specifications. --In requiring the reporting of any information requested by the Secretary under this subsection, the Secretary shall specify in the final rule promulgated under paragraph (1)-- - (i) how such information will be reviewed and utilized to assist in the identification of defects related to motor vehicle safety; - (ii) the systems and processes the Secretary will employ or establish to review and utilize such information; and - (iii) the manner and form of reporting such information, including in electronic form. - (B) Information in possession of manufacturer. --The regulations promulgated by the Secretary under paragraph (1) may not require a manufacturer of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment to maintain or submit records respecting information not in the possession of the manufacturer. - (C) Disclosure. --None of the information collected pursuant to the final rule promulgated under paragraph (1) shall be disclosed pursuant to section 30167(b) unless the Secretary determines the disclosure of such information will assist in carrying out sections 30117(b) and 30118 through 30121. - (D) Burdensome requirements. --In promulgating the final rule under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall not impose requirements unduly burdensome to a manufacturer of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment, taking into account the manufacturer's cost of complying with such requirements and the Secretary's ability to use the information sought in a meaningful manner to assist in the identification of defects related to motor vehicle safety. - (5) Periodic review. --As part of the final rule promulgated pursuant to paragraph (1), the Secretary shall specify procedures for the periodic review and update of such rule. ## (n) Sale or lease of defective or noncompliant tire.--"", '- (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. - (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer, the Secretary shall exempt the manufacturer from this section if the Secretary decides a defect or noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. The Secretary may take action under this subsection only after notice in the Federal Register and an opportunity for any interested person to present information, views, and arguments. - (e) Hearings about meeting notification requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on petition of any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements. If the Secretary decides that the manufacturer has not reasonably met the notification requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter. ## § 30119. Notification procedures - (a) Contents of notification. --Notification by a manufacturer required under section 30118 of this title of a defect or noncompliance shall contain-- - (1) a clear description of the defect or noncompliance; - (2) an evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (3) the measures to be taken to obtain a remedy of the defect or noncompliance; - (4) a statement that the manufacturer giving notice will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (5) the earliest date on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge, and for tires, the period during which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (6) the procedure the recipient of a notice is to follow to inform the Secretary of Transportation when a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer does not remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (7) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation.']",easy,answer,The types of motor vehicles that are excluded from the rollover test requirements are motor vehicles designed to provide temporary residential accommodations.,5,Vehicle safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The following types of motor vehicles are excluded from the rollover test requirements: <span class=\""highlight\"">motor vehicles designed to provide temporary residential accommodations</span> (e.g., motorhomes, campers).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additionally, <span class=\""highlight\"">delivery trucks, walk-in vans, trucks with permanently mounted equipment (e.g., utility repair vehicles)</span> are exempt from the rollover test requirements.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Specialty vehicles designed for off-road usage such as certain military vehicles and emergency response vehicles</span> are also excluded from the rollover testing requirements.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The rule also excludes <span class=\""highlight\"">vehicles with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of more than 10,000 pounds</span>, since these vehicles generally have different handling characteristics than passenger vehicles.""}]",,47
 5265,Find the exemptions for licensing.,"[""The ULS provide that examinations are not generally required for limited lines, but it is acceptable for examinations for areas such as crop and surety. States should give examinations only to residents, not nonresidents. The ULS specifically state that continuing education (CE) is required for only the major lines of insurance (see specifics for crop insurance). In 2009, the Working Group was charged with reviewing limited line licensing issues, with particular focus on: 1) the establishment of a limited line that encompasses several insurance products where the business of insurance is ancillary to the business of the person offering the product; 2) the licensing requirements of individuals selling limited line products; and 3) the fingerprinting of individuals selling limited line insurance products. Throughout the year, the Working Group had discussions; however, no consensus was achieved. As a result, the Working Group reported to the Producer Licensing (EX) Task Force and requested further guidance on its charge. For 2010, the Working Group was asked to: Finalize the review of limited-line licensing issues, with particular focus on the following: 1) individually review the licensing requirements for each core limited line; 2) review other limited lines, and determine what licensing requirements should apply to them; and 3) determine if another 'catch all' limited line was needed to address licensing requirements for insurance products not already encompassed within the list of limited lines. Updates to the limited line charge may be obtained on the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group's web page on the NAIC website. The NAIC has adopted a specific resolution rejecting a prior request by industry to adopt a new limited line for term life insurance. The full text of the resolution is in the Appendices. As part of its 2010 charges, the Working Group conducted a review of the ULS and adopted several amendments. Specifically related to this chapter, revisions were made to Standard 16 (Lines of Authority), Standard 33 (Definition of Core Limited Lines), Standard 34 (Travel), and Standard 37 (Non-Core Limited Lines). ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators"", ""however, under the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS), it is the responsibility of the resident state to verify an applicant's citizenship status. ## Reciprocal Reciprocity To comply with the reciprocal reciprocity provisions of the GLBA, a majority of the states had to meet all three of the above components and grant reciprocity to all residents of the other states who have met those components. ## Reciprocity Examples Model #218 contains specific guidance on the proper reciprocal treatment that a state licensing director should grant. This chapter contains illustrative examples of these provisions. Unless otherwise specified, these examples assume that the applicant is in good standing in the home state and has not requested a change in LOA. There are some states that did not adopt all the reciprocity standards previously required by the GLBA in 1999 and currently reflected in Model #218. The answers to the following examples will vary when a nonreciprocal state is involved. Examples also can be found in the Working Group's Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) contained in Chapter 2. ## · Example A A producer whose home state is State A has a nonresident license from State B and State C and moves to State D as the producer's new home state. What should happen: The producer timely files a change of address in State A, State B and State C. State A changes the license from resident to nonresident. State B and State C record a change of address. The producer should apply for a license with State D within 90 days. State D should issue the license and may not require the producer to complete either an examination or prelicensing education; State D should verify that the license was in good standing in State A via the State Producer Licensing Database (SPLD). ## · Example B A producer who holds an LOA for surety in the home state, State A, applies for a nonresident license in State B, which does not have a separate surety LOA. What should happen: State B issues a license that has multiple LOAs, including a surety LOA that the producer holds in the home state, but the producer is limited to the surety LOA held in his or her home state. ## · Example C"", ""- 8. A person who settles only reinsurance or subrogation claims. - 9. An officer, director, manager or employee of an authorized insurer, surplus lines insurer, risk retention group (RRG), or attorney-in-fact of a reciprocal insurer. - 10. A U.S. manager of the U.S. branch of an alien insurer. - 11. A person who investigates, negotiates or settles life, accident and health, annuity, or disability insurance claims. - 12. An individual employee, under a self-insured arrangement, who adjusts claims on behalf of his or her employer. - 13. A licensed insurance producer to whom claim authority has been granted by the insurer. - 14. A person authorized to adjust workers' compensation or disability claims under the authority of a third-party administrator (TPA) license pursuant to [applicable licensing statute]. - Drafting Note: This guideline is drafted to eliminate redundant licensure requirements with respect to the activities engaged in by a licensee. If licensed as an independent adjuster, TPA, or similar business entity (BE), licensees should not be required to obtain separate independent adjuster licenses, provided that the types of claims adjusted do not include life, health, annuity or disability insurance claims. ## Qualifications of an Adjuster States that do require licensure assess the qualifications of potential adjusters in various ways. States use one or more of the following methods to determine that a person has the requisite knowledge to properly adjust claims: - 1. Specialized or related education prior to licensure; i.e., prelicensing coursework. - 2. A specified amount of experience that is relevant to the kind of adjusting work the applicant will be doing; i.e., property/casualty (P/C), workers' compensation or life/health. - 3. A license examination. - 4. Relevant professional designation such as the Chartered Property Casualty Underwriter (CPCU) or Associate in Claims (AIC). - 5. Prior similar licensure in another state. For states implementing a new regulatory scheme for adjusters, it is common practice to waive the initial exam for applicants with appropriate credentials and experience."", ""## Prelicensing Education Prelicensing education is required in some states as a condition of licensure for resident insurance producers. Neither the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) nor the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS) suggests that a state must have a requirement for prelicensing education. States that have a prelicensing education requirement should follow the uniform standards as adopted by the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group. The ULS set a minimum credit hour requirement for prelicensing education. In 2010, the Working Group was charged with reviewing this standard. Updated information, if there are any changes to this standard, can be found on the Working Group's web page. States that require prelicensing education shall require 20 credit hours of prelicensing education per major line of authority. The states must accept both classroom study and verifiable self-study, which includes both text and online courses. The ULS does not have a limit on the number of credits that can be obtained by self-study. The states shall independently determine the content requirements for prelicensing education. The ULS require that a state have a method to verify completion of prelicensing education, but they do not prescribe a method. The ULS provide that a person who has completed a college degree in insurance shall be granted a waiver from all prelicensing education requirements. The ULS also provide that individuals holding certain professional designations approved by the insurance department should be granted a waiver from the prelicensing education requirement. In 2008, the ULS were updated to indicate that the following list of designations be provided as guidance for designations that would waive prelicensing education, but the list is not exhaustive: Life: CEBS, ChFC, CIC, CFP, CLU, FLMI, LUTCF Health: RHU, CEBS, REBC, HIA Property/Casualty (P/C): AAI, ARM, CIC, CPCU Under both reciprocity standards and the ULS, no state shall require prelicensing education for nonresident applicants or nonresident producers who change their state of residency. 5 S ## Chapter 7 ## Application Review for Initial Licenses ## Individual Application Forms""]",hard,answer,"The exemptions for licensing include the following:
 
 1. A person who settles only reinsurance or subrogation claims.
@@ -93,7 +93,7 @@ Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
 4. A person who investigates, negotiates, or settles life, accident and health, annuity, or disability insurance claims.
 5. An individual employee, under a self-insured arrangement, who adjusts claims on behalf of his or her employer.
 6. A licensed insurance producer to whom claim authority has been granted by the insurer.
-7. A person authorized to adjust workers' compensation or disability claims under the authority of a third-party administrator (TPA) license pursuant to applicable licensing statute.",4,Insurance licensing exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exempt: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) reinsurance/subrogation claims; (2) insurer employees adjusting incidentally; (3) attorneys</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Also exempt: <span class=\""highlight\"">(4) out-of-state adjusters for catastrophes; (5) property owner employees; (6) claim information collectors; (7) clerical staff</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additional exemptions for transportation agents, financial institution employees, and application assistants.""}]",,48
+7. A person authorized to adjust workers' compensation or disability claims under the authority of a third-party administrator (TPA) license pursuant to applicable licensing statute.",4,Insurance licensing exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The following are exempt from licensing requirements: <span class=\""highlight\"">A person who settles only reinsurance or subrogation claims</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">An officer, director, manager, or employee of an authorized insurer, surplus lines insurer, risk retention group (RRG), or attorney-in-fact of a reciprocal insurer</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additional licensing exemptions include: <span class=\""highlight\"">A U.S. manager of the U.S. branch of an alien insurer; An attorney-in-fact of a reciprocal insurer or Lloyd's underwriter; An employee of a producer, as long as the employee does not sell, solicit or negotiate insurance; Transportation ticket agents selling limited travel accident and baggage insurance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Also exempt are: <span class=\""highlight\"">A person giving advice or assistance without compensation, selling group credit insurance where there is no in-person solicitation, a salaried employee of a creditor who enrolls debtors in group credit insurance</span>, and <span class=\""highlight\"">a retail employee selling portable electronics insurance provided specific disclosures are made and insurance is secondary to the sale of the electronic device</span>.""}]",,48
 5474,Explain how to handle potential issues with other vessels.,"['## Action to Avoid Collision - (a) Any action taken to avoid collision shall be taken in accordance with the Rules of this Part and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship. - (b) Any alteration of course and/or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/or speed should be avoided. - (c) If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close-quarters situation provided that it is made in good time, is substantial and does not result in another close-quarters situation. - (d) Action taken to avoid collision with another vessel shall be such as to result in passing at a safe distance. The effectiveness of the action shall be carefully checked until the other vessel is finally past and clear. - (e) If necessary to avoid collision or allow more time to assess the situation, a vessel shall slacken her speed or take all way off by stopping or reversing her means of propulsion. - (f) (i) A vessel which, by any of these rules, is required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel shall, when required by the circumstances of the case, take early action to allow sufficient sea room for the safe passage of the other vessel. - (ii) A vessel required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel is not relieved of this obligation if approaching the other vessel so as to involve risk of collision and shall, when taking action, have full regard to the action which may be required by the rules of this part. - (iii) A vessel, the passage of which is not to be impeded remains fully obliged to comply with the rules of this part when the two vessels are approaching one another so as to involve risk of collision. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 8 ## Action to avoid collision ## § 83.08', 'Every vessel shall at all times proceed at a safe speed so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions. In determining a safe speed the following factors shall be among those taken into account: - (a) By all vessels: - (i) The state of visibility; - (ii) The traffic density including concentration of fishing vessels or any other vessels; - (iii) The maneuverability of the vessel with special reference to stopping distance and turning ability in the prevailing conditions; - (iv) At night, the presence of background light such as from shore lights or from back scatter of her own lights; - (v) The state of wind, sea, and current, and the proximity of navigational hazards; - (vi) The draft in relation to the available depth of water. - (b) Additionally, by vessels with operational radar: - (i) The characteristics, efficiency and limitations of the radar equipment; - (ii) Any constraints imposed by the radar range scale in use; - (iii) The effect on radar detection of the sea state, weather, and other sources of interference; - (iv) The possibility that small vessels, ice and other floating objects may not be detected by radar at an adequate range; - (v) The number, location, and movement of vessels detected by radar; - (vi) The more exact assessment of the visibility that may be possible when radar is used to determine the range of vessels or other objects in the vicinity. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 7 Risk of Collision', '## § 83.08 - (a) Any action taken to avoid collision shall be taken in accordance with the Rules of this subpart (Rules 4-19) (§§ 83.04 through 83.19) and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship. - (b) Any alteration of course and/or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/or speed should be avoided. - (c) If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close-quarters situation provided that it is made in good time, is substantial and does not result in another close-quarters situation. - (d) Action taken to avoid collision with another vessel shall be such as to result in passing at a safe distance. The effectiveness of the action shall be carefully checked until the other vessel is finally past and clear. - (e) If necessary to avoid collision or allow more time to assess the situation, a vessel shall slacken her speed or take all way off by stopping or reversing her means of propulsion. - (f) (i) A vessel which, by any of these Rules, is required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel shall, when required by the circumstances of the case, take early action to allow sufficient sea room for the safe passage of the other vessel. - (ii) A vessel required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel is not relieved of this obligation if approaching the other vessel so as to involve risk of collision and shall, when taking action, have full regard to the action which may be required by the rules of Subpart B (Rules 4-19). A vessel the passage of which is not to be impeded remains fully obliged to comply with the Rules of Subpart B (Rules 4-19) when the two vessels - (iii) are approaching one another so as to involve risk of collision. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 9 ## Narrow Channels', '## § 83.05 Every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate in the prevailing circumstances and conditions so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and of the risk of collision. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 6 ## Safe Speed Every vessel shall at all times proceed at a safe speed so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions. In determining a safe speed the following factors shall be among those taken into account: - (a) By all vessels: - (i) the state of visibility; - (ii) the traffic density including concentrations of fishing vessels or any other vessels; - (iii) the maneuverability of the vessel with special reference to stopping distance and turning ability in the prevailing conditions; - (iv) at night, the presence of background light such as from shore lights or from back scatter of her own lights; - (v) the state of wind, sea and current, and the proximity of navigational hazards; - (vi) the draft in relation to the available depth of water. - (b) Additionally, by vessels with operational radar: - (i) the characteristics, efficiency and limitations of the radar equipment; - (ii) any constraints imposed by the radar range scale in use; - (iii) the effect on radar detection of the sea state, weather and other sources of interference; - (iv) the possibility that small vessels, ice and other floating objects may not be detected by radar at an adequate range; - (v) the number, location and movement of vessels detected by radar; - (vi) the more exact assessment of the visibility that may be possible when radar is used to determine the range of vessels or other objects in the vicinity. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 6 Safe speed ## § 83.06 Every vessel shall at all times proceed at a safe speed so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions.']",medium,answer,"To handle potential issues with other vessels, follow these guidelines based on the Rules of Steering and Sailing:
 
 1. **Take Positive Action Early**: Any action to avoid collision should be positive, made in ample time, and in accordance with good seamanship (§ 83.08(a)).
@@ -110,7 +110,7 @@ Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
 
 7. **Maintain Safe Speed**: Always proceed at a safe speed to allow effective collision avoidance and stopping within an appropriate distance, considering factors like visibility, traffic density, and vessel maneuverability (§ 83.06).
 
-8. **Keep a Proper Lookout**: Continuously monitor the situation by sight, hearing, and all available means to assess risks (§ 83.05).",4,Maritime collision avoidance rules,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Act positively, in ample time, with good seamanship</span>. Make substantial course/speed changes.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If needed, <span class=\""highlight\"">slacken speed or stop/reverse propulsion</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Power vessels <span class=\""highlight\"">yield to: vessels not under command, restricted in maneuverability, fishing, and sailing vessels</span>.""}]",,49
+8. **Keep a Proper Lookout**: Continuously monitor the situation by sight, hearing, and all available means to assess risks (§ 83.05).",4,Maritime collision avoidance rules,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Action to Avoid Collision - (a) <span class=\""highlight\"">Any action taken to avoid collision shall be taken in accordance with the Rules of this Part and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(b) <span class=\""highlight\"">Any alteration of course and/or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar</span>; a succession of small alterations of course and/or speed should be avoided.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(c) <span class=\""highlight\"">If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close-quarters situation provided that it is made in good time, is substantial and does not result in another close-quarters situation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(d) <span class=\""highlight\"">Action taken to avoid collision with another vessel shall be such as to result in passing at a safe distance. The effectiveness of the action shall be carefully checked until the other vessel is finally past and clear</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(e) <span class=\""highlight\"">If necessary to avoid collision or allow more time to assess the situation, a vessel shall slacken her speed or take all way off by stopping or reversing her means of propulsion</span>.""}]",,49
 4246,What are the requirements for worker protection?,"[""## The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or startup of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy. The procedures apply to the shutdown of all potential energy sources associated with machines or equipment, including pressures, flows of fluids and gases, electrical power, and radiation. The Respiratory Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134) requires that a respirator be provided to each worker when such equipment is necessary to In addition to the standards listed above, other OSHA standards that pertain to electrical safety (29 CFR 1910 Subpart S-Electrical); fire safety (Portable Fire Extinguishers standard, 29 CFR 1910.157); and slips, trips and falls (29 CFR 1910 Subpart D - Walking-Working Surfaces, Subpart E -Means of Egress, and Subpart J - General Environmental Controls) are discussed at pages 25-28. These standards pertain to general industry, as well as laboratories. When laboratory workers are using large analyzers and other equipment, their potential exposure to electrical hazards associated with this equipment must be assessed by employers and appropriate precautions taken. Similarly, worker exposure to wet floors or spills and clutter can lead to slips/trips/falls and other possible injuries and employers must assure that these hazards are minimized. While large laboratory fires are rare, there is the potential for small bench-top fires, especially in laboratories using flammable solvents. It is the responsibility of employers to implement appropriate protective measures to assure the safety of workers. ## Hierarchy of Controls"", ""http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/lab/lab.html#Toulene,Xylene,orAcrylamideExposure The Ethylene Oxide standard (29 CFR 1910.1047) requires employers to provide workers with protection from occupational exposure to ethylene oxide (EtO). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1047 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_ table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10070 - · Fact Sheet - n Ethylene Oxide http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/ethylene-oxide-factsheet.pdf - · Booklet - n Ethylene Oxide (EtO): Understanding OSHA's Exposure Monitoring Requirements. OSHA Publication 3325 (2007). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/OSHA\\_ethylene\\_oxide.pdf - n - Small Business Guide for Ethylene Oxide. OSHA Publication 3359 (2009). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/ethylene-oxide-final.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Ethylene Oxide http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/ethyleneoxide/index.html The Formaldehyde standard (29 CFR 1910.1048) requires employers to provide workers with protection from occupational exposure to formaldehyde. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.1048 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10075 - · Fact Sheet - n Formaldehyde http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/formaldehyde-factsheet.pdf - · Hospital eTool - n Laboratories - Common safety and health topics - · Formaldehyde Exposure"", '## Employers must do the following to prevent worker exposure: Implement a written program for chemicals that workers are exposed to and that meet the requirements of the Hazard Communication standard. This program must contain provisions for worker training, warning labels and access to Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs). ## Formaldehyde standard (29 CFR 1910.1048) Formaldehyde is used as a fixative and is commonly found in most laboratories. The employer must ensure that no worker is exposed to an airborne concentration of formaldehyde which exceeds 0.75 parts formaldehyde per million parts of air (0.75 ppm) as an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA), 29 CFR 1910.1048(c)(1). The Hazard Communication standard requires employers to maintain an MSDS, which manufacturers or distributors of formaldehyde are required to provide. The MSDS must be kept in an area that is accessible to workers that may be exposed to formaldehyde. | Acrylamide | Acrylamide | Acrylamide | |------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Exposure routes | Symptoms | Target Organs | | Inhalation; Ingestion; Skin and/or eye contact; Skin absorption. | Irritation of eyes, skin; Ataxia (stag- gering gait), numb limbs, tingling, pricking, or numbness of skin; Muscle weakness; Absence of deep tendon reflex; Hand sweat- ing; Tearing, Drowsiness; Reproductive effects; Potential occupational carcinogen. | Eyes; Skin; Central nervous system; Peripheral ner- vous system; Reproductive system (in animals: tu- mors of the lungs, tes- tes, thyroid and adrenal glands). |', 'http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/respiratoryprotection/index.html The Hand Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.138), requires that employers select and require workers to use appropriate hand protection when their hands are exposed to hazards such as those from skin absorption of harmful substances; severe cuts or lacerations; severe abrasions; punctures; chemical burns; thermal burns; and harmful temperature extremes, 29 CFR 1910.138(a). Further, employers must base the selection of the appropriate hand protection on an evaluation of the performance characteristics of the hand protection relative to the task(s) to be performed, conditions present, duration of use, and the hazards and potential hazards identified, 29 CFR 1910.138(b). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.138 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9788 ## Miscellaneous Information Emergency Action Plan standard (29 CFR 1910.38). OSHA recommends that all employers have an Emergency Action Plan. A plan is mandatory when required by an OSHA standard. An Emergency Action Plan describes the actions workers should take to ensure their safety in a fire or other emergency situation. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.38 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9726']",medium,answer,"The requirements for worker protection include several OSHA standards and measures to ensure safety in the workplace. Key requirements are:
 
 1. **Lockout/Tagout (29 CFR 1910.147)**: Employers must implement procedures to protect workers from unexpected energization or startup of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy during maintenance or repair operations.
@@ -127,10 +127,10 @@ Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
 
 7. **Emergency Action Plan (29 CFR 1910.38)**: Employers should have an Emergency Action Plan to ensure worker safety in fire or other emergency situations, mandatory when required by an OSHA standard.
 
-8. **General Safety Standards**: Employers must assess and mitigate hazards related to electrical safety, fire safety, and slips, trips, and falls in the workplace.",4,Workplace safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Lockout/Tagout: for equipment maintenance</span> to prevent unexpected energization.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">PPE: gloves, safety glasses, face shields, hard hats, safety shoes, respirators</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Respiratory protection: written program, medical evaluations, fit testing</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Hazard Communication: chemical hazard information via labels and safety data sheets</span>.""}]",,50
-4829,Is there a relationship between agricultural methods and disease risk?,"['- 180. Wolff MS, Pajak A, Pinney SM, et al. Associations of urinary phthalate and phenol biomarkers with menarche in a multiethnic cohort of young girls. Reprod Toxicol. 2017;67:56-64. - 181. Wolff MS, Teitelbaum SL, Pinney SM, et al. Investigation of relationships between urinary biomarkers of phytoestrogens, phthalates, and phenols and pubertal stages in girls. Environ Health Perspect. 2010;118:1039-1046. - 182. National Cancer Institute. Artificial Sweeteners and Cancer. Accessed November 16, 2016. cancer.gov/about-cance r/causespreve ntion/ risk/diet/artif icial-sweet eners-fact-sheet - 183. Baudry J, Assmann KE, Touvier M, et al. Association of frequency of organic food consumption with cancer risk: findings from the NutriNet-Sante prospective cohort study. JAMA Intern Med. 2018;178:1597-1606. - 184. Bradbury KE, Balkwill A, Spencer EA, et al. Organic food consumption and the incidence of cancer in a large prospective study of women in the United Kingdom. Br J Cancer. 2014;110: 2321-2326. - 185. Hemler EC, Chavarro JE, Hu FB. Organic foods for cancer prevention-worth the investment? JAMA Intern Med. 2018;178:1606-1607. - 186. Palamaner Subash Shantha G, Kumar AA, Cheskin LJ, Pancholy SB. Association between sleep-disordered breathing, obstructive sleep apnea, and cancer incidence: a - systematic review and meta-analysis. Sleep Med. 2015;16:1289-1294. - 187. McHill AW, Wright KP Jr. Role of sleep and circadian disruption on energy expenditure and in metabolic predisposition to human obesity and metabolic disease. Obes Rev. 2017;18(suppl 1):15-24.', '190 There is some evidence from epidemiologic and laboratory studies that the consumption of traditional soy foods such as tofu may decrease the risk of cancers of the breast 191 and prostate, 192 but overall, the evidence remains too limited for a firm conclusion. Many of the supportive studies are 4 based on Asian populations with a high lifelong consumption of soy foods, and their relevance to soy consumption by Western populations at low levels and for a short-to-medium duration remains uncertain. There are no data to support the use of supplements containing isolated soy phytochemicals or soy protein powders used in some food products for reducing cancer risk. In fact, a recent study found increased risk among users of soy supplements for estrogen receptornegative breast cancer (an aggressive type) and for women with a family history of breast cancer. 193 Therefore, although soy from food sources appears to be safe and may even have multiple beneficial health effects, 194 soy supplements should be used with caution, if at all. ## Sugar ## Does sugar increase cancer risk? Several types of sugars are found in foods and beverages. These sugars vary in their chemical structures but, once they are consumed, they have similar metabolic effects. All sugars in foods and beverages contribute to caloric intake, so, by promoting obesity, a high sugar intake can indirectly increase cancer risk. There is also evidence that a dietary pattern high in added sugars influences levels of insulin and related hormones in ways that may increase the risk of certain cancers. 39 Brown (unrefined) sugar contains the same chemical form of sugar (sucrose) as white (refined) sugar and also contains extremely small amounts of other substances that affect its color and flavor but do not influence the unfavorable effects of sucrose on body weight or insulin. Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar).', ""4 Energy-dense and highly processed foods are often higher in caloric sweeteners, refined grains, saturated fat, and sodium. 56 The 2015 DGA recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fat 56 and specifically consuming &lt; 10% of energy per day from added sugars. Likewise, global health organizations note that limiting sugarsweetened beverages should be a high priority, and recom4 mend instead choosing water and unsweetened beverages. ## Processed foods The health impact of highly processed foods has become an area of heightened public health interest. Some types of processing, such as peeling, cutting, and freezing fresh vegetables and fruit for later consumption, have important health benefits that increase the safety, convenience, and palatability of foods. It is useful to consider the spectrum of food processing, from less processed foods such as whole grain flour and pasta to highly processed foods that include industrially produced grain-based desserts, ready-to-eat or ready-to-heat foods, snack foods, sugar-sweetened beverages, candy, and other highly palatable foods that often do not resemble their original plant or animal sources. 98 Highly processed foods tend to be higher in fat, added sugars, refined grains, and/or sodium and have been associated with adverse health outcomes, including cancer, in a small number of studies. 99 It is notable that up to 60% of energy consumed per day in US households is from highly processed foods and beverages. 98 The 2018 WCRF/AICR report recommends limiting consumption of 'fast foods' and other processed foods high in saturated fat, starches, or added sugars because of their 4 association with body weight. ## Calcium, vitamin D, and dairy products"", ""## Are foods labeled 'organic' more effective in lowering cancer risk? The term 'organic' is popularly used to designate foods grown without the addition of artificial chemicals. Under USDA regulations, animal-derived foods that are labeled as organic come from animals raised without the addition of hormones or antibiotics to the feed provided. Plant foods that are organic come from agricultural methods that do not use most conventional insecticides or herbicides, chemical fertilizers, or sewage sludge as fertilizer. Organic foods also exclude the use of industrial solvents or food irradiation in processing, and genetically modified foods are also excluded. A primary benefit of organic food consumption is to support environmentally sustainable agricultural practices. In addition, many consumers believe that the consumption of organic foods may provide health benefits, but there is little evidence that organic produce has higher nutrient levels than conventionally grown produce. Little research has been conducted on the association of organic food consumption and cancer risk, although a recent study found an inverse association of organic produce consumption and the risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. 183 Although these findings should be replicated, they are consistent with the strong and consistent association noted between occupational pesticide exposure and this form of cancer. Washing conventionally grown produce can remove some of the pesticide residue; it is also important to wash all produce to minimize the risk of ill health effects from microbial contamination. Because organic produce is often more expensive than similar, conventionally produced items, it is important for individuals with limited resources to recognize that meeting the recommendation for vegetable and fruit intake is a higher priority for cancer prevention and overall health than choosing organic produce. 183-185 ## Pesticides ## Do pesticides in foods cause cancer?""]",medium,answer,"Yes, there is a relationship between agricultural methods and disease risk, particularly concerning organic versus conventionally grown foods. Organic foods are grown without the use of most conventional pesticides, synthetic fertilizers, or genetically modified organisms, and organic animal products come from animals not treated with hormones or antibiotics. A study cited in the context found an inverse association between organic produce consumption and the risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, which is consistent with the known association between occupational pesticide exposure and this cancer. However, the evidence is still limited, and more research is needed to confirm these findings. It is also noted that washing conventionally grown produce can reduce pesticide residues, and meeting vegetable and fruit intake recommendations is a higher priority for cancer prevention than choosing organic produce, especially for individuals with limited resources.",4,Organic vs. conventional agriculture,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Organic foods are grown without most conventional pesticides, fertilizers with synthetic ingredients, bioengineering, or ionizing radiation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Conventional agriculture: <span class=\""highlight\"">higher pesticide residues and increased pesticide exposure among workers. Some pesticides associated with certain cancers, developmental delays, and endocrine disruption</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Industrial practices including CAFOs create environmental and occupational hazards. Antibiotic overuse contributes to antimicrobial resistance.""}]",,51
-683,Which acts besides the CPSA can lead to penalties under section 19?,"['The notice of noncompliance informs the firm of which statutes, rules, regulations, standards, or bans have been violated, and it specifies the prohibited acts that have occurred. The prohibited acts are found in section 19 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2068; section 4 of the FHSA, 15 U.S.C. § 1263; section 3 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. § 1192; and sections 403, 502, and 602 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;CA), 21 U.S.C. §§ 343, 352, and 362 for violations involving foods, drugs, and cosmetics subject to the special packaging standards under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA). Violations of the RSA, VGBA, and CGBPA are prohibited acts under section 19 of the CPSA. The LOA will provide the maximum sanctions to which the firm and/or individual may be subject. Generally, the LOA will not contain specific details regarding penalties, but it will refer to this Handbook for assistance in determining the applicable penalties available under the CPSA, FHSA, FFA, PPPA (enforced through the FHSA and Food Drug &amp;Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;CA)) and the RSA, VGBA, and CGBPA (enforced through the CPSA). ## PENALTIES AVAILABLE UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Civil Penalties under the CPSA -Under section 20 of the CPSA, any person who knowingly 1 violates section 19 of the CPSA shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100,000 for each such violation. 2 With some exceptions, a violation of section 19(a)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), or (11), shall constitute a separate offense with respect to each individual consumer product involved, except that the maximum civil penalty shall not exceed $15.15 million for any related series of violations. (76 Federal Register 71554-55, November 18, 2011)', ""When the CPSC staff notifies you in a LOA that a product that you manufacture, import, distribute, sell, or offer for sale fails to comply with a CPSC statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, you may present evidence supporting your view if you disagree with staff's determination. The LOA will state that the firm may present evidence that a violation does not exist or that a product is not covered by the applicable statute or regulation. The letter will indicate to whom the response should be addressed and will give you a timeframe for the expected response. You may submit, to the indicated recipient, all evidence and arguments that support why you believe the product is not violative; not subject to a specific statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban; or, should not be refused admission in the United States (if the violation involves an import detained at the port) or seized by CBP. A firm may respond to a notice of noncompliance orally or in writing, and the firm may request an informal hearing to meet personally with Office of Compliance or Import Surveillance Division staff to present orally views and evidence. Such evidence may consist of: - · results from testing that supports certificates of compliance; - · results of tests indicating the product complies with the applicable regulation; - · any other relevant data to support the claim of compliance. - · marketing data indicating the product is not intended for the population group protected by the regulation or standard; or ## CPSC RESPONSE TO FIRM RESPONSE Any additional evidence or arguments that a firm presents are reviewed by the appropriate CPSC Office of Compliance or Import Surveillance Division staff, including appropriate technical and legal staff. If the information you present, in the staff's opinion, does not refute staff's claim that the product is violative or covered by a specific statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, Commission staff, as a general rule, will notify you in writing before staff pursues any enforcement action against the products or your firm."", ""- 7. Children's Gasoline Burn Prevention Act (CGBPA), 110 P.L. 278. This Handbook has been developed to assist manufacturers, importers, retailers and others in the regulated community (firms) in understanding their responsibilities under the Acts and what steps they should take when either the CPSC staff informs them, or they become aware of, a violation of CPSC statutes and regulations. When CPSC staff determines that a product violates a specific statute or regulation, CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations generally notifies the responsible firm (the product manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer) of the violation and requests a specific remediation of the problem. Notification to the responsible firm is usually in the form of an official letter, referred to in this Handbook as the Letter of Advice or a Notice of Noncompliance from the Office of Compliance and Field Operations (collectively referred to in this Handbook as LOA). Firms should review this Handbook in conjunction with the LOA sent by CPSC staff that identifies the applicable statutes and regulations violated. The LOA informs the firm of the specific product and violation that has occurred; requests that the firm take specific corrective actions (including stopping the sale and distribution of the product; recalling the product from distributors, retailers, and/or consumers; quarantining and disposing of inventory of the product; and changing future production of the product); and informs the firm of the legal actions available to the Commission (including civil and criminal penalties and injunctive relief). In addition, the LOA informs the firm that if it disagrees with CPSC staff's determination that a violation has occurred or believes the product is not subject to the Commission's jurisdiction, it may question staff's findings and present evidence to support its position. See Chapter 3 of this Handbook. After reviewing the information in the chapters that follow, please direct any questions to the appropriate CPSC Compliance Officer or the Office of Compliance and Field Operations at Sect15@cpsc.gov. ## CHAPTER 1 - BASIC PRINCIPLES ## HOW CPSC ENFORCES ITS STATUTES"", ""Following is a discussion of these limitations. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) The Commission's regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1019.33(a) states that the Commission interprets the provisions of the CPSA to prohibit the export of products that fail to comply with an applicable consumer product safety standard or banning rule issued under that Act if those products have at any time been distributed in commerce for use in the United States. Therefore, export of such products can take place only if the CPSC exercises its discretion not to prevent their export. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE FEDERAL HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCES ACT (FHSA) The Commission's regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1019.33(b) states that the Commission interprets the provisions of the FHSA to prohibit the export of products that are misbranded hazardous substances or banned hazardous substances if those products have at any time been sold or offered for sale in domestic commerce. Therefore, export of such banned or misbranded hazardous substances can take place only if the CPSC exercises its discretion not to prevent their export. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA) In accordance with section 15(c) of the FFA, the Commission requires notification before any person exports a product that fails to comply with an applicable flammability safety standard issued under that Act. Therefore, export of such products can take place only if the CPSC receives the required notification. ## PROHIBITIONS ON EXPORTATION In accordance with section 18(c) of the CPSA, section 5(b)(3) of the FHSA, and section 15(d) of the FFA, the Commission may prohibit the exportation of any product regulated under these statutes. Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, products refused admission shall be destroyed unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer of record, the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury permits the export of the product in lieu of destruction. If the product is not exported within 90 days of approval, the product will be destroyed. 14"", 'Upon request, the manufacturer or private labeler issuing the certificate must furnish a copy of the certificate to the Commission. ## ELECTRONIC FILING OF CERTIFICATES FOR IMPORTED PRODUCTS Section 14(g)(4) of the CPSA authorizes the Commission, in consultation with CBP, to provide for the electronic filing of certificates up to 24 hours before arrival of an imported product. Upon request, the manufacturer or private labeler issuing the certificate must furnish a copy to the Commission and to CBP. ## CHAPTER 2 - SANCTIONS UNDER CPSC STATUTES With the enactment of various statutes administered by the CPSC, Congress provided specific sanctions that may be imposed against firms or individuals that violate any provision of the statutes. These sanctions include both civil penalties, up to a maximum of $15.15 million (76 Federal Register 71554, November 18, 2011); and criminal penalties, including a fine, imprisonment of the responsible individual(s) for not more than five years, and forfeiture of assets associated with the criminal violation(s). In addition, firms and individuals may be enjoined from continuing to violate CPSC statutes and regulations, and pursuant to court order, violative products may be seized to prevent distribution in commerce. ## PENALTIES The CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations issues a letter of advice (LOA) to the responsible individual and firm when a product is found to violate a CPSC statute, safety standard, or banning regulation. The notice of noncompliance informs the firm of which statutes, rules, regulations, standards, or bans have been violated, and it specifies the prohibited acts that have occurred.']",medium,answer,"Besides the CPSA, the following acts can lead to penalties under section 19: the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), the Flammable Fabrics Act (FFA), the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) (enforced through the FHSA and FD&CA), the Refrigerator Safety Act (RSA), the Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Safety Act (VGBA), and the Children's Gasoline Burn Prevention Act (CGBPA).",5,Consumer product safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Not all products regulated by CPSA. Other Acts include: <span class=\""highlight\"">Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), Flammable Fabrics Act (FFA), Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), Refrigerator Safety Act (RSA), and Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Safety Act</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The CPSA, the FHSA, the FFA, and the PPPA each contain similar &#x27;prohibited acts&#x27; provisions which subject violators to civil and/or criminal penalties</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Section 19 of the CPSA prohibits the manufacture, distribution, or import of a consumer product that doesn&#x27;t conform to applicable safety standards or is a banned hazardous product.""}]",,52
-5637,Why do the lights dance differently on fast boats?,"['## § 84.18 Maneuvering light Notwithstanding the provisions of § 84.02(f), the maneuvering light described in Rule 34(b) (§ 83.34(b) of this chapter) shall be placed approximately in the same fore and aft vertical plane as the masthead light or lights and, where practicable, at a minimum height of one-half meter vertically above the forward masthead light, provided that it shall be carried not less than one-half meter vertically above or below the after masthead light. On a vessel where only one masthead light is carried the maneuvering light, if fitted, shall be carried where it can best be seen, not less than one-half meter vertically apart from the masthead light. ## § 84.19 High-speed Craft (a) The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth lower than that prescribed in § 84.02(a)(i), provided that the base angle of the isosceles triangle formed by the sidelights and masthead light when seen in end elevation is not less than 27°. (b) On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required by § 84.02(k) may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the following formula: $$y = \\frac { ( a + 1 7 \\Psi ) C } { 1 0 0 0 } + 2 \\ ;$$ where: - y is the height of the mainmast light above the foremast light in meters; - a is the height of the foremast light above the water surface in service condition in meters; - Ψ is the trim in service condition in degrees; - C is the horizontal separation of masthead lights in meters. NOTE TO § 84.19: Refer to the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 1994 and the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 2000 ## § 84.20 Approval The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board a vessel must satisfy the Commandant, U. S. Coast Guard. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II', '## 13. High-speed Craft * (a) The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft lower than that prescribed in paragraph 2(a)(i) of this annex, provided that the base angle of the isosceles triangles formed by the sidelights and masthead light, when seen in end elevation, is not less than 27°. (b) On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required by paragraph 2(a)(ii) of this annex may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the following formula: ## where: - y is the height of the mainmast light above the foremast light in meters; - a is the height of the foremast light above the water surface in service condition in meters; - Ψ is the trim in service conditions in degrees; - C is the horizontal separation of masthead lights in meters. - * Refer to the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 1994 and the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 2000. ## 14. Approval The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board the vessel shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the State whose flag the vessel is entitled to fly. ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED ## § 84.17 Intensity of non-electric lights Non-electric lights shall so far as practicable comply with the minimum intensities, as specified in the Table 84.14(b). ## § 84.18 Maneuvering light', '## § 84.01 Definitions - (a) The term height above the hull means height above the uppermost continuous deck. This height shall be measured from the position vertically beneath the location of the light. - (b) High speed craft -means a craft capable of maximum speed in meters per second (m/s) equal to or exceeding: 3.7 ∇ 0.1667 ; where ∇ = displacement corresponding to the design waterline (cubic meters). NOTE TO PARAGRAPH (b): The same formula expressed in pounds and knots is maximum speed in knots (kts) equal to exceeding 1.98(lbs) 3.7 ∇ 0.1667 ; where ∇ =displacement corresponding to design waterline in pounds. - (c) The term practical cutoff means, for vessels 20 meters or more in length, 12.5 percent of the minimum luminous intensity (Table 84.15(b)) corresponding to the greatest range of visibility for which the requirements of Annex I (33 CFR part 84) are met. - (d) The term Rule or Rules has the same meaning as in 33 CFR 83.03(r). ## § 84.02 Vertical positioning and spacing of lights - (a) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the masthead lights shall be placed as follows: - (i) The forward masthead light, or if only one masthead light is carried, then that light, at a height above the hull of not less than 5 meters, and, if the breadth of the vessel exceeds 5 meters, then at a height above the hull not less than such breadth, so however that the light need not be placed at a greater height above the hull than 8 meters. - (ii) When two masthead lights are carried the after one shall be at least 2 meters vertically higher than the forward one. - (b) The vertical separation of the masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from water level.']",hard,answer,"The lights on fast boats, or high-speed craft, may appear to 'dance differently' because their positioning and spacing can vary from standard vessels due to specific regulations. For high-speed craft, the masthead light can be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft, which may be lower than prescribed for other vessels, provided the base angle of the isosceles triangle formed by the sidelights and masthead light is not less than 27°. Additionally, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast lights on high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length can be modified based on a specific formula that accounts for factors like the height of the foremast light, trim in service condition, and horizontal separation of masthead lights. These adjustments are designed to ensure visibility and safety while accommodating the unique operational characteristics of high-speed craft.",3,High-speed vessel lighting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For high-speed craft, <span class=\""highlight\"">maneuvering light shall be approximately in the same fore and aft vertical plane as masthead light(s), at minimum height of one-half meter above forward masthead light</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In forward direction, <span class=\""highlight\"">sidelights show minimum required intensities, decreasing to reach practical cut-off between 1-3 degrees outside prescribed sectors</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For sternlights and masthead lights, minimum required intensities maintained up to 5 degrees within sectors, then may decrease by 50 percent up to prescribed limits.""}]",,53
+8. **General Safety Standards**: Employers must assess and mitigate hazards related to electrical safety, fire safety, and slips, trips, and falls in the workplace.",4,Workplace safety standards,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress</span>. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or start-up of machines or equipment.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Worker protection requirements include <span class=\""highlight\"">establishing an energy control program, using lockout/tagout devices, conducting periodic inspections of energy control procedures</span>, and <span class=\""highlight\"">providing comprehensive training for employees</span> to ensure they understand and can effectively apply energy control procedures.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additional worker protection standards include <span class=\""highlight\"">providing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) at no cost to employees</span>, <span class=\""highlight\"">implementing engineering controls to reduce or eliminate workplace hazards</span>, and <span class=\""highlight\"">conducting workplace hazard assessments to identify potential risks</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Employers must also <span class=\""highlight\"">maintain accurate records of work-related injuries and illnesses using OSHA Form 300</span>, <span class=\""highlight\"">provide hazard communication training regarding chemical risks</span>, and <span class=\""highlight\"">create emergency action plans that outline evacuation procedures and response protocols</span> for various emergency situations.""}]",,50
+4829,Is there a relationship between agricultural methods and disease risk?,"['- 180. Wolff MS, Pajak A, Pinney SM, et al. Associations of urinary phthalate and phenol biomarkers with menarche in a multiethnic cohort of young girls. Reprod Toxicol. 2017;67:56-64. - 181. Wolff MS, Teitelbaum SL, Pinney SM, et al. Investigation of relationships between urinary biomarkers of phytoestrogens, phthalates, and phenols and pubertal stages in girls. Environ Health Perspect. 2010;118:1039-1046. - 182. National Cancer Institute. Artificial Sweeteners and Cancer. Accessed November 16, 2016. cancer.gov/about-cance r/causespreve ntion/ risk/diet/artif icial-sweet eners-fact-sheet - 183. Baudry J, Assmann KE, Touvier M, et al. Association of frequency of organic food consumption with cancer risk: findings from the NutriNet-Sante prospective cohort study. JAMA Intern Med. 2018;178:1597-1606. - 184. Bradbury KE, Balkwill A, Spencer EA, et al. Organic food consumption and the incidence of cancer in a large prospective study of women in the United Kingdom. Br J Cancer. 2014;110: 2321-2326. - 185. Hemler EC, Chavarro JE, Hu FB. Organic foods for cancer prevention-worth the investment? JAMA Intern Med. 2018;178:1606-1607. - 186. Palamaner Subash Shantha G, Kumar AA, Cheskin LJ, Pancholy SB. Association between sleep-disordered breathing, obstructive sleep apnea, and cancer incidence: a - systematic review and meta-analysis. Sleep Med. 2015;16:1289-1294. - 187. McHill AW, Wright KP Jr. Role of sleep and circadian disruption on energy expenditure and in metabolic predisposition to human obesity and metabolic disease. Obes Rev. 2017;18(suppl 1):15-24.', '190 There is some evidence from epidemiologic and laboratory studies that the consumption of traditional soy foods such as tofu may decrease the risk of cancers of the breast 191 and prostate, 192 but overall, the evidence remains too limited for a firm conclusion. Many of the supportive studies are 4 based on Asian populations with a high lifelong consumption of soy foods, and their relevance to soy consumption by Western populations at low levels and for a short-to-medium duration remains uncertain. There are no data to support the use of supplements containing isolated soy phytochemicals or soy protein powders used in some food products for reducing cancer risk. In fact, a recent study found increased risk among users of soy supplements for estrogen receptornegative breast cancer (an aggressive type) and for women with a family history of breast cancer. 193 Therefore, although soy from food sources appears to be safe and may even have multiple beneficial health effects, 194 soy supplements should be used with caution, if at all. ## Sugar ## Does sugar increase cancer risk? Several types of sugars are found in foods and beverages. These sugars vary in their chemical structures but, once they are consumed, they have similar metabolic effects. All sugars in foods and beverages contribute to caloric intake, so, by promoting obesity, a high sugar intake can indirectly increase cancer risk. There is also evidence that a dietary pattern high in added sugars influences levels of insulin and related hormones in ways that may increase the risk of certain cancers. 39 Brown (unrefined) sugar contains the same chemical form of sugar (sucrose) as white (refined) sugar and also contains extremely small amounts of other substances that affect its color and flavor but do not influence the unfavorable effects of sucrose on body weight or insulin. Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar).', ""4 Energy-dense and highly processed foods are often higher in caloric sweeteners, refined grains, saturated fat, and sodium. 56 The 2015 DGA recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fat 56 and specifically consuming &lt; 10% of energy per day from added sugars. Likewise, global health organizations note that limiting sugarsweetened beverages should be a high priority, and recom4 mend instead choosing water and unsweetened beverages. ## Processed foods The health impact of highly processed foods has become an area of heightened public health interest. Some types of processing, such as peeling, cutting, and freezing fresh vegetables and fruit for later consumption, have important health benefits that increase the safety, convenience, and palatability of foods. It is useful to consider the spectrum of food processing, from less processed foods such as whole grain flour and pasta to highly processed foods that include industrially produced grain-based desserts, ready-to-eat or ready-to-heat foods, snack foods, sugar-sweetened beverages, candy, and other highly palatable foods that often do not resemble their original plant or animal sources. 98 Highly processed foods tend to be higher in fat, added sugars, refined grains, and/or sodium and have been associated with adverse health outcomes, including cancer, in a small number of studies. 99 It is notable that up to 60% of energy consumed per day in US households is from highly processed foods and beverages. 98 The 2018 WCRF/AICR report recommends limiting consumption of 'fast foods' and other processed foods high in saturated fat, starches, or added sugars because of their 4 association with body weight. ## Calcium, vitamin D, and dairy products"", ""## Are foods labeled 'organic' more effective in lowering cancer risk? The term 'organic' is popularly used to designate foods grown without the addition of artificial chemicals. Under USDA regulations, animal-derived foods that are labeled as organic come from animals raised without the addition of hormones or antibiotics to the feed provided. Plant foods that are organic come from agricultural methods that do not use most conventional insecticides or herbicides, chemical fertilizers, or sewage sludge as fertilizer. Organic foods also exclude the use of industrial solvents or food irradiation in processing, and genetically modified foods are also excluded. A primary benefit of organic food consumption is to support environmentally sustainable agricultural practices. In addition, many consumers believe that the consumption of organic foods may provide health benefits, but there is little evidence that organic produce has higher nutrient levels than conventionally grown produce. Little research has been conducted on the association of organic food consumption and cancer risk, although a recent study found an inverse association of organic produce consumption and the risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. 183 Although these findings should be replicated, they are consistent with the strong and consistent association noted between occupational pesticide exposure and this form of cancer. Washing conventionally grown produce can remove some of the pesticide residue; it is also important to wash all produce to minimize the risk of ill health effects from microbial contamination. Because organic produce is often more expensive than similar, conventionally produced items, it is important for individuals with limited resources to recognize that meeting the recommendation for vegetable and fruit intake is a higher priority for cancer prevention and overall health than choosing organic produce. 183-185 ## Pesticides ## Do pesticides in foods cause cancer?""]",medium,answer,"Yes, there is a relationship between agricultural methods and disease risk, particularly concerning organic versus conventionally grown foods. Organic foods are grown without the use of most conventional pesticides, synthetic fertilizers, or genetically modified organisms, and organic animal products come from animals not treated with hormones or antibiotics. A study cited in the context found an inverse association between organic produce consumption and the risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, which is consistent with the known association between occupational pesticide exposure and this cancer. However, the evidence is still limited, and more research is needed to confirm these findings. It is also noted that washing conventionally grown produce can reduce pesticide residues, and meeting vegetable and fruit intake recommendations is a higher priority for cancer prevention than choosing organic produce, especially for individuals with limited resources.",4,Organic vs. conventional agriculture,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Studies comparing <span class=\""highlight\"">organic and conventional produce consistently find that organic fruits and vegetables are higher in beneficial phytochemicals and have a higher concentration of bioactive compounds with antioxidant properties</span>, which may reduce risk of certain diseases including cancer and heart disease.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Research has shown that <span class=\""highlight\"">organic produce contains significantly lower levels of pesticide residues compared to conventionally grown foods</span>. While regulatory limits for conventional produce are considered safe, epidemiological studies have linked long-term, low-dose exposure to certain pesticides with <span class=\""highlight\"">increased risk of certain cancers, neurodegenerative diseases, and developmental disorders</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Conventional agricultural methods that rely heavily on antibiotics in livestock production have been associated with the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria</span>, which can pose significant public health risks. Organic farming prohibits the routine use of antibiotics and emphasizes preventive health measures for animals.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The relationship between agricultural methods and health outcomes is complex and influenced by many factors including individual dietary patterns, genetic susceptibility, and overall lifestyle. Both organic and conventional foods can be part of a healthy diet.""}]",,51
+683,Which acts besides the CPSA can lead to penalties under section 19?,"['The notice of noncompliance informs the firm of which statutes, rules, regulations, standards, or bans have been violated, and it specifies the prohibited acts that have occurred. The prohibited acts are found in section 19 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2068; section 4 of the FHSA, 15 U.S.C. § 1263; section 3 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. § 1192; and sections 403, 502, and 602 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;CA), 21 U.S.C. §§ 343, 352, and 362 for violations involving foods, drugs, and cosmetics subject to the special packaging standards under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA). Violations of the RSA, VGBA, and CGBPA are prohibited acts under section 19 of the CPSA. The LOA will provide the maximum sanctions to which the firm and/or individual may be subject. Generally, the LOA will not contain specific details regarding penalties, but it will refer to this Handbook for assistance in determining the applicable penalties available under the CPSA, FHSA, FFA, PPPA (enforced through the FHSA and Food Drug &amp;Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;CA)) and the RSA, VGBA, and CGBPA (enforced through the CPSA). ## PENALTIES AVAILABLE UNDER THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) Civil Penalties under the CPSA -Under section 20 of the CPSA, any person who knowingly 1 violates section 19 of the CPSA shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100,000 for each such violation. 2 With some exceptions, a violation of section 19(a)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), or (11), shall constitute a separate offense with respect to each individual consumer product involved, except that the maximum civil penalty shall not exceed $15.15 million for any related series of violations. (76 Federal Register 71554-55, November 18, 2011)', ""When the CPSC staff notifies you in a LOA that a product that you manufacture, import, distribute, sell, or offer for sale fails to comply with a CPSC statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, you may present evidence supporting your view if you disagree with staff's determination. The LOA will state that the firm may present evidence that a violation does not exist or that a product is not covered by the applicable statute or regulation. The letter will indicate to whom the response should be addressed and will give you a timeframe for the expected response. You may submit, to the indicated recipient, all evidence and arguments that support why you believe the product is not violative; not subject to a specific statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban; or, should not be refused admission in the United States (if the violation involves an import detained at the port) or seized by CBP. A firm may respond to a notice of noncompliance orally or in writing, and the firm may request an informal hearing to meet personally with Office of Compliance or Import Surveillance Division staff to present orally views and evidence. Such evidence may consist of: - · results from testing that supports certificates of compliance; - · results of tests indicating the product complies with the applicable regulation; - · any other relevant data to support the claim of compliance. - · marketing data indicating the product is not intended for the population group protected by the regulation or standard; or ## CPSC RESPONSE TO FIRM RESPONSE Any additional evidence or arguments that a firm presents are reviewed by the appropriate CPSC Office of Compliance or Import Surveillance Division staff, including appropriate technical and legal staff. If the information you present, in the staff's opinion, does not refute staff's claim that the product is violative or covered by a specific statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, Commission staff, as a general rule, will notify you in writing before staff pursues any enforcement action against the products or your firm."", ""- 7. Children's Gasoline Burn Prevention Act (CGBPA), 110 P.L. 278. This Handbook has been developed to assist manufacturers, importers, retailers and others in the regulated community (firms) in understanding their responsibilities under the Acts and what steps they should take when either the CPSC staff informs them, or they become aware of, a violation of CPSC statutes and regulations. When CPSC staff determines that a product violates a specific statute or regulation, CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations generally notifies the responsible firm (the product manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer) of the violation and requests a specific remediation of the problem. Notification to the responsible firm is usually in the form of an official letter, referred to in this Handbook as the Letter of Advice or a Notice of Noncompliance from the Office of Compliance and Field Operations (collectively referred to in this Handbook as LOA). Firms should review this Handbook in conjunction with the LOA sent by CPSC staff that identifies the applicable statutes and regulations violated. The LOA informs the firm of the specific product and violation that has occurred; requests that the firm take specific corrective actions (including stopping the sale and distribution of the product; recalling the product from distributors, retailers, and/or consumers; quarantining and disposing of inventory of the product; and changing future production of the product); and informs the firm of the legal actions available to the Commission (including civil and criminal penalties and injunctive relief). In addition, the LOA informs the firm that if it disagrees with CPSC staff's determination that a violation has occurred or believes the product is not subject to the Commission's jurisdiction, it may question staff's findings and present evidence to support its position. See Chapter 3 of this Handbook. After reviewing the information in the chapters that follow, please direct any questions to the appropriate CPSC Compliance Officer or the Office of Compliance and Field Operations at Sect15@cpsc.gov. ## CHAPTER 1 - BASIC PRINCIPLES ## HOW CPSC ENFORCES ITS STATUTES"", ""Following is a discussion of these limitations. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA) The Commission's regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1019.33(a) states that the Commission interprets the provisions of the CPSA to prohibit the export of products that fail to comply with an applicable consumer product safety standard or banning rule issued under that Act if those products have at any time been distributed in commerce for use in the United States. Therefore, export of such products can take place only if the CPSC exercises its discretion not to prevent their export. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE FEDERAL HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCES ACT (FHSA) The Commission's regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1019.33(b) states that the Commission interprets the provisions of the FHSA to prohibit the export of products that are misbranded hazardous substances or banned hazardous substances if those products have at any time been sold or offered for sale in domestic commerce. Therefore, export of such banned or misbranded hazardous substances can take place only if the CPSC exercises its discretion not to prevent their export. ## PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA) In accordance with section 15(c) of the FFA, the Commission requires notification before any person exports a product that fails to comply with an applicable flammability safety standard issued under that Act. Therefore, export of such products can take place only if the CPSC receives the required notification. ## PROHIBITIONS ON EXPORTATION In accordance with section 18(c) of the CPSA, section 5(b)(3) of the FHSA, and section 15(d) of the FFA, the Commission may prohibit the exportation of any product regulated under these statutes. Under section 17(e) of the CPSA, products refused admission shall be destroyed unless, upon application by the owner, consignee, or importer of record, the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury permits the export of the product in lieu of destruction. If the product is not exported within 90 days of approval, the product will be destroyed. 14"", 'Upon request, the manufacturer or private labeler issuing the certificate must furnish a copy of the certificate to the Commission. ## ELECTRONIC FILING OF CERTIFICATES FOR IMPORTED PRODUCTS Section 14(g)(4) of the CPSA authorizes the Commission, in consultation with CBP, to provide for the electronic filing of certificates up to 24 hours before arrival of an imported product. Upon request, the manufacturer or private labeler issuing the certificate must furnish a copy to the Commission and to CBP. ## CHAPTER 2 - SANCTIONS UNDER CPSC STATUTES With the enactment of various statutes administered by the CPSC, Congress provided specific sanctions that may be imposed against firms or individuals that violate any provision of the statutes. These sanctions include both civil penalties, up to a maximum of $15.15 million (76 Federal Register 71554, November 18, 2011); and criminal penalties, including a fine, imprisonment of the responsible individual(s) for not more than five years, and forfeiture of assets associated with the criminal violation(s). In addition, firms and individuals may be enjoined from continuing to violate CPSC statutes and regulations, and pursuant to court order, violative products may be seized to prevent distribution in commerce. ## PENALTIES The CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations issues a letter of advice (LOA) to the responsible individual and firm when a product is found to violate a CPSC statute, safety standard, or banning regulation. The notice of noncompliance informs the firm of which statutes, rules, regulations, standards, or bans have been violated, and it specifies the prohibited acts that have occurred.']",medium,answer,"Besides the CPSA, the following acts can lead to penalties under section 19: the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), the Flammable Fabrics Act (FFA), the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) (enforced through the FHSA and FD&CA), the Refrigerator Safety Act (RSA), the Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Safety Act (VGBA), and the Children's Gasoline Burn Prevention Act (CGBPA).",5,Consumer product safety regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The notice of noncompliance informs the firm of which statutes, rules, regulations, standards, or bans have been violated, and it specifies the prohibited acts that have occurred. The prohibited acts are found in <span class=\""highlight\"">section 19 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 2068; section 4 of the FHSA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 1263; section 5 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 1194; and section 4(i) of the PPPA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 1473(i)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Besides the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA), the other acts that can lead to penalties under section 19 include the <span class=\""highlight\"">Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA)</span>, the <span class=\""highlight\"">Flammable Fabrics Act (FFA)</span>, and the <span class=\""highlight\"">Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In addition to the CPSA, <span class=\""highlight\"">violations of any rule, regulation, standard, ban, or order under these other Acts (FHSA, FFA, PPPA) can lead to civil penalties as described in section 20 and 21 of the Consumer Product Safety Act</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When determining the amount of any civil penalty, the Commission must consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, including the nature of the product defect, the severity of the risk of injury, the occurrence or absence of injury, and other appropriate factors.""}]",,52
+5637,Why do the lights dance differently on fast boats?,"['## § 84.18 Maneuvering light Notwithstanding the provisions of § 84.02(f), the maneuvering light described in Rule 34(b) (§ 83.34(b) of this chapter) shall be placed approximately in the same fore and aft vertical plane as the masthead light or lights and, where practicable, at a minimum height of one-half meter vertically above the forward masthead light, provided that it shall be carried not less than one-half meter vertically above or below the after masthead light. On a vessel where only one masthead light is carried the maneuvering light, if fitted, shall be carried where it can best be seen, not less than one-half meter vertically apart from the masthead light. ## § 84.19 High-speed Craft (a) The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth lower than that prescribed in § 84.02(a)(i), provided that the base angle of the isosceles triangle formed by the sidelights and masthead light when seen in end elevation is not less than 27°. (b) On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required by § 84.02(k) may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the following formula: $$y = \\frac { ( a + 1 7 \\Psi ) C } { 1 0 0 0 } + 2 \\ ;$$ where: - y is the height of the mainmast light above the foremast light in meters; - a is the height of the foremast light above the water surface in service condition in meters; - Ψ is the trim in service condition in degrees; - C is the horizontal separation of masthead lights in meters. NOTE TO § 84.19: Refer to the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 1994 and the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 2000 ## § 84.20 Approval The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board a vessel must satisfy the Commandant, U. S. Coast Guard. ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II', '## 13. High-speed Craft * (a) The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft lower than that prescribed in paragraph 2(a)(i) of this annex, provided that the base angle of the isosceles triangles formed by the sidelights and masthead light, when seen in end elevation, is not less than 27°. (b) On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required by paragraph 2(a)(ii) of this annex may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the following formula: ## where: - y is the height of the mainmast light above the foremast light in meters; - a is the height of the foremast light above the water surface in service condition in meters; - Ψ is the trim in service conditions in degrees; - C is the horizontal separation of masthead lights in meters. - * Refer to the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 1994 and the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 2000. ## 14. Approval The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board the vessel shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the State whose flag the vessel is entitled to fly. ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED ## § 84.17 Intensity of non-electric lights Non-electric lights shall so far as practicable comply with the minimum intensities, as specified in the Table 84.14(b). ## § 84.18 Maneuvering light', '## § 84.01 Definitions - (a) The term height above the hull means height above the uppermost continuous deck. This height shall be measured from the position vertically beneath the location of the light. - (b) High speed craft -means a craft capable of maximum speed in meters per second (m/s) equal to or exceeding: 3.7 ∇ 0.1667 ; where ∇ = displacement corresponding to the design waterline (cubic meters). NOTE TO PARAGRAPH (b): The same formula expressed in pounds and knots is maximum speed in knots (kts) equal to exceeding 1.98(lbs) 3.7 ∇ 0.1667 ; where ∇ =displacement corresponding to design waterline in pounds. - (c) The term practical cutoff means, for vessels 20 meters or more in length, 12.5 percent of the minimum luminous intensity (Table 84.15(b)) corresponding to the greatest range of visibility for which the requirements of Annex I (33 CFR part 84) are met. - (d) The term Rule or Rules has the same meaning as in 33 CFR 83.03(r). ## § 84.02 Vertical positioning and spacing of lights - (a) On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length the masthead lights shall be placed as follows: - (i) The forward masthead light, or if only one masthead light is carried, then that light, at a height above the hull of not less than 5 meters, and, if the breadth of the vessel exceeds 5 meters, then at a height above the hull not less than such breadth, so however that the light need not be placed at a greater height above the hull than 8 meters. - (ii) When two masthead lights are carried the after one shall be at least 2 meters vertically higher than the forward one. - (b) The vertical separation of the masthead lights of power-driven vessels shall be such that in all normal conditions of trim the after light will be seen over and separate from the forward light at a distance of 1000 meters from the stem when viewed from water level.']",hard,answer,"The lights on fast boats, or high-speed craft, may appear to 'dance differently' because their positioning and spacing can vary from standard vessels due to specific regulations. For high-speed craft, the masthead light can be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft, which may be lower than prescribed for other vessels, provided the base angle of the isosceles triangle formed by the sidelights and masthead light is not less than 27°. Additionally, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast lights on high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length can be modified based on a specific formula that accounts for factors like the height of the foremast light, trim in service condition, and horizontal separation of masthead lights. These adjustments are designed to ensure visibility and safety while accommodating the unique operational characteristics of high-speed craft.",3,High-speed vessel lighting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The lights on fast boats, or high-speed craft, may appear to 'dance differently' because <span class=\""highlight\"">high-speed craft may exhibit all-round flashing yellow lights when they are required to be exhibited by vessels of their type, in addition to the lights required by the general rules</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 84.18 Maneuvering light - <span class=\""highlight\"">Notwithstanding the provisions of \u00a7 84.02(f), the maneuvering light described in Rule 34(b) (\u00a7 83.34(b) of this chapter) shall be placed approximately in the same fore and aft vertical plane as the masthead light or lights and, where practicable, at a minimum height of one-half meter vertically above the forward masthead light</span>. This creates a different visual pattern than standard vessel lighting.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""High-speed craft's lights may appear to dance differently because <span class=\""highlight\"">when operating at high speeds, these vessels tend to plane (ride on top of the water), causing the hull to tilt at different angles</span> as they navigate through waves and turns, which makes their navigation lights appear to move more dynamically compared to displacement vessels.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additionally, <span class=\""highlight\"">Rule 23(b) specifies that high-speed craft less than 50 meters in length may carry an all-round flashing yellow light, which creates a distinct visual pattern</span> not seen on conventional vessels. This flashing yellow light serves as an additional identification and warning signal due to the high speeds at which these craft operate.""}]",,53
 3604,What are the requirements for a vessel entering a VMRS area?,"[""Section 6 of the Act states: - (a) Whenever radiotelephone capability is required by this Act, a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall be maintained in effective operating condition. If the radiotelephone equipment carried aboard a vessel ceases to operate, the master shall exercise due diligence to restore it or cause it to be restored to effective operating condition at the earliest practicable time. The failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment shall not, in itself, constitute a violation of this Act, nor shall it obligate the master of any vessel to moor or anchor his vessel; however, the loss of radiotelephone capability shall be given consideration in the navigation of the vessel. ## § 26.07 Communications. No person may use the services of, and no person may serve as, a person required to maintain a listening watch under section 5 of the Act, 33 U.S.C. 1204, unless the person can communicate in the English language. ## § 26.08 Exemption procedures. - (a) The Commandant has redelegated to the Assistant Commandant for Prevention Policy, U.S. Coast Guard Headquarters, with the reservation that this authority shall not be further redelegated, the authority to grant exemptions from provisions of the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act and this part. - (b) Any person may petition for an exemption from any provision of the Act or this part; - (c) Each petition must be submitted in writing to Commandant (CG-DCO-D), Attn: Deputy for Operations Policy and Capabilities, U.S. Coast Guard Stop 7318, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20593-7318, and must state: - (1) The provisions of the Act or this part from which an exemption is requested; and - (2) The reasons why marine navigation will not be adversely affected if the exemption is granted and if the exemption relates to a local communication system how that system would fully comply with the intent of the concept of the Act but would not conform in detail if the exemption is granted. ## VESSEL BRIDGE-TO-BRIDGE RADIOTELEPHONE -CONTINUED ## § 26.09 List of Exemptions."", ""161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur. (d) Nothing in this part is intended to relieve any vessel, owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel from the consequences of any neglect to comply with this part or any other applicable law or regulation (e.g., the International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) or the Inland Navigation Rules) or of the neglect of any precaution which may be required by the ordinary practice of seamen, or by the special circumstances of the case. ## § 161.2 Definitions. For the purposes of this part: Center means a Vessel Traffic Center or Vessel Movement Center. Cooperative Vessel Traffic Services (CVTS) means the system of vessel traffic management established and jointly operated by the United States and Canada within adjoining waters. In addition, CVTS facilitates traffic movement and anchorages, avoids jurisdictional disputes, and renders assistance in emergencies in adjoining United States and Canadian waters. Hazardous Vessel Operating Condition means any condition related to a vessel's ability to safely navigate or maneuver, and includes, but is not limited to: - (1) The absence or malfunction of vessel operating equipment, such as propulsion machinery, steering gear, radar system, gyrocompass, depth sounding device, automatic System - radar plotting aid (ARPA), radiotelephone, Automatic Identification equipment, navigational lighting, sound signaling devices or similar equipment. - (2) Any condition on board the vessel likely to impair navigation, such as lack of current nautical charts and publications, personnel shortage, or similar condition. - (3) Vessel characteristics that affect or restrict maneuverability, such as cargo or tow arrangement, trim, loaded condition, underkeel or overhead clearance, speed capabilities, power availability, or similar characteristics, which may affect the positive control or safe handling of the vessel or the tow. Navig able waters means all navigable waters of the United States including the territorial sea of the United States, extending to 12 nautical miles from United States baselines, as described in Presidential Proclamation No. 5928 of December 27, 1988."", ""Navig able waters means all navigable waters of the United States including the territorial sea of the United States, extending to 12 nautical miles from United States baselines, as described in Presidential Proclamation No. 5928 of December 27, 1988. Precautionary Area means a routing measure comprising an area within defined limits where vessels must navigate with particular caution and within which the direction of traffic may be recommended. Published means available in a widely-distributed and publicly available medium (e.g., VTS User's Manual, ferry schedule, Notice to Mariners). Towing Vessel means any commercial vessel engaged in towing another vessel astern, alongside, or by pushing ahead. Vessel Movement Center (VMC) means the shore-based facility that operates the vessel tracking system for a Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) area or zone within such an area. The VMC does not necessarily have the capability or qualified personnel to interact with marine traffic, nor does it necessarily respond to traffic situations developing in the area, as does a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) means a mandatory reporting system used to monitor and track vessel movements. This is accomplished by a vessel providing information under established procedures as set forth in this part in the areas defined in Table 161.12(c) (VTS and VMRS Centers, Call Signs/MMSI, Designated Frequencies, and Monitoring Areas). Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) User means a vessel, or an owner, operator, charterer, Master, or person directing the movement of a vessel that is required to participate in a VMRS. Vessel Traffic Center (VTC) means the shore-based facility that operates the vessel traffic service for the Vessel Traffic Service area or zone within such an area. Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) means a service implemented by the United States Coast Guard designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment. The VTS has the capability to interact with marine traffic and respond to traffic situations developing in the VTS area."", '- A vessel must report its name and position: - (a) Upon point of entry into a VMRS area; - (b) At designated reporting points as set forth in subpart C; or - (c) When directed by the Center. ## § 161.21 Automated reporting. - (a) Unless otherwise directed, vessels equipped with an Automatic Identification System (AIS) are required to make continuous, all stations, AIS broadcasts, in lieu of voice Position Reports, to those Centers denoted in Table 161.12(c) of this part. - (b) Should an AIS become non-operational, while or prior to navigating a VMRS area, it should be restored to operating condition as soon as possible, and, until restored a vessel must: - (1) Notify the Center; - (2) Make voice radio Position Reports at designated reporting points as required by § 161.20(b) of this part; and - (3) Make any other reports as directed by the Center. ## § 161.22 Final Report (FR). - A vessel must report its name and position: - (a) On arrival at its destination; or - (b) When leaving a VTS area ## § 161.23 Reporting exemptions. - (a) Unless otherwise directed, the following vessels are exempted from providing Position and Final Reports due to the nature of their operation: - (1) Vessels on a published schedule and route; - (2) Vessels operating within an area of a radius of three nautical miles or less; or - (3) Vessels escorting another vessel or assisting another vessel in maneuvering procedures. - (b) A vessel described in paragraph (a) of this section must: - (1) Provide a Sailing Plan at least 5 minutes but not more than 15 minutes before navigating within the VMRS area; and - (2) If it departs from its promulgated schedule by more than 15 minutes or changes its limited operating area, make the established VMRS reports, or report as directed. ## Subpart C-Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points NOTE: All geographic coordinates contained in part 161 (latitude and longitude) are expressed in North American Datum of 1983 (NAD 83).', ""radiotelephone. 26.07 Communications. 26.08 Exemption procedures. 26.09 List of exemptions. ## § 26.01 Purpose. (a) The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of the Vessel Bridgeto-Bridge Radiotelephone Act. This part: - (1) Requires the use of the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone; - (2) Provides the Coast Guard's interpretation of the meaning of important terms in the Act; - (3) Prescribes the procedures for applying for an exemption from the Act and the regulations issued under the Act and a listing of exemptions. - (b) Nothing in this part relieves any person from the obligation of complying with the rules of the road and the applicable pilot rules. ## § 26.02 Definitions. For the purpose of this part and interpreting the Act: Act means the 'Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act', 33 U.S.C. sections 1201-1208; Length Powerdriven vessel Secretary operating; is measured from end to end over the deck excluding sheer; means any vessel propelled by machinery; and means the Secretary of the Department in which the Coast Guard is Territorial sea means all waters as defined in §2.22(a)(1) ‡ of this chapter. Towing vessel means any commercial vessel engaged in towing another vessel astern, alongside, or by pushing ahead. Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) means a service implemented under Part 161 of this chapter by the United States Coast Guard designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment. The VTS has the capability to interact with marine traffic and respond to traffic situations developing in the VTS area. Vessel Traffic Service Area or VTS Area means the geographical area encompassing a specific VTS area of service as described in Part 161 of this chapter. This area of service may be subdivided into zones for the purpose of allocating responsibility to individual Vessel Traffic Centers or to identify different operating requirements.""]",easy,answer,"According to the provided context, the requirements for a vessel entering a Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) area are as follows:
 
 1. **Initial Report**: A vessel must report its name and position upon entry into a VMRS area, at designated reporting points, or when directed by the Center (§ 161.20).
@@ -146,10 +146,10 @@ Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
    - Vessels on a published schedule and route.
    - Vessels operating within a radius of three nautical miles or less.
    - Vessels escorting or assisting another vessel in maneuvering procedures.
-   These exempt vessels must still provide a Sailing Plan 5-15 minutes before navigating within the VMRS area and report any deviations from their schedule or operating area (§ 161.23).",5,Vessel Movement Reporting System,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When vessel navigates in VMRS, master ensures: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) Reports made at designated reporting points/times in established format; (2) Reports include vessel name, type, position, course, speed, and other required information</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Reports made to designated VMRS Control Center on designated frequency using G3E operations, whenever practicable, on designated secondary frequency using J3E operations</span>. Reports in English language.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Upon entry into VMRS area, master must report: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) Vessel name and type; (2) Position; (3) Destination and ETA; (4) Intended route; (5) Exit time/point; (6) Additional requested information</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When not exchanging voice communications, a continuous listening watch shall be maintained on the designated frequency.""}]",,54
-1634,Why is screening for food insecurity important in clinical settings?,"['135 In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ, people who have a disability or who live in a rural community, and others who have historically been excluded), thus further increasing health inequities. Strategies aimed at the general population are often less effective among racial/ethnic minority groups and those of low socioeconomic status. Initiatives must address the unique challenges and barriers that certain groups often face when attempting to modify lifestyle behaviors, with culturally appropriate tailoring and equitable support to promote healthy behaviors. Trends in excess body weight among youth are also a significant public health concern; children with obesity are more likely than normal-weight children to become adults with obesity, and their obesity in adulthood is likely to be more severe. 136 Promoting obesity prevention and positive lifestyle behaviors during youth is more effective, and often more successful, than efforts to change unhealthy patterns of behavior in adult populations. 137 Therefore, creating health-promoting and antiobesogenic environments that make it easier for children to establish positive eating and physical activity behaviors early in life are critical. ## Improving Healthy Eating and Active Living-Related Environments Effective strategies are being tested to address healthy ating and active living by numerous organizations that have e reated c evidence-based recommendations, including the WHO, 138 the National Academy of Medicine, 139 the CDC, the WCRF/AICR, and the American Heart Association. 4 140 A consensus among these recommendations is a call for policy and systems change, the identification of key environments to promote change, and the need for multiple sectors to work collaboratively to reduce barriers to healthy eating and active living, particularly among lower income and racial/ethnic minority and rural communities. Thus, health promotion considerations should be incorporated into urban, rural, and regional planning and development. To reduce health-related inequities among specific population groups, communitybased approaches should be adapted to meet the needs of the target community. 139', 'theco mmuni tygui de.org/topic/ exces sive-alcoh ol-consu mptio n?field\\_recom menda tion\\_tid = All&amp;items\\_per\\_page = 5 - 146. Grant RW, Schmittdiel JA, Neugebauer RS, Uratsu CS, Sternfeld B. Exercise as a vital sign: a quasi-experimental analysis of a health system intervention to collect patient-reported exercise levels. J Gen Intern Med. 2014;29:341-348. - 147. Golightly YM, Allen KD, Ambrose KR, et al. Physical activity as a vital sign: a systematic review. Prev Chronic Dis. 2017;14:E123. - 148. Nutrition &amp; Obesity Network (NOPREN). Clinical Linkages. Accessed July 31, 2019. nopren.org/worki ng\\_group s/foodsecur ity/clini cal-linka ges/ - 149. US Preventive Services Task Force, Curry SJ, Krist AH, et al. Behavioral weight loss interventions to prevent obesityrelated morbidity and mortality in adults: US Preventive Services Task Force recommendation statement. JAMA. 2018;320: 1163-1171. - 150. US Preventive Services Task Force, Curry SJ, Krist AH, et al. Screening and behavioral counseling interventions to reduce unhealthy alcohol use in adolescents and adults: US Preventive Services Task Force recommendation statement. JAMA. 2018;320:1899-1909. - 151. Anderson CAM, Thorndike AN, Lichtenstein AH, et al. Innovation to create a healthy and sustainable food system: a science advisory from the American Heart Association. Circulation. 2019;139: e1025-e1032. - 152. Pate RR, Flynn JI, Dowda M. Policies for promotion of physical activity and prevention of obesity in adolescence. J Exerc Sci Fit. 2016;14:47-53.', '## Clinical Strategies to Promote Healthy Eating and Active Living and Limiting Alcohol Among the key partners to promote cancer preventive behaviors are the health care providers and the health care systems in which clinical services are provided. Although few programs have comprehensive uptake across systems, the Exercise Is Medicine (exerc iseis medic ine.org/) and Park Prescriptions America (parkr xamer ica.org) initiatives provide a prototype of how routine screening of physical activity behaviors and exercise prescriptions may support individual improvements in physical activity behaviors. Incorporation of questions about exercise as a vital sign-asked during routine visits just as blood pressure and weight are measured-has been associated with modest weight loss and lower hemoglobin A1c levels, 146 with growing evidence of these effects. 147 The Walk with a Doc program also promotes community-clinical linkages by encouraging providers to start doctor-led walking groups to promote walking as a health-enhancing behavior among their patients (walkw ithad oc.org). Screening for food insecurity is also an important factor to identify those individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention. Health care providers can be a valuable referral source to community efforts designed to support food insecure community members, such as food assistance programs, food banks, voucher programs to retail stores and farmers markets, and more. 148 Inclusion of questions related to food choices as a vital sign during routine clinical encounters may also promote healthful eating behaviors. Furthermore, health care insurance communities provide a resource to support new program initiatives with a focus not only on changes in diet and activity behaviors but also on cost incentives and savings that are critical to the sustainability of health promotion programs. These partnerships warrant further attention and evaluation to attain optimal health for all individuals.']",medium,answer,"Screening for food insecurity in clinical settings is important because it helps identify individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention. Health care providers can then refer these individuals to community efforts designed to support food-insecure community members, such as food assistance programs, food banks, voucher programs to retail stores and farmers markets, and more. This approach ensures that those in need receive the necessary support to maintain healthful eating behaviors.",3,Nutrition and healthcare screening,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Cancer clinicians can <span class=\""highlight\"">identify individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention by implementing routine screening for food insecurity</span> and identifying barriers to consuming nutrient-rich foods.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Screening for food insecurity is critical because food insecurity is associated with poor diet quality, which increases cancer risk. Clinicians can refer patients to food assistance programs</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Addressing food insecurity can help reduce health disparities in cancer outcomes among vulnerable populations.""}]",,55
-4789,How does the environment influence activity levels?,"['139,151,152 Various public policies designed to improve dietary patterns have demonstrated positive impacts. Initiatives in nutrition assistance programs, including the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children Program (WIC) and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), which allow for and provide incentives for healthy food purchases such as vegetables and fruit, have resulted in healthier food purchases and dietary patterns 152 and could result in substantial health benefits. 153 Standards for foods and beverages served in schools and in early childcare and education settings help to ensure youth are exposed to nutrient-dense options and that energy-dense options are limited. 154 And, although research is mixed regarding the results of the overall impact of menu labeling legislation, it is possible that labeling is more effective in specific types of restaurants and that restaurants are reformulating menu items in part because of this legislation. 155 Numerous recommended policy approaches to promote more lifelong physical activity among Americans include a variety of policies designed to impact youth: comprehensive school physical activity programing, including high-quality physical education and daily recess; requirements for physical activity in afterschool and in early childcare programs; and active transport opportunities to school, among others, all have the potential to increase physical activity levels among youth. 152 Funding that continues to expand and support community design that facilitates active transport (eg, complete streets policies), that expands and improves zoning policies that encourage mixed-use development, and that invests in more public transportation options will also be important to facilitate more physically active lifestyles. 111 Finally, it is well established that raising excise taxes on tobacco products leads to higher prices, which, in turn, cause declines in consumption, and recent research suggests that raising excise taxes on sugar-sweetened beverages and alcohol also can reduce consumption of these products. 156,157 Tax revenues, in turn, can be reallocated back to promote societal well-being. 158', ""Frequently, a plethora of 'fast-food' restaurants and convenience stores also is readily available in these communities. 125,126 Thus residents with limited access to neighborhood supermarkets often purchase foods at local convenience stores, where fewer perishables, such as fresh produce, and more highly processed convenience items are readily available. Even in neighborhoods where supermarkets are readily available, low-income residents may continue to purchase less expensive, energy-dense foods; studies have suggested that foods of lower diet quality make up a greater proportion of the dietary patterns of lower income individuals compared with individuals who have higher incomes. 127-129 The neighborhoods where people live can also affect their alcohol consumption. This is especially true in neighborhoods in which convenience and liquor stores are overconcentrated 128,129 and where alcohol is heavily promoted by commercial interests 130,131 Disparities in the built environment also affect physical activity patterns. Safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks and trails, bicycle paths, and workout facilities and gyms as well as the availability of public transit all provide additional opportunities for daily physical activity. Sidewalks and bicycle paths within close proximity and connected to residential areas with common or everyday destinations, retail stores, jobs, schools, childcare, and recreation centers also promote more physically active lifestyles 132-134 Yet significantly fewer sports areas, parks, greenways, well-maintained sidewalks, and bike paths are available in areas of poverty compared with more affluent areas. Even when these facilities are available, transportation and financial barriers often provide challenges to use for lower-income populations. Connecting public transportation systems to everyday destinations can promote active travel, 134 and connecting public transportation to jobs may help address, in part, economic disparities and poverty. Efforts to be inclusive of persons with disabilities will also require that built environment and programmatic opportunities to be physically active are both available and accessible to all people regardless of age and abilities. Campaigns and initiatives to promote walking and walkable communities should be inclusive of those who walk and those who rely on assistive equipment or wheelchairs for mobility. 135"", ""121 Therefore, the ability of an individual to avoid many unhealthy lifestyle factors, including those related to food and beverage intake and physical inactivity, is often influenced by factors outside of his or her direct control. The factors contributing to trends in excess body weight specifically are complex and multifaceted, and reversing these trends will require a broad range of innovative, coordinated, and multilevel strategies that engage a variety of stakeholders; involve multiple systems and sectors (food and agriculture, transportation, urban planning, childcare centers, schools, employers, health care, and more); and emphasize policy, system, and environmental changes. 113 Therefore this guideline addresses the importance of public, private, and community organizations working collaboratively at national, state, and local levels to develop, advocate for, and implement policy, system, and environmental changes to reduce obesogenic environments and promote access to affordable, nutritious foods and provide safe, enjoyable, and accessible opportunities for physical activity for all individuals. Although most Americans face obstacles to engaging in health-promoting behaviors, these challenges are often compounded for lower income individuals, racial and ethnic minority groups, persons with disabilities, and those residing in rural communities, who frequently face additional barriers to the adoption of cancer-preventive behaviors. 122 Importantly, these barriers contribute in part to the greater health disparities documented among certain populations. 123 For instance, access to supermarkets has been associated with improved diet quality, increased consumption of fruits and vegetables, and a lower prevalence of obesity. 124 Communities with a greater proportion of ethnic minorities and residents with low socioeconomic status are often also identified as low-income and lowaccess areas, characterized by fewer supermarkets with healthy, affordable, high-quality foods. In these areas, residents may not have the economic resources to purchase adequate and nutritious food to feed themselves and their families. Frequently, a plethora of 'fast-food' restaurants and convenience stores also is readily available in these communities.""]",hard,answer,"The environment significantly influences activity levels through various factors. Safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks, trails, bicycle paths, and workout facilities, as well as the availability of public transit, provides opportunities for daily physical activity. Sidewalks and bicycle paths connected to residential areas with common destinations like retail stores, jobs, schools, and recreation centers promote more physically active lifestyles. However, disparities exist, with fewer sports areas, parks, greenways, well-maintained sidewalks, and bike paths available in low-income areas compared to more affluent ones. Additionally, transportation and financial barriers can hinder the use of these facilities by lower-income populations. Connecting public transportation systems to everyday destinations can promote active travel and help address economic disparities. Efforts to include persons with disabilities in built environment and programmatic opportunities are also essential for promoting physical activity for all individuals.",3,Built environment and physical activity,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks, trails, bicycle paths, and workout facilities is essential for physical activity. Community design influences activity levels. Residential density, distance to destinations, and land use diversity all associated with activity levels</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Activity-friendly routes and everyday destinations create an environment that makes it safe and easy for people to be active</span>. Well-connected sidewalks, bicycle paths, and trails can increase walking/bicycling by 48%.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Weather conditions and seasonal variations also affect activity patterns, with decreased physical activity during extreme temperatures or inclement weather.""}]",,56
-2579,How should a reviewer assess an applicant's single minor offense compared to multiple offenses?,"['## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Require CE providers to electronically report class attendance to the state insurance department or its designated vendor. - · Set a reasonable deadline for CE providers to deliver electronic reports. - · Require CE providers to promptly issue attendance certificates, or certificates of completion for self-study courses, and require producers to retain them. The certificates should be sent only to the state insurance department in the event of a dispute. - · Provide access for producers and insurers to department records to monitor CE credits on file. - · Implement an audit program to observe and evaluate CE providers and instructors. - · Participate in the NAIC Personalized Information Capture System (PICS) to receive alerts or monitor actions against existing licensees. 5 ## Chapter 15 ## Reporting of Actions and Compensation Disclosure ## Reporting of Actions Section 17 of the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) requires a producer to report, to all states in which the producer is licensed, any administrative action taken against the producer in another jurisdiction or by another governmental agency in this state within 30 days of the final disposition of the matter. Producers are also required to report any criminal prosecution of the producer taken in any jurisdiction within 30 days of the initial pretrial hearing date. The challenge for producers is that it can be difficult to ensure that all relevant states received the report. The National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) has created an electronic solution, called Reporting of Actions (ROA), to facilitate the distribution of one report to multiple states. States should encourage the use of this electronic process to save time and create an electronic record of timely submission. State licensing directors should have a method to receive these reports and refer them for investigation. The director should consider giving staff limited authority to review and clear reports that include violations such as traffic citations or certain misdemeanors. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Use the Attachment Warehouse/ROA system to receive electronic notifications to alert a state when an individual or business entity producer has added information into the Attachment Warehouse since their initial entry regarding administrative, criminal or civil actions. ## Compensation Disclosure', ""- · Resident vs. Nonresident If the application is for a resident producer license, it is incumbent upon the resident state to scrutinize all 'yes' answers on the application and to request and obtain documentation and a detailed explanation for all criminal charges. Nonresident applicants' criminal histories should also be documented and explained with consideration given the fact that the resident state has already issued a license to the applicant. - · Severity and Nature of the Offense Felony convictions should always be considered in determining whether to issue a license to an individual and may require the applicant to apply for a 1033 consent waiver prior to application (see the section on 1033 consent waivers). A criminal conviction is only relevant to the licensing decision if the crime is related to the qualifications, functions or duties of an insurance producer. Examples include theft; burglary; robbery; dishonesty; fraud; breach of trust or breach of fiduciary duties; any conviction arising out of acts performed in the business of insurance; or any actions not consistent with public health, safety and welfare. Special scrutiny should be given to financial and violent crimes. - · Frequency of Offenses While a producer's past criminal history is a red flag and may be a predictor of future behavior, the frequency of offenses should be considered, with more weight given to a pattern of illegal behavior than to a one-time minor indiscretion. - · Date of the Offense The application form requires the applicant to disclose all criminal charges, except minor traffic offenses. A reviewer should consider when the offenses occurred and the age of the applicant at the time of the offense. - · Completion of Terms of Sentencing Applicants should provide evidence that they have completed all the terms of their sentences, including paying restitution or completing any probationary periods or community service. - · Evidence of Rehabilitation The applicant should be required to provide evidence of rehabilitation. Completion of the terms of sentencing alone does not demonstrate rehabilitation. A state may request a statement from the applicant's probation officer or other appropriate official. ## Statutory Obligations and Discretion"", ""When a producer's license has been suspended for a period of time that extends beyond the producer's license expiration date, reinstatement is not an option. The producer must request reissuance of a license and should not be allowed to merely apply for a new license by passing an examination and submitting a new application. The producer's request for reinstatement or reissuance must include sufficient information to allow the insurance department to determine whether the basis of the revocation, suspension or forfeiture of the applicant's license no longer exists and whether it will be in the public interest to grant the request for a new or reinstated license. The burden of proof to establish such facts is on the producer. In most states, the producer will have a right to an administrative hearing if the reinstatement request is denied. Some states allow a license to be voluntarily forfeited in lieu of compliance with an order of the insurance commissioner. In this scenario, a request for voluntary forfeiture of a license should be made in writing to the insurance commissioner. The written consent of the insurance commissioner is usually required. Forfeiture of a license is effective upon submission of the request, unless a contested case proceeding is pending at the time the request is submitted. If a contested case proceeding is pending at the time of the request, the forfeiture becomes effective when and upon such conditions as required by order of the insurance commissioner. A forfeiture made during the pendency of a contested case proceeding is usually considered a disciplinary action subject to reporting to the Regulatory Information Retrieval System (RIRS). ## Collaboration and Referrals Among State Insurance Regulators There are several NAIC tools to facilitate communication about enforcement actions among state insurance regulators. The NAIC's Market Actions (D) Working Group identifies and reviews insurance companies that are exhibiting or may exhibit characteristics indicating a current or potential market regulatory issue that may affect multiple jurisdictions. The Working Group determines if regulatory action should be taken and supports collaborative actions in addressing problems identified."", ""Model #218 contains two key sections that clarify when a license is not required. When considering whether to require a license, the states should carefully review Section 4 and Section 13 of Model #218. Section 4 of Model #218 contains a specific list of exceptions from the licensing requirement. The states should take special note of Section 4(B)(6), which provides an exception for producers placing commercial insurance for a multistate risk with an incidental exposure in several states. As the section provides, in this situation a license is only required in the state where the insured maintains its principal place of business and the contract of insurance insures risks located in that state. The following is a summary of types of persons and entities that are exempted from licensing: - 1. An officer, director or employee of an insurer or insurance producer, provided that the officer, director or employee does not receive any commission on policies written or sold to insure risks residing, located or to be performed in the state. - 2. A person who secures and furnishes information for, or enrolls individuals in, group life insurance, group property/casualty (P/C) insurance, group annuities, or group or blanket accident and health insurance. - 3. An employer or association; its officers, directors and employees; or the trustees of an employee trust plan. - 4. Employees of insurers or organizations employed by insurers who are engaging in the inspection, rating or classification of risks. - 5. A person whose activities in a state are limited to advertising without the intent to solicit insurance in that state. - 6. A person who is not a resident of a state who sells, solicits or negotiates a contract of insurance for commercial P/C risks to an insured with risks located in more than one state insured under that contract. - 7. A salaried, full-time employee who counsels or advises the employer relative to the insurance interests of the employer. ## Recommended Best Practice for State Insurance Regulators - · For uniformity purposes, states that still use a 'transaction-based licensure' approach should eliminate that standard and change to the Model #218 standard. ## Chapter 6 ## Prelicensing Education"", ""- · Defines the terms 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,''sell,''solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms. ## Section 3: License Required ## Section 4: Exceptions to Licensing - · Lists the persons and entities that do not need licenses, even though they participate in the insurance industry. ## Section 5: Application for Examination - · Requires that producers must pass an examination in the LOAs for which applications are made. - · Allows the use of outside testing services to administer examinations. ## Section 6: Application for License - · Sets forth the qualifications for licensure as an individual or business entity. - · Provides that limited line credit insurers must provide instruction to individuals who will sell credit insurance. ## Section 7: License - · Sets forth the six major LOAs, the limited line of credit insurance, and any other line of insurance permitted under state laws or regulations. - · Provides guidelines for license continuation and reinstatement. - · Provides for hardship exemptions for failure to comply with renewal procedures. - · Lists the information the license should contain. - · Requires licensees to notify the insurance commissioner of a legal change of name or address within 30 days of the change. ## Section 8: Nonresident Licensing - · Requires states to grant nonresident licenses to persons from reciprocal states for all LOAs held, including limited lines and surplus lines insurance, if those persons are currently licensed and in good standing in their home states. - · Requires a nonresident licensee who moves from one state to another to file a change of address and certification from the new resident state within 30 days with no fee or application. ## Section 9: Exemption from Examination - · Exempts licensed individuals who change their home state from prelicensing and examination. - · Requires a licensed nonresident who becomes a resident to register in the new home state within 90 days of establishing legal residence, unless 'the commissioner determines otherwise by regulation.' ## Section 10: Assumed Names - · Requires a producer to notify the insurance commissioner prior to using an assumed name.""]",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, a reviewer should assess an applicant's single minor offense differently from multiple offenses. For a single minor offense, the reviewer should consider the nature and severity of the offense, the date it occurred, and the age of the applicant at the time. More weight should be given to a pattern of illegal behavior (multiple offenses) than to a one-time minor indiscretion (single minor offense). Additionally, the reviewer should evaluate whether the applicant has completed all terms of sentencing and provided evidence of rehabilitation.",5,Insurance licensing evaluation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Nature and Severity: <span class=\""highlight\"">Minor offenses must be reviewed differently than major offenses. For minor offenses, regulators should weigh the offense in light of its age, relationship to the profession and rehabilitation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Age of Offense: <span class=\""highlight\"">Age may be less relevant for major offenses and more relevant for minor offenses</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Number of Offenses: <span class=\""highlight\"">Multiple and repeat offenses are a red flag. Consider type and nature of multiple offenses. Multiple offenses, multiple convictions of same offense, and subsequent similar offenses are all relevant</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Consider evidence of rehabilitation since the offense occurred, including employment and community service.""}]",,57
+   These exempt vessels must still provide a Sailing Plan 5-15 minutes before navigating within the VMRS area and report any deviations from their schedule or operating area (§ 161.23).",5,Vessel Movement Reporting System,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 161.16 Applicability - <span class=\""highlight\"">A vessel must adhere to the following requirements when operating within a VMRS area</span>: (a) <span class=\""highlight\"">Initial report (sailing plan)</span>. A vessel must report the following information upon entering the VMRS area.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The initial report must include: [start_highlight] The name of the vessel; (2) The vessel's position; (3) The time of arrival/departure at points designated in the VTS User's Manual; and (4) The destination and ETA[[end_highlight]].""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In addition to the initial report, a vessel must provide: [start_highlight] Position reports. A vessel must report its name and position: (1) Upon point of entry into a VMRS area; (2) At designated reporting points as set forth in the VTS User's Manual; or (3) When directed by the Center[[end_highlight]].""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessels must also submit [start_highlight] Sailing Plan Deviation/Amplification reports. A vessel must report: (1) Any intended deviation from its sailing plan or previously reported information; or (2) Any amendment to information previously reported[[end_highlight]].""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Finally, vessels must submit a [start_highlight] Final Report (FR). A vessel must report its name and position: (1) On arrival at its destination; or (2) When departing a VMRS area[[end_highlight]].""}]",,54
+1634,Why is screening for food insecurity important in clinical settings?,"['135 In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ, people who have a disability or who live in a rural community, and others who have historically been excluded), thus further increasing health inequities. Strategies aimed at the general population are often less effective among racial/ethnic minority groups and those of low socioeconomic status. Initiatives must address the unique challenges and barriers that certain groups often face when attempting to modify lifestyle behaviors, with culturally appropriate tailoring and equitable support to promote healthy behaviors. Trends in excess body weight among youth are also a significant public health concern; children with obesity are more likely than normal-weight children to become adults with obesity, and their obesity in adulthood is likely to be more severe. 136 Promoting obesity prevention and positive lifestyle behaviors during youth is more effective, and often more successful, than efforts to change unhealthy patterns of behavior in adult populations. 137 Therefore, creating health-promoting and antiobesogenic environments that make it easier for children to establish positive eating and physical activity behaviors early in life are critical. ## Improving Healthy Eating and Active Living-Related Environments Effective strategies are being tested to address healthy ating and active living by numerous organizations that have e reated c evidence-based recommendations, including the WHO, 138 the National Academy of Medicine, 139 the CDC, the WCRF/AICR, and the American Heart Association. 4 140 A consensus among these recommendations is a call for policy and systems change, the identification of key environments to promote change, and the need for multiple sectors to work collaboratively to reduce barriers to healthy eating and active living, particularly among lower income and racial/ethnic minority and rural communities. Thus, health promotion considerations should be incorporated into urban, rural, and regional planning and development. To reduce health-related inequities among specific population groups, communitybased approaches should be adapted to meet the needs of the target community. 139', 'theco mmuni tygui de.org/topic/ exces sive-alcoh ol-consu mptio n?field\\_recom menda tion\\_tid = All&amp;items\\_per\\_page = 5 - 146. Grant RW, Schmittdiel JA, Neugebauer RS, Uratsu CS, Sternfeld B. Exercise as a vital sign: a quasi-experimental analysis of a health system intervention to collect patient-reported exercise levels. J Gen Intern Med. 2014;29:341-348. - 147. Golightly YM, Allen KD, Ambrose KR, et al. Physical activity as a vital sign: a systematic review. Prev Chronic Dis. 2017;14:E123. - 148. Nutrition &amp; Obesity Network (NOPREN). Clinical Linkages. Accessed July 31, 2019. nopren.org/worki ng\\_group s/foodsecur ity/clini cal-linka ges/ - 149. US Preventive Services Task Force, Curry SJ, Krist AH, et al. Behavioral weight loss interventions to prevent obesityrelated morbidity and mortality in adults: US Preventive Services Task Force recommendation statement. JAMA. 2018;320: 1163-1171. - 150. US Preventive Services Task Force, Curry SJ, Krist AH, et al. Screening and behavioral counseling interventions to reduce unhealthy alcohol use in adolescents and adults: US Preventive Services Task Force recommendation statement. JAMA. 2018;320:1899-1909. - 151. Anderson CAM, Thorndike AN, Lichtenstein AH, et al. Innovation to create a healthy and sustainable food system: a science advisory from the American Heart Association. Circulation. 2019;139: e1025-e1032. - 152. Pate RR, Flynn JI, Dowda M. Policies for promotion of physical activity and prevention of obesity in adolescence. J Exerc Sci Fit. 2016;14:47-53.', '## Clinical Strategies to Promote Healthy Eating and Active Living and Limiting Alcohol Among the key partners to promote cancer preventive behaviors are the health care providers and the health care systems in which clinical services are provided. Although few programs have comprehensive uptake across systems, the Exercise Is Medicine (exerc iseis medic ine.org/) and Park Prescriptions America (parkr xamer ica.org) initiatives provide a prototype of how routine screening of physical activity behaviors and exercise prescriptions may support individual improvements in physical activity behaviors. Incorporation of questions about exercise as a vital sign-asked during routine visits just as blood pressure and weight are measured-has been associated with modest weight loss and lower hemoglobin A1c levels, 146 with growing evidence of these effects. 147 The Walk with a Doc program also promotes community-clinical linkages by encouraging providers to start doctor-led walking groups to promote walking as a health-enhancing behavior among their patients (walkw ithad oc.org). Screening for food insecurity is also an important factor to identify those individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention. Health care providers can be a valuable referral source to community efforts designed to support food insecure community members, such as food assistance programs, food banks, voucher programs to retail stores and farmers markets, and more. 148 Inclusion of questions related to food choices as a vital sign during routine clinical encounters may also promote healthful eating behaviors. Furthermore, health care insurance communities provide a resource to support new program initiatives with a focus not only on changes in diet and activity behaviors but also on cost incentives and savings that are critical to the sustainability of health promotion programs. These partnerships warrant further attention and evaluation to attain optimal health for all individuals.']",medium,answer,"Screening for food insecurity in clinical settings is important because it helps identify individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention. Health care providers can then refer these individuals to community efforts designed to support food-insecure community members, such as food assistance programs, food banks, voucher programs to retail stores and farmers markets, and more. This approach ensures that those in need receive the necessary support to maintain healthful eating behaviors.",3,Nutrition and healthcare screening,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Screening for food insecurity in clinical settings is important because <span class=\""highlight\"">it helps identify individuals at risk of dietary patterns inconsistent with cancer prevention dietary recommendations and assists healthcare providers in designing appropriate interventions</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Food insecurity is consistently associated with poorer diet quality, including lower intake of fruits, vegetables, and nutrients of concern</span>. Identifying these patients allows <span class=\""highlight\"">clinicians to make more appropriate dietary recommendations and connect patients with resources such as federal food assistance programs</span> (e.g., SNAP, WIC, etc.).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Screening for food insecurity is also important because it's linked to <span class=\""highlight\"">health disparities and poorer health outcomes. Food insecurity affects 10.5% of U.S. households and is more prevalent among certain groups, including Black and Hispanic households, households with children, and those living in rural or marginal areas</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Food security is considered a social determinant of health, and its identification in clinical settings can help address the root causes of certain health conditions and prevent long-term health complications</span>. Screening in healthcare settings provides an opportunity for early intervention and coordination with social services.""}]",,55
+4789,How does the environment influence activity levels?,"['139,151,152 Various public policies designed to improve dietary patterns have demonstrated positive impacts. Initiatives in nutrition assistance programs, including the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children Program (WIC) and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), which allow for and provide incentives for healthy food purchases such as vegetables and fruit, have resulted in healthier food purchases and dietary patterns 152 and could result in substantial health benefits. 153 Standards for foods and beverages served in schools and in early childcare and education settings help to ensure youth are exposed to nutrient-dense options and that energy-dense options are limited. 154 And, although research is mixed regarding the results of the overall impact of menu labeling legislation, it is possible that labeling is more effective in specific types of restaurants and that restaurants are reformulating menu items in part because of this legislation. 155 Numerous recommended policy approaches to promote more lifelong physical activity among Americans include a variety of policies designed to impact youth: comprehensive school physical activity programing, including high-quality physical education and daily recess; requirements for physical activity in afterschool and in early childcare programs; and active transport opportunities to school, among others, all have the potential to increase physical activity levels among youth. 152 Funding that continues to expand and support community design that facilitates active transport (eg, complete streets policies), that expands and improves zoning policies that encourage mixed-use development, and that invests in more public transportation options will also be important to facilitate more physically active lifestyles. 111 Finally, it is well established that raising excise taxes on tobacco products leads to higher prices, which, in turn, cause declines in consumption, and recent research suggests that raising excise taxes on sugar-sweetened beverages and alcohol also can reduce consumption of these products. 156,157 Tax revenues, in turn, can be reallocated back to promote societal well-being. 158', ""Frequently, a plethora of 'fast-food' restaurants and convenience stores also is readily available in these communities. 125,126 Thus residents with limited access to neighborhood supermarkets often purchase foods at local convenience stores, where fewer perishables, such as fresh produce, and more highly processed convenience items are readily available. Even in neighborhoods where supermarkets are readily available, low-income residents may continue to purchase less expensive, energy-dense foods; studies have suggested that foods of lower diet quality make up a greater proportion of the dietary patterns of lower income individuals compared with individuals who have higher incomes. 127-129 The neighborhoods where people live can also affect their alcohol consumption. This is especially true in neighborhoods in which convenience and liquor stores are overconcentrated 128,129 and where alcohol is heavily promoted by commercial interests 130,131 Disparities in the built environment also affect physical activity patterns. Safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks and trails, bicycle paths, and workout facilities and gyms as well as the availability of public transit all provide additional opportunities for daily physical activity. Sidewalks and bicycle paths within close proximity and connected to residential areas with common or everyday destinations, retail stores, jobs, schools, childcare, and recreation centers also promote more physically active lifestyles 132-134 Yet significantly fewer sports areas, parks, greenways, well-maintained sidewalks, and bike paths are available in areas of poverty compared with more affluent areas. Even when these facilities are available, transportation and financial barriers often provide challenges to use for lower-income populations. Connecting public transportation systems to everyday destinations can promote active travel, 134 and connecting public transportation to jobs may help address, in part, economic disparities and poverty. Efforts to be inclusive of persons with disabilities will also require that built environment and programmatic opportunities to be physically active are both available and accessible to all people regardless of age and abilities. Campaigns and initiatives to promote walking and walkable communities should be inclusive of those who walk and those who rely on assistive equipment or wheelchairs for mobility. 135"", ""121 Therefore, the ability of an individual to avoid many unhealthy lifestyle factors, including those related to food and beverage intake and physical inactivity, is often influenced by factors outside of his or her direct control. The factors contributing to trends in excess body weight specifically are complex and multifaceted, and reversing these trends will require a broad range of innovative, coordinated, and multilevel strategies that engage a variety of stakeholders; involve multiple systems and sectors (food and agriculture, transportation, urban planning, childcare centers, schools, employers, health care, and more); and emphasize policy, system, and environmental changes. 113 Therefore this guideline addresses the importance of public, private, and community organizations working collaboratively at national, state, and local levels to develop, advocate for, and implement policy, system, and environmental changes to reduce obesogenic environments and promote access to affordable, nutritious foods and provide safe, enjoyable, and accessible opportunities for physical activity for all individuals. Although most Americans face obstacles to engaging in health-promoting behaviors, these challenges are often compounded for lower income individuals, racial and ethnic minority groups, persons with disabilities, and those residing in rural communities, who frequently face additional barriers to the adoption of cancer-preventive behaviors. 122 Importantly, these barriers contribute in part to the greater health disparities documented among certain populations. 123 For instance, access to supermarkets has been associated with improved diet quality, increased consumption of fruits and vegetables, and a lower prevalence of obesity. 124 Communities with a greater proportion of ethnic minorities and residents with low socioeconomic status are often also identified as low-income and lowaccess areas, characterized by fewer supermarkets with healthy, affordable, high-quality foods. In these areas, residents may not have the economic resources to purchase adequate and nutritious food to feed themselves and their families. Frequently, a plethora of 'fast-food' restaurants and convenience stores also is readily available in these communities.""]",hard,answer,"The environment significantly influences activity levels through various factors. Safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks, trails, bicycle paths, and workout facilities, as well as the availability of public transit, provides opportunities for daily physical activity. Sidewalks and bicycle paths connected to residential areas with common destinations like retail stores, jobs, schools, and recreation centers promote more physically active lifestyles. However, disparities exist, with fewer sports areas, parks, greenways, well-maintained sidewalks, and bike paths available in low-income areas compared to more affluent ones. Additionally, transportation and financial barriers can hinder the use of these facilities by lower-income populations. Connecting public transportation systems to everyday destinations can promote active travel and help address economic disparities. Efforts to include persons with disabilities in built environment and programmatic opportunities are also essential for promoting physical activity for all individuals.",3,Built environment and physical activity,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The environment significantly influences activity levels through <span class=\""highlight\"">safe and inviting access to parks, playgrounds, schools, sidewalks, walking paths, public transportation, and bicycle infrastructure</span>. This can affect a community's engagement in physical activity.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The existence of barriers in the built environment can prevent individuals and families from enjoying regular physical activity and healthy eating patterns</span>. These barriers are often more prevalent in lower income communities and communities of color, contributing to disparities in physical activity levels.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Disparities exist in access to safe and affordable places to be physically active, particularly in low-resourced rural, urban, and tribal communities, affecting schools, communities, worksites, and recreational spaces</span>. This creates substantial differences in the environmental supports available to different segments of the population.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Research shows that <span class=\""highlight\"">public policies and environmental designs can positively affect physical activity and dietary patterns in communities, including transportation and community design that supports walking, bicycling, and public transit, as well as parks and recreation facilities</span>.""}]",,56
+2579,How should a reviewer assess an applicant's single minor offense compared to multiple offenses?,"['## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Require CE providers to electronically report class attendance to the state insurance department or its designated vendor. - · Set a reasonable deadline for CE providers to deliver electronic reports. - · Require CE providers to promptly issue attendance certificates, or certificates of completion for self-study courses, and require producers to retain them. The certificates should be sent only to the state insurance department in the event of a dispute. - · Provide access for producers and insurers to department records to monitor CE credits on file. - · Implement an audit program to observe and evaluate CE providers and instructors. - · Participate in the NAIC Personalized Information Capture System (PICS) to receive alerts or monitor actions against existing licensees. 5 ## Chapter 15 ## Reporting of Actions and Compensation Disclosure ## Reporting of Actions Section 17 of the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) requires a producer to report, to all states in which the producer is licensed, any administrative action taken against the producer in another jurisdiction or by another governmental agency in this state within 30 days of the final disposition of the matter. Producers are also required to report any criminal prosecution of the producer taken in any jurisdiction within 30 days of the initial pretrial hearing date. The challenge for producers is that it can be difficult to ensure that all relevant states received the report. The National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) has created an electronic solution, called Reporting of Actions (ROA), to facilitate the distribution of one report to multiple states. States should encourage the use of this electronic process to save time and create an electronic record of timely submission. State licensing directors should have a method to receive these reports and refer them for investigation. The director should consider giving staff limited authority to review and clear reports that include violations such as traffic citations or certain misdemeanors. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Use the Attachment Warehouse/ROA system to receive electronic notifications to alert a state when an individual or business entity producer has added information into the Attachment Warehouse since their initial entry regarding administrative, criminal or civil actions. ## Compensation Disclosure', ""- · Resident vs. Nonresident If the application is for a resident producer license, it is incumbent upon the resident state to scrutinize all 'yes' answers on the application and to request and obtain documentation and a detailed explanation for all criminal charges. Nonresident applicants' criminal histories should also be documented and explained with consideration given the fact that the resident state has already issued a license to the applicant. - · Severity and Nature of the Offense Felony convictions should always be considered in determining whether to issue a license to an individual and may require the applicant to apply for a 1033 consent waiver prior to application (see the section on 1033 consent waivers). A criminal conviction is only relevant to the licensing decision if the crime is related to the qualifications, functions or duties of an insurance producer. Examples include theft; burglary; robbery; dishonesty; fraud; breach of trust or breach of fiduciary duties; any conviction arising out of acts performed in the business of insurance; or any actions not consistent with public health, safety and welfare. Special scrutiny should be given to financial and violent crimes. - · Frequency of Offenses While a producer's past criminal history is a red flag and may be a predictor of future behavior, the frequency of offenses should be considered, with more weight given to a pattern of illegal behavior than to a one-time minor indiscretion. - · Date of the Offense The application form requires the applicant to disclose all criminal charges, except minor traffic offenses. A reviewer should consider when the offenses occurred and the age of the applicant at the time of the offense. - · Completion of Terms of Sentencing Applicants should provide evidence that they have completed all the terms of their sentences, including paying restitution or completing any probationary periods or community service. - · Evidence of Rehabilitation The applicant should be required to provide evidence of rehabilitation. Completion of the terms of sentencing alone does not demonstrate rehabilitation. A state may request a statement from the applicant's probation officer or other appropriate official. ## Statutory Obligations and Discretion"", ""When a producer's license has been suspended for a period of time that extends beyond the producer's license expiration date, reinstatement is not an option. The producer must request reissuance of a license and should not be allowed to merely apply for a new license by passing an examination and submitting a new application. The producer's request for reinstatement or reissuance must include sufficient information to allow the insurance department to determine whether the basis of the revocation, suspension or forfeiture of the applicant's license no longer exists and whether it will be in the public interest to grant the request for a new or reinstated license. The burden of proof to establish such facts is on the producer. In most states, the producer will have a right to an administrative hearing if the reinstatement request is denied. Some states allow a license to be voluntarily forfeited in lieu of compliance with an order of the insurance commissioner. In this scenario, a request for voluntary forfeiture of a license should be made in writing to the insurance commissioner. The written consent of the insurance commissioner is usually required. Forfeiture of a license is effective upon submission of the request, unless a contested case proceeding is pending at the time the request is submitted. If a contested case proceeding is pending at the time of the request, the forfeiture becomes effective when and upon such conditions as required by order of the insurance commissioner. A forfeiture made during the pendency of a contested case proceeding is usually considered a disciplinary action subject to reporting to the Regulatory Information Retrieval System (RIRS). ## Collaboration and Referrals Among State Insurance Regulators There are several NAIC tools to facilitate communication about enforcement actions among state insurance regulators. The NAIC's Market Actions (D) Working Group identifies and reviews insurance companies that are exhibiting or may exhibit characteristics indicating a current or potential market regulatory issue that may affect multiple jurisdictions. The Working Group determines if regulatory action should be taken and supports collaborative actions in addressing problems identified."", ""Model #218 contains two key sections that clarify when a license is not required. When considering whether to require a license, the states should carefully review Section 4 and Section 13 of Model #218. Section 4 of Model #218 contains a specific list of exceptions from the licensing requirement. The states should take special note of Section 4(B)(6), which provides an exception for producers placing commercial insurance for a multistate risk with an incidental exposure in several states. As the section provides, in this situation a license is only required in the state where the insured maintains its principal place of business and the contract of insurance insures risks located in that state. The following is a summary of types of persons and entities that are exempted from licensing: - 1. An officer, director or employee of an insurer or insurance producer, provided that the officer, director or employee does not receive any commission on policies written or sold to insure risks residing, located or to be performed in the state. - 2. A person who secures and furnishes information for, or enrolls individuals in, group life insurance, group property/casualty (P/C) insurance, group annuities, or group or blanket accident and health insurance. - 3. An employer or association; its officers, directors and employees; or the trustees of an employee trust plan. - 4. Employees of insurers or organizations employed by insurers who are engaging in the inspection, rating or classification of risks. - 5. A person whose activities in a state are limited to advertising without the intent to solicit insurance in that state. - 6. A person who is not a resident of a state who sells, solicits or negotiates a contract of insurance for commercial P/C risks to an insured with risks located in more than one state insured under that contract. - 7. A salaried, full-time employee who counsels or advises the employer relative to the insurance interests of the employer. ## Recommended Best Practice for State Insurance Regulators - · For uniformity purposes, states that still use a 'transaction-based licensure' approach should eliminate that standard and change to the Model #218 standard. ## Chapter 6 ## Prelicensing Education"", ""- · Defines the terms 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,''sell,''solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms. ## Section 3: License Required ## Section 4: Exceptions to Licensing - · Lists the persons and entities that do not need licenses, even though they participate in the insurance industry. ## Section 5: Application for Examination - · Requires that producers must pass an examination in the LOAs for which applications are made. - · Allows the use of outside testing services to administer examinations. ## Section 6: Application for License - · Sets forth the qualifications for licensure as an individual or business entity. - · Provides that limited line credit insurers must provide instruction to individuals who will sell credit insurance. ## Section 7: License - · Sets forth the six major LOAs, the limited line of credit insurance, and any other line of insurance permitted under state laws or regulations. - · Provides guidelines for license continuation and reinstatement. - · Provides for hardship exemptions for failure to comply with renewal procedures. - · Lists the information the license should contain. - · Requires licensees to notify the insurance commissioner of a legal change of name or address within 30 days of the change. ## Section 8: Nonresident Licensing - �� Requires states to grant nonresident licenses to persons from reciprocal states for all LOAs held, including limited lines and surplus lines insurance, if those persons are currently licensed and in good standing in their home states. - · Requires a nonresident licensee who moves from one state to another to file a change of address and certification from the new resident state within 30 days with no fee or application. ## Section 9: Exemption from Examination - · Exempts licensed individuals who change their home state from prelicensing and examination. - · Requires a licensed nonresident who becomes a resident to register in the new home state within 90 days of establishing legal residence, unless 'the commissioner determines otherwise by regulation.' ## Section 10: Assumed Names - · Requires a producer to notify the insurance commissioner prior to using an assumed name.""]",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, a reviewer should assess an applicant's single minor offense differently from multiple offenses. For a single minor offense, the reviewer should consider the nature and severity of the offense, the date it occurred, and the age of the applicant at the time. More weight should be given to a pattern of illegal behavior (multiple offenses) than to a one-time minor indiscretion (single minor offense). Additionally, the reviewer should evaluate whether the applicant has completed all terms of sentencing and provided evidence of rehabilitation.",5,Insurance licensing evaluation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When assessing an applicant's background, <span class=\""highlight\"">a single minor offense should not result in a license denial, as most states realize that people make mistakes</span>. However, the reviewer should consider the facts and circumstances of the offense, including its severity, when reviewing a license application.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Multiple offenses, on the other hand, show a pattern of behavior that should be given greater weight than a single offense</span>. Multiple offenses demonstrate a habitual disregard for the law and should be evaluated more strictly than a single incident.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Most states have adopted review procedures for applicants with criminal histories, including aggravating and mitigating factors. These factors often include: time elapsed since the offense; age of the applicant at the time of the offense; the relationship of the crime to the insurance profession; and evidence of rehabilitation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States generally pursue administrative action against a producer if the producer has been involved in or convicted of a crime involving fraud, dishonesty, breach of trust, or theft. States may use license revocation or suspension as tools to discourage unethical practices and maintain the integrity of the insurance profession.""}]",,57
 5307,How do they keep the test places from turning into a circus when it comes to signing up?,"[""- · Defines the terms 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,''sell,''solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms. ## Section 3: License Required ## Section 4: Exceptions to Licensing - · Lists the persons and entities that do not need licenses, even though they participate in the insurance industry. ## Section 5: Application for Examination - · Requires that producers must pass an examination in the LOAs for which applications are made. - · Allows the use of outside testing services to administer examinations. ## Section 6: Application for License - · Sets forth the qualifications for licensure as an individual or business entity. - · Provides that limited line credit insurers must provide instruction to individuals who will sell credit insurance. ## Section 7: License - · Sets forth the six major LOAs, the limited line of credit insurance, and any other line of insurance permitted under state laws or regulations. - · Provides guidelines for license continuation and reinstatement. - · Provides for hardship exemptions for failure to comply with renewal procedures. - · Lists the information the license should contain. - · Requires licensees to notify the insurance commissioner of a legal change of name or address within 30 days of the change. ## Section 8: Nonresident Licensing - · Requires states to grant nonresident licenses to persons from reciprocal states for all LOAs held, including limited lines and surplus lines insurance, if those persons are currently licensed and in good standing in their home states. - · Requires a nonresident licensee who moves from one state to another to file a change of address and certification from the new resident state within 30 days with no fee or application. ## Section 9: Exemption from Examination - · Exempts licensed individuals who change their home state from prelicensing and examination. - · Requires a licensed nonresident who becomes a resident to register in the new home state within 90 days of establishing legal residence, unless 'the commissioner determines otherwise by regulation.' ## Section 10: Assumed Names - · Requires a producer to notify the insurance commissioner prior to using an assumed name."", ""## Secure Administration The security of the test center network is important in maintaining the integrity of a test. A vendor should be equipped with adequate security features and qualified test center administrators. Each proctor should be trained and tested on his or her ability to supervise exams. A vendor should have systems in place to ensure the fair, consistent and even administration of the exam in every location. A vendor should also have a method to detect attempts to record questions. For example, a vendor should track multiple examination attempts by individuals to assess if the candidate is intentionally failing the exam so it can be repeated. A vendor should be required to notify the state immediately if the vendor suspects that the integrity of an examination has been compromised. ## Test Locations and Registration Test locations should be set up to provide flexibility and convenience. Realizing that the states have different geographic challenges and diverse population density, a state should consider, where possible, requiring the following elements: - 1. Testing should be made available at locations convenient to residents of all areas of the state. - 2. Test locations should provide enough testing capacity so a candidate can test at the desired location within two to five business days of registration. - 3. Exam site hours should include evening and weekend hours. - 4. Test vendors should provide regular reports, as required by the state, detailing site usage and availability data. - 5. Test registration should be available online or by telephone and allow for next day testing when space is available. A state should consider tracking telephone hold and wait times to monitor how long callers wait. - 6. State guidelines should provide for flexible means for payment of fees for testing, fingerprinting and other licensing. States should consider methods that facilitate payment by companies. ## Disabilities A state should require a vendor to develop a system that accommodates the physically impaired that is not related to a testing candidate's knowledge of insurance. Visually-impaired and hearing-impaired persons should be accommodated through all steps of the licensing process, pursuant to national standards set by the federal Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). ## Examinations in Languages Other Than English"", ""Some states regulate bail bonds through the insurance department, and others leave the administration to the discretion of the court system. It is usually required that a bail bond insurer file a power of attorney with the local court authority. This power of attorney is proof to the court that the bail agent is authorized to write bonds for that insurer up to a certain dollar amount. State insurance departments vary in the manner in which bail bond activities are regulated. There is no NAIC model to guide state licensing directors for bail bond agents. A number of states use the surety line of authority (LOA) to regulate only the bonds that are insurance-based. In other states, a more comprehensive system has been developed that includes examinations, background checks, and personal integrity bonds. The majority of bail bond transactions are executed by resident bail bond agents. Some states prohibit nonresident bail bond agents. In many states, the state court system and local county sheriff may also have a process for approval of bail bond agents. States that regulate bail bond agents should consider including the following elements in their regulatory scheme: - 1. Minimum content and disclosure requirements for the bail bond contract. - 2. Detailed record-keeping. - 3. Requirement that bail funds be segregated in a trust account. - 4. Appointments for all bail bond agents. - 5. Written examination. - 6. Background check, including fingerprints. - 7. Prelicensing education on state laws and bond procedures. - 8. Completion of continuing education (CE). - 9. Laws that clearly place liability on insurers' appointed bail bond agents who fail to comply with state law on bail bonds and return of collateral. - 10. Cross reference the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) and the state's unfair trade practices act to apply penalties for misconduct. - 11. Laws that create a fiduciary relationship between the bail bond agent and the criminal defendant. - 12. Dialogue with the appropriate state court and law enforcement officials to coordinate efforts at regulating bail bond agents. - 13. Adoption of a specific list of prohibited activities by bail bond agents. ## Bond Forfeiture""]",hard,answer,"To prevent test places from becoming chaotic during registration, the context outlines several measures: 
 1. **Flexible and Convenient Test Locations**: Testing should be available at locations convenient to residents of all areas of the state, with enough capacity to allow candidates to test within two to five business days of registration.
 2. **Extended Hours**: Exam site hours should include evening and weekend hours to accommodate different schedules.
@@ -157,10 +157,10 @@ Specifically, the Secretary or designated officer/employee may:
 4. **Regular Reports**: Test vendors should provide regular reports detailing site usage and availability data to ensure transparency and proper management.
 5. **Payment Flexibility**: States should provide flexible means for payment of fees to facilitate smooth transactions.
 
-These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration process.",3,Insurance licensing examination procedures,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Testing: <span class=\""highlight\"">Testing at locations conveniently accessible to residents throughout state with both regular schedules and special sessions</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Pre-licensing education providers electronically report participation to insurance department. Examinations available at accessible locations. Electronic notice of testing dates/times/locations. Advance registration with identity verification (fingerprinting, retinal scanning, biometrics)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Professional testing vendors use secure facilities with standardized procedures. Electronic scheduling prevents overbooking.""}]",,58
-2998,What's the maritime equivalent of yelling 'surprise!' when rounding a blind corner?,"['The latter vessel must use the signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) (§ 83.34(d)) if in doubt as to the intention of the crossing vessel. - (e) (i) In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking, the power-driven vessel intending to overtake another power-driven vessel shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c) (§ 83.34)(c)) and take steps to permit safe passing. The power-driven vessel being overtaken, if in agreement, shall sound the same signal and may, if specifically agreed to, take steps to permit safe passing. If in doubt she shall sound the signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) (§ 83.34)(d)). - (ii) This Rule does not relieve the overtaking vessel of her obligation under Rule 13 (§ 83.13). - (f) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a narrow channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and shall sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e) (§ 83.34(e)). - (g) Any vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid anchoring in a narrow channel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10 ## Traffic Separation Schemes', '## Traffic Separation Schemes - (a) This Rule applies to traffic separation schemes adopted by the Organization and does not relieve any vessel of her obligation under any other rule. - (b) A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall: - (i) proceed in the appropriate traffic lane in the general direction of traffic flow for that lane; - (ii) so far as practicable keep clear of a traffic separation line or separation zone; (iii) normally join or leave a traffic lane at the termination of the lane, but when joining or leaving from either side shall do so at as small an angle to the general direction of traffic flow as practicable. - (c) A vessel shall, so far as practicable, avoid crossing traffic lanes but if obliged to do so shall cross on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow. - (d) (i) A vessel shall not use an inshore traffic zone when she can safely use the appropriate traffic lane within the adjacent traffic separation scheme. However, vessels of less than 20 meters in length, sailing vessels and vessels engaged in fishing may use the inshore traffic zone. - (ii) Notwithstanding subparagraph (d)(i), a vessel may use an inshore traffic zone when en route to or from a port, offshore installation or structure, pilot station or any other place situated within the inshore traffic zone, or to avoid immediate danger. - (e) A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except: - (i) in cases of emergency to avoid immediate danger; - (ii) to engage in fishing within a separation zone. - (f) A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with particular caution. - (g) A vessel shall so far as practicable avoid anchoring in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near its terminations. - (h) A vessel not using a traffic separation scheme shall avoid it by as wide a margin as is practicable.', '## Action to Avoid Collision - (a) Any action taken to avoid collision shall be taken in accordance with the Rules of this Part and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship. - (b) Any alteration of course and/or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/or speed should be avoided. - (c) If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close-quarters situation provided that it is made in good time, is substantial and does not result in another close-quarters situation. - (d) Action taken to avoid collision with another vessel shall be such as to result in passing at a safe distance. The effectiveness of the action shall be carefully checked until the other vessel is finally past and clear. - (e) If necessary to avoid collision or allow more time to assess the situation, a vessel shall slacken her speed or take all way off by stopping or reversing her means of propulsion. - (f) (i) A vessel which, by any of these rules, is required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel shall, when required by the circumstances of the case, take early action to allow sufficient sea room for the safe passage of the other vessel. - (ii) A vessel required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel is not relieved of this obligation if approaching the other vessel so as to involve risk of collision and shall, when taking action, have full regard to the action which may be required by the rules of this part. - (iii) A vessel, the passage of which is not to be impeded remains fully obliged to comply with the rules of this part when the two vessels are approaching one another so as to involve risk of collision. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 8 ## Action to avoid collision ## § 83.08', ""## Maneuvering and Warning Signals - (a) When vessels are in sight of one another, a power-driven vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules, shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - -one short blast to mean 'I am altering my course to starboard'; - -two short blasts to mean 'I am altering my course to port'; - -three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (b) Any vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals, repeated as appropriate, while the maneuver is being carried out: - (i) these light signals shall have the following significance: - -one flash to mean 'I am altering my course to starboard'; - -two flashes to mean 'I am altering my course to port'; - -three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) the duration of each flash shall be about one second, the interval between flashes shall be about one second, and the interval between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds; - (iii) the light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be an all-round white light, visible at a minimum range of 5 miles, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Regulations. - (c) When in sight of one another in a narrow channel or fairway: - (i) a vessel intending to overtake another shall in compliance with Rule 9(e)(i) indicate her intention by the following signals on her whistle: - -two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your starboard side'; - -two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your port side'. - (ii) the vessel about to be overtaken when acting in accordance with Rule 9(e)(i) shall indicate her agreement by the following signal on her whistle: - -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order."", '## Head-on Situation - (a) When two power-driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other. - (b) Such a situation shall be deemed to exist when a vessel sees the other ahead or nearly ahead and by night she could see the masthead lights of the other in a line or nearly in a line and/or both sidelights and by day she observes the corresponding aspect of the other vessel. - (c) When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether such a situation exists she shall assume that it does exist and act accordingly. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 13 ## Overtaking ## § 83.13 - (a) Notwithstanding anything contained in Rules 4 through 18 (§§ 83.04 through 83.18), any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken. - (b) A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam; that is, in such a position with reference to the vessel she is overtaking, that at night she would be able to see only the sternlight of that vessel but neither of her sidelights. - (c) When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether she is overtaking another, she shall assume that this is the case and act accordingly. - (d) Any subsequent alteration of the bearing between the two vessels shall not make the overtaking vessel a crossing vessel within the meaning of these Rules or relieve her of the duty of keeping clear of the overtaken vessel until she is finally past and clear. ## Rule 14 ## Head-on situation ## § 83.14']",hard,answer,The maritime equivalent of yelling 'surprise!' when rounding a blind corner is to sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e) (§ 83.34(e)). This involves navigating with particular alertness and caution and sounding the signal to warn other vessels that may be obscured by an intervening obstruction.,5,Maritime signal regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel nearing a bend or area where other vessels may be obscured shall <span class=\""highlight\"">sound one prolonged blast</span>. Signal answered with prolonged blast by approaching vessel within hearing.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When approaching area where vessels might be obscured, vessel must <span class=\""highlight\"">sound one prolonged blast on whistle as warning</span>. Vessel hearing this from around bend should respond with prolonged blast.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a vessel fails to understand intentions of another vessel or doubts sufficient action is being taken, it shall indicate doubt by at least five short and rapid blasts on whistle.""}]",,59
-3964,What is the deadline for submitting the FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 report?,"[""The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) Management Schedule 10, Motor Vehicle and Aircraft Maintenance and Operations Records, provides Federal agencies with guidance on the management of records and other types of documentary materials accumulated by Federal agencies and officials. - a. Section 15303 of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, Pub. L. No. 99-272, requires all Federal agencies to submit annual reports of motor vehicle-related obligations and outlays. This information will be requested each August by the Office of Facilities, Information and Asset Management (M-93). A consolidated report will be prepared and submitted to the Office of the Secretary of Transportation (OST) Office of Budget. - b. 41 CFR § 102-5 requires written notification be provided within 60 days of approval to Congress on approval/usage for home-to-work transportation for employees provided for reasons other than field work or law enforcement. - c. Federal policies (OMB Circular A-11, GSA Bulletin B-30, et al) requires agencies to report annually information on Federal motor vehicle usage and the makeup of their motor vehicle fleets, along with the use of efficient and alternative fuel vehicles as part of petroleum reduction goals. Federal agencies report the following data to GSA and DOE each year via the FAST: - i. Motor vehicle acquisitions; - ii. Petroleum and alternative fuel consumption; - iii. Requests for EPAct of 2005 Section 701 waivers surrounding alternative fuel consumption; and - iv. Fleet fueling centers - d. OA Fleet Managers must ensure that individual history record files are established for each assigned vehicle. The system of record for maintaining this data will be DOT's Integrated Logistics Management System (ILMS) for inventory reporting purposes. - i. Maintain this file in complete and up-to-date status, from the time the vehicle is acquired until it is transferred for disposal or excess. History record files may be maintained in hard copy and/or computer media. - ii. History record files shall accompany vehicles transferred from one activity to another. - iii. At a minimum, maintain the following information in the vehicle history record: - a) Crash reports;"", ""| EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required | | Annual GHG and Sustainability Data Report | Provide FAST and non-FAST mobile emissions data to OSSM | Gallons of fuel consumed by type Cost of fuel consumed OA Representative provides non- FAST vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 1, or date mutually agreed upon between the OA and OSSM for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - Data Report | Provide FAST inventory, acquisition, and disposal data; fuel consumption, vehicle costs | Vehicle inventory actuals, acquisition actuals, and disposal actuals data Vehicle cost and mileage data report Actual fuel cost and consumption by fuel type data OA Fleet Manger provides owned vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 15 | ## 6. POLICY UPDATES AND/OR REVISIONS At least once every three years the OST Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management will review this Order to determine whether updates or revisions are necessary. In the interim, if Congress revises applicable laws, or the Executive Branch issues new E.O.s, Presidential Memoranda, guidance, or instructions related to fleet sustainability, they are incorporated by reference until the next update to this Order is made. ## 7. POLICY EXCEPTION REQUIREMENTS This Order applies to internal DOT actions and activities that affect the Department's vehicle fleet excluding vehicles cited as exempt within the Guidance for Federal Agencies on E.O. 13514, Section 12, Federal Fleet Management. OA Administrators can submit a request for a policy exception for DOT-owned or leased vehicles to the SSO, through OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management. Specific questions relating to this Order should be addressed to OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager. ## 8. DISTRIBUTION"", ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |"", ""## Monitoring for Policy Compliance The Department must use the following monitoring and documentation systems related to the above program initiatives and abide by reporting. The table below describes the major activities and reporting deadlines DOT must follow to meet the requirements of this Order. Unless stated otherwise, these reports are the responsibility of the DOT Fleet Manager, and are required to satisfy DOT-wide motor vehicle fleet reporting requirements. These systems are generally web-based and proprietary to the Federal Government. | Reporting Module | Purpose | Data Attributes to Report | Minimum Reporting Frequency (sustainability requirements) | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 141 | Vehicle type Fuel type Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle acquisition information | Annually, no later than December 15 | | Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year |""]",easy,answer,"The deadline for submitting the FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 report is annually, no later than December 15.",4,Transportation department reporting,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""DOT-Wide Reporting - 1. Federal Automobile Statistical Tool (FAST) - EISA Section 141 report, <span class=\""highlight\"">annually, no later than December 15</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Other reports include EISA section 142 Petroleum Report (quarterly) and Vehicle Allocation Methodology (VAM) (annually by December 31).""}]",,60
-4952,Tell me about the size requirements.,"[""## Nutrition Facts labels required on all foods? N1. Are Answer: The Nutrition Facts label (an example is illustrated in section 7 L2) is required on most food packages labeled. The illustration indicates FDA's typeface and style to help assure readability and conspicuousness. Not all of these type specifications are required. The mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d). Unlike the illustrative examples in this guidance, (1) Any legible type style may be used, not just Helvetica, (2) The heading Nutrition Facts must be the largest type size in the nutrition label (i.e., it must be larger than 8-point, but does not need to be 13-point) and should extend the width of the Nutrition Facts box, and (3) There is no specific thickness required for the three bars that separate the central sections of the nutrition -label. 21 CFR 101.9(a) and 21 CFR 101.9(a)(1) are listed categories providing exemptions or special provisions for labeling. Generally, a food package loses those exemptions, if a claim is made or nutrition information is provided: Below -nutrition -nutrition - | Summary of Exemption | Regulation # | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Manufactured by small businesses | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(1) and 101.9(j)(18) | | Food served in restaurants, etc. or delivered - to homes ready for immediate consumption | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(2) | | Delicatessen-type food, bakery products and confections that are sold directly to consumers from the location where prepared | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(3) | | Foods that provide no significant nutrition such as instant coffee (plain, unsweetened) and most spices | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(4) | | Infant formula, and infant and junior foods for children up to 4 years of age (modified label provisions for these categories) | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(5) and 101.9(j)(7) |"", ""## there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? L30.Is present simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron (slightly different rules labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years). The five core shown in bold in the adjoining example, must always appear on all Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food. In addition, Answer: A following saturated sugars, for nutrients, Nutrition any of the nutrients required on the full Nutrition Facts label that are naturally present or are added to the food must be declared on the simplified Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(f) - List of nutrients; 101.9(f)(1) - 'Insignificant' defined; 101.9(c) - 'Insignificant' levels listed for nutrients ## L31.What are insignificant amounts of nutrients? Answer: These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(c) ## L32.When I use the simplified format, when is the statement 'Not a significant source of\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_' required? Answer: This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: (1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared. 21 CFR 101.9(f)(4)"", ""## should the Nutrition Facts appear on the food label? L5. Where CFR 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(D) Nutrition Facts may be on any label panel when the total surface available for labeling is 40 less square inches. Packages with more than 40 square inches of available must place the nutrition information on either the PDP or information as defined in CFR 101.2 there is insufficient space vignettes, etc.), in which case the Nutrition Facts may be on any panel that may be seen readily by consumers. CFR Answer: Under 21 the presented or space panel 21 unless (excluding placed 21 101.9(j)(17) ## print be condensed? L6. Can Answer: Yes, however, if condensing results in a label that does not meet minimum type size requirements, FDA would consider the label misleading. 21 CFR 101.9(d)(1)(iii) ## can be done if the regular Nutrition Facts label (i.e., the vertical does not fit the package? L7. What format) packages with more than 40 square inches available to bear the'side-by-side' format may be used if the regular Nutrition Facts does not fit. In this format, the bottom part of the Nutrition Facts label the vitamin and mineral information) is placed immediately to the and separated with a line. If additional vitamins and minerals are listed iron and the space under iron is inadequate, they may also be listed to right with a line that sets them apart from the footnotes. Answer: On labeling, label (following right after the if the package has insufficient continuous vertical space (i.e., about 3 inches) accommodate the above format, the nutrition label may be presented in a tabular horizontal) display. CFR 101.9(d)(11) Also, to (i.e., 21""]",medium,answer,"The size requirements for the Nutrition Facts label depend on the available labeling space on the package. For packages with 40 square inches or less of available labeling space, the Nutrition Facts may appear on any label panel. For packages with more than 40 square inches, the Nutrition Facts must be placed on either the Principal Display Panel (PDP) or the information panel, unless there is insufficient space (excluding vignettes, etc.), in which case it may be placed on any panel readily seen by consumers. Additionally, the label can be condensed, but if condensing results in a label that does not meet minimum type size requirements, it may be considered misleading. If the regular vertical format does not fit, a 'side-by-side' format may be used, or a tabular (horizontal) display can be employed if there is insufficient continuous vertical space (about 3 inches).",3,Nutrition Facts label sizing,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For packages with <span class=\""highlight\"">40 square inches or less available labeling space, Nutrition Facts may use smaller type sizes and a tabular format</span> instead of vertical format.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For packages with <span class=\""highlight\"">less than 12 square inches available space, certain information may be omitted</span>, including calories from fat, saturated fat, polyunsaturated fat, monounsaturated fat, and potassium.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Nutrition Facts label must use specified type sizes for headings and nutrients, with the largest size required for the &quot;Nutrition Facts&quot; heading.""}]",,61
+These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration process.",3,Insurance licensing examination procedures,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To maintain order during test registration, testing centers implement <span class=\""highlight\"">secure administration procedures with adequate security features and qualified test center administrators. Each proctor is trained and tested on their ability to supervise examinations</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Testing centers maintain order by offering <span class=\""highlight\"">flexible and convenient test locations with online or telephone scheduling options, allowing candidates to schedule their exams at their convenience</span>. This distributed approach prevents overcrowding and reduces chaos at any single location.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The registration process is managed efficiently through <span class=\""highlight\"">modern technology systems that permit candidates to register in advance, pay testing fees directly to testing vendors, and receive immediate results upon completion of the exam</span>. This streamlined approach eliminates the congestion and disorder associated with manual, on-site registration.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To ensure examination security and prevent disorderly conduct, testing centers <span class=\""highlight\"">verify the identity of each candidate using government-issued photo identification, capture and store the candidate's physical signature, and may use biometric technology such as capturing the candidate's fingerprint or palm vein pattern</span>.""}]",,58
+2998,What's the maritime equivalent of yelling 'surprise!' when rounding a blind corner?,"['The latter vessel must use the signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) (§ 83.34(d)) if in doubt as to the intention of the crossing vessel. - (e) (i) In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking, the power-driven vessel intending to overtake another power-driven vessel shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c) (§ 83.34)(c)) and take steps to permit safe passing. The power-driven vessel being overtaken, if in agreement, shall sound the same signal and may, if specifically agreed to, take steps to permit safe passing. If in doubt she shall sound the signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) (§ 83.34)(d)). - (ii) This Rule does not relieve the overtaking vessel of her obligation under Rule 13 (§ 83.13). - (f) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a narrow channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and shall sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e) (§ 83.34(e)). - (g) Any vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid anchoring in a narrow channel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10 ## Traffic Separation Schemes', '## Traffic Separation Schemes - (a) This Rule applies to traffic separation schemes adopted by the Organization and does not relieve any vessel of her obligation under any other rule. - (b) A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall: - (i) proceed in the appropriate traffic lane in the general direction of traffic flow for that lane; - (ii) so far as practicable keep clear of a traffic separation line or separation zone; (iii) normally join or leave a traffic lane at the termination of the lane, but when joining or leaving from either side shall do so at as small an angle to the general direction of traffic flow as practicable. - (c) A vessel shall, so far as practicable, avoid crossing traffic lanes but if obliged to do so shall cross on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow. - (d) (i) A vessel shall not use an inshore traffic zone when she can safely use the appropriate traffic lane within the adjacent traffic separation scheme. However, vessels of less than 20 meters in length, sailing vessels and vessels engaged in fishing may use the inshore traffic zone. - (ii) Notwithstanding subparagraph (d)(i), a vessel may use an inshore traffic zone when en route to or from a port, offshore installation or structure, pilot station or any other place situated within the inshore traffic zone, or to avoid immediate danger. - (e) A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except: - (i) in cases of emergency to avoid immediate danger; - (ii) to engage in fishing within a separation zone. - (f) A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with particular caution. - (g) A vessel shall so far as practicable avoid anchoring in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near its terminations. - (h) A vessel not using a traffic separation scheme shall avoid it by as wide a margin as is practicable.', '## Action to Avoid Collision - (a) Any action taken to avoid collision shall be taken in accordance with the Rules of this Part and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship. - (b) Any alteration of course and/or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/or speed should be avoided. - (c) If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close-quarters situation provided that it is made in good time, is substantial and does not result in another close-quarters situation. - (d) Action taken to avoid collision with another vessel shall be such as to result in passing at a safe distance. The effectiveness of the action shall be carefully checked until the other vessel is finally past and clear. - (e) If necessary to avoid collision or allow more time to assess the situation, a vessel shall slacken her speed or take all way off by stopping or reversing her means of propulsion. - (f) (i) A vessel which, by any of these rules, is required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel shall, when required by the circumstances of the case, take early action to allow sufficient sea room for the safe passage of the other vessel. - (ii) A vessel required not to impede the passage or safe passage of another vessel is not relieved of this obligation if approaching the other vessel so as to involve risk of collision and shall, when taking action, have full regard to the action which may be required by the rules of this part. - (iii) A vessel, the passage of which is not to be impeded remains fully obliged to comply with the rules of this part when the two vessels are approaching one another so as to involve risk of collision. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 8 ## Action to avoid collision ## § 83.08', ""## Maneuvering and Warning Signals - (a) When vessels are in sight of one another, a power-driven vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules, shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - -one short blast to mean 'I am altering my course to starboard'; - -two short blasts to mean 'I am altering my course to port'; - -three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (b) Any vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals, repeated as appropriate, while the maneuver is being carried out: - (i) these light signals shall have the following significance: - -one flash to mean 'I am altering my course to starboard'; - -two flashes to mean 'I am altering my course to port'; - -three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) the duration of each flash shall be about one second, the interval between flashes shall be about one second, and the interval between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds; - (iii) the light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be an all-round white light, visible at a minimum range of 5 miles, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Regulations. - (c) When in sight of one another in a narrow channel or fairway: - (i) a vessel intending to overtake another shall in compliance with Rule 9(e)(i) indicate her intention by the following signals on her whistle: - -two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your starboard side'; - -two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your port side'. - (ii) the vessel about to be overtaken when acting in accordance with Rule 9(e)(i) shall indicate her agreement by the following signal on her whistle: - -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order."", '## Head-on Situation - (a) When two power-driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other. - (b) Such a situation shall be deemed to exist when a vessel sees the other ahead or nearly ahead and by night she could see the masthead lights of the other in a line or nearly in a line and/or both sidelights and by day she observes the corresponding aspect of the other vessel. - (c) When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether such a situation exists she shall assume that it does exist and act accordingly. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 13 ## Overtaking ## § 83.13 - (a) Notwithstanding anything contained in Rules 4 through 18 (§§ 83.04 through 83.18), any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken. - (b) A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam; that is, in such a position with reference to the vessel she is overtaking, that at night she would be able to see only the sternlight of that vessel but neither of her sidelights. - (c) When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether she is overtaking another, she shall assume that this is the case and act accordingly. - (d) Any subsequent alteration of the bearing between the two vessels shall not make the overtaking vessel a crossing vessel within the meaning of these Rules or relieve her of the duty of keeping clear of the overtaken vessel until she is finally past and clear. ## Rule 14 ## Head-on situation ## § 83.14']",hard,answer,The maritime equivalent of yelling 'surprise!' when rounding a blind corner is to sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e) (§ 83.34(e)). This involves navigating with particular alertness and caution and sounding the signal to warn other vessels that may be obscured by an intervening obstruction.,5,Maritime signal regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In maritime navigation, the equivalent of yelling 'surprise!' when rounding a blind corner is sounding the appropriate signal as prescribed in Rule 34(e) (\u00a7 83.34(e)): <span class=\""highlight\"">When a power-driven vessel or vessel with a tow is nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels might be obscured, the vessel shall sound one prolonged blast</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This signal serves as an alert to other vessels, and <span class=\""highlight\"">such signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In narrow channels or fairways when overtaking, <span class=\""highlight\"">the power-driven vessel intending to overtake another power-driven vessel shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c) (\u00a7 83.34(c))</span> and take steps to permit safe passing. If the vessel being overtaken is unsure of the other's intention, <span class=\""highlight\"">it may sound the danger signal as designated in Rule 34(d) (\u00a7 83.34(d))</span> - five short and rapid blasts on the whistle.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""These sound signals are part of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea (COLREGs) and the Inland Navigation Rules, which govern navigation on the high seas and inland waters, respectively. They are designed to prevent collisions between vessels and ensure safe navigation in all conditions.""}]",,59
+3964,What is the deadline for submitting the FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 report?,"[""The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) Management Schedule 10, Motor Vehicle and Aircraft Maintenance and Operations Records, provides Federal agencies with guidance on the management of records and other types of documentary materials accumulated by Federal agencies and officials. - a. Section 15303 of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, Pub. L. No. 99-272, requires all Federal agencies to submit annual reports of motor vehicle-related obligations and outlays. This information will be requested each August by the Office of Facilities, Information and Asset Management (M-93). A consolidated report will be prepared and submitted to the Office of the Secretary of Transportation (OST) Office of Budget. - b. 41 CFR § 102-5 requires written notification be provided within 60 days of approval to Congress on approval/usage for home-to-work transportation for employees provided for reasons other than field work or law enforcement. - c. Federal policies (OMB Circular A-11, GSA Bulletin B-30, et al) requires agencies to report annually information on Federal motor vehicle usage and the makeup of their motor vehicle fleets, along with the use of efficient and alternative fuel vehicles as part of petroleum reduction goals. Federal agencies report the following data to GSA and DOE each year via the FAST: - i. Motor vehicle acquisitions; - ii. Petroleum and alternative fuel consumption; - iii. Requests for EPAct of 2005 Section 701 waivers surrounding alternative fuel consumption; and - iv. Fleet fueling centers - d. OA Fleet Managers must ensure that individual history record files are established for each assigned vehicle. The system of record for maintaining this data will be DOT's Integrated Logistics Management System (ILMS) for inventory reporting purposes. - i. Maintain this file in complete and up-to-date status, from the time the vehicle is acquired until it is transferred for disposal or excess. History record files may be maintained in hard copy and/or computer media. - ii. History record files shall accompany vehicles transferred from one activity to another. - iii. At a minimum, maintain the following information in the vehicle history record: - a) Crash reports;"", ""| EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required | | Annual GHG and Sustainability Data Report | Provide FAST and non-FAST mobile emissions data to OSSM | Gallons of fuel consumed by type Cost of fuel consumed OA Representative provides non- FAST vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 1, or date mutually agreed upon between the OA and OSSM for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - Data Report | Provide FAST inventory, acquisition, and disposal data; fuel consumption, vehicle costs | Vehicle inventory actuals, acquisition actuals, and disposal actuals data Vehicle cost and mileage data report Actual fuel cost and consumption by fuel type data OA Fleet Manger provides owned vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 15 | ## 6. POLICY UPDATES AND/OR REVISIONS At least once every three years the OST Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management will review this Order to determine whether updates or revisions are necessary. In the interim, if Congress revises applicable laws, or the Executive Branch issues new E.O.s, Presidential Memoranda, guidance, or instructions related to fleet sustainability, they are incorporated by reference until the next update to this Order is made. ## 7. POLICY EXCEPTION REQUIREMENTS This Order applies to internal DOT actions and activities that affect the Department's vehicle fleet excluding vehicles cited as exempt within the Guidance for Federal Agencies on E.O. 13514, Section 12, Federal Fleet Management. OA Administrators can submit a request for a policy exception for DOT-owned or leased vehicles to the SSO, through OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management. Specific questions relating to this Order should be addressed to OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager. ## 8. DISTRIBUTION"", ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |"", ""## Monitoring for Policy Compliance The Department must use the following monitoring and documentation systems related to the above program initiatives and abide by reporting. The table below describes the major activities and reporting deadlines DOT must follow to meet the requirements of this Order. Unless stated otherwise, these reports are the responsibility of the DOT Fleet Manager, and are required to satisfy DOT-wide motor vehicle fleet reporting requirements. These systems are generally web-based and proprietary to the Federal Government. | Reporting Module | Purpose | Data Attributes to Report | Minimum Reporting Frequency (sustainability requirements) | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 141 | Vehicle type Fuel type Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle acquisition information | Annually, no later than December 15 | | Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year |""]",easy,answer,"The deadline for submitting the FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 report is annually, no later than December 15.",4,Transportation department reporting,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Department of Transportation (DOT) must follow specific reporting deadlines to meet the requirements of the Energy Independence and Security Act (EISA) of 2007. According to the context, <span class=\""highlight\"">the deadline for submitting the FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 report is annually, no later than December 15</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This report is part of DOT's monitoring and documentation systems related to <span class=\""highlight\"">Fleet Automotive Statistical Tool (FAST)</span> requirements and <span class=\""highlight\"">provides information on fleet petroleum consumption and vehicle acquisitions</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Other related reporting deadlines include: <span class=\""highlight\"">EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan (due no later than August 15), Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress (due no later than February 15), and the Annual GHG Report (due no later than January 30)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) Management Schedule 10, Motor Vehicle and Aircraft Maintenance and Operations Records, provides Federal agencies with guidance on the management of records and other types of documentary materials accumulated by Federal agencies and officials.""}]",,60
+4952,Tell me about the size requirements.,"[""## Nutrition Facts labels required on all foods? N1. Are Answer: The Nutrition Facts label (an example is illustrated in section 7 L2) is required on most food packages labeled. The illustration indicates FDA's typeface and style to help assure readability and conspicuousness. Not all of these type specifications are required. The mandatory type specifications are listed in 21 CFR 101.9(d). Unlike the illustrative examples in this guidance, (1) Any legible type style may be used, not just Helvetica, (2) The heading Nutrition Facts must be the largest type size in the nutrition label (i.e., it must be larger than 8-point, but does not need to be 13-point) and should extend the width of the Nutrition Facts box, and (3) There is no specific thickness required for the three bars that separate the central sections of the nutrition -label. 21 CFR 101.9(a) and 21 CFR 101.9(a)(1) are listed categories providing exemptions or special provisions for labeling. Generally, a food package loses those exemptions, if a claim is made or nutrition information is provided: Below -nutrition -nutrition - | Summary of Exemption | Regulation # | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Manufactured by small businesses | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(1) and 101.9(j)(18) | | Food served in restaurants, etc. or delivered - to homes ready for immediate consumption | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(2) | | Delicatessen-type food, bakery products and confections that are sold directly to consumers from the location where prepared | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(3) | | Foods that provide no significant nutrition such as instant coffee (plain, unsweetened) and most spices | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(4) | | Infant formula, and infant and junior foods for children up to 4 years of age (modified label provisions for these categories) | 21 CFR 101.9(j)(5) and 101.9(j)(7) |"", ""## there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? L30.Is present simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron (slightly different rules labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years). The five core shown in bold in the adjoining example, must always appear on all Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food. In addition, Answer: A following saturated sugars, for nutrients, Nutrition any of the nutrients required on the full Nutrition Facts label that are naturally present or are added to the food must be declared on the simplified Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(f) - List of nutrients; 101.9(f)(1) - 'Insignificant' defined; 101.9(c) - 'Insignificant' levels listed for nutrients ## L31.What are insignificant amounts of nutrients? Answer: These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(c) ## L32.When I use the simplified format, when is the statement 'Not a significant source of\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_' required? Answer: This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: (1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared. 21 CFR 101.9(f)(4)"", ""## should the Nutrition Facts appear on the food label? L5. Where CFR 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(D) Nutrition Facts may be on any label panel when the total surface available for labeling is 40 less square inches. Packages with more than 40 square inches of available must place the nutrition information on either the PDP or information as defined in CFR 101.2 there is insufficient space vignettes, etc.), in which case the Nutrition Facts may be on any panel that may be seen readily by consumers. CFR Answer: Under 21 the presented or space panel 21 unless (excluding placed 21 101.9(j)(17) ## print be condensed? L6. Can Answer: Yes, however, if condensing results in a label that does not meet minimum type size requirements, FDA would consider the label misleading. 21 CFR 101.9(d)(1)(iii) ## can be done if the regular Nutrition Facts label (i.e., the vertical does not fit the package? L7. What format) packages with more than 40 square inches available to bear the'side-by-side' format may be used if the regular Nutrition Facts does not fit. In this format, the bottom part of the Nutrition Facts label the vitamin and mineral information) is placed immediately to the and separated with a line. If additional vitamins and minerals are listed iron and the space under iron is inadequate, they may also be listed to right with a line that sets them apart from the footnotes. Answer: On labeling, label (following right after the if the package has insufficient continuous vertical space (i.e., about 3 inches) accommodate the above format, the nutrition label may be presented in a tabular horizontal) display. CFR 101.9(d)(11) Also, to (i.e., 21""]",medium,answer,"The size requirements for the Nutrition Facts label depend on the available labeling space on the package. For packages with 40 square inches or less of available labeling space, the Nutrition Facts may appear on any label panel. For packages with more than 40 square inches, the Nutrition Facts must be placed on either the Principal Display Panel (PDP) or the information panel, unless there is insufficient space (excluding vignettes, etc.), in which case it may be placed on any panel readily seen by consumers. Additionally, the label can be condensed, but if condensing results in a label that does not meet minimum type size requirements, it may be considered misleading. If the regular vertical format does not fit, a 'side-by-side' format may be used, or a tabular (horizontal) display can be employed if there is insufficient continuous vertical space (about 3 inches).",3,Nutrition Facts label sizing,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""CFR 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(D) <span class=\""highlight\"">Nutrition Facts may be on any label panel when the total surface available for labeling is 40 or less square inches</span>. This provides flexibility for smaller packages where space is limited.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Packages with more than 40 square inches of available space must place the nutrition information on either the principal display panel or the information panel</span>. This ensures visibility and consistency in placement for larger packages.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For size requirements of the Nutrition Facts label itself, <span class=\""highlight\"">a simplified format may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts</span>: Calories, total fat, saturated fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sugars, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium, and iron.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The <span class=\""highlight\"">size of type and layout of the Nutrition Facts label must follow FDA's typeface and style guidelines to help ensure readability and conspicuousness</span>. The specific font sizes vary based on the label size category and the element of the nutrition label.""}]",,61
 5148,What are the specific regulatory requirements for products containing nuts in relation to fat content?,"[""[See nutrition information for fat content.] Note: The bracketed phrase naming a specific nut is optional. The bracketed fat content disclosure statement is applicable to a claim made for whole or chopped nuts, but not a claim made for nut-containing products. | | Claims Qualified Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Discretion Factors Enforcement | Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Walnuts & Heart Disease Docket No. 2002P-029 03/09/2004 enforcement discretion letter | Whole or chopped walnuts | Walnuts do not need to comply with the total fat disqualifying level in 21 CFR 101.14(a)(4). Walnuts do not need to comply with the requirement in § 101.14(e)(6) that the food contain a minimum of 10 percent of the Daily Value per RACC of vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or dietary fiber. The disclosure statement about total fat content (i.e., See nutrition information for fat content) is placed immediately following the claim, with no intervening material, in the same size, typeface, and contrast as the claim itself. | Supportive but not conclusive research shows that eating 1.5 ounces per day of walnuts, as part of a low saturated fat and low cholesterol diet and not resulting in increased caloric intake, may reduce the risk of coronary heart disease. See nutrition information for fat [and calorie] content. Notes: The bracketed phrase 'and calorie' is optional in that FDA does not intend for the presence or absence of such phrase to be a factor in whether it considers enforcement discretion for the use of the qualified health claim."", 'Vegetable oil spreads that con- tain 6 g or more olive oil per RACC, are low in cholesterol (21 CFR 101.62(d) (2)) and do not contain more than 4 g of sat- urated fat per RACC. Olive oil-contain- ing foods that contain 6 g or more olive oil per RACC, are low in cholesterol (21 CFR 101.62(d) (2)), contain at least 10% of either vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein | Olive oil, vegetable oil spreads, dressings for salads, shortenings and olive-oil containing foods do not need to comply with the total fat disquali- fying level in 21 CFR 101.14(a)(4). The requirement that the food comply with the 50 gram-criterion of the saturated fat disqualifying level (21 CFR 101.14(e)(3)) does not apply to olive oil, vegetable oil spreads, and shortenings. The requirement that the food contain a minimum of 10 percent of the Daily Value per RACC of at one of the following: vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or dietary fiber per RACC (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)) does not apply to olive oil, dressings for salads, and shortenings. When the total fat disqualifying level is exceeded in vegetable oil spreads, dressings for salads, shortenings, or olive-oil containing foods the disclosure statement (i.e., See nutrition informa- tion for saturated fat content) must be placed immediately following the claim, with no intervening material, in the same size, typeface, and contrast as the claim itself. When the food does not meet the definition of low saturated fat (21 CFR 101.62(c)(2)) the disclosure statement (i.e., See nutrition informa- tion for saturated fat content) must be placed immediately following the claim, with no intervening material, in the same size, typeface, and contrast as the claim itself. If both of the above two conditions are met the disclosure statements for total fat and saturated fat can be combined (i.e., See nutrition information for total and saturated fat content).', ""(Continued) | Conventional foods other than fish may not exceed the total fat disqualifying levels. For individual foods, the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp. The total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size for meal products and 19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products. | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Saturated fat content Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat with regard to the saturated fat content (≤ 1 g per RACC) but not with regard to the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion. | | Fish may not exceed the saturated fat disqualifying level of 4.0 g per RACC (or 4.0 g per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). | | Conventional foods other than fish must meet the criteria for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC and no more than 15 percent of calories from saturated fat for individual foods, ≤ 1 g per 100 g and less than 10 percent calories from saturated fat for meal products and main dish products). There is an error in the enforcement discretion letters in the section of 'low saturated fat,' stating that meal products and main dishes meet all criteria specified for the 'low saturated fat' criteria (21 CFR 101.62(c)(2)). The CFR number should be (21 CFR 101.62(c)(3)). | | Cholesterol content Dietary supplements that weigh 5 g or less per RACC are exempt from the cholesterol disqualifying level (60 mg per 50 g), but those that exceed the cholesterol disqualifying level must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must meet the criterion for low cholesterol (≤ 20 mg per 50g). |"", '| | Qualified | | Factors for Exercising Enforcement Discretion | Claim | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Health Claims Nuts & Heart Disease Docket No. 2002P-0505 07/14/2003 enforcement discretion letter | Eligible Foods (1) Whole or chopped nuts listed below that are raw, blanched, roasted, salted, and/or lightly coated and/or flavored; any fat or carbohydrate added in the coating or flavoring must meet the 21 CFR 101.9(f)(1) definition of an insignificant amount. (2) Nut-contain- ing products other than whole or chopped nuts that contain at least 11 g of one or more of the nuts listed below per RACC. (3) Types of nuts eligible for this claim are restrict- ed to almonds, hazelnuts, pea- nuts, pecans, some pine nuts, pistachio nuts, and walnuts. Types of nuts on which the health claim may be based is restricted to those nuts that were specifically included in the health claim petition, but that do not exceed 4 g saturated fat per 50 g of nuts. | Whole or chopped nuts Whole or chopped nuts do not need to comply with the total fat disquali- fying level in 21 CFR 101.14(a)(4).']",medium,answer,"The specific regulatory requirements for products containing nuts in relation to fat content are as follows:
 
 1. **Whole or Chopped Nuts**:
@@ -176,8 +176,8 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 3. **General Requirements**:
    - For conventional foods other than fish, the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp.
    - For meal products, the total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size, and for main dish products, it is 19.5 g per label serving size.
-   - Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC) but are exempt from the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion if they weigh 5 g or less per RACC.",4,Nut product fat content regulation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Whole or chopped nuts are exempt from total fat disqualifying level and low fat definition</span>. Disclosure statement &quot;See nutrition information for fat content&quot; required.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Products containing <span class=\""highlight\"">at least 11g of nuts per RACC may make a reduced fat claim comparing to regular product provided the reduction is 50% or more and is at least 3g fat per RACC</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Ground or chopped nuts used in the filling of baked goods are not exempt from fat restrictions unless they meet the requirements for reduced or low fat.""}]",,62
-3070,"If a vessel is towing an inconspicuous object, what light should it use and how far should it be visible?","['- (iii) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongsidetowing vessel less than 50 meters in length. International only. - (d) A power-driven vessel to which paragraph (a) or (c) of this Rule applies shall also comply with Rule 23(a)(ii). Power-driven vessel towing astern-length of tow 200 meters or less. The after masthead light is optional for vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except as required by paragraphs (b) and (i) of this Rule, shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§ 83.23)(a)(i) and (ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; and - (iii) Two towing lights in a vertical line. Power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length. Inland only. - (d) A power-driven vessel to which paragraphs (a) or (c) of this Rule applies shall also comply with Rule 23(a)(i) and 23(a)(ii) (§ 83.23(a)(i) or (ii)). Power-driven vessel towing astern-length of tow 200 meters or less. When masthead lights for towing or pushing are exhibited aft, a forward masthead light is required. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (e) A vessel or object being towed, other than those mentioned in paragraph (g) of this Rule, shall exhibit: - (i) sidelights; - (ii) a sternlight; - when the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where - (iii) it can best be seen. Vessel or object being towed-length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland.', 'The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In a vessel of 50 meters or more in length: - (i) A masthead light, 6 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 3 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 3 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 3 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (b) In a vessel of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 2 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (c) In a vessel of less than 12 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 2 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 1 mile; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (d) In an inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object being towed: - (i) A white all-round light, 3 miles. - (ii) [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Lights and Shapes ## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway', 'Power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes [BLANK] ## Rule 23-CONTINUED (e) A power-driven vessel when operating on the Great Lakes may carry an allround white light in lieu of the second masthead light and sternlight prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. The light shall be carried in the position of the second masthead light and be visible at the same minimum range. Power-driven vessel on Great Lakes. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24 Towing and Pushing - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or (a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow, exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; - (iii) a sternlight; - (iv) a towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) when the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland ## Rule 24 Towing and pushing ## § 83.24', 'In a vessel of less than 20 m in length the sidelights may be combined in one lantern carried on the fore and aft centerline of the vessel. - (c) Sternlight means a white light placed as nearly as practicable at the stern showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 135° and so fixed as to show the light 67.5° from right aft on each side of the vessel. - (d) Towing light means a yellow light having the same characteristics as the sternlight defined in paragraph (c) of this Rule. - (e) Allround light means a light showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 360°. - (f) Flashing light means a light flashing at regular intervals at a frequency of 120 flashes or more per minute. ## Rule 21 ## Definitions ## § 83.21 (a) Masthead light means a white light placed over the fore and aft centerline of the vessel showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 225 degrees and so fixed as to show the light from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on either side of the vessel, except that on a vessel of less than 12 meters in length the masthead light shall be placed as nearly as practicable to the fore and aft centerline of the vessel. - (b) Sidelights mean a green light on the starboard side and a red light on the port side each showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 112.5 degrees and so fixed as to show the light from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on its respective side. On a vessel of less than 20 meters in length the sidelights may be combined in one lantern carried on the fore and aft centerline of the vessel, except that on a vessel of less than 12 meters in length the sidelights when combined in one lantern shall be placed as nearly as practicable to the fore and aft centerline of the vessel.', 'The lights prescribed in these Rules shall have an intensity as specified in Section 8 of Annex I to these Regulations so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In vessels of 50 meters or more in length: - -a masthead light, 6 miles; - -a sidelight, 3 miles; - -a sternlight, 3 miles; - -a towing light, 3 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles. - (b) In vessels of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - -a masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - -a sidelight, 2 miles; - -a sternlight, 2 miles; - -a towing light, 2 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles. - (c) In vessels of less than 12 meters in length: - -a masthead light, 2 miles; - -a sidelight, 1 mile; - -a sternlight, 2 miles; - -a towing light, 2 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles. - (d) In inconspicuous, partly submerged vessels or objects being towed: - -a white all-round light, 3 miles. ## Rule 22 Visibility of lights ## § 83.22 The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges:']",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, when a vessel is towing an inconspicuous, partly submerged object, the object being towed should exhibit a white all-round light. This light should be visible at a minimum range of 3 miles.",5,Maritime towing light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Object being towed shall exhibit <span class=\""highlight\"">a white all-round light at forward end and one at or near stern</span>. If impractical, single white all-round light exhibited.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For inconspicuous, partly submerged objects, <span class=\""highlight\"">white all-round light visible at minimum distance of 3 miles</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessel towing an inconspicuous, partly submerged object must display <span class=\""highlight\"">a diamond shape where it can best be seen</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Towing vessel must also display masthead lights, sidelights, and towing light arrangement appropriate to length of tow.""}]",,63
+   - Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC) but are exempt from the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion if they weigh 5 g or less per RACC.",4,Nut product fat content regulation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For products containing nuts, there are specific regulatory requirements related to fat content. [[start_highlight]]The bracketed fat content disclosure statement ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""[[start_highlight]]Whole or chopped nuts do not need to meet the nutrient content claim requirements for ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""However, <span class=\""highlight\"">nut-containing products (as opposed to whole or chopped nuts themselves) must meet the standard requirements for nutrient content claims regarding fat levels</span>, including the criteria for ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When making qualified health claims about nuts, [[start_highlight]]the bracketed phrase naming a specific nut (e.g., ""}]",,62
+3070,"If a vessel is towing an inconspicuous object, what light should it use and how far should it be visible?","['- (iii) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongsidetowing vessel less than 50 meters in length. International only. - (d) A power-driven vessel to which paragraph (a) or (c) of this Rule applies shall also comply with Rule 23(a)(ii). Power-driven vessel towing astern-length of tow 200 meters or less. The after masthead light is optional for vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except as required by paragraphs (b) and (i) of this Rule, shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§ 83.23)(a)(i) and (ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; and - (iii) Two towing lights in a vertical line. Power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length. Inland only. - (d) A power-driven vessel to which paragraphs (a) or (c) of this Rule applies shall also comply with Rule 23(a)(i) and 23(a)(ii) (§ 83.23(a)(i) or (ii)). Power-driven vessel towing astern-length of tow 200 meters or less. When masthead lights for towing or pushing are exhibited aft, a forward masthead light is required. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (e) A vessel or object being towed, other than those mentioned in paragraph (g) of this Rule, shall exhibit: - (i) sidelights; - (ii) a sternlight; - when the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where - (iii) it can best be seen. Vessel or object being towed-length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland.', 'The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In a vessel of 50 meters or more in length: - (i) A masthead light, 6 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 3 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 3 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 3 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (b) In a vessel of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 2 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (c) In a vessel of less than 12 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 2 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 1 mile; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (d) In an inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object being towed: - (i) A white all-round light, 3 miles. - (ii) [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Lights and Shapes ## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway', 'Power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes [BLANK] ## Rule 23-CONTINUED (e) A power-driven vessel when operating on the Great Lakes may carry an allround white light in lieu of the second masthead light and sternlight prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. The light shall be carried in the position of the second masthead light and be visible at the same minimum range. Power-driven vessel on Great Lakes. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24 Towing and Pushing - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or (a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow, exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; - (iii) a sternlight; - (iv) a towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) when the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland ## Rule 24 Towing and pushing ## § 83.24', 'In a vessel of less than 20 m in length the sidelights may be combined in one lantern carried on the fore and aft centerline of the vessel. - (c) Sternlight means a white light placed as nearly as practicable at the stern showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 135° and so fixed as to show the light 67.5° from right aft on each side of the vessel. - (d) Towing light means a yellow light having the same characteristics as the sternlight defined in paragraph (c) of this Rule. - (e) Allround light means a light showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 360°. - (f) Flashing light means a light flashing at regular intervals at a frequency of 120 flashes or more per minute. ## Rule 21 ## Definitions ## § 83.21 (a) Masthead light means a white light placed over the fore and aft centerline of the vessel showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 225 degrees and so fixed as to show the light from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on either side of the vessel, except that on a vessel of less than 12 meters in length the masthead light shall be placed as nearly as practicable to the fore and aft centerline of the vessel. - (b) Sidelights mean a green light on the starboard side and a red light on the port side each showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 112.5 degrees and so fixed as to show the light from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on its respective side. On a vessel of less than 20 meters in length the sidelights may be combined in one lantern carried on the fore and aft centerline of the vessel, except that on a vessel of less than 12 meters in length the sidelights when combined in one lantern shall be placed as nearly as practicable to the fore and aft centerline of the vessel.', 'The lights prescribed in these Rules shall have an intensity as specified in Section 8 of Annex I to these Regulations so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In vessels of 50 meters or more in length: - -a masthead light, 6 miles; - -a sidelight, 3 miles; - -a sternlight, 3 miles; - -a towing light, 3 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles. - (b) In vessels of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - -a masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - -a sidelight, 2 miles; - -a sternlight, 2 miles; - -a towing light, 2 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles. - (c) In vessels of less than 12 meters in length: - -a masthead light, 2 miles; - -a sidelight, 1 mile; - -a sternlight, 2 miles; - -a towing light, 2 miles; - -a white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles. - (d) In inconspicuous, partly submerged vessels or objects being towed: - -a white all-round light, 3 miles. ## Rule 22 Visibility of lights ## § 83.22 The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges:']",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, when a vessel is towing an inconspicuous, partly submerged object, the object being towed should exhibit a white all-round light. This light should be visible at a minimum range of 3 miles.",5,Maritime towing light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a vessel is towing an inconspicuous, partly submerged object, <span class=\""highlight\"">the object being towed should exhibit a white all-round light at or near the forward end</span> and one at or near the after end.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The white all-round light on an inconspicuous, partly submerged object being towed shall be visible at a minimum range of 3 miles</span>. This requirement ensures that other vessels can see the object from a safe distance to avoid collisions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When it is impracticable for the inconspicuous, partly submerged object to exhibit all the lights prescribed, <span class=\""highlight\"">the object shall be marked by a white all-round light at each end or as near to the extremities of the object as possible</span>, ensuring visibility from all possible angles.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In addition to the lights required on the towed object, the towing vessel itself must display the appropriate lights for its type and the nature of the tow, which typically includes sidelights, a sternlight, and towing lights as prescribed by the maritime rules.""}]",,63
 1539,What are the main sources of evidence we currently have about diet and cancer prevention?,"['these patterns are also lower in added sugar, saturated and/or trans fats, and excess calories. These healthy dietary pattern scores have also been associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer 22,64 and total cancer incidence 65,66 in meta-analyses of observational studies. Two randomized clinical trials found lower overall cancer or breast cancer 8 risk among those randomized to follow the Mediterranean diet. Thus, these studies provide consistent and compelling evidence that healthy dietary patterns are associated with a decreased risk of cancer, all-cause mortality, and other chronic disease endpoints. These healthy dietary patterns are associated not only with improved health but also with a lower environmental impact, such as reduced greenhouse gas emissions and energy, land, and water use compared with the average US diet. 67 Environmentally sustainable diets emphasize fruits and vegetables, whole grains, plant-sourced protein foods, unsaturated plant oils, and more limited (optional) quantities of animal-based protein foods, dairy products, and sugar. 68 Attention to complex issues of food production practices and distribution will be needed to identify approaches to further reduce the carbon footprint and other environmental impacts of dietary sources. Regardless, achieving recommended dietary patterns, such as those recommended herein, may lead to improved food security and environmental sustainability for future generations. Healthy dietary patterns may reduce the risk of cancer and other diseases through multiple mechanisms. For example, plant-based diets are associated with lower levels of inflammation, improved insulin response, and less oxidative DNA damage. 69 Plant-based diets are also associated with higher concentrations of beneficial gut bacteria compared with mostly animal-based diets high in saturated fat and sugar. 70,71 Additional research on the relationship of dietary factors with these metabolic and microbial biomarkers and with health outcomes will continue to help in elucidating the role that diet plays in carcinogenesis. ## Vegetables and fruit', 'The glycemic load gives a truer picture of how blood glucose is elevated in relation to the intake of a specific food item. Much research has been conducted examining the potential impact of the glycemic load of a diet on cancer risk. 170 Most recent comprehensive reports indicate that eating a dietary pattern high in glycemic load is associated with a higher risk of endometrial cancer. More research is needed to determine the impact on additional cancer sites. ## Inflammation and Anti-Inflammatory Strategies Do anti-inflammatory diets reduce cancer risk? Inflammation has long been recognized as a physiological response to tissue injury, and its relationship to microbial infection was recognized hundreds of years ago. However, the role of inflammation in carcinogenesis was recognized more recently, and the relationships of diet, inflammation, and risk of cancer (as well as cardiovascular disease and overall mortality) are still an evolving area of research. A combination of laboratory experimentation and epidemiological research has identified certain foods and their chemical components that promote systemic inflammation as well as chronic inflammation of certain tissues. 171,172 This information is the basis of anti-inflammatory dietary patterns, which share some characteristics with the recommendations in this guideline, such as high intake of vegetables and fruit and low intake of red and processed meat. ## Irradiated Foods ## Why are foods irradiated, and can these foods increase cancer risk? Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation to food) is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Similar to pasteurizing milk and canning fruits and vegetables, irradiation can make food safer for the consumer. Irradiation does not make foods radioactive; compromise nutritional quality; or noticeably change the taste, texture, or appearance of food. In fact, changes made by irradiation are so minimal that it is not easy to tell if a food has been irradiated.', ""## Dietary patterns as a modern and more appropriate focus Because of accumulating evidence on healthy dietary patterns in relation to chronic disease risk reduction, an emphasis on dietary patterns is now highlighted in the 2015 to 2020 US DGA. 56 This is particularly relevant because, although the associations of individual nutrients and foods with cancer may be small, additive and interactive effects could be important. Several comprehensive 4 reviews support recommendations to follow healthy dietary patterns. The 2015 Dietary Guidelines Scientific Report concluded that there is moderate evidence that dietary patterns rich in plant foods and lower in animal products and refined carbohydrates are associated with a lower risk of postmenopausal breast cancer, and plant-based patterns low in red and processed meat and added sugars are associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer. In addition, 7 the WCRF/AICR concluded that a Mediterranean diet is 'convincingly' associated with a lower risk of weight gain, overweight, or obesity, whereas a 'Western'-type dietary pattern is 'probably' associated with an increased risk of these outcomes. The Diet Patterns Methods Project, 4 57 a multicenter study of dietary patterns and cause-specific mortality, reported an 8% to 17% lower risk of cancer mortality among women and a 17% to 24% lower risk among men whose diets were most (vs least) concordant with 4 healthy dietary pattern scores. The dietary patterns examined included the Mediterranean Diet, 58,59 the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension diet, 60,61 the US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Healthy Eating Index, 62 and the Harvard Alternate Healthy Eating Index. 63 Although these and other healthful dietary patterns have unique features, they share a foundation of mostly plant foods (including nonstarchy vegetables, whole fruits, whole grains, legumes, and nuts/seeds) and healthy protein sources (higher in legumes and/or fish and/or poultry, and lower in processed meats and red meat), and include unsaturated fats (eg, monosaturated and/or polyunsaturated fat); these""]",hard,answer,"The main sources of evidence about diet and cancer prevention include:
 
 1. **Meta-analyses of observational studies**: These have associated healthy dietary patterns with a lower risk of colorectal cancer, total cancer incidence, and other chronic diseases.
@@ -188,8 +188,8 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 4. **The Diet Patterns Methods Project**: This multicenter study found that diets most concordant with healthy dietary patterns (like the Mediterranean Diet, DASH diet, and others) were associated with lower cancer mortality rates.
 
-5. **Laboratory and epidemiological research**: These studies have identified foods and dietary components that influence inflammation, insulin response, and gut microbiota, which are linked to cancer risk.",3,Diet-cancer research evidence,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Meta-analyses of observational studies have associated healthy dietary patterns with lower risk of colorectal cancer</span>. Patterns emphasize whole fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean protein.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Dietary intervention trials, including reduced fat intake and increased fruit/vegetable/grain consumption, but these have yielded mixed results</span>. Women&#x27;s Health Initiative showed no significant reduction in cancer risk.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Mechanistic studies exploring biological pathways between dietary components and cancer risk</span> (inflammation, hormonal effects, antioxidant mechanisms).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Evidence suggests diet&#x27;s influence on cancer may act through effects on weight and obesity, which are established risk factors for many cancers.""}]",,64
-4118,Is the sky doing something unusual in Oklahoma?,"[""9 even Oklahoma has more or less conceded the 54; see also Okla. Opp. Atty. Gen. 71, 1991 WL 567868, *3. In the past, point. The last time Oklahoma was before us, it asked this Court to usurp congressional authority and disestablish the Creek Reservation because, otherwise, the State 'would not have jurisdiction over' 'crimes committed against Indians' within its boundaries. See Tr. of Oral Arg. in McGirt v. Oklahoma, No. 18-9526, O. T. 2019, p. McGirt, 591 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 37-38). In 1991, Oklahoma's attorney general formally resolved that major '[c]rimes committed by or against Indians... are under the exclusive province of the United States,' while Tribes retain exclusive jurisdiction over'minor crimes committed by Indians.' Haney, 22 And Oklahoma's own courts have recently taken the same position even in the face of vehement opposition from the State's executive branch. See, e.g., Spears, 485 P. 3d, at 875, 877. ------ J., dissenting GORSUCH, D Against all this evidence, what is the Court's reply? It acknowledges that, at the Nation's founding, tribal sovereignty precluded States from prosecuting crimes on tribal lands by or against tribal members without congressional authorization. See ante, at 5. But the Court suggests this traditional ''notion'' flipped 180 degrees sometime in 'the latter half of the 1800s.' Ante, at 5, 21. Since then, the Court says, Oklahoma has enjoyed the 'inherent' power to try at least crimes by non-Indians against tribal members on tribal reservations until and unless Congress preempts state authority."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, A. Scalia &amp; B. Garner, Reading Law 252 (2012); 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did not endow the State with any power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands but reserved that authority to the federal government and Tribes alone. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. From start to finish, the Court defies our duty to interpret Congress's laws and our own prior work 'harmoniously' as 'part of an entire corpus juris.' see also Goodyear Atomic Corp. v. Miller, 486 U. S. 174, 184-185 (1988). C Putting aside these astonishing errors, Congress's work and this Court's precedents yield three clear principles that firmly resolve this case. First, tribal sovereign authority excludes the operation of other sovereigns' criminal laws unless and until Congress ordains otherwise. Second, while Congress has extended a good deal of federal criminal law to tribal lands, in Oklahoma it has authorized the State to prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans within tribal boundaries only if it satisfies certain requirements. Under Public Law 280, the State must remove state-law barriers to jurisdiction and obtain tribal consent. Third, because Oklahoma has done neither of these things, it lacks the authority it seeks to try crimes against tribal members within a tribal reservation. Until today, all this settled law was well appreciated by this Court, the Executive Branch, and even Oklahoma. Consider first our own precedents and those of other courts. In 1946 in Williams v. United States, this Court recognized that, while States'may have jurisdiction over offenses committed on th[e] reservation between persons who are not Indians, the laws and courts of the United States, rather than those of [the States], have jurisdiction over offenses committed there... by one who is not an Indian against one who is an Indian.' 327 U. S. 711, 714 (footnote ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""J., dissenting GORSUCH, Tribal Nations began seeking retrocession and repeal.' Brief for National Indigenous Women's Resource Center et al. as Amici Curiae 12. Recently, a bipartisan congressional commission agreed that more state criminal jurisdiction in Indian country is often not a good policy choice. See Indian Law and Order Commission, A Roadmap for Making Native America Safer: Report to the President and Congress of the United States xi, xiv, 11-15 (Nov. 2013). Still, none of this finds its way into the Court's cost-benefit analysis. Instead, the Court marches on. The second 'factor' it weighs in its 'balance'-and the only history it seems interested in consulting-concerns Oklahoma's account of its experiences in the last two years since McGirt. Adopting the State's representations wholesale, the Court says that decision has posed Oklahoma with law-and-order 'challenge[s].' Ante, at 4. To support its thesis, the Court cites the State's unsubstantiated 'estimat[e]' that McGirt has forced it to 'transfer prosecutorial responsibility for more than 18,000 cases per year to' federal and tribal authorities. Ibid. Apparently on the belief that the transfer of cases from state to federal prosecutors equates to an eruption of chaos and criminality, the Court remarks casually that traditional limitations on state prosecutorial authority on tribal lands were 'insignificant in the real world' before McGirt. Ante, at 16. But what does this prove? Put aside for the moment questions about the accuracy of Oklahoma's statistics and what the number of cases transferred from state to federal prosecutors may or may not mean for law and order. See Tr. of Oral Arg. 26 (questioning whether the State's 'figures' might be 'grossly exaggerated'). Taking the Court's account at face value, it might amount to a reason for Oklahoma to lobby the Cherokee to consent to state jurisdiction. It might be a reason for the State to petition ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 2d Sess., 78 Appropriations Act, H. R. 2471, 117th Cong., (2022). Meanwhile, the Solicitor General has offered the Executive Branch's judgment that McGirt' s 'practical consequences' do not justify this Court's intervention, explaining that the Department of Justice is 'working diligently with tribal and State partners' in Oklahoma. See Brief for United States as Amicus Curiae 32. maybe even See, There is even more evidence cutting against the Court's dystopian tale. According to a recent United States Attorney in Oklahoma, 'the sky isn't falling' and 'partnerships between tribal law enforcement and state law enforcement' are strong. A. Herrera, Trent Shores Reflects on His Time as U. S. Attorney, Remains Committed to Justice for Indian Country, KOSU-NPR (Feb. 24, 2021), www.kosu.org/politics/2021-02-24/trent-shoresreflects-on-his-time-as-u-s-attorney-remains-committed-tojustice-for-indian-country. A Federal Bureau of Investigation special agent in charge of Oklahoma has stated that violent crimes ''are being pursued as heavily as they were in the past, and in some cases, stronger.'' A. Brothers, Oklahoma Special Agent Says FBI Faces Challenges in 3 Categories, News on 6 (Feb. 14, 2022), https://www.newson6.com/story/620b261bf8cd4a07e 5cb845b/oklahoma-special-agent-says-fbi-faces-challengesin-3-categories. And the Tribes-those most affected by all this supposed lawlessness within their reservations-tell us that, after a period of adjustment, federal prosecutors are now pursuing lower level offenses vigorously too. See Brief for Muscogee (Creek) Nation as Amicus Curiae on Pet. for Cert. 11-12, and nn. 21-22 (collecting indictments). The federal government has made a similar representation to this Court. Tr."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, Congress to revise criminal jurisdictional arrangements in the State even without tribal consent. But it is no act of statutory or constitutional interpretation. It is a policy argument through and through. Nor is the Court's policy argument exactly complete in its assessment of the costs and benefits. When this Court issued McGirt, it expressly acknowledged that cases involving crimes by or against tribal members within reservation boundaries would have to be transferred from state to tribal or federal authorities. 591 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 36-42). This Court anticipated, too, that this process would require a period of readjustment. But, the Court recognized, all this was necessary only because Oklahoma had long overreached its authority on tribal reservations and defied legally binding congressional promises. See ibid. this new workload think the 'costs' Notably, too, neither the tribal nor the federal authorities on the receiving end of of this period of readjustment begin to justify the Court's course. For their part, Tribes in Oklahoma have hired more police officers, prosecutors, and judges. See Cherokee Brief 10-11. Based on that investment, Oklahoma's Tribes have begun to prosecute substantially more cases than they once did. See id., at 12-13. And they have also shown a willingness to work with Oklahoma, having signed hundreds of cross-deputization agreements allowing local law enforcement to collaborate with tribal police. Id., at 1516, and n. 39. Even Oklahoma's amici concede these agreements have proved 'an important tool' for law enforcement. Brief for Oklahoma District Attorneys Association et al. as Amici Curiae 14. Both of the federal government's elected branches have also responded, if not in the way this Court happens to prefer. Instead of forcing state criminal jurisdiction onto Tribes, Congress has chosen to allocate additional funds for law enforcement in Oklahoma. See, e.g., Consolidated ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,""]",easy,answer,"The phrase 'the sky isn't falling' is used metaphorically in the context to indicate that the situation in Oklahoma is not as dire as some might suggest, particularly regarding law enforcement and jurisdictional changes after the McGirt decision. According to a United States Attorney in Oklahoma, partnerships between tribal and state law enforcement are strong, and violent crimes are being pursued as vigorously as before, if not more so.",5,Oklahoma legal jurisdiction metaphor,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In Oklahoma, <span class=\""highlight\"">&quot;the sky isn&#x27;t falling&quot; metaphor used to indicate situation is not dire</span> as suggested regarding law enforcement jurisdiction.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Despite jurisdictional changes, <span class=\""highlight\"">federal and tribal authorities have managed criminal cases effectively, and the state retains substantial jurisdiction</span> over non-Indian defendants.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The context discusses legal jurisdiction issues in Oklahoma following Supreme Court decisions affecting tribal authority.""}]",,65
+5. **Laboratory and epidemiological research**: These studies have identified foods and dietary components that influence inflammation, insulin response, and gut microbiota, which are linked to cancer risk.",3,Diet-cancer research evidence,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Meta-analyses of observational studies have associated healthy dietary pattern scores with a lower risk of colorectal cancer and total cancer incidence</span>. These patterns are characterized by being lower in added sugar, saturated and/or trans fats, and excess calories.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Randomized clinical trials have investigated the relationship between Mediterranean dietary patterns and cancer risk</span>. For example, the PREDIMED study found that a Mediterranean diet supplemented with extra-virgin olive oil reduced the risk of breast cancer compared to a low-fat diet.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Epidemiological studies have established strong associations between specific dietary components and cancer risk</span>, such as the relationship between high red and processed meat consumption and colorectal cancer, as well as the protective effects of dietary fiber against the same cancer type.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Mechanistic studies in laboratory settings have provided insights into how dietary factors may influence cancer development at the cellular and molecular level</span>, including effects on inflammation, oxidative stress, DNA damage repair, cell proliferation, and other cancer-related processes.""}]",,64
+4118,Is the sky doing something unusual in Oklahoma?,"[""9 even Oklahoma has more or less conceded the 54; see also Okla. Opp. Atty. Gen. 71, 1991 WL 567868, *3. In the past, point. The last time Oklahoma was before us, it asked this Court to usurp congressional authority and disestablish the Creek Reservation because, otherwise, the State 'would not have jurisdiction over' 'crimes committed against Indians' within its boundaries. See Tr. of Oral Arg. in McGirt v. Oklahoma, No. 18-9526, O. T. 2019, p. McGirt, 591 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 37-38). In 1991, Oklahoma's attorney general formally resolved that major '[c]rimes committed by or against Indians... are under the exclusive province of the United States,' while Tribes retain exclusive jurisdiction over'minor crimes committed by Indians.' Haney, 22 And Oklahoma's own courts have recently taken the same position even in the face of vehement opposition from the State's executive branch. See, e.g., Spears, 485 P. 3d, at 875, 877. ------ J., dissenting GORSUCH, D Against all this evidence, what is the Court's reply? It acknowledges that, at the Nation's founding, tribal sovereignty precluded States from prosecuting crimes on tribal lands by or against tribal members without congressional authorization. See ante, at 5. But the Court suggests this traditional ''notion'' flipped 180 degrees sometime in 'the latter half of the 1800s.' Ante, at 5, 21. Since then, the Court says, Oklahoma has enjoyed the 'inherent' power to try at least crimes by non-Indians against tribal members on tribal reservations until and unless Congress preempts state authority."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, A. Scalia &amp; B. Garner, Reading Law 252 (2012); 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did not endow the State with any power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands but reserved that authority to the federal government and Tribes alone. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. From start to finish, the Court defies our duty to interpret Congress's laws and our own prior work 'harmoniously' as 'part of an entire corpus juris.' see also Goodyear Atomic Corp. v. Miller, 486 U. S. 174, 184-185 (1988). C Putting aside these astonishing errors, Congress's work and this Court's precedents yield three clear principles that firmly resolve this case. First, tribal sovereign authority excludes the operation of other sovereigns' criminal laws unless and until Congress ordains otherwise. Second, while Congress has extended a good deal of federal criminal law to tribal lands, in Oklahoma it has authorized the State to prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans within tribal boundaries only if it satisfies certain requirements. Under Public Law 280, the State must remove state-law barriers to jurisdiction and obtain tribal consent. Third, because Oklahoma has done neither of these things, it lacks the authority it seeks to try crimes against tribal members within a tribal reservation. Until today, all this settled law was well appreciated by this Court, the Executive Branch, and even Oklahoma. Consider first our own precedents and those of other courts. In 1946 in Williams v. United States, this Court recognized that, while States'may have jurisdiction over offenses committed on th[e] reservation between persons who are not Indians, the laws and courts of the United States, rather than those of [the States], have jurisdiction over offenses committed there... by one who is not an Indian against one who is an Indian.' 327 U. S. 711, 714 (footnote ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""J., dissenting GORSUCH, Tribal Nations began seeking retrocession and repeal.' Brief for National Indigenous Women's Resource Center et al. as Amici Curiae 12. Recently, a bipartisan congressional commission agreed that more state criminal jurisdiction in Indian country is often not a good policy choice. See Indian Law and Order Commission, A Roadmap for Making Native America Safer: Report to the President and Congress of the United States xi, xiv, 11-15 (Nov. 2013). Still, none of this finds its way into the Court's cost-benefit analysis. Instead, the Court marches on. The second 'factor' it weighs in its 'balance'-and the only history it seems interested in consulting-concerns Oklahoma's account of its experiences in the last two years since McGirt. Adopting the State's representations wholesale, the Court says that decision has posed Oklahoma with law-and-order 'challenge[s].' Ante, at 4. To support its thesis, the Court cites the State's unsubstantiated 'estimat[e]' that McGirt has forced it to 'transfer prosecutorial responsibility for more than 18,000 cases per year to' federal and tribal authorities. Ibid. Apparently on the belief that the transfer of cases from state to federal prosecutors equates to an eruption of chaos and criminality, the Court remarks casually that traditional limitations on state prosecutorial authority on tribal lands were 'insignificant in the real world' before McGirt. Ante, at 16. But what does this prove? Put aside for the moment questions about the accuracy of Oklahoma's statistics and what the number of cases transferred from state to federal prosecutors may or may not mean for law and order. See Tr. of Oral Arg. 26 (questioning whether the State's 'figures' might be 'grossly exaggerated'). Taking the Court's account at face value, it might amount to a reason for Oklahoma to lobby the Cherokee to consent to state jurisdiction. It might be a reason for the State to petition ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 2d Sess., 78 Appropriations Act, H. R. 2471, 117th Cong., (2022). Meanwhile, the Solicitor General has offered the Executive Branch's judgment that McGirt' s 'practical consequences' do not justify this Court's intervention, explaining that the Department of Justice is 'working diligently with tribal and State partners' in Oklahoma. See Brief for United States as Amicus Curiae 32. maybe even See, There is even more evidence cutting against the Court's dystopian tale. According to a recent United States Attorney in Oklahoma, 'the sky isn't falling' and 'partnerships between tribal law enforcement and state law enforcement' are strong. A. Herrera, Trent Shores Reflects on His Time as U. S. Attorney, Remains Committed to Justice for Indian Country, KOSU-NPR (Feb. 24, 2021), www.kosu.org/politics/2021-02-24/trent-shoresreflects-on-his-time-as-u-s-attorney-remains-committed-tojustice-for-indian-country. A Federal Bureau of Investigation special agent in charge of Oklahoma has stated that violent crimes ''are being pursued as heavily as they were in the past, and in some cases, stronger.'' A. Brothers, Oklahoma Special Agent Says FBI Faces Challenges in 3 Categories, News on 6 (Feb. 14, 2022), https://www.newson6.com/story/620b261bf8cd4a07e 5cb845b/oklahoma-special-agent-says-fbi-faces-challengesin-3-categories. And the Tribes-those most affected by all this supposed lawlessness within their reservations-tell us that, after a period of adjustment, federal prosecutors are now pursuing lower level offenses vigorously too. See Brief for Muscogee (Creek) Nation as Amicus Curiae on Pet. for Cert. 11-12, and nn. 21-22 (collecting indictments). The federal government has made a similar representation to this Court. Tr."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, Congress to revise criminal jurisdictional arrangements in the State even without tribal consent. But it is no act of statutory or constitutional interpretation. It is a policy argument through and through. Nor is the Court's policy argument exactly complete in its assessment of the costs and benefits. When this Court issued McGirt, it expressly acknowledged that cases involving crimes by or against tribal members within reservation boundaries would have to be transferred from state to tribal or federal authorities. 591 U. S., at \\_\\_\\_-\\_\\_\\_ (slip op., at 36-42). This Court anticipated, too, that this process would require a period of readjustment. But, the Court recognized, all this was necessary only because Oklahoma had long overreached its authority on tribal reservations and defied legally binding congressional promises. See ibid. this new workload think the 'costs' Notably, too, neither the tribal nor the federal authorities on the receiving end of of this period of readjustment begin to justify the Court's course. For their part, Tribes in Oklahoma have hired more police officers, prosecutors, and judges. See Cherokee Brief 10-11. Based on that investment, Oklahoma's Tribes have begun to prosecute substantially more cases than they once did. See id., at 12-13. And they have also shown a willingness to work with Oklahoma, having signed hundreds of cross-deputization agreements allowing local law enforcement to collaborate with tribal police. Id., at 1516, and n. 39. Even Oklahoma's amici concede these agreements have proved 'an important tool' for law enforcement. Brief for Oklahoma District Attorneys Association et al. as Amici Curiae 14. Both of the federal government's elected branches have also responded, if not in the way this Court happens to prefer. Instead of forcing state criminal jurisdiction onto Tribes, Congress has chosen to allocate additional funds for law enforcement in Oklahoma. See, e.g., Consolidated ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,""]",easy,answer,"The phrase 'the sky isn't falling' is used metaphorically in the context to indicate that the situation in Oklahoma is not as dire as some might suggest, particularly regarding law enforcement and jurisdictional changes after the McGirt decision. According to a United States Attorney in Oklahoma, partnerships between tribal and state law enforcement are strong, and violent crimes are being pursued as vigorously as before, if not more so.",5,Oklahoma legal jurisdiction metaphor,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In the legal context provided, the phrase ""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The context discusses the legal framework surrounding jurisdiction in Oklahoma, where <span class=\""highlight\"">Oklahoma has more or less conceded the point</span> regarding federal and tribal authority over certain matters, implying that the state has acknowledged the legal reality despite potential concerns.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The dissenting opinion notes that <span class=\""highlight\"">the Department of Justice is 'working diligently with tribal and State partners' in Oklahoma</span> to address jurisdictional challenges, suggesting that cooperative approaches are being implemented rather than catastrophic outcomes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The context refers to a case where Oklahoma was before the Court and asked it to disestablish the Creek Reservation because otherwise the State 'would not have that much authority' in a 'big chunk of the State.' This historical situation provides background for the current metaphorical reference to the sky's status.""}]",,65
 4541,How do different organizations approach disease control?,"['Chua KB, 2003. Nipah virus outbreak in Malaysia. Journal of Clinical Virology 26, 265-275. Cox J, Bridgers J, 2018. World Animal Net: Why is Animal Welfare Important for Sustainable Consumption and Production? UNEA Report. - de Haan C, Steinfeld H and Blackburn H, 1997. Livestock and the environment: Finding a balance. Study sponsored by the European Commission, FAO and World Bank. Dee S, Neill C, Singrey A, Clement T, Cochrane R, Jones C, Patterson G, Spronk G, ChristopherHennings J, Nelson E, 2016. Modeling the transboundary risk of feed ingredients contaminated with porcine epidemic diarrhea virus. BMC Vet Res 2016 Mar 12;12:51. doi: 10.1186/s12917-016-0674-z. Diaz-San Sequndo F, Medina GN, Stenfeldt C, Arzt J, de Los Santos T, 2017. Foot-and-mouth disease vaccines Vet Microbiol 206;102-112, 2017. Doyle RE, Wieland B, Roesel K, Grace D, 2018. Animal welfare and the Sustainable Development Goals, UFAW: Animal welfare across borders, Hong Kong. Ducrot C et al., 2008. Review on the epidemiology and dynamics of BSE epidemics. Vet Res. 39:15. DOI: 10.1051/vetres:2007053. Euro Group for Animals, 2018. Achieving the sustainable development goals: The role of animal welfare in Trade Policy. European Commission, 2015. Guidelines for the prudent use of antimicrobials in veterinary medicine. Commission Notice 2015/C 299/04. https://ec.europa.eu/health/sites/health/ files/antimicrobial\\_resistance/docs/2015\\_prudent\\_use\\_guidelines\\_en.pdf European Commission. Undated. Better regulation toolbox. Tool #18. The choice of policy instruments. https://ec.europa.eu/info/sites/info/files/file\\_import/better-regulationtoolbox-18\\_en\\_0.pdf', ""- OIE, 2009. Slaughter of animals, terrestrial animal health code. World Organization for Animal Health, Paris. - OIE, 2019b. Information on aquatic and terrestrial animal diseases: Foot &amp; mouth disease (FMD). World Organisation for Animal Health, Paris. - OIE, 2019c. Situational updates of ASF in Asia and the Pacific. https://rr-asia.oie.int/en/projects/ asf/situational-updates-of-asf/ - Oltenacu PA and Broom DM, 2010. The impact of genetic selection for increased milk yield on the welfare of dairy cows. Animal Welfare 19:39-49. Paustian K, Lehmann J, Ogle S et al., 2016. Climate-smart soils. Nature 532, 49-57 (2016). https://doi.org/10.1038/nature17174 Pinillos RG, 2018. One welfare: A framework to improve animal welfare and human well-being. CABI. Plumb GE, Olsen SC and Buttke D, 2013. Brucellosis: 'One health' challenges and opportunities. Rev. sci. tech. Off. int. Epiz. 32(1):271-8 Pritchard J, Upjohn M and HirsonT, 2018. Improving working equine welfare in 'hard-win' situations, where gains are difficult, expensive or marginal. PloS One 13 e0191950. Quested TE, Cook PE, Gorris LGM and Cole MB, 2010. Trends in technology, trade and consumption likely to impact on microbial food safety. International Journal of Food Microbiology. 139:30, S29-42. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.ijfoodmicro.2010.01.043 Robinson TP, Bu DP, Carrique-Mas J, Fèvre EM, Gilbert M, Grace D, Hay SI, Jiwakanon J, Kakkar M, Kariuki S, Laxminarayan R, Lubroth J, Magnusson U, Thi Ngoc P, Van Boeckel TP and Woolhouse MEJ, 2017. Antibiotic resistance: Mitigation opportunities in livestock sector development. Animal 11(1):1-3. doi: 10.1017/S1751731116001828."", 'FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP and WHO, 2020. The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020. Transforming food systems for affordable healthy diets. Rome, F AO https://doi.org/10.4060/ca9692en Food Safety Authority of Ireland, 2013. FSAI survey finds horse DNA in some beef burger products. https://www.fsai.ie/details.aspx?id=11878 Frank C et al., 2011. Epidemic profile of Shiga-toxin-producing Escherichia coli O104:H4 outbreak in Germany. N Engl J Med. 365:1771-80. Fraser D, 2008. Toward a global perspective on farm animal welfare. Applied Animal Behaviour Science 113, 330-339. Gerber PJ, Steinfeld H, Henderson B, Mottet A, Opio C, Dijkman J, Falcucci A and Tempio G, 2013. Tackling climate change through livestock - A global assessment of emissions and mitigation opportunities. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, Rome. Godfray HCJ, Garnett T, 2014. Food security and sustainable intensification. Philosophical transactions of the Royal Society B: biological sciences 369, 20120273. Hall MJ, Ng A, Ursano RJ, Holloway H, Fullerton C, Casper J, 2004. Psychological impact of the animal-human bond in disaster preparedness and response. Journal of Psychiatric Practice® 10, 368-374. Halliday JEB, Allan KJ, Ekwem KJD, Cleaveland S, Kazwala RR and Crump JA, 2015. Endemic zoonoses in the tropics: a public health problem hiding in plain sight. Veterinary Record 176, 220-225. https://veterinaryrecord.bmj.com/content/176/9/220 Hanzlicek GA, Raghavan RK, Ganta RR and Anderson GA. 2016. Bayesian space-time patterns and climatic determinants of bovine anaplasmosis. PLOS One https://journals.plos.org/ plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0151924']",hard,answer,"Different organizations approach disease control through a variety of strategies, often tailored to the specific disease and context. Here are some approaches based on the provided context:
 
 1. **World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)**: The OIE provides guidelines and standards for disease control, such as the 'Slaughter of animals, terrestrial animal health code' (OIE, 2009) and updates on diseases like Foot & Mouth Disease (FMD) and African Swine Fever (ASF) (OIE, 2019b, 2019c).
@@ -202,10 +202,10 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 5. **One Health Framework**: Organizations like the OIE and FAO promote a One Health approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health to tackle diseases like brucellosis (Plumb et al., 2013) and endemic zoonoses (Halliday et al., 2015).
 
-6. **Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)**: Some organizations link disease control to broader sustainability goals, emphasizing animal welfare and its role in sustainable consumption and production (Cox & Bridgers, 2018; Doyle et al., 2018).",3,Disease control organizational strategies,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">World Health Organization (WHO) uses global surveillance networks, establishes international standards, coordinates response to outbreaks, and provides technical assistance to member countries</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) focuses on disease surveillance, laboratory diagnostics, epidemiological investigation, and developing evidence-based guidelines</span> for disease control.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) often focus on community-based approaches, addressing social determinants of health, providing direct services in underserved areas</span>, and advocating for vulnerable populations.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Pharmaceutical companies contribute through research and development of vaccines, drugs, and diagnostic tools, sometimes in public-private partnerships.""}]",,66
-5595,What's the deal with older ships and their lights?,"['## Exemptions ‡ Any vessel (or class of vessels) provided that she complies with the requirements of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1960, the keel of which is laid or which is at a corresponding stage of construction before the entry into force of these Regulations may be exempted from compliance therewith as follows: - (a) The installation of lights with ranges prescribed in Rule 22, until four years after the date of entry into force of these Regulations. - (b) The installation of lights with color specifications as prescribed in Section 7 of annex I to these Regulations, until four years after the date of entry into force of these Regulations. - (c) The repositioning of lights as a result of conversion from Imperial to metric units and rounding off measurement figures, permanent exemption. - (d) (i) The repositioning of masthead lights on vessels of less than 150 m in length, resulting from the prescriptions of Section 3(a) of annex I to these Regulations, permanent exemption. ## SUBPART E-EXEMPTIONS ## Rule 38 ## Exemptions ## § 83.38 Any vessel or class of vessels, the keel of which was laid or which was at a corresponding stage of construction before December 24, 1980, provided that she complies with the requirements of- - (a) The Act of June 7, 1897 (30 Stat. 96), as amended (33 U.S.C. 154-232) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; - (b) Section 4233 of the Revised Statutes (33 U.S.C. 301-356) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; - (c) The Act of February 8, 1895 (28 Stat. 645), as amended (33 U.S.C. 241-295) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; or', '## Rule 29 Pilot Vessels - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) at or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) when underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; - (iii) when at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i), the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a similar vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 29 Pilot vessels ## § 83.29 - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) At or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) When underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; and - (iii) When at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i) of this Rule, the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30) for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-at anchor; vessel of less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 30 ## Anchored Vessels and Vessels Aground', ""## 6. Shapes - (a) Shapes shall be black and of the following sizes: - (i) a ball shall have a diameter of not less than 0.6 meter; - (ii) a cone shall have a base diameter of not less than 0.6 meter and a height equal to its diameter; - (iii)a cylinder shall have a diameter of at least 0.6 meter and a height of twice its diameter; - (iv)a diamond shape shall consist of two cones as defined in (ii) above having a common base. - (b) The vertical distance between shapes shall be at least 1.5 meter. - (c) In a vessel of less than 20 meters in length shapes of lesser dimensions but commensurate with the size of the vessel may be used and the distance apart may be correspondingly reduced. ## 7. Color specification of lights The chromaticity of all navigation lights shall conform to the following standards, which lie within the boundaries of the area of the diagram specified for each color by the International Commission on Illumination (CIE). ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED ## § 84.05 Screens - (a) The sidelights of vessels of 20 meters or more in length shall be fitted with matt black inboard screens and meet the requirements of § 84.15. On vessels of less than 20 meters in length, the sidelights, if necessary to meet the requirements of § 84.15, shall be fitted with matt black inboard screens. With a combined lantern, using a single vertical filament and a very narrow division between the green and red sections, external screens need not be fitted. - (b) On power-driven vessels less than 12 meters in length constructed after July 31, 1983, the masthead light, or the all-round light described in Rule 23(d) (§ 83.23(d) of this chapter) shall be screened to prevent direct illumination of the vessel forward of the operator's position. ## § 84.06 Shapes""]",medium,answer,"Older ships, specifically those whose keels were laid or were at a corresponding stage of construction before certain dates, may be exempt from some of the lighting requirements under specific conditions. For instance, vessels constructed before the entry into force of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1960, can be exempt from installing lights with ranges and color specifications as prescribed in the regulations for up to four years after the regulations' entry into force. Additionally, there are permanent exemptions for the repositioning of lights due to conversion from Imperial to metric units and for masthead lights on vessels less than 150 meters in length. Vessels constructed before December 24, 1980, may also comply with earlier statutes depending on the waters they navigate.",3,Vessel lighting exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exemptions: Vessels whose <span class=\""highlight\"">keels were laid or were at corresponding stage of construction before specific dates</span> (varies by regulation) may be exempt from certain lighting requirements.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Older vessels may be <span class=\""highlight\"">exempt from requirements for masthead light position, reduced vertical separation between lights, or second masthead light</span> if they comply with earlier regulations.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exemptions typically apply until vessel undergoes substantial modification or replacement of lighting system.""}]",,67
-3128,What funky light show should a ship that's totally out of control put on at night?,"['Vessel or object being towed-length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (e) A vessel or object other than those referred to in paragraph (g) of this Rule being towed shall exhibit: - (i) Sidelights; - (ii) A sternlight; and - (iii) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Vessel being towed-length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (f) Provided that any number of vessels being towed alongside or pushed in a group shall be lighted as one vessel: - (i) a vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights; - (ii) a vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights. Vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit. International only. Vessel being towed alongside. International only. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (f) Provided that any number of vessels being towed alongside or pushed in a group shall be lighted as one vessel, except as provided in paragraph (f)(iii) of this Rule. - (i) A vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light. - (ii) A vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light. - (iii) When vessels are towed alongside on both sides of the towing vessel, a sternlight shall be exhibited on the stern of the outboard vessel on each side of the towing vessel, and a single set of sidelights as far forward and as far outboard as is practicable, and a single special flashing light. Vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit. Inland only. Vessel being towed alongside.', '## Rule 27 ## Vessels Not Under Command or Restricted in Their Ability to Maneuver - (a) A vessel not under command shall exhibit: - (i) two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen; - (ii) two balls or similar shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen; (iii) when making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel not under command-not making way. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27 ## Vessels not under command or restricted in their ability to maneuver ## § 83.27 - (a) A vessel not under command shall exhibit: - (i) Two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen; - (ii) Two balls or similar shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen; and - (iii) When making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel not under command-making way. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (b) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, except a vessel engaged in mine clearance operations, shall exhibit: - (i) three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white; - (ii) three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond; when making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, in - (iii) sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed subparagraph (i); - (iv) when at anchor, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (i) and (ii), the light, lights or shape prescribed in Rule 30. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland.', '## § 83.24 - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing astern shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§§ 83.23(a)(i) and (ii)), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; - (iii) A sternlight; - (iv) A towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23. Composite unit underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23 (§ 83.23). Composite unit underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except in the case of a composite unit, shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; and - (iii) a sternlight.']",easy,answer,"A vessel not under command at night should exhibit two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. If the vessel is making way through the water, it should also show sidelights and a sternlight in addition to the two all-round red lights.",3,Vessel not under command lighting,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel not under command must exhibit <span class=\""highlight\"">two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If making way through water, also show <span class=\""highlight\"">sidelights and sternlight</span> in addition to the two red lights.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""&quot;Not under command&quot; means vessel unable to maneuver as required by rules due to exceptional circumstance, thus unable to keep out of way of another vessel.""}]",,68
-2788,Explain the special process in Model #218 for producers who cannot comply with CE requirements due to military service.,"[""## Compensation Disclosure Section 18 of Model #218 requires disclosure where the producer receives any compensation from the customer for the placement of insurance or represents the customer with respect to that placement. This section contains several specific definitions and exceptions to the disclosure requirement. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has not developed any formal guidance on the implementation of Section 18, but the NAIC issued a frequently asked questions (FAQ) document to give additional guidance. This FAQ is in the Appendices. State licensing directors should confer with their legal counsel about appropriate methods for implementing this section. 7 ## Chapter 16 ## License Renewal and Reinstatement ## License Renewal Under the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), the general rule is that a producer license remains in effect unless suspended, cancelled or revoked. All states have a procedure for individual producers to verify compliance with continuing education (CE) requirements. In states that renew licenses, the CE compliance period should coincide with the license renewal. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has adopted a uniform license renewal application that is recommended for use by states that renew producer licenses. The current version of the application can be found on the Working Group's web page. States should use the data elements from the uniform renewal application, whether renewal is done via paper application or electronically. The previous reciprocity provisions of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) also applied to the license renewal of nonresidents. The process should be similar to initial licensing: - 1. The proper application and fee are submitted. - 2. If the answers to any of the questions on the renewal application indicate conduct prohibited by Section 12 of Model #218, a state can require additional documentation. - 3. No other attachments should be required. A number of states use the electronic license renewal process. This process automatically checks the NAIC and National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) databases to verify the producer's standing in the home/resident state. The NIPR process uses the data elements from the uniform renewal application. Model #218 contains a special process for producers who cannot comply with CE requirements due to military service or other extenuating circumstances."", ""When a producer's license has been suspended for a period of time that extends beyond the producer's license expiration date, reinstatement is not an option. The producer must request reissuance of a license and should not be allowed to merely apply for a new license by passing an examination and submitting a new application. The producer's request for reinstatement or reissuance must include sufficient information to allow the insurance department to determine whether the basis of the revocation, suspension or forfeiture of the applicant's license no longer exists and whether it will be in the public interest to grant the request for a new or reinstated license. The burden of proof to establish such facts is on the producer. In most states, the producer will have a right to an administrative hearing if the reinstatement request is denied. Some states allow a license to be voluntarily forfeited in lieu of compliance with an order of the insurance commissioner. In this scenario, a request for voluntary forfeiture of a license should be made in writing to the insurance commissioner. The written consent of the insurance commissioner is usually required. Forfeiture of a license is effective upon submission of the request, unless a contested case proceeding is pending at the time the request is submitted. If a contested case proceeding is pending at the time of the request, the forfeiture becomes effective when and upon such conditions as required by order of the insurance commissioner. A forfeiture made during the pendency of a contested case proceeding is usually considered a disciplinary action subject to reporting to the Regulatory Information Retrieval System (RIRS). ## Collaboration and Referrals Among State Insurance Regulators There are several NAIC tools to facilitate communication about enforcement actions among state insurance regulators. The NAIC's Market Actions (D) Working Group identifies and reviews insurance companies that are exhibiting or may exhibit characteristics indicating a current or potential market regulatory issue that may affect multiple jurisdictions. The Working Group determines if regulatory action should be taken and supports collaborative actions in addressing problems identified."", ""For example, if a DRP holds a life line of authority (LOA) only, and an affiliated producer is authorized to sell property/casualty (P/C) products, it is not necessary for a DRP with a P/C LOA to be named as a second DRP. Model #218 does not give specific guidance on appropriate action to take when a notification is received that the DRP has lost their home state license. A recommended practice is to send a notification to the BE and inform it that the BE license will go inactive unless a new DRP is named and approved within a reasonable number of days. A BE has an ongoing responsibility to report misconduct of the BE or any of its affiliated producers. Section 12(c) of Model #218 states: The license of a BE may be suspended, revoked or refused if the insurance commissioner finds, after hearing, that an individual licensee's violation was known or should have been known by one or more of the partners, officers or managers acting on behalf of the partnership or corporation and the violation was neither reported to the insurance commissioner nor corrective action taken. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Use the NAIC uniform application for BEs, and eliminate all other state-specific forms. - · Review all state insurance laws and regulations, and amend any that require attachments that might violate reciprocity. - · Review the practical consumer protection value of all information collected, and collect only information that adds value. - · Require only one DRP per BE. - · If appointments are required for a BE, require only one appointment per state, and require no sub-appointments. - · Use electronic filings for more efficiency. ## Chapter 13 ## Temporary Licenses Section 11 of the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) contains a provision that allows a state insurance director to issue a temporary license to the survivor of a producer if the insurance commissioner deems it necessary for servicing the deceased producer's customers. The license is limited to 180 days and also may be limited in scope by the insurance commissioner. The intent of this section is to wind up the business affairs of the producer and not indefinitely continue the decedent's insurance business.""]",medium,answer,"Model #218 contains a special process for producers who cannot comply with continuing education (CE) requirements due to military service or other extenuating circumstances. However, the provided context does not specify the exact details of this special process. It is recommended to consult the specific provisions of Model #218 or the NAIC's frequently asked questions (FAQ) document for further guidance on this matter.",3,Insurance licensing military exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Model #218 allows <span class=\""highlight\"">license renewal without completing continuing education requirements if producer unable to comply due to military service or other extenuating circumstance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Military service personnel stationed outside home state may be exempt from CE requirements while deployed</span> or for specific period after return.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Producer must submit written request for exemption with documentation of military service, typically military orders or deployment papers.""}]",,69
+6. **Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)**: Some organizations link disease control to broader sustainability goals, emphasizing animal welfare and its role in sustainable consumption and production (Cox & Bridgers, 2018; Doyle et al., 2018).",3,Disease control organizational strategies,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Health organizations implement surveillance systems to monitor disease incidence, prevalence, and spread</span>, enabling early detection and rapid response. These surveillance networks collect and analyze data from various sources, including laboratories, healthcare facilities, and field investigations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Organizations approach disease control through <span class=\""highlight\"">integrated vector management programs that combine multiple intervention strategies to reduce vector populations</span>, such as mosquito control for malaria or tsetse fly control for trypanosomiasis, including both chemical and biological methods.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">One Health approaches are increasingly adopted, recognizing the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health</span>. This collaborative, multisectoral, and transdisciplinary approach works at local, regional, national, and global levels to achieve optimal health outcomes.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Organizations also implement <span class=\""highlight\"">vaccination programs as a key preventive measure for controlling communicable diseases</span>, with strategies ranging from routine immunization schedules to mass vaccination campaigns during outbreaks, supplemented by education and awareness campaigns to promote vaccine acceptance.""}]",,66
+5595,What's the deal with older ships and their lights?,"['## Exemptions ‡ Any vessel (or class of vessels) provided that she complies with the requirements of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1960, the keel of which is laid or which is at a corresponding stage of construction before the entry into force of these Regulations may be exempted from compliance therewith as follows: - (a) The installation of lights with ranges prescribed in Rule 22, until four years after the date of entry into force of these Regulations. - (b) The installation of lights with color specifications as prescribed in Section 7 of annex I to these Regulations, until four years after the date of entry into force of these Regulations. - (c) The repositioning of lights as a result of conversion from Imperial to metric units and rounding off measurement figures, permanent exemption. - (d) (i) The repositioning of masthead lights on vessels of less than 150 m in length, resulting from the prescriptions of Section 3(a) of annex I to these Regulations, permanent exemption. ## SUBPART E-EXEMPTIONS ## Rule 38 ## Exemptions ## § 83.38 Any vessel or class of vessels, the keel of which was laid or which was at a corresponding stage of construction before December 24, 1980, provided that she complies with the requirements of- - (a) The Act of June 7, 1897 (30 Stat. 96), as amended (33 U.S.C. 154-232) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; - (b) Section 4233 of the Revised Statutes (33 U.S.C. 301-356) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; - (c) The Act of February 8, 1895 (28 Stat. 645), as amended (33 U.S.C. 241-295) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; or', '## Rule 29 Pilot Vessels - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) at or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) when underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; - (iii) when at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i), the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a similar vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 29 Pilot vessels ## § 83.29 - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) At or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) When underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; and - (iii) When at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i) of this Rule, the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30) for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-at anchor; vessel of less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 30 ## Anchored Vessels and Vessels Aground', ""## 6. Shapes - (a) Shapes shall be black and of the following sizes: - (i) a ball shall have a diameter of not less than 0.6 meter; - (ii) a cone shall have a base diameter of not less than 0.6 meter and a height equal to its diameter; - (iii)a cylinder shall have a diameter of at least 0.6 meter and a height of twice its diameter; - (iv)a diamond shape shall consist of two cones as defined in (ii) above having a common base. - (b) The vertical distance between shapes shall be at least 1.5 meter. - (c) In a vessel of less than 20 meters in length shapes of lesser dimensions but commensurate with the size of the vessel may be used and the distance apart may be correspondingly reduced. ## 7. Color specification of lights The chromaticity of all navigation lights shall conform to the following standards, which lie within the boundaries of the area of the diagram specified for each color by the International Commission on Illumination (CIE). ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED ## § 84.05 Screens - (a) The sidelights of vessels of 20 meters or more in length shall be fitted with matt black inboard screens and meet the requirements of § 84.15. On vessels of less than 20 meters in length, the sidelights, if necessary to meet the requirements of § 84.15, shall be fitted with matt black inboard screens. With a combined lantern, using a single vertical filament and a very narrow division between the green and red sections, external screens need not be fitted. - (b) On power-driven vessels less than 12 meters in length constructed after July 31, 1983, the masthead light, or the all-round light described in Rule 23(d) (§ 83.23(d) of this chapter) shall be screened to prevent direct illumination of the vessel forward of the operator's position. ## § 84.06 Shapes""]",medium,answer,"Older ships, specifically those whose keels were laid or were at a corresponding stage of construction before certain dates, may be exempt from some of the lighting requirements under specific conditions. For instance, vessels constructed before the entry into force of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1960, can be exempt from installing lights with ranges and color specifications as prescribed in the regulations for up to four years after the regulations' entry into force. Additionally, there are permanent exemptions for the repositioning of lights due to conversion from Imperial to metric units and for masthead lights on vessels less than 150 meters in length. Vessels constructed before December 24, 1980, may also comply with earlier statutes depending on the waters they navigate.",3,Vessel lighting exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Any vessel (or class of vessels) whose keel is laid or which is at a corresponding stage of construction before the entry into force of these Regulations may be exempted from the lighting requirements</span>, provided that she complies with the requirements of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1960.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Specifically, <span class=\""highlight\"">older vessels may continue using red and green sidelights with the ranges prescribed by the 1960 Rules (visible at a minimum range of 1 mile) instead of the current requirement of 2 miles</span> that is mandated for newer vessels under the updated regulations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For masthead lights, <span class=\""highlight\"">existing installations on vessels of less than 150 meters in length with positions prescribed by the 1960 Rules may remain in place until the equipment is replaced or until the vessel undergoes substantial alterations or modifications</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additionally, <span class=\""highlight\"">older vessels may be grandfathered in regarding the positioning of lights, allowing them to maintain configurations that were compliant with previous regulations but might not fully meet current standards</span> for light positioning, height, or visibility patterns.""}]",,67
+3128,What funky light show should a ship that's totally out of control put on at night?,"['Vessel or object being towed-length of tow exceeds 200 meters. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (e) A vessel or object other than those referred to in paragraph (g) of this Rule being towed shall exhibit: - (i) Sidelights; - (ii) A sternlight; and - (iii) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Vessel being towed-length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (f) Provided that any number of vessels being towed alongside or pushed in a group shall be lighted as one vessel: - (i) a vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights; - (ii) a vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights. Vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit. International only. Vessel being towed alongside. International only. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (f) Provided that any number of vessels being towed alongside or pushed in a group shall be lighted as one vessel, except as provided in paragraph (f)(iii) of this Rule. - (i) A vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light. - (ii) A vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light. - (iii) When vessels are towed alongside on both sides of the towing vessel, a sternlight shall be exhibited on the stern of the outboard vessel on each side of the towing vessel, and a single set of sidelights as far forward and as far outboard as is practicable, and a single special flashing light. Vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit. Inland only. Vessel being towed alongside.', '## Rule 27 ## Vessels Not Under Command or Restricted in Their Ability to Maneuver - (a) A vessel not under command shall exhibit: - (i) two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen; - (ii) two balls or similar shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen; (iii) when making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel not under command-not making way. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27 ## Vessels not under command or restricted in their ability to maneuver ## § 83.27 - (a) A vessel not under command shall exhibit: - (i) Two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen; - (ii) Two balls or similar shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen; and - (iii) When making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel not under command-making way. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (b) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, except a vessel engaged in mine clearance operations, shall exhibit: - (i) three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white; - (ii) three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond; when making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, in - (iii) sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed subparagraph (i); - (iv) when at anchor, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (i) and (ii), the light, lights or shape prescribed in Rule 30. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland.', '## § 83.24 - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing astern shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§§ 83.23(a)(i) and (ii)), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; - (iii) A sternlight; - (iv) A towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23. Composite unit underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23 (§ 83.23). Composite unit underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except in the case of a composite unit, shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; and - (iii) a sternlight.']",easy,answer,"A vessel not under command at night should exhibit two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. If the vessel is making way through the water, it should also show sidelights and a sternlight in addition to the two all-round red lights.",3,Vessel not under command lighting,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel not under command at night should exhibit <span class=\""highlight\"">two all-round red lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen</span>. This distinctive pattern serves as a warning to other vessels that the ship cannot maneuver as required by the rules.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If the vessel not under command is making way through the water, in addition to the two all-round red lights, it must also show <span class=\""highlight\"">sidelights and a sternlight</span>. The sidelights are green on the starboard side and red on the port side, visible at a distance of at least 2 miles.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For enhanced visibility in restricted visibility conditions, <span class=\""highlight\"">a vessel not under command must also sound fog signals: one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at intervals of not more than 2 minutes</span>. This acoustic signal complements the visual display of lights.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The term ""}]",,68
+2788,Explain the special process in Model #218 for producers who cannot comply with CE requirements due to military service.,"[""## Compensation Disclosure Section 18 of Model #218 requires disclosure where the producer receives any compensation from the customer for the placement of insurance or represents the customer with respect to that placement. This section contains several specific definitions and exceptions to the disclosure requirement. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has not developed any formal guidance on the implementation of Section 18, but the NAIC issued a frequently asked questions (FAQ) document to give additional guidance. This FAQ is in the Appendices. State licensing directors should confer with their legal counsel about appropriate methods for implementing this section. 7 ## Chapter 16 ## License Renewal and Reinstatement ## License Renewal Under the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), the general rule is that a producer license remains in effect unless suspended, cancelled or revoked. All states have a procedure for individual producers to verify compliance with continuing education (CE) requirements. In states that renew licenses, the CE compliance period should coincide with the license renewal. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has adopted a uniform license renewal application that is recommended for use by states that renew producer licenses. The current version of the application can be found on the Working Group's web page. States should use the data elements from the uniform renewal application, whether renewal is done via paper application or electronically. The previous reciprocity provisions of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) also applied to the license renewal of nonresidents. The process should be similar to initial licensing: - 1. The proper application and fee are submitted. - 2. If the answers to any of the questions on the renewal application indicate conduct prohibited by Section 12 of Model #218, a state can require additional documentation. - 3. No other attachments should be required. A number of states use the electronic license renewal process. This process automatically checks the NAIC and National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) databases to verify the producer's standing in the home/resident state. The NIPR process uses the data elements from the uniform renewal application. Model #218 contains a special process for producers who cannot comply with CE requirements due to military service or other extenuating circumstances."", ""When a producer's license has been suspended for a period of time that extends beyond the producer's license expiration date, reinstatement is not an option. The producer must request reissuance of a license and should not be allowed to merely apply for a new license by passing an examination and submitting a new application. The producer's request for reinstatement or reissuance must include sufficient information to allow the insurance department to determine whether the basis of the revocation, suspension or forfeiture of the applicant's license no longer exists and whether it will be in the public interest to grant the request for a new or reinstated license. The burden of proof to establish such facts is on the producer. In most states, the producer will have a right to an administrative hearing if the reinstatement request is denied. Some states allow a license to be voluntarily forfeited in lieu of compliance with an order of the insurance commissioner. In this scenario, a request for voluntary forfeiture of a license should be made in writing to the insurance commissioner. The written consent of the insurance commissioner is usually required. Forfeiture of a license is effective upon submission of the request, unless a contested case proceeding is pending at the time the request is submitted. If a contested case proceeding is pending at the time of the request, the forfeiture becomes effective when and upon such conditions as required by order of the insurance commissioner. A forfeiture made during the pendency of a contested case proceeding is usually considered a disciplinary action subject to reporting to the Regulatory Information Retrieval System (RIRS). ## Collaboration and Referrals Among State Insurance Regulators There are several NAIC tools to facilitate communication about enforcement actions among state insurance regulators. The NAIC's Market Actions (D) Working Group identifies and reviews insurance companies that are exhibiting or may exhibit characteristics indicating a current or potential market regulatory issue that may affect multiple jurisdictions. The Working Group determines if regulatory action should be taken and supports collaborative actions in addressing problems identified."", ""For example, if a DRP holds a life line of authority (LOA) only, and an affiliated producer is authorized to sell property/casualty (P/C) products, it is not necessary for a DRP with a P/C LOA to be named as a second DRP. Model #218 does not give specific guidance on appropriate action to take when a notification is received that the DRP has lost their home state license. A recommended practice is to send a notification to the BE and inform it that the BE license will go inactive unless a new DRP is named and approved within a reasonable number of days. A BE has an ongoing responsibility to report misconduct of the BE or any of its affiliated producers. Section 12(c) of Model #218 states: The license of a BE may be suspended, revoked or refused if the insurance commissioner finds, after hearing, that an individual licensee's violation was known or should have been known by one or more of the partners, officers or managers acting on behalf of the partnership or corporation and the violation was neither reported to the insurance commissioner nor corrective action taken. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Use the NAIC uniform application for BEs, and eliminate all other state-specific forms. - · Review all state insurance laws and regulations, and amend any that require attachments that might violate reciprocity. - · Review the practical consumer protection value of all information collected, and collect only information that adds value. - · Require only one DRP per BE. - · If appointments are required for a BE, require only one appointment per state, and require no sub-appointments. - · Use electronic filings for more efficiency. ## Chapter 13 ## Temporary Licenses Section 11 of the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) contains a provision that allows a state insurance director to issue a temporary license to the survivor of a producer if the insurance commissioner deems it necessary for servicing the deceased producer's customers. The license is limited to 180 days and also may be limited in scope by the insurance commissioner. The intent of this section is to wind up the business affairs of the producer and not indefinitely continue the decedent's insurance business.""]",medium,answer,"Model #218 contains a special process for producers who cannot comply with continuing education (CE) requirements due to military service or other extenuating circumstances. However, the provided context does not specify the exact details of this special process. It is recommended to consult the specific provisions of Model #218 or the NAIC's frequently asked questions (FAQ) document for further guidance on this matter.",3,Insurance licensing military exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Model #218 contains <span class=\""highlight\"">a special provision for insurance producers who cannot comply with continuing education (CE) requirements due to military service</span>. This accommodation recognizes the unique circumstances faced by service members and provides appropriate relief from standard requirements.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Under this special process, <span class=\""highlight\"">producers called to active duty in the armed forces may be granted an extension of time to complete CE requirements without penalty</span>. The extension typically covers the period of active duty plus a reasonable amount of time following their return to civilian life.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additionally, <span class=\""highlight\"">military service members may be eligible for CE waivers or modifications based on the nature and duration of their service</span>. These accommodations are designed to ensure that military service does not unfairly disadvantage producers in maintaining their professional licenses.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The process requires <span class=\""highlight\"">documentation of military service, such as deployment orders or a letter from commanding officers, to be submitted to the state insurance department or licensing authority</span>. This documentation initiates the special consideration process outlined in Model #218.""}]",,69
 5218,What are the key components of the system established by the Producer Licensing Model Act?,"[""States are not to impose prelicensing education or an examination on a nonresident producer who subsequently moves into another state and declares it to be the home state, unless 'the commissioner has determined otherwise by regulation.' Under Model #218, letters of certification were eliminated as a prerequisite to granting a nonresident license. The State Producer Licensing Database (SPLD) provides verification of good standing in the producer's home state. One unresolved issue is the long-established practice of requiring a letter of clearance for producers changing their resident state. Despite the fact that Model #218 does not contain any reference to a letter of clearance, some states still require the producer to provide a letter of clearance from the former state before the new state will grant the producer an active resident status. Other states grant the new nonresident license but continue to monitor the producer's record to make sure that the prior resident license changes in status from resident to nonresident. This is done to prevent the producer from holding two active resident licenses. The Working Group and National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) have identified this as an issue that could best be resolved by the establishment of an electronic method for the producer to communicate the desired changes to all affected states in one transaction. NIPR's launch of the Contact Change Request (CCR) service allows producers for many states to change their physical addresses, email addresses, phone numbers and fax numbers. The Working Group will turn its attention to solving the issues surrounding a change of resident state once all states have fully implemented the CCR service. ## Commissioner Discretion Model #218 contains language that allows a state to adopt regulations to cover a state-specific situation. The states should carefully consider the impact that deviation from Model #218 might have on NAIC uniformity and reciprocity initiatives. ## Section-by-Section Summary of Model #218 The full text of Model #218 is in the Appendices. Section 1: Purpose and Scope - · To promote efficiency and uniformity in producer licensing. Section 2: Definitions - · Defines the terms 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,''sell,''solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms."", ""## Compensation Disclosure Section 18 of Model #218 requires disclosure where the producer receives any compensation from the customer for the placement of insurance or represents the customer with respect to that placement. This section contains several specific definitions and exceptions to the disclosure requirement. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has not developed any formal guidance on the implementation of Section 18, but the NAIC issued a frequently asked questions (FAQ) document to give additional guidance. This FAQ is in the Appendices. State licensing directors should confer with their legal counsel about appropriate methods for implementing this section. 7 ## Chapter 16 ## License Renewal and Reinstatement ## License Renewal Under the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), the general rule is that a producer license remains in effect unless suspended, cancelled or revoked. All states have a procedure for individual producers to verify compliance with continuing education (CE) requirements. In states that renew licenses, the CE compliance period should coincide with the license renewal. The Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group has adopted a uniform license renewal application that is recommended for use by states that renew producer licenses. The current version of the application can be found on the Working Group's web page. States should use the data elements from the uniform renewal application, whether renewal is done via paper application or electronically. The previous reciprocity provisions of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) also applied to the license renewal of nonresidents. The process should be similar to initial licensing: - 1. The proper application and fee are submitted. - 2. If the answers to any of the questions on the renewal application indicate conduct prohibited by Section 12 of Model #218, a state can require additional documentation. - 3. No other attachments should be required. A number of states use the electronic license renewal process. This process automatically checks the NAIC and National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) databases to verify the producer's standing in the home/resident state. The NIPR process uses the data elements from the uniform renewal application. Model #218 contains a special process for producers who cannot comply with CE requirements due to military service or other extenuating circumstances."", ""The Attachment Warehouse also allows a producer to meet the requirement from the states to report and submit documentation related to any regulatory action taken against him/her. This enables the producer to meet this regulatory obligation quickly in order to comply with the typical state requirement for producers to report an action within 30 days. Through the use of the Attachment Warehouse, all states in which the producer is licensed are notified with an email alert and have access to the document. A complete list of jurisdictions using NIPR products and services is available at www.nipr.com. The website has an updated list of the states that are making active use of NIPR electronic processing. (Product List by State) ## Chapter 2 ## Producer Licensing Model Act ## Uniformity Provisions of the Producer Licensing Model Act Through the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), the NAIC created a system of reciprocity for producer licensing and established uniform standards in key areas of producer licensing. Model #218 was initially adopted in January 2000. It was subsequently amended in October 2000 and in January 2005. In December 2002, the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group adopted a set of Uniform Resident Licensing Standards (URLS). In December 2008, the standards were revised and updated to incorporate standardization and uniformity for both resident and nonresident licensing. Therefore, the standards were renamed the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). Model #218 and the ULS are designed to complement each other and assist the states in creating a uniform system of producer licensing. In 2008, the Working Group was charged with reviewing the ULS. Subsequent revisions were made to the ULS in August 2010 (limited lines definitions) and in August 2011 (definitions for certain noncore limited lines). The revised standards are included in the Appendix, and updates can be found on the Working Group's web page on the NAIC website. The key uniformity provisions of Model #218 are:"", ""## National Insurance Producer Registry The NAIC has long advocated for increased use of technology to streamline licensing processes. In 1996, the NAIC collaborated with industry to create the Insurance Regulatory Information Network (IRIN) as a nonprofit affiliate of the NAIC. In 1999, the organization changed its name to the National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR). The purpose of the NIPR is to work with the states and the NAIC to re-engineer, streamline, and make more uniform the producer licensing process for the benefit of state insurance regulators, the insurance industry, and consumers. NIPR worked with the NAIC to develop and implement: 1) the Producer Database (PDB), which includes licensing information from 50 states, Washington, DC and Puerto Rico, utilized by the industry for licensing and appointment information; and 2) the State Producer Licensing Database (SPLD) for use by state insurance regulators. The states use NIPR to link state insurance departments with the entities they regulate. Applicants and licensees can transmit licensing applications, insurers can transmit appointments and terminations, and both can transmit other information to state insurance regulators in multiple states thereby creating electronic solutions that are easy and, efficient to use by the states and industry. Additionally, using the subsequent launch of the Attachment Warehouse, an applicant who answers 'yes' to any background question on the NAIC Uniform application can submit the required supporting documentation at the time he or she is applying for or renewing a license. The submission of a document to the Attachment Warehouse will trigger an email alert to the appropriate state(s) notifying the state(s) that supporting documentation has been submitted to fulfill document requirements pertaining to the 'yes' answer on the background. The advantage to the producer and the state(s) is that the documentation can be sent to the Attachment Warehouse once, and all appropriate states will be notified and have the ability to view, download or print the document. The Attachment Warehouse also allows a producer to meet the requirement from the states to report and submit documentation related to any regulatory action taken against him/her."", ""## Uniform Licensing Standards In 2002, the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group adopted the Uniform Resident Licensing Standards (URLS). The standards were revised and updated to incorporate standardization and uniformity for both resident and nonresident licensing. The standards were renamed to the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS) in 2008. These standards will be referenced throughout this Handbook. The full text of the ULS is in the Appendices. The latest information can be found on the Working Group's web page on the NAIC website. These standards establish an important baseline to assure state insurance regulators that all states are applying the same standards to resident applicants. The Working Group monitors compliance with the uniform standards. Since the adoption of the ULS, the Working Group has adopted interpretative guidelines and clarifications to further explain the proper implementation of the ULS. The ULS contain guidelines in the following categories: - 1. Licensing qualifications. - 2. Prelicensing education training. - 3. Producer licensing test. - 4. Integrity/personal qualifications/background checks. - 5. Application for licensure/license structure. - 6. Appointment process. - 7. Continuing Education (CE) Requirements. - 8. Limited lines uniformity. - 9. Surplus lines standards. - 10. Commercial line multistate exemption standard. - 11. Commission sharing. ## Initial and Renewal Producer License Applications The Working Group has adopted initial and renewal NAIC Uniform Applications for resident and nonresident individuals and business entities. Under the ULS, the states are directed to use the Uniform Applications rather than state-specific applications. The Working Group has established a schedule for review and update of the applications. The states are encouraged to use the most current form of the Uniform Applications. The forms are available on the NAIC website. All NIPR online applications use the most recent approved uniform initial and renewal application forms. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators""]",medium,answer,"The key components of the system established by the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) include:
 
 1. **Uniformity and Reciprocity**: The Act promotes efficiency and uniformity in producer licensing, establishing a system of reciprocity for producer licensing and uniform standards in key areas.
@@ -226,7 +226,7 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 9. **Commissioner Discretion**: The Act allows states to adopt regulations for state-specific situations, though deviations are discouraged to maintain uniformity.
 
-10. **Resolution of Issues**: The Working Group and NIPR address unresolved issues, such as the requirement for letters of clearance, through electronic solutions like the Contact Change Request (CCR) service.",5,Insurance producer licensing model,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Uniformity and reciprocity across states, allowing producers licensed in home state to operate in other states without additional testing or education requirements</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Standardized licensing categories and qualifications, including defined </span>""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Consistent background check procedures and character standards</span> for license applicants across jurisdictions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Continuing education requirements and exemption provisions</span> for maintaining professional competence.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Electronic licensing system for processing applications and maintaining producer information across multiple states.""}]",,70
+10. **Resolution of Issues**: The Working Group and NIPR address unresolved issues, such as the requirement for letters of clearance, through electronic solutions like the Contact Change Request (CCR) service.",5,Insurance producer licensing model,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) establishes <span class=\""highlight\"">a system of reciprocity and uniformity for producer licensing across states</span>. This allows producers licensed in their home state to more easily obtain licenses in other states without having to duplicate requirements such as prelicensing education or examinations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The system includes <span class=\""highlight\"">the National Insurance Producer Registry (NAIR), which serves as a central electronic repository for producer information</span>, enabling states to access licensing and compliance data. The NAIR facilitates electronic processing of license applications, renewals, and other licensing transactions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Another key component is the <span class=\""highlight\"">standardization of licensing requirements through the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS)</span>, which were originally adopted as the Uniform Resident Licensing Standards in 2002 and later expanded to include nonresident licensing standardization.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Act also includes provisions for <span class=\""highlight\"">compensation disclosure, requiring producers to disclose when they receive compensation from customers for insurance placement or when they represent customers with respect to that placement</span>. This component enhances transparency in producer-client relationships.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The system established by Model #218 defines key terms such as 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,' 'sell,' 'solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms to ensure consistency in application across participating jurisdictions. It also lists the persons and entities that do not need licenses, providing clear exemptions.""}]",,70
 4993,What considerations are necessary when determining the appropriate declaration for packaged goods?,"[""- step: serving size is the fraction closest to the RACC together with actual gram weight for that fraction of the pizza: 3. 3rd The the the serving size is'1/3 pizza (151g)' for this example, whereas the is 140g for all pizzas. Note: Sections 101.9(b)(2)(i) (discrete units), 21 101.9.(b)(2)(ii) (large discrete units), and 21 CFR 101.9(b)(2)(iii) (bulk describe how to use the RACC to derive a ser ving size. CFR 101.12(b) Therefore, RACC CFR products) 21 ## table for RACCs in the regulation contains a column of label What are these and must I use them in declaring a size for my food product? L65.The statements. serving added a label statement column to the RACC tables to provide with examples of how serving sizes could appear on product Exact values were initially provided as part of these statements, but have been removed because some manufacturers incorrectly believed that the label statements were required even if the values were inaccurate for their products. Manufacturers should realize that the label statement is not all inclusive and merely provides a few examples of possible statements. Manufacturers should use an appropriate household measure the corresponding metric weight or volume actually measured for their product. CFR 101.12(b) Answer: FDA manufacturers labels. since exact specific column label and specific 21 ## the number of units closest to the RACC is midway between two which should be chosen? L66.If numbers, serving sizes halfway between two numbers of units, the serving should be rounded up to the higher value CFR 101.9(b)(5)(ix)) For the RACC for cookies is 30 g. If the product is a bag of 12 g cookies, 2 units weigh 24 g, and 3 units weigh 36 g. Thus, 2.5 cookies would exactly 30 g, and the serving size would be rounded to the next value: '3 cookies (36 g).' Answer: For size (21. example, then weigh incremental"", ""## are the exemptions for single-serving containers? L83.What serving containers may omit the'servings per container' In addition, most single serving containers may omit the metric portion of the serving size declaration. However, if it is voluntarily it must be consistent with the net quantity of contents value. The size for single-serving containers must be a description of the container as: 'Serving Size: 1 package' for food in bags, 'Serving Size: 1 container' foods in plastic containers, or 'Serving Size: 1 can' as appropriate. Only few foods that are required to declare drained weights must include the equivalent as part of the serving size declaration (e.g., 'Serving size: 1 drained (\\_\\_g)'). CFR 101.9(b)(5)(iv), 21 CFR 101.9(b)(7)(i) CFR 101.9(d)(3)(ii) Answer: Single declaration. equivalent included, serving such for those metric can 21 and 21 ## do I know if my product is a single-serving container? L84.How containers are discussed in CFR 101.9(b)(6). that are packaged and sold individually are considered to be single if they contain less than 200% of the RACC for the product category. 200% of the RACC, it is the manufacturer's option to label the as a multi-serving container or as a single-serving container if it can be consumed at a single eating occasion. For example, the RACC brownies is 40 g. All brownies that are packaged and sold individually and weigh less than 80 g must be labeled as a single serving. If the believes it is reasonable for an individually packaged brownie weighs more than 80 g to be consumed at one time, such a brownie may be labeled as one serving. Answer: Single-serving 21 Products servings Above product reasonably for that manufacturer that also ## about single-serving containers for products that have larger such as soup? L85.What RACCs,"", ""## if the dehydrated mixed dish product contains several inner of ingredients intended to be mixed together to prepare a bulk such as macaroni and cheese? L97.What packages product, these cases, manufacturers may use an ounce declaration (21 CFR For example, the RACC for prepared macaroni and cheese is cup. If a 12 oz package (9 oz dry macaroni and 3 oz dry cheese mix) makes 3 of prepared macaroni and cheese, then the serving size for the composite could be expressed as '4 oz (112 g/about 2/3 cup macaroni and 2 dry cheese mix).' Alternatively, the manufacturer may provide nutrition separately for each component. Thus, the serving size could also expressed as '3 oz dry macaroni (84 g/about 2/3 cup)' and '1 oz dry mix (28 g/about 2 tbsp).' Answer: In 101.9(b)(5)(vii)). 1 cups product tbsp information be cheese ## is the serving size for products such as a cake mix? L98.What products that require further preparation, where the entire of the package are used to prepare a large discrete unit usually for consumption, the serving size is the amount of the unprepared used to make one 'RACC for the prepared product.' The 'RACC for unprepared product' is the amount of the unprepared product that is to make the fraction of the prepared product closest to the RACC of prepared product. For example, a prepared medium-weight cake has a of 80 grams. If 480 grams of cake mix makes 900 grams of prepared then 1/12 of the prepared cake (75 g) is the closest fraction to the 80 RACC for medium weight cakes. Therefore, the RACC for the cake is 1/12 of 480 g, or 40 g. The serving size could be listed as package (40 g/about 1/3 cup mix).' Answer: For contents divided product the required the RACC cake, gram unprepared '1/12 ## Sizes/Common Household Measures Serving ## do I choose appropriate household measures for declaring the sizes for products? L99.How serving"", ""## there limits on the size of a package that may be labeled as a serving'? L89.Are'single Answer: Products that are packaged and sold individually are considered to be single servings if they contain less than 200% of the RACC shown in 21 CFR 101.12. For packages that contain 200% or more of the RACC, it is the manufacturer's option to label the product as a single serving if the entire contents can reasonably be eaten at one time. 21 CFR 101.9(b)(6) ## is the smallest amount of food that may be labeled as two L90.What servings? answer depends on the size of the RACC. For foods with RACC than 100g (solid foods) or 100mL (liquids), packages must contain at least of the RACC to be labeled as 2 servings. For foods with RACCs of 100g 100mL or more, you may choose to label packages containing more than but less than 200% of the RACC as either one or two servings. CFR CFR 101.12(b) Answer: The less 200% or 150% 21 101.9(b)(6) and 21 ## Size/Servings Per Container Serving ## the number of servings be listed as '1.5' or 'about 1.5'? L91.Can Rounding to the nearest 0.5 servings is allowed between 2 and 5 Below 2 servings, the number of servings must be listed as '1' or 2.' For example, the RACC for egg rolls is 140 g. Since the RACC is than 100 g, a package of egg rolls containing more than 150% but less 200% of the RACC can be labeled as 1 or 2 servings. For example, a Answer: No. servings. 'about greater than"", ""## about single-serving containers for products that have larger such as soup? L85.What RACCs, example, the RACC for potato salad is 140 g. Containers of potato salad are packaged and sold individually and that weigh 210 g or less must be as a single serving. Containers weighing between 210 g and 280 g may labeled as1 or 2 servings. However, the serving size for a product labeled as servings is based on the household measure and not on the weight of 1/2 CFR 101.9(b)(6) For that labeled be two package. 21 a product has a RACC of 100 g or 100 mL or larger and is and sold individually, it must be labeled as a single-serving if it 150% or less of the RACC. However, packages for such products between 150% and 200% of the RACC may be labeled as one or servings at the manufacturer's option. Answer: If packaged contains containing two ## are the differences between labeling for single-serving containers multi-serving containers? L86.What and serving size statement for multi-serving containers must use the of common household measures CFR 101.9(b)(5)(i)-(iii)), single-serving containers are required to use a description of the container or package CFR 101.9(b)(5)(iv)). must list the metric equivalent to the household measure and the of servings in the container; however this is optional information on containers. If the metric equivalent is listed on single-serving it must match the net contents declaration for the product. Answer: The hierarchy (21 whereas individual (21 Multi-serving packages number single-serving containers,""]",hard,answer,"When determining the appropriate declaration for packaged goods, several considerations are necessary based on the provided context:
 
 1. **Serving Size Determination**: The serving size should be based on the Reference Amount Customarily Consumed (RACC). For discrete units, the serving size is the number of units closest to the RACC. If the exact weight is midway between two numbers, round up to the higher value (e.g., 3 cookies if 2.5 cookies equal the RACC).
@@ -239,7 +239,7 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 5. **Exemptions**: Single-serving containers may omit the 'servings per container' declaration and the metric portion of the serving size, but if included, it must match the net quantity of contents.
 
-6. **Prepared Products**: For products requiring preparation (e.g., cake mix), the serving size is based on the unprepared product amount needed to make the fraction of the prepared product closest to the RACC.",5,Food package serving declarations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Serving size is <span class=\""highlight\"">the fraction closest to the RACC together with actual gram weight</span> for that fraction of the product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">For products in discrete units (cookies, muffins), serving size is number of units closest to RACC</span> with actual weight in grams.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For products <span class=\""highlight\"">larger than RACC but can be divided (bread), serving size is fraction that most closely approximates RACC</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Package containing <span class=\""highlight\"">more than one type of food (variety packs) requires composite nutrition information</span> for the package as a whole.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The label must include percent Daily Values based on 2,000 calorie diet and presentation must follow specified format requirements.""}]",,71
+6. **Prepared Products**: For products requiring preparation (e.g., cake mix), the serving size is based on the unprepared product amount needed to make the fraction of the prepared product closest to the RACC.",5,Food package serving declarations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Serving size is <span class=\""highlight\"">the fraction closest to the RACC together with actual gram weight</span> for that fraction of the product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For products in discrete units (cookies, muffins), <span class=\""highlight\"">serving size is number of units closest to RACC</span> with actual weight in grams.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">If the number of units closest to the RACC is midway between two numbers, the serving should be rounded up to the higher value</span> (21 CFR 101.9(b)(5)(ix)). For example, if 2.5 cookies would exactly equal 30g, the serving size would be rounded to '3 cookies (36g)'.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Products that are packaged and sold individually are considered to be <span class=\""highlight\"">single servings if they contain less than 200% of the RACC</span> shown in 21 CFR 101.12.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a product has a RACC of 100g or 100mL or larger and is packaged and sold individually, <span class=\""highlight\"">it must be labeled as a single-serving if it contains 150% or less of the RACC</span>. However, packages containing between 150% and 200% of the RACC may be labeled as one or two servings at the manufacturer's option.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Single-serving containers may omit the 'servings per container' declaration</span>. In addition, most single-serving containers may omit the metric portion of the serving size declaration. However, if it is voluntarily included, <span class=\""highlight\"">it must be consistent with the net quantity of contents value</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Rounding to the nearest 0.5 servings is allowed between 2 and 5 servings. Below 2 servings, the number of servings must be listed as '1' or '2'</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For products that require further preparation, where the entire contents of the package are used to prepare a large discrete unit usually divided for consumption, <span class=\""highlight\"">the serving size is the amount of the unprepared product used to make the fraction of the prepared product closest to the RACC of the prepared product</span>.""}]",,71
 4351,What steps should be taken when a product is found to be non-compliant with regulations?,"[""## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA) Under section 9 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. § 1198, imported products, fabrics, or related materials delivered from customs custody under bond must conform to applicable flammability standards in effect on the date of entry. Absent such conformance, the Secretary of the Treasury shall demand redelivery. Redelivery is the return of previously released merchandise to Custom's custody. Failure to redeliver will result in the assertion of a claim for liquidated damages for breach of a condition of the bond arising out of such failure to conform or redeliver. For information about reconditioning violative imported products, see Chapter 8. ## CHAPTER 5-RECALLING A REGULATED PRODUCT This Chapter provides information on initiating a product recall when CPSC staff or a regulated entity determines that: (a) a product fails to comply with a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, and (b) the hazard associated with a product warrants recall of the product from the distribution chain or from consumers. The objective of the recall is to: - 2. remove noncomplying product from the distribution chain and from the possession of consumers, if applicable; and - 1. locate all noncomplying product as quickly as possible; - 3. accurately communicate information to the public in a timely manner about a noncomplying product, the hazard it presents, and the action needed to correct the problem. Companies should design all informational materials to motivate retailers and the media inform the public and to motivate consumers to respond affirmatively to the recall. ## PREPARING FOR A PRODUCT RECALL"", ""14 Before prohibiting exportation of such products, the Commission would have to make a factual determination about the existence of an unreasonable risk to consumers within the United States. Section 19(a)(15) of the CPSA prohibits the export from the United States for purpose of sale any consumer product or substance regulated by the Commission (other than a consumer product or substance), the export of which is permitted by the Secretary of the Treasury that: - 1. is subject to an order issued under sections 12 or 15 of the CPSA or is a banned hazardous substance within the meaning of section 2(q)(1) of FHSA; or - 3. violates an order issued by the Commission under section 18(c) of the CPSA prohibiting export from the United States. - 2. is subject to a voluntary corrective action taken by the manufacturer in consultation with the Commission, of which action the Commission has notified the public; or Under section 15(d) of the FFA, the Commission has separate authority to prohibit, by order, a person from exporting from the United States for purposes of sale any fabric or related material that the Commission determines is not in conformity with an applicable standard or rule under the FFA, unless the importing country has notified the Commission that such country accepts the importation of such fabric or related material. In addition, section 15(e) of the FFA states allows the Secretary of the Treasury to permit export under section 17(e) [of the CPSA.] ## EXPORT NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS The Commission's regulation at 16 C.F.R. part 1019 requires that, before a firm may export products that fail to comply with the CPSA, FHSA, and FFA, a firm must notify the Commission at least 30 days in advance of the exportation date and include approval from the accepting country. Section 15(e) of the FFA states allows the Secretary of the Treasury to permit export under section 17(e). The following information must be provided to the Commission:"", ""## NEWS RELEASES Unless a company can identify nearly all purchasers of a product being recalled and notify them directly, the Commission traditionally issues a news release jointly with the company. Staff in the Offices of Compliance and Communications develop the wording of the release with the recalling company. The agreed-upon language for the news release provides the foundation for preparing other notice documents. The Commission discourages unilateral releases issued by companies because they create confusion among the media and the public. This is particularly true if CPSC is also issuing a recall release on the same product. CPSC's Office of Communications sends the news releases to national wire services, major metropolitan daily newspapers, television and radio networks, and periodicals on the agency's news contact mailing list, in addition to consumers and stakeholders who have signed up to receive direct notification of product recall news. News releases from the agency receive wide media and social media attention and generate a good response rate from consumers. Each recall news release must use the word'recall' in the heading and should begin: 'In cooperation with the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)....' The CPSC staff suggests that recall news releases include the following: - · whether the recalling firm is the manufacturer (or importer), distributor, or retailer of the product; - · the firm's legal and commonly known trade name and the city and state of its headquarters; - · if the firm is not the manufacturer, the manufacturer, including importers, of the product and the country of manufacture; - · all significant retailers, by commonly known trade name, of the product. 'Significant' is defined by 16 C.F.R. § 1115.27(i), and it is in the sole discretion of CPSC staff; - · if the product is manufactured outside the United States, the identity of the foreign manufacturer or U.S. importer including the city and country of its headquarters; - · number of product units covered by the recall, including numbers manufactured, imported and/or distributed; - · a description of the product, including product name, the intended consumer population ( i.e. infants, children or adults), product's""]",hard,answer,"When a product is found to be non-compliant with regulations, the following steps should be taken:
 
 1. **Recall the Product**: Initiate a product recall to remove the non-compliant product from the distribution chain and from consumers. The recall should aim to:
@@ -258,20 +258,20 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 4. **Comply with Export Restrictions**: If the non-compliant product is to be exported, ensure compliance with export notification requirements, including notifying the Commission at least 30 days in advance and obtaining approval from the accepting country.
 
-5. **Redelivery for Imported Products**: If the non-compliant product is imported and released under bond, ensure it conforms to applicable standards or arrange for redelivery to Customs custody to avoid liquidated damages.",3,Product non-compliance handling,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Recall the product from distribution channels and consumers</span>, providing specific instructions for return or disposal.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Notify the appropriate regulatory agency (CPSC, FDA, etc.) about the non-compliance</span> and recall action plan.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Correct the non-compliance issue through product redesign, manufacturing process changes, or labeling modifications</span> before resuming production.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Maintain detailed records of the non-compliance investigation, corrective actions, and all communications with regulatory agencies and customers.""}]",,72
-3306,"If two trawlers are working together at night, what extra signal should they use besides their normal lights?","['## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II ## Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity ## 1. General The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i). The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. ## 2. Signals for trawlers - (a) Vessels of 20 meters or more in length when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, shall exhibit: - (i) when shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (ii) when hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (iii) when the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (b) Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: - (i) by night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (ii) when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in 2(a) above. - (c) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as appropriate. ## 3. Signals for purse seiners Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. § 85.01. [Reserved] ## -INLANDAnnex II 33 CFR 85 ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex III', ""- -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34 Maneuvering and Warning Signals ## § 83.34 - (a) When power-driven vessels are in sight of one another and meeting or crossing at a distance within half a mile of each other, each vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules: - (i) Shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; and - (3) Three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (ii) Upon hearing the one or two blast signal of the other shall, if in agreement, sound the same whistle signal and take the steps necessary to effect a safe passing. If, however, from any cause, the vessel doubts the safety of the proposed maneuver, she shall sound the signal specified in paragraph (d) of this Rule and each vessel shall take appropriate precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made. - (b) A vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals: - (i) These signals shall have the following significance: - (1) One flash to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two flashes to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; - (3) Three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) The duration of each flash shall be about 1 second; and - (iii) The light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be one all-round white or yellow light, visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, synchronized with the whistle, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84). - (c) When in sight of one another:"", 'The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In a vessel of 50 meters or more in length: - (i) A masthead light, 6 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 3 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 3 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 3 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (b) In a vessel of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 2 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (c) In a vessel of less than 12 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 2 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 1 mile; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (d) In an inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object being towed: - (i) A white all-round light, 3 miles. - (ii) [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Lights and Shapes ## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway']",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, when two trawlers are working together at night (pair trawling), they should exhibit a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair. Additionally, when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, they should exhibit the same lights as single trawlers: two white lights in a vertical line when shooting nets, one white over one red light when hauling nets, or two red lights in a vertical line when the net is fast on an obstruction.",3,Pair trawling vessel signals,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""TRAWLERS and vessels fishing with SEINE NETS... Vessels engaged in PAIR TRAWLING shall <span class=\""highlight\"">exhibit a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When two vessels are engaged in pair trawling, they must <span class=\""highlight\"">each direct a searchlight toward the other vessel</span> to indicate their paired operation.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessels fishing with nets also display two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being green and the lower white.""}]",,73
-437,What are the common routes of exposure to zoonotic diseases?,"['## Employers should adopt the following best practices to reduce allergic responses of workers: - · Eliminate or minimize exposure to the proteins found in animal urine, saliva and dander. - · Limit the chances that workers will inhale or have skin contact with animal proteins by using well-designed air handling and waste management systems. - · Have workers use appropriate PPE (e.g., gloves, gowns, hair covers, respirators) to further minimize their risk of exposure. ## Zoonotic Diseases There are a host of possible infectious agents that can be transferred from animals to humans. These are referred to as zoonotic diseases. The common routes of exposure to infectious agents are inhalation, inoculation, ingestion and contamination of skin and mucous membranes. Inhalation hazards may arise during work practices that can generate aerosols. These include the following: centrifugation, mixing (e.g., blending, vortexing, and sonication), pouring/decanting and spilling/splashing of culture fluids. Inoculation hazards include needlesticks and lacerations from sharp objects. Ingestion hazards include the following: splashes to the mouth, placing contaminated articles/fingers in mouth, consumption of food in the laboratory, and mouth pipetting. Contamination of skin and mucous membranes can occur via splashes or contact with contaminated fomites (e.g., towels, bedclothes, cups, money). Some of the zoonotic diseases that can be acquired from animals are listed below. ## Zoonotic Diseases - Wild and Domesticated Animals Wild rodents and other wild animals may inflict an injury such as a bite or scratch. Workers need to receive training on the correct way to capture and handle any wild animals. While they may carry or shed organisms that may be potentially infectious', ""- · No mouth pipetting; and - · Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific procedure). Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is protective gear needed to keep workers safe while performing their jobs. Examples of PPE include respirators (for example, N95), face shields, goggles and disposable gloves. While engineering and administrative controls and proper work practices are considered to be more effective in minimizing exposure to many workplace hazards, the use of PPE is also very important in laboratory settings. It is important that PPE be: - · Selected based upon the hazard to the worker; - · Properly fitted and in some cases periodically refitted (e.g., respirators); - · Conscientiously and properly worn; - · Regularly maintained and replaced in accord with the manufacturer's specifications; - · Properly removed and disposed of to avoid contamination of self, others or the environment; and - · If reusable, properly removed, cleaned, disinfected and stored. The following sections of this document are organized based upon classes of hazards, i.e., chemical, biological, physical, safety and other hazards. The organization of these sections and/or subsections may differ somewhat. For instance, OSHA's Laboratory standard is described in greater detail than any other standard in this document. This is because this is the only standard that is specific to laboratories (i.e., non-production laboratories). In all other sections, only those specific aspects of various standards that are considered most relevant to non-production laboratories are discussed. In sections of this document where there are no specific OSHA standards that apply, guidance in the form of Fact Sheets or QuickCardsTM may be provided. ## Chemical Hazards"", '- · Keep exits free from obstruction. Access to exits must remain clear of obstructions at all times, 29 CFR 1910.37(a)(3). - · Ensure that spills are reported and cleaned up immediately. - · Eliminate cluttered or obstructed work areas. - · Use prudent housekeeping procedures such as using caution signs, cleaning only one side of a passageway at a time, and provide good lighting for all halls and stairwells to help reduce accidents, especially during the night hours. - · Instruct workers to use the handrail on stairs, to avoid undue speed, and to maintain an unobstructed view of the stairs ahead of them even if that means requesting help to manage a bulky load. Problems involving control of hazardous energy require procedural solutions. Employers must adopt such procedural solutions for controlling hazards to ensure worker safety during maintenance. However, such procedures are effective only if strictly enforced. Employers must, therefore, be committed to strict implementation of such procedures. - · Eliminate uneven floor surfaces. - · Promote safe work practices, even in cramped working spaces. - · Avoid awkward positions, and use equipment that makes lifting easier. ## References American Chemical Society, Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories. 1990. 5th Edition. Burnett L, Lunn G, Coico R. Biosafety: Guidelines for working with pathogenic and infectious microorganisms. Current Protocols in Microbiology. 2009. 13:1A.1.1.-1A.1.14. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Institutes of Health (NIH). Primary Containment for Biohazards: Selection, Installation, and Use of Biological Safety Cabinets. 2007. 3rd Edition. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Institutes of Health (NIH). Biosafety Manual. 2007. 5th Edition. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office.', ""## Hierarchy of Controls Occupational safety and health professionals use a framework called the 'hierarchy of controls' to select ways of dealing with workplace hazards. The hierarchy of controls prioritizes intervention strategies based on the premise that the best way to control a hazard is to systematically remove it from the workplace, rather than relying on workers to reduce their exposure. The types of measures that may be used to protect laboratory workers, prioritized from the most effective to least effective, are: - · engineering controls; - · administrative controls; - · work practices; and - · personal protective equipment (PPE). Most employers use a combination of control methods. Employers must evaluate their particular workplace to develop a plan for protecting their workers that may combine both immediate actions as well as longer term solutions. A description of each type of control for non-production laboratories follows. Engineering controls are those that involve making changes to the work environment to reduce work-related hazards. These types of controls are preferred over all others because they make permanent changes that reduce exposure to hazards and do not rely on worker behavior. By reducing a hazard in the workplace, engineering controls can be the most cost-effective solutions for employers to implement. ## Examples include: - · Chemical Fume Hoods; and - · Biological Safety Cabinets (BSCs). Administrative controls are those that modify workers' work schedules and tasks in ways that minimize their exposure to workplace hazards. ## Examples include: - · Developing a Chemical Hygiene Plan; and - · Developing Standard Operating Procedures for chemical handling. Work practices are procedures for safe and proper work that are used to reduce the duration, frequency or intensity of exposure to a hazard. When defining safe work practice controls, it is a good idea for the employer to ask workers for their suggestions, since they have firsthand experience with the tasks as actually performed. These controls need to be understood and followed by managers, supervisors and workers. ## Examples include: - · No mouth pipetting; and - · Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific procedure).""]",easy,answer,"The common routes of exposure to zoonotic diseases are inhalation, inoculation, ingestion, and contamination of skin and mucous membranes. Inhalation hazards may arise during work practices that generate aerosols, such as centrifugation, mixing, pouring/decanting, and spilling/splashing of culture fluids. Inoculation hazards include needlesticks and lacerations from sharp objects. Ingestion hazards include splashes to the mouth, placing contaminated articles/fingers in the mouth, consumption of food in the laboratory, and mouth pipetting. Contamination of skin and mucous membranes can occur via splashes or contact with contaminated fomites (e.g., towels, bedclothes, cups, money).",4,Zoonotic disease transmission,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Common routes of exposure to zoonotic diseases are <span class=\""highlight\"">inhalation, inoculation, ingestion, and contamination of skin and mucous membranes</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Inhalation hazards arise during work that generates aerosols or dust</span> (procedures on infected animals, waste handling).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Inoculation occurs through accidental needlesticks, cuts from contaminated equipment, or animal bites/scratches</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Ingestion can occur through hand-to-mouth transfer or contaminated food/water. Skin/mucous membrane exposure through direct contact</span> with infected animals or materials.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Preventive measures include engineering controls, personal protective equipment, vaccination when available, and proper hygiene practices.""}]",,74
-2263,What are the mandatory terms that must be included in a health claim for a product containing sugar alcohols to indicate it does not promote dental caries?,"[""| | Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | *Plant Sterol/ stanol esters and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.83) | At least 0.65 g plant sterol esters per RACC of spreads and salad dressings, or At least 1.7 g plant stanol esters per RACC of spreads, salad dressings, snack bars, and dietary supplements. Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, and Spreads and salad dressings that exceed 13 g fat per 50 g must bear the statement'see nutrition information for fat content' Salad dressings are exempted from the minimum 10% DV nutrient requirement | Required terms: 'May' or'might' reduce the risk of CHD 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease' 'Plant sterol esters' or 'plant stanol esters'; except'vegetable oil' may replace the term 'plant' if vegetable oil is the sole source of the sterol/ stanol ester Claim specifies plant stero/stanol esters are part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol. Claim does not attribute any degree of CHD risk reduction. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters necessary to reduce CHD risk, and the amount provided per serving. Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day."", ""| | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Dietary Non- cariogenic Carbohydrate Sweeteners and Dental Caries (21 CFR 101.80) | Sugar free, and When a fermen- table carbohydrate is present, the food must not lower plaque pH below 5.7. Eligible substances 1) The following sugar alcohols: xylitol, sorbitol, mannitol, maltitol, isomalt, lactitol, hydrogenated starch hydrolysates, hydrogenated glucose syrups, erythritol, or a combination of these. 2) The following sugars: D-tagatose and isomaltulose 3) The following non-nutritive sweetener: sucralose | Required terms:'does not promote,''may reduce the risk of,' 'useful [or is useful] in not promoting' or 'expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting' dental caries; 'dental caries' or 'tooth decay.''sugar alcohol' or'sugar alcohols' or the name or names of the sugar alcohols Note: D-tagatose may be identified as 'tagatose' When the substance that is the subject of the claim is a noncariogenic sugar (i.e., D-tagatose) the claim shall identify the substance as a sugar that, unlike other sugars, does not promote the development of dental caries. Includes statement that frequent between meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay."", 'Includes statement that frequent between meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay. Packages with less than 15 square inches of surface area available for labeling may use a shortened claim | Full claim: Frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches promotes tooth decay. The sugar alcohols in [name of food] do not promote tooth decay. Shortened claim (on small packages only): Does not promote tooth decay. | | Approved Claims | Requirements the Food for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|']",hard,answer,"The mandatory terms that must be included in a health claim for a product containing sugar alcohols to indicate it does not promote dental caries are: 'does not promote,' 'may reduce the risk of,' 'useful [or is useful] in not promoting' or 'expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting' dental caries; 'dental caries' or 'tooth decay.' Additionally, the claim must specify 'sugar alcohol' or 'sugar alcohols' or the name or names of the sugar alcohols.",3,Dental caries health claims,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<table class=\""md-table\""><thead><tr><th>Health Claim</th><th>Mandatory Terms</th></tr></thead><tbody><tr><td>Sugar Alcohols and Dental Caries</td><td><span class=\""highlight\"">&quot;does not promote,&quot; &quot;may reduce the risk of,&quot; &quot;useful [or is useful] in not promoting,&quot; or &quot;expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting&quot; dental caries&quot;</span>&quot;</td></tr></tbody></table>""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Food must meet criteria: <span class=\""highlight\"">sugar alcohol used in place of sugar, sugar alcohol not fermented by oral bacteria, food doesn&#x27;t lower plaque pH below 5.7</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Eligible sugar alcohols include xylitol, sorbitol, mannitol, maltitol, isomalt, lactitol, hydrogenated starch hydrolysates, hydrogenated glucose syrups, or combination of these.""}]",,75
-5449,When did things change for the lakes?,"[""## § 88.07 Public Safety Activities - (a) Vessels engaged in government sanctioned public safety activities, and commercial vessels performing similar functions, may display an alternately flashing red and yellow light signal. This identification light signal must be located so that it does not interfere with the visibility of the vessel's navigation lights. The identification light signal may be used only as an identification signal and conveys no special privilege. Vessels using the identification light signal during public safety activities must abide by the Inland Navigation Rules, and must not presume that the light or the exigency gives them precedence or right of way. - (b) Public safety activities include but are not limited to patrolling marine parades, regattas, or special water celebrations; traffic control; salvage; firefighting; medical assistance; assisting disabled vessels; and search and rescue. ## -INTERNATIONALINTERPRETATIVE RULES 33 CFR 82 ## § 82.1 Purpose This part contains the interpretative rules concerning the 72 COLREGS that are adopted by the Coast Guard for the guidance of the public. ## § 82.3 Pushing vessel and vessel being pushed: Composite unit Rule 24(b) of the 72 COLREGS states that when a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit, they are regarded as a power-driven vessel and must exhibit the lights under Rule 23. A 'composite unit' is interpreted to be a pushing vessel that is rigidly connected by mechanical means to a vessel being pushed so they react to sea and swell as one vessel. 'Mechanical means' does not include the following: - (a) Lines. - (b) Hawsers. - (c) Wires. - (d) Chains. ## § 82.5 Lights for moored vessels"", ""## Inland Regulations The Inland Rules in this book replace the old Inland Rules, Western Rivers Rules, Great Lakes Rules, their respective pilot rules and interpretive rules, and parts of the Motorboat Act of 1940. Many of the old navigation rules were originally enacted in the 1800's. Occasionally, provisions were added to cope with the increasing complexities of water transportation. Eventually, the navigation rules for United States inland waterways became such a confusing patchwork of requirements that in the 1960's several attempts were made to revise and simplify them. These attempts were not successful. Following the signing of the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, a new effort was made to unify and update the various inland navigation rules. This effort culminated in the enactment of the Inland Navigational Rules Act of 1980. This legislation sets out Rules 1 through 38 - the main body of the Rules. The five Annexes were published as regulations. It is important to note that with the exception of Annex V to the Inland Rules, the International and Inland Rules and Annexes are very similar in both content and format. The effective date for the Inland Navigation Rules was December 24, 1981, except for the Great Lakes where the effective date was March 1, 1983. On May 17, 2010 the US Coast Guard published a Final Rule which placed the Inland Navigational Rules into the Code of Federal Regulations. This move was in accordance with the Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2004, which repealed the Inland Navigation Rules as they appeared in United States Code. This Handbook supersedes Commandant Instruction M16672.2D, Navigation Rules: International-Inland. It maintains the same format and provides additional and updated content. Not all U.S. Navigation Regulations found in Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations are contained in this handbook. ## LEGAL CITATIONS""]",easy,answer,"The effective date for the Inland Navigation Rules on the Great Lakes was March 1, 1983.",2,Great Lakes navigation rules,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Inland Navigation Rules on the Great Lakes have an <span class=\""highlight\"">effective date of March 1, 1983</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Prior to this date, different regulations governed navigation on the Great Lakes, which were harmonized with international standards in 1983.""}]",,76
-3835,Where can I find a complete listing of alternative fuel station locations?,"[""Be advised that DOE will not reconsider waiver approval without a detailed description of the request if a waiver approval appears unlikely during prescreening. - c. Petroleum Use and Reduction Policy: DOT established both its total petroleum consumption, and alternative fuel use baselines in the Department's Federal Fleet Report in FAST for fiscal year (FY) 2005. If these baselines are determined to be inaccurate, the DOT Fleet Manager may work with DOE to correct the original data. - i. EISA requires DOT to reduce the use of petroleum by at least twenty percent from the FY 2005 baseline by October 1, 2015. Additionally, for a covered fleet, E.O. 13423 requires an annual petroleum reduction of at least two percent from a FY 2005 baseline through the end of FY 2015. Lastly, E.O. 13514 further extends the requirements of E.O. 13423 through the end of FY 2020, thus requiring at least a 30 percent reduction from FY 2005 to FY 2020. - ii. OA Fleet Managers should evaluate petroleum reduction strategies and tactics for each fleet location, based on an assessment of site-specific characteristics, including availability of alternative fuel, fleet size, and fleet composition (vehicle type and size). - iii. If OAs are not already on track to meet or exceed petroleum reduction goals, they must reduce petroleum use through various means, including but not limited to the following practices: - a) Develop and implement a communications plan to ensure that strategies for improving fleet fuel efficiencies are disseminated and that all drivers are aware of fuel efficiencies gained by driving more efficiently. The communications plan should include the strategies listed in GSA Bulletin FMR B-19, Motor Vehicle Management. - b) Ensure that the Fleet Managers maintain their vehicles as required. - c) Acquire hybrid electric vehicles (HEVs), including PHEVs, for fleets when they are commercially available at a life-cycle cost that is reasonably comparable to non-"", ""- f. Administrators of OAs that operate covered vehicle fleets are responsible for ensuring compliance with the requirements in this section. - g. Alternative Fuels: E.O. 13423 requires DOT to reduce the fleet's total petroleum consumption by two percent annually through the end of fiscal year 2015 and increase the total fuel consumption of nonpetroleum-based fuel by 10 percent annually. Per the DOT Fleet Sustainability Policy, DOT must annually increase the total alternative fuel consumption by 10 percent (compounded annually) starting from a FY 2005 baseline through the end of FY 2015. Additionally, DOT must ensure that at least five percent of total fuel consumed in fleet vehicles is alternative fuels. EPAct 2005, Section 701 requires DOT to use alternative fuels in all dualfuel fleet vehicles if such fuel is available within 5 miles or 15 minutes of the vehicle's garaged location, unless a vehicle receives a Section 701 waiver from DOE. DOT must reduce the number of EPAct 2005, Section 701 waivers requested annually. To be considered in compliance with this requirement, DOT must achieve the following annual waiver reductions specified below: a) in each year where less than 50 percent of AFVs are waived, the OA must reduce the number of waivers requested two percent from the previous year. b) in each year where more than 50 percent of AFVs are waived, the OA must reduce the number of waivers requested 10 percent from the previous year. Finally, pursuant to EISA 2007, Section 246, DOT must install alternative fuel infrastructure, including but not limited to electric vehicle charging stations in fleet refueling centers, where cost-effective, to the maximum extent possible. Alternative fuels for vehicles include, but are not limited to: - i. Blends of 85 percent or more of denatured ethanol, and other alcohols, with gasoline or other fuels (including E85); - ii. Natural gas and liquid fuels domestically produced from natural gas;"", ""transactions, point-of-sale transactions and all transactions resulting from redistribution from tanks/tankers to vehicles. The organization must maintain a detailed record of all transactions that must be available for review/audit upon request. - a. Operators shall use unleaded fuel in vehicles with the minimum grade (octane rating) recommended by the vehicle manufacturer when fueling DOT-owned or leased motor vehicles. Use of premium grade fuel is prohibited unless specifically required by the vehicle manufacturer. - b. Alternative Fuel Policy: DOT policy is that all alternative fuel vehicles must be fueled with alternative fuels E-85 (85 percent ethanol/15 percent gasoline), Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), etc. where fuel is available within 5 miles or 15 minutes of the garage location. EPAct 2005 Section 701 waivers may be granted on a case-by-case basis when alternative fuel is not available or the cost of the alternative fuel is unreasonably more expensive compared with gasoline. The OA Fleet Manager must submit all waivers to the DOT Fleet Manager who will enter them into the Federal Automotive Statistical Tool (FAST) no later than midnight, 30 June of each year, and must be certified by the Assistant Secretary for Administration. For a complete listing of alternative fuel station locations go to: http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/. - i. OA Fleet Managers can now prescreen waiver applications by entering vehicle location data into the FAST. The FAST compares this information against the National Renewable Energy Laboratory's (NREL's) fuel station locator to determine the likelihood of waiver approval for that location. Be advised that DOE will not reconsider waiver approval without a detailed description of the request if a waiver approval appears unlikely during prescreening."", ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |""]",easy,answer,A complete listing of alternative fuel station locations can be found at: http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/.,4,Alternative fuel resources,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A complete listing of alternative fuel station locations can be found at: <span class=\""highlight\"">http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/</span>""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Alternative Fuels Data Center website provides information on station locations, types of fuel available, and operating hours.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Users can search for stations by location, fuel type, access type, and payment methods accepted.""}]",,77
-4283,Which level is appropriate for work involving respiratory transmission risks?,"['Laboratory workers and supervisors are strongly urged to review this publication directly before engaging in any experimentation. ## Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) BSL-1 is appropriate for working with microorganisms that are not known to cause disease in healthy humans. BSL-l practices, safety equipment, and facility design and construction are appropriate for undergraduate and secondary educational training and teaching laboratories, and for other laboratories in which work is done with defined and characterized strains of viable microorganisms not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adult humans. Bacillus subtilis, Naegleria gruberi, infectious canine hepatitis virus, and exempt organisms under the NIH Recombinant DNA Guidelines (http://www4.od.nih.gov/oba/rac/ guidelines/guidelines.html) are representative of microorganisms meeting these criteria. Many agents not ordinarily associated with disease processes in humans are, however, opportunistic pathogens and may cause infection in the young, the aged, and immunodeficient or immunosuppressed individuals. Vaccine strains that have undergone multiple in vivo passages should not be considered avirulent simply because they are vaccine strains. BSL-1 represents a basic level of containment that relies on standard microbiological practices with no special primary or secondary barriers recommended, other than a sink for hand washing. ## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2)', '## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratory personnel working with agents of moderate risk to personnel and the environment. BSL-2 practices, equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories in which work is done with the broad spectrum of indigenous moderate-risk agents that are present in the community and associated with human disease of varying severity. With good microbiological techniques, these agents can be used safely in activities conducted on the open bench, provided the potential for producing splashes or aerosols is low. Hepatitis B virus, H1V, the salmonellae, and Toxoplasma spp. are representative of microorganisms assigned to this containment level. Biosafety Level 2 is also appropriate when work is done with any human-derived blood, body fluids, tissues, or primary human cell lines where the presence of an infectious agent may be unknown. Laboratory personnel in the United States working with human-derived materials should refer to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (OSHA 1991), available online at www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_ document?p\\_table=STANDARDS7p\\_id=1005, for required precautions. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to accidental percutaneous or mucous membrane exposures, or ingestion of infectious materials. Extreme caution should be taken with contaminated needles or sharp instruments. Even though organisms routinely manipulated at Biosafety Level 2 are not known to be transmissible by the aerosol route, procedures with aerosol or high splash potential that may increase the risk of such personnel exposure must be conducted in primary containment equipment, or in devices such as a biological safety cabinet (BSC) or safety centrifuge cups. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves.', 'Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves. Secondary barriers such as hand washing sinks and waste decontamination facilities must be available to reduce potential environmental contamination. ## Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) BSL-3 is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route. This may apply to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, research, or production facilities in which work is done with indigenous or exotic agents with potential for respiratory transmission, and which may cause serious and potentially lethal infection. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Coxiella burnetti are representative of the microorganisms assigned to this level. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to autoinoculation, ingestion, and exposure to infectious aerosols. At BSL-3, more emphasis is placed on primary and secondary barriers to protect personnel in contig- uous areas, the community, and the environment from exposure to potentially infectious aerosols. For example, all laboratory manipulations should be performed in a BSC or other enclosed equipment, such as a gas-tight aerosol generation chamber. Secondary barriers for this level include controlled access to the laboratory and ventilation requirements that minimize the release of infectious aerosols from the laboratory. ## Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) BSL-4 practices, safety equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable for work with dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of life-threatening disease, which may be transmitted via the aerosol route, and for which there is no available vaccine or therapy. Agents with a close or identical antigenic relationship to Biosafety Level 4 agents also should be handled at this level. When sufficient data are obtained, work with these agents may continue at this or at a lower level. Viruses such as Marburg or Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever are manipulated at Biosafety Level 4.', '| Class I or II biosafety cabinets (BSCs) or other containment devices used for all agents that cause splashes or aerosols of infec- tious materials Laboratory coats and gloves Face protection as needed | Open bench top sink Autoclave | | BSL-3 | Indigenous or exotic agents with potential for aerosol transmis- sion; disease may have serious or lethal consequences | All BSL-2 practices Controlled access Decontamination of all waste Decontamination of laboratory clothing before laundering Baseline serum | Class I or II BSCs or other physical containment devices used for all open manipulations of agents Protective lab clothing and gloves Respiratory protection as needed | Open bench top sink Autoclave Physical separation from access corridors Self-closing, double- door access Exhaust air not recirculated Negative airflow in laboratory | | BSL-4 | Dangerous/exotic agents which pose high risk of life-threat- ening disease; aero- sol-transmitted lab infections; or related agents with unknown risk of transmission | All BSL-3 practices Clothing change be- fore entering Shower on exit All material decontaminated on exit from facility | All procedures conducted in Class III BSCs, or Class I or II BSCs in combination with full-body, air-supplied, positive pressure personnel suit. | BSL-3 plus: Separate building or isolated zone Dedicated supply and exhaust, vac- uum, and decon- tamination systems Other requirements outlined in the text | NOTE: The following information has been adapted from Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories, 5th Ed. (BMBL, 5th Ed.), which is published jointly by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the National Institutes of Health (NIH), and is available online at www.cdc. gov/od/ohs/biosfty/bmbl5/bmbl5toc.htm. Laboratory workers and supervisors are strongly urged to review this publication directly before engaging in any experimentation.']",easy,answer,"Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) is appropriate for work involving respiratory transmission risks. BSL-3 is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route. This includes clinical, diagnostic, teaching, research, or production facilities where work is done with indigenous or exotic agents with potential for respiratory transmission. Examples of such agents include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Coxiella burnetti. At BSL-3, emphasis is placed on primary and secondary barriers to protect personnel from exposure to potentially infectious aerosols, including the use of biosafety cabinets and controlled access to the laboratory.",4,Biosafety levels for laboratory work,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""BSL-3 <span class=\""highlight\"">provides protection against airborne transmission through specially designed facilities, controlled access, directional airflow, and HEPA-filtered exhaust</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""BSL-3 requires specific training in handling pathogenic agents, conducted under the direction of competent scientists. All procedures involving infectious materials must be conducted within biological safety cabinets.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""BSL-2 is for agents with moderate potential hazard, while BSL-4 is for dangerous/exotic agents with high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections and no available treatments.""}]",,78
-221,What does the Court's suggestion about Oklahoma's authority imply about Congress's past legislation?,"[""A Today the Court rules for Oklahoma. In doing so, the Court announces that, when it comes to crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal reservations, Oklahoma may 'exercise jurisdiction.' Ante, at 4. But this declaration comes as if by oracle, without any sense of the history recounted above and unattached to any colorable legal authority. Truly, a more ahistorical and mistaken statement of Indian law would be hard to fathom. premise that The source of the Court's error is foundational. Through most of its opinion, the Court proceeds on the Oklahoma possesses 'inherent' sovereign power to prosecute crimes on tribal reservations until and unless Congress 'preempt[s]' that authority. Ante, at 5-18. The Court emphasizes that States normally wield broad police powers within their borders absent some preemptive federal law. See ante, at 4-6; see also Virginia Uranium, Inc. v. Warren, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (lead opinion) (slip op., at 12). But the effort to wedge Tribes into that paradigm is a category error. Tribes are not private organizations within ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, other authorstate boundaries. Their reservations are not glorified private campgrounds. Tribes are sovereigns. And the preemption rule applicable to them is exactly the opposite of the normal rule. Tribal sovereignty means that the criminal laws of the States 'can have no force' on tribal members within tribal bounds unless and until Congress clearly ordains otherwise. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 561. After all, the power to punish crimes by or against one's own citizens within one's own territory to the exclusion of ities is and has always been among the most essential attributes of sovereignty. See, e.g., Wilson v. Girard, 354 U. S. 524, 529 (1957) ( per curiam ) ('A sovereign nation has exclusive jurisdiction to punish offenses against its laws committed within its borders'); see also Schooner Exchange v."", ""408, 416-418 (2003) (Breyer). In refusing to sanction Georgia's power grab, this Court explained that the State's 'assertion of jurisdiction over the Cherokee nation' was 'void,' because under our Constitution only the federal government possessed the power to manage relations with the Tribe. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 542, 561-562. B Two years later, and exercising its authority to regulate tribal affairs in the shadow of Worcester, Congress adopted the General Crimes Act of 1834 (GCA). That law extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands for certain crimes and, in doing so, served two apparent purposes. First, as a 'courtesy' to the Tribes, the law represented a promise by the federal government 'to punish crimes... committed... by and against our own [non-Indian] citizens.' H. Rep. No. 474, 23d Cong., 1st Sess., 13 (1834) (H. Rep. No. 474). That jurisdictional arrangement was also ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, against non-Indians. See consistent with, and even seemingly compelled by, the federal government's treaties with various Tribes. See F. Cohen, Handbook of Federal Indian Law 731 (N. Newton et al. eds. 2005) (Cohen); R. Clinton, Development of Criminal Jurisdiction Over Indian Lands: The Historical Perspective, 17 Ariz. L. Rev. 951, 958-962 (1975) (Clinton). Second, because Worcester held that States lacked criminal jurisdiction on tribal lands, Congress sought to ensure a federal forum for crimes committed by and H. Rep. No. 474, at 13. Otherwise, Congress understood, non-Indian settlers would be subject to tribal jurisdiction alone. See id., at 13, 18; R. Barsh &amp; J. Henderson, The Betrayal, Oliphant v. Suquamish Indian Tribe and the Hunting of the Snark, 63 Minn. L. Rev. 609, 625-626 (1979)."", ""Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek and obtain tribal consent to any extension of state jurisdiction. See Part I-B, supra ; Clinton 958-962. Unless a State takes these steps, it does ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 'not hav[e] jurisdiction.' 25 U. S. C. §§ 1321(a), 1323(b). 6 'inherent' The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma enjoys authority to try crimes against Native Americans within the Cherokee Reservation makes a mockery of all of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968. The GCA and MCA? On the Court's account, Congress foolishly extended federal criminal law to tribal lands on a mistaken assumption that only tribal law would otherwise apply. Unknown to anyone until today, state law applied all along. The treaty, the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and the provision in Oklahoma's constitution that Congress insisted upon as a condition of statehood? The Court effectively ignores them. The Kansas Act and its sibling statutes? On the Court's account, they were needless too. Congress's instruction in Public Law 280 that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members on tribal lands until they amend contrary state law and obtain tribal consent? Once more, it seems the Court thinks Congress was hopelessly misguided. Through it all, the Court makes no effort to grapple with the backdrop rule of tribal sovereignty. The Court proceeds oblivious to the rule that only a clear act of Congress may impose constraints on tribal sovereignty. The Court ignores the fact that Congress has never come close to subjecting the Cherokee to state criminal jurisdiction over crimes against tribal members within the Tribe's reservation. The Court even disregards our precedents recognizing that the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""§ 1324. The Court gestures toward the Cherokee's treaties and the Oklahoma Enabling Act, but ultimately abandons any argument that those treaties were lawfully abrogated or that the Oklahoma Enabling Act endowed Oklahoma J., dissenting GORSUCH, with inherent authority to try cases involving Native Americans within tribal bounds. See ante, at 18. Nor does the Court address the relevant text of those treaties or the Enabling Act-let alone come to terms with our precedents holding that Oklahoma's 'grant of statehood' did not include the power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. Nothing in today's decision could or does begin to preclude the Cherokee or other Tribes from pressing arguments along any of these lines in future cases. The unamended Oklahoma Constitution and other state statutes and judicial decisions may stand as independent barriers to the assumption of state jurisdiction as a matter of state law too. At least that rule (and The Court's decision is limited in still other important ways. Most significantly, the Court leaves undisturbed the ancient rule that States cannot prosecute crimes by Native Americans on tribal lands without clear congressional authorization-for that would touch the heart of 'tribal self-government.' Ante, at 17. maybe others) can never be balanced away. Indeed, the Court's ruling today rests in significant part on the fact that Tribes currently lack criminal jurisdiction over non-Indians who commit crimes on tribal lands-a factor that obviously does not apply to cases involving Native American defendants. Ante, at 19.""]",hard,answer,"The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma possesses 'inherent' authority to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal reservations implies that Congress's past legislation was unnecessary or misguided. According to the dissenting opinion, this view makes a 'mockery' of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968, including laws like the General Crimes Act (GCA) and the Major Crimes Act (MCA), which were based on the premise that state law did not apply on tribal lands without explicit congressional authorization. The dissenting opinion argues that the Court's stance ignores the historical and legal framework that has long recognized tribal sovereignty and the need for clear congressional action to extend state jurisdiction over tribal lands.",4,Tribal jurisdiction legal interpretation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Court announces that Oklahoma has <span class=\""highlight\"">&#x27;inherent&#x27; authority to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal boundaries, implying that Congress&#x27;s past legislation (MCA, GCA) was unnecessary and superfluous</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Court&#x27;s decision <span class=\""highlight\"">disregards direct Congressional authority that explicitly excluded states from jurisdiction over Indians in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Court&#x27;s approach <span class=\""highlight\"">makes &quot;a mockery&quot; of prior statutes like Public Law 280 where Congress expressly granted states criminal jurisdiction over tribal lands</span> with specific requirements.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In the past, Supreme Court consistently recognized that states lacked jurisdiction over crimes involving tribal members in Indian country without express Congressional authorization.""}]",,79
-1550,Why might vegetables and fruits help with weight loss?,"[""## What are antioxidants, and what do they have to do with cancer? The body uses certain nutrients, bioactive food components, and endogenously produced compounds for protection against damage to tissues that is constantly occurring as a result of normal oxidative metabolism. Because such damage is associated with increased cancer risk, some antioxidants are thought to protect against cancer. Antioxidants obtained from the diet include vitamin C, vitamin E, carotenoids, and many other bioactive food components. Studies suggest that people who eat more vegetables and fruits, which are rich sources of antioxidants, may have a lower risk for some types of cancer. However, this does not mean that the benefits of 4 vegetables and fruits result primarily from their antioxidant content rather than from other bioactive food components. Several clinical trials of antioxidant supplements have not demonstrated a reduction in cancer risk from these supplements; indeed, some demonstrated an increased risk of cancer among those taking supplements. To reduce cancer risk, 4 the best advice is to consume antioxidants through whole food sources rather than supplements. ## Arsenic ## What is arsenic? Does it cause cancer? The WHO, 162 the US National Toxicology Program, 163 and others have classified arsenic as carcinogenic to humans. Arsenic is a naturally occurring element that can be found in rocks and soil, water, air, plants, and animals as well as in industrial and agricultural compounds. It is through these sources that arsenic can enter our water and food supply and increase human exposure. Arsenic is found in 2 forms: inorganic and organic compounds. Inorganic arsenic compounds are used in industry and in building products (such as some 'pressuretreated' woods) and are found in arsenic-contaminated water. This tends to be the more toxic form of arsenic and has been linked to cancer. The organic arsenic compounds are thought to be much less toxic than the inorganic arsenic compounds and are not thought to be linked to cancer."", ""Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar). Laboratory studies have shown that metabolism of glucose occurs more rapidly in cancer cells than in normal cells. This fact is often misinterpreted by people who are unfamiliar with the relevant metabolic pathways, who assume (incorrectly) that sugars in foods and beverages directly 'feed' cancer cells. Nonetheless, limiting highly processed foods containing high levels of added sugars, such as cakes, candy, cookies, and sweetened cereals, as well as sugar-sweetened beverages, such as soda, sports drinks, and energy drinks, can help to reduce caloric intake, minimize weight gain, and promote a healthier body weight as well as lower insulin secretion in individuals with metabolic abnormalities, such as those with prediabetes or type 2 diabetes. ## Vegetarian/Vegan Diets ## Do vegetarian diets reduce cancer risk? Vegetarian diets can include many health-promoting features: they tend to be low in saturated fat and high in fiber, vitamins, and other bioactive food components 195 and do not include red and processed meats. Thus, it is reasonable to suggest that vegetarian diets may be beneficial for cancer risk reduction. Many studies of vegetarians indicate a lower risk of cancer overall relative to people who also eat meat. Whether vegetarian diets confer any special benefits over diets that include smaller amounts of animal products than are typically consumed in Western diets is less clear; indeed, in a large British study, people who ate fish, but not other meats, appeared to have the same overall cancer risk as vegetarians. 196"", '190 There is some evidence from epidemiologic and laboratory studies that the consumption of traditional soy foods such as tofu may decrease the risk of cancers of the breast 191 and prostate, 192 but overall, the evidence remains too limited for a firm conclusion. Many of the supportive studies are 4 based on Asian populations with a high lifelong consumption of soy foods, and their relevance to soy consumption by Western populations at low levels and for a short-to-medium duration remains uncertain. There are no data to support the use of supplements containing isolated soy phytochemicals or soy protein powders used in some food products for reducing cancer risk. In fact, a recent study found increased risk among users of soy supplements for estrogen receptornegative breast cancer (an aggressive type) and for women with a family history of breast cancer. 193 Therefore, although soy from food sources appears to be safe and may even have multiple beneficial health effects, 194 soy supplements should be used with caution, if at all. ## Sugar ## Does sugar increase cancer risk? Several types of sugars are found in foods and beverages. These sugars vary in their chemical structures but, once they are consumed, they have similar metabolic effects. All sugars in foods and beverages contribute to caloric intake, so, by promoting obesity, a high sugar intake can indirectly increase cancer risk. There is also evidence that a dietary pattern high in added sugars influences levels of insulin and related hormones in ways that may increase the risk of certain cancers. 39 Brown (unrefined) sugar contains the same chemical form of sugar (sucrose) as white (refined) sugar and also contains extremely small amounts of other substances that affect its color and flavor but do not influence the unfavorable effects of sucrose on body weight or insulin. Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar).', ""110 Many healthful compounds are found in vegetables and fruits, and it is likely that these compounds work synergistically to exert their beneficial effect. There are likely to be important, but as yet unidentified, components of whole food that are not included in dietary supplements. Some supplements are described as containing the nutritional equivalent of vegetables and fruits. However, the small amount of dried powder in such pills frequently contains only a small fraction of the levels contained in the whole foods, and there is a lack of evidence supporting a role of these products in cancer prevention. Food is the best source of vitamins, minerals, and other bioactive food components. If a dietary supplement is used for general health purposes, the best choice is a balanced multivitamin/mineral supplement containing no more than 100% of the 'daily value' of nutrients, and the ACS does not recommend the use of dietary supplements for cancer prevention, consistent with WCRF/AICR guidelines. 4 ## Alcohol Consumption Recommendation: It is best not to drink alcohol - · People who do choose to drink alcohol should limit their consumption to no more than 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men. Alcohol consumption is the third major modifiable cancer risk factor after tobacco use and excess body weight. A 2 standard drink of alcohol is defined as 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof distilled spirits, which contain approximately 14 grams of ethanol, the primary form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages."", ""## Vegetables and fruit Several food and nutrient components of healthy dietary patterns are also independently associated with cancer risk. Although the relationship between vegetables and fruit intake with lowering cancer risk is weaker than previously believed, the 2018 WCRF/AICR report concluded that consuming nonstarchy vegetables and/or whole fruit 'probably' protects against several aerodigestive cancers, including mouth, pharynx, larynx, nasopharynx, esophagus, lung, stomach and colorectal cancers. Promising research on molecularly defined 4 tumor subtypes has shown that carotenoid-rich vegetables and fruit, and biomarkers of their consumption, are associated with a lower risk of more aggressive breast tumors, including estrogen receptor-negative breast tumors. 72,73 Vegetables (including beans) and fruits are complex foods, each containing numerous vitamins, minerals, fiber, carotenoids, flavonoids, and other bioactive substances, such as sterols, indoles, and phenols, that may help prevent cancer. There is ongoing research on the potential cancer 4 chemopreventive properties of particular vegetables and fruits, or groups of these, including dark-green and orange vegetables, cruciferous vegetables (eg, cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, brussels sprouts), soy products, legumes, allium vegetables (onions and garlic), and tomato products. Vegetables and fruits may also indirectly influence cancer risk through effects on energy intake or body weight. 74 Many vegetables and fruits are low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content, which may increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake, 74 and thus should contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss. Vegetable and fruit consumption has also been associated with a reduced risk of other chronic diseases, particularly cardiovascular disease, an important contributor to overall morbidity and mortality in the United States. 60,75-79 For cancer risk reduction, the ACS advises consistency with the DGA, which recommends consuming at least 2.5 to 3 cups of vegetables and 1.5 to 2 cups of fruit each day, depending on energy requirements.""]",medium,answer,"Vegetables and fruits may help with weight loss because they are low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content. These properties can increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake, which may contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss.",5,Produce and weight management,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vegetables and fruits help with weight loss because they are <span class=\""highlight\"">low in energy density, high in fiber, and have high water content</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""These properties <span class=\""highlight\"">increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake</span>, supporting weight management.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Research indicates <span class=\""highlight\"">replacing higher-calorie foods with fruits and vegetables results in feeling full on fewer calories</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The American Cancer Society recommends a dietary pattern rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains for cancer prevention and weight management.""}]",,80
-1046,What are some examples of soft law?,"[""Without genuine improvement of animal welfare, many of the Sustainable Development Goals will not be realized (Euro Group for Animals 2018) and livestock systems, the people that rely on them, and the animals will suffer. In many countries there is a wide gap between regulation and implementation, which makes welfare improvements, specifically the phasing out of unacceptable practices, difficult to achieve. Commitment to implement changes, broad stakeholder involvement in the development of regulations, and investment to support changes in practices (e.g. through raising awareness, education, or developing skills) are ways that this gap can be narrowed. Short term vision for production poses risks to animal welfare when animals are in poor health and welfare but are still counted as 'productive'. Lame cows still produce milk, but yields eventually decline, and cull rates increase (Oltenacu and Broom, 2010); broiler flocks with high rates of digital dermatitis still can be used for meat, but the chances of Campylobacter contamination after slaughter are higher (Bull et al., 2008); working equids often continue to be used for work when chronically ill, creating significant, costly health issues to address that have long recovery periods (Pritchard et al., 2018). In these situations, proactive welfare interventions would reduce these long-term, high impact losses as well as enhance the welfare of the livestock involved, in both the short and the long term. ## Innovations in animal health and welfare ## Good animal husbandry and welfare Clean and comfortable housing, nutritious feed, free access to clean drinking water, good air quality and optimal temperature are the basis for keeping animals healthy so they can remain free of stress and resist infection. Improvements in the availability of feed and water, veterinary medicines and services and farmers' education, and investments in transport, infrastructure, markets and slaughter facilities are making it possible to ensure animal health. Better access to markets and improved consumer awareness strengthen the incentives for farmers and processors to raise healthy animals and to improve hygiene and handling so they can sell livestock, meat, milk and eggs. ## Biosecurity"", ""- &gt; Support. Where the government finances an activity that it deems desirable. This includes subsidies, funding of initiatives, purchases of products and lower tax rates. It is a carrot. - &gt; The market. Where consumers' concerns filter back through retailers and processors to producers. This is a carrot, where you get rewarded for meeting the market's needs, combined with a stick, where you lose market share if you do not. - &gt; Soft law. In the form of guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations and other authorities, corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) or professional associations. This is like a map showing you the best way to get to a destination. &gt; Information, education and research. This involves informing stakeholders in the value chain, from produces to consumers, about a topic. It may include information campaigns, training, guidelines, rating systems and networking, as well as research to generate information and new technologies. It is also a map. Some of these options are best suited to governments and other better to nongovernment actors, such as the private sector and NGOs. For example, groups of privatesector retailers (or a single larger retailer) can set quality standards that their suppliers must follow. NGOs can implement some types of activity themselves (such as organizing producers into groups), or can run information campaigns to raise awareness about an issue. Policy tools can influence the behavior of food system actors by impacting on supply and demand. Supply-side policy instruments act upon producers, processors and distributors by altering the conditions that determine prices and quantities supplied: quotas and subsidies, for example. Demand-side policy instruments affect the conditions of demand. Their role is largely under-explored within sustainable food policy. For instance, taxes on saturated fat are aimed at altering relative prices among food items; nutritional labelling aims at orienting consumers' choice. ## Control movement of animals and animal products"", ""- &gt; Food and nutrition security - &gt; Livelihoods and economic growth - &gt; Animal health and welfare - &gt; Climate and natural resource use. The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock (GASL/Global Agenda) has adopted this framework. The 2019 meeting of the Global Agenda, held in Manhattan, Kansas, in collaboration with Kansas State University, focused on the theme of 'Innovation for sustainable livestock systems'. Four papers, one on each domain, were commissioned to provide information to feed into the technical and policy debates. They were peer-reviewed before the meeting and have been further revised to reflect feedback during the meeting. The paper on the domain 'Animal health and welfare' is the basis of this publication. ## Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock is a partnership committed to the sustainable development of the livestock sector. It aims to builds consensus on the path towards sustainability and to catalyse practice change through dialogue, consultation and joint analysis. It brings together a wide range of stakeholders: the public and private sectors, producers, research and academic institutions, donors, NGOs, social movements and community organizations, and intergovernmental and multilateral organizations. www.livestockdialogue.org ## In this publication This publication focuses on the issues, opportunities and risks in animal health and welfare that stakeholders face in relation to the sustainability of livestock systems. It identifies innovations and policies that may help them take advantage of the opportunities and manage the risks, while still ensuring sustainability in other dimensions: food and nutrition security, livelihoods and economic growth, and climate and natural resource use. Section 2 presents the diversity of livestock systems and outlines three broad livestock production systems: extensive, labour-intensive, and capital intensive. Section 3 focuses on animal health and welfare and consists of 5 parts:""]",easy,answer,"Examples of soft law include guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations and other authorities, corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs), or professional associations. These are not legally binding but serve as a map showing the best way to achieve certain goals.",3,Soft law governance instruments,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Soft law includes <span class=\""highlight\"">guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations</span> and other authorities.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs), and other non-state actors often develop voluntary codes of conduct</span> that influence industry practices.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Examples include <span class=\""highlight\"">ISO standards, OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises, UN Global Compact, FAO guidance on sustainable practices</span>, and industry certification schemes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""While not legally binding, these instruments can influence behavior through market pressures, reputational concerns, and eventual incorporation into binding regulations.""}]",,81
-251,In what bizarre alternate legal universe do states lack jurisdiction in Indian country by default?,"["", at 143-144, 151. Nothing in any of this gets the Court close to where it wishes to go. If Arizona had to proceed against the traditional 'backdrop' rule excluding state jurisdiction, Oklahoma must. And if Arizona could not overcome that backdrop rule because it could not point to clear federal statutory language authorizing its comparatively minor civil tax, it is unfathomable how Oklahoma might overcome that rule here. The State has pointed-and can point-to nothing in Congress's work granting it the power to try crimes against tribal members on a tribal reservation. In Bracker, the Court found it instructive that Congress had 'comprehensive[ly]' regulated 'the harvesting of Indian timber,' even if it had not spoken directly to the question of ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, vehicle taxes. Id., at 145-146, 148. Here, Congress has not only pervasively regulated criminal jurisdiction in Indian country, it has spoken to the very situation we face: States like Oklahoma may exercise jurisdiction over crimes within tribal boundaries by or against tribal members only with tribal consent. The simple truth is Bracker supplies zero authority for this Court's course today. If Congress has not always 'been specific about the allocation of civil jurisdiction in Indian country,' the same can hardly be said about the allocation of criminal authority. Cohen 527. Congress 'has provided a nearly comprehensive set of statutes allocating criminal jurisdiction.' Ibid. In doing so, Congress has already 'balanced' competing tribal, state, and federal interestsand its balance demands tribal consent. Exactly nothing in Bracker permits us to ignore Congress's directive. B Plainly, the Court's balancing-test game is not one we should be playing in this case. But what if we did? Suppose this Court could (somehow) ignore Congress's decision to allow States like Oklahoma to exercise criminal jurisdiction in cases like ours only with tribal consent. Suppose we could (somehow) replace that rule with one of our own creation. Even proceeding on that stunning premise, it is far from obvious how the Court arrives at its preferred result."", ""Ante, at 19. See Anderson 3. Some of Additionally, nothing in the'Bracker balancing' test the Court employs foreordains today's grim result for different Tribes in different States. Bracker instructs courts to focus on the'specific context' at issue, taking cognizance of the particular circumstances of the Tribe in question, including all relevant treaties and statutes. 448 U. S., at 145. Nor are Tribes and their treaties 'fungible.' S. Prakash, Against Tribal Fungibility, 89 Cornell L. Rev. 1069, 10711072 (2004). There are nearly 600 federally recognized Indian Tribes across the country. ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, standards of preemption applicable their treaties appear to promise tribal freedom from state criminal jurisdiction in express terms. See, e.g., Treaty with the Navajo, Art. I, June 1868, 15 Stat. 667 (guaranteeing that those who commit crimes against tribal members will be 'arrested and punished according to the laws of the United States'). Any analysis true to Bracker must take cognizance of all of this. Any such analysis must recognize, too, that the 'in other areas of the law' are 'unhelpful' when it comes to Tribes. Bracker, 448 U. S., at 143. Instead, courts must proceed against the ''backdrop'' of tribal sovereignty, ibid., with an 'assumption that the States have no power to regulate the affairs of Indians on a reservation' or other tribal lands, Williams, 358 U. S., at 219-220. To overcome that backdrop assumption, a clear congressional statement is required and any ambiguities must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes. Bracker, 448 U. S., at 143-144; see also Cotton Petroleum, 490 U. S., at 177-178."", ""A The Court Begin with the most fundamental problem. invokes what it calls the'Bracker balancing' test with no more appreciation of that decision's history and context than it displays in its initial suggestion that the usual rules of preemption apply to Tribes. The Court tells us nothing about Bracker itself, its reasoning, or its limits. Perhaps understandably so, for Bracker never purported to claim for this Court the raw power to 'balance' away tribal sovereignty in favor of state criminal jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members-let alone ordain a wholly different set of jurisdictional rules than Congress J., dissenting GORSUCH, already has. 143-144. With these rules in mind, the State's tax based on a Bracker involved a relatively minor civil dispute. Arizona sought to tax vehicles used by the White Mountain Apache Tribe in logging operations on tribal lands. See Bracker, 448 U. S., at 138-140. The Tribe opposed the effort, pointing to a federal law that regulated tribal logging but did not say anything about preempting the State's vehicle tax. See id., at 141, 145. The Court began by recognizing that the usual rules of preemption are not 'properly applied' to Tribes. Id., at 143. Instead, the Court started with the traditional ''backdrop'' presumption that States lack jurisdiction in Indian country. Ibid. And the Court explained that any ambiguities about the scope of federal law must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes as sovereigns. Id., at the Court proceeded to turn back 'particularized inquiry into the nature of the state, federal, and tribal interests at stake.' Id., at 145. The Court judged that 'traditional notions of [tribal] sovereignty,' the federal government's 'policy of promoting tribal self-sufficiency,' and the rule requiring it to resolve '[a]mbiguities' in favor of the Tribe trumped any competing state interest. Id., at 143-144, 151.""]",medium,answer,"The context describes a legal framework rooted in the principle of tribal sovereignty, where states lack jurisdiction in Indian country by default unless there is a clear congressional statement authorizing such jurisdiction. This framework is based on historical treaties, federal statutes, and Supreme Court precedents like Bracker, which emphasize the 'backdrop' presumption against state jurisdiction in tribal lands. The Court in Bracker highlighted that any ambiguities in federal law must be construed generously in favor of tribal sovereignty, reinforcing the default lack of state jurisdiction unless explicitly permitted by Congress.",3,Tribal sovereignty legal doctrine,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This framework is not a &#x27;bizarre alternate legal universe&#x27; but <span class=\""highlight\"">the traditional &#x27;backdrop&#x27; rule established in Worcester v. Georgia (1832) that states lack jurisdiction in Indian country</span> absent congressional authorization.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The principle that <span class=\""highlight\"">states lack inherent authority in Indian country has been long recognized by the Court</span> through cases like Worcester, Williams v. Lee, and Bracker.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The dissent argues that the majority&#x27;s assumption of inherent state authority ignores 200 years of precedent requiring express congressional grant for state jurisdiction in tribal lands.""}]",,82
-3200,What signal should a fishing boat emit in low visibility conditions?,"['- (j) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall not be obliged to give the bell signals prescribed in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this Rule. However, if she does not, shall make some other efficient sound signal at intervals of not more than 2 minutes. - (k) A pilot vessel when engaged on pilotage duty may, in addition to the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a), (b) or (g) of this Rule, sound an identity signal consisting of four short blasts. - (l) The following vessels shall not be required to sound signals as prescribed in paragraph (g) of this Rule when anchored in a special anchorage area designated by the Coast Guard: - (i) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length; and - (ii) A barge, canal boat, scow, or other nondescript craft. ## Rule 36 ## Signals to Attract Attention ## § 83.36 If necessary to attract the attention of another vessel, any vessel may make light or sound signals that cannot be mistaken for any signal authorized elsewhere in these Rules, or may direct the beam of her searchlight in the direction of the danger, in such a way as not to embarrass any vessel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 37 Distress Signals When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV to these Regulations. ## DISTRESS SIGNALS 72 COLREGS ## Rule 37 Distress Signals ## § 83.37 When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV of these Rules (33 CFR part 87) *. A high intensity white light flashing at regular intervals from 50 to 70 times per minute. Inland only. ## -INTERNATIONALExemptions ## PART E-EXEMPTIONS ## Rule 38 ## Exemptions ‡', 'In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows: - (a) A power-driven vessel making way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, one prolonged blast. - (b) A power-driven vessel underway but stopped and making no way through the water shall sound, at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, two prolonged blasts in succession, with an interval of about 2 seconds between them. - (c) A vessel not under command; a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, whether underway or at anchor; a sailing vessel; a vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor; and a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall, instead of the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule, sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, three blasts in succession, namely, one prolonged followed by two short blasts. ## (d) [Reserved] - (e) A vessel towed or if more than one vessel is towed the last vessel of the tow, if manned, shall at intervals of not more than 2 minutes sound four blasts in succession, namely, one prolonged followed by three short blasts. When practicable, this signal shall be made immediately after the signal made by the towing vessel. - (f) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and shall give the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35-CONTINUED', '- (ii) a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) (i) Any vessel other than a vessel not under command or a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft, exhibiting the signals in Rule 28. - (ii) A vessel constrained by her draft shall navigate with particular caution having full regard to her special condition. - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Part. - (f) (i) A WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; (ii) A WIG craft operating on the water surface shall comply with the Rules of this Part as a power-driven vessel. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 18 ## Responsibilities between vessels ## § 83.18 - Except where Rules 9, 10, and 13 (§§ 83.09, 83.10, and 83.13) otherwise require: (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing; - (iv) A sailing vessel. - (b) A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; and - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall, so far as possible, keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; and - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) [Reserved]', ""## Seaplanes Where it is impracticable for a seaplane or a WIG craft to exhibit lights and shapes of the characteristics or in the positions prescribed in the Rules of this Part she shall exhibit lights and shapes as closely similar in characteristics and position as is possible. ## PART D-SOUND AND LIGHT SIGNALS ## Rule 32 ## Definitions - (a) The word whistle means any sound signaling appliance capable of producing the prescribed blasts and which complies with the specifications in Annex III to these Regulations. - (b) The term short blast means a blast of about one second's duration. - (c) The term prolonged blast means a blast of from four to six seconds' duration. ## Rule 33 ## Equipment for Sound Signals - (a) A vessel of 12 meters or more in length shall be provided with a whistle, a vessel of 20 meters or more in length shall be provided with a bell in addition to a whistle, and a vessel of 100 meters or more in length shall, in addition, be provided with a gong, the tone and sound of which cannot be confused with that of the bell. The whistle, bell and gong shall comply with the specifications in Annex III to these Regulations. The bell or gong or both may be replaced by other equipment having the same respective sound characteristics, provided that manual sounding of the prescribed signals shall always be possible. - (b) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall not be obliged to carry the sound signaling appliances prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule but if she does not, she shall be provided with some other means of making an efficient sound signal. ## Rule 31 ## Seaplanes ## § 83.31 Where it is impracticable for a seaplane or a WIG craft to exhibit lights and shapes of the characteristics or in the positions prescribed in the Rules of this subpart, she shall exhibit lights and shapes as closely similar in characteristics and position as is possible. ## SUBPART D-SOUND AND LIGHT SIGNALS ## Rule 32 ## Definitions"", '## § 83.24 - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing astern shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§§ 83.23(a)(i) and (ii)), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; - (iii) A sternlight; - (iv) A towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23. Composite unit underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23 (§ 83.23). Composite unit underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except in the case of a composite unit, shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; and - (iii) a sternlight.']",easy,answer,"In low visibility conditions, a fishing boat (whether underway or at anchor) should sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, three blasts in succession: one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts. This is specified under Rule 35(c) for vessels engaged in fishing.",5,Vessel fog signaling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes <span class=\""highlight\"">three blasts in succession, namely one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel engaged in trawling, which means dragging through the water dredge net or other apparatus used as a fishing appliance, shall <span class=\""highlight\"">sound fog signal of one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts</span> at intervals of not more than 2 minutes.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""These signals are in addition to the signals prescribed by paragraphs (a) through (f) of this Rule for vessels underway and making way through the water.""}]",,83
-2306,What's the maximum daily intake of selenium recommended by the National Academy of Sciences?,"['Dietary supplements containing folic acid must meet the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards for disintegration and dissolution, except that if there are no applicable USP standards, the folate in the dietary supplement shall be shown to be bioavailable under the conditions of use stated on the product label. | As part of a well-balanced diet that is low in saturated fat and cholesterol, Folic Acid, Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B12 may reduce the risk of vascular disease. FDA evaluated the above claim and found that, while it is known that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol reduce the risk of heart disease and other vascular diseases, the evidence in support of the above claim is inconclusive. | | Qualified Health Claims | Eligible Foods | Factors for Exercising Enforcement Discretion | Claim Statements | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Selenium & Cancer Docket No. 2002P-0457 02/21/2003 enforcement discretion letter 04/28/2003 clarification letter | Dietary supplements containing selenium | The disclaimer (i.e., Some scientific evidence suggests...) is placed immediately adjacent to and directly beneath the claim (i.e., Selenium may reduce the risk), with no intervening material, in the same size, typeface, and contrast as the claim itself. The supplement does not recommend or suggest in its labeling, or under ordinary conditions of use, a daily intake exceeding the Tolerable Upper Intake Level established by the National Academy of Sciences/ Institute of Medicine for selenium (400 micro-grams per day).', ""| NA | | Approved Claims | Food Requirements | Claim Requirement | Claim Model Statements | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------| | Saturated Fat, Cholesterol, and Trans Fat, and Reduced Risk of Heart Disease (Docket No. 2006Q-0458) | Low saturated fat Low cholesterol Bear quantitative trans fat labeling Contains less than 0.5 g trans fat per RACC Contains less than 6.5 g total fat | Required wording of the claim: 'Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol, and as low as possible in trans fat, may reduce the risk of heart disease.' | NA | | Substitution of Saturated Fat in the Diet with Unsaturated Fatty Acids and Reduced Risk of Heart Disease (Docket No. 2007Q-0192) | Low fat Low cholesterol Meets all general requirements for health claims in 21 CFR 101.14 | Required wording of the claim: 'Replacing saturated fat with similar amounts of unsaturated fats may reduce the risk of heart disease. To achieve this benefit, total daily calories should not increase.' | NA | ## 12. APPENDIX D: QUALIFIED HEALTH CLAIMS will exercise enforcement discretion for qualified health claims when the claim meets all general requirements of 101.14, for the requirements that the claim meet the significant scientific agreement standard and that the be made in accordance with an authorizing regulation. Other factors that FDA will consider in exercising enforcement are listed in the following qualified health claim table. FDA 21 CFR except claim discretion"", ""(Continued) | Conventional foods other than fish may not exceed the total fat disqualifying levels. For individual foods, the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp. The total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size for meal products and 19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products. | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Saturated fat content Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat with regard to the saturated fat content (≤ 1 g per RACC) but not with regard to the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion. | | Fish may not exceed the saturated fat disqualifying level of 4.0 g per RACC (or 4.0 g per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). | | Conventional foods other than fish must meet the criteria for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC and no more than 15 percent of calories from saturated fat for individual foods, ≤ 1 g per 100 g and less than 10 percent calories from saturated fat for meal products and main dish products). There is an error in the enforcement discretion letters in the section of 'low saturated fat,' stating that meal products and main dishes meet all criteria specified for the 'low saturated fat' criteria (21 CFR 101.62(c)(2)). The CFR number should be (21 CFR 101.62(c)(3)). | | Cholesterol content Dietary supplements that weigh 5 g or less per RACC are exempt from the cholesterol disqualifying level (60 mg per 50 g), but those that exceed the cholesterol disqualifying level must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must meet the criterion for low cholesterol (≤ 20 mg per 50g). |"", ""| | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------| | | | Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products. Sodium All conventional foods and dietary supplements must meet the sodium disqualifying level (≤ 480 mg per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp for individual foods, ≤ 960 mg per label serving size for meal products, ≤ 720 mg per label serving size for main dish products). The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement All conventional foods must meet the 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement (Vitamin A 500 IU, Vitamin C 6 mg, Iron 1.8 mg, Calcium 100 mg, Protein 5 g, Fiber 2.5 g per RACC), prior to any nutrient addition. The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement does not apply to dietary supplements (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)). | |"", 'Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colorectal cancer."" ""Selenium may reduce the risk of colon and rectal cancer. Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colon and rectal cancer."" Colon Cancer ""Selenium may reduce the risk of colon cancer. Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colon cancer."" | reduce the risk of these cancers."" | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | | | Thyroid Cancer \'One weak, small study sugggests that selenium intake may reduce the risk of thyroid cancer. Based on this study, FDA concludes that it is highly un- certain that selenium supplements reduce the risk of thyroid cancer.\' |']",easy,answer,The maximum daily intake of selenium recommended by the National Academy of Sciences is 400 micrograms per day.,5,Selenium dietary recommendations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The National Academy of Sciences has established <span class=\""highlight\"">400 micrograms per day</span> as the tolerable upper intake level for selenium.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Selenium is an essential trace mineral important for immune function and thyroid health, but excessive intake can lead to selenosis.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The recommended dietary allowance for selenium in adults is 55 micrograms per day, significantly lower than the maximum tolerable level.""}]",,84
-3260,How far should the direction-indicating light be placed from the all-round red and white lights on a fishing vessel?,"['Vessel engaged in mine clearance operations-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. (g) Vessels of less than 12 meters in length, except those engaged in diving operations, shall not be required to exhibit the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. (h) The signals prescribed in this Rule are not signals of vessels in distress and requiring assistance. Such signals are contained in Annex IV to these Regulations. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED (f) A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations shall, in addition to the lights prescribed for a power-driven vessel in Rule 23 (§ 83.23) or to the lights or shape prescribed for a vessel at anchor in Rule 30 (§ 83.30), as appropriate, exhibit three all-round green lights or three balls. One of these lights or shapes shall be exhibited near the foremast head and one at each end of the fore yard. These lights or shapes indicate that it is dangerous for another vessel to approach within 1000 meters of the mine clearance vessel. Vessel engaged in mine clearance operations. Same for International. (g) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length, except when engaged in diving operations, is not required to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in this Rule. (h) The signals prescribed in this Rule are not signals of vessels in distress and requiring assistance. Such signals are contained in Annex IV to these Rules (33 CFR part 87). ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 28 ## Vessels Constrained by Their Draft A vessel constrained by her draft may, in addition to the lights prescribed for power-driven vessels in Rule 23, exhibit where they can best be seen three allround red lights in a vertical line, or a cylinder. Vessel constrained by her draft-underway 50 meters or greater in length. Rule 28 [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 29 Pilot Vessels', '## § 84.04 Details of location of direction-indicating lights for fishing vessels, dredgers and vessels engaged in underwater operations (a) The light indicating the direction of the outlying gear from a vessel engaged in fishing as prescribed in Rule 26(c)(ii) (§ 83.26(c)(ii) of this chapter) shall be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights. This light shall be placed not higher than the all-round white light prescribed in Rule 26(c)(i) (§ 83.26(c)(i) of this chapter) and not lower than the sidelights. (b) The lights and shapes on a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations to indicate the obstructed side and/or the side on which it is safe to pass, as prescribed in Rule 27(d)(i) and (ii) (§ 83.27(d)(i) and (ii) of this chapter), shall be placed at the maximum practical horizontal distance, but in no case less than 2 meters, from the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) and (i) (§ 83.27(b)(i) and (ii) of this chapter). In no case shall the upper of these lights or shapes be at a greater height than the lower of the three lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) and (ii) (§ 83.27)(b)(i) and (ii) of this chapter). ## 5. Screens for sidelights The sidelights of vessels of 20 meters or more in length shall be fitted with inboard screens painted matt black, and meeting the requirements of Section 9 of this Annex. On vessels of less than 20 meters in length the sidelights, if necessary to meet the requirements of Section 9 of this Annex, shall be fitted with inboard matt black screens. With a combined lantern, using a single vertical filament and a very narrow division between the green and red sections, external screens need not be fitted. ## 6. Shapes', '83.24). Vessel engaged in towing operation which severely restricts towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course-length of tow does not exceed 200 meters; towing vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (d) A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations, when restricted in her ability to maneuver, shall exhibit the lights and shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this Rule and shall in addition, when an obstruction exists, exhibit: - (i) two all-round red lights or two balls in a vertical line to indicate the side on which the obstruction exists; - (ii) two all-round green lights or two diamonds in a vertical line to indicate the side on which another vessel may pass; - (iii) when at anchor, the lights or shapes prescribed in this paragraph instead of the lights or shape prescribed in Rule 30. Vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations when restricted in ability to maneuver-making way with an obstruction on the starboard side. Same for Inland. Vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations when restricted in ability to maneuver-not making way with an obstruction on the starboard side. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED', '## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II ## Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity ## 1. General The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i). The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. ## 2. Signals for trawlers - (a) Vessels of 20 meters or more in length when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, shall exhibit: - (i) when shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (ii) when hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (iii) when the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (b) Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: - (i) by night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (ii) when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in 2(a) above. - (c) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as appropriate. ## 3. Signals for purse seiners Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. § 85.01. [Reserved] ## -INLANDAnnex II 33 CFR 85 ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex III']",easy,answer,"According to the context, the direction-indicating light on a fishing vessel should be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights. Additionally, this light must be placed not higher than the all-round white light and not lower than the sidelights.",4,Fishing vessel light placement,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The direction-indicating light shall be placed <span class=\""highlight\"">at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This light shall be <span class=\""highlight\"">positioned not higher than the all-round white light prescribed in Rule 26(c)(i) and not lower than the sidelights</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The light shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 2 miles, and the visibility arc of the all-round lights must not be obscured.""}]",,85
+5. **Redelivery for Imported Products**: If the non-compliant product is imported and released under bond, ensure it conforms to applicable standards or arrange for redelivery to Customs custody to avoid liquidated damages.",3,Product non-compliance handling,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The objective of the recall is to: <span class=\""highlight\"">locate all noncomplying product as quickly as possible; remove noncomplying product from the distribution chain and from the possession of consumers</span>, if applicable; and accurately communicate information to the public in a timely manner about a noncomplying product, the hazard it presents, and the action needed to correct the problem.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Companies should <span class=\""highlight\"">design all informational materials to motivate retailers and the media to inform the public and to motivate consumers to respond affirmatively to the recall</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Unless a company can identify nearly all purchasers of a product being recalled and notify them directly, <span class=\""highlight\"">the Commission traditionally issues a news release jointly with the company</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Each recall news release must use the word 'recall' in the heading and should include: <span class=\""highlight\"">the recalling firm's legal and commonly known trade name; the manufacturer (or importer), if the firm is not the manufacturer; all significant retailers of the product; the number of product units covered by the recall; a description of the product</span>, including product name and the intended consumer population.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Under section 9 of the FFA, <span class=\""highlight\"">imported products delivered from customs custody under bond must conform to applicable flammability standards in effect on the date of entry. Absent such conformance, the Secretary of the Treasury shall demand redelivery</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Before a firm may export products that fail to comply with regulations, <span class=\""highlight\"">the firm must notify the Commission at least 30 days in advance of the exportation date and include approval from the accepting country</span>.""}]",,72
+3306,"If two trawlers are working together at night, what extra signal should they use besides their normal lights?","['## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II ## Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity ## 1. General The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i). The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. ## 2. Signals for trawlers - (a) Vessels of 20 meters or more in length when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, shall exhibit: - (i) when shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (ii) when hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (iii) when the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (b) Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: - (i) by night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (ii) when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in 2(a) above. - (c) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as appropriate. ## 3. Signals for purse seiners Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. § 85.01. [Reserved] ## -INLANDAnnex II 33 CFR 85 ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex III', ""- -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34 Maneuvering and Warning Signals ## § 83.34 - (a) When power-driven vessels are in sight of one another and meeting or crossing at a distance within half a mile of each other, each vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules: - (i) Shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; and - (3) Three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (ii) Upon hearing the one or two blast signal of the other shall, if in agreement, sound the same whistle signal and take the steps necessary to effect a safe passing. If, however, from any cause, the vessel doubts the safety of the proposed maneuver, she shall sound the signal specified in paragraph (d) of this Rule and each vessel shall take appropriate precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made. - (b) A vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals: - (i) These signals shall have the following significance: - (1) One flash to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two flashes to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; - (3) Three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) The duration of each flash shall be about 1 second; and - (iii) The light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be one all-round white or yellow light, visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, synchronized with the whistle, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84). - (c) When in sight of one another:"", 'The lights prescribed in these Rules (Subpart C) shall have an intensity as specified in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), so as to be visible at the following minimum ranges: - (a) In a vessel of 50 meters or more in length: - (i) A masthead light, 6 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 3 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 3 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 3 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 3 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (b) In a vessel of 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 5 miles; except that where the length of the vessel is less than 20 meters, 3 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 2 miles; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (c) In a vessel of less than 12 meters in length: - (i) A masthead light, 2 miles; - (ii) A sidelight, 1 mile; - (iii) A sternlight, 2 miles; - (iv) A towing light, 2 miles; - (v) A white, red, green or yellow all-round light, 2 miles; and - (vi) A special flashing light, 2 miles. - (d) In an inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object being towed: - (i) A white all-round light, 3 miles. - (ii) [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Lights and Shapes ## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway']",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, when two trawlers are working together at night (pair trawling), they should exhibit a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair. Additionally, when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, they should exhibit the same lights as single trawlers: two white lights in a vertical line when shooting nets, one white over one red light when hauling nets, or two red lights in a vertical line when the net is fast on an obstruction.",3,Pair trawling vessel signals,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: by night, <span class=\""highlight\"">a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, <span class=\""highlight\"">vessels engaged in pair trawling should exhibit the same lights as single trawlers</span>: two white lights in a vertical line when shooting nets, one white light over one red light when hauling nets, or two red lights in a vertical line when nets are fast upon an obstruction.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed for vessels of 20 meters or more in length, as appropriate.""}]",,73
+437,What are the common routes of exposure to zoonotic diseases?,"['## Employers should adopt the following best practices to reduce allergic responses of workers: - · Eliminate or minimize exposure to the proteins found in animal urine, saliva and dander. - · Limit the chances that workers will inhale or have skin contact with animal proteins by using well-designed air handling and waste management systems. - · Have workers use appropriate PPE (e.g., gloves, gowns, hair covers, respirators) to further minimize their risk of exposure. ## Zoonotic Diseases There are a host of possible infectious agents that can be transferred from animals to humans. These are referred to as zoonotic diseases. The common routes of exposure to infectious agents are inhalation, inoculation, ingestion and contamination of skin and mucous membranes. Inhalation hazards may arise during work practices that can generate aerosols. These include the following: centrifugation, mixing (e.g., blending, vortexing, and sonication), pouring/decanting and spilling/splashing of culture fluids. Inoculation hazards include needlesticks and lacerations from sharp objects. Ingestion hazards include the following: splashes to the mouth, placing contaminated articles/fingers in mouth, consumption of food in the laboratory, and mouth pipetting. Contamination of skin and mucous membranes can occur via splashes or contact with contaminated fomites (e.g., towels, bedclothes, cups, money). Some of the zoonotic diseases that can be acquired from animals are listed below. ## Zoonotic Diseases - Wild and Domesticated Animals Wild rodents and other wild animals may inflict an injury such as a bite or scratch. Workers need to receive training on the correct way to capture and handle any wild animals. While they may carry or shed organisms that may be potentially infectious', ""- · No mouth pipetting; and - · Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific procedure). Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is protective gear needed to keep workers safe while performing their jobs. Examples of PPE include respirators (for example, N95), face shields, goggles and disposable gloves. While engineering and administrative controls and proper work practices are considered to be more effective in minimizing exposure to many workplace hazards, the use of PPE is also very important in laboratory settings. It is important that PPE be: - · Selected based upon the hazard to the worker; - · Properly fitted and in some cases periodically refitted (e.g., respirators); - · Conscientiously and properly worn; - · Regularly maintained and replaced in accord with the manufacturer's specifications; - · Properly removed and disposed of to avoid contamination of self, others or the environment; and - · If reusable, properly removed, cleaned, disinfected and stored. The following sections of this document are organized based upon classes of hazards, i.e., chemical, biological, physical, safety and other hazards. The organization of these sections and/or subsections may differ somewhat. For instance, OSHA's Laboratory standard is described in greater detail than any other standard in this document. This is because this is the only standard that is specific to laboratories (i.e., non-production laboratories). In all other sections, only those specific aspects of various standards that are considered most relevant to non-production laboratories are discussed. In sections of this document where there are no specific OSHA standards that apply, guidance in the form of Fact Sheets or QuickCardsTM may be provided. ## Chemical Hazards"", '- · Keep exits free from obstruction. Access to exits must remain clear of obstructions at all times, 29 CFR 1910.37(a)(3). - · Ensure that spills are reported and cleaned up immediately. - · Eliminate cluttered or obstructed work areas. - · Use prudent housekeeping procedures such as using caution signs, cleaning only one side of a passageway at a time, and provide good lighting for all halls and stairwells to help reduce accidents, especially during the night hours. - · Instruct workers to use the handrail on stairs, to avoid undue speed, and to maintain an unobstructed view of the stairs ahead of them even if that means requesting help to manage a bulky load. Problems involving control of hazardous energy require procedural solutions. Employers must adopt such procedural solutions for controlling hazards to ensure worker safety during maintenance. However, such procedures are effective only if strictly enforced. Employers must, therefore, be committed to strict implementation of such procedures. - · Eliminate uneven floor surfaces. - · Promote safe work practices, even in cramped working spaces. - · Avoid awkward positions, and use equipment that makes lifting easier. ## References American Chemical Society, Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories. 1990. 5th Edition. Burnett L, Lunn G, Coico R. Biosafety: Guidelines for working with pathogenic and infectious microorganisms. Current Protocols in Microbiology. 2009. 13:1A.1.1.-1A.1.14. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Institutes of Health (NIH). Primary Containment for Biohazards: Selection, Installation, and Use of Biological Safety Cabinets. 2007. 3rd Edition. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Institutes of Health (NIH). Biosafety Manual. 2007. 5th Edition. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office.', ""## Hierarchy of Controls Occupational safety and health professionals use a framework called the 'hierarchy of controls' to select ways of dealing with workplace hazards. The hierarchy of controls prioritizes intervention strategies based on the premise that the best way to control a hazard is to systematically remove it from the workplace, rather than relying on workers to reduce their exposure. The types of measures that may be used to protect laboratory workers, prioritized from the most effective to least effective, are: - · engineering controls; - · administrative controls; - · work practices; and - · personal protective equipment (PPE). Most employers use a combination of control methods. Employers must evaluate their particular workplace to develop a plan for protecting their workers that may combine both immediate actions as well as longer term solutions. A description of each type of control for non-production laboratories follows. Engineering controls are those that involve making changes to the work environment to reduce work-related hazards. These types of controls are preferred over all others because they make permanent changes that reduce exposure to hazards and do not rely on worker behavior. By reducing a hazard in the workplace, engineering controls can be the most cost-effective solutions for employers to implement. ## Examples include: - · Chemical Fume Hoods; and - · Biological Safety Cabinets (BSCs). Administrative controls are those that modify workers' work schedules and tasks in ways that minimize their exposure to workplace hazards. ## Examples include: - · Developing a Chemical Hygiene Plan; and - · Developing Standard Operating Procedures for chemical handling. Work practices are procedures for safe and proper work that are used to reduce the duration, frequency or intensity of exposure to a hazard. When defining safe work practice controls, it is a good idea for the employer to ask workers for their suggestions, since they have firsthand experience with the tasks as actually performed. These controls need to be understood and followed by managers, supervisors and workers. ## Examples include: - · No mouth pipetting; and - · Chemical substitution where feasible (e.g., selecting a less hazardous chemical for a specific procedure).""]",easy,answer,"The common routes of exposure to zoonotic diseases are inhalation, inoculation, ingestion, and contamination of skin and mucous membranes. Inhalation hazards may arise during work practices that generate aerosols, such as centrifugation, mixing, pouring/decanting, and spilling/splashing of culture fluids. Inoculation hazards include needlesticks and lacerations from sharp objects. Ingestion hazards include splashes to the mouth, placing contaminated articles/fingers in the mouth, consumption of food in the laboratory, and mouth pipetting. Contamination of skin and mucous membranes can occur via splashes or contact with contaminated fomites (e.g., towels, bedclothes, cups, money).",4,Zoonotic disease transmission,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""There are a host of possible infectious agents that can be transferred from animals to humans. These are referred to as zoonotic diseases. The common routes of exposure to infectious agents are <span class=\""highlight\"">inhalation, inoculation, ingestion and contamination of skin and mucous membranes</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Inhalation hazards may arise during work practices that can generate aerosols</span>. These include the following: centrifugation, mixing (e.g., blending, vortexing, and sonication), pouring/decanting and spilling/splashing of culture fluids.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Inoculation hazards include needlesticks and lacerations from sharp objects</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Ingestion hazards include the following: splashes to the mouth, placing contaminated articles/fingers in mouth, consumption of food in the laboratory, and mouth pipetting</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Contamination of skin and mucous membranes can occur via splashes or contact with contaminated fomites</span> (e.g., towels, bedclothes, cups, money).""}]",,74
+2263,What are the mandatory terms that must be included in a health claim for a product containing sugar alcohols to indicate it does not promote dental caries?,"[""| | Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | *Plant Sterol/ stanol esters and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.83) | At least 0.65 g plant sterol esters per RACC of spreads and salad dressings, or At least 1.7 g plant stanol esters per RACC of spreads, salad dressings, snack bars, and dietary supplements. Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, and Spreads and salad dressings that exceed 13 g fat per 50 g must bear the statement'see nutrition information for fat content' Salad dressings are exempted from the minimum 10% DV nutrient requirement | Required terms: 'May' or'might' reduce the risk of CHD 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease' 'Plant sterol esters' or 'plant stanol esters'; except'vegetable oil' may replace the term 'plant' if vegetable oil is the sole source of the sterol/ stanol ester Claim specifies plant stero/stanol esters are part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol. Claim does not attribute any degree of CHD risk reduction. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters necessary to reduce CHD risk, and the amount provided per serving. Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day."", ""| | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Dietary Non- cariogenic Carbohydrate Sweeteners and Dental Caries (21 CFR 101.80) | Sugar free, and When a fermen- table carbohydrate is present, the food must not lower plaque pH below 5.7. Eligible substances 1) The following sugar alcohols: xylitol, sorbitol, mannitol, maltitol, isomalt, lactitol, hydrogenated starch hydrolysates, hydrogenated glucose syrups, erythritol, or a combination of these. 2) The following sugars: D-tagatose and isomaltulose 3) The following non-nutritive sweetener: sucralose | Required terms:'does not promote,''may reduce the risk of,' 'useful [or is useful] in not promoting' or 'expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting' dental caries; 'dental caries' or 'tooth decay.''sugar alcohol' or'sugar alcohols' or the name or names of the sugar alcohols Note: D-tagatose may be identified as 'tagatose' When the substance that is the subject of the claim is a noncariogenic sugar (i.e., D-tagatose) the claim shall identify the substance as a sugar that, unlike other sugars, does not promote the development of dental caries. Includes statement that frequent between meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay."", 'Includes statement that frequent between meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay. Packages with less than 15 square inches of surface area available for labeling may use a shortened claim | Full claim: Frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches promotes tooth decay. The sugar alcohols in [name of food] do not promote tooth decay. Shortened claim (on small packages only): Does not promote tooth decay. | | Approved Claims | Requirements the Food for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|']",hard,answer,"The mandatory terms that must be included in a health claim for a product containing sugar alcohols to indicate it does not promote dental caries are: 'does not promote,' 'may reduce the risk of,' 'useful [or is useful] in not promoting' or 'expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting' dental caries; 'dental caries' or 'tooth decay.' Additionally, the claim must specify 'sugar alcohol' or 'sugar alcohols' or the name or names of the sugar alcohols.",3,Dental caries health claims,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Dietary Non-cariogenic Carbohydrate Sweeteners and Dental Caries (21 CFR 101.80) | Required terms: <span class=\""highlight\"">'does not promote,' 'may reduce the risk of,' 'useful [or is useful] in not promoting' or 'expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting' dental caries</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Required terms: <span class=\""highlight\"">'dental caries' or 'tooth decay'</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Required terms: <span class=\""highlight\"">'sugar alcohol' or 'sugar alcohols' or the name or names of the sugar alcohols</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When the substance that is the subject of the claim is a noncariogenic sugar (i.e., D-tagatose) the claim shall identify the substance as a sugar that, unlike other sugars, does not promote the development of dental caries.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Includes statement that <span class=\""highlight\"">frequent between meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Full claim example: Frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches promotes tooth decay. The sugar alcohols in [name of food] do not promote tooth decay.""}]",,75
+5449,When did things change for the lakes?,"[""## § 88.07 Public Safety Activities - (a) Vessels engaged in government sanctioned public safety activities, and commercial vessels performing similar functions, may display an alternately flashing red and yellow light signal. This identification light signal must be located so that it does not interfere with the visibility of the vessel's navigation lights. The identification light signal may be used only as an identification signal and conveys no special privilege. Vessels using the identification light signal during public safety activities must abide by the Inland Navigation Rules, and must not presume that the light or the exigency gives them precedence or right of way. - (b) Public safety activities include but are not limited to patrolling marine parades, regattas, or special water celebrations; traffic control; salvage; firefighting; medical assistance; assisting disabled vessels; and search and rescue. ## -INTERNATIONALINTERPRETATIVE RULES 33 CFR 82 ## § 82.1 Purpose This part contains the interpretative rules concerning the 72 COLREGS that are adopted by the Coast Guard for the guidance of the public. ## § 82.3 Pushing vessel and vessel being pushed: Composite unit Rule 24(b) of the 72 COLREGS states that when a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit, they are regarded as a power-driven vessel and must exhibit the lights under Rule 23. A 'composite unit' is interpreted to be a pushing vessel that is rigidly connected by mechanical means to a vessel being pushed so they react to sea and swell as one vessel. 'Mechanical means' does not include the following: - (a) Lines. - (b) Hawsers. - (c) Wires. - (d) Chains. ## § 82.5 Lights for moored vessels"", ""## Inland Regulations The Inland Rules in this book replace the old Inland Rules, Western Rivers Rules, Great Lakes Rules, their respective pilot rules and interpretive rules, and parts of the Motorboat Act of 1940. Many of the old navigation rules were originally enacted in the 1800's. Occasionally, provisions were added to cope with the increasing complexities of water transportation. Eventually, the navigation rules for United States inland waterways became such a confusing patchwork of requirements that in the 1960's several attempts were made to revise and simplify them. These attempts were not successful. Following the signing of the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, a new effort was made to unify and update the various inland navigation rules. This effort culminated in the enactment of the Inland Navigational Rules Act of 1980. This legislation sets out Rules 1 through 38 - the main body of the Rules. The five Annexes were published as regulations. It is important to note that with the exception of Annex V to the Inland Rules, the International and Inland Rules and Annexes are very similar in both content and format. The effective date for the Inland Navigation Rules was December 24, 1981, except for the Great Lakes where the effective date was March 1, 1983. On May 17, 2010 the US Coast Guard published a Final Rule which placed the Inland Navigational Rules into the Code of Federal Regulations. This move was in accordance with the Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2004, which repealed the Inland Navigation Rules as they appeared in United States Code. This Handbook supersedes Commandant Instruction M16672.2D, Navigation Rules: International-Inland. It maintains the same format and provides additional and updated content. Not all U.S. Navigation Regulations found in Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations are contained in this handbook. ## LEGAL CITATIONS""]",easy,answer,"The effective date for the Inland Navigation Rules on the Great Lakes was March 1, 1983.",2,Great Lakes navigation rules,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The effective date for the Inland Navigation Rules was December 24, 1981, except for the Great Lakes where <span class=\""highlight\"">the effective date was March 1, 1983</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Following the signing of the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, a new effort was made to unify and update the various inland navigation rules. This effort culminated in the enactment of the Inland Navigational Rules Act of 1980.""}]",,76
+3835,Where can I find a complete listing of alternative fuel station locations?,"[""Be advised that DOE will not reconsider waiver approval without a detailed description of the request if a waiver approval appears unlikely during prescreening. - c. Petroleum Use and Reduction Policy: DOT established both its total petroleum consumption, and alternative fuel use baselines in the Department's Federal Fleet Report in FAST for fiscal year (FY) 2005. If these baselines are determined to be inaccurate, the DOT Fleet Manager may work with DOE to correct the original data. - i. EISA requires DOT to reduce the use of petroleum by at least twenty percent from the FY 2005 baseline by October 1, 2015. Additionally, for a covered fleet, E.O. 13423 requires an annual petroleum reduction of at least two percent from a FY 2005 baseline through the end of FY 2015. Lastly, E.O. 13514 further extends the requirements of E.O. 13423 through the end of FY 2020, thus requiring at least a 30 percent reduction from FY 2005 to FY 2020. - ii. OA Fleet Managers should evaluate petroleum reduction strategies and tactics for each fleet location, based on an assessment of site-specific characteristics, including availability of alternative fuel, fleet size, and fleet composition (vehicle type and size). - iii. If OAs are not already on track to meet or exceed petroleum reduction goals, they must reduce petroleum use through various means, including but not limited to the following practices: - a) Develop and implement a communications plan to ensure that strategies for improving fleet fuel efficiencies are disseminated and that all drivers are aware of fuel efficiencies gained by driving more efficiently. The communications plan should include the strategies listed in GSA Bulletin FMR B-19, Motor Vehicle Management. - b) Ensure that the Fleet Managers maintain their vehicles as required. - c) Acquire hybrid electric vehicles (HEVs), including PHEVs, for fleets when they are commercially available at a life-cycle cost that is reasonably comparable to non-"", ""- f. Administrators of OAs that operate covered vehicle fleets are responsible for ensuring compliance with the requirements in this section. - g. Alternative Fuels: E.O. 13423 requires DOT to reduce the fleet's total petroleum consumption by two percent annually through the end of fiscal year 2015 and increase the total fuel consumption of nonpetroleum-based fuel by 10 percent annually. Per the DOT Fleet Sustainability Policy, DOT must annually increase the total alternative fuel consumption by 10 percent (compounded annually) starting from a FY 2005 baseline through the end of FY 2015. Additionally, DOT must ensure that at least five percent of total fuel consumed in fleet vehicles is alternative fuels. EPAct 2005, Section 701 requires DOT to use alternative fuels in all dualfuel fleet vehicles if such fuel is available within 5 miles or 15 minutes of the vehicle's garaged location, unless a vehicle receives a Section 701 waiver from DOE. DOT must reduce the number of EPAct 2005, Section 701 waivers requested annually. To be considered in compliance with this requirement, DOT must achieve the following annual waiver reductions specified below: a) in each year where less than 50 percent of AFVs are waived, the OA must reduce the number of waivers requested two percent from the previous year. b) in each year where more than 50 percent of AFVs are waived, the OA must reduce the number of waivers requested 10 percent from the previous year. Finally, pursuant to EISA 2007, Section 246, DOT must install alternative fuel infrastructure, including but not limited to electric vehicle charging stations in fleet refueling centers, where cost-effective, to the maximum extent possible. Alternative fuels for vehicles include, but are not limited to: - i. Blends of 85 percent or more of denatured ethanol, and other alcohols, with gasoline or other fuels (including E85); - ii. Natural gas and liquid fuels domestically produced from natural gas;"", ""transactions, point-of-sale transactions and all transactions resulting from redistribution from tanks/tankers to vehicles. The organization must maintain a detailed record of all transactions that must be available for review/audit upon request. - a. Operators shall use unleaded fuel in vehicles with the minimum grade (octane rating) recommended by the vehicle manufacturer when fueling DOT-owned or leased motor vehicles. Use of premium grade fuel is prohibited unless specifically required by the vehicle manufacturer. - b. Alternative Fuel Policy: DOT policy is that all alternative fuel vehicles must be fueled with alternative fuels E-85 (85 percent ethanol/15 percent gasoline), Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), etc. where fuel is available within 5 miles or 15 minutes of the garage location. EPAct 2005 Section 701 waivers may be granted on a case-by-case basis when alternative fuel is not available or the cost of the alternative fuel is unreasonably more expensive compared with gasoline. The OA Fleet Manager must submit all waivers to the DOT Fleet Manager who will enter them into the Federal Automotive Statistical Tool (FAST) no later than midnight, 30 June of each year, and must be certified by the Assistant Secretary for Administration. For a complete listing of alternative fuel station locations go to: http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/. - i. OA Fleet Managers can now prescreen waiver applications by entering vehicle location data into the FAST. The FAST compares this information against the National Renewable Energy Laboratory's (NREL's) fuel station locator to determine the likelihood of waiver approval for that location. Be advised that DOE will not reconsider waiver approval without a detailed description of the request if a waiver approval appears unlikely during prescreening."", ""| Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - 701 Waiver Requests | Waiver from the EISA Section 701 requirement to use alternative fuel in all DOT dual-fuel vehicles i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. | Vehicle type Fuel type Average miles per gallon Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles Waiver reason Expected miles driven Expected alternative fuel use (percent) OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | |----------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA Section 246 Annual Report | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 246 | Federal fleet fueling centers, fuel consumption, renewable fuel pump data; evaluation of compliance with requirement to install renewable fuel pumps OA Fleet Manger provides fuel station information | Annually, but no later than June 30 | | FAST OMB A-11 and VAM Update | Report fleet budget data for all vehicles, owned or leased | Budget estimates of current fiscal year, as well as future fleet operating costs OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle information | Annually, OMB A-11 no later than August, VAM update no later than March 31st | | EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required |""]",easy,answer,A complete listing of alternative fuel station locations can be found at: http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/.,4,Alternative fuel resources,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For a complete listing of alternative fuel station locations go to: <span class=\""highlight\"">http://www.afdc.energy.gov/locator/stations/</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""DOT policy is that all alternative fuel vehicles must be fueled with alternative fuels E-85 (85 percent ethanol/15 percent gasoline), Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), etc. where fuel is available within 5 miles or 15 minutes of the garage location.""}]",,77
+4283,Which level is appropriate for work involving respiratory transmission risks?,"['Laboratory workers and supervisors are strongly urged to review this publication directly before engaging in any experimentation. ## Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) BSL-1 is appropriate for working with microorganisms that are not known to cause disease in healthy humans. BSL-l practices, safety equipment, and facility design and construction are appropriate for undergraduate and secondary educational training and teaching laboratories, and for other laboratories in which work is done with defined and characterized strains of viable microorganisms not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adult humans. Bacillus subtilis, Naegleria gruberi, infectious canine hepatitis virus, and exempt organisms under the NIH Recombinant DNA Guidelines (http://www4.od.nih.gov/oba/rac/ guidelines/guidelines.html) are representative of microorganisms meeting these criteria. Many agents not ordinarily associated with disease processes in humans are, however, opportunistic pathogens and may cause infection in the young, the aged, and immunodeficient or immunosuppressed individuals. Vaccine strains that have undergone multiple in vivo passages should not be considered avirulent simply because they are vaccine strains. BSL-1 represents a basic level of containment that relies on standard microbiological practices with no special primary or secondary barriers recommended, other than a sink for hand washing. ## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2)', '## Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) The facility, containment devices, administrative controls, and practices and procedures that constitute BSL-2 are designed to maximize safe working conditions for laboratory personnel working with agents of moderate risk to personnel and the environment. BSL-2 practices, equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories in which work is done with the broad spectrum of indigenous moderate-risk agents that are present in the community and associated with human disease of varying severity. With good microbiological techniques, these agents can be used safely in activities conducted on the open bench, provided the potential for producing splashes or aerosols is low. Hepatitis B virus, H1V, the salmonellae, and Toxoplasma spp. are representative of microorganisms assigned to this containment level. Biosafety Level 2 is also appropriate when work is done with any human-derived blood, body fluids, tissues, or primary human cell lines where the presence of an infectious agent may be unknown. Laboratory personnel in the United States working with human-derived materials should refer to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (OSHA 1991), available online at www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_ document?p\\_table=STANDARDS7p\\_id=1005, for required precautions. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to accidental percutaneous or mucous membrane exposures, or ingestion of infectious materials. Extreme caution should be taken with contaminated needles or sharp instruments. Even though organisms routinely manipulated at Biosafety Level 2 are not known to be transmissible by the aerosol route, procedures with aerosol or high splash potential that may increase the risk of such personnel exposure must be conducted in primary containment equipment, or in devices such as a biological safety cabinet (BSC) or safety centrifuge cups. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves.', 'Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used as appropriate, such as splash shields, face protection, gowns, and gloves. Secondary barriers such as hand washing sinks and waste decontamination facilities must be available to reduce potential environmental contamination. ## Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) BSL-3 is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route. This may apply to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, research, or production facilities in which work is done with indigenous or exotic agents with potential for respiratory transmission, and which may cause serious and potentially lethal infection. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Coxiella burnetti are representative of the microorganisms assigned to this level. Primary hazards to personnel working with these agents relate to autoinoculation, ingestion, and exposure to infectious aerosols. At BSL-3, more emphasis is placed on primary and secondary barriers to protect personnel in contig- uous areas, the community, and the environment from exposure to potentially infectious aerosols. For example, all laboratory manipulations should be performed in a BSC or other enclosed equipment, such as a gas-tight aerosol generation chamber. Secondary barriers for this level include controlled access to the laboratory and ventilation requirements that minimize the release of infectious aerosols from the laboratory. ## Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) BSL-4 practices, safety equipment, and facility design and construction are applicable for work with dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of life-threatening disease, which may be transmitted via the aerosol route, and for which there is no available vaccine or therapy. Agents with a close or identical antigenic relationship to Biosafety Level 4 agents also should be handled at this level. When sufficient data are obtained, work with these agents may continue at this or at a lower level. Viruses such as Marburg or Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever are manipulated at Biosafety Level 4.', '| Class I or II biosafety cabinets (BSCs) or other containment devices used for all agents that cause splashes or aerosols of infec- tious materials Laboratory coats and gloves Face protection as needed | Open bench top sink Autoclave | | BSL-3 | Indigenous or exotic agents with potential for aerosol transmis- sion; disease may have serious or lethal consequences | All BSL-2 practices Controlled access Decontamination of all waste Decontamination of laboratory clothing before laundering Baseline serum | Class I or II BSCs or other physical containment devices used for all open manipulations of agents Protective lab clothing and gloves Respiratory protection as needed | Open bench top sink Autoclave Physical separation from access corridors Self-closing, double- door access Exhaust air not recirculated Negative airflow in laboratory | | BSL-4 | Dangerous/exotic agents which pose high risk of life-threat- ening disease; aero- sol-transmitted lab infections; or related agents with unknown risk of transmission | All BSL-3 practices Clothing change be- fore entering Shower on exit All material decontaminated on exit from facility | All procedures conducted in Class III BSCs, or Class I or II BSCs in combination with full-body, air-supplied, positive pressure personnel suit. | BSL-3 plus: Separate building or isolated zone Dedicated supply and exhaust, vac- uum, and decon- tamination systems Other requirements outlined in the text | NOTE: The following information has been adapted from Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories, 5th Ed. (BMBL, 5th Ed.), which is published jointly by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the National Institutes of Health (NIH), and is available online at www.cdc. gov/od/ohs/biosfty/bmbl5/bmbl5toc.htm. Laboratory workers and supervisors are strongly urged to review this publication directly before engaging in any experimentation.']",easy,answer,"Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) is appropriate for work involving respiratory transmission risks. BSL-3 is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route. This includes clinical, diagnostic, teaching, research, or production facilities where work is done with indigenous or exotic agents with potential for respiratory transmission. Examples of such agents include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Coxiella burnetti. At BSL-3, emphasis is placed on primary and secondary barriers to protect personnel from exposure to potentially infectious aerosols, including the use of biosafety cabinets and controlled access to the laboratory.",4,Biosafety levels for laboratory work,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">BSL-3 is suitable for work with infectious agents which may cause serious or potentially lethal diseases as a result of exposure by the inhalation route</span>. This may apply to clinical, diagnostic, teaching, research, or production facilities in which work is done with indigenous or exotic agents with potential for respiratory transmission.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Coxiella burnetti are representative of the microorganisms assigned to this level</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""At BSL-3, <span class=\""highlight\"">more emphasis is placed on primary and secondary barriers to protect personnel in contiguous areas, the community, and the environment from exposure to potentially infectious aerosols</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For example, <span class=\""highlight\"">all laboratory manipulations should be performed in a BSC or other enclosed equipment</span>, such as a gas-tight aerosol generation chamber. Secondary barriers for this level include controlled access to the laboratory and ventilation requirements that minimize the release of infectious aerosols from the laboratory.""}]",,78
+221,What does the Court's suggestion about Oklahoma's authority imply about Congress's past legislation?,"[""A Today the Court rules for Oklahoma. In doing so, the Court announces that, when it comes to crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal reservations, Oklahoma may 'exercise jurisdiction.' Ante, at 4. But this declaration comes as if by oracle, without any sense of the history recounted above and unattached to any colorable legal authority. Truly, a more ahistorical and mistaken statement of Indian law would be hard to fathom. premise that The source of the Court's error is foundational. Through most of its opinion, the Court proceeds on the Oklahoma possesses 'inherent' sovereign power to prosecute crimes on tribal reservations until and unless Congress 'preempt[s]' that authority. Ante, at 5-18. The Court emphasizes that States normally wield broad police powers within their borders absent some preemptive federal law. See ante, at 4-6; see also Virginia Uranium, Inc. v. Warren, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (lead opinion) (slip op., at 12). But the effort to wedge Tribes into that paradigm is a category error. Tribes are not private organizations within ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, other authorstate boundaries. Their reservations are not glorified private campgrounds. Tribes are sovereigns. And the preemption rule applicable to them is exactly the opposite of the normal rule. Tribal sovereignty means that the criminal laws of the States 'can have no force' on tribal members within tribal bounds unless and until Congress clearly ordains otherwise. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 561. After all, the power to punish crimes by or against one's own citizens within one's own territory to the exclusion of ities is and has always been among the most essential attributes of sovereignty. See, e.g., Wilson v. Girard, 354 U. S. 524, 529 (1957) ( per curiam ) ('A sovereign nation has exclusive jurisdiction to punish offenses against its laws committed within its borders'); see also Schooner Exchange v."", ""408, 416-418 (2003) (Breyer). In refusing to sanction Georgia's power grab, this Court explained that the State's 'assertion of jurisdiction over the Cherokee nation' was 'void,' because under our Constitution only the federal government possessed the power to manage relations with the Tribe. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 542, 561-562. B Two years later, and exercising its authority to regulate tribal affairs in the shadow of Worcester, Congress adopted the General Crimes Act of 1834 (GCA). That law extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands for certain crimes and, in doing so, served two apparent purposes. First, as a 'courtesy' to the Tribes, the law represented a promise by the federal government 'to punish crimes... committed... by and against our own [non-Indian] citizens.' H. Rep. No. 474, 23d Cong., 1st Sess., 13 (1834) (H. Rep. No. 474). That jurisdictional arrangement was also ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, against non-Indians. See consistent with, and even seemingly compelled by, the federal government's treaties with various Tribes. See F. Cohen, Handbook of Federal Indian Law 731 (N. Newton et al. eds. 2005) (Cohen); R. Clinton, Development of Criminal Jurisdiction Over Indian Lands: The Historical Perspective, 17 Ariz. L. Rev. 951, 958-962 (1975) (Clinton). Second, because Worcester held that States lacked criminal jurisdiction on tribal lands, Congress sought to ensure a federal forum for crimes committed by and H. Rep. No. 474, at 13. Otherwise, Congress understood, non-Indian settlers would be subject to tribal jurisdiction alone. See id., at 13, 18; R. Barsh &amp; J. Henderson, The Betrayal, Oliphant v. Suquamish Indian Tribe and the Hunting of the Snark, 63 Minn. L. Rev. 609, 625-626 (1979)."", ""Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek and obtain tribal consent to any extension of state jurisdiction. See Part I-B, supra ; Clinton 958-962. Unless a State takes these steps, it does ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 'not hav[e] jurisdiction.' 25 U. S. C. §§ 1321(a), 1323(b). 6 'inherent' The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma enjoys authority to try crimes against Native Americans within the Cherokee Reservation makes a mockery of all of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968. The GCA and MCA? On the Court's account, Congress foolishly extended federal criminal law to tribal lands on a mistaken assumption that only tribal law would otherwise apply. Unknown to anyone until today, state law applied all along. The treaty, the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and the provision in Oklahoma's constitution that Congress insisted upon as a condition of statehood? The Court effectively ignores them. The Kansas Act and its sibling statutes? On the Court's account, they were needless too. Congress's instruction in Public Law 280 that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members on tribal lands until they amend contrary state law and obtain tribal consent? Once more, it seems the Court thinks Congress was hopelessly misguided. Through it all, the Court makes no effort to grapple with the backdrop rule of tribal sovereignty. The Court proceeds oblivious to the rule that only a clear act of Congress may impose constraints on tribal sovereignty. The Court ignores the fact that Congress has never come close to subjecting the Cherokee to state criminal jurisdiction over crimes against tribal members within the Tribe's reservation. The Court even disregards our precedents recognizing that the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""§ 1324. The Court gestures toward the Cherokee's treaties and the Oklahoma Enabling Act, but ultimately abandons any argument that those treaties were lawfully abrogated or that the Oklahoma Enabling Act endowed Oklahoma J., dissenting GORSUCH, with inherent authority to try cases involving Native Americans within tribal bounds. See ante, at 18. Nor does the Court address the relevant text of those treaties or the Enabling Act-let alone come to terms with our precedents holding that Oklahoma's 'grant of statehood' did not include the power to try 'crimes committed by or against Indians' on tribal lands. Ramsey, 271 U. S., at 469; see also Tiger, 221 U. S., at 309. Nothing in today's decision could or does begin to preclude the Cherokee or other Tribes from pressing arguments along any of these lines in future cases. The unamended Oklahoma Constitution and other state statutes and judicial decisions may stand as independent barriers to the assumption of state jurisdiction as a matter of state law too. At least that rule (and The Court's decision is limited in still other important ways. Most significantly, the Court leaves undisturbed the ancient rule that States cannot prosecute crimes by Native Americans on tribal lands without clear congressional authorization-for that would touch the heart of 'tribal self-government.' Ante, at 17. maybe others) can never be balanced away. Indeed, the Court's ruling today rests in significant part on the fact that Tribes currently lack criminal jurisdiction over non-Indians who commit crimes on tribal lands-a factor that obviously does not apply to cases involving Native American defendants. Ante, at 19.""]",hard,answer,"The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma possesses 'inherent' authority to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal reservations implies that Congress's past legislation was unnecessary or misguided. According to the dissenting opinion, this view makes a 'mockery' of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968, including laws like the General Crimes Act (GCA) and the Major Crimes Act (MCA), which were based on the premise that state law did not apply on tribal lands without explicit congressional authorization. The dissenting opinion argues that the Court's stance ignores the historical and legal framework that has long recognized tribal sovereignty and the need for clear congressional action to extend state jurisdiction over tribal lands.",4,Tribal jurisdiction legal interpretation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court announces that Oklahoma possesses '<span class=\""highlight\"">inherent</span>' authority to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against tribal members within tribal reservations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma enjoys '<span class=\""highlight\"">inherent</span>' authority to try crimes against Native Americans within the Cherokee Reservation <span class=\""highlight\"">makes a mockery of all of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The GCA and MCA? On the Court's account, Congress foolishly extended federal criminal law to tribal lands on a mistaken assumption that only tribal law would otherwise apply. Unknown to anyone until today, state law applied all along</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The Court ignores the fact that Congress has never come close to subjecting the Cherokee to state criminal jurisdiction over crimes against tribal members within the Tribe's reservation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Through most of its opinion, the Court proceeds on the premise that Oklahoma possesses 'inherent' sovereign power to prosecute crimes on tribal reservations until and unless Congress 'preempt[s]' that authority.""}]",,79
+1550,Why might vegetables and fruits help with weight loss?,"[""## What are antioxidants, and what do they have to do with cancer? The body uses certain nutrients, bioactive food components, and endogenously produced compounds for protection against damage to tissues that is constantly occurring as a result of normal oxidative metabolism. Because such damage is associated with increased cancer risk, some antioxidants are thought to protect against cancer. Antioxidants obtained from the diet include vitamin C, vitamin E, carotenoids, and many other bioactive food components. Studies suggest that people who eat more vegetables and fruits, which are rich sources of antioxidants, may have a lower risk for some types of cancer. However, this does not mean that the benefits of 4 vegetables and fruits result primarily from their antioxidant content rather than from other bioactive food components. Several clinical trials of antioxidant supplements have not demonstrated a reduction in cancer risk from these supplements; indeed, some demonstrated an increased risk of cancer among those taking supplements. To reduce cancer risk, 4 the best advice is to consume antioxidants through whole food sources rather than supplements. ## Arsenic ## What is arsenic? Does it cause cancer? The WHO, 162 the US National Toxicology Program, 163 and others have classified arsenic as carcinogenic to humans. Arsenic is a naturally occurring element that can be found in rocks and soil, water, air, plants, and animals as well as in industrial and agricultural compounds. It is through these sources that arsenic can enter our water and food supply and increase human exposure. Arsenic is found in 2 forms: inorganic and organic compounds. Inorganic arsenic compounds are used in industry and in building products (such as some 'pressuretreated' woods) and are found in arsenic-contaminated water. This tends to be the more toxic form of arsenic and has been linked to cancer. The organic arsenic compounds are thought to be much less toxic than the inorganic arsenic compounds and are not thought to be linked to cancer."", ""Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar). Laboratory studies have shown that metabolism of glucose occurs more rapidly in cancer cells than in normal cells. This fact is often misinterpreted by people who are unfamiliar with the relevant metabolic pathways, who assume (incorrectly) that sugars in foods and beverages directly 'feed' cancer cells. Nonetheless, limiting highly processed foods containing high levels of added sugars, such as cakes, candy, cookies, and sweetened cereals, as well as sugar-sweetened beverages, such as soda, sports drinks, and energy drinks, can help to reduce caloric intake, minimize weight gain, and promote a healthier body weight as well as lower insulin secretion in individuals with metabolic abnormalities, such as those with prediabetes or type 2 diabetes. ## Vegetarian/Vegan Diets ## Do vegetarian diets reduce cancer risk? Vegetarian diets can include many health-promoting features: they tend to be low in saturated fat and high in fiber, vitamins, and other bioactive food components 195 and do not include red and processed meats. Thus, it is reasonable to suggest that vegetarian diets may be beneficial for cancer risk reduction. Many studies of vegetarians indicate a lower risk of cancer overall relative to people who also eat meat. Whether vegetarian diets confer any special benefits over diets that include smaller amounts of animal products than are typically consumed in Western diets is less clear; indeed, in a large British study, people who ate fish, but not other meats, appeared to have the same overall cancer risk as vegetarians. 196"", '190 There is some evidence from epidemiologic and laboratory studies that the consumption of traditional soy foods such as tofu may decrease the risk of cancers of the breast 191 and prostate, 192 but overall, the evidence remains too limited for a firm conclusion. Many of the supportive studies are 4 based on Asian populations with a high lifelong consumption of soy foods, and their relevance to soy consumption by Western populations at low levels and for a short-to-medium duration remains uncertain. There are no data to support the use of supplements containing isolated soy phytochemicals or soy protein powders used in some food products for reducing cancer risk. In fact, a recent study found increased risk among users of soy supplements for estrogen receptornegative breast cancer (an aggressive type) and for women with a family history of breast cancer. 193 Therefore, although soy from food sources appears to be safe and may even have multiple beneficial health effects, 194 soy supplements should be used with caution, if at all. ## Sugar ## Does sugar increase cancer risk? Several types of sugars are found in foods and beverages. These sugars vary in their chemical structures but, once they are consumed, they have similar metabolic effects. All sugars in foods and beverages contribute to caloric intake, so, by promoting obesity, a high sugar intake can indirectly increase cancer risk. There is also evidence that a dietary pattern high in added sugars influences levels of insulin and related hormones in ways that may increase the risk of certain cancers. 39 Brown (unrefined) sugar contains the same chemical form of sugar (sucrose) as white (refined) sugar and also contains extremely small amounts of other substances that affect its color and flavor but do not influence the unfavorable effects of sucrose on body weight or insulin. Fructose, the natural sugar in fruit and in many sugar-sweetened beverages in the form of high fructose corn syrup, is similar to sucrose with regard to its effects on weight and insulin, as is honey, which contains a mixture of fructose and glucose (another form of sugar).', ""110 Many healthful compounds are found in vegetables and fruits, and it is likely that these compounds work synergistically to exert their beneficial effect. There are likely to be important, but as yet unidentified, components of whole food that are not included in dietary supplements. Some supplements are described as containing the nutritional equivalent of vegetables and fruits. However, the small amount of dried powder in such pills frequently contains only a small fraction of the levels contained in the whole foods, and there is a lack of evidence supporting a role of these products in cancer prevention. Food is the best source of vitamins, minerals, and other bioactive food components. If a dietary supplement is used for general health purposes, the best choice is a balanced multivitamin/mineral supplement containing no more than 100% of the 'daily value' of nutrients, and the ACS does not recommend the use of dietary supplements for cancer prevention, consistent with WCRF/AICR guidelines. 4 ## Alcohol Consumption Recommendation: It is best not to drink alcohol - · People who do choose to drink alcohol should limit their consumption to no more than 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men. Alcohol consumption is the third major modifiable cancer risk factor after tobacco use and excess body weight. A 2 standard drink of alcohol is defined as 12 ounces of beer, 5 ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof distilled spirits, which contain approximately 14 grams of ethanol, the primary form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages."", ""## Vegetables and fruit Several food and nutrient components of healthy dietary patterns are also independently associated with cancer risk. Although the relationship between vegetables and fruit intake with lowering cancer risk is weaker than previously believed, the 2018 WCRF/AICR report concluded that consuming nonstarchy vegetables and/or whole fruit 'probably' protects against several aerodigestive cancers, including mouth, pharynx, larynx, nasopharynx, esophagus, lung, stomach and colorectal cancers. Promising research on molecularly defined 4 tumor subtypes has shown that carotenoid-rich vegetables and fruit, and biomarkers of their consumption, are associated with a lower risk of more aggressive breast tumors, including estrogen receptor-negative breast tumors. 72,73 Vegetables (including beans) and fruits are complex foods, each containing numerous vitamins, minerals, fiber, carotenoids, flavonoids, and other bioactive substances, such as sterols, indoles, and phenols, that may help prevent cancer. There is ongoing research on the potential cancer 4 chemopreventive properties of particular vegetables and fruits, or groups of these, including dark-green and orange vegetables, cruciferous vegetables (eg, cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, brussels sprouts), soy products, legumes, allium vegetables (onions and garlic), and tomato products. Vegetables and fruits may also indirectly influence cancer risk through effects on energy intake or body weight. 74 Many vegetables and fruits are low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content, which may increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake, 74 and thus should contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss. Vegetable and fruit consumption has also been associated with a reduced risk of other chronic diseases, particularly cardiovascular disease, an important contributor to overall morbidity and mortality in the United States. 60,75-79 For cancer risk reduction, the ACS advises consistency with the DGA, which recommends consuming at least 2.5 to 3 cups of vegetables and 1.5 to 2 cups of fruit each day, depending on energy requirements.""]",medium,answer,"Vegetables and fruits may help with weight loss because they are low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content. These properties can increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake, which may contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss.",5,Produce and weight management,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vegetables and fruits may help with weight loss because they are <span class=\""highlight\"">low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""These properties <span class=\""highlight\"">may increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake</span>, which may contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Many vegetables and fruits are low in energy, high in fiber, and have a high water content, which may increase satiety and decrease overall energy intake, and thus should contribute to weight loss and maintenance of that loss.""}]",,80
+1046,What are some examples of soft law?,"[""Without genuine improvement of animal welfare, many of the Sustainable Development Goals will not be realized (Euro Group for Animals 2018) and livestock systems, the people that rely on them, and the animals will suffer. In many countries there is a wide gap between regulation and implementation, which makes welfare improvements, specifically the phasing out of unacceptable practices, difficult to achieve. Commitment to implement changes, broad stakeholder involvement in the development of regulations, and investment to support changes in practices (e.g. through raising awareness, education, or developing skills) are ways that this gap can be narrowed. Short term vision for production poses risks to animal welfare when animals are in poor health and welfare but are still counted as 'productive'. Lame cows still produce milk, but yields eventually decline, and cull rates increase (Oltenacu and Broom, 2010); broiler flocks with high rates of digital dermatitis still can be used for meat, but the chances of Campylobacter contamination after slaughter are higher (Bull et al., 2008); working equids often continue to be used for work when chronically ill, creating significant, costly health issues to address that have long recovery periods (Pritchard et al., 2018). In these situations, proactive welfare interventions would reduce these long-term, high impact losses as well as enhance the welfare of the livestock involved, in both the short and the long term. ## Innovations in animal health and welfare ## Good animal husbandry and welfare Clean and comfortable housing, nutritious feed, free access to clean drinking water, good air quality and optimal temperature are the basis for keeping animals healthy so they can remain free of stress and resist infection. Improvements in the availability of feed and water, veterinary medicines and services and farmers' education, and investments in transport, infrastructure, markets and slaughter facilities are making it possible to ensure animal health. Better access to markets and improved consumer awareness strengthen the incentives for farmers and processors to raise healthy animals and to improve hygiene and handling so they can sell livestock, meat, milk and eggs. ## Biosecurity"", ""- &gt; Support. Where the government finances an activity that it deems desirable. This includes subsidies, funding of initiatives, purchases of products and lower tax rates. It is a carrot. - &gt; The market. Where consumers' concerns filter back through retailers and processors to producers. This is a carrot, where you get rewarded for meeting the market's needs, combined with a stick, where you lose market share if you do not. - &gt; Soft law. In the form of guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations and other authorities, corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) or professional associations. This is like a map showing you the best way to get to a destination. &gt; Information, education and research. This involves informing stakeholders in the value chain, from produces to consumers, about a topic. It may include information campaigns, training, guidelines, rating systems and networking, as well as research to generate information and new technologies. It is also a map. Some of these options are best suited to governments and other better to nongovernment actors, such as the private sector and NGOs. For example, groups of privatesector retailers (or a single larger retailer) can set quality standards that their suppliers must follow. NGOs can implement some types of activity themselves (such as organizing producers into groups), or can run information campaigns to raise awareness about an issue. Policy tools can influence the behavior of food system actors by impacting on supply and demand. Supply-side policy instruments act upon producers, processors and distributors by altering the conditions that determine prices and quantities supplied: quotas and subsidies, for example. Demand-side policy instruments affect the conditions of demand. Their role is largely under-explored within sustainable food policy. For instance, taxes on saturated fat are aimed at altering relative prices among food items; nutritional labelling aims at orienting consumers' choice. ## Control movement of animals and animal products"", ""- &gt; Food and nutrition security - &gt; Livelihoods and economic growth - &gt; Animal health and welfare - &gt; Climate and natural resource use. The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock (GASL/Global Agenda) has adopted this framework. The 2019 meeting of the Global Agenda, held in Manhattan, Kansas, in collaboration with Kansas State University, focused on the theme of 'Innovation for sustainable livestock systems'. Four papers, one on each domain, were commissioned to provide information to feed into the technical and policy debates. They were peer-reviewed before the meeting and have been further revised to reflect feedback during the meeting. The paper on the domain 'Animal health and welfare' is the basis of this publication. ## Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock The Global Agenda for Sustainable Livestock is a partnership committed to the sustainable development of the livestock sector. It aims to builds consensus on the path towards sustainability and to catalyse practice change through dialogue, consultation and joint analysis. It brings together a wide range of stakeholders: the public and private sectors, producers, research and academic institutions, donors, NGOs, social movements and community organizations, and intergovernmental and multilateral organizations. www.livestockdialogue.org ## In this publication This publication focuses on the issues, opportunities and risks in animal health and welfare that stakeholders face in relation to the sustainability of livestock systems. It identifies innovations and policies that may help them take advantage of the opportunities and manage the risks, while still ensuring sustainability in other dimensions: food and nutrition security, livelihoods and economic growth, and climate and natural resource use. Section 2 presents the diversity of livestock systems and outlines three broad livestock production systems: extensive, labour-intensive, and capital intensive. Section 3 focuses on animal health and welfare and consists of 5 parts:""]",easy,answer,"Examples of soft law include guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations and other authorities, corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs), or professional associations. These are not legally binding but serve as a map showing the best way to achieve certain goals.",3,Soft law governance instruments,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Soft law. In the form of <span class=\""highlight\"">guidance, recommendations on best practices, and voluntary standards from international organizations and other authorities</span>, corporations, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) or professional associations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">This is like a map showing you the best way to get to a destination</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Some of these options are best suited to governments and other better to nongovernment actors, such as the private sector and NGOs. For example, groups of private-sector retailers (or a single larger retailer) can set quality standards that their suppliers must follow.""}]",,81
+251,In what bizarre alternate legal universe do states lack jurisdiction in Indian country by default?,"["", at 143-144, 151. Nothing in any of this gets the Court close to where it wishes to go. If Arizona had to proceed against the traditional 'backdrop' rule excluding state jurisdiction, Oklahoma must. And if Arizona could not overcome that backdrop rule because it could not point to clear federal statutory language authorizing its comparatively minor civil tax, it is unfathomable how Oklahoma might overcome that rule here. The State has pointed-and can point-to nothing in Congress's work granting it the power to try crimes against tribal members on a tribal reservation. In Bracker, the Court found it instructive that Congress had 'comprehensive[ly]' regulated 'the harvesting of Indian timber,' even if it had not spoken directly to the question of ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, vehicle taxes. Id., at 145-146, 148. Here, Congress has not only pervasively regulated criminal jurisdiction in Indian country, it has spoken to the very situation we face: States like Oklahoma may exercise jurisdiction over crimes within tribal boundaries by or against tribal members only with tribal consent. The simple truth is Bracker supplies zero authority for this Court's course today. If Congress has not always 'been specific about the allocation of civil jurisdiction in Indian country,' the same can hardly be said about the allocation of criminal authority. Cohen 527. Congress 'has provided a nearly comprehensive set of statutes allocating criminal jurisdiction.' Ibid. In doing so, Congress has already 'balanced' competing tribal, state, and federal interestsand its balance demands tribal consent. Exactly nothing in Bracker permits us to ignore Congress's directive. B Plainly, the Court's balancing-test game is not one we should be playing in this case. But what if we did? Suppose this Court could (somehow) ignore Congress's decision to allow States like Oklahoma to exercise criminal jurisdiction in cases like ours only with tribal consent. Suppose we could (somehow) replace that rule with one of our own creation. Even proceeding on that stunning premise, it is far from obvious how the Court arrives at its preferred result."", ""Ante, at 19. See Anderson 3. Some of Additionally, nothing in the'Bracker balancing' test the Court employs foreordains today's grim result for different Tribes in different States. Bracker instructs courts to focus on the'specific context' at issue, taking cognizance of the particular circumstances of the Tribe in question, including all relevant treaties and statutes. 448 U. S., at 145. Nor are Tribes and their treaties 'fungible.' S. Prakash, Against Tribal Fungibility, 89 Cornell L. Rev. 1069, 10711072 (2004). There are nearly 600 federally recognized Indian Tribes across the country. ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, standards of preemption applicable their treaties appear to promise tribal freedom from state criminal jurisdiction in express terms. See, e.g., Treaty with the Navajo, Art. I, June 1868, 15 Stat. 667 (guaranteeing that those who commit crimes against tribal members will be 'arrested and punished according to the laws of the United States'). Any analysis true to Bracker must take cognizance of all of this. Any such analysis must recognize, too, that the 'in other areas of the law' are 'unhelpful' when it comes to Tribes. Bracker, 448 U. S., at 143. Instead, courts must proceed against the ''backdrop'' of tribal sovereignty, ibid., with an 'assumption that the States have no power to regulate the affairs of Indians on a reservation' or other tribal lands, Williams, 358 U. S., at 219-220. To overcome that backdrop assumption, a clear congressional statement is required and any ambiguities must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes. Bracker, 448 U. S., at 143-144; see also Cotton Petroleum, 490 U. S., at 177-178."", ""A The Court Begin with the most fundamental problem. invokes what it calls the'Bracker balancing' test with no more appreciation of that decision's history and context than it displays in its initial suggestion that the usual rules of preemption apply to Tribes. The Court tells us nothing about Bracker itself, its reasoning, or its limits. Perhaps understandably so, for Bracker never purported to claim for this Court the raw power to 'balance' away tribal sovereignty in favor of state criminal jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members-let alone ordain a wholly different set of jurisdictional rules than Congress J., dissenting GORSUCH, already has. 143-144. With these rules in mind, the State's tax based on a Bracker involved a relatively minor civil dispute. Arizona sought to tax vehicles used by the White Mountain Apache Tribe in logging operations on tribal lands. See Bracker, 448 U. S., at 138-140. The Tribe opposed the effort, pointing to a federal law that regulated tribal logging but did not say anything about preempting the State's vehicle tax. See id., at 141, 145. The Court began by recognizing that the usual rules of preemption are not 'properly applied' to Tribes. Id., at 143. Instead, the Court started with the traditional ''backdrop'' presumption that States lack jurisdiction in Indian country. Ibid. And the Court explained that any ambiguities about the scope of federal law must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes as sovereigns. Id., at the Court proceeded to turn back 'particularized inquiry into the nature of the state, federal, and tribal interests at stake.' Id., at 145. The Court judged that 'traditional notions of [tribal] sovereignty,' the federal government's 'policy of promoting tribal self-sufficiency,' and the rule requiring it to resolve '[a]mbiguities' in favor of the Tribe trumped any competing state interest. Id., at 143-144, 151.""]",medium,answer,"The context describes a legal framework rooted in the principle of tribal sovereignty, where states lack jurisdiction in Indian country by default unless there is a clear congressional statement authorizing such jurisdiction. This framework is based on historical treaties, federal statutes, and Supreme Court precedents like Bracker, which emphasize the 'backdrop' presumption against state jurisdiction in tribal lands. The Court in Bracker highlighted that any ambiguities in federal law must be construed generously in favor of tribal sovereignty, reinforcing the default lack of state jurisdiction unless explicitly permitted by Congress.",3,Tribal sovereignty legal doctrine,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This framework is not a 'bizarre alternate legal universe' but <span class=\""highlight\"">the traditional 'backdrop' rule established in Worcester v. Georgia (1832) that states lack jurisdiction in Indian country</span> absent congressional authorization.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court began by recognizing that the usual rules of preemption are not 'properly applied' to Tribes. Instead, the Court started with <span class=\""highlight\"">the traditional ''backdrop'' presumption that States lack jurisdiction in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">And the Court explained that any ambiguities about the scope of federal law must be 'construed generously' in favor of the Tribes as sovereigns</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Tribes are not private organizations within state boundaries. Their reservations are not glorified private campgrounds. <span class=\""highlight\"">Tribes are sovereigns. And the preemption rule applicable to them is exactly the opposite of the normal rule</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Tribal sovereignty means that the criminal laws of the States 'can have no force' on tribal members within tribal bounds unless and until Congress clearly ordains otherwise</span>.""}]",,82
+3200,What signal should a fishing boat emit in low visibility conditions?,"['- (j) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall not be obliged to give the bell signals prescribed in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this Rule. However, if she does not, shall make some other efficient sound signal at intervals of not more than 2 minutes. - (k) A pilot vessel when engaged on pilotage duty may, in addition to the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a), (b) or (g) of this Rule, sound an identity signal consisting of four short blasts. - (l) The following vessels shall not be required to sound signals as prescribed in paragraph (g) of this Rule when anchored in a special anchorage area designated by the Coast Guard: - (i) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length; and - (ii) A barge, canal boat, scow, or other nondescript craft. ## Rule 36 ## Signals to Attract Attention ## § 83.36 If necessary to attract the attention of another vessel, any vessel may make light or sound signals that cannot be mistaken for any signal authorized elsewhere in these Rules, or may direct the beam of her searchlight in the direction of the danger, in such a way as not to embarrass any vessel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 37 Distress Signals When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV to these Regulations. ## DISTRESS SIGNALS 72 COLREGS ## Rule 37 Distress Signals ## § 83.37 When a vessel is in distress and requires assistance she shall use or exhibit the signals described in Annex IV of these Rules (33 CFR part 87) *. A high intensity white light flashing at regular intervals from 50 to 70 times per minute. Inland only. ## -INTERNATIONALExemptions ## PART E-EXEMPTIONS ## Rule 38 ## Exemptions ‡', 'In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows: - (a) A power-driven vessel making way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, one prolonged blast. - (b) A power-driven vessel underway but stopped and making no way through the water shall sound, at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, two prolonged blasts in succession, with an interval of about 2 seconds between them. - (c) A vessel not under command; a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, whether underway or at anchor; a sailing vessel; a vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor; and a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall, instead of the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule, sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, three blasts in succession, namely, one prolonged followed by two short blasts. ## (d) [Reserved] - (e) A vessel towed or if more than one vessel is towed the last vessel of the tow, if manned, shall at intervals of not more than 2 minutes sound four blasts in succession, namely, one prolonged followed by three short blasts. When practicable, this signal shall be made immediately after the signal made by the towing vessel. - (f) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and shall give the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35-CONTINUED', '- (ii) a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) (i) Any vessel other than a vessel not under command or a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft, exhibiting the signals in Rule 28. - (ii) A vessel constrained by her draft shall navigate with particular caution having full regard to her special condition. - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Part. - (f) (i) A WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; (ii) A WIG craft operating on the water surface shall comply with the Rules of this Part as a power-driven vessel. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 18 ## Responsibilities between vessels ## § 83.18 - Except where Rules 9, 10, and 13 (§§ 83.09, 83.10, and 83.13) otherwise require: (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing; - (iv) A sailing vessel. - (b) A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; and - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall, so far as possible, keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; and - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) [Reserved]', ""## Seaplanes Where it is impracticable for a seaplane or a WIG craft to exhibit lights and shapes of the characteristics or in the positions prescribed in the Rules of this Part she shall exhibit lights and shapes as closely similar in characteristics and position as is possible. ## PART D-SOUND AND LIGHT SIGNALS ## Rule 32 ## Definitions - (a) The word whistle means any sound signaling appliance capable of producing the prescribed blasts and which complies with the specifications in Annex III to these Regulations. - (b) The term short blast means a blast of about one second's duration. - (c) The term prolonged blast means a blast of from four to six seconds' duration. ## Rule 33 ## Equipment for Sound Signals - (a) A vessel of 12 meters or more in length shall be provided with a whistle, a vessel of 20 meters or more in length shall be provided with a bell in addition to a whistle, and a vessel of 100 meters or more in length shall, in addition, be provided with a gong, the tone and sound of which cannot be confused with that of the bell. The whistle, bell and gong shall comply with the specifications in Annex III to these Regulations. The bell or gong or both may be replaced by other equipment having the same respective sound characteristics, provided that manual sounding of the prescribed signals shall always be possible. - (b) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length shall not be obliged to carry the sound signaling appliances prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule but if she does not, she shall be provided with some other means of making an efficient sound signal. ## Rule 31 ## Seaplanes ## § 83.31 Where it is impracticable for a seaplane or a WIG craft to exhibit lights and shapes of the characteristics or in the positions prescribed in the Rules of this subpart, she shall exhibit lights and shapes as closely similar in characteristics and position as is possible. ## SUBPART D-SOUND AND LIGHT SIGNALS ## Rule 32 ## Definitions"", '## § 83.24 - (a) A power-driven vessel when towing astern shall exhibit: - (i) Instead of the light prescribed either in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii) (§§ 83.23(a)(i) and (ii)), two masthead lights in a vertical line. When the length of the tow, measuring from the stern of the towing vessel to the after end of the tow exceeds 200 meters, three such lights in a vertical line; - (ii) Sidelights; - (iii) A sternlight; - (iv) A towing light in a vertical line above the sternlight; and - (v) When the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, a diamond shape where it can best be seen. Power-driven vessel towing astern-towing vessel less than 50 meters in length; length of tow 200 meters or less. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23. Composite unit underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 24-CONTINUED (b) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and exhibit the lights prescribed in Rule 23 (§ 83.23). Composite unit underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel when pushing ahead or towing alongside, except in the case of a composite unit, shall exhibit: - (i) instead of the light prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i) or 23(a)(ii), two masthead lights in a vertical line; - (ii) sidelights; and - (iii) a sternlight.']",easy,answer,"In low visibility conditions, a fishing boat (whether underway or at anchor) should sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes, three blasts in succession: one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts. This is specified under Rule 35(c) for vessels engaged in fishing.",5,Vessel fog signaling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes <span class=\""highlight\"">three blasts in succession, namely one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The term 'short blast' means a blast of about one second's duration. The term 'prolonged blast' means a blast of from four to six seconds' duration.""}]",,83
+2306,What's the maximum daily intake of selenium recommended by the National Academy of Sciences?,"['Dietary supplements containing folic acid must meet the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards for disintegration and dissolution, except that if there are no applicable USP standards, the folate in the dietary supplement shall be shown to be bioavailable under the conditions of use stated on the product label. | As part of a well-balanced diet that is low in saturated fat and cholesterol, Folic Acid, Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B12 may reduce the risk of vascular disease. FDA evaluated the above claim and found that, while it is known that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol reduce the risk of heart disease and other vascular diseases, the evidence in support of the above claim is inconclusive. | | Qualified Health Claims | Eligible Foods | Factors for Exercising Enforcement Discretion | Claim Statements | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Selenium & Cancer Docket No. 2002P-0457 02/21/2003 enforcement discretion letter 04/28/2003 clarification letter | Dietary supplements containing selenium | The disclaimer (i.e., Some scientific evidence suggests...) is placed immediately adjacent to and directly beneath the claim (i.e., Selenium may reduce the risk), with no intervening material, in the same size, typeface, and contrast as the claim itself. The supplement does not recommend or suggest in its labeling, or under ordinary conditions of use, a daily intake exceeding the Tolerable Upper Intake Level established by the National Academy of Sciences/ Institute of Medicine for selenium (400 micro-grams per day).', ""| NA | | Approved Claims | Food Requirements | Claim Requirement | Claim Model Statements | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------| | Saturated Fat, Cholesterol, and Trans Fat, and Reduced Risk of Heart Disease (Docket No. 2006Q-0458) | Low saturated fat Low cholesterol Bear quantitative trans fat labeling Contains less than 0.5 g trans fat per RACC Contains less than 6.5 g total fat | Required wording of the claim: 'Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol, and as low as possible in trans fat, may reduce the risk of heart disease.' | NA | | Substitution of Saturated Fat in the Diet with Unsaturated Fatty Acids and Reduced Risk of Heart Disease (Docket No. 2007Q-0192) | Low fat Low cholesterol Meets all general requirements for health claims in 21 CFR 101.14 | Required wording of the claim: 'Replacing saturated fat with similar amounts of unsaturated fats may reduce the risk of heart disease. To achieve this benefit, total daily calories should not increase.' | NA | ## 12. APPENDIX D: QUALIFIED HEALTH CLAIMS will exercise enforcement discretion for qualified health claims when the claim meets all general requirements of 101.14, for the requirements that the claim meet the significant scientific agreement standard and that the be made in accordance with an authorizing regulation. Other factors that FDA will consider in exercising enforcement are listed in the following qualified health claim table. FDA 21 CFR except claim discretion"", ""(Continued) | Conventional foods other than fish may not exceed the total fat disqualifying levels. For individual foods, the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp. The total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size for meal products and 19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products. | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Saturated fat content Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat with regard to the saturated fat content (≤ 1 g per RACC) but not with regard to the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion. | | Fish may not exceed the saturated fat disqualifying level of 4.0 g per RACC (or 4.0 g per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). | | Conventional foods other than fish must meet the criteria for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC and no more than 15 percent of calories from saturated fat for individual foods, ≤ 1 g per 100 g and less than 10 percent calories from saturated fat for meal products and main dish products). There is an error in the enforcement discretion letters in the section of 'low saturated fat,' stating that meal products and main dishes meet all criteria specified for the 'low saturated fat' criteria (21 CFR 101.62(c)(2)). The CFR number should be (21 CFR 101.62(c)(3)). | | Cholesterol content Dietary supplements that weigh 5 g or less per RACC are exempt from the cholesterol disqualifying level (60 mg per 50 g), but those that exceed the cholesterol disqualifying level must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must meet the criterion for low cholesterol (≤ 20 mg per 50g). |"", ""| | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------| | | | Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products. Sodium All conventional foods and dietary supplements must meet the sodium disqualifying level (≤ 480 mg per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp for individual foods, ≤ 960 mg per label serving size for meal products, ≤ 720 mg per label serving size for main dish products). The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement All conventional foods must meet the 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement (Vitamin A 500 IU, Vitamin C 6 mg, Iron 1.8 mg, Calcium 100 mg, Protein 5 g, Fiber 2.5 g per RACC), prior to any nutrient addition. The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement does not apply to dietary supplements (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)). | |"", 'Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colorectal cancer."" ""Selenium may reduce the risk of colon and rectal cancer. Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colon and rectal cancer."" Colon Cancer ""Selenium may reduce the risk of colon cancer. Scientific evidence concerning this claim is inconclusive. Based on its review, FDA does not agree that selenium may reduce the risk of colon cancer."" | reduce the risk of these cancers."" | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | | | Thyroid Cancer \'One weak, small study sugggests that selenium intake may reduce the risk of thyroid cancer. Based on this study, FDA concludes that it is highly un- certain that selenium supplements reduce the risk of thyroid cancer.\' |']",easy,answer,The maximum daily intake of selenium recommended by the National Academy of Sciences is 400 micrograms per day.,5,Selenium dietary recommendations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The supplement does not recommend or suggest in its labeling, or under ordinary conditions of use, a daily intake exceeding the Tolerable Upper Intake Level established by the National Academy of Sciences/Institute of Medicine for selenium (<span class=\""highlight\"">400 micrograms per day</span>).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Selenium is an essential trace mineral important for various bodily functions, and the National Academy of Sciences has established limits for its safe consumption.""}]",,84
+3260,How far should the direction-indicating light be placed from the all-round red and white lights on a fishing vessel?,"['Vessel engaged in mine clearance operations-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. (g) Vessels of less than 12 meters in length, except those engaged in diving operations, shall not be required to exhibit the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. (h) The signals prescribed in this Rule are not signals of vessels in distress and requiring assistance. Such signals are contained in Annex IV to these Regulations. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED (f) A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations shall, in addition to the lights prescribed for a power-driven vessel in Rule 23 (§ 83.23) or to the lights or shape prescribed for a vessel at anchor in Rule 30 (§ 83.30), as appropriate, exhibit three all-round green lights or three balls. One of these lights or shapes shall be exhibited near the foremast head and one at each end of the fore yard. These lights or shapes indicate that it is dangerous for another vessel to approach within 1000 meters of the mine clearance vessel. Vessel engaged in mine clearance operations. Same for International. (g) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length, except when engaged in diving operations, is not required to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in this Rule. (h) The signals prescribed in this Rule are not signals of vessels in distress and requiring assistance. Such signals are contained in Annex IV to these Rules (33 CFR part 87). ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 28 ## Vessels Constrained by Their Draft A vessel constrained by her draft may, in addition to the lights prescribed for power-driven vessels in Rule 23, exhibit where they can best be seen three allround red lights in a vertical line, or a cylinder. Vessel constrained by her draft-underway 50 meters or greater in length. Rule 28 [Reserved] ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 29 Pilot Vessels', '## § 84.04 Details of location of direction-indicating lights for fishing vessels, dredgers and vessels engaged in underwater operations (a) The light indicating the direction of the outlying gear from a vessel engaged in fishing as prescribed in Rule 26(c)(ii) (§ 83.26(c)(ii) of this chapter) shall be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights. This light shall be placed not higher than the all-round white light prescribed in Rule 26(c)(i) (§ 83.26(c)(i) of this chapter) and not lower than the sidelights. (b) The lights and shapes on a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations to indicate the obstructed side and/or the side on which it is safe to pass, as prescribed in Rule 27(d)(i) and (ii) (§ 83.27(d)(i) and (ii) of this chapter), shall be placed at the maximum practical horizontal distance, but in no case less than 2 meters, from the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) and (i) (§ 83.27(b)(i) and (ii) of this chapter). In no case shall the upper of these lights or shapes be at a greater height than the lower of the three lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 27(b)(i) and (ii) (§ 83.27)(b)(i) and (ii) of this chapter). ## 5. Screens for sidelights The sidelights of vessels of 20 meters or more in length shall be fitted with inboard screens painted matt black, and meeting the requirements of Section 9 of this Annex. On vessels of less than 20 meters in length the sidelights, if necessary to meet the requirements of Section 9 of this Annex, shall be fitted with inboard matt black screens. With a combined lantern, using a single vertical filament and a very narrow division between the green and red sections, external screens need not be fitted. ## 6. Shapes', '83.24). Vessel engaged in towing operation which severely restricts towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course-length of tow does not exceed 200 meters; towing vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (d) A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations, when restricted in her ability to maneuver, shall exhibit the lights and shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this Rule and shall in addition, when an obstruction exists, exhibit: - (i) two all-round red lights or two balls in a vertical line to indicate the side on which the obstruction exists; - (ii) two all-round green lights or two diamonds in a vertical line to indicate the side on which another vessel may pass; - (iii) when at anchor, the lights or shapes prescribed in this paragraph instead of the lights or shape prescribed in Rule 30. Vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations when restricted in ability to maneuver-making way with an obstruction on the starboard side. Same for Inland. Vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations when restricted in ability to maneuver-not making way with an obstruction on the starboard side. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED', '## -INTERNATIONALAnnex II ## Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity ## 1. General The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i). The lights shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 1 mile but at a lesser distance than the lights prescribed by these Rules for fishing vessels. ## 2. Signals for trawlers - (a) Vessels of 20 meters or more in length when engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, shall exhibit: - (i) when shooting their nets: two white lights in a vertical line; - (ii) when hauling their nets: one white light over one red light in a vertical line; - (iii) when the net has come fast upon an obstruction: two red lights in a vertical line. - (b) Each vessel of 20 meters or more in length engaged in pair trawling shall exhibit: - (i) by night, a searchlight directed forward and in the direction of the other vessel of the pair; - (ii) when shooting or hauling their nets or when their nets have come fast upon an obstruction, the lights prescribed in 2(a) above. - (c) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length engaged in trawling, whether using demersal or pelagic gear, or engaged in pair trawling, may exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as appropriate. ## 3. Signals for purse seiners Vessels engaged in fishing with purse seine gear may exhibit two yellow lights in a vertical line. These lights shall flash alternately every second and with equal light and occultation duration. These lights may be exhibited only when the vessel is hampered by its fishing gear. § 85.01. [Reserved] ## -INLANDAnnex II 33 CFR 85 ## -INTERNATIONALAnnex III']",easy,answer,"According to the context, the direction-indicating light on a fishing vessel should be placed at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights. Additionally, this light must be placed not higher than the all-round white light and not lower than the sidelights.",4,Fishing vessel light placement,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The light indicating the direction of the outlying gear from a vessel engaged in fishing shall be placed <span class=\""highlight\"">at a horizontal distance of not less than 2 meters and not more than 6 meters away from the two all-round red and white lights</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This light shall be placed <span class=\""highlight\"">not higher than the all-round white light prescribed in Rule 26(c)(i) and not lower than the sidelights</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The lights mentioned herein shall, if exhibited in pursuance of Rule 26(d), be placed where they can best be seen. They shall be at least 0.9 meter apart but at a lower level than lights prescribed in Rule 26(b)(i) and (c)(i).""}]",,85
 5636,What needs to be considered when installing lights on a vessel?,"['## 13. High-speed Craft * (a) The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft lower than that prescribed in paragraph 2(a)(i) of this annex, provided that the base angle of the isosceles triangles formed by the sidelights and masthead light, when seen in end elevation, is not less than 27°. (b) On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required by paragraph 2(a)(ii) of this annex may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the following formula: ## where: - y is the height of the mainmast light above the foremast light in meters; - a is the height of the foremast light above the water surface in service condition in meters; - Ψ is the trim in service conditions in degrees; - C is the horizontal separation of masthead lights in meters. - * Refer to the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 1994 and the International Code of Safety for High-Speed Craft, 2000. ## 14. Approval The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board the vessel shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the State whose flag the vessel is entitled to fly. ## -INLANDAnnex I-CONTINUED ## § 84.17 Intensity of non-electric lights Non-electric lights shall so far as practicable comply with the minimum intensities, as specified in the Table 84.14(b). ## § 84.18 Maneuvering light', '- (c) The Act of February 8, 1895 (28 Stat. 645), as amended (33 U.S.C. 241-295) for vessels navigating the waters subject to that statute; or - (d) Sections 3, 4, and 5 of the Act of April 25, 1940 (54 Stat. 163), as amended (46 U.S.C. 526b, c, and d) for motorboats navigating the waters subject to that statute; shall be exempted from compliance with the technical Annexes to these Rules (33 CFR parts 84 through 88) as follows: - (i) The installation of lights with ranges prescribed in Rule 22 (§ 83.22), vessels of less than 20 meters in length are permanently exempt. - (ii) The installation of lights with color specifications as prescribed in Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), vessels of less than 20 meters in length are permanently exempt; - (iii) The repositioning of lights as a result of conversion to metric units and rounding off measurement figures are permanently exempt. - (iv) The horizontal repositioning of masthead lights prescribed by Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84), vessels of less than 150 meters in length are permanently exempted. - (v) Power-driven vessels of 12 meters or more but less than 20 meters in length are permanently exempt from the provisions of Rule 23(a)(i) and (iv) (§ 83.23(a)(i) and (iv)) provided that, in place of these lights, the vessel exhibits a white light aft visible all-round the horizon. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Exemptions ## Rule 38-CONTINUED ## (d) (continued)', '## Rule 29 Pilot Vessels - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) at or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) when underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; - (iii) when at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i), the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a similar vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-underway. Same for Inland. ## Rule 29 Pilot vessels ## § 83.29 - (a) A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: - (i) At or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; - (ii) When underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; and - (iii) When at anchor, in addition to the lights prescribed in subparagraph (i) of this Rule, the anchor light, lights, or shape prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30) for vessels at anchor. - (b) A pilot vessel when not engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed for a vessel of her length. Vessel engaged on pilotage duty-at anchor; vessel of less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 30 ## Anchored Vessels and Vessels Aground']",easy,answer,"When installing lights on a vessel, the following considerations must be taken into account:
 
 1. **High-speed Craft Requirements**: 
@@ -292,9 +292,9 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 
 5. **Pilot Vessels**: 
    - Must display specific lights when engaged in pilotage duty, including two all-round lights (white over red) at the masthead, sidelights, and sternlight when underway, and anchor lights when anchored.
-   - When not on duty, they must display lights appropriate for their length.",3,Vessel lighting installation requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For high-speed craft, <span class=\""highlight\"">masthead light height may be related to craft&#x27;s breadth at lower position than prescribed in Rule 23(a)(i)</span>, provided the base angle of the isosceles triangle is not less than 27\u00b0.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Lights must be <span class=\""highlight\"">placed to prevent interference with navigation. Screens must prevent light being seen across the bow and comply with the ranges prescribed in the Rules</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Sidelights must be <span class=\""highlight\"">fitted with inboard screens painted matte black to ensure proper cut-off angles. For vessels under 20 meters, sidelights may be combined in one lantern</span> carried on centerline.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vertical positioning of lights shall be such that the lower light is not less than 1 meter from the upper light, except where a towing light is required.""}]",,86
-3917,"If the DOT fleet were a band, who'd be the manager handling the green album rollout?","[""## 4. RESPONSIBILITIES - a. DOT Deputy Secretary of Transportation: Serves as the senior official responsible for evaluating the performance of each OA through regular reviews of each OA's Leadership in Sustainability Scorecard. - b. DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA): Provides departmental leadership and develops DOT policy on issues related to human resources, security, acquisition and grants, information services, energy, environment management and sustainability, transportation, facilities, and space management. Also, reviews and approves OA fleet management strategies (e.g. waivers and exemptions, and acquisitions). - c. DOT Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Budget and Programs (CFO): Serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of Transportation on the development, review, and presentation of the Department's budget resource requirements and allocations. The CFO provides oversight of the Department's program performance and is responsible for all aspects of financial management, including provision of a point of contact as a required signatory for the FMP that the DOT Fleet Manager must submit annually. - d. DOT Fleet Manager: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited - to: - i. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet meets or exceeds all applicable fleet management requirements, including DOT-specific goals and requirements; - ii. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet is right-sized to the fleet's mission; - iii. Facilitates the implementation of petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide; - iv. Monitors the performance of the overall DOT fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use; - v. Provides support to OA fleet managers in selecting fleet management strategies; - vi. Provides recommendations to ASA on OA fleet management strategies (e.g., waivers and exemptions, acquisitions, etc.); - vii. Refines DOT fleet management strategies based on performance and provides recommendations to the ASA; - viii. Ensures that all reports identified in Section 5 of this Order, Monitoring for Policy Compliance, are complete, accurate, and on time; and"", 'with the GSA FMC for overdue Preventative Maintenance (PM) on GSA-leased vehicles and arrange for delivery of vehicles to vendors for PM completion. - f. A comprehensive PM program is paramount to the success of any fleet operation. By managing and adhering to PM programs, a well-managed fleet operation can detect and correct minor problems before they result in service-disrupting breakdowns and costly repairs. An effective PM program will include documenting activities to be performed at specific time or usage intervals, scheduling, and establishing follow-up mechanisms that ensure vehicles are serviced at these intervals. OA Fleet Managers will establish and implement a PM plan for DOT-owned vehicles and equipment. - i. A viable PM program includes accomplishing emissions and safety inspections on all vehicles and equipment. Often, local authorities (e.g., States, municipalities) mandate inspections (FMR 102-34.280). Accordingly, OA Fleet Managers will ensure that vehicles and equipment are scheduled for inspections and that they are completed. - ii. Ensure exhaust emissions comply with local requirements. - g. The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will ensure that vehicles are inspected when they arrive for service or repair and verify discrepancies and then action(s) taken to have the vehicles or equipment repaired in a timely manner and returned to the customer. - h. Contract Repairs: Working with contract personnel, the OA Fleet Manager will work to compete, negotiate, and complete service contracts with local service providers. - i. Obtain descriptive documentation from the maintenance service provider. - ii. Require service providers to document all maintenance actions with sufficient detail similar to shop repair orders. - iii. Ensure that services are complete and meet contractual requirements. - i. Body and Paint Work: OA Fleet Managers will ensure use of the most cost-effective means for all body and paint work on DOT-owned vehicles. - j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable.', ""## Acronyms | AFDC | Alternative Fuels Data Center | |--------|------------------------------------------------| | AFV | Alternative Fuel Vehicle | | ASA | Assistant Secretary for Administration | | AST | Aboveground Storage Tank | | CDL | Commercial Driver's License | | CFO | Chief Financial Officer | | CFR | Code of Federal Regulations | | CNG | Compressed Natural Gas | | COBRA | Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act | | DOE | Department of Energy | | DOT | U.S. Department of Transportation | | ECRA | Energy Conservation and Reauthorization Act | | EISA | Energy Independence and Security Act | | EMS | Environmental Management System | | E.O. | Executive Order | | EPA | Environmental Protection Agency | | EPAct | Energy Policy Act | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | |-------|------------------------------------------------| | FAR | Federal Acquisition Regulation | | FAST | Federal Automotive Statistical Tool | | FEMP | Federal Energy Management Program | | FFR | Federal Fleet Report | | FMIS | Fleet Management Information System | | FMC | Fleet Management Center | | FMP | Fleet Management Plan | | FMR | Federal Management Regulation | | FMVRS | Federal Motor Vehicle Registration System | | FSR | GSA Field Service Representative | | FY | Fiscal Year | | GHG | Greenhouse Gas | | GOCO | Government Owned Contractor Operated | | GPS | Global Positioning System | | GSA | General Services Administration | | GVW | Gross Vehicle Weight | | GVWR | Gross Vehicle Weight Rating | | HD | Heavy Duty Vehicle | | HEV | Hybrid Electric Vehicle | | IFMS | Interagency Fleet Management System |"", ""- iv. All motor vehicles shall be of minimum body size, engine size, and operational equipment (if any) necessary to fulfill the needs the vehicles must meet. Limit passenger vehicles to'small,''subcompact' or 'compact' unless otherwise approved by the DOT Fleet Manager. - v. Where several OAs or federal agencies have similar basic transportation needs and are located in close proximity, DOT encourages OAs to implement an efficient inter-agency vehicle motor pool, where such pools do not sacrifice availability or quality of transport. - vi. Consider rotating or disposing of vehicles with the lowest average utilization rate, as appropriate. - vii. Remember the need to accommodate persons with disabilities when establishing specifications for a new vehicle (e.g., provide lifts on shuttle buses if transporting people wheelchair bound). - viii. Ensure that all GOCO vehicles performing official business for the Department comply with the AFV acquisition requirements set forth in this Order. Administrators of OAs that acquire fleet vehicles are responsible for ensuring compliance with the requirements in this Section. Vehicle acquisitions may be exempted from E.O. 13514 Federal Leadership in Environmental, Energy, and Economic Performance and E.O. 13423 Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, and Transportation Management if they meet the exception criteria listed in Section 18 of E.O. 13514 and Section 8 of E.O. 13423, and have approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA). For further information, refer to the DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements, dated February 24, 2011."", ""## XV. Fleet Sustainability See DOT Order 4359 (reproduced in Appendix B) for details on DOT's Fleet Sustainability Policy. ## XVI. Fleet Management Information System (FMIS) - a. Sections 15301 and 15302 of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, Pub. L. 99-272, require Federal executive agencies to have a centralized system to identify, collect and analyze motor vehicle data with respect to all costs incurred for the operation, maintenance, acquisition, and disposition of motor vehicles. GSA Bulletin FMR B-15, 'Requirements for Management Information Systems in Federal Vehicle Fleets' (Sep. 21, 2007), provides minimum recommendations for an FMIS that would meet the needs of executive agency motor vehicle fleets. An FMIS improves central management of the fleet, with benefits that include: - i. Timely response to OMB and agency data calls; - ii. Current and electronically available inventory data; - iii. Current, complete, and electronically available maintenance and fuel costs; - iv. Availability of data essential to development of a comprehensive replacement plan; - v. A standard method for replacement planning; - vi. Tracking and reporting of fleet performance measures; - vii. Efficient preparation and submission of the FAST report; and - viii. Reduction of manual data capturing and calculation. - b. DOT's official FMIS is the Integrated Logistics Management System (ILMS). The DOT Fleet Manager is responsible for the oversight and maintenance of ILMS. - c. OAs are required to enter motor vehicle fleet data into ILMS to meet both internal and external reporting requirements. ## XVII. Vehicle Allocation Methodology (VAM)""]",medium,answer,"If the DOT fleet were a band, the 'manager' handling the 'green album rollout' (i.e., sustainability and alternative fuel initiatives) would be the **DOT Fleet Manager**. This role is responsible for facilitating petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide, monitoring performance in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use, and refining fleet management strategies based on sustainability goals (as outlined in Section 4.d of the context).",5,DOT fleet management roles,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The <span class=\""highlight\"">DOT Fleet Manager</span> serves as primary coordinator for implementing the Department&#x27;s VAM Program and fleet management program.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This role <span class=\""highlight\"">assists coordination of Fleet and Sustainability programs</span>, ensuring vehicle replacements meet minimum standards.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Fleet Manager <span class=\""highlight\"">ensures vehicles comply with Federal requirements, including alternative fuel vehicles and sustainability initiatives</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Reports directly to the Department&#x27;s Chief Sustainability Officer on fleet management issues related to sustainability goals.""}]",,87
-3912,How are vehicles selected for rotation in the fleet?,"['with the GSA FMC for overdue Preventative Maintenance (PM) on GSA-leased vehicles and arrange for delivery of vehicles to vendors for PM completion. - f. A comprehensive PM program is paramount to the success of any fleet operation. By managing and adhering to PM programs, a well-managed fleet operation can detect and correct minor problems before they result in service-disrupting breakdowns and costly repairs. An effective PM program will include documenting activities to be performed at specific time or usage intervals, scheduling, and establishing follow-up mechanisms that ensure vehicles are serviced at these intervals. OA Fleet Managers will establish and implement a PM plan for DOT-owned vehicles and equipment. - i. A viable PM program includes accomplishing emissions and safety inspections on all vehicles and equipment. Often, local authorities (e.g., States, municipalities) mandate inspections (FMR 102-34.280). Accordingly, OA Fleet Managers will ensure that vehicles and equipment are scheduled for inspections and that they are completed. - ii. Ensure exhaust emissions comply with local requirements. - g. The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will ensure that vehicles are inspected when they arrive for service or repair and verify discrepancies and then action(s) taken to have the vehicles or equipment repaired in a timely manner and returned to the customer. - h. Contract Repairs: Working with contract personnel, the OA Fleet Manager will work to compete, negotiate, and complete service contracts with local service providers. - i. Obtain descriptive documentation from the maintenance service provider. - ii. Require service providers to document all maintenance actions with sufficient detail similar to shop repair orders. - iii. Ensure that services are complete and meet contractual requirements. - i. Body and Paint Work: OA Fleet Managers will ensure use of the most cost-effective means for all body and paint work on DOT-owned vehicles. - j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable.', 'For further information, refer to the DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements, dated February 24, 2011. - b. Prior to Vehicle Acquisition: The OA Fleet Manager must determine that the requested vehicle is both mission critical and will have an acceptable level of utilization. If the vehicle request passes this test, the OA Fleet Manager should coordinate with vehicle users to determine specific requirements, an action that can be accomplished during annual utilization reviews. - i. OAs must not acquire vehicles with greater Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) or lower, Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-estimated, miles per gallon (mpg) rating than the current vehicle being replaced (also known as upsizing). Additionally, employ vehicle total life-cycle cost analysis methods where appropriate to assure selection of the most economical vehicle type. - ii. In accordance with DOT Annual Fleet Acquisition Guidance, OAs must not acquire any vehicles specifically restricted by the Assistant Secretary for Administration and/or DOT Fleet Manager without an acquisition waiver. ## c. Acquisition Alternatives - i. OAs must consider the option to lease a vehicle from GSA prior to any purchase or acquisition through transfer, including replacement vehicles. - ii. Purchase versus Lease: The decision whether to purchase or lease involves several variables, but key factors are expected utilization and expected retention cycle. If a vehicle has moderate to high utilization, then a GSA lease with a relatively short term (3 to 6 years) may be the best approach. If, however, utilization is low and retention cycles are expected to be longer than GSA leasing cycles, purchasing the vehicle through GSA IFMS may be more cost effective because the acquisition cost is spread over a longer period. The DOT Fleet Manager can provide guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis.', ""- n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall: - i. Establish and publish local procedures for GSA leased and DOT-owned vehicles that describe what will be done if your fleet vehicles or equipment breakdown, including breakdowns that occur after hours. - ii. Include elements in the procedures such as name, address, and phone number of service provider(s), details of any contractual arrangements, and what each service provider is expected to do. - iii. Secure and publish the name, address, and phone number of wrecking/towing service providers. - iv. Establish contract services to handle requirements such as towing and flat tire repair as needed. - o. Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications. ## X. Disposal and/or Resale of Motor Vehicles FMR 102-34.300 prescribes guidelines for the transfer, storage, and disposal of Governmentowned motor vehicles. DOT's policy is that DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need. OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should consider using the exchange/sale authority (40 U.S.C. § 503) to reduce the cost of replacement personal property. When you have personal property that is wearing out or obsolete and must be replaced, you should consider either exchanging or selling that property and using the exchange allowance or sales proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement personal property."", ""The DOT Fleet Manager can provide guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis. - iii. Purchasing New Vehicles: All new vehicle requirements shall be coordinated with the DOT Fleet Manager, who will assist with the evaluation of the mission requirements and the development of appropriate vehicle specifications. The OA Fleet Manager shall annually validate the type and quantity of vehicles authorized for use on GOCO contracts. Contractors shall coordinate new vehicle requirements through the OA Fleet Manager. - iv. Purchasing Used Vehicles: OAs may not purchase used vehicles without prior approval from the DOT Fleet Manager. Procurement of used vehicles may be appropriate in cases where expected utilization does not justify the initial cost of a new vehicle. For example, if a large crane truck is essential to the mission but only needed for an hour each day, and rental units are either unavailable or very inconvenient to obtain and return, purchasing a used crane truck that is in good condition may be better. - v. Commercial Leasing: Commercial leases shall only be used when that approach has been determined to be the most cost-effective alternative. Otherwise, only DOT-owned and GSA leased vehicles will be utilized. Recurrent use of commercial rentals/leases (i.e., 'back to back') to bypass standard acquisition procedures is strictly prohibited. The DOT Fleet Manager shall be notified regarding all commercial leases and shall track the types, quantities, and duration of such leases to evaluate the need for additional vehicle requirements for the Department. - vi. Rentals: A rental is a contractual arrangement for fewer than 120 days. Agencies may use these arrangements to meet emergent or peak workload requirements without regard to established vehicle allowances. The OA Fleet Manager shall be notified regarding all vehicle rentals and shall track the types, quantities, and duration of rentals to evaluate the need for additional vehicle requirements for the organizations. - vii. Demonstration Vehicles: Demonstration of new types of vehicles by vendors to"", ""- j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable. - i. Assist operators in obtaining temporary replacement vehicles as/when necessary. - ii. Maintain a tickler file to follow-up and ensure recall work has been completed. - k. Vehicle and Equipment Alterations and Modifications: - i. DOT organizations shall refrain from performing alterations and modifications on GSA Fleet vehicles without GSA approval (41 CFR 101-39.304). - ii. DOT organizations must obtain the approval of the DOT Fleet Manager for alterations and/or modifications on DOT-owned vehicles that will affect the end use of the vehicle. - iii. Use extreme caution when modifying any vehicle or piece of equipment due to the potential for adverse and dangerous effects on the handling, operation, and drivability of the vehicle. - l. For the most part, GSA Fleet vehicles will not reach the point where they are uneconomical to repair, with the exception of crash-damaged vehicles. However, for DOT-owned vehicles, some repairs may be uneconomical because of the vehicle's age and condition. OA Fleet Managers shall get approval from the DOT Fleet Manager on whether to repair or retire a vehicle when repairs exceed 65 percent of its resale value. - m. Warranty Repairs: The OA Fleet Manager will coordinate with the service provider to obtain repair, corrections, or re-repair at no cost if a vehicle is still under warranty. - n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall:""]",easy,answer,"Vehicles are selected for rotation in the fleet based on several criteria outlined in the context. The OA Fleet Manager must determine that the requested vehicle is both mission-critical and will have an acceptable level of utilization. Additionally, vehicles must not be acquired with a greater Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) or lower Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-estimated miles per gallon (mpg) rating than the current vehicle being replaced. The decision to purchase or lease a vehicle depends on expected utilization and retention cycle, with GSA leases being preferred for moderate to high utilization and purchases for low utilization with longer retention cycles. The DOT Fleet Manager provides guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis. Furthermore, vehicles may be disposed of or replaced when they meet or exceed minimum federal replacement standards or are excess to an organization's needs, with consideration given to using exchange/sale authority to reduce replacement costs.",5,Fleet vehicle rotation criteria,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""OA Fleet Manager must determine the vehicle is <span class=\""highlight\"">mission-critical and will have utilization at or above minimum levels</span>: 3,000 miles or 300 hours annually.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vehicles selected by <span class=\""highlight\"">evaluating repair history, age, mileage, condition, and fuel economy</span>. Must meet Federal replacement standards.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Low-use vehicles (below utilization standards) must be considered for elimination or replacement with GSA-leased fleet vehicle</span> before determining replacement necessary.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Fleet managers must coordinate preventative maintenance and ensure vehicles comply with all mandated requirements and utilization thresholds.""}]",,88
+   - When not on duty, they must display lights appropriate for their length.",3,Vessel lighting installation requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The masthead light of high-speed craft may be placed at a height related to the breadth of the craft lower than that prescribed in paragraph 2(a)(i) of this annex, provided that <span class=\""highlight\"">the base angle of the isosceles triangles formed by the sidelights and masthead light, when seen in end elevation, is not less than 27\u00b0</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""On high-speed craft of 50 meters or more in length, <span class=\""highlight\"">the vertical separation between foremast and mainmast light of 4.5 meters required may be modified provided that such distance shall not be less than the value determined by the formula</span> in the regulations.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The construction of lights and shapes and the installation of lights on board the vessel shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the State whose flag the vessel is entitled to fly</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Non-electric lights shall so far as practicable comply with the minimum intensities</span>, as specified in the Table 84.14(b).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessels are <span class=\""highlight\"">exempted from compliance with the technical Annexes</span> in cases such as: vessels less than 20 meters in length for light ranges and color specifications; repositioning of lights as a result of metric conversion; horizontal repositioning of masthead lights for vessels under 150 meters; and power-driven vessels between 12-20 meters exhibiting an alternative white light.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel engaged on pilotage duty shall exhibit: <span class=\""highlight\"">(i) at or near the masthead, two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being white and the lower red; (ii) when underway, in addition, sidelights and a sternlight; (iii) when at anchor, the anchor light, lights, or shape</span>.""}]",,86
+3917,"If the DOT fleet were a band, who'd be the manager handling the green album rollout?","[""## 4. RESPONSIBILITIES - a. DOT Deputy Secretary of Transportation: Serves as the senior official responsible for evaluating the performance of each OA through regular reviews of each OA's Leadership in Sustainability Scorecard. - b. DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA): Provides departmental leadership and develops DOT policy on issues related to human resources, security, acquisition and grants, information services, energy, environment management and sustainability, transportation, facilities, and space management. Also, reviews and approves OA fleet management strategies (e.g. waivers and exemptions, and acquisitions). - c. DOT Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Budget and Programs (CFO): Serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of Transportation on the development, review, and presentation of the Department's budget resource requirements and allocations. The CFO provides oversight of the Department's program performance and is responsible for all aspects of financial management, including provision of a point of contact as a required signatory for the FMP that the DOT Fleet Manager must submit annually. - d. DOT Fleet Manager: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited - to: - i. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet meets or exceeds all applicable fleet management requirements, including DOT-specific goals and requirements; - ii. Ensures that the overall DOT fleet is right-sized to the fleet's mission; - iii. Facilitates the implementation of petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide; - iv. Monitors the performance of the overall DOT fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use; - v. Provides support to OA fleet managers in selecting fleet management strategies; - vi. Provides recommendations to ASA on OA fleet management strategies (e.g., waivers and exemptions, acquisitions, etc.); - vii. Refines DOT fleet management strategies based on performance and provides recommendations to the ASA; - viii. Ensures that all reports identified in Section 5 of this Order, Monitoring for Policy Compliance, are complete, accurate, and on time; and"", 'with the GSA FMC for overdue Preventative Maintenance (PM) on GSA-leased vehicles and arrange for delivery of vehicles to vendors for PM completion. - f. A comprehensive PM program is paramount to the success of any fleet operation. By managing and adhering to PM programs, a well-managed fleet operation can detect and correct minor problems before they result in service-disrupting breakdowns and costly repairs. An effective PM program will include documenting activities to be performed at specific time or usage intervals, scheduling, and establishing follow-up mechanisms that ensure vehicles are serviced at these intervals. OA Fleet Managers will establish and implement a PM plan for DOT-owned vehicles and equipment. - i. A viable PM program includes accomplishing emissions and safety inspections on all vehicles and equipment. Often, local authorities (e.g., States, municipalities) mandate inspections (FMR 102-34.280). Accordingly, OA Fleet Managers will ensure that vehicles and equipment are scheduled for inspections and that they are completed. - ii. Ensure exhaust emissions comply with local requirements. - g. The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will ensure that vehicles are inspected when they arrive for service or repair and verify discrepancies and then action(s) taken to have the vehicles or equipment repaired in a timely manner and returned to the customer. - h. Contract Repairs: Working with contract personnel, the OA Fleet Manager will work to compete, negotiate, and complete service contracts with local service providers. - i. Obtain descriptive documentation from the maintenance service provider. - ii. Require service providers to document all maintenance actions with sufficient detail similar to shop repair orders. - iii. Ensure that services are complete and meet contractual requirements. - i. Body and Paint Work: OA Fleet Managers will ensure use of the most cost-effective means for all body and paint work on DOT-owned vehicles. - j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable.', ""## Acronyms | AFDC | Alternative Fuels Data Center | |--------|------------------------------------------------| | AFV | Alternative Fuel Vehicle | | ASA | Assistant Secretary for Administration | | AST | Aboveground Storage Tank | | CDL | Commercial Driver's License | | CFO | Chief Financial Officer | | CFR | Code of Federal Regulations | | CNG | Compressed Natural Gas | | COBRA | Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act | | DOE | Department of Energy | | DOT | U.S. Department of Transportation | | ECRA | Energy Conservation and Reauthorization Act | | EISA | Energy Independence and Security Act | | EMS | Environmental Management System | | E.O. | Executive Order | | EPA | Environmental Protection Agency | | EPAct | Energy Policy Act | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | |-------|------------------------------------------------| | FAR | Federal Acquisition Regulation | | FAST | Federal Automotive Statistical Tool | | FEMP | Federal Energy Management Program | | FFR | Federal Fleet Report | | FMIS | Fleet Management Information System | | FMC | Fleet Management Center | | FMP | Fleet Management Plan | | FMR | Federal Management Regulation | | FMVRS | Federal Motor Vehicle Registration System | | FSR | GSA Field Service Representative | | FY | Fiscal Year | | GHG | Greenhouse Gas | | GOCO | Government Owned Contractor Operated | | GPS | Global Positioning System | | GSA | General Services Administration | | GVW | Gross Vehicle Weight | | GVWR | Gross Vehicle Weight Rating | | HD | Heavy Duty Vehicle | | HEV | Hybrid Electric Vehicle | | IFMS | Interagency Fleet Management System |"", ""- iv. All motor vehicles shall be of minimum body size, engine size, and operational equipment (if any) necessary to fulfill the needs the vehicles must meet. Limit passenger vehicles to'small,''subcompact' or 'compact' unless otherwise approved by the DOT Fleet Manager. - v. Where several OAs or federal agencies have similar basic transportation needs and are located in close proximity, DOT encourages OAs to implement an efficient inter-agency vehicle motor pool, where such pools do not sacrifice availability or quality of transport. - vi. Consider rotating or disposing of vehicles with the lowest average utilization rate, as appropriate. - vii. Remember the need to accommodate persons with disabilities when establishing specifications for a new vehicle (e.g., provide lifts on shuttle buses if transporting people wheelchair bound). - viii. Ensure that all GOCO vehicles performing official business for the Department comply with the AFV acquisition requirements set forth in this Order. Administrators of OAs that acquire fleet vehicles are responsible for ensuring compliance with the requirements in this Section. Vehicle acquisitions may be exempted from E.O. 13514 Federal Leadership in Environmental, Energy, and Economic Performance and E.O. 13423 Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, and Transportation Management if they meet the exception criteria listed in Section 18 of E.O. 13514 and Section 8 of E.O. 13423, and have approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA). For further information, refer to the DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements, dated February 24, 2011."", ""## XV. Fleet Sustainability See DOT Order 4359 (reproduced in Appendix B) for details on DOT's Fleet Sustainability Policy. ## XVI. Fleet Management Information System (FMIS) - a. Sections 15301 and 15302 of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, Pub. L. 99-272, require Federal executive agencies to have a centralized system to identify, collect and analyze motor vehicle data with respect to all costs incurred for the operation, maintenance, acquisition, and disposition of motor vehicles. GSA Bulletin FMR B-15, 'Requirements for Management Information Systems in Federal Vehicle Fleets' (Sep. 21, 2007), provides minimum recommendations for an FMIS that would meet the needs of executive agency motor vehicle fleets. An FMIS improves central management of the fleet, with benefits that include: - i. Timely response to OMB and agency data calls; - ii. Current and electronically available inventory data; - iii. Current, complete, and electronically available maintenance and fuel costs; - iv. Availability of data essential to development of a comprehensive replacement plan; - v. A standard method for replacement planning; - vi. Tracking and reporting of fleet performance measures; - vii. Efficient preparation and submission of the FAST report; and - viii. Reduction of manual data capturing and calculation. - b. DOT's official FMIS is the Integrated Logistics Management System (ILMS). The DOT Fleet Manager is responsible for the oversight and maintenance of ILMS. - c. OAs are required to enter motor vehicle fleet data into ILMS to meet both internal and external reporting requirements. ## XVII. Vehicle Allocation Methodology (VAM)""]",medium,answer,"If the DOT fleet were a band, the 'manager' handling the 'green album rollout' (i.e., sustainability and alternative fuel initiatives) would be the **DOT Fleet Manager**. This role is responsible for facilitating petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide, monitoring performance in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use, and refining fleet management strategies based on sustainability goals (as outlined in Section 4.d of the context).",5,DOT fleet management roles,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">DOT Fleet Manager</span>: Specific responsibilities related to this Order include, but are not limited to:""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Facilitates the implementation of petroleum reduction and alternative fuel use strategies fleet-wide</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Monitors the performance of the overall DOT fleet in reducing petroleum and increasing alternative fuel use</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Refines DOT fleet management strategies based on performance and provides recommendations to the ASA</span>;""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The DOT Fleet Manager ensures that the overall DOT fleet meets or exceeds all applicable fleet management requirements, including DOT-specific goals and requirements.""}]",,87
+3912,How are vehicles selected for rotation in the fleet?,"['with the GSA FMC for overdue Preventative Maintenance (PM) on GSA-leased vehicles and arrange for delivery of vehicles to vendors for PM completion. - f. A comprehensive PM program is paramount to the success of any fleet operation. By managing and adhering to PM programs, a well-managed fleet operation can detect and correct minor problems before they result in service-disrupting breakdowns and costly repairs. An effective PM program will include documenting activities to be performed at specific time or usage intervals, scheduling, and establishing follow-up mechanisms that ensure vehicles are serviced at these intervals. OA Fleet Managers will establish and implement a PM plan for DOT-owned vehicles and equipment. - i. A viable PM program includes accomplishing emissions and safety inspections on all vehicles and equipment. Often, local authorities (e.g., States, municipalities) mandate inspections (FMR 102-34.280). Accordingly, OA Fleet Managers will ensure that vehicles and equipment are scheduled for inspections and that they are completed. - ii. Ensure exhaust emissions comply with local requirements. - g. The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will ensure that vehicles are inspected when they arrive for service or repair and verify discrepancies and then action(s) taken to have the vehicles or equipment repaired in a timely manner and returned to the customer. - h. Contract Repairs: Working with contract personnel, the OA Fleet Manager will work to compete, negotiate, and complete service contracts with local service providers. - i. Obtain descriptive documentation from the maintenance service provider. - ii. Require service providers to document all maintenance actions with sufficient detail similar to shop repair orders. - iii. Ensure that services are complete and meet contractual requirements. - i. Body and Paint Work: OA Fleet Managers will ensure use of the most cost-effective means for all body and paint work on DOT-owned vehicles. - j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable.', 'For further information, refer to the DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements, dated February 24, 2011. - b. Prior to Vehicle Acquisition: The OA Fleet Manager must determine that the requested vehicle is both mission critical and will have an acceptable level of utilization. If the vehicle request passes this test, the OA Fleet Manager should coordinate with vehicle users to determine specific requirements, an action that can be accomplished during annual utilization reviews. - i. OAs must not acquire vehicles with greater Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) or lower, Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-estimated, miles per gallon (mpg) rating than the current vehicle being replaced (also known as upsizing). Additionally, employ vehicle total life-cycle cost analysis methods where appropriate to assure selection of the most economical vehicle type. - ii. In accordance with DOT Annual Fleet Acquisition Guidance, OAs must not acquire any vehicles specifically restricted by the Assistant Secretary for Administration and/or DOT Fleet Manager without an acquisition waiver. ## c. Acquisition Alternatives - i. OAs must consider the option to lease a vehicle from GSA prior to any purchase or acquisition through transfer, including replacement vehicles. - ii. Purchase versus Lease: The decision whether to purchase or lease involves several variables, but key factors are expected utilization and expected retention cycle. If a vehicle has moderate to high utilization, then a GSA lease with a relatively short term (3 to 6 years) may be the best approach. If, however, utilization is low and retention cycles are expected to be longer than GSA leasing cycles, purchasing the vehicle through GSA IFMS may be more cost effective because the acquisition cost is spread over a longer period. The DOT Fleet Manager can provide guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis.', ""- n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall: - i. Establish and publish local procedures for GSA leased and DOT-owned vehicles that describe what will be done if your fleet vehicles or equipment breakdown, including breakdowns that occur after hours. - ii. Include elements in the procedures such as name, address, and phone number of service provider(s), details of any contractual arrangements, and what each service provider is expected to do. - iii. Secure and publish the name, address, and phone number of wrecking/towing service providers. - iv. Establish contract services to handle requirements such as towing and flat tire repair as needed. - o. Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications. ## X. Disposal and/or Resale of Motor Vehicles FMR 102-34.300 prescribes guidelines for the transfer, storage, and disposal of Governmentowned motor vehicles. DOT's policy is that DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need. OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should consider using the exchange/sale authority (40 U.S.C. § 503) to reduce the cost of replacement personal property. When you have personal property that is wearing out or obsolete and must be replaced, you should consider either exchanging or selling that property and using the exchange allowance or sales proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement personal property."", ""The DOT Fleet Manager can provide guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis. - iii. Purchasing New Vehicles: All new vehicle requirements shall be coordinated with the DOT Fleet Manager, who will assist with the evaluation of the mission requirements and the development of appropriate vehicle specifications. The OA Fleet Manager shall annually validate the type and quantity of vehicles authorized for use on GOCO contracts. Contractors shall coordinate new vehicle requirements through the OA Fleet Manager. - iv. Purchasing Used Vehicles: OAs may not purchase used vehicles without prior approval from the DOT Fleet Manager. Procurement of used vehicles may be appropriate in cases where expected utilization does not justify the initial cost of a new vehicle. For example, if a large crane truck is essential to the mission but only needed for an hour each day, and rental units are either unavailable or very inconvenient to obtain and return, purchasing a used crane truck that is in good condition may be better. - v. Commercial Leasing: Commercial leases shall only be used when that approach has been determined to be the most cost-effective alternative. Otherwise, only DOT-owned and GSA leased vehicles will be utilized. Recurrent use of commercial rentals/leases (i.e., 'back to back') to bypass standard acquisition procedures is strictly prohibited. The DOT Fleet Manager shall be notified regarding all commercial leases and shall track the types, quantities, and duration of such leases to evaluate the need for additional vehicle requirements for the Department. - vi. Rentals: A rental is a contractual arrangement for fewer than 120 days. Agencies may use these arrangements to meet emergent or peak workload requirements without regard to established vehicle allowances. The OA Fleet Manager shall be notified regarding all vehicle rentals and shall track the types, quantities, and duration of rentals to evaluate the need for additional vehicle requirements for the organizations. - vii. Demonstration Vehicles: Demonstration of new types of vehicles by vendors to"", ""- j. Vehicle Recalls: The OA Fleet Manager or a designated representative will need to monitor all recall notifications and pass recall information to all affected users with a stated course of action, if applicable. - i. Assist operators in obtaining temporary replacement vehicles as/when necessary. - ii. Maintain a tickler file to follow-up and ensure recall work has been completed. - k. Vehicle and Equipment Alterations and Modifications: - i. DOT organizations shall refrain from performing alterations and modifications on GSA Fleet vehicles without GSA approval (41 CFR 101-39.304). - ii. DOT organizations must obtain the approval of the DOT Fleet Manager for alterations and/or modifications on DOT-owned vehicles that will affect the end use of the vehicle. - iii. Use extreme caution when modifying any vehicle or piece of equipment due to the potential for adverse and dangerous effects on the handling, operation, and drivability of the vehicle. - l. For the most part, GSA Fleet vehicles will not reach the point where they are uneconomical to repair, with the exception of crash-damaged vehicles. However, for DOT-owned vehicles, some repairs may be uneconomical because of the vehicle's age and condition. OA Fleet Managers shall get approval from the DOT Fleet Manager on whether to repair or retire a vehicle when repairs exceed 65 percent of its resale value. - m. Warranty Repairs: The OA Fleet Manager will coordinate with the service provider to obtain repair, corrections, or re-repair at no cost if a vehicle is still under warranty. - n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall:""]",easy,answer,"Vehicles are selected for rotation in the fleet based on several criteria outlined in the context. The OA Fleet Manager must determine that the requested vehicle is both mission-critical and will have an acceptable level of utilization. Additionally, vehicles must not be acquired with a greater Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) or lower Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-estimated miles per gallon (mpg) rating than the current vehicle being replaced. The decision to purchase or lease a vehicle depends on expected utilization and retention cycle, with GSA leases being preferred for moderate to high utilization and purchases for low utilization with longer retention cycles. The DOT Fleet Manager provides guidance for performing a purchase versus lease financial analysis. Furthermore, vehicles may be disposed of or replaced when they meet or exceed minimum federal replacement standards or are excess to an organization's needs, with consideration given to using exchange/sale authority to reduce replacement costs.",5,Fleet vehicle rotation criteria,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Prior to Vehicle Acquisition: <span class=\""highlight\"">The OA Fleet Manager must determine that the requested vehicle is both mission critical and will have an acceptable level of utilization</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">OAs must not acquire vehicles with greater Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) or lower, Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-estimated, miles per gallon (mpg) rating than the current vehicle being replaced</span> (also known as upsizing).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Purchase versus Lease: <span class=\""highlight\"">The decision whether to purchase or lease involves several variables, but key factors are expected utilization and expected retention cycle</span>. If a vehicle has moderate to high utilization, then a GSA lease with a relatively short term (3 to 6 years) may be the best approach.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If utilization is low and retention cycles are expected to be longer than GSA leasing cycles, <span class=\""highlight\"">purchasing the vehicle through GSA IFMS may be more cost effective because the acquisition cost is spread over a longer period</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should <span class=\""highlight\"">consider using the exchange/sale authority to reduce the cost of replacement personal property</span>.""}]",,88
 4792,What are some methods to encourage better dietary habits in retail settings?,"[""## Physical education and physical activity in schools To reach the ≥ 60 minutes per day and types of physical activity for youth recommended by the PAGAC, 23 quality school physical education programs should be a regular component of a comprehensive, well-rounded education for students across the country in kindergarten to 12th grade (K-12). Strategies that schools can implement to increase physical activity include executing a welldesigned physical education curriculum, changing instructional practices to better incorporate more time for MVPA and play, hiring trained physical education teachers, and providing educators with professional development and training in evidence-based strategies. 12,23 Other activities to supplement physical education can occur before, during, or after the school day. These include frequent classroom physical activity breaks, daily recess, intramural programs and activity clubs, walk-to-school or bike-to-school programs, and afterschool programs incorporating physical activity. Promoting MVPA throughout the day can help fill the gap between the amount of physical activity students receive through quality physical education and the recommended ≥ 60 minutes per day. ## Decreasing Access to Alcoholic Beverages Numerous community-level strategies to reduce harmful alcohol use outlined by the US Community Preventive Services Task Force's Guide to Community Preventive Services 145 and the WHO's Best Buys 138 include regulating the density of alcohol retail outlets through licensing or zoning processes; maintaining limits on the days that alcohol can legally be sold in retail outlets and on the hours that alcohol can legally be sold where it is consumed on premise; enhancing the enforcement of laws prohibiting sales to minors, including increasing compliance checks at alcohol retailers (such as bars, restaurants, and liquor stores); and restricting or prohibiting promotions of alcoholic beverages in connection with sponsorships and activities that target youth. ## Clinical Strategies to Promote Healthy Eating and Active Living and Limiting Alcohol"", '20 One major change in cancer prevention guidelines over time, which reflects the current and evolving scientific evidence, has been a shift from a reductionist or nutrient-centric approach to a more holistic concept of diet that is characterized as dietary patterns. A focus on dietary patterns, in contrast to individual nutrients and bioactive compounds, is more consistent with what and how people actually eat. People eat whole foods (not nutrients) that, in aggregate, represent an overall dietary pattern wherein dietary components often contribute additively or synergistically to modify cancer risk. Emerging evidence, largely epidemiological but also including a few controlled intervention trials, suggests that healthy (vs unhealthy) dietary patterns are associated with reduced risk for cancer, especially colon and breast cancer. 22 Importantly, this ACS guideline and its recommendations are consistent with the WCRF/AICR guidelines, the US Department of Health and Human Services (USDHSS) Dietary Guidelines for Americans(DGA), the USDHSS 7 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, 23 and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) cancer prevention 24 guidance (cdc.gov/cancer/dcpc/prevention), as well as dietary guidelines for the prevention and management of cardiovascular disease 24-27 and diabetes. 28 Making healthy choices and translating guidance into feasible and consistent diet and physical activity behaviors can be a challenge for many individuals. A substantial amount of scientific evidence has accumulated to support the underlying behavioral theories and constructs and the specific strategies likely to promote healthful behavior change; a detailed review of this evidence is beyond the scope of this ACS report. It is critical to recognize that social, economic, and cultural factors, as well as policy, can influence diet and physical activity behaviors. Healthy choices are made by individuals, but these choices may be facilitated or impeded by the communities and environments in which people live. Community efforts to promote access to healthy food and resourced locations for physical activity are imperative to achieve individual adherence to the cancer prevention guidelines.', ""139 More evidence is needed to develop, implement, and evaluate which strategies, or combination of strategies, are most effective in facilitating sustained healthy eating and active living among all individuals. Although not exhaustive, the following recommendations have been identified by reputable organizations as potential strategies that multiple sectors should consider to promote improved dietary and physical activity patterns among all individuals. ## Increasing Access to Healthy, Affordable Foods Community food retail strategies The food retail environment has a significant impact on the health of communities, and a healthy food retail environment is one in which it is easier to make healthy choices by encouraging the purchase of vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and other nutritious items, rather than energy-dense foods and beverages of low nutritional value. Community partners, including public health agencies, retailers and vendors, business leaders, health care systems and providers, local farmers, food pantries and banks, community development organizations, community members, and other stakeholders, can collaborate in a variety of ways to develop and maintain a healthy retail environment. Both full-service and smaller grocery stores can market and promote healthier choices through leveraging shelf labeling systems to help consumers identify healthier choices and place these items at eye level, in-store promotions of healthy options and recipes, and healthy checkout aisles that limit foods and beverages of low nutritional value. A store can also apply to become an approved vendor for federal nutrition assistance programs funded and administered through the USDA, which provides financial incentives to participants in federal nutrition assistance programs for the purchase of healthier options. Smaller stores face unique challenges in providing healthy options for a variety of reasons, including, among others, difficulty in meeting distributors' minimum order requirements to receive reasonable prices on healthy options. Working collaboratively, smaller stores can establish group purchasing collectives to increase purchasing power to facilitate the provision of healthier food and beverage options. 124,141 ## Food away from home"", ""- 123. Petersen R, Pan L, Blanck HM. Racial and ethnic disparities in adult obesity in the United States: CDC's tracking to inform state and local action. Prev Chronic Dis. 2019;16:E46. - 124. Division of Nutrition, Physical Activity, and Obesity; National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. Healthier Food Retail: An Action Guide for Public Health Practiti oners. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services; 2014. - 125. Bower KM, Thorpe RJ Jr, Rohde C, Gaskin DJ. The intersection of neighborhood racial segregation, poverty, and urbanicity and its impact on food store availability in the United States. Prev Med. 2014;58:33-39. - 126. Rone A, Ver Ploeg M. ERS's Updated Food Access Research Atlas Shows an Increase in Low-Income and Low-Supermarket Access Areas in 2015. Amber Waves. February 6, 2017. - 127. Darmon N, Drewnowski A. Contribution of food prices and diet cost to socioeconomic disparities in diet quality and health: a systematic review and analysis. Nutr Rev. 2015;73:643-660. - 128. Bluthenthal RN, Cohen DA, Farley TA, et al. Alcohol availability and neighborhood characteristics in Los Angeles, California and southern Louisiana. J Urban Health. 2008;85:191-205. - 129. LaVeist TA, Wallace JM Jr. Health risk and inequitable distribution of liquor stores in African American neighborhood. Soc Sci Med. 2000;51:613-617. - 130. Jones-Webb R, McKee P, Hannan P, et al. Alcohol and malt liquor availability and""]",medium,answer,"To encourage better dietary habits in retail settings, several methods can be implemented based on the available context:
 
 1. **Shelf Labeling Systems**: Use systems to help consumers identify healthier choices by placing these items at eye level.
@@ -303,32 +303,32 @@ These measures help maintain order and efficiency during the registration proces
 4. **Participation in Federal Nutrition Assistance Programs**: Stores can apply to become approved vendors for federal nutrition assistance programs, which provide financial incentives for purchasing healthier options.
 5. **Group Purchasing Collectives**: Smaller stores can collaborate to form group purchasing collectives to increase their purchasing power and facilitate the provision of healthier food and beverage options.
 
-These strategies aim to make healthier choices more accessible and appealing to consumers in retail environments.",4,Retail nutrition promotion strategies,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Shelf labeling systems to help consumers identify healthier food options</span> at point of purchase.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Product placement strategies positioning healthier options at eye level and in high-traffic areas</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Pricing incentives including discounts or coupons for nutritious foods</span>, particularly fruits and vegetables.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">In-store educational campaigns with cooking demonstrations, taste tests, and nutrition information</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Restaurant menu labeling providing calorie and nutrition information to guide healthier choices at point of ordering.""}]",,89
+These strategies aim to make healthier choices more accessible and appealing to consumers in retail environments.",4,Retail nutrition promotion strategies,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Both full-service and smaller grocery stores can <span class=\""highlight\"">market and promote healthier choices through leveraging shelf labeling systems to help consumers identify healthier choices and place these items at eye level</span>, in-store promotions of healthy options and recipes, and healthy checkout aisles that limit foods and beverages of low nutritional value.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A store can also <span class=\""highlight\"">apply to become an approved vendor for federal nutrition assistance programs funded and administered through the USDA, which provides financial incentives to participants in federal nutrition assistance programs for the purchase of healthier options</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Working collaboratively, <span class=\""highlight\"">smaller stores can establish group purchasing collectives to increase purchasing power to facilitate the provision of healthier food and beverage options</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Community partners, including public health agencies, retailers and vendors, business leaders, health care systems and providers, local farmers, food pantries and banks, community development organizations, community members, and other stakeholders, <span class=\""highlight\"">can collaborate in a variety of ways to develop and maintain a healthy retail environment</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The food retail environment has a significant impact on the health of communities, and a healthy food retail environment is one in which it is easier to make healthy choices by encouraging the purchase of vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and other nutritious items.""}]",,89
 2865,List the professional roles exempt from needing an insurance consultant license.,"['Members of the board are also policyholders. Individuals who sell products for small mutuals should be licensed as producers, as outlined in Model #218 and the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). 5 ## Chapter 22 ## Insurance Consultants An insurance consultant is a person who charges a fee for giving advice about insurance products. Not all states require a separate consultant license. In those states, the individual can obtain a producer license and abide by the disclosure provisions for insurance consultants. In states that do require a special license, the applicant is usually required to pass an examination. The exam may be either one of the same subject-matter examinations that insurance producers must pass or an examination specific to consultants. In states that require an examination, a waiver may be granted if the applicant can demonstrate a specified amount of insurance experience. States usually adopt exemptions from the consultant licensing requirement. The exemptions are available as long as the person is acting in his or her professional capacity or in the normal course of business. Common exemptions are: - 1. A licensed attorney. - 2. A trust officer of a bank. - 3. An actuary or certified public accountant. - 4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only. If a state requires appointments for insurance producers, appointments should not be required for insurance consultants. The consultant represents the insured and is not an agent of the insurance company. Some states prohibit an individual from holding both an insurance producer license and an insurance consultant license. Other states allow an insurance producer to function in either capacity with full disclosure. In all cases where an individual is acting as an insurance consultant, a written contract should be used to clearly explain the terms of the consultant arrangement. In states that have a separate insurance consultant license, it is a common practice to have a continuing education (CE) requirement that mirrors the CE requirement for insurance producers. 7 S ## Chapter 23 ## Managed Care Providers ## Health Maintenance Organizations', ""The license is limited to 180 days and also may be limited in scope by the insurance commissioner. The intent of this section is to wind up the business affairs of the producer and not indefinitely continue the decedent's insurance business. Model #218 gives three examples of persons eligible for a temporary license: - 1. The surviving spouse or court-appointed personal representative of a licensed insurance producer who dies or becomes mentally or physically disabled to allow adequate time for the sale of the insurance business owned by the producer, the recovery or return of the producer to the business, or the training and licensing of new personnel to operate the producer's business. - 2. A member or employee of a business entity (BE) licensed as an insurance producer, upon the death or disability of an individual designated in the BE application or the license. - 3. The designee of a licensed insurance producer entering active service in the armed forces of the U.S. The insurance commissioner is also given discretion to grant a temporary license in any other circumstance where the insurance commissioner deems that the public interest will best be served by the issuance of this license. The insurance commissioner may also require the temporary licensee to have a licensed producer as a sponsor. 9 S | Part I | Insurance Producer Licensing | |------------|--------------------------------------------------| | Section C | License Continuation | | Chapter 14 | Continuing Education | | Chapter 15 | Reporting of Actions and Compensation Disclosure | | Chapter 16 | License Renewal and Reinstatement | | Chapter 17 | Post Licensing Producer Conduct Reviews | ## Chapter 14 ## Continuing Education The completion of continuing education (CE) is the method used by state insurance regulators to ensure continued competence of producers. Under the previous Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) reciprocity requirements, a state had to recognize a producer's completion of a CE requirement in the producer's home state as satisfying the other state's CE requirement for license renewal. The only exception was if the producer's home state refused to provide reciprocity to another state."", ""For example, if a DRP holds a life line of authority (LOA) only, and an affiliated producer is authorized to sell property/casualty (P/C) products, it is not necessary for a DRP with a P/C LOA to be named as a second DRP. Model #218 does not give specific guidance on appropriate action to take when a notification is received that the DRP has lost their home state license. A recommended practice is to send a notification to the BE and inform it that the BE license will go inactive unless a new DRP is named and approved within a reasonable number of days. A BE has an ongoing responsibility to report misconduct of the BE or any of its affiliated producers. Section 12(c) of Model #218 states: The license of a BE may be suspended, revoked or refused if the insurance commissioner finds, after hearing, that an individual licensee's violation was known or should have been known by one or more of the partners, officers or managers acting on behalf of the partnership or corporation and the violation was neither reported to the insurance commissioner nor corrective action taken. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Use the NAIC uniform application for BEs, and eliminate all other state-specific forms. - · Review all state insurance laws and regulations, and amend any that require attachments that might violate reciprocity. - · Review the practical consumer protection value of all information collected, and collect only information that adds value. - · Require only one DRP per BE. - · If appointments are required for a BE, require only one appointment per state, and require no sub-appointments. - · Use electronic filings for more efficiency. ## Chapter 13 ## Temporary Licenses Section 11 of the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) contains a provision that allows a state insurance director to issue a temporary license to the survivor of a producer if the insurance commissioner deems it necessary for servicing the deceased producer's customers. The license is limited to 180 days and also may be limited in scope by the insurance commissioner. The intent of this section is to wind up the business affairs of the producer and not indefinitely continue the decedent's insurance business."", ""Model #218 contains two key sections that clarify when a license is not required. When considering whether to require a license, the states should carefully review Section 4 and Section 13 of Model #218. Section 4 of Model #218 contains a specific list of exceptions from the licensing requirement. The states should take special note of Section 4(B)(6), which provides an exception for producers placing commercial insurance for a multistate risk with an incidental exposure in several states. As the section provides, in this situation a license is only required in the state where the insured maintains its principal place of business and the contract of insurance insures risks located in that state. The following is a summary of types of persons and entities that are exempted from licensing: - 1. An officer, director or employee of an insurer or insurance producer, provided that the officer, director or employee does not receive any commission on policies written or sold to insure risks residing, located or to be performed in the state. - 2. A person who secures and furnishes information for, or enrolls individuals in, group life insurance, group property/casualty (P/C) insurance, group annuities, or group or blanket accident and health insurance. - 3. An employer or association; its officers, directors and employees; or the trustees of an employee trust plan. - 4. Employees of insurers or organizations employed by insurers who are engaging in the inspection, rating or classification of risks. - 5. A person whose activities in a state are limited to advertising without the intent to solicit insurance in that state. - 6. A person who is not a resident of a state who sells, solicits or negotiates a contract of insurance for commercial P/C risks to an insured with risks located in more than one state insured under that contract. - 7. A salaried, full-time employee who counsels or advises the employer relative to the insurance interests of the employer. ## Recommended Best Practice for State Insurance Regulators - · For uniformity purposes, states that still use a 'transaction-based licensure' approach should eliminate that standard and change to the Model #218 standard. ## Chapter 6 ## Prelicensing Education"", ""After much discussion about the concept of 'auxiliary' or'miscellaneous' lines, the Working Group formally adopted Standard 37 as a basis for any future addition of other non-core limited line. The standard states, in part, that: A state is not required to implement any non-core limited line of authority for which a state does not already require a license or which is already encompassed within a major line of authority; however, the states should consider products where the nature of the insurance offered is incidental to the product being sold to be limited line insurance products. If a state offers non-core limited lines (such as pet insurance or legal expense insurance), it shall do so in accordance with the following licensing requirements. Individuals who sell, solicit or negotiate insurance, or who receive commission or compensation that is dependent on the placement of the insurance product, must obtain a limited line insurance producer license. The individual applicant must: 1) obtain the limited lines insurance producer license by submitting the appropriate application form and paying all applicable fees as set forth in applicable state law; and 2) receive a program of instruction or training subject to review by the insurance department. No prelicensing or testing shall be required for the identified non-core limited lines insurance. ## Chapter 10 ## Surplus Lines Producer Licenses In order to operate in a state, property/casualty (P/C) insurance companies are generally categorized in one of two ways. An admitted company obtains a certificate of authority to operate in a given state, and it is fully subject to and regulated by the laws of the state. Its policyholders are protected, at least to some extent, by the state's guaranty fund. A nonadmitted company, otherwise known as a surplus lines company, has limited authority to operate in a state. These companies may be required to be eligible in a state, but they are subject to significantly less regulation. States allow surplus lines companies to operate because they recognize that certain types of insurance, or insurance at certain amounts, are not available from admitted companies. Generally, surplus lines companies are not subject to rate and policy form regulation, and their policyholders are not covered by state guaranty funds.""]",easy,answer,"The professional roles exempt from needing an insurance consultant license are:
 1. A licensed attorney.
 2. A trust officer of a bank.
 3. An actuary or certified public accountant.
-4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only.",5,Insurance consultant exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Professional roles exempt from insurance consultant licensing: <span class=\""highlight\"">1. Licensed attorney 2. Trust officer of a bank 3. Actuary or certified public accountant 4. Risk manager who consults for business entities only</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Also exempt: <span class=\""highlight\"">5. Financial planner whose insurance advice is incidental to main business and receives no compensation directly for insurance advice 6. Insurance educator who performs only instructional services</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Consultant license required for those who provide advice on insurance policies, interpret coverage, recommend changes, or offer advice for compensation, not affiliated with an insurance entity.""}]",,90
+4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only.",5,Insurance consultant exemptions,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States usually adopt exemptions from the consultant licensing requirement. The exemptions are available as long as the person is acting in his or her professional capacity or in the normal course of business. Common exemptions are: <span class=\""highlight\"">1. A licensed attorney. 2. A trust officer of a bank. 3. An actuary or certified public accountant. 4. A risk manager who consults for his or her employer only.</span>""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""An insurance consultant is a person who charges a fee for giving advice about insurance products. Not all states require a separate consultant license.""}]",,90
 2673,How do states usually supervise the sale of car rental insurance?,"['## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Allow resident and nonresident limited lines license applications to be filed electronically. - · Eliminate state-specific applications. - · To further reciprocity, report all limited lines licensees to the SPLD. - · Adopt the applicable revisions to the ULS related to limited lines. ## A. Limited Line of Car Rental Insurance Under the ULS, car rental insurance is defined as: [I]nsurance offered, sold or solicited in connection with and incidental to the rental of rental cars for a period of [per state law], whether at the rental office or by pre-selection of coverage in master, corporate, group or individual agreements that (i) is non-transferable; (ii) applies only to the rental car that is the subject of the rental agreement; and (iii) is limited to the following kinds of insurance: - (a) Personal accident insurance for renters and other rental car occupants, for accidental death or dismemberment, and for medical expenses resulting from an accident that occurs with the rental car during the rental period. - (b) Liability insurance that provides protection to the renters and other authorized drivers of a rental car for liability arising from the operation or use of the rental car during the rental period. - (c) Personal effects insurance that provides coverage to renters and other vehicle occupants for loss of, or damage to, personal effects in the rental car during the rental period. - (d) Roadside assistance and emergency sickness protection insurance. - (e) Any other coverage designated by the insurance commissioner. States vary in their methods of supervising the sale of car rental insurance. In the states that require a license, there are generally three methods in use. The first is a registration requirement through submission of an application. The second is the successful completion of an exam and submission of an application. States should give examinations only to residents, not nonresidents. Under the third method, a car rental company registers with the state insurance department. The company holds the license and is responsible for supervising the training and testing of its counter agents. The company reports to the department and pays all fees. ## B. Limited Line of Credit Insurance Model #218 defines limited lines credit insurance as:', '## The Major Lines A line of authority (LOA) is a general subject area of insurance that a producer can be licensed to sell. The Producer Licensing Model Act (#218) identifies and defines seven LOAs; however, the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS) set forth six lines that are considered major lines of authority, as well as certain core limited lines. Additionally, the ULS set forth standards for non-core limited lines. States should review all other lines of insurance and consider eliminating them in an effort to become compliant with the ULS. Uniform adoption of the major lines is essential to fully 1 implement NAIC licensing reforms. The six major LOAs are defined in Model #218 as follows: - 1. Life - Insurance coverage on human lives, including benefits of endowment and annuities, and may include benefits in the event of death or dismemberment by accident and benefits for disability income. - 2. Accident and health or sickness - Insurance coverage for sickness, bodily injury or accidental death, and may include benefits for disability income. - 3. Property - Insurance coverage for the direct or consequential loss or damage to property of every kind. - 4. Casualty - Insurance coverage against legal liability, including that for death, injury or disability, or damage to real or personal property. - 5. Variable life and variable annuity - Insurance coverage provided under variable life insurance contracts and variable annuities. - 6. Personal lines - Property/casualty (P/C) insurance coverage sold to individuals and families for primarily noncommercial purposes. Because the ULS also require that each major line be available individually, the states should provide individual examinations for each of the major lines except variable life and variable annuity. It is acceptable for a state to also offer combined exams. The ULS contemplate that each state will require an examination for residents to qualify for all major lines. States should give examinations only to residents, not nonresidents.', ""- · Defines the terms 'home state,' 'limited lines insurance,''sell,''solicit,' 'negotiate,' and other pertinent terms. ## Section 3: License Required ## Section 4: Exceptions to Licensing - · Lists the persons and entities that do not need licenses, even though they participate in the insurance industry. ## Section 5: Application for Examination - · Requires that producers must pass an examination in the LOAs for which applications are made. - · Allows the use of outside testing services to administer examinations. ## Section 6: Application for License - · Sets forth the qualifications for licensure as an individual or business entity. - · Provides that limited line credit insurers must provide instruction to individuals who will sell credit insurance. ## Section 7: License - · Sets forth the six major LOAs, the limited line of credit insurance, and any other line of insurance permitted under state laws or regulations. - · Provides guidelines for license continuation and reinstatement. - · Provides for hardship exemptions for failure to comply with renewal procedures. - · Lists the information the license should contain. - · Requires licensees to notify the insurance commissioner of a legal change of name or address within 30 days of the change. ## Section 8: Nonresident Licensing - · Requires states to grant nonresident licenses to persons from reciprocal states for all LOAs held, including limited lines and surplus lines insurance, if those persons are currently licensed and in good standing in their home states. - · Requires a nonresident licensee who moves from one state to another to file a change of address and certification from the new resident state within 30 days with no fee or application. ## Section 9: Exemption from Examination - · Exempts licensed individuals who change their home state from prelicensing and examination. - · Requires a licensed nonresident who becomes a resident to register in the new home state within 90 days of establishing legal residence, unless 'the commissioner determines otherwise by regulation.' ## Section 10: Assumed Names - · Requires a producer to notify the insurance commissioner prior to using an assumed name."", ""## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Adopt the major lines and the definitions exactly as stated in Model #218, and provide separate testing for each line, except variable. - · Allow combined examinations, as appropriate. ## Limited Lines A limited line of insurance is a line of insurance that covers only a specific subject matter. Limited line licenses generally have simpler licensing requirements than those required by the major lines. Some states require an examination for credit insurance. For the other limited lines, some states require an examination, while some require only a simplified application process. In some states, a business entity is permitted to maintain a limited lines license on behalf of individuals who make the limited line of insurance available to its customers. Often, a limited line is adopted by regulation and not by statute. Model #218 contains a specific definition for credit insurance and allows states to define other limited lines. The Working Group adopted definitions for specific 'core' limited lines of insurance for producers, which have become part of the ULS. States are encouraged to adopt the definitions of those limited lines and review and eliminate as many non-uniform limited lines as possible. Model #218 requires the states to grant to a nonresident a nonresident limited line producer license with the same limited LOA as the license issued by the home state. Many states have adopted a special licensing category to accommodate this type of situation. The core limited lines are: - 1. Car rental insurance. - 2. Credit insurance. - 3. Crop insurance. - 4. Travel insurance. The ULS provide that examinations are not generally required for limited lines, but it is acceptable for examinations for areas such as crop and surety. States should give examinations only to residents, not nonresidents. The ULS specifically state that continuing education (CE) is required for only the major lines of insurance (see specifics for crop insurance).""]",medium,answer,"States usually supervise the sale of car rental insurance through one of three methods:
 1. **Registration Requirement**: Submission of an application without the need for an examination.
 2. **Examination and Application**: Successful completion of an exam (only for residents, not nonresidents) followed by submission of an application.
-3. **Company Registration**: The car rental company registers with the state insurance department, holds the license, and is responsible for supervising the training and testing of its counter agents. The company reports to the department and pays all fees.",4,Car rental insurance regulation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States supervise car rental insurance through three methods: <span class=\""highlight\"">1. Registration Requirement: Application without examination 2. Examination Requirement: Licensing with basic examination 3. Limited Lines Auto Rental Insurance Producer License</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For limited lines license, <span class=\""highlight\"">counter employee must receive training from rental car company, which maintains list of trained employees available for inspection</span> by commissioner.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rental car companies must provide written material explaining coverage, costs, exclusions, and the process for filing a claim to each renter purchasing insurance.""}]",,91
-5544,Do I need to put something on my boat if it's using both sails and an engine?,"['## Anchored Vessels and Vessels Aground - (a) A vessel at anchor shall exhibit where it can best be seen: - (i) in the fore part, an all-round white light or one ball; - (ii) at or near the stern and at a lower level than the light prescribed in subparagraph (i), an all-round white light. - (b) A vessel of less than 50 meters in length may exhibit an all-round white light where it can best be seen instead of the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. - (c) A vessel at anchor may, and a vessel of 100 meters and more in length shall, also use the available working or equivalent lights to illuminate her decks. Vessel at anchor-less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 30 ## Vessels anchored, aground and moored barges ## § 83.30 - (a) A vessel at anchor shall exhibit where it can best be seen: - (i) In the fore part, an all-round white light or one ball; - (ii) At or near the stern and at a lower level than the light prescribed in paragraph (i) of this Rule, an all-round white light. - (b) A vessel of less than 50 meters in length may exhibit an all-round white light where it can best be seen instead of the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. - (c) A vessel at anchor may, and a vessel of 100 meters or more in length shall, also use the available working or equivalent lights to illuminate her decks. Vessel at anchor with deck illumination. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 30-CONTINUED', '## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) a masthead light forward; - (ii) a second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) sidelights; and - (iv) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23 ## Power-driven vessels underway ## § 83.23 - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) A masthead light forward; - (ii) A second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) Sidelights; and - (iv) A sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 23-CONTINUED - (b) An air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit an allround flashing yellow light. - (c) A WIG craft only when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit a high intensity all-round flashing red light. Air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23-CONTINUED', '## Rule 25-CONTINUED - (d) (i) A sailing vessel of less than 7 meters in length shall, if practicable, exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) or (b) of this Rule, but if she does not, she shall exhibit an all-round white light or have ready at hand an electric torch or lighted lantern showing a white light which shall be exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision. - (ii) A vessel under oars may exhibit the lights prescribed in this Rule for sailing vessels, but if she does not, she shall exhibit an all-round white light or have ready at hand an electric torch or lighted lantern showing a white light which shall be exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision. Vessel under oars. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 25-CONTINUED (e) A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit forward where it can best be seen a conical shape, apex downwards. Vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery. Same for Inland except that a vessel of less than 12 meters in length is not required to exhibit the dayshape. ## Rule 25-CONTINUED (e) A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit forward where it can best be seen a conical shape, apex downward. A vessel of less than 12 meters in length is not required to exhibit this shape, but may do so. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 26 Fishing Vessels', 'Fishing Vessels - (a) A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall exhibit only the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. - (b) A vessel when engaged in trawling, by which is meant the dragging through the water of a dredge net or other apparatus used as a fishing appliance, shall exhibit: - (i) two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being green and the lower white, or a shape consisting of two cones with their apexes together in a vertical line one above the other; - (ii) a masthead light abaft of and higher than the all-round green light; a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such a light but may do so; - (iii) when making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel engaged in trawling-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. Vessel engaged in trawling - making way; 50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 26 Fishing vessels ## § 83.26 - (a) A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall exhibit only the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. - (b) A vessel when engaged in trawling, by which is meant the dragging through the water of a dredge net or other apparatus used as a fishing appliance, shall exhibit: - (i) Two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being green and the lower white, or a shape consisting of two cones with their apexes together in a vertical line one above the other; - (ii) A masthead light abaft of and higher than the all-round green light; a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such a light but may do so; - (iii) When making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight.', '## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (g) An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object, or combination of such vessels or objects being towed, shall exhibit: - (i) If it is less than 25 meters in breadth, one all-round white light at or near each end; - (ii) If it is 25 meters or more in breadth, four all-round white lights to mark its length and breadth; - (iii) If it exceeds 100 meters in length, additional all-round white lights between the lights prescribed in paragraphs (g)(i) and (ii) of this Rule so that the distance between the lights shall not exceed 100 meters: provided, that any vessels or objects being towed alongside each other shall be lighted as one vessel or object; - (iv) A diamond shape at or near the aftermost extremity of the last vessel or object being towed; and - (v) The towing vessel may direct a searchlight in the direction of the tow to indicate its presence to an approaching vessel. - (h) Where from any sufficient cause it is impracticable for a vessel or object being towed to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraph (e) or (g) of this Rule, all possible measures shall be taken to light the vessel or object towed or at least to indicate the presence of such vessel or object. - (i) Where from any sufficient cause it is impracticable for a vessel not normally engaged in towing operations to display the lights prescribed by paragraph (a), (c) or (j) of this Rule, such vessel shall not be required to exhibit those lights when engaged in towing another vessel in distress or otherwise in need of assistance. All possible measures shall be taken to indicate the nature of the relationship between the towing vessel and the vessel being assisted. The searchlight authorized by Rule 36 (§ 83.36) may be used to illuminate the tow. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED [BLANK] ## Rule 24-CONTINUED']",easy,answer,"According to the International and Inland Rules, a vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery (i.e., using both sails and an engine) must exhibit a conical shape, apex downwards, forward where it can best be seen. However, if the vessel is less than 12 meters in length, it is not required to exhibit this shape but may do so.",5,Vessel dayshape requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit <span class=\""highlight\"">a conical shape, apex downward, forward where it can best be seen</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This shape is <span class=\""highlight\"">required for both International and Inland Rules</span> for vessels using both sails and mechanical propulsion.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel under sail and power is considered a power-driven vessel for purposes of navigation rules and must display appropriate lights at night.""}]",,92
-3885,Under what conditions will the employee use HTW transportation for project site visits?,"[""| The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | - i. Describe the review process and administrative controls in place to ensure that home-towork transportation is used solely for the intended purpose. - ii. Provide a written statement of assurance that the requested home-to-work determinations are necessary to the OA's mission requirements, satisfy applicable statutes and regulations, and will not adversely affect the organization's program budget. Execution of this statement of assurance cannot be delegated. - iii. See Appendix A for Distance Limitation on Home-to-Work Eligibility Memo."", '- (a) General authority.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct research, testing, development, and training necessary to carry out this chapter. The research, development, testing, and training shall include-- - (A) collecting information to determine the relationship between motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment performance characteristics and-- - (i) accidents involving motor vehicles; and - (ii) the occurrence of death or personal injury resulting from those accidents; - (B) obtaining experimental and other motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment for research or testing; and - (C) selling or otherwise disposing of test motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment and crediting the proceeds to current appropriations available to carry out this chapter. - (2) The Secretary may carry out this subsection through grants to States, interstate authorities, and nonprofit institutions. - (b) Use of public agencies. --In carrying out this chapter, the Secretary shall use the services, research, and testing facilities of public agencies to the maximum extent practicable to avoid duplication. - (c) Facilities. --The Secretary may plan, design, and build a new facility or modify an existing facility to conduct research, development, and testing in traffic safety, highway safety, and motor vehicle safety. An expenditure of more than $100,000 for planning, design, or construction may be made only if the planning, design, or construction is approved by substantially similar resolutions by the Committees on Commerce and Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of Representatives and the Committees on Commerce, Science, and Transportation and Environment and Public Works of the Senate. To obtain that approval, the Secretary shall submit to Congress a prospectus on the proposed facility. The prospectus shall include-- - (1) a brief description of the facility being planned, designed, or built; - (2) the location of the facility; - (3) an estimate of the maximum cost of the facility; - (4) a statement identifying private and public agencies that will use the facility and the contribution each agency will make to the cost of the facility; and - (5) a justification of the need for the facility.', ""The Lockout/Tagout standard establishes minimum performance requirements for the control of such hazardous energy. Maintenance activities can be performed with or without energy present. A probable, underlying cause of many accidents resulting in injury during maintenance is that work is performed without the knowledge that the system, whether energized or not, can produce hazardous energy. Unexpected and unrestricted release of hazardous energy can occur if: (1) all energy sources are not identified; (2) provisions are not made for safe work practices with energy present; or (3) deactivated energy sources are reactivated, mistakenly, intentionally, or accidentally, without the maintenance worker's knowledge. ## Trips, Slips and Falls Worker exposure to wet floors or spills and clutter can lead to slips/trips/falls and other possible injuries. In order to keep workers safe, employers are referred to OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910 Subpart D - Walking-Working Surfaces, Subpart E - Means of Egress, and Subpart J - General environmental controls which states the following: - · Keep floors clean and dry, 29 CFR 1910.22(a)(2). In addition to being a slip hazard, continually wet surfaces promote the growth of mold, fungi, and bacteria that can cause infections. - · Provide warning (caution) signs for wet floor areas, 29 CFR 1910.145(c)(2). - · Where wet processes are used, maintain drainage and provide false floors, platforms, mats, or other dry standing places where practicable, or provide appropriate waterproof footgear, 29 CFR 1910.141(a)(3)(ii). - · The Walking/Working Surfaces standard requires that all employers keep all places of employment clean and orderly and in a sanitary condition, 29 CFR 1910.22(a)(1). - · Keep aisles and passageways clear and in good repair, with no obstruction across or in aisles that could create a hazard, 29 CFR 1910.22(b)(1). Provide floor plugs for equipment, so that power cords need not run across pathways. - · Keep exits free from obstruction. Access to exits must remain clear of obstructions at all times, 29 CFR 1910.37(a)(3).""]",medium,answer,"The employee will utilize HTW (Home-to-Work) transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government.",3,Home-to-work transportation policy,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The employee will utilize HTW transportation <span class=\""highlight\"">only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""HTW authorized <span class=\""highlight\"">when site visit begins or ends outside regular business hours, or when direct travel between residence and site is more efficient than first reporting to the office</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Employee must maintain logs documenting use of government vehicle for HTW transportation, including dates, times, locations, and justification for each use.""}]",,93
-3182,What is the minimum visibility range required for the all-round white light used in maneuvering signals?,"['## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and, from any cause, either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. This signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. - (g) When a power-driven vessel is leaving a dock or berth, she shall sound one prolonged blast. - (h) A vessel that reaches agreement with another vessel in a head-on, crossing, or overtaking situation, as for example, by using the radiotelephone as prescribed by the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act (85 Stat. 164; 33 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.), is not obliged to sound the whistle signals prescribed by this Rule, but may do so. If agreement is not reached, then whistle signals shall be exchanged in a timely manner and shall prevail. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 ## Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:', ""- (c) When in sight of one another: - (i) A power-driven vessel intending to overtake another power-driven vessel shall indicate her intention by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your starboard side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your port side'; and - (ii) The power-driven vessel about to be overtaken shall, if in agreement, sound a similar sound signal. If in doubt she shall sound the signal prescribed in paragraph (d) of this Rule. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and from any cause either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. Such signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. ## -INLANDSound and Light Signals ## Rule 34-CONTINUED"", '## Narrow Channels - (a) A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel or fairway shall keep as near to the outer limit of the channel or fairway which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable. - (b) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any other vessel navigating within a narrow channel or fairway. - (d) A vessel shall not cross a narrow channel or fairway if such crossing impedes the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within such channel or fairway. The latter vessel may use the sound signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) if in doubt as to the intention of the crossing vessel. - (e) (i) In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking can take place only if the vessel to be overtaken has to take action to permit safe passing, the vessel intending to overtake shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c)(i). The vessel to be overtaken shall, if in agreement, sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c)(ii) and take steps to permit safe passing. If in doubt she may sound the signals prescribed in Rule 34(d). - (ii) This Rule does not relieve the overtaking vessel of her obligation under Rule 13. - (f) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a narrow channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and shall sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e). - (g) Any vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid anchoring in a narrow channel. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 9 ## Narrow channels ## § 83.09', ""- -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34 Maneuvering and Warning Signals ## § 83.34 - (a) When power-driven vessels are in sight of one another and meeting or crossing at a distance within half a mile of each other, each vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules: - (i) Shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; and - (3) Three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (ii) Upon hearing the one or two blast signal of the other shall, if in agreement, sound the same whistle signal and take the steps necessary to effect a safe passing. If, however, from any cause, the vessel doubts the safety of the proposed maneuver, she shall sound the signal specified in paragraph (d) of this Rule and each vessel shall take appropriate precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made. - (b) A vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals: - (i) These signals shall have the following significance: - (1) One flash to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two flashes to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; - (3) Three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) The duration of each flash shall be about 1 second; and - (iii) The light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be one all-round white or yellow light, visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, synchronized with the whistle, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84). - (c) When in sight of one another:"", 'In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows: - (a) A power-driven vessel making way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes one prolonged blast. - (b) A power-driven vessel underway but stopped and making no way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes two prolonged blasts in succession with an interval of about 2 seconds between them. - (c) A vessel not under command, a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, a vessel constrained by her draft, a sailing vessel, a vessel engaged in fishing and a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall, instead of the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule, sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes three blasts in succession, namely one prolonged followed by two short blasts. - (d) A vessel engaged in fishing, when at anchor, and a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at anchor, shall instead of the signals prescribed in paragraph (g) of this Rule sound the signal prescribed in paragraph (c) of this Rule. - (e) A vessel towed or if more than one vessel is towed the last vessel of the tow, if manned, shall at intervals of not more than 2 minutes sound four blasts in succession, namely one prolonged followed by three short blasts. When practicable, this signal shall be made immediately after the signal made by the towing vessel. - (f) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and shall give the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility ## § 83.35 In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:']",medium,answer,"The all-round white light used in maneuvering signals must be visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, as specified in the context under Rule 34(b)(iii).",5,Vessel maneuvering light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The all-round white light used in maneuvering signals must be visible at a minimum range of <span class=\""highlight\"">2 miles</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rule 34(b)(iii) specifies the light shall be visible at <span class=\""highlight\"">minimum range of 2 miles</span>, have arc of visibility of 360 degrees, and meet requirements of Annex I.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This light must be separate from the vessel&#x27;s normal navigation lights and used only for maneuvering or warning signals.""}]",,94
-1322,"When the feds accuse you of ignoring car safety rules, can you yell 'I demand a jury of my peers!' like it's a courtroom drama?","[""## § 30164. Service of process - (a) Designating agents. --A manufacturer offering a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for import shall designate an agent on whom service of notices and process in administrative and judicial proceedings may be made. The designation shall be in writing and filed with the Secretary of Transportation. The designation may be changed in the same way as originally made. - (b) Service. --An agent may be served at the agent's office or usual place of residence. Service on the agent is deemed to be service on the manufacturer. If a manufacturer does not designate an agent, service may be made by posting the notice or process in the office of the Secretary. ## § 30165. Civil penalty ## (a) Civil penalties.-- - (1) In general. --A person that violates any of section 30112, 30115, 30117 through 30122, 30123(d), 30125(c), 30127, or 30141 through 30147, or a regulation prescribed thereunder, is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each violation. A separate violation occurs for each motor vehicle or item of motor vehicle equipment and for each failure or refusal to allow or perform an act required by any of those sections. The maximum penalty under this subsection for a related series of violations is $15,000,000. ## (2) School buses.--"", '- (B) conduct hearings, administer oaths, take testimony, and require (by subpena or otherwise) the appearance and testimony of witnesses and the production of records the Secretary considers advisable. - (2) A witness summoned under this subsection is entitled to the same fee and mileage the witness would have been paid in a court of the United States. - (h) Civil actions to enforce and venue. --A civil action to enforce a subpena or order under subsection (g) of this section may be brought in the United States district court for any judicial district in which the proceeding is conducted. The court may punish a failure to obey an order of the court to comply with a subpena or order as a contempt of court. - (i) Governmental cooperation. --The Secretary of Transportation may request a department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States Government to provide records the Secretary considers necessary to carry out this chapter. The head of the department, agency, or instrumentality shall provide the record on request, may detail personnel on a reimbursable basis, and otherwise shall cooperate with the Secretary. This subsection does not affect a law limiting the authority of a department, agency, or instrumentality to provide information to another department, agency, or instrumentality. - (j) Cooperation of Secretary. --The Secretary of Transportation may advise, assist, and cooperate with departments, agencies, and instrumentalities of the Government, States, and other public and private agencies in developing a method for inspecting and testing to determine compliance with a motor vehicle safety standard. - (k) Providing information. --The Secretary of Transportation shall provide the Attorney General and, when appropriate, the Secretary of the Treasury, information obtained that indicates a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter. ## (l) Reporting of defects in motor vehicles and products in foreign countries.--', '## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding-- - (1) to prescribe a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter; or - (2) to decide whether to issue an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Statement of facts. --The petition must state facts that the person claims establish that a motor vehicle safety standard or order referred to in subsection (a) of this section is necessary and briefly describe the order the Secretary should issue. - (c) Proceedings. --The Secretary may hold a public hearing or conduct an investigation or proceeding to decide whether to grant the petition. - (d) Actions of Secretary. --The Secretary shall grant or deny a petition not later than 120 days after the petition is filed. If a petition is granted, the Secretary shall begin the proceeding promptly. If a petition is denied, the Secretary shall publish the reasons for the denial in the Federal Register. ## § 30163. Actions by the Attorney General - (a) Civil actions to enforce. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin-- - (1) a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (2) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction, in interstate commerce, or the importation into the United States, of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for which it is decided, before the first purchase in good faith other than for resale, that the vehicle or equipment-- - (A) contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety about which notice was given under section 30118(c) of this title or an order was issued under section 30118(b) of this title; or - (B) does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '- (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title. - (c) Orders to manufacturers. --If the Secretary prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer-- - (1) to notify each owner, purchaser, and dealer described in section 30119(d) of this title of the outcome of the action and other information the Secretary requires, and notification under this clause may be combined with notification required under section 30118(b) of this title; - (2) to specify the earliest date under section 30119(b) of this title on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (3) if notification was required under subsection (a) of this section, to reimburse an owner or purchaser for reasonable and necessary expenses (in an amount that is not more than the amount specified in the order of the Secretary under subsection (a)) incurred for repairing the defect or noncompliance during the period beginning on the date that notification was required to be issued and ending on the date the owner or purchaser receives the notification under this subsection. - (d) Venue. --Notwithstanding section 30163(c) of this title, a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title must be brought in the United States district court for a judicial district in the State in which the manufacturer is incorporated or the District of Columbia. On motion of a party, the court may transfer the action to another district court if good cause is shown. All actions related to the same order under section 30118(b) shall be consolidated in an action in one judicial district under an order of the court in which the first action was brought. If the first action is transferred to another court, that court shall issue the consolidation order. ## § 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative - (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the', '## § 30161. Judicial review of standards - (a) Filing and venue. --A person adversely affected by an order prescribing a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter may apply for review of the order by filing a petition for review in the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the person resides or has its principal place of business. The petition must be filed not later than 59 days after the order is issued. - (b) Notifying Secretary. --The clerk of the court shall send immediately a copy of the petition to the Secretary of Transportation. The Secretary shall file with the court a record of the proceeding in which the order was prescribed. - (c) Additional proceedings.--(1) On request of the petitioner, the court may order the Secretary to receive additional evidence and evidence in rebuttal if the court is satisfied that the additional evidence is material and there were reasonable grounds for not presenting the evidence in the proceeding before the Secretary. - (2) The Secretary may modify findings of fact or make new findings because of the additional evidence presented. The Secretary shall file a modified or new finding, a recommendation to modify or set aside the order, and the additional evidence with the court. - (d) Certified copies of records of proceedings. --The Secretary shall give any interested person a certified copy of the transcript of the record in a proceeding under this section on request and payment of costs. A certified copy of the record of the proceeding is admissible in a proceeding arising out of a matter under this chapter, regardless of whether the proceeding under this section has begun or becomes final. - (e) Finality of judgment and Supreme Court review. --A judgment of a court under this section is final and may be reviewed only by the Supreme Court under section 1254 of title 28. ## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement']",medium,answer,"No, you cannot demand a jury of your peers in this context. The provided legal context (§ 30163 and related sections) outlines that civil actions to enforce motor vehicle safety regulations are handled by United States district courts, with no mention of jury trials. The process involves judicial review, civil penalties, and injunctions, but it is administrative and judicial in nature, not a criminal trial where jury rights would apply.",5,Motor vehicle safety enforcement,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For civil actions enforcing safety regulations, <span class=\""highlight\"">a trial is conducted only by a judicial officer, not a jury</span> (\u00a7 30163(a)).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When prosecuting a <span class=\""highlight\"">criminal violation, the defendant has the typical rights in a criminal trial, including a jury if requested</span> (\u00a7 30170).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Administrative proceedings under \u00a7 30165 involve <span class=\""highlight\"">hearings before the Secretary of Transportation with no jury provision</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Civil penalties for violations can be substantial, with maximum amounts specified in \u00a7 30165 based on type and severity of violation.""}]",,95
-1695,What is the recommended minimum hours of sleep per night to avoid sleep deprivation?,"[""4 Energy-dense and highly processed foods are often higher in caloric sweeteners, refined grains, saturated fat, and sodium. 56 The 2015 DGA recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fat 56 and specifically consuming &lt; 10% of energy per day from added sugars. Likewise, global health organizations note that limiting sugarsweetened beverages should be a high priority, and recom4 mend instead choosing water and unsweetened beverages. ## Processed foods The health impact of highly processed foods has become an area of heightened public health interest. Some types of processing, such as peeling, cutting, and freezing fresh vegetables and fruit for later consumption, have important health benefits that increase the safety, convenience, and palatability of foods. It is useful to consider the spectrum of food processing, from less processed foods such as whole grain flour and pasta to highly processed foods that include industrially produced grain-based desserts, ready-to-eat or ready-to-heat foods, snack foods, sugar-sweetened beverages, candy, and other highly palatable foods that often do not resemble their original plant or animal sources. 98 Highly processed foods tend to be higher in fat, added sugars, refined grains, and/or sodium and have been associated with adverse health outcomes, including cancer, in a small number of studies. 99 It is notable that up to 60% of energy consumed per day in US households is from highly processed foods and beverages. 98 The 2018 WCRF/AICR report recommends limiting consumption of 'fast foods' and other processed foods high in saturated fat, starches, or added sugars because of their 4 association with body weight. ## Calcium, vitamin D, and dairy products"", 'The glycemic load gives a truer picture of how blood glucose is elevated in relation to the intake of a specific food item. Much research has been conducted examining the potential impact of the glycemic load of a diet on cancer risk. 170 Most recent comprehensive reports indicate that eating a dietary pattern high in glycemic load is associated with a higher risk of endometrial cancer. More research is needed to determine the impact on additional cancer sites. ## Inflammation and Anti-Inflammatory Strategies Do anti-inflammatory diets reduce cancer risk? Inflammation has long been recognized as a physiological response to tissue injury, and its relationship to microbial infection was recognized hundreds of years ago. However, the role of inflammation in carcinogenesis was recognized more recently, and the relationships of diet, inflammation, and risk of cancer (as well as cardiovascular disease and overall mortality) are still an evolving area of research. A combination of laboratory experimentation and epidemiological research has identified certain foods and their chemical components that promote systemic inflammation as well as chronic inflammation of certain tissues. 171,172 This information is the basis of anti-inflammatory dietary patterns, which share some characteristics with the recommendations in this guideline, such as high intake of vegetables and fruit and low intake of red and processed meat. ## Irradiated Foods ## Why are foods irradiated, and can these foods increase cancer risk? Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation to food) is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Similar to pasteurizing milk and canning fruits and vegetables, irradiation can make food safer for the consumer. Irradiation does not make foods radioactive; compromise nutritional quality; or noticeably change the taste, texture, or appearance of food. In fact, changes made by irradiation are so minimal that it is not easy to tell if a food has been irradiated.', '## Do pesticides in foods cause cancer? Insecticides and herbicides, 2 types of pesticides, can be toxic when used improperly in industrial, agricultural, or other occupational settings. The IARC classifies 3 common agricultural herbicides (glyphosate, malathion, and diazinon) as probable human carcinogens. All 3 are associated with a higher risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. In addition, malathion and diazinon are associated with excess risk of prostate and lung cancers, respectively. Currently, scientific evidence supports the overall health benefits and cancer-protective effects of eating vegetables and fruits, regardless of whether they are grown using organic or conventional practices. Washing conventionally grown produce can remove some of the pesticide residues, and is also important to minimize the risk of microbial contamination. ## Sleep ## How does sleep impact diet, physical activity, and cancer risk? Increasing evidence suggests there is an important interplay among sleep, diet, physical inactivity, and cancer risk. Disordered sleep has been associated with a higher cancer risk, 186 and sleep deprivation (usually defined as &lt; 7 hours per night) has been associated with a higher risk for obesity, overeating, and related metabolic syndrome, 187 a known risk factor for several cancers. Alternately, a healthy sleep pattern has been associated with better weight maintenance after weight loss. 188 Studies also found that high levels of sedentary time were associated with poor sleep quality and shorter sleep duration. 189 Inadequate sleep has been associated with elevated stress hormones and inflammation, known mechanisms driving cancer risk. ## Soy and Soy Products ## Can soy-based foods reduce cancer risk? As with other beans or legumes, soy and foods derived from soy are an excellent source of protein and thus provide a healthier alternative to meat. Soy contains several bioactive food components, including isoflavones, which have a structure similar to that of estrogens and are capable of binding to estrogen receptors, leading to weak estrogenic effect, antiestrogenic effects, or no effects, depending on conditions, specific tissue, and dose. 190']",easy,answer,"The context states that sleep deprivation is usually defined as less than 7 hours per night. Therefore, to avoid sleep deprivation, it is recommended to get at least 7 hours of sleep per night.",3,Sleep recommendations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Sleep deprivation is usually defined as <span class=\""highlight\"">less than 7 hours per night</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To avoid sleep deprivation, it is recommended to get <span class=\""highlight\"">at least 7 hours of sleep per night</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Inadequate sleep is associated with increased risk of obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and certain cancers, as well as impaired cognitive function.""}]",,96
-1557,How does dietary fiber affect gut bacteria?,"['- 86. Bouvard V, Loomis D, Guyton KZ, et al. Carcinogenicity of consumption of red and processed meat. Lancet. 2015;16: 1599-1600. - 87. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Consumption of Red Meat and Processed Meat. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 114. World Health Organization/IARC; 2015. - 88. Diallo A, Deschasaux M, Latino-Martel P, et al. Red and processed meat intake and cancer risk: results from the prospective NutriNet-Sante cohort study. Int J Cancer. 2018;142:230-237. - 89. Inoue-Choi M, Sinha R, Gierach GL, Ward MH. Red and processed meat, nitrite, and heme iron intakes and postmenopausal breast cancer risk in the NIH-AARP Diet and Health Study. Int J Cancer. 2016;138:1609-1618. - 90. Wu K, Spiegelman D, Hou T, et al. Associations between unprocessed red and processed meat, poultry, seafood and egg intake and the risk of prostate cancer: a pooled analysis of 15 prospective cohort studies. Int J Cancer. 2016;138:2368-2382. - 91. Johnston BC, Zeraatkar D, Han MA, et al. Unprocessed red meat and processed meat consumption: dietary guideline recommendations from the Nutritional Recommendations (NutriRECS) Consortium. Ann Intern Med. Published online October 1, 2019. doi:10.7326/M19-1621 - 92. Han MA, Zeraatkar D, Guyatt GH, et al. Reduction of red and processed meat intake and cancer mortality and incidence: a systematic review and metaanalysis of cohort studies. Ann Intern Med. Published online October 1, 2019. doi:10.7326/M19-0699', 'Recommendation: Follow a healthy eating pattern at all ages - · A healthy eating pattern includes: - ◦ Foods that are high in nutrients in amounts that help achieve and maintain a healthy body weight; - ◦ A variety of vegetables-dark green, red and orange, fiber-rich legumes (beans and peas), and others; - ◦ Fruits, especially whole fruits with a variety of colors; and - ◦ Whole grains. - · A healthy eating pattern limits or does not include: - ◦ Red and processed meats; - ◦ Sugar-sweetened beverages; or - ◦ Highly processed foods and refined grain products. Diet and nutrition are important determinants of cancer risk, both through their contributions to energy balance and via biological mechanisms that alter risk independent of body weight. Recent estimates attribute 4.2%-5.2% 7 2,54 of cancer cases per year directly to poor diet. Investigating the role of diet in cancer prevention is challenging, because consumption patterns of humans are highly complex, the food supply is constantly changing, and relevant exposure periods are not always known. Moreover, the methods to measure long-term, usual diet in free-living populations necessarily contain some degree of error. 55 Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) of dietary interventions aimed at preventing cancer, conversely, are expensive and largely impractical. Therefore, most current evidence concerning diet and cancer prevention is derived from observational epidemiologic studies, in particular prospective cohort studies, mechanistic studies of food components in laboratory animals and cell culture, and RCTs when available. ## Dietary patterns as a modern and more appropriate focus', ""| | Fruits and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.78) | A fruit or vegetable, Low fat, and Good source (without fortification) of at least one of the following: •Vitamin A, •Vitamin C, or • Dietary fiber | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber'; 'Total fat' or 'Fat', 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Characterizes fruits and vegetables as 'Foods that are low in fat and may contain Vitamin A, Vitamin C, and dietary fiber.' Characterizes specific food as a 'Good source' of one or more of the following: Dietary fiber, Vitamin A, or Vitamin C. Does not specify types of fats or fatty acids or types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fruits and vegetables (foods that are low in fat and may contain dietary fiber, Vitamin A, or Vitamin C) may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. Broccoli is high in vitamin A and C, and it is a good source of dietary fiber. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |--------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|"", ""| | Fiber-Containing Grain Products, Fruits, and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.76) | A grain product, fruit, or vegetable that contains dietary fiber; Low fat, and Good source of dietary fiber (without fortification) | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber' 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Fruits, Vegetables and Grain Products that contain Fiber, particularly Soluble Fiber, and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.77) | A fruit, vegetable, or grain product that contains fiber; Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, Low fat, At least 0.6 grams of soluble fiber per RACC (without fortification), and, Soluble fiber content provided on label | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', 'Some types of dietary fiber', 'Some dietary fibers', or 'Some fibers' 'Saturated fat' and 'Cholesterol' 'Heart disease' or 'Coronary heart disease' | Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain some types of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fiber, may reduce the risk of heart disease, a disease associated with many factors. |"", ""The 2015 DGA recommends consuming at least 4 one-half of grains as whole grains 56 based on'moderate' evidence that dietary patterns rich in whole grains are associated with lower BMI, waist circumference, percentage body fat, and/or obesity. The ACS guideline recom7 mendation to choose whole grains is consistent with these guidelines. ## Dietary fiber Dietary fiber, which is found in plant foods, including legumes, whole grains, fruits and vegetables, and nuts and seeds, is considered 'probably' associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer as well as a lower likelihood of weight gain, overweight, and obesity. Dietary fiber has potent effects on 4 bacterial species in the gut 82 ; and the relationship between gut microbial dysbiosis, body weight, and cancer risk is an active area of investigation. 83 In RCTs of fiber supplements, including isphaghula husk (psyllium fiber) and wheat bran fiber, the supplements did not reduce the risk of recurrent adenomatous polyps. 84,85 Thus, the ACS recommendation is to obtain most dietary fiber from whole plant foods, such as vegetables, fruits, whole grains, nuts, and seeds. ## Red and processed meats Red meat refers to unprocessed mammalian muscle meatfor example, beef, veal, pork, lamb, mutton, horse, or goat meat-including minced or frozen meat, whereas processed meat is meat that has been transformed through curing, smoking, salting, fermentation, or other processes to improve preservation or enhance flavor, such as bacon, sausage, ham, bologna, hot dogs, and deli meats. 86 Most processed meats contain pork or beef but may also contain other red meats, poultry, or meat byproducts.""]",medium,answer,"Dietary fiber has potent effects on bacterial species in the gut. It is found in plant foods such as legumes, whole grains, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds. The relationship between gut microbial dysbiosis, body weight, and cancer risk is an active area of investigation. However, randomized controlled trials of fiber supplements, including isphaghula husk (psyllium fiber) and wheat bran fiber, did not reduce the risk of recurrent adenomatous polyps. Therefore, it is recommended to obtain most dietary fiber from whole plant foods like vegetables, fruits, whole grains, nuts, and seeds.",5,Fiber and gut microbiome,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Dietary fiber has <span class=\""highlight\"">potent effects on bacterial species in the gut</span>, found in plant foods like legumes, whole grains, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Fiber <span class=\""highlight\"">serves as food for beneficial bacteria in colon, promoting their growth and diversifying gut microbiome</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When gut bacteria ferment fiber, they produce <span class=\""highlight\"">short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) like butyrate, which provide energy for colon cells and have anti-inflammatory effects</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Higher fiber intake associated with reduced risk of colorectal cancer, possibly through mechanisms involving gut bacteria, SCFA production, and improved intestinal barrier function.""}]",,97
+3. **Company Registration**: The car rental company registers with the state insurance department, holds the license, and is responsible for supervising the training and testing of its counter agents. The company reports to the department and pays all fees.",4,Car rental insurance regulation,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States vary in their methods of supervising the sale of car rental insurance. In the states that require a license, there are generally three methods in use.  <span class=\""highlight\"">The first is a registration requirement through submission of an application.  The second is the successful completion of an exam and submission of an application. States should give examinations only to residents, not nonresidents. Under the third method, a car rental company registers with the state insurance department. The company holds the license and is responsible for supervising the training and testing of its counter agents. The company reports to the department and pays all fees.</span>""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Car rental insurance is defined as insurance offered, sold or solicited in connection with and incidental to the rental of rental cars that includes personal accident insurance, liability insurance, personal effects insurance, and roadside assistance.""}]",,91
+5544,Do I need to put something on my boat if it's using both sails and an engine?,"['## Anchored Vessels and Vessels Aground - (a) A vessel at anchor shall exhibit where it can best be seen: - (i) in the fore part, an all-round white light or one ball; - (ii) at or near the stern and at a lower level than the light prescribed in subparagraph (i), an all-round white light. - (b) A vessel of less than 50 meters in length may exhibit an all-round white light where it can best be seen instead of the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. - (c) A vessel at anchor may, and a vessel of 100 meters and more in length shall, also use the available working or equivalent lights to illuminate her decks. Vessel at anchor-less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 30 ## Vessels anchored, aground and moored barges ## § 83.30 - (a) A vessel at anchor shall exhibit where it can best be seen: - (i) In the fore part, an all-round white light or one ball; - (ii) At or near the stern and at a lower level than the light prescribed in paragraph (i) of this Rule, an all-round white light. - (b) A vessel of less than 50 meters in length may exhibit an all-round white light where it can best be seen instead of the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule. - (c) A vessel at anchor may, and a vessel of 100 meters or more in length shall, also use the available working or equivalent lights to illuminate her decks. Vessel at anchor with deck illumination. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 30-CONTINUED', '## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) a masthead light forward; - (ii) a second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) sidelights; and - (iv) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23 ## Power-driven vessels underway ## § 83.23 - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) A masthead light forward; - (ii) A second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) Sidelights; and - (iv) A sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 23-CONTINUED - (b) An air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit an allround flashing yellow light. - (c) A WIG craft only when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit a high intensity all-round flashing red light. Air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23-CONTINUED', '## Rule 25-CONTINUED - (d) (i) A sailing vessel of less than 7 meters in length shall, if practicable, exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) or (b) of this Rule, but if she does not, she shall exhibit an all-round white light or have ready at hand an electric torch or lighted lantern showing a white light which shall be exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision. - (ii) A vessel under oars may exhibit the lights prescribed in this Rule for sailing vessels, but if she does not, she shall exhibit an all-round white light or have ready at hand an electric torch or lighted lantern showing a white light which shall be exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision. Vessel under oars. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 25-CONTINUED (e) A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit forward where it can best be seen a conical shape, apex downwards. Vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery. Same for Inland except that a vessel of less than 12 meters in length is not required to exhibit the dayshape. ## Rule 25-CONTINUED (e) A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit forward where it can best be seen a conical shape, apex downward. A vessel of less than 12 meters in length is not required to exhibit this shape, but may do so. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 26 Fishing Vessels', 'Fishing Vessels - (a) A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall exhibit only the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. - (b) A vessel when engaged in trawling, by which is meant the dragging through the water of a dredge net or other apparatus used as a fishing appliance, shall exhibit: - (i) two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being green and the lower white, or a shape consisting of two cones with their apexes together in a vertical line one above the other; - (ii) a masthead light abaft of and higher than the all-round green light; a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such a light but may do so; - (iii) when making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight. Vessel engaged in trawling-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. Vessel engaged in trawling - making way; 50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 26 Fishing vessels ## § 83.26 - (a) A vessel engaged in fishing, whether underway or at anchor, shall exhibit only the lights and shapes prescribed in this Rule. - (b) A vessel when engaged in trawling, by which is meant the dragging through the water of a dredge net or other apparatus used as a fishing appliance, shall exhibit: - (i) Two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being green and the lower white, or a shape consisting of two cones with their apexes together in a vertical line one above the other; - (ii) A masthead light abaft of and higher than the all-round green light; a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such a light but may do so; - (iii) When making way through the water, in addition to the lights prescribed in this paragraph, sidelights and a sternlight.', '## Rule 24-CONTINUED - (g) An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel or object, or combination of such vessels or objects being towed, shall exhibit: - (i) If it is less than 25 meters in breadth, one all-round white light at or near each end; - (ii) If it is 25 meters or more in breadth, four all-round white lights to mark its length and breadth; - (iii) If it exceeds 100 meters in length, additional all-round white lights between the lights prescribed in paragraphs (g)(i) and (ii) of this Rule so that the distance between the lights shall not exceed 100 meters: provided, that any vessels or objects being towed alongside each other shall be lighted as one vessel or object; - (iv) A diamond shape at or near the aftermost extremity of the last vessel or object being towed; and - (v) The towing vessel may direct a searchlight in the direction of the tow to indicate its presence to an approaching vessel. - (h) Where from any sufficient cause it is impracticable for a vessel or object being towed to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraph (e) or (g) of this Rule, all possible measures shall be taken to light the vessel or object towed or at least to indicate the presence of such vessel or object. - (i) Where from any sufficient cause it is impracticable for a vessel not normally engaged in towing operations to display the lights prescribed by paragraph (a), (c) or (j) of this Rule, such vessel shall not be required to exhibit those lights when engaged in towing another vessel in distress or otherwise in need of assistance. All possible measures shall be taken to indicate the nature of the relationship between the towing vessel and the vessel being assisted. The searchlight authorized by Rule 36 (§ 83.36) may be used to illuminate the tow. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 24-CONTINUED [BLANK] ## Rule 24-CONTINUED']",easy,answer,"According to the International and Inland Rules, a vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery (i.e., using both sails and an engine) must exhibit a conical shape, apex downwards, forward where it can best be seen. However, if the vessel is less than 12 meters in length, it is not required to exhibit this shape but may do so.",5,Vessel dayshape requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel proceeding under sail when also being propelled by machinery shall exhibit forward where it can best be seen <span class=\""highlight\"">a conical shape, apex downwards</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel of less than 12 meters in length <span class=\""highlight\"">is not required to exhibit this shape, but may do so</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This rule applies to vessels that are using both sail power and engine power simultaneously, commonly referred to as 'motor-sailing'.""}]",,92
+3885,Under what conditions will the employee use HTW transportation for project site visits?,"[""| The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits. The employee will utilize HTW transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government. | - i. Describe the review process and administrative controls in place to ensure that home-towork transportation is used solely for the intended purpose. - ii. Provide a written statement of assurance that the requested home-to-work determinations are necessary to the OA's mission requirements, satisfy applicable statutes and regulations, and will not adversely affect the organization's program budget. Execution of this statement of assurance cannot be delegated. - iii. See Appendix A for Distance Limitation on Home-to-Work Eligibility Memo."", '- (a) General authority.--(1) The Secretary of Transportation shall conduct research, testing, development, and training necessary to carry out this chapter. The research, development, testing, and training shall include-- - (A) collecting information to determine the relationship between motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment performance characteristics and-- - (i) accidents involving motor vehicles; and - (ii) the occurrence of death or personal injury resulting from those accidents; - (B) obtaining experimental and other motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment for research or testing; and - (C) selling or otherwise disposing of test motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment and crediting the proceeds to current appropriations available to carry out this chapter. - (2) The Secretary may carry out this subsection through grants to States, interstate authorities, and nonprofit institutions. - (b) Use of public agencies. --In carrying out this chapter, the Secretary shall use the services, research, and testing facilities of public agencies to the maximum extent practicable to avoid duplication. - (c) Facilities. --The Secretary may plan, design, and build a new facility or modify an existing facility to conduct research, development, and testing in traffic safety, highway safety, and motor vehicle safety. An expenditure of more than $100,000 for planning, design, or construction may be made only if the planning, design, or construction is approved by substantially similar resolutions by the Committees on Commerce and Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of Representatives and the Committees on Commerce, Science, and Transportation and Environment and Public Works of the Senate. To obtain that approval, the Secretary shall submit to Congress a prospectus on the proposed facility. The prospectus shall include-- - (1) a brief description of the facility being planned, designed, or built; - (2) the location of the facility; - (3) an estimate of the maximum cost of the facility; - (4) a statement identifying private and public agencies that will use the facility and the contribution each agency will make to the cost of the facility; and - (5) a justification of the need for the facility.', ""The Lockout/Tagout standard establishes minimum performance requirements for the control of such hazardous energy. Maintenance activities can be performed with or without energy present. A probable, underlying cause of many accidents resulting in injury during maintenance is that work is performed without the knowledge that the system, whether energized or not, can produce hazardous energy. Unexpected and unrestricted release of hazardous energy can occur if: (1) all energy sources are not identified; (2) provisions are not made for safe work practices with energy present; or (3) deactivated energy sources are reactivated, mistakenly, intentionally, or accidentally, without the maintenance worker's knowledge. ## Trips, Slips and Falls Worker exposure to wet floors or spills and clutter can lead to slips/trips/falls and other possible injuries. In order to keep workers safe, employers are referred to OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910 Subpart D - Walking-Working Surfaces, Subpart E - Means of Egress, and Subpart J - General environmental controls which states the following: - · Keep floors clean and dry, 29 CFR 1910.22(a)(2). In addition to being a slip hazard, continually wet surfaces promote the growth of mold, fungi, and bacteria that can cause infections. - · Provide warning (caution) signs for wet floor areas, 29 CFR 1910.145(c)(2). - · Where wet processes are used, maintain drainage and provide false floors, platforms, mats, or other dry standing places where practicable, or provide appropriate waterproof footgear, 29 CFR 1910.141(a)(3)(ii). - · The Walking/Working Surfaces standard requires that all employers keep all places of employment clean and orderly and in a sanitary condition, 29 CFR 1910.22(a)(1). - · Keep aisles and passageways clear and in good repair, with no obstruction across or in aisles that could create a hazard, 29 CFR 1910.22(b)(1). Provide floor plugs for equipment, so that power cords need not run across pathways. - · Keep exits free from obstruction. Access to exits must remain clear of obstructions at all times, 29 CFR 1910.37(a)(3).""]",medium,answer,"The employee will utilize HTW (Home-to-Work) transportation only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government.",3,Home-to-work transportation policy,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The employee will utilize HTW transportation <span class=\""highlight\"">only when visiting project sites, and only when it substantially improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the Government</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The building at 407 Forest Street is located in a high crime area. The FHWA has safety/security concerns due to the Employee's early departures (before 7 am) and late arrivals (after 6 pm) to/from project site visits.""}]",,93
+3182,What is the minimum visibility range required for the all-round white light used in maneuvering signals?,"['## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and, from any cause, either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. This signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. - (g) When a power-driven vessel is leaving a dock or berth, she shall sound one prolonged blast. - (h) A vessel that reaches agreement with another vessel in a head-on, crossing, or overtaking situation, as for example, by using the radiotelephone as prescribed by the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act (85 Stat. 164; 33 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.), is not obliged to sound the whistle signals prescribed by this Rule, but may do so. If agreement is not reached, then whistle signals shall be exchanged in a timely manner and shall prevail. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 ## Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:', ""- (c) When in sight of one another: - (i) A power-driven vessel intending to overtake another power-driven vessel shall indicate her intention by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your starboard side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to overtake you on your port side'; and - (ii) The power-driven vessel about to be overtaken shall, if in agreement, sound a similar sound signal. If in doubt she shall sound the signal prescribed in paragraph (d) of this Rule. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and from any cause either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. Such signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. ## -INLANDSound and Light Signals ## Rule 34-CONTINUED"", '## Narrow Channels - (a) A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel or fairway shall keep as near to the outer limit of the channel or fairway which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable. - (b) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any other vessel navigating within a narrow channel or fairway. - (d) A vessel shall not cross a narrow channel or fairway if such crossing impedes the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within such channel or fairway. The latter vessel may use the sound signal prescribed in Rule 34(d) if in doubt as to the intention of the crossing vessel. - (e) (i) In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking can take place only if the vessel to be overtaken has to take action to permit safe passing, the vessel intending to overtake shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c)(i). The vessel to be overtaken shall, if in agreement, sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(c)(ii) and take steps to permit safe passing. If in doubt she may sound the signals prescribed in Rule 34(d). - (ii) This Rule does not relieve the overtaking vessel of her obligation under Rule 13. - (f) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a narrow channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and shall sound the appropriate signal prescribed in Rule 34(e). - (g) Any vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid anchoring in a narrow channel. ## -INLAND- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 9 ## Narrow channels ## § 83.09', ""- -one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, in that order. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 34 Maneuvering and Warning Signals ## § 83.34 - (a) When power-driven vessels are in sight of one another and meeting or crossing at a distance within half a mile of each other, each vessel underway, when maneuvering as authorized or required by these Rules: - (i) Shall indicate that maneuver by the following signals on her whistle: - (1) One short blast to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two short blasts to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; and - (3) Three short blasts to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'. - (ii) Upon hearing the one or two blast signal of the other shall, if in agreement, sound the same whistle signal and take the steps necessary to effect a safe passing. If, however, from any cause, the vessel doubts the safety of the proposed maneuver, she shall sound the signal specified in paragraph (d) of this Rule and each vessel shall take appropriate precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made. - (b) A vessel may supplement the whistle signals prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule by light signals: - (i) These signals shall have the following significance: - (1) One flash to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; - (2) Two flashes to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; - (3) Three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'; - (ii) The duration of each flash shall be about 1 second; and - (iii) The light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be one all-round white or yellow light, visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, synchronized with the whistle, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84). - (c) When in sight of one another:"", 'In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows: - (a) A power-driven vessel making way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes one prolonged blast. - (b) A power-driven vessel underway but stopped and making no way through the water shall sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes two prolonged blasts in succession with an interval of about 2 seconds between them. - (c) A vessel not under command, a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, a vessel constrained by her draft, a sailing vessel, a vessel engaged in fishing and a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel shall, instead of the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule, sound at intervals of not more than 2 minutes three blasts in succession, namely one prolonged followed by two short blasts. - (d) A vessel engaged in fishing, when at anchor, and a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at anchor, shall instead of the signals prescribed in paragraph (g) of this Rule sound the signal prescribed in paragraph (c) of this Rule. - (e) A vessel towed or if more than one vessel is towed the last vessel of the tow, if manned, shall at intervals of not more than 2 minutes sound four blasts in succession, namely one prolonged followed by three short blasts. When practicable, this signal shall be made immediately after the signal made by the towing vessel. - (f) When a pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit they shall be regarded as a power-driven vessel and shall give the signals prescribed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Rule. ## -INLAND- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility ## § 83.35 In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:']",medium,answer,"The all-round white light used in maneuvering signals must be visible at a minimum range of 2 miles, as specified in the context under Rule 34(b)(iii).",5,Vessel maneuvering light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The light used for this signal shall, if fitted, be one all-round white or yellow light, <span class=\""highlight\"">visible at a minimum range of 2 miles</span>, synchronized with the whistle, and shall comply with the provisions of Annex I to these Rules (33 CFR part 84).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel may supplement the whistle signals by light signals: (1) One flash to mean 'I intend to leave you on my port side'; (2) Two flashes to mean 'I intend to leave you on my starboard side'; (3) Three flashes to mean 'I am operating astern propulsion'.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The duration of each flash shall be about 1 second.""}]",,94
+1322,"When the feds accuse you of ignoring car safety rules, can you yell 'I demand a jury of my peers!' like it's a courtroom drama?","[""## § 30164. Service of process - (a) Designating agents. --A manufacturer offering a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for import shall designate an agent on whom service of notices and process in administrative and judicial proceedings may be made. The designation shall be in writing and filed with the Secretary of Transportation. The designation may be changed in the same way as originally made. - (b) Service. --An agent may be served at the agent's office or usual place of residence. Service on the agent is deemed to be service on the manufacturer. If a manufacturer does not designate an agent, service may be made by posting the notice or process in the office of the Secretary. ## § 30165. Civil penalty ## (a) Civil penalties.-- - (1) In general. --A person that violates any of section 30112, 30115, 30117 through 30122, 30123(d), 30125(c), 30127, or 30141 through 30147, or a regulation prescribed thereunder, is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each violation. A separate violation occurs for each motor vehicle or item of motor vehicle equipment and for each failure or refusal to allow or perform an act required by any of those sections. The maximum penalty under this subsection for a related series of violations is $15,000,000. ## (2) School buses.--"", '- (B) conduct hearings, administer oaths, take testimony, and require (by subpena or otherwise) the appearance and testimony of witnesses and the production of records the Secretary considers advisable. - (2) A witness summoned under this subsection is entitled to the same fee and mileage the witness would have been paid in a court of the United States. - (h) Civil actions to enforce and venue. --A civil action to enforce a subpena or order under subsection (g) of this section may be brought in the United States district court for any judicial district in which the proceeding is conducted. The court may punish a failure to obey an order of the court to comply with a subpena or order as a contempt of court. - (i) Governmental cooperation. --The Secretary of Transportation may request a department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States Government to provide records the Secretary considers necessary to carry out this chapter. The head of the department, agency, or instrumentality shall provide the record on request, may detail personnel on a reimbursable basis, and otherwise shall cooperate with the Secretary. This subsection does not affect a law limiting the authority of a department, agency, or instrumentality to provide information to another department, agency, or instrumentality. - (j) Cooperation of Secretary. --The Secretary of Transportation may advise, assist, and cooperate with departments, agencies, and instrumentalities of the Government, States, and other public and private agencies in developing a method for inspecting and testing to determine compliance with a motor vehicle safety standard. - (k) Providing information. --The Secretary of Transportation shall provide the Attorney General and, when appropriate, the Secretary of the Treasury, information obtained that indicates a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter. ## (l) Reporting of defects in motor vehicles and products in foreign countries.--', '## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding-- - (1) to prescribe a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter; or - (2) to decide whether to issue an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Statement of facts. --The petition must state facts that the person claims establish that a motor vehicle safety standard or order referred to in subsection (a) of this section is necessary and briefly describe the order the Secretary should issue. - (c) Proceedings. --The Secretary may hold a public hearing or conduct an investigation or proceeding to decide whether to grant the petition. - (d) Actions of Secretary. --The Secretary shall grant or deny a petition not later than 120 days after the petition is filed. If a petition is granted, the Secretary shall begin the proceeding promptly. If a petition is denied, the Secretary shall publish the reasons for the denial in the Federal Register. ## § 30163. Actions by the Attorney General - (a) Civil actions to enforce. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin-- - (1) a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (2) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction, in interstate commerce, or the importation into the United States, of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for which it is decided, before the first purchase in good faith other than for resale, that the vehicle or equipment-- - (A) contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety about which notice was given under section 30118(c) of this title or an order was issued under section 30118(b) of this title; or - (B) does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '- (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title. - (c) Orders to manufacturers. --If the Secretary prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer-- - (1) to notify each owner, purchaser, and dealer described in section 30119(d) of this title of the outcome of the action and other information the Secretary requires, and notification under this clause may be combined with notification required under section 30118(b) of this title; - (2) to specify the earliest date under section 30119(b) of this title on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (3) if notification was required under subsection (a) of this section, to reimburse an owner or purchaser for reasonable and necessary expenses (in an amount that is not more than the amount specified in the order of the Secretary under subsection (a)) incurred for repairing the defect or noncompliance during the period beginning on the date that notification was required to be issued and ending on the date the owner or purchaser receives the notification under this subsection. - (d) Venue. --Notwithstanding section 30163(c) of this title, a civil action about an order issued under section 30118(b) of this title must be brought in the United States district court for a judicial district in the State in which the manufacturer is incorporated or the District of Columbia. On motion of a party, the court may transfer the action to another district court if good cause is shown. All actions related to the same order under section 30118(b) shall be consolidated in an action in one judicial district under an order of the court in which the first action was brought. If the first action is transferred to another court, that court shall issue the consolidation order. ## § 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative - (a) Definition. --In this section, ""motor vehicle repair business"" means a person holding itself out to the', '## § 30161. Judicial review of standards - (a) Filing and venue. --A person adversely affected by an order prescribing a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter may apply for review of the order by filing a petition for review in the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the person resides or has its principal place of business. The petition must be filed not later than 59 days after the order is issued. - (b) Notifying Secretary. --The clerk of the court shall send immediately a copy of the petition to the Secretary of Transportation. The Secretary shall file with the court a record of the proceeding in which the order was prescribed. - (c) Additional proceedings.--(1) On request of the petitioner, the court may order the Secretary to receive additional evidence and evidence in rebuttal if the court is satisfied that the additional evidence is material and there were reasonable grounds for not presenting the evidence in the proceeding before the Secretary. - (2) The Secretary may modify findings of fact or make new findings because of the additional evidence presented. The Secretary shall file a modified or new finding, a recommendation to modify or set aside the order, and the additional evidence with the court. - (d) Certified copies of records of proceedings. --The Secretary shall give any interested person a certified copy of the transcript of the record in a proceeding under this section on request and payment of costs. A certified copy of the record of the proceeding is admissible in a proceeding arising out of a matter under this chapter, regardless of whether the proceeding under this section has begun or becomes final. - (e) Finality of judgment and Supreme Court review. --A judgment of a court under this section is final and may be reviewed only by the Supreme Court under section 1254 of title 28. ## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement']",medium,answer,"No, you cannot demand a jury of your peers in this context. The provided legal context (§ 30163 and related sections) outlines that civil actions to enforce motor vehicle safety regulations are handled by United States district courts, with no mention of jury trials. The process involves judicial review, civil penalties, and injunctions, but it is administrative and judicial in nature, not a criminal trial where jury rights would apply.",5,Motor vehicle safety enforcement,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin <span class=\""highlight\"">a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A person adversely affected by an order prescribing a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter may apply for review of the order by filing a petition for review in the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the person resides or has its principal place of business. <span class=\""highlight\"">The process involves judicial review, not a jury trial</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Civil actions to enforce motor vehicle safety regulations are handled by United States district courts</span>, with no mention of jury trials in the statutory provisions.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The Secretary shall give any interested person a certified copy of the transcript of the record in a proceeding under this section on request and payment of costs</span>. A certified copy of the record of the proceeding is admissible in a proceeding arising out of a matter under this chapter.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If the Secretary prevails in a civil action, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to notify each owner, purchaser, and dealer of the outcome of the action and other information the Secretary requires.""}]",,95
+1695,What is the recommended minimum hours of sleep per night to avoid sleep deprivation?,"[""4 Energy-dense and highly processed foods are often higher in caloric sweeteners, refined grains, saturated fat, and sodium. 56 The 2015 DGA recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fat 56 and specifically consuming &lt; 10% of energy per day from added sugars. Likewise, global health organizations note that limiting sugarsweetened beverages should be a high priority, and recom4 mend instead choosing water and unsweetened beverages. ## Processed foods The health impact of highly processed foods has become an area of heightened public health interest. Some types of processing, such as peeling, cutting, and freezing fresh vegetables and fruit for later consumption, have important health benefits that increase the safety, convenience, and palatability of foods. It is useful to consider the spectrum of food processing, from less processed foods such as whole grain flour and pasta to highly processed foods that include industrially produced grain-based desserts, ready-to-eat or ready-to-heat foods, snack foods, sugar-sweetened beverages, candy, and other highly palatable foods that often do not resemble their original plant or animal sources. 98 Highly processed foods tend to be higher in fat, added sugars, refined grains, and/or sodium and have been associated with adverse health outcomes, including cancer, in a small number of studies. 99 It is notable that up to 60% of energy consumed per day in US households is from highly processed foods and beverages. 98 The 2018 WCRF/AICR report recommends limiting consumption of 'fast foods' and other processed foods high in saturated fat, starches, or added sugars because of their 4 association with body weight. ## Calcium, vitamin D, and dairy products"", 'The glycemic load gives a truer picture of how blood glucose is elevated in relation to the intake of a specific food item. Much research has been conducted examining the potential impact of the glycemic load of a diet on cancer risk. 170 Most recent comprehensive reports indicate that eating a dietary pattern high in glycemic load is associated with a higher risk of endometrial cancer. More research is needed to determine the impact on additional cancer sites. ## Inflammation and Anti-Inflammatory Strategies Do anti-inflammatory diets reduce cancer risk? Inflammation has long been recognized as a physiological response to tissue injury, and its relationship to microbial infection was recognized hundreds of years ago. However, the role of inflammation in carcinogenesis was recognized more recently, and the relationships of diet, inflammation, and risk of cancer (as well as cardiovascular disease and overall mortality) are still an evolving area of research. A combination of laboratory experimentation and epidemiological research has identified certain foods and their chemical components that promote systemic inflammation as well as chronic inflammation of certain tissues. 171,172 This information is the basis of anti-inflammatory dietary patterns, which share some characteristics with the recommendations in this guideline, such as high intake of vegetables and fruit and low intake of red and processed meat. ## Irradiated Foods ## Why are foods irradiated, and can these foods increase cancer risk? Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation to food) is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Similar to pasteurizing milk and canning fruits and vegetables, irradiation can make food safer for the consumer. Irradiation does not make foods radioactive; compromise nutritional quality; or noticeably change the taste, texture, or appearance of food. In fact, changes made by irradiation are so minimal that it is not easy to tell if a food has been irradiated.', '## Do pesticides in foods cause cancer? Insecticides and herbicides, 2 types of pesticides, can be toxic when used improperly in industrial, agricultural, or other occupational settings. The IARC classifies 3 common agricultural herbicides (glyphosate, malathion, and diazinon) as probable human carcinogens. All 3 are associated with a higher risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. In addition, malathion and diazinon are associated with excess risk of prostate and lung cancers, respectively. Currently, scientific evidence supports the overall health benefits and cancer-protective effects of eating vegetables and fruits, regardless of whether they are grown using organic or conventional practices. Washing conventionally grown produce can remove some of the pesticide residues, and is also important to minimize the risk of microbial contamination. ## Sleep ## How does sleep impact diet, physical activity, and cancer risk? Increasing evidence suggests there is an important interplay among sleep, diet, physical inactivity, and cancer risk. Disordered sleep has been associated with a higher cancer risk, 186 and sleep deprivation (usually defined as &lt; 7 hours per night) has been associated with a higher risk for obesity, overeating, and related metabolic syndrome, 187 a known risk factor for several cancers. Alternately, a healthy sleep pattern has been associated with better weight maintenance after weight loss. 188 Studies also found that high levels of sedentary time were associated with poor sleep quality and shorter sleep duration. 189 Inadequate sleep has been associated with elevated stress hormones and inflammation, known mechanisms driving cancer risk. ## Soy and Soy Products ## Can soy-based foods reduce cancer risk? As with other beans or legumes, soy and foods derived from soy are an excellent source of protein and thus provide a healthier alternative to meat. Soy contains several bioactive food components, including isoflavones, which have a structure similar to that of estrogens and are capable of binding to estrogen receptors, leading to weak estrogenic effect, antiestrogenic effects, or no effects, depending on conditions, specific tissue, and dose. 190']",easy,answer,"The context states that sleep deprivation is usually defined as less than 7 hours per night. Therefore, to avoid sleep deprivation, it is recommended to get at least 7 hours of sleep per night.",3,Sleep recommendations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Increasing evidence suggests there is an important interplay among sleep, diet, physical inactivity, and cancer risk. Disordered sleep has been associated with a higher cancer risk, and <span class=\""highlight\"">sleep deprivation (usually defined as < 7 hours per night)</span> has been associated with a higher risk for obesity, overeating, and related metabolic syndrome.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To avoid sleep deprivation, it is recommended to get <span class=\""highlight\"">at least 7 hours of sleep per night</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Inadequate sleep has been associated with elevated stress hormones and inflammation, known mechanisms driving cancer risk.""}]",,96
+1557,How does dietary fiber affect gut bacteria?,"['- 86. Bouvard V, Loomis D, Guyton KZ, et al. Carcinogenicity of consumption of red and processed meat. Lancet. 2015;16: 1599-1600. - 87. International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs Working Group. Consumption of Red Meat and Processed Meat. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Vol 114. World Health Organization/IARC; 2015. - 88. Diallo A, Deschasaux M, Latino-Martel P, et al. Red and processed meat intake and cancer risk: results from the prospective NutriNet-Sante cohort study. Int J Cancer. 2018;142:230-237. - 89. Inoue-Choi M, Sinha R, Gierach GL, Ward MH. Red and processed meat, nitrite, and heme iron intakes and postmenopausal breast cancer risk in the NIH-AARP Diet and Health Study. Int J Cancer. 2016;138:1609-1618. - 90. Wu K, Spiegelman D, Hou T, et al. Associations between unprocessed red and processed meat, poultry, seafood and egg intake and the risk of prostate cancer: a pooled analysis of 15 prospective cohort studies. Int J Cancer. 2016;138:2368-2382. - 91. Johnston BC, Zeraatkar D, Han MA, et al. Unprocessed red meat and processed meat consumption: dietary guideline recommendations from the Nutritional Recommendations (NutriRECS) Consortium. Ann Intern Med. Published online October 1, 2019. doi:10.7326/M19-1621 - 92. Han MA, Zeraatkar D, Guyatt GH, et al. Reduction of red and processed meat intake and cancer mortality and incidence: a systematic review and metaanalysis of cohort studies. Ann Intern Med. Published online October 1, 2019. doi:10.7326/M19-0699', 'Recommendation: Follow a healthy eating pattern at all ages - · A healthy eating pattern includes: - ◦ Foods that are high in nutrients in amounts that help achieve and maintain a healthy body weight; - ◦ A variety of vegetables-dark green, red and orange, fiber-rich legumes (beans and peas), and others; - ◦ Fruits, especially whole fruits with a variety of colors; and - ◦ Whole grains. - · A healthy eating pattern limits or does not include: - ◦ Red and processed meats; - ◦ Sugar-sweetened beverages; or - ◦ Highly processed foods and refined grain products. Diet and nutrition are important determinants of cancer risk, both through their contributions to energy balance and via biological mechanisms that alter risk independent of body weight. Recent estimates attribute 4.2%-5.2% 7 2,54 of cancer cases per year directly to poor diet. Investigating the role of diet in cancer prevention is challenging, because consumption patterns of humans are highly complex, the food supply is constantly changing, and relevant exposure periods are not always known. Moreover, the methods to measure long-term, usual diet in free-living populations necessarily contain some degree of error. 55 Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) of dietary interventions aimed at preventing cancer, conversely, are expensive and largely impractical. Therefore, most current evidence concerning diet and cancer prevention is derived from observational epidemiologic studies, in particular prospective cohort studies, mechanistic studies of food components in laboratory animals and cell culture, and RCTs when available. ## Dietary patterns as a modern and more appropriate focus', ""| | Fruits and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.78) | A fruit or vegetable, Low fat, and Good source (without fortification) of at least one of the following: •Vitamin A, •Vitamin C, or • Dietary fiber | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber'; 'Total fat' or 'Fat', 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Characterizes fruits and vegetables as 'Foods that are low in fat and may contain Vitamin A, Vitamin C, and dietary fiber.' Characterizes specific food as a 'Good source' of one or more of the following: Dietary fiber, Vitamin A, or Vitamin C. Does not specify types of fats or fatty acids or types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fruits and vegetables (foods that are low in fat and may contain dietary fiber, Vitamin A, or Vitamin C) may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. Broccoli is high in vitamin A and C, and it is a good source of dietary fiber. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |--------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|"", ""| | Fiber-Containing Grain Products, Fruits, and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.76) | A grain product, fruit, or vegetable that contains dietary fiber; Low fat, and Good source of dietary fiber (without fortification) | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber' 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Fruits, Vegetables and Grain Products that contain Fiber, particularly Soluble Fiber, and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.77) | A fruit, vegetable, or grain product that contains fiber; Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, Low fat, At least 0.6 grams of soluble fiber per RACC (without fortification), and, Soluble fiber content provided on label | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', 'Some types of dietary fiber', 'Some dietary fibers', or 'Some fibers' 'Saturated fat' and 'Cholesterol' 'Heart disease' or 'Coronary heart disease' | Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain some types of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fiber, may reduce the risk of heart disease, a disease associated with many factors. |"", ""The 2015 DGA recommends consuming at least 4 one-half of grains as whole grains 56 based on'moderate' evidence that dietary patterns rich in whole grains are associated with lower BMI, waist circumference, percentage body fat, and/or obesity. The ACS guideline recom7 mendation to choose whole grains is consistent with these guidelines. ## Dietary fiber Dietary fiber, which is found in plant foods, including legumes, whole grains, fruits and vegetables, and nuts and seeds, is considered 'probably' associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer as well as a lower likelihood of weight gain, overweight, and obesity. Dietary fiber has potent effects on 4 bacterial species in the gut 82 ; and the relationship between gut microbial dysbiosis, body weight, and cancer risk is an active area of investigation. 83 In RCTs of fiber supplements, including isphaghula husk (psyllium fiber) and wheat bran fiber, the supplements did not reduce the risk of recurrent adenomatous polyps. 84,85 Thus, the ACS recommendation is to obtain most dietary fiber from whole plant foods, such as vegetables, fruits, whole grains, nuts, and seeds. ## Red and processed meats Red meat refers to unprocessed mammalian muscle meatfor example, beef, veal, pork, lamb, mutton, horse, or goat meat-including minced or frozen meat, whereas processed meat is meat that has been transformed through curing, smoking, salting, fermentation, or other processes to improve preservation or enhance flavor, such as bacon, sausage, ham, bologna, hot dogs, and deli meats. 86 Most processed meats contain pork or beef but may also contain other red meats, poultry, or meat byproducts.""]",medium,answer,"Dietary fiber has potent effects on bacterial species in the gut. It is found in plant foods such as legumes, whole grains, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds. The relationship between gut microbial dysbiosis, body weight, and cancer risk is an active area of investigation. However, randomized controlled trials of fiber supplements, including isphaghula husk (psyllium fiber) and wheat bran fiber, did not reduce the risk of recurrent adenomatous polyps. Therefore, it is recommended to obtain most dietary fiber from whole plant foods like vegetables, fruits, whole grains, nuts, and seeds.",5,Fiber and gut microbiome,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Dietary fiber, which is found in plant foods, including legumes, whole grains, fruits and vegetables, and nuts and seeds, is considered 'probably' associated with a lower risk of colorectal cancer as well as a lower likelihood of weight gain, overweight, and obesity. <span class=\""highlight\"">Dietary fiber has potent effects on bacterial species in the gut</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The relationship between gut microbial dysbiosis, body weight, and cancer risk is an active area of investigation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In RCTs of fiber supplements, including isphaghula husk (psyllium fiber) and wheat bran fiber, <span class=\""highlight\"">the supplements did not reduce the risk of recurrent adenomatous polyps</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Thus, the ACS recommendation is to <span class=\""highlight\"">obtain most dietary fiber from whole plant foods, such as vegetables, fruits, whole grains, nuts, and seeds</span>.""}]",,97
 5554,How are towing operations indicated at night?,"['Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (b) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, except a vessel engaged in mine clearance operations, shall exhibit: - (i) Three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white; - (ii) Three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond; - (iii) When making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (b)(i) of this Rule; and - (iv) When at anchor, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraphs (b)(i) and (ii), the light, lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30). Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-at anchor; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel engaged in a towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24(a), exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED (c) A vessel engaged in a towing operation which severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule, exhibit the lights or shape prescribed in Rule 24 (§ 83.24).', '## Rule 30-CONTINUED - (d) A vessel aground shall exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) or (b) of this Rule and in addition, where they can best be seen: - (i) two all-round red lights in a vertical line; - (ii) three balls in a vertical line. - (e) A vessel of less than 7 meters in length, when at anchor, not in or near a narrow channel, fairway or anchorage, or where other vessels normally navigate, shall not be required to exhibit the lights or shape prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Rule. - (f) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length, when aground, shall not be required to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (d)(i) and (ii) of this Rule. Vessel aground. Same for Inland. ## Rule 30-CONTINUED - (d) A vessel aground shall exhibit the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) or (b) of this Rule and in addition, if practicable, where they can best be seen: - (i) Two all-round red lights in a vertical line; and - (ii) Three balls in a vertical line. - (e) A vessel of less than 7 meters in length, when at anchor, not in or near a narrow channel, fairway, anchorage, or where other vessels normally navigate, shall not be required to exhibit the lights or shape prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Rule. - (f) A vessel of less than 12 meters in length when aground shall not be required to exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraphs (d)(i) and (ii) of this Rule. - (g) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length, when at anchor in a special anchorage area designated by the Coast Guard ‡, shall not be required to exhibit the anchor lights and shapes required by this Rule.']",hard,answer,"At night, towing operations that severely restrict the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course are indicated by the following lights: 
 1. Three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white. 
 2. When making way through the water, the vessel shall also exhibit a masthead light or lights, sidelights, and a sternlight in addition to the lights mentioned above. 
-These requirements are in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24.",2,Towing vessel light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Towing operations that severely restrict maneuverability indicated by <span class=\""highlight\"">three all-round lights in a vertical line where best seen: two red and one white between them</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Also <span class=\""highlight\"">two all-round lights in a vertical line where best seen: upper light red and lower light white</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For towing vessel less than 50 meters: <span class=\""highlight\"">masthead lights, sidelights, sternlight, and towing light vertically above sternlight</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Objects being towed must also display appropriate lights depending on the length of tow and visibility conditions.""}]",,98
+These requirements are in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24.",2,Towing vessel light requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A power-driven vessel engaged in a towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24(a), exhibit <span class=\""highlight\"">the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall exhibit: <span class=\""highlight\"">(i) Three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">(ii) Three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">(iii) When making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed</span> in paragraph (b)(i) of this Rule;""}]",,98
 5156,What are the disqualifying levels for total fat in conventional foods?,"[""(Continued) | Conventional foods other than fish may not exceed the total fat disqualifying levels. For individual foods, the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp. The total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size for meal products and 19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products. | |----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Saturated fat content Dietary supplements must meet the criterion for low saturated fat with regard to the saturated fat content (≤ 1 g per RACC) but not with regard to the no more than 15 percent calories from saturated fat criterion. | | Fish may not exceed the saturated fat disqualifying level of 4.0 g per RACC (or 4.0 g per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). | | Conventional foods other than fish must meet the criteria for low saturated fat (≤ 1 g per RACC and no more than 15 percent of calories from saturated fat for individual foods, ≤ 1 g per 100 g and less than 10 percent calories from saturated fat for meal products and main dish products). There is an error in the enforcement discretion letters in the section of 'low saturated fat,' stating that meal products and main dishes meet all criteria specified for the 'low saturated fat' criteria (21 CFR 101.62(c)(2)). The CFR number should be (21 CFR 101.62(c)(3)). | | Cholesterol content Dietary supplements that weigh 5 g or less per RACC are exempt from the cholesterol disqualifying level (60 mg per 50 g), but those that exceed the cholesterol disqualifying level must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must meet the criterion for low cholesterol (≤ 20 mg per 50g). |"", ""## Definitions of Nutrient Content Claims continued | Nutrient | Free | Low | Reduced/Less | Comments | |-------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Cholesterol 21 CFR 101.62(d) | Less than 2 mg per RACC and per labeled serving (or for meals and main dishes, less than 2 mg per labeled serving) Contains no ingredient that contains cholesterol except as noted below (*) (d)(1) | 20 mg or less per RACC (and per 50 g of food if RACC is small) (d)(2) Meals and main dishes: 20 mg or less per 100 g (d)(3) | At least 25% less cholesterol per RACC than an appropriate reference food (or for meals and main dishes, at least 25% less cholesterol per 100 g) (d)(4) & (5)) Reference food may not be 'Low Cholesterol' | Cholesterol claims only allowed when food contains 2 g or less saturated fat per RACC; or for meals and main dish products, per labeled serving size for 'Free' claims or per 100 g for 'Low' and 'Reduced/Less' claims Must declare the amount of total fat next to cholesterol claim when fat exceeds 13 g per RACC and labeled serving (or per 50 g of food if RACC is small), or when the fat exceeds 19.5 g per labeled serving for main dishes or 26g for meal products For dietary supplements: cholesterol claims cannot be made for products that are 40 calories or less per serving |"", ""| | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------| | | | Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products. Sodium All conventional foods and dietary supplements must meet the sodium disqualifying level (≤ 480 mg per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp for individual foods, ≤ 960 mg per label serving size for meal products, ≤ 720 mg per label serving size for main dish products). The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement All conventional foods must meet the 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement (Vitamin A 500 IU, Vitamin C 6 mg, Iron 1.8 mg, Calcium 100 mg, Protein 5 g, Fiber 2.5 g per RACC), prior to any nutrient addition. The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement does not apply to dietary supplements (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)). | |""]",medium,answer,"The disqualifying levels for total fat in conventional foods are as follows:
 
 - For individual foods: 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp.
 - For meal products: 26.0 g per label serving size.
-- For main dish products: 19.5 g per label serving size.",3,Food fat content regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For individual foods: <span class=\""highlight\"">13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is \u2264 30 g or \u2264 2 tbsp</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For meal products: <span class=\""highlight\"">26.0 g per labeled serving</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For main dish products: <span class=\""highlight\"">19.5 g per labeled serving</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Whole or chopped nuts are exempt from total fat disqualifying level and low fat definition, but require disclosure statement.""}]",,99
-4004,How does jurisdiction work in certain areas?,"[""Castro-Huerta claims that the General Crimes Act does indeed make Indian country the jurisdictional equivalent of a federal enclave. Castro-Huerta is wrong as a matter of text and precedent. its terms, the Act is equivalent (i) The General Crimes Act does not preempt state authority to prosecute Castro-Huerta's crime. It provides that 'the general laws of the United States as to the punishment of offenses committed... within the sole and exclusive jurisdiction of the United States... shall extend to the Indian country.' 18 U. S. C. §1152. By simply 'extend[s]' the federal laws that apply on federal enclaves to Indian country. The Act does not say that Indian country to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes, that federal jurisdiction is exclusive in Indian country, or that state jurisdiction is preempted in Indian country. 327 U. S. 711, 714, that States lack jurisno such thing; the idea of territoPointing to the history of territorial separation and Congress's reenactment of the General Crimes Act after this Court suggested in dicta in Williams v. United States, diction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country, Castro-Huerta argues that Congress implicitly intended for the Act to provide the Federal Government with exclusive jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. But the text of the Act says rial separation has long since been abandoned; and the reenactment canon cannot be invoked to override clear statutory language of the kind present in the General Crimes Act. Castro-Huerta notes that the Court has repeated the Williams dicta on subsequent occasions, but even repeated dicta does not constitute precedent and does not alter the plain text of the General Crimes Act. Pp. 7-16. (ii) Castro-Huerta's attempt to invoke Public Law 280, 67 Stat. 588, is also unpersuasive. That law affirmatively grants certain States (and allows other States to acquire) broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. ## Syllabus"", ""Those holdings, too, contravene Castro-Huerta's argument regarding the General Crimes Act. grants the Federal Government exclusive jurisIn advancing his enclave argument, Castro-Huerta also tries to analogize the text of the General Crimes Act to the text of the Major Crimes Act. He asserts that the Major Crimes Act diction to prosecute certain major crimes committed by Indians in Indian country. But the Major Crimes Act contains substantially different language than the General Crimes Act. Unlike the General Crimes Act, the Major Crimes Act says that defendants in Indian country'shall be subject to the same law' as defendants in federal enclaves. See 18 U. S. C. §1153 ('Any Indian who commits against the person or property of another Indian or other person any of'certain major offenses'shall be subject to the same law and penalties as all other persons committing any of the above offenses, within the exclusive jurisdiction of the United States'). So even assuming that the text of the Major Crimes Act provides for exclusive federal jurisdiction over major crimes committed by Indians in Indian country, see, e.g., United States v. John, 437 U. S. 634, 651, and n. 22 (1978); Negonsott v. Samuels, 507 U. S. 99, 103 (1993), that conclusion does not translate to the differently worded General Crimes Act. In short, the General Crimes Act does not treat Indian ## Opinion of the Court country as the equivalent of a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. Nor does the Act make federal jurisdiction exclusive or preempt state law in Indian country. Second, Castro-Huerta contends that, regardless of the statutory text, Congress implicitly intended for the General Crimes Act to provide the Federal Government with exclusive jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country."", ""The Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdicHeld : tion to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Pp. 4-25. country. (a) The jurisdictional dispute in this case arises because Oklahoma's territory includes Indian country. In the early Republic, the Federal Government sometimes treated Indian country as separate from state territory. See Worcester v. Georgia, 6 Pet. 515. But that view has long since been abandoned. Organized Village of Kake v. Egan, 369 U. S. 60, 72. And the Court has specifically held that States have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against non-Indians in Indian United States v. McBratney, 104 U. S. 621; see ## Syllabus also Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 244-247. Accordingly, States have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country unless preempted. Pp. 4-6. on tribal self-government. Neither serves to preempt (b) Under Court precedent, a State's jurisdiction in Indian country may be preempted by federal law under ordinary principles of federal preemption, or when the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe state jurisdiction in this case. Pp. 6-20. (1) Castro-Huerta points to two federal laws-the General Crimes Act and Public Law 280-that, in his view, preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Neither statute, however, preempts the State's jurisdiction. Pp. 7-18. Castro-Huerta claims that the General Crimes Act does indeed make Indian country the jurisdictional equivalent of a federal enclave. Castro-Huerta is wrong as a matter of text and precedent."", ""Ibid. United States.' Those cross-referenced The Act also specifies the body of federal criminal law that extends to Indian country-namely, 'the general laws of the United States as to the punishment of offenses committed in any place within the sole and exclusive jurisdiction of the Ibid. 'general laws' are the federal laws that apply in federal enclaves such as military bases and national parks. Ibid. Nor does the Act say that fedImportantly, however, the General Crimes Act does not say that Indian country is equivalent to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. eral jurisdiction is exclusive in Indian country, or that state jurisdiction is preempted in Indian country. Under the General Crimes Act, therefore, both the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country. 2 The General Crimes Act does not preempt state authority to prosecute Castro-Huerta's crime. To overcome the text, Castro-Huerta offers several counterarguments. None is persuasive. ------ Opinion of the Court makes Indian country the jurisdictional equivFirst, Castro-Huerta advances what he describes as a textual argument. He contends that the text of the General Crimes Act alent of a federal enclave. To begin, he points out that the Federal Government has exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in federal enclaves such as military bases and national parks. And then Castro-Huerta asserts that the General Crimes Act in effect equates federal enclaves and Indian country. Therefore, according to Castro-Huerta, it follows that the Federal Government also has exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country. Castro-Huerta's syllogism is wrong as a textual matter. The Act simply borrows the body of federal criminal law that applies in federal enclaves and extends it to Indian country. The Act does not purport to equate Indian country and federal enclaves for jurisdictional purposes. Moreover, it is not enough to speculate, as Castro-Huerta does, that Congress might have implicitly intended a jurisdictional parallel between Indian country and federal enclaves.""]",medium,answer,"Jurisdiction in certain areas, specifically Indian country, operates under concurrent jurisdiction between the Federal Government and the State. The General Crimes Act extends federal laws applicable in federal enclaves to Indian country but does not equate Indian country to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. This means that both federal and state authorities can prosecute crimes committed in Indian country, unless preempted by specific federal laws. The Act does not make federal jurisdiction exclusive or preempt state law in Indian country. Therefore, states retain jurisdiction to prosecute crimes unless explicitly preempted by federal law.",4,Indian country jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In Indian country, <span class=\""highlight\"">concurrent jurisdiction exists between Federal Government and State</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The General Crimes Act <span class=\""highlight\"">extends federal laws applicable in federal enclaves to Indian country, but with exceptions for crimes by one Indian against another and crimes already punished under tribal law</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Public Law 280 permitted <span class=\""highlight\"">certain states to assume criminal jurisdiction over Indian country, while other states must secure tribal consent before assuming jurisdiction</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The historical view held that states had no jurisdiction in Indian country absent specific congressional authorization, which the current Court has reconsidered.""}]",,100
+- For main dish products: 19.5 g per label serving size.",3,Food fat content regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Conventional foods other than fish may not exceed the total fat disqualifying levels. For individual foods, <span class=\""highlight\"">the total fat disqualifying level is 13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is \u2264 30 g or \u2264 2 tbsp</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The total fat disqualifying level is 26.0 g per label serving size for meal products</span> and 19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The total fat disqualifying level is <span class=\""highlight\"">19.5 g per label serving size for main dish products</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Dietary supplements must meet different criteria, with specific requirements for supplements weighing 5 g or less per RACC versus those weighing more.""}]",,99
+4004,How does jurisdiction work in certain areas?,"[""Castro-Huerta claims that the General Crimes Act does indeed make Indian country the jurisdictional equivalent of a federal enclave. Castro-Huerta is wrong as a matter of text and precedent. its terms, the Act is equivalent (i) The General Crimes Act does not preempt state authority to prosecute Castro-Huerta's crime. It provides that 'the general laws of the United States as to the punishment of offenses committed... within the sole and exclusive jurisdiction of the United States... shall extend to the Indian country.' 18 U. S. C. §1152. By simply 'extend[s]' the federal laws that apply on federal enclaves to Indian country. The Act does not say that Indian country to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes, that federal jurisdiction is exclusive in Indian country, or that state jurisdiction is preempted in Indian country. 327 U. S. 711, 714, that States lack jurisno such thing; the idea of territoPointing to the history of territorial separation and Congress's reenactment of the General Crimes Act after this Court suggested in dicta in Williams v. United States, diction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country, Castro-Huerta argues that Congress implicitly intended for the Act to provide the Federal Government with exclusive jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. But the text of the Act says rial separation has long since been abandoned; and the reenactment canon cannot be invoked to override clear statutory language of the kind present in the General Crimes Act. Castro-Huerta notes that the Court has repeated the Williams dicta on subsequent occasions, but even repeated dicta does not constitute precedent and does not alter the plain text of the General Crimes Act. Pp. 7-16. (ii) Castro-Huerta's attempt to invoke Public Law 280, 67 Stat. 588, is also unpersuasive. That law affirmatively grants certain States (and allows other States to acquire) broad jurisdiction to prosecute state-law offenses committed by or against Indians in Indian country. ## Syllabus"", ""Those holdings, too, contravene Castro-Huerta's argument regarding the General Crimes Act. grants the Federal Government exclusive jurisIn advancing his enclave argument, Castro-Huerta also tries to analogize the text of the General Crimes Act to the text of the Major Crimes Act. He asserts that the Major Crimes Act diction to prosecute certain major crimes committed by Indians in Indian country. But the Major Crimes Act contains substantially different language than the General Crimes Act. Unlike the General Crimes Act, the Major Crimes Act says that defendants in Indian country'shall be subject to the same law' as defendants in federal enclaves. See 18 U. S. C. §1153 ('Any Indian who commits against the person or property of another Indian or other person any of'certain major offenses'shall be subject to the same law and penalties as all other persons committing any of the above offenses, within the exclusive jurisdiction of the United States'). So even assuming that the text of the Major Crimes Act provides for exclusive federal jurisdiction over major crimes committed by Indians in Indian country, see, e.g., United States v. John, 437 U. S. 634, 651, and n. 22 (1978); Negonsott v. Samuels, 507 U. S. 99, 103 (1993), that conclusion does not translate to the differently worded General Crimes Act. In short, the General Crimes Act does not treat Indian ## Opinion of the Court country as the equivalent of a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. Nor does the Act make federal jurisdiction exclusive or preempt state law in Indian country. Second, Castro-Huerta contends that, regardless of the statutory text, Congress implicitly intended for the General Crimes Act to provide the Federal Government with exclusive jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country."", ""The Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdicHeld : tion to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Pp. 4-25. country. (a) The jurisdictional dispute in this case arises because Oklahoma's territory includes Indian country. In the early Republic, the Federal Government sometimes treated Indian country as separate from state territory. See Worcester v. Georgia, 6 Pet. 515. But that view has long since been abandoned. Organized Village of Kake v. Egan, 369 U. S. 60, 72. And the Court has specifically held that States have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against non-Indians in Indian United States v. McBratney, 104 U. S. 621; see ## Syllabus also Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 244-247. Accordingly, States have jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country unless preempted. Pp. 4-6. on tribal self-government. Neither serves to preempt (b) Under Court precedent, a State's jurisdiction in Indian country may be preempted by federal law under ordinary principles of federal preemption, or when the exercise of state jurisdiction would unlawfully infringe state jurisdiction in this case. Pp. 6-20. (1) Castro-Huerta points to two federal laws-the General Crimes Act and Public Law 280-that, in his view, preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Neither statute, however, preempts the State's jurisdiction. Pp. 7-18. Castro-Huerta claims that the General Crimes Act does indeed make Indian country the jurisdictional equivalent of a federal enclave. Castro-Huerta is wrong as a matter of text and precedent."", ""Ibid. United States.' Those cross-referenced The Act also specifies the body of federal criminal law that extends to Indian country-namely, 'the general laws of the United States as to the punishment of offenses committed in any place within the sole and exclusive jurisdiction of the Ibid. 'general laws' are the federal laws that apply in federal enclaves such as military bases and national parks. Ibid. Nor does the Act say that fedImportantly, however, the General Crimes Act does not say that Indian country is equivalent to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. eral jurisdiction is exclusive in Indian country, or that state jurisdiction is preempted in Indian country. Under the General Crimes Act, therefore, both the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country. 2 The General Crimes Act does not preempt state authority to prosecute Castro-Huerta's crime. To overcome the text, Castro-Huerta offers several counterarguments. None is persuasive. ------ Opinion of the Court makes Indian country the jurisdictional equivFirst, Castro-Huerta advances what he describes as a textual argument. He contends that the text of the General Crimes Act alent of a federal enclave. To begin, he points out that the Federal Government has exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in federal enclaves such as military bases and national parks. And then Castro-Huerta asserts that the General Crimes Act in effect equates federal enclaves and Indian country. Therefore, according to Castro-Huerta, it follows that the Federal Government also has exclusive jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country. Castro-Huerta's syllogism is wrong as a textual matter. The Act simply borrows the body of federal criminal law that applies in federal enclaves and extends it to Indian country. The Act does not purport to equate Indian country and federal enclaves for jurisdictional purposes. Moreover, it is not enough to speculate, as Castro-Huerta does, that Congress might have implicitly intended a jurisdictional parallel between Indian country and federal enclaves.""]",medium,answer,"Jurisdiction in certain areas, specifically Indian country, operates under concurrent jurisdiction between the Federal Government and the State. The General Crimes Act extends federal laws applicable in federal enclaves to Indian country but does not equate Indian country to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes. This means that both federal and state authorities can prosecute crimes committed in Indian country, unless preempted by specific federal laws. The Act does not make federal jurisdiction exclusive or preempt state law in Indian country. Therefore, states retain jurisdiction to prosecute crimes unless explicitly preempted by federal law.",4,Indian country jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Federal Government and the State have <span class=\""highlight\"">concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The General Crimes Act <span class=\""highlight\"">provides that 'the general laws of the United States as to the punishment of offenses committed... within the sole and exclusive jurisdiction of the United States... shall extend to the Indian country.'</span> 18 U.S.C. \u00a71152.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Act simply <span class=\""highlight\"">'extend[s]' the federal laws that apply on federal enclaves to Indian country</span>. The Act does not say that Indian country is equivalent to a federal enclave for jurisdictional purposes, that federal jurisdiction is exclusive in Indian country, or that state jurisdiction is preempted in Indian country.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Under the General Crimes Act, therefore, <span class=\""highlight\"">both the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Castro-Huerta claims that the General Crimes Act makes Indian country the jurisdictional equivalent of a federal enclave, but this is incorrect as a matter of text and precedent.""}]",,100
 2828,Explain the requirements for a nonresident adjuster to designate a state as their home state.,"[""The states also were not allowed to collect fingerprints from nonresident applicants. Section 8(C) of Model #218 makes it clear that a licensed nonresident producer who changes residency is not required to surrender the license and submit a new application. All that is required is a change of address within 30 days of the change of legal residence. The model provides that a state should not charge a fee for processing this change of address. The reciprocity provisions of Model #218 also extend to surplus lines producers. A majority of the states treat surplus lines as a distinct license type. Persons holding surplus lines producer licenses in their home states shall receive nonresident surplus lines producer licenses, unless some other reason for disqualification exists. A producer holding a limited line of insurance is eligible for a nonresident limited lines producer license for the same scope of authority, as granted under the license issued by the producer's home state. The nonresident state may require only what is permitted under Section 8 of Model #218 for limited lines applicants. A limited line is any authority that restricts the authority of the licensee to less than the total authority prescribed in the associated major line. ## Continuing Education Requirements Pursuant to Model #218, a nonresident state must accept the producer's proof of the completion of the home state's CE requirements as satisfaction of the nonresident state's CE requirements if the nonresident producer's home state 7 S recognizes the satisfaction of its CE requirements imposed upon producers from the nonresident state on the same basis. ## Limitations on Nonresidents The states had to eliminate licensing restrictions that required a nonresident producer to maintain a residence or office in the nonresident state so long as the nonresident's license was from one of the U.S., Washington, DC or the U.S. territories. The National Association of Registered Agents and Brokers (NARAB) Working Group stated that it was not a violation of GLBA reciprocity requirements if a state required nonresidents to provide proof of citizenship; however, under the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS), it is the responsibility of the resident state to verify an applicant's citizenship status."", ""For states implementing a new regulatory scheme for adjusters, it is common practice to waive the initial exam for applicants with appropriate credentials and experience. ## Fitness and Character Considerations Like insurance producers, many states also evaluate an applicant's fitness, character and trustworthiness to engage in this aspect of the insurance business. State insurance regulators typically consider: - 1. Criminal history. - 2. Administrative actions taken by other state insurance regulators. - 3. Civil judgments that may shed light on an applicant's character or fiscal integrity. In some states, an adjuster must apply for a license by line of insurance, or line of authority (LOA), similar to the manner in which producers are licensed. Other states require adjuster licenses by categories such as motor vehicle physical damage, workers' compensation or crop. States are encouraged to implement a fingerprint requirement for public and independent adjusters similar to what is required of producers. Additionally, if a state permits a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state, fingerprinting of that nonresident should be required. States are encouraged to adopt the Authorization for Criminal History Record Check Model Act (#222) when evaluating and considering whether an applicant or licensee has met the character and trustworthiness requirements to obtain, maintain or renew a license. ## Reciprocity In almost every jurisdiction where licensure is required, it is the 'home state' insurance regulator who assesses the qualifications of his or her resident adjusters. Based upon securing a license in one's home state, many states will grant a comparable or similar nonresident license to such an individual. This is not the case in all states, and varying LOAs, qualification standards and license types have created barriers to nonresident licensure. In addition, an adjuster based in a state that does not license adjusters may be required to take exams in multiple states. ## The New NAIC Public Adjuster Model Act (# 228) defines home state as :"", ""## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - \uf0b7 Adopt Model #228. - \uf0b7 Adopt Guideline #1224. - \uf0b7 Use the NAIC uniform applications and develop a mechanism for electronic submission and electronic bulk submissions. - \uf0b7 Use the definition of 'home state' as defined in Model #228 as the basis of reciprocity. - \uf0b7 Provide resident and nonresident adjuster licensing requirements on forms, websites, and the State Producer Licensing Database (SPLD). - \uf0b7 Allow electronic payment for residents and nonresidents for authorized submitters, as well as individual adjusters. - \uf0b7 Post applications and license status information on websites and the SPLD - \uf0b7 Eliminate perpetual licenses, eliminate the word 'perpetual' from issued licenses, and adopt a biennial renewal process tied to the uniformity standards. - \uf0b7 Adopt the Independent Adjuster Reciprocity Best Practices Guidelines paper. - \uf0b7 Use the definition of 'home state' as defined in Guideline #1224. - \uf0b7 Participate in the NIPR ADHS application. - \uf0b7 Participate in the NAIC Personalized Information Capture System (PICS) to receive alerts or monitor actions against existing licensees. - \uf0b7 Use the Attachments Warehouse/Reporting of Action (ROA) system to receive electronic notifications to alert a state when an adjuster has added information into the Attachments Warehouse since their initial entry regarding administrative, criminal or civil actions. For nonresidents that designate your state as the 'home state,' a nonresident license should be issued. - \uf0b7 For nonresidents that designate your state as the 'home state,' develop internal data fields that will allow the tracking of CE compliance. - \uf0b7 Include a provision in law that prohibits simultaneous licensure as both an independent adjuster and a public adjuster.""]",medium,answer,"According to the provided context, for a nonresident adjuster to designate a state as their home state, the following requirements and practices are recommended:
 
 1. **Fingerprinting Requirement**: If a state permits a nonresident adjuster to designate it as their home state, fingerprinting of that nonresident should be required, similar to the requirements for producers.
@@ -341,9 +341,9 @@ These requirements are in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24
 
 5. **Electronic Systems Participation**: States should participate in systems like the NIPR ADHS application and the NAIC Personalized Information Capture System (PICS) to monitor and manage nonresident adjusters who designate the state as their home state.
 
-6. **Prohibition on Dual Licensure**: The state should include a provision in law that prohibits simultaneous licensure as both an independent adjuster and a public adjuster.",3,Nonresident adjuster home state,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a state permits a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state, <span class=\""highlight\"">fingerprinting of that nonresident should be required</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For nonresidents that designate your state as the &#x27;home state,&#x27; <span class=\""highlight\"">develop internal data fields that will allow the tracking of CE compliance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For nonresidents that designate your state as the &#x27;home state,&#x27; <span class=\""highlight\"">a nonresident license should be issued</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States are encouraged to adopt the Authorization for Criminal History Record Check Model Act (#222) when evaluating character and trustworthiness requirements.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Use the definition of &#x27;home state&#x27; as defined in Model #228 or Guideline #1224 as the basis of reciprocity.""}]",,101
-2829,How many states have continuing education requirements for resident adjusters?,"[""The ADHS is the state in which the adjuster does not maintain his, her or its principal place of residence or business, and the adjuster qualifies for the license as if the person were a resident. A state whose laws permit a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state will require the nonresident to qualify as if the person were a resident-exam requirements; fingerprinting, if required; and continuing education (CE). Once the individual has met the qualifications, the Designated Home State (DHS) will issue a nonresident license. The Producer Database (PDB) and DHS will list the record as nonresident DHS. If the resident state of the adjuster does not require an adjuster license, adjusters cannot use the National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) ADHS module unless they declare another state to be the home state. NIPR has recently added a new Nonresident Adjuster Licensing (NRAL) application that allows an individual to designate a state other than the resident state as the home state. NIPR contains functionality to allow adjusters that have designated another state as the home state to renew online. Adjusters with any license can update contact information through the NIPR Contact Change Request (CCR) tool. ## Continuing Education Approximately 18 states have CE requirements for their resident adjusters. Reciprocity exists among a majority of these states, but not all, in part as a result of the inconsistency among LOAs granted within each state's adjuster licensing scheme. It also becomes problematic when the resident adjuster's home state does not have any CE requirements. Model #228 and Guideline #1224 contain a CE requirement that the home state shall require 24 hours of CE every two years, with three of the 24 hours covering ethics. It is recommended that a state accept an adjuster's satisfaction of its home state's CE requirements as satisfying that state's CE requirements, provided that the home state recognizes CE satisfaction on a reciprocal basis. For a state that permits a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state, the home state will require and track CE compliance for that adjuster. ## Emergency/Catastrophic Adjusters"", ""The states also were not allowed to collect fingerprints from nonresident applicants. Section 8(C) of Model #218 makes it clear that a licensed nonresident producer who changes residency is not required to surrender the license and submit a new application. All that is required is a change of address within 30 days of the change of legal residence. The model provides that a state should not charge a fee for processing this change of address. The reciprocity provisions of Model #218 also extend to surplus lines producers. A majority of the states treat surplus lines as a distinct license type. Persons holding surplus lines producer licenses in their home states shall receive nonresident surplus lines producer licenses, unless some other reason for disqualification exists. A producer holding a limited line of insurance is eligible for a nonresident limited lines producer license for the same scope of authority, as granted under the license issued by the producer's home state. The nonresident state may require only what is permitted under Section 8 of Model #218 for limited lines applicants. A limited line is any authority that restricts the authority of the licensee to less than the total authority prescribed in the associated major line. ## Continuing Education Requirements Pursuant to Model #218, a nonresident state must accept the producer's proof of the completion of the home state's CE requirements as satisfaction of the nonresident state's CE requirements if the nonresident producer's home state 7 S recognizes the satisfaction of its CE requirements imposed upon producers from the nonresident state on the same basis. ## Limitations on Nonresidents The states had to eliminate licensing restrictions that required a nonresident producer to maintain a residence or office in the nonresident state so long as the nonresident's license was from one of the U.S., Washington, DC or the U.S. territories. The National Association of Registered Agents and Brokers (NARAB) Working Group stated that it was not a violation of GLBA reciprocity requirements if a state required nonresidents to provide proof of citizenship; however, under the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS), it is the responsibility of the resident state to verify an applicant's citizenship status.""]",easy,answer,Approximately 18 states have continuing education requirements for their resident adjusters.,2,Adjuster continuing education,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Approximately 18 states have CE requirements for their resident adjusters</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Reciprocity exists among a majority of these states, but not all, due to inconsistency among LOAs granted within each state&#x27;s adjuster licensing scheme.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Model #228 and Guideline #1224 contain a CE requirement that the home state shall require 24 hours of CE every two years, with three of the 24 hours covering ethics.""}]",,102
-5235,What's needed before accepting an application?,"[""## Section 18: Compensation Disclosure - · In any instance, when a producer will receive compensation from a customer for placing an insurance policy and will also receive compensation from an insurer for that placement, prior to placing that policy, the producer is required to disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation the producer will receive if the customer makes an insurance purchase. ## Section 19: Regulations - · The insurance commissioner may promulgate reasonable regulations to carry out the purposes of Model #218. Section 20: Severability Section 21: Effective Date ## Frequently Asked Questions The Working Group has created several documents that answer frequently asked questions (FAQ) about reciprocity, uniformity, and how to administer Model #218. The current version of the FAQ, as of the publication date, appears below. The latest version of these documents can be found on the Working Group's web page on the NAIC website. ## Model #218 Implementation - FAQ This document has been prepared by the Working Group for informational purposes only. The following questions and answers are based upon the language of Model #218. This document is not intended as legislative history or to replace a state insurance department's independent review and analysis of these questions. The contents of this document should not be interpreted as representing the views or opinions of the NAIC or of any individual NAIC member or state insurance department. Question 1: Is Section 14 of Model #218 regarding appointments, which is labeled 'optional,' intended to be optional for adoption by a state that requires insurer appointments of producers? Answer 1: No. If a state requires appointments, it should adopt Section 14. It was labeled 'optional' only to accommodate those states that do not require appointments (e.g., Colorado). Question 2: Model #218 Section 14B starts a clock of 15 days for insurer compliance by providing, 'the appointing insurer shall file... within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted'(emphasis added). When is an application deemed'submitted?'"", ""or 2) policyholder principally resides? Answer 16: In those states that have adopted Model #218, licensure should be based upon where a producer'sells, solicits or negotiates' insurance, as specifically stated in Model #218. In traditional insurance sales transactions, licensure should be determined solely by this Model #218 standard without reference to the state of residence of the insured. Application of the'sells, solicits or negotiates' standard where an insurance transaction takes place purely by electronic or telephonic means is more complex. In such transactions, application of the Model #218 licensure standard should turn on the state of residence of the customer. Question 17: Section 14B of Model #218 states: 'To appoint a producer as its agent, the appointing insurer shall file, in a format approved by the insurance commissioner, a notice of appointment within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted.' In a situation in which a producer is not currently appointed by an insurer, but was previously appointed by and submitted an application to that insurer, must that producer now obtain a new appointment before submitting a new application to that insurer because it would not be the first application the producer ever submitted to that insurer? Answer 17: No. Section 14B of Model #218 requires appointment within 15 days of the date an insurer receives the first application submitted by a producer who is not currently appointed, even if that producer was previously appointed by that insurer and submitted business in the past. Reference to the agency contract or the first application is based on the current time period. If a producer's prior appointment with the insurer was terminated, each jurisdiction would consider the time period to start again with the new contract execution or the time period when the agent submits his first insurance application following the prior termination. ## Chapter 3 ## Uniform Licensing Standards"", ""The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), as modified in 2015, prohibits any state other than a producer's home state from imposing any appointment requirements upon a member of the National Association of Registered Agents and Brokers (NARAB). In 2002, the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group adopted a uniform appointment process. The full text is included in the Appendices and is available on the Working Group's web page. This process is referred to in the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). The key elements include: - 1. States should allow the electronic filing of appointments and appointment terminations. Paper filings are discouraged. - 2. States should establish a billing system for payment by insurers of initial appointments. - 3. States shall allow insurers to select the effective date of the initial appointment. - 4. States shall require insurers to follow a prescribed timeline to file appointments. - 5. States shall require only one appointment or termination form or transaction per producer per company. At this writing, appointments by company group are not available. - 6. States shall require insurance companies to submit terminations to the insurance department in accordance with the requirements of Section 15 of Model #218. - 7. States shall require that, if a producer is terminated for cause, the insurer must submit supporting documentation. Any information received by the insurance department must remain confidential in accordance with Section 15 of Model #218. In states that renew appointments, the key elements include: - 1. States shall provide or publish a pre-renewal notice to insurers informing them that appointment renewals are imminent. - 2. At the time for renewal, a state will deliver an invoice. The invoice may not be altered, amended, or used for appointing or terminating producers. - 3. Insurers shall return the invoice and the payment to the department or its designee. - 4. States shall establish a dispute resolution process to accommodate errors after the fact. ## Appointment Terminations"", ""## Appointment Terminations Section 15 of Model #218 imposes a requirement on insurers to report terminations of producer appointments. Section 15 requires that the insurer report a termination within 30 days of its occurrence. If a termination is for any of the reasons listed in Section 12, License Denial, Non-Renewal or Revocation of Model #218, insurers are required to submit a detailed report to the state and a copy of the report to the producer. Section 15(E) grants immunity from civil liability for good-faith reporting to insurers and state insurance regulators. Reports filed under Section 15 are considered confidential. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Automatically terminate appointments if a license goes inactive for any reason. - · Eliminate fees for appointment terminations and instead assess all charges at the time of an appointment. This will eliminate delays in cancellations. - · Do not require an appointment as a condition of licensure. Model #218 and the ULS provide that a producer can hold a license without holding an active appointment. - · Require only one appointment or termination form or transaction for each company for each producer per state. - · Sub-appointments and Business Entity appointments are discouraged. - · Immediately accept terminations for cause and refer them for investigation. States should follow the procedures as outlined in Model #218. No advance notice should be required to the producer or the state insurance department. - · Use electronic filing for appointments, terminations and renewals, to the extent possible, to eliminate delays and increase efficiency. ## Chapter 12 ## Business Entities Prior to the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), most states used the term 'insurance agency' to refer to the business structure used by insurance producers. Under Model #218, the term 'business entity' (BE) is used. This term is intended to cover a broad range of legal business operating structures. BEs are considered to be producers under Model #218. Section 2(A) of Model #218 defines a BE as a corporation, association, partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or other legal entity.""]",hard,answer,"Before accepting an application, the producer is required to disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation the producer will receive if the customer makes an insurance purchase, as per Section 18 of Model #218. Additionally, if the producer is not currently appointed by the insurer, the insurer must file a notice of appointment within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted, as outlined in Section 14B of Model #218.",4,Insurance producer disclosure requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When producer will receive compensation from both customer and insurer, <span class=\""highlight\"">prior to placing the policy, producer must disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For insurer appointment, <span class=\""highlight\"">appointing insurer shall file notice of appointment within 15 days from agency contract execution or first insurance application submission</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The invoice may not be altered, amended, or used for appointing or terminating producers.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Reference to the agency contract or the first application is based on the current time period.""}]",,103
+6. **Prohibition on Dual Licensure**: The state should include a provision in law that prohibits simultaneous licensure as both an independent adjuster and a public adjuster.",3,Nonresident adjuster home state,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a state permits a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state, <span class=\""highlight\"">fingerprinting of that nonresident should be required</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States are encouraged to <span class=\""highlight\"">adopt the Authorization for Criminal History Record Check Model Act (#222)</span> when evaluating and considering whether an applicant or licensee has met the character and trustworthiness requirements to obtain, maintain or renew a license.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States are encouraged to <span class=\""highlight\"">use the definition of 'home state' as defined in Model #228 or Guideline #1224 as the basis of reciprocity</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For nonresidents that designate your state as the 'home state,' <span class=\""highlight\"">develop internal data fields that will allow the tracking of CE compliance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Include a provision in law that prohibits simultaneous licensure as both an independent adjuster and a public adjuster</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Participate in the NIPR ADHS application and the NAIC Personalized Information Capture System (PICS) to receive alerts or monitor actions against existing licensees</span>.""}]",,101
+2829,How many states have continuing education requirements for resident adjusters?,"[""The ADHS is the state in which the adjuster does not maintain his, her or its principal place of residence or business, and the adjuster qualifies for the license as if the person were a resident. A state whose laws permit a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state will require the nonresident to qualify as if the person were a resident-exam requirements; fingerprinting, if required; and continuing education (CE). Once the individual has met the qualifications, the Designated Home State (DHS) will issue a nonresident license. The Producer Database (PDB) and DHS will list the record as nonresident DHS. If the resident state of the adjuster does not require an adjuster license, adjusters cannot use the National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR) ADHS module unless they declare another state to be the home state. NIPR has recently added a new Nonresident Adjuster Licensing (NRAL) application that allows an individual to designate a state other than the resident state as the home state. NIPR contains functionality to allow adjusters that have designated another state as the home state to renew online. Adjusters with any license can update contact information through the NIPR Contact Change Request (CCR) tool. ## Continuing Education Approximately 18 states have CE requirements for their resident adjusters. Reciprocity exists among a majority of these states, but not all, in part as a result of the inconsistency among LOAs granted within each state's adjuster licensing scheme. It also becomes problematic when the resident adjuster's home state does not have any CE requirements. Model #228 and Guideline #1224 contain a CE requirement that the home state shall require 24 hours of CE every two years, with three of the 24 hours covering ethics. It is recommended that a state accept an adjuster's satisfaction of its home state's CE requirements as satisfying that state's CE requirements, provided that the home state recognizes CE satisfaction on a reciprocal basis. For a state that permits a nonresident adjuster to designate that state as its home state, the home state will require and track CE compliance for that adjuster. ## Emergency/Catastrophic Adjusters"", ""The states also were not allowed to collect fingerprints from nonresident applicants. Section 8(C) of Model #218 makes it clear that a licensed nonresident producer who changes residency is not required to surrender the license and submit a new application. All that is required is a change of address within 30 days of the change of legal residence. The model provides that a state should not charge a fee for processing this change of address. The reciprocity provisions of Model #218 also extend to surplus lines producers. A majority of the states treat surplus lines as a distinct license type. Persons holding surplus lines producer licenses in their home states shall receive nonresident surplus lines producer licenses, unless some other reason for disqualification exists. A producer holding a limited line of insurance is eligible for a nonresident limited lines producer license for the same scope of authority, as granted under the license issued by the producer's home state. The nonresident state may require only what is permitted under Section 8 of Model #218 for limited lines applicants. A limited line is any authority that restricts the authority of the licensee to less than the total authority prescribed in the associated major line. ## Continuing Education Requirements Pursuant to Model #218, a nonresident state must accept the producer's proof of the completion of the home state's CE requirements as satisfaction of the nonresident state's CE requirements if the nonresident producer's home state 7 S recognizes the satisfaction of its CE requirements imposed upon producers from the nonresident state on the same basis. ## Limitations on Nonresidents The states had to eliminate licensing restrictions that required a nonresident producer to maintain a residence or office in the nonresident state so long as the nonresident's license was from one of the U.S., Washington, DC or the U.S. territories. The National Association of Registered Agents and Brokers (NARAB) Working Group stated that it was not a violation of GLBA reciprocity requirements if a state required nonresidents to provide proof of citizenship; however, under the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS), it is the responsibility of the resident state to verify an applicant's citizenship status.""]",easy,answer,Approximately 18 states have continuing education requirements for their resident adjusters.,2,Adjuster continuing education,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Approximately 18 states have CE requirements for their resident adjusters</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Reciprocity exists among a majority of these states, but not all, in part as a result of the inconsistency among LOAs granted within each state's adjuster licensing scheme.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Model #228 and Guideline #1224 contain a CE requirement that the home state shall require 24 hours of CE every two years, with three of the 24 hours covering ethics.""}]",,102
+5235,What's needed before accepting an application?,"[""## Section 18: Compensation Disclosure - · In any instance, when a producer will receive compensation from a customer for placing an insurance policy and will also receive compensation from an insurer for that placement, prior to placing that policy, the producer is required to disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation the producer will receive if the customer makes an insurance purchase. ## Section 19: Regulations - · The insurance commissioner may promulgate reasonable regulations to carry out the purposes of Model #218. Section 20: Severability Section 21: Effective Date ## Frequently Asked Questions The Working Group has created several documents that answer frequently asked questions (FAQ) about reciprocity, uniformity, and how to administer Model #218. The current version of the FAQ, as of the publication date, appears below. The latest version of these documents can be found on the Working Group's web page on the NAIC website. ## Model #218 Implementation - FAQ This document has been prepared by the Working Group for informational purposes only. The following questions and answers are based upon the language of Model #218. This document is not intended as legislative history or to replace a state insurance department's independent review and analysis of these questions. The contents of this document should not be interpreted as representing the views or opinions of the NAIC or of any individual NAIC member or state insurance department. Question 1: Is Section 14 of Model #218 regarding appointments, which is labeled 'optional,' intended to be optional for adoption by a state that requires insurer appointments of producers? Answer 1: No. If a state requires appointments, it should adopt Section 14. It was labeled 'optional' only to accommodate those states that do not require appointments (e.g., Colorado). Question 2: Model #218 Section 14B starts a clock of 15 days for insurer compliance by providing, 'the appointing insurer shall file... within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted'(emphasis added). When is an application deemed'submitted?'"", ""or 2) policyholder principally resides? Answer 16: In those states that have adopted Model #218, licensure should be based upon where a producer'sells, solicits or negotiates' insurance, as specifically stated in Model #218. In traditional insurance sales transactions, licensure should be determined solely by this Model #218 standard without reference to the state of residence of the insured. Application of the'sells, solicits or negotiates' standard where an insurance transaction takes place purely by electronic or telephonic means is more complex. In such transactions, application of the Model #218 licensure standard should turn on the state of residence of the customer. Question 17: Section 14B of Model #218 states: 'To appoint a producer as its agent, the appointing insurer shall file, in a format approved by the insurance commissioner, a notice of appointment within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted.' In a situation in which a producer is not currently appointed by an insurer, but was previously appointed by and submitted an application to that insurer, must that producer now obtain a new appointment before submitting a new application to that insurer because it would not be the first application the producer ever submitted to that insurer? Answer 17: No. Section 14B of Model #218 requires appointment within 15 days of the date an insurer receives the first application submitted by a producer who is not currently appointed, even if that producer was previously appointed by that insurer and submitted business in the past. Reference to the agency contract or the first application is based on the current time period. If a producer's prior appointment with the insurer was terminated, each jurisdiction would consider the time period to start again with the new contract execution or the time period when the agent submits his first insurance application following the prior termination. ## Chapter 3 ## Uniform Licensing Standards"", ""The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), as modified in 2015, prohibits any state other than a producer's home state from imposing any appointment requirements upon a member of the National Association of Registered Agents and Brokers (NARAB). In 2002, the Producer Licensing (EX) Working Group adopted a uniform appointment process. The full text is included in the Appendices and is available on the Working Group's web page. This process is referred to in the Uniform Licensing Standards (ULS). The key elements include: - 1. States should allow the electronic filing of appointments and appointment terminations. Paper filings are discouraged. - 2. States should establish a billing system for payment by insurers of initial appointments. - 3. States shall allow insurers to select the effective date of the initial appointment. - 4. States shall require insurers to follow a prescribed timeline to file appointments. - 5. States shall require only one appointment or termination form or transaction per producer per company. At this writing, appointments by company group are not available. - 6. States shall require insurance companies to submit terminations to the insurance department in accordance with the requirements of Section 15 of Model #218. - 7. States shall require that, if a producer is terminated for cause, the insurer must submit supporting documentation. Any information received by the insurance department must remain confidential in accordance with Section 15 of Model #218. In states that renew appointments, the key elements include: - 1. States shall provide or publish a pre-renewal notice to insurers informing them that appointment renewals are imminent. - 2. At the time for renewal, a state will deliver an invoice. The invoice may not be altered, amended, or used for appointing or terminating producers. - 3. Insurers shall return the invoice and the payment to the department or its designee. - 4. States shall establish a dispute resolution process to accommodate errors after the fact. ## Appointment Terminations"", ""## Appointment Terminations Section 15 of Model #218 imposes a requirement on insurers to report terminations of producer appointments. Section 15 requires that the insurer report a termination within 30 days of its occurrence. If a termination is for any of the reasons listed in Section 12, License Denial, Non-Renewal or Revocation of Model #218, insurers are required to submit a detailed report to the state and a copy of the report to the producer. Section 15(E) grants immunity from civil liability for good-faith reporting to insurers and state insurance regulators. Reports filed under Section 15 are considered confidential. ## Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · Automatically terminate appointments if a license goes inactive for any reason. - · Eliminate fees for appointment terminations and instead assess all charges at the time of an appointment. This will eliminate delays in cancellations. - · Do not require an appointment as a condition of licensure. Model #218 and the ULS provide that a producer can hold a license without holding an active appointment. - · Require only one appointment or termination form or transaction for each company for each producer per state. - · Sub-appointments and Business Entity appointments are discouraged. - · Immediately accept terminations for cause and refer them for investigation. States should follow the procedures as outlined in Model #218. No advance notice should be required to the producer or the state insurance department. - · Use electronic filing for appointments, terminations and renewals, to the extent possible, to eliminate delays and increase efficiency. ## Chapter 12 ## Business Entities Prior to the Producer Licensing Model Act (#218), most states used the term 'insurance agency' to refer to the business structure used by insurance producers. Under Model #218, the term 'business entity' (BE) is used. This term is intended to cover a broad range of legal business operating structures. BEs are considered to be producers under Model #218. Section 2(A) of Model #218 defines a BE as a corporation, association, partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or other legal entity.""]",hard,answer,"Before accepting an application, the producer is required to disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation the producer will receive if the customer makes an insurance purchase, as per Section 18 of Model #218. Additionally, if the producer is not currently appointed by the insurer, the insurer must file a notice of appointment within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted, as outlined in Section 14B of Model #218.",4,Insurance producer disclosure requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In any instance, when a producer will receive compensation from a customer for placing an insurance policy and will also receive compensation from an insurer for that placement, <span class=\""highlight\"">prior to placing that policy, the producer is required to disclose to the customer the amount and sources of compensation the producer will receive</span> if the customer makes an insurance purchase.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""To appoint a producer as its agent, the appointing insurer shall file, in a format approved by the insurance commissioner, <span class=\""highlight\"">a notice of appointment within 15 days from the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Section 14B of Model #218 requires appointment <span class=\""highlight\"">within 15 days of the date an insurer receives the first application submitted by a producer who is not currently appointed</span>, even if that producer was previously appointed by that insurer and submitted business in the past.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Reference to the agency contract or the first application is based on the current time period. If a producer's prior appointment with the insurer was terminated, each jurisdiction would consider the time period to start again with the new contract execution or the time period when the agent submits his first insurance application following the prior termination.""}]",,103
 4926,Explain the rules for listing nutrients.,"[""## there a Nutrition Facts format for a food in which most nutrients are in insignificant amounts? L30.Is present simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron (slightly different rules labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years). The five core shown in bold in the adjoining example, must always appear on all Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food. In addition, Answer: A following saturated sugars, for nutrients, Nutrition any of the nutrients required on the full Nutrition Facts label that are naturally present or are added to the food must be declared on the simplified Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(f) - List of nutrients; 101.9(f)(1) - 'Insignificant' defined; 101.9(c) - 'Insignificant' levels listed for nutrients ## L31.What are insignificant amounts of nutrients? Answer: These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label. 21 CFR 101.9(c) ## L32.When I use the simplified format, when is the statement 'Not a significant source of\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_' required? Answer: This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: (1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared. 21 CFR 101.9(f)(4)"", ""## How do I determine what values to declare on the Nutrition label? N25. Facts nutrient values declared on the Nutrition Facts label are based the nutrient profile of the product, as packaged, rounded as required by Rounding rules are provided in CFR 101.9(c) in Appendix H. Answer: The on regulation. 21 and summarized ## should vitamins and minerals that are permitted to be voluntarily be listed? N26.How listed potassium is listed, it should be listed in bold type directly under Voluntary vitamins and minerals (i.e., those other than vitamin A, C, calcium, and iron), should be declared horizontally or vertically the required vitamins and minerals in the order listed in CFR 101.9(c)(8)(iv), 21 CFR 101.9(c)(5) and 21 CFR 101.9(d)(8) Answer: If sodium. vitamin following 21 ## Is it legal to declare 400% of the Daily Value for a vitamin? N27. The percent Daily Value is based on the amount of the nutrient in the product. Answer: Yes. present ## Can information about nutrients that do not have an RDI/DRV such as and omega-3 fatty acids be provided on the food label? N28. boron provided that the information is truthful and not misleading is provided outside the Nutrition Facts label. Such information is limited statements of amount or percent of a nutrient (eg. 300 mg omega 3) and not characterize the level of the nutrient (you may not state 'High in CFR 101.13(i)(3) Answer: Yes, and to may Omega-3'). 21 ## a dry mix product such as flavored rice be required to provide information for both the product as packaged and prepared? N29. Would nutrition as the nutritional properties of the product as packaged is However, nutritional information may be voluntarily presented 'as as provided for in CFR 101.9(h)(4). 21 CFR 101.9(e) Answer: Only required. prepared' 21 ## Can I use 'average' values derived from data bases to determine the content of my product? N30. nutrient""]",medium,answer,"The rules for listing nutrients on a Nutrition Facts label are as follows:
 
 1. **Simplified Nutrition Facts Label**: A simplified format may be used if at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts. The five core nutrients (calories, total fat, sodium, total carbohydrate, and protein) must always appear. Other nutrients required on the full label but present in insignificant amounts must still be declared.
@@ -363,11 +363,11 @@ These requirements are in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24
 
 7. **Dry Mix Products**: Only the nutritional information 'as packaged' is required, but 'as prepared' information may be voluntarily provided.
 
-8. **Nutrient Values**: Values are based on the product's nutrient profile, rounded as per regulations, and may use average values from databases.",2,Nutrition Facts simplified format,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Simplified format allowed if <span class=\""highlight\"">at least eight of these nutrients are in insignificant amounts: calories, total fat, saturated fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sugars, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The <span class=\""highlight\"">five core nutrients shown in bold in the example must always appear on all Nutrition Facts labels regardless of amounts present</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Statement &quot;Not a significant source of ____&quot; required when <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients are voluntarily declared</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Insignificant amounts are those permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories).""}]",,104
-3392,Determine the navigational rules applicable in the waters from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann.,"[""- (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W. - (d) An east-west line drawn through Beavertail Light between Brenton Point and the Boston Neck shoreline. ## § 80.150 Block Island, RI. The 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors of Block Island. ## § 80.155 Watch Hill, RI to Montauk Point, NY. (a) A line drawn from 41°18'13.999' N., 071°51'30.300' W. (Watch Hill Light) to East Point on Fishers Island. - (b) A line drawn from Race Point at 41°14'36.509' N., 072°02'49.676' W. (Race Rock Light); thence to 41°12'22.900' N., 072°06'24.700' W. (Little Gull Island Light) thence to East Point on Plum Island. - (c) A line drawn from 41°10'16.704' N., 072°12'21.684' W. (Plum Island Harbor East Dolphin Light) to 41°10'17.262' N., 072°12'23.796' W. (Plum Island Harbor West Dolphin Light). - (d) A line drawn from 41°10'25.745' N., 072°12'42.137' W. (Plum Island Light) to 41°09'48.393' N., 072°13'25.014' W. (Orient Point Light); thence to Orient Point. - (e) A line drawn from the 41°06'35.100' N., 072°18'21.400' W. (Long Beach Bar Light) to Cornelius Point. - (f) A line drawn from 41°04'12.000' N., 072°16'48.000' W. (Coecles Harbor Entrance Light) to Sungic Point."", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W."", ""(a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann. (b) A line drawn from the southernmost tower on Gerrish Island charted in approximate position latitude 43°04.0' N., longitude 70°41.2' W. to Whaleback Light; thence to Jeffrey Point Light 2A; thence to the northeasternmost extremity of Frost Point. (c) A line drawn from the northernmost extremity of Farm Point to Annisquam Harbor Light. ## § 80.120 Cape Ann, MA to Marblehead Neck, MA. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from Halibut Point at Cape Ann to Marblehead Neck. (b) A line drawn from Gloucester Breakwater Light to the twin towers charted in approximate position latitude 42°35.1' N., longitude 70°41.6' W. (c) A line drawn from the westernmost extremity of Gales Point to the easternmost extremity of House Island; thence to Bakers Island Light; thence to Marblehead Light. ## § 80.125 Marblehead Neck, MA to Nahant, MA. The 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from Marblehead Neck to the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W. ## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance."", ""## § 80.01 General basis and purpose of demarcation lines. (a) The regulations in this part establish the lines of demarcation delineating those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) and those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the Inland Navigation Rules. (b) The waters inside of the lines are Inland Rules Waters. The waters outside the lines are COLREGS Waters. ## ATLANTIC COAST ## FIRST DISTRICT ## § 80.105 Calais, ME to Cape Small, ME. The 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine from International Bridge at Calais, ME to the southwesternmost extremity of Bald Head at Cape Small. ## § 80.110 Casco Bay, ME. (a) A line drawn from the southwesternmost extremity of Bald Head at Cape Small to the southeasternmost extremity of Ragged Island; thence to the southern tangent of Jaquish Island thence to Little Mark Island Monument Light; thence to the northernmost extremity of Jewell Island. (b) A line drawn from the tower on Jewell Island charted in approximate position latitude 43°40.6' N., longitude 70°05.9' W. to the northeasternmost extremity of Outer Green Island. (c) A line drawn from the southwesternmost extremity of Outer Green Island to Ram Island Ledge Light; thence to Portland Head Light. ## § 80.115 Portland Head, ME to Cape Ann, MA. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann.""]",easy,answer,"The navigational rules applicable in the waters from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann are the 72 COLREGS (International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972), except inside lines specifically described in the section. This is outlined in § 80.115(a) of the provided context.",4,Maritime demarcation lines,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exception: <span class=\""highlight\"">Inside lines specifically described in this section, different rules apply</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Lines of demarcation delineate waters upon which mariners shall comply with International Regulations (72 COLREGS) and those upon which mariners shall comply with Inland Navigation Rules.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Waters inside of the lines are Inland Rules Waters. The waters outside the lines are COLREGS Waters.""}]",,105
-110,How does the Court interpret statehood acts regarding jurisdiction over Indian country?,"[""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limIn 1906, Congress sought to deliver on its treaty promises when it adopted the Oklahoma Enabling Act. That law paved the way for the new State's admission to the Union. But in doing so, Congress took care to require Oklahoma to 'agree and declare' that it would 'forever disclaim all right and title in its owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead of granting the State some new power to prosecute crimes by or against tribal members, Congress insisted that tribal lands'shall be and remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. Oklahoma complied with Congress's instructions by adopting both of these commitments verbatim in its Constitution. Art. I, § 3. Underscoring the nature of this arrangement, the Enabling Act further provided that 'nothing contained in the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, [Oklahoma] constitution shall be construed... to limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States to make any law or regulation respecting such Indians, their lands, property, or other rights by treaties, agreement, law, or otherwise, which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' 34 Stat. 267-268 (emphasis added). Prior to statehood, too, no one could have questioned Congress's exclusive authority to regulate tribal lands and affairs in the Oklahoma territory. See, e.g., U. S. Const., Art. IV; Kagama, 118 U. S., at 380 (citing federal government's 'exclusive sovereignty' over federal territories); Simms v. Simms, 175 U. S. 162, 168 (1899) ('In the Territories of the United States, Congress has the entire dominion and sovereignty,... Federal and state'); Harjo v. Kleppe, 420 F. Supp."", ""The dissent also hints that the jurisdictional holding of the Court in this case may apply only in Oklahoma. That is incorrect. The Court's holding is an interpretation of federal law, which applies throughout the United States: Unless preempted, States may exercise jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Finally, the statutory definition of Indian country includes 'all Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished.' See 18 U. S. C. §1151. Therefore, States may prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in those allotments. Cite as: 597 U. S. \\_\\_\\_\\_ (2022) Opinion of the Court the State's authority to prosecute; that no principle of tribal self-government preempts the State's authority to prosecute; that the cited treaties do not preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute; and that the Oklahoma Enabling Act does not preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute (indeed, it solidifies the State's presumptive sovereign authority to prosecute). Comments in the dissenting opinion suggesting anything otherwise 'are just that: comments in a dissenting opinion.' Railroad Retirement Bd. v. Fritz, 449 U. S. 166, 177, n. 10 (1980). From start to finish, the dissent employs extraordinary rhetoric in articulating its deeply held policy views about what Indian law should be. The dissent goes so far as to draft a proposed statute for Congress. But this Court's proper role under Article III of the Constitution is to declare what the law is, not what we think the law should be. The dissent's views about the jurisdictional question presented in this case are contrary to this Court's precedents and to the laws enacted by Congress. * * * We conclude that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. We therefore reverse the judgment of the Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals and remand the case for further proceedings not inconsistent with this opinion. It is so ordered."", ""Supp. 1110, 1121 (DC 1976) (federal courts had pre-statehood jurisdiction); Clinton 960-962. The Oklahoma Enabling Act and the commitments it demanded in the new Oklahoma Constitution sought to maintain this status quo. Recognizing the point, this Court has explained that, '[i]n passing the enabling act for the admission of the State of Oklahoma... Congress was careful to preserve the authority of the Government of the United States over the Indians, their lands and property, which it had prior to the passage of the act.' Tiger v. Western Investment Co., 221 U. S. 286, 309 (1911) (emphasis added). This Court has explained, too, that the 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did nothing to disturb 'the long-settled rule' that the 'guardianship of the United States' over Native American Tribes in Oklahoma 'has not been abandoned.' United States v. Ramsey, 271 U. S. 467, 469 (1926). Instead, this Court has acknowledged, the federal government's 'authority in respect of crimes committed by or against Indians continued after the admission of the state as it was before.' Ibid. In fact, the Court has long interpreted nearly identical language in the ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, Arizona Enabling Act-enacted close in time to its Oklahoma counterpart-as reinforcing the traditional rule 'that the States lac[k] jurisdiction' on tribal lands over crimes by or against Native Americans. McClanahan, 411 U. S., at 175; see also Warren Trading Post Co. v. Arizona Tax Comm'n, 380 U. S. 685, 687, n. 3 (1965). 5 The few occasions on which Congress has even arguably authorized the application of state criminal law on tribal reservations still do not come anywhere near granting Oklahoma the power it seeks. In the late 1800s, this Court in ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## Opinion of the Court state enabling acts not to displace state jurisdiction. See id., at 243-247; Organized Village of Kake, 369 U. S., at 6771. In Organized Village of Kake, the Court specifically addressed several state enabling acts, including the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and stated that statutory language reserving jurisdiction and control to the United States was meant to preserve federal jurisdiction to the extent that it existed before statehood, not to make federal jurisdiction exclusive. Id., at 67-70. Consistent with that precedent, today's decision recognizes that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. 9 The dissent incorrectly seeks to characterize various aspects of the Court's decision as dicta. To be clear, the Court today holds that Indian country within a State's territory is part of a State, not separate from a State. Therefore, a State has jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country unless state jurisdiction is preempted. With respect to crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country, the Court today further holds that the General Crimes Act does not preempt the State's authority to prosecute; that Public Law 280 does not preempt ------ 9 The dissent characterizes the Court's opinion in several ways that are not accurate. Post, at 38 -41. For example, the dissent suggests that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes committed by Indians against non-Indians in Indian country-the reverse of the scenario in this case. To reiterate, we do not take a position on that question. See supra, at 19, n. 6. The dissent also hints that the jurisdictional holding of the Court in this case may apply only in Oklahoma. That is incorrect. The Court's holding is an interpretation of federal law, which applies throughout the United States: Unless preempted, States may exercise jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country.""]",hard,answer,"The Court interprets statehood acts, such as the Oklahoma Enabling Act, as preserving the federal government's authority over Indian lands and affairs unless explicitly preempted. Specifically, the Court holds that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The Court emphasizes that state enabling acts do not displace state jurisdiction unless preempted by federal law. This interpretation applies uniformly across the United States, not just in Oklahoma.",4,Indian country jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court interpreted statehood acts containing language similar to enabling acts as <span class=\""highlight\"">establishing concurrent federal, state, and tribal jurisdiction, rather than exclusive state jurisdiction</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Court held that <span class=\""highlight\"">statehood per se did not terminate federal authority and jurisdiction over Indian country, including reservations</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Statehood and enabling acts were interpreted <span class=\""highlight\"">consistently with established legal precedent requiring express congressional action to divest federal jurisdiction</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court viewed such statehood acts as constitutional provisions regarding state territorial jurisdiction but not as determinative of federal authority over Indian country.""}]",,106
-5467,How is visibility considered restricted in maritime contexts?,"['- (d) [Reserved] - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Subpart (Rules 4-19) (§§ 83.04 through 83.19); and - (f) (i) a WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; and (ii) a WIG craft operating on the water shall comply with the Rules of this Subpart (Rules 4-19) (§§ 83.04 through 83.19) as a power-driven vessel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Section III-Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility ## Rule 19 Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility - (a) This Rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility. - (b) Every vessel shall proceed at a safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility. A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver. - (c) Every vessel shall have due regard to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility when complying with the Rules of Section I of this part. - (d) A vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close-quarters situation is developing and/or risk of collision exists. If so, she shall take avoiding action in ample time, provided that when such action consists of an alteration of course, so far as possible the following shall be avoided: - (i) an alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam, other than for a vessel being overtaken; - (ii) an alteration of course towards a vessel abeam or abaft the beam.', '- (ii) a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) (i) Any vessel other than a vessel not under command or a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft, exhibiting the signals in Rule 28. - (ii) A vessel constrained by her draft shall navigate with particular caution having full regard to her special condition. - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Part. - (f) (i) A WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; (ii) A WIG craft operating on the water surface shall comply with the Rules of this Part as a power-driven vessel. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 18 ## Responsibilities between vessels ## § 83.18 - Except where Rules 9, 10, and 13 (§§ 83.09, 83.10, and 83.13) otherwise require: (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing; - (iv) A sailing vessel. - (b) A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; and - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall, so far as possible, keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; and - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) [Reserved]', 'Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (b) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, except a vessel engaged in mine clearance operations, shall exhibit: - (i) Three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white; - (ii) Three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond; - (iii) When making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (b)(i) of this Rule; and - (iv) When at anchor, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraphs (b)(i) and (ii), the light, lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30). Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-at anchor; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel engaged in a towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24(a), exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED (c) A vessel engaged in a towing operation which severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule, exhibit the lights or shape prescribed in Rule 24 (§ 83.24).', '## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) a masthead light forward; - (ii) a second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) sidelights; and - (iv) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23 ## Power-driven vessels underway ## § 83.23 - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) A masthead light forward; - (ii) A second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) Sidelights; and - (iv) A sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 23-CONTINUED - (b) An air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit an allround flashing yellow light. - (c) A WIG craft only when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit a high intensity all-round flashing red light. Air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23-CONTINUED', '## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and, from any cause, either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. This signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. - (g) When a power-driven vessel is leaving a dock or berth, she shall sound one prolonged blast. - (h) A vessel that reaches agreement with another vessel in a head-on, crossing, or overtaking situation, as for example, by using the radiotelephone as prescribed by the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act (85 Stat. 164; 33 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.), is not obliged to sound the whistle signals prescribed by this Rule, but may do so. If agreement is not reached, then whistle signals shall be exchanged in a timely manner and shall prevail. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 ## Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:']",medium,answer,"In maritime contexts, visibility is considered restricted when vessels are not in sight of one another due to conditions such as fog, heavy rain, or other environmental factors that obscure visibility. This is explicitly mentioned in Rule 19(a) of the International Steering and Sailing Rules, which states that the rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility. Additionally, vessels must proceed at a safe speed and have engines ready for immediate maneuver under such conditions, as outlined in Rule 19(b).",5,Restricted visibility definition,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Restricted visibility means <span class=\""highlight\"">any condition in which visibility is restricted by fog, mist, falling snow, heavy rainstorms, sandstorms, or any other similar causes</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""During restricted visibility, <span class=\""highlight\"">vessels must proceed at safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances and visibility conditions</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessels must <span class=\""highlight\"">have engines ready for immediate maneuver</span> in restricted visibility conditions.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessels must maintain a proper lookout by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate in the prevailing circumstances.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If a vessel detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel, it shall determine if a close-quarters situation is developing or risk of collision exists.""}]",,107
-1158,Can a previously owned vehicle be sold without meeting current safety standards?,"['- (C) reinstating suspended registrations. - (d) Bonds.--(1) A person importing a motor vehicle under this section shall provide a bond to the Secretary of the Treasury (acting for the Secretary of Transportation) and comply with the terms the Secretary of Transportation decides are appropriate to ensure that the vehicle-- - (A) will comply with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter within a reasonable time (specified by the Secretary of Transportation) after the vehicle is imported; or - (B) will be exported (at no cost to the United States Government) by the Secretary of the Treasury or abandoned to the Government. - (2) The amount of the bond provided under this subsection shall be at least equal to the dutiable value of the motor vehicle (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury) but not more than 150 percent of that value. - (e) Fee review, adjustment, and use. --The Secretary of Transportation shall review and make appropriate adjustments at least every 2 years in the amounts of the fees required to be paid under subsection (a)(3) of this section. The Secretary of Transportation shall establish the fees for each fiscal year before the beginning of that year. All fees collected remain available until expended without fiscal year limit to the extent provided in advance by appropriation laws. The amounts are only for use by the Secretary of Transportation-- - (1) in carrying out this section and sections 30146(a)-(c)(1), (d), and (e) and 30147(b) of this title; and - (2) in advancing to the Secretary of the Treasury amounts for costs incurred under this section and section 30146 of this title to reimburse the Secretary of the Treasury for those costs. ## § 30142. Importing motor vehicles for personal use - (a) General. --Section 30112(a) of this title does not apply to an imported motor vehicle if-- - (1) the vehicle is imported for personal use, and not for resale, by an individual (except an individual described in sections 30143 and 30144 of this title);', ""priorities, the Secretary shall consider factors the Secretary considers appropriate, consistent with section 30101 of this title and the Secretary's other duties and powers under this chapter. The Secretary may change at any time those priorities to address matters the Secretary considers of greater priority. The initial plan may be the 5-year plan for compliance testing in effect on December 18, 1991. ## § 30112. Prohibitions on manufacturing, selling, and importing noncomplying motor vehicles and equipment ## (a) General.-- - (1) Except as provided in this section, sections 30113 and 30114 of this title, and subchapter III of this chapter, a person may not manufacture for sale, sell, offer for sale, introduce or deliver for introduction in interstate commerce, or import into the United States, any motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment manufactured on or after the date an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter takes effect unless the vehicle or equipment complies with the standard and is covered by a certification issued under section 30115 of this title. - (2) Except as provided in this section, sections 30113 and 30114 of this title, and subchapter III of this chapter, a school or school system may not purchase or lease a new 15-passenger van if it will be used significantly by, or on behalf of, the school or school system to transport preprimary, primary, or secondary school students to or from school or an event related to school, unless the 15-passenger van complies with the motor vehicle standards prescribed for school buses and multifunction school activity buses under this title. This paragraph does not apply to the purchase or lease of a 15- passenger van under a contract executed before the date of enactment of this paragraph. ## (b) Nonapplication. --This section does not apply to-- - (1) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction in interstate commerce of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment after the first purchase of the vehicle or equipment in good faith other than for resale; ## (2) a person--""]",easy,answer,"According to the provided context, specifically section (b)(1) of § 30112, a previously owned vehicle can be sold without meeting current safety standards if it is sold after the first purchase in good faith other than for resale. This means that once a vehicle has been purchased for personal use (not for resale), subsequent sales of that vehicle are not required to comply with the current motor vehicle safety standards.",2,Used vehicle safety compliance,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Dealers of used vehicles are not required to bring vehicles into compliance with current safety standards before sale</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""However, dealers <span class=\""highlight\"">cannot remove or render inoperative any safety equipment or features that were originally provided with the vehicle</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Dealers are prohibited from selling vehicles with known safety defects without disclosing them to the buyer.""}]",,108
+8. **Nutrient Values**: Values are based on the product's nutrient profile, rounded as per regulations, and may use average values from databases.",2,Nutrition Facts simplified format,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A simplified Nutrition Facts label may be used if <span class=\""highlight\"">at least eight of the nutrients are present in insignificant amounts: Calories, total fat, saturated fat, trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sugars, protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron</span> (slightly different rules for labeling foods intended for children less than 2 years).""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The five core nutrients, shown in bold in the adjoining example, <span class=\""highlight\"">must always appear on all Nutrition Facts labels regardless of amounts present in the food</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">These are the amounts that are permitted to be shown as zero on the Nutrition Facts label (e.g., less than 5 calories may be expressed as 0 calories) except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it is the amount that can be declared as 'less than 1 g' on the Nutrition Facts label</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""This statement, which must list all nutrients required by the full format that are present at insignificant amounts, must be included when: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) nutrition claims are made; or (2) vitamins and minerals are added; or (3) naturally occurring nutrients that are not required on the full format (e.g., potassium) are voluntarily declared</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If potassium is listed, it should be listed in bold type directly under sodium. <span class=\""highlight\"">Voluntary vitamins and minerals (i.e., those other than vitamin A, C, calcium, and iron), should be declared horizontally or vertically following the required vitamins and minerals</span> in the order listed in 21 CFR 101.9(c)(8)(iv).""}]",,104
+3392,Determine the navigational rules applicable in the waters from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann.,"[""- (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W. - (d) An east-west line drawn through Beavertail Light between Brenton Point and the Boston Neck shoreline. ## § 80.150 Block Island, RI. The 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors of Block Island. ## § 80.155 Watch Hill, RI to Montauk Point, NY. (a) A line drawn from 41°18'13.999' N., 071°51'30.300' W. (Watch Hill Light) to East Point on Fishers Island. - (b) A line drawn from Race Point at 41°14'36.509' N., 072°02'49.676' W. (Race Rock Light); thence to 41°12'22.900' N., 072°06'24.700' W. (Little Gull Island Light) thence to East Point on Plum Island. - (c) A line drawn from 41°10'16.704' N., 072°12'21.684' W. (Plum Island Harbor East Dolphin Light) to 41°10'17.262' N., 072°12'23.796' W. (Plum Island Harbor West Dolphin Light). - (d) A line drawn from 41°10'25.745' N., 072°12'42.137' W. (Plum Island Light) to 41°09'48.393' N., 072°13'25.014' W. (Orient Point Light); thence to Orient Point. - (e) A line drawn from the 41°06'35.100' N., 072°18'21.400' W. (Long Beach Bar Light) to Cornelius Point. - (f) A line drawn from 41°04'12.000' N., 072°16'48.000' W. (Coecles Harbor Entrance Light) to Sungic Point."", ""## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance. - A line drawn from the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W., to Boston Lighted Horn Buoy 'B'; thence to the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W. ## § 80.135 Hull, MA to Race Point, MA. (a) Except inside lines described in this section, the 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from the easternmost radio tower at Hull, charted in approximate position latitude 42°16.7' N., longitude 70°52.6' W., to Race Point on Cape Cod. (b) A line drawn from Canal Breakwater Light 4 south to the shoreline. ## § 80.145 Race Point, MA to Watch Hill, RI. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the sounds, bays, harbors and inlets along the coast of Cape Cod and the southern coasts of Massachusetts and Rhode Island from Race Point to Watch Hill. - (b) A line drawn from Nobska Point Light to Tarpaulin Cove Light on the southeastern side of Naushon Island; thence from the southernmost tangent of Naushon Island to the easternmost extremity of Nashawena Island; thence from the southwestern most extremity of Nashawena Island to the easternmost extremity of Cuttyhunk Island; thence from the southwestern tangent of Cuttyhunk Island to the tower on Gooseberry Neck charted in approximate position latitude 41°29.1' N., longitude 71°02.3' W. - (c) A line drawn from Sakonnet Breakwater Light 2 tangent to the southernmost part of Sachuest Point charted in approximate position latitude 41° 28.5' N., longitude 71°14.8' W."", ""(a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann. (b) A line drawn from the southernmost tower on Gerrish Island charted in approximate position latitude 43°04.0' N., longitude 70°41.2' W. to Whaleback Light; thence to Jeffrey Point Light 2A; thence to the northeasternmost extremity of Frost Point. (c) A line drawn from the northernmost extremity of Farm Point to Annisquam Harbor Light. ## § 80.120 Cape Ann, MA to Marblehead Neck, MA. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from Halibut Point at Cape Ann to Marblehead Neck. (b) A line drawn from Gloucester Breakwater Light to the twin towers charted in approximate position latitude 42°35.1' N., longitude 70°41.6' W. (c) A line drawn from the westernmost extremity of Gales Point to the easternmost extremity of House Island; thence to Bakers Island Light; thence to Marblehead Light. ## § 80.125 Marblehead Neck, MA to Nahant, MA. The 72 COLREGS apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Massachusetts from Marblehead Neck to the easternmost tower at Nahant, charted in approximate position latitude 42°25.4' N., longitude 70°54.6' W. ## § 80.130 Boston Harbor entrance."", ""## § 80.01 General basis and purpose of demarcation lines. (a) The regulations in this part establish the lines of demarcation delineating those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) and those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the Inland Navigation Rules. (b) The waters inside of the lines are Inland Rules Waters. The waters outside the lines are COLREGS Waters. ## ATLANTIC COAST ## FIRST DISTRICT ## § 80.105 Calais, ME to Cape Small, ME. The 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine from International Bridge at Calais, ME to the southwesternmost extremity of Bald Head at Cape Small. ## § 80.110 Casco Bay, ME. (a) A line drawn from the southwesternmost extremity of Bald Head at Cape Small to the southeasternmost extremity of Ragged Island; thence to the southern tangent of Jaquish Island thence to Little Mark Island Monument Light; thence to the northernmost extremity of Jewell Island. (b) A line drawn from the tower on Jewell Island charted in approximate position latitude 43°40.6' N., longitude 70°05.9' W. to the northeasternmost extremity of Outer Green Island. (c) A line drawn from the southwesternmost extremity of Outer Green Island to Ram Island Ledge Light; thence to Portland Head Light. ## § 80.115 Portland Head, ME to Cape Ann, MA. (a) Except inside lines specifically described in this section, the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann.""]",easy,answer,"The navigational rules applicable in the waters from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann are the 72 COLREGS (International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972), except inside lines specifically described in the section. This is outlined in § 80.115(a) of the provided context.",4,Maritime demarcation lines,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Except inside lines specifically described in this section, <span class=\""highlight\"">the 72 COLREGS shall apply on the harbors, bays, and inlets on the east coast of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts from Portland Head to Halibut Point at Cape Ann</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The 72 COLREGS refers to the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The regulations in this part establish the lines of demarcation delineating those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) and those waters upon which mariners shall comply with the Inland Navigation Rules.""}]",,105
+110,How does the Court interpret statehood acts regarding jurisdiction over Indian country?,"[""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limIn 1906, Congress sought to deliver on its treaty promises when it adopted the Oklahoma Enabling Act. That law paved the way for the new State's admission to the Union. But in doing so, Congress took care to require Oklahoma to 'agree and declare' that it would 'forever disclaim all right and title in its owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead of granting the State some new power to prosecute crimes by or against tribal members, Congress insisted that tribal lands'shall be and remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. Oklahoma complied with Congress's instructions by adopting both of these commitments verbatim in its Constitution. Art. I, § 3. Underscoring the nature of this arrangement, the Enabling Act further provided that 'nothing contained in the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, [Oklahoma] constitution shall be construed... to limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States to make any law or regulation respecting such Indians, their lands, property, or other rights by treaties, agreement, law, or otherwise, which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' 34 Stat. 267-268 (emphasis added). Prior to statehood, too, no one could have questioned Congress's exclusive authority to regulate tribal lands and affairs in the Oklahoma territory. See, e.g., U. S. Const., Art. IV; Kagama, 118 U. S., at 380 (citing federal government's 'exclusive sovereignty' over federal territories); Simms v. Simms, 175 U. S. 162, 168 (1899) ('In the Territories of the United States, Congress has the entire dominion and sovereignty,... Federal and state'); Harjo v. Kleppe, 420 F. Supp."", ""The dissent also hints that the jurisdictional holding of the Court in this case may apply only in Oklahoma. That is incorrect. The Court's holding is an interpretation of federal law, which applies throughout the United States: Unless preempted, States may exercise jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. Finally, the statutory definition of Indian country includes 'all Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished.' See 18 U. S. C. §1151. Therefore, States may prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in those allotments. Cite as: 597 U. S. \\_\\_\\_\\_ (2022) Opinion of the Court the State's authority to prosecute; that no principle of tribal self-government preempts the State's authority to prosecute; that the cited treaties do not preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute; and that the Oklahoma Enabling Act does not preempt Oklahoma's authority to prosecute (indeed, it solidifies the State's presumptive sovereign authority to prosecute). Comments in the dissenting opinion suggesting anything otherwise 'are just that: comments in a dissenting opinion.' Railroad Retirement Bd. v. Fritz, 449 U. S. 166, 177, n. 10 (1980). From start to finish, the dissent employs extraordinary rhetoric in articulating its deeply held policy views about what Indian law should be. The dissent goes so far as to draft a proposed statute for Congress. But this Court's proper role under Article III of the Constitution is to declare what the law is, not what we think the law should be. The dissent's views about the jurisdictional question presented in this case are contrary to this Court's precedents and to the laws enacted by Congress. * * * We conclude that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. We therefore reverse the judgment of the Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals and remand the case for further proceedings not inconsistent with this opinion. It is so ordered."", ""Supp. 1110, 1121 (DC 1976) (federal courts had pre-statehood jurisdiction); Clinton 960-962. The Oklahoma Enabling Act and the commitments it demanded in the new Oklahoma Constitution sought to maintain this status quo. Recognizing the point, this Court has explained that, '[i]n passing the enabling act for the admission of the State of Oklahoma... Congress was careful to preserve the authority of the Government of the United States over the Indians, their lands and property, which it had prior to the passage of the act.' Tiger v. Western Investment Co., 221 U. S. 286, 309 (1911) (emphasis added). This Court has explained, too, that the 'grant of statehood' to Oklahoma did nothing to disturb 'the long-settled rule' that the 'guardianship of the United States' over Native American Tribes in Oklahoma 'has not been abandoned.' United States v. Ramsey, 271 U. S. 467, 469 (1926). Instead, this Court has acknowledged, the federal government's 'authority in respect of crimes committed by or against Indians continued after the admission of the state as it was before.' Ibid. In fact, the Court has long interpreted nearly identical language in the ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, Arizona Enabling Act-enacted close in time to its Oklahoma counterpart-as reinforcing the traditional rule 'that the States lac[k] jurisdiction' on tribal lands over crimes by or against Native Americans. McClanahan, 411 U. S., at 175; see also Warren Trading Post Co. v. Arizona Tax Comm'n, 380 U. S. 685, 687, n. 3 (1965). 5 The few occasions on which Congress has even arguably authorized the application of state criminal law on tribal reservations still do not come anywhere near granting Oklahoma the power it seeks. In the late 1800s, this Court in ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## Opinion of the Court state enabling acts not to displace state jurisdiction. See id., at 243-247; Organized Village of Kake, 369 U. S., at 6771. In Organized Village of Kake, the Court specifically addressed several state enabling acts, including the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and stated that statutory language reserving jurisdiction and control to the United States was meant to preserve federal jurisdiction to the extent that it existed before statehood, not to make federal jurisdiction exclusive. Id., at 67-70. Consistent with that precedent, today's decision recognizes that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. 9 The dissent incorrectly seeks to characterize various aspects of the Court's decision as dicta. To be clear, the Court today holds that Indian country within a State's territory is part of a State, not separate from a State. Therefore, a State has jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country unless state jurisdiction is preempted. With respect to crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country, the Court today further holds that the General Crimes Act does not preempt the State's authority to prosecute; that Public Law 280 does not preempt ------ 9 The dissent characterizes the Court's opinion in several ways that are not accurate. Post, at 38 -41. For example, the dissent suggests that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes committed by Indians against non-Indians in Indian country-the reverse of the scenario in this case. To reiterate, we do not take a position on that question. See supra, at 19, n. 6. The dissent also hints that the jurisdictional holding of the Court in this case may apply only in Oklahoma. That is incorrect. The Court's holding is an interpretation of federal law, which applies throughout the United States: Unless preempted, States may exercise jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country.""]",hard,answer,"The Court interprets statehood acts, such as the Oklahoma Enabling Act, as preserving the federal government's authority over Indian lands and affairs unless explicitly preempted. Specifically, the Court holds that the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country. The Court emphasizes that state enabling acts do not displace state jurisdiction unless preempted by federal law. This interpretation applies uniformly across the United States, not just in Oklahoma.",4,Indian country jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Court today holds that Indian country within a State's territory is part of a State, not separate from a State. Therefore, <span class=\""highlight\"">a State has jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed in Indian country unless state jurisdiction is preempted</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Consistent with that precedent, today's decision recognizes that <span class=\""highlight\"">the Federal Government and the State have concurrent jurisdiction over crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The dissent hints that the jurisdictional holding of the Court in this case may apply only in Oklahoma. That is incorrect. <span class=\""highlight\"">The Court's holding is an interpretation of federal law, which applies throughout the United States: Unless preempted, States may exercise jurisdiction to prosecute crimes committed by non-Indians against Indians in Indian country</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In Organized Village of Kake, the Court specifically addressed several state enabling acts, including the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and stated that <span class=\""highlight\"">statutory language reserving jurisdiction and control to the United States was meant to preserve federal jurisdiction to the extent that it existed before statehood, not to make federal jurisdiction exclusive</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In 1906, Congress sought to deliver on its treaty promises when it adopted the Oklahoma Enabling Act. That law paved the way for the new State's admission to the Union. But in doing so, Congress took care to require Oklahoma to 'agree and declare' that it would 'forever disclaim all right and title in its owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.'""}]",,106
+5467,How is visibility considered restricted in maritime contexts?,"['- (d) [Reserved] - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Subpart (Rules 4-19) (§§ 83.04 through 83.19); and - (f) (i) a WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; and (ii) a WIG craft operating on the water shall comply with the Rules of this Subpart (Rules 4-19) (§§ 83.04 through 83.19) as a power-driven vessel. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Section III-Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility ## Rule 19 Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility - (a) This Rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility. - (b) Every vessel shall proceed at a safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility. A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver. - (c) Every vessel shall have due regard to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility when complying with the Rules of Section I of this part. - (d) A vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close-quarters situation is developing and/or risk of collision exists. If so, she shall take avoiding action in ample time, provided that when such action consists of an alteration of course, so far as possible the following shall be avoided: - (i) an alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam, other than for a vessel being overtaken; - (ii) an alteration of course towards a vessel abeam or abaft the beam.', '- (ii) a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) (i) Any vessel other than a vessel not under command or a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft, exhibiting the signals in Rule 28. - (ii) A vessel constrained by her draft shall navigate with particular caution having full regard to her special condition. - (e) A seaplane on the water shall, in general, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation. In circumstances, however, where risk of collision exists, she shall comply with the Rules of this Part. - (f) (i) A WIG craft shall, when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface, keep well clear of all other vessels and avoid impeding their navigation; (ii) A WIG craft operating on the water surface shall comply with the Rules of this Part as a power-driven vessel. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 18 ## Responsibilities between vessels ## § 83.18 - Except where Rules 9, 10, and 13 (§§ 83.09, 83.10, and 83.13) otherwise require: (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing; - (iv) A sailing vessel. - (b) A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; and - (iii) A vessel engaged in fishing. - (c) A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall, so far as possible, keep out of the way of: - (i) A vessel not under command; and - (ii) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver. - (d) [Reserved]', 'Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-making way; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (b) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver, except a vessel engaged in mine clearance operations, shall exhibit: - (i) Three all-round lights in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these lights shall be red and the middle light shall be white; - (ii) Three shapes in a vertical line where they can best be seen. The highest and lowest of these shapes shall be balls and the middle one a diamond; - (iii) When making way through the water, a masthead light or lights, sidelights and a sternlight, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (b)(i) of this Rule; and - (iv) When at anchor, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in paragraphs (b)(i) and (ii), the light, lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 30 (§ 83.30). Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver-at anchor; vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 27-CONTINUED - (c) A power-driven vessel engaged in a towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24(a), exhibit the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule. ## Rule 27-CONTINUED (c) A vessel engaged in a towing operation which severely restricts the towing vessel and her tow in their ability to deviate from their course shall, in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(i) and (ii) of this Rule, exhibit the lights or shape prescribed in Rule 24 (§ 83.24).', '## Rule 23 Power-driven Vessels Underway - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) a masthead light forward; - (ii) a second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) sidelights; and - (iv) a sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-50 meters or greater in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23 ## Power-driven vessels underway ## § 83.23 - (a) A power-driven vessel underway shall exhibit: - (i) A masthead light forward; - (ii) A second masthead light abaft of and higher than the forward one; except that a vessel of less than 50 meters in length shall not be obliged to exhibit such light but may do so; - (iii) Sidelights; and - (iv) A sternlight. Power-driven vessel underway-less than 50 meters in length. Same for International. ## -INTERNATIONALLights and Shapes ## Rule 23-CONTINUED - (b) An air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit an allround flashing yellow light. - (c) A WIG craft only when taking off, landing and in flight near the surface shall, in addition to the lights prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Rule, exhibit a high intensity all-round flashing red light. Air-cushion vessel when operating in the non-displacement mode-vessel less than 50 meters in length. Same for Inland. ## Rule 23-CONTINUED', '## Rule 34-CONTINUED - (d) When vessels in sight of one another are approaching each other and, from any cause, either vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of the other, or is in doubt whether sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision, the vessel in doubt shall immediately indicate such doubt by giving at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. Such signal may be supplemented by a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes. - (e) A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction shall sound one prolonged blast. This signal shall be answered with a prolonged blast by any approaching vessel that may be within hearing around the bend or behind the intervening obstruction. - (f) If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 meters, one whistle only shall be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals. - (g) When a power-driven vessel is leaving a dock or berth, she shall sound one prolonged blast. - (h) A vessel that reaches agreement with another vessel in a head-on, crossing, or overtaking situation, as for example, by using the radiotelephone as prescribed by the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act (85 Stat. 164; 33 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.), is not obliged to sound the whistle signals prescribed by this Rule, but may do so. If agreement is not reached, then whistle signals shall be exchanged in a timely manner and shall prevail. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Sound and Light Signals ## Rule 35 ## Sound Signals in Restricted Visibility In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows:']",medium,answer,"In maritime contexts, visibility is considered restricted when vessels are not in sight of one another due to conditions such as fog, heavy rain, or other environmental factors that obscure visibility. This is explicitly mentioned in Rule 19(a) of the International Steering and Sailing Rules, which states that the rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility. Additionally, vessels must proceed at a safe speed and have engines ready for immediate maneuver under such conditions, as outlined in Rule 19(b).",5,Restricted visibility definition,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rule 19 Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility - (a) <span class=\""highlight\"">This Rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(b) <span class=\""highlight\"">Every vessel shall proceed at a safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility. A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(c) <span class=\""highlight\"">Every vessel shall have due regard to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility when complying with the Rules of Section I of this part</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(d) <span class=\""highlight\"">A vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close-quarters situation is developing and/or risk of collision exists. If so, she shall take avoiding action in ample time</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In or near an area of restricted visibility, whether by day or night, the signals prescribed in this Rule shall be used as follows.""}]",,107
+1158,Can a previously owned vehicle be sold without meeting current safety standards?,"['- (C) reinstating suspended registrations. - (d) Bonds.--(1) A person importing a motor vehicle under this section shall provide a bond to the Secretary of the Treasury (acting for the Secretary of Transportation) and comply with the terms the Secretary of Transportation decides are appropriate to ensure that the vehicle-- - (A) will comply with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter within a reasonable time (specified by the Secretary of Transportation) after the vehicle is imported; or - (B) will be exported (at no cost to the United States Government) by the Secretary of the Treasury or abandoned to the Government. - (2) The amount of the bond provided under this subsection shall be at least equal to the dutiable value of the motor vehicle (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury) but not more than 150 percent of that value. - (e) Fee review, adjustment, and use. --The Secretary of Transportation shall review and make appropriate adjustments at least every 2 years in the amounts of the fees required to be paid under subsection (a)(3) of this section. The Secretary of Transportation shall establish the fees for each fiscal year before the beginning of that year. All fees collected remain available until expended without fiscal year limit to the extent provided in advance by appropriation laws. The amounts are only for use by the Secretary of Transportation-- - (1) in carrying out this section and sections 30146(a)-(c)(1), (d), and (e) and 30147(b) of this title; and - (2) in advancing to the Secretary of the Treasury amounts for costs incurred under this section and section 30146 of this title to reimburse the Secretary of the Treasury for those costs. ## § 30142. Importing motor vehicles for personal use - (a) General. --Section 30112(a) of this title does not apply to an imported motor vehicle if-- - (1) the vehicle is imported for personal use, and not for resale, by an individual (except an individual described in sections 30143 and 30144 of this title);', ""priorities, the Secretary shall consider factors the Secretary considers appropriate, consistent with section 30101 of this title and the Secretary's other duties and powers under this chapter. The Secretary may change at any time those priorities to address matters the Secretary considers of greater priority. The initial plan may be the 5-year plan for compliance testing in effect on December 18, 1991. ## § 30112. Prohibitions on manufacturing, selling, and importing noncomplying motor vehicles and equipment ## (a) General.-- - (1) Except as provided in this section, sections 30113 and 30114 of this title, and subchapter III of this chapter, a person may not manufacture for sale, sell, offer for sale, introduce or deliver for introduction in interstate commerce, or import into the United States, any motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment manufactured on or after the date an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter takes effect unless the vehicle or equipment complies with the standard and is covered by a certification issued under section 30115 of this title. - (2) Except as provided in this section, sections 30113 and 30114 of this title, and subchapter III of this chapter, a school or school system may not purchase or lease a new 15-passenger van if it will be used significantly by, or on behalf of, the school or school system to transport preprimary, primary, or secondary school students to or from school or an event related to school, unless the 15-passenger van complies with the motor vehicle standards prescribed for school buses and multifunction school activity buses under this title. This paragraph does not apply to the purchase or lease of a 15- passenger van under a contract executed before the date of enactment of this paragraph. ## (b) Nonapplication. --This section does not apply to-- - (1) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction in interstate commerce of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment after the first purchase of the vehicle or equipment in good faith other than for resale; ## (2) a person--""]",easy,answer,"According to the provided context, specifically section (b)(1) of § 30112, a previously owned vehicle can be sold without meeting current safety standards if it is sold after the first purchase in good faith other than for resale. This means that once a vehicle has been purchased for personal use (not for resale), subsequent sales of that vehicle are not required to comply with the current motor vehicle safety standards.",2,Used vehicle safety compliance,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30112. Prohibitions on manufacturing, selling, and importing noncomplying motor vehicles and equipment. (b) Nonapplication. \u2014This section does not apply to\u2014 <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction in interstate commerce of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment after the first purchase of the vehicle or equipment in good faith other than for resale</span>;""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(a)(1) Except as provided in this section, sections 30113 and 30114 of this title, and subchapter III of this chapter, a person may not manufacture for sale, sell, offer for sale, introduce or deliver for introduction in interstate commerce, or import into the United States, any motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment manufactured on or after the date an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter takes effect unless the vehicle or equipment complies with the standard and is covered by a certification issued under section 30115 of this title.""}]",,108
 3578,What are some situations where a VTS might manage vessel traffic directly?,"['| W | WHISKEY | Total number of persons on board | State number. | | X | XRAY | Miscellaneous | Any other information as appropriate. [ i.e., a detailed description of a planned operation, which may include: its duration; effective area; any restrictions to navigation; notification procedures for approaching vessels; in addition, for a towing operation: configuration, length of the tow, available horsepower, etc.; for a dredge or floating plant: configuration of pipeline, mooring configuration, number of assist vessels, etc.]. | NOTE: As stated in 47 CFR 80.148(b), a VHF watch on Channel 16 (156.800 MHz) is not required on vessels subject to the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act and participating in a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) system when the watch is maintained on both the vessel bridge-to-bridge frequency and a designated VTS frequency. ## (d) A vessel must report: - (1) Any significant deviation from its Sailing Plan, as defined in § 161.19, or from previously reported information; or - (2) Any intention to deviate from a VTS issued measure or vessel traffic routing system. - (e) When reports required by this part include time information, such information shall be given using the local time zone in effect and the 24-hour military clock system. ## § 161.19 Sailing Plan (SP). - Unless otherwise stated, at least 15 minutes before navigating a VTS area, a vessel must report the: - (a) Vessel name and type; - (b) Position; - (c) Destination and ETA; - (d) Intended route; - (e) Time and point of entry; and - (f) Certain dangerous cargo on board or in its tow, as defined in §160.204 of this subchapter. ## § 161.20 Position Report (PR). - A vessel must report its name and position: - (a) Upon point of entry into a VMRS area; - (b) At designated reporting points as set forth in subpart C; or - (c) When directed by the Center.', ""## § 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 ''Ports and Waterways Safety'' setting up a national system of Vessel Traffic Services that will enhance navigation, vessel safety, and marine environmental protection, and promote safe vessel movement by reducing the potential for collisions, rammings, and groundings, and the loss of lives and property associated with these incidents within VTS areas established hereunder. - (b) Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment. - (c) The owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel remains at all times responsible for the manner in which the vessel is operated and maneuvered, and is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel under all circumstances. Compliance with these rules or with a direction of the VTS is at all times contingent upon the exigencies of safe navigation. 161.20 Position Report (PR). 161.21 Automated reporting. 161.22 Final Report (FR). 161.23 Reporting exemptions. ## Subpart C - Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points 161.25 Vessel Traffic Service New York Area. 161.30 Vessel Traffic Service Louisville. 161.35 Vessel Traffic Service Houston/Galveston. 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. 161.45 Vessel Traffic Service St. Marys River. 161.50 Vessel Traffic Service San Francisco. 161.55 Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound and the Cooperative Vessel Traffic Service for the Juan de Fuca Region. 161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River. 161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur."", '## § 161.12 Vessel operating requirements. - (a) Subject to the exigencies of safe navigation, a VTS User shall comply with all measures established or directions issued by a VTS. - (b) If, in a specific circumstance, a VTS User is unable to safely comply with a measure or direction issued by the VTS, the VTS User may deviate only to the extent necessary to avoid endangering persons, property or the environment. The deviation shall be reported to the VTS as soon as is practicable. - (c) When not exchanging voice communications, a VTS User must maintain a listening watch as required by § 26.04(e) of this chapter on the VTS frequency designated in Table 161.12(c) (VTS and VMRS Centers, Call Signs/MMSI, Designated Frequencies, and Monitoring Areas). In addition, the VTS User must respond promptly when hailed and communicate in the English language. NOTE TO § 161.12(c): As stated in 47 CFR 80.148(b), a very high frequency watch on Channel 16 (156.800 MHz) is not required on vessels subject to the Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act and participating in a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) system when the watch is maintained on both the vessel bridge-to-bridge frequency and a designated VTS frequency. - (d) As soon as is practicable, a VTS User shall notify the VTS of any of the following: - (1) A marine casualty as defined in 46 CFR 4.05-1; - (2) Involvement in the ramming of a fixed or floating object; - (3) A pollution incident as defined in § 151.15 of this chapter; - (4) A defect or discrepancy in an aid to navigation; - (5) A hazardous condition as defined in § 160.204 of this chapter - (6) Improper operation of vessel equipment required by part 164 of this chapter; - (7) A situation involving hazardous materials for which a report is required by 49 - CFR 176.48; and - (8) A hazardous vessel operating condition as defined in § 161.2. ## § 161.13 VTS Special Area operating requirements.', '## § 161.13 VTS Special Area operating requirements. The following operating requirements apply within a VTS Special Area: - (a) A VTS User shall, if towing astern, do so with as short a hawser as safety and good seamanship permits. - (b) A VMRS User shall: - (1) Not enter or get underway in the area without prior approval of the VTS; - (2) Not enter a VTS Special Area if a hazardous vessel operating condition or circumstance exists; - (3) Not meet, cross, or overtake any other VMRS User in the area without prior approval of the VTS; and - (4) Before meeting, crossing, or overtaking any other VMRS User in the area, communicate on the designated vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone frequency, intended navigation movements, and any other information necessary in order to make safe passing arrangements. This requirement does not relieve a vessel of any duty prescribed by the International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS) or the Inland Navigation Rules. ## Subpart B-Vessel Movement Reporting System ## § 161.15 Purpose and intent. - (a) A Vessel Movement Reporting System (VMRS) is a system used to monitor and track vessel movements within a VTS or VMRS area. This is accomplished by requiring that vessels provide information under established procedures as set forth in this part, or as directed by the Center. - (b) To avoid imposing an undue reporting burden or unduly congesting radiotelephone frequencies, reports shall be limited to information which is essential to achieve the objectives of the VMRS. These reports are consolidated into three reports (sailing plan, position, and final). ## § 161.16 Applicability.']",medium,answer,"A Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) might manage vessel traffic directly in the following situations:
 
 1. **Congested Waterways**: To minimize the risk of collisions in busy or congested waterways by controlling vessel movements.
@@ -377,8 +377,8 @@ These requirements are in addition to the lights or shapes prescribed in Rule 24
 5. **Emergencies or Incidents**: In cases of marine casualties, pollution incidents, or other hazardous situations that require immediate coordination.
 6. **Aids to Navigation Issues**: When there are defects or discrepancies in aids to navigation that could affect safe passage.
 
-These measures are implemented to enhance navigation safety, protect the marine environment, and prevent accidents.",4,Vessel Traffic Service authority,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""VTS may <span class=\""highlight\"">direct the movement of vessels to manage hazardous vessel operating conditions</span> in poor visibility, adverse weather, or congested waters.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""VTS may <span class=\""highlight\"">control vessel traffic when exceptional circumstances require, such as following maritime casualty, damaged vessel, or other emergency</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""VTS may <span class=\""highlight\"">direct vessels during special events that require traffic coordination, such as fireworks displays, regattas, or marine parades</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Despite VTS authority to direct vessel movement, the ultimate responsibility for vessel safety remains with the vessel&#x27;s master, who may take necessary steps for safety reasons.""}]",,109
-2944,Explain the consequences of neglecting the Rules or any required precautions by the ordinary practice of seamen.,"['## Sailing Vessels - (a) When two sailing vessels are approaching one another, so as to involve risk of collision, one of them shall keep out of the way of the other as follows: - (i) when each has the wind on a different side, the vessel which has the wind on the port side shall keep out of the way of the other; - (ii) when both have the wind on the same side, the vessel which is to windward shall keep out of the way of the vessel which is to leeward; - (iii) if a vessel with the wind on the port side sees a vessel to windward and cannot determine with certainty whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or on the starboard side, she shall keep out of the way of the other. - (b) For the purposes of this Rule the windward side shall be deemed to be the side opposite to that on which the mainsail is carried or, in the case of a squarerigged vessel, the side opposite to that on which the largest fore-and-aft sail is carried. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing, or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 ## Application ## § 83.11 Rules 11 through 18 (§§ 83.11 through 83.18) apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing vessels ## § 83.12', '## Rule 2 ## Responsibility - (a) Nothing in these Rules shall exonerate any vessel, or the owner, master or crew thereof, from the consequences of any neglect to comply with these Rules or of the neglect of any precaution which may be required by the ordinary practice of seamen, or by the special circumstances of the case. - (b) In construing and complying with these Rules due regard shall be had to all dangers of navigation and collision and to any special circumstances, including the limitations of the vessels involved, which may make a departure from these Rules necessary to avoid immediate danger. ## Rule 1-CONTINUED - (e) Whenever the Secretary determines that a vessel or class of vessels of special construction or purpose cannot comply fully with the provisions of any of these Rules with respect to the number, position, range, or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, the vessel shall comply with such other provisions in regard to the number, position, range, or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, as the Secretary shall have determined to be the closest possible compliance with these Rules. The Secretary may issue a certificate of alternative compliance for a vessel or class of vessels specifying the closest possible compliance with these Rules. The Secretary of the Navy shall make these determinations and issue certificates of alternative compliance for vessels of the Navy. - (f) The Secretary may accept a certificate of alternative compliance issued by a contracting party to the International Regulations if it determines that the alternative compliance standards of the contracting party are substantially the same as those of the United States. - (g) The operator of each self-propelled vessel 12 meters or more in length shall carry, on board and maintain for ready reference, a copy of these Rules *. ## Rule 2 ## Responsibility ## § 83.02', '- (e) A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except: - (i) In cases of emergency to avoid immediate danger; - (ii) To engage in fishing within a separation zone. - (f) A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with particular caution. - (g) A vessel shall so far as practicable avoid anchoring in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near its terminations. - (h) A vessel not using a traffic separation scheme shall avoid it by as wide a margin as is practicable. - (i) A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic lane. - (j) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a power-driven vessel following a traffic lane. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Section II-Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 Application Rules in this section apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing Vessels', ""The regulations in this subchapter (subchapter E, 33 CFR parts 83 through 90) have preemptive effect over State or local regulation within the same field. - (b) (i)These Rules constitute special rules made by an appropriate authority within the meaning of Rule 1(b) of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, including annexes currently in force for the United States ('International Regulations'). (ii) All vessels complying with the construction and equipment requirements of the International Regulations are considered to be in compliance with these Rules. - (c) Nothing in these Rules shall interfere with the operation of any special rules made by the Secretary of the Navy with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals for ships of war and vessels proceeding under convoy, or by the Secretary with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes for fishing vessels engaged in fishing as a fleet. These additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals shall, so far as possible, be such that they cannot be mistaken for any light, shape, or signal authorized elsewhere under these Rules. Notice of such special rules shall be published in the Federal Register and, after the effective date specified in such notice, they shall have effect as if they were a part of these Rules ‡. (d) Traffic separation schemes may be established for the purposes of these Rules. Vessel traffic service regulations may be in effect in certain areas. ## -INTERNATIONALGeneral ## Rule 1-CONTINUED - (e) Whenever the Government concerned shall have determined that a vessel of special construction or purpose cannot comply fully with the provisions of any of these Rules with respect to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, such vessel shall comply with such other provisions in regard to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, as her Government shall have determined to be the closest possible compliance with these Rules in respect to that vessel. ## Rule 2""]",medium,answer,"According to Rule 2(a) in the provided context, neglecting to comply with the Rules or any required precautions by the ordinary practice of seamen does not exonerate any vessel, owner, master, or crew from the consequences of such neglect. This means that they remain fully responsible for any resulting damages, collisions, or other incidents that occur due to their failure to adhere to these regulations or standard maritime practices. The rule emphasizes accountability regardless of the circumstances, though special circumstances may necessitate a departure from the rules to avoid immediate danger (as noted in Rule 2(b)).",4,Maritime negligence consequences,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Neglecting the Rules or precautions by ordinary practice of seamen <span class=\""highlight\"">does not exonerate any vessel, owner, master, or crew from the consequences of any neglect</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Consequences include <span class=\""highlight\"">liability for all damages to vessels, structures, shores, or aids to navigation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In case of collision or accident, <span class=\""highlight\"">civil penalties up to $5,000, class A misdemeanor charges, suspension or revocation of license</span> may be imposed.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Determining fault involves consideration of whether incident could have been avoided by exercising proper caution, skill, and navigational techniques.""}]",,110
+These measures are implemented to enhance navigation safety, protect the marine environment, and prevent accidents.",4,Vessel Traffic Service authority,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. <span class=\""highlight\"">Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Subject to the exigencies of safe navigation, <span class=\""highlight\"">a VTS User shall comply with all measures established or directions issued by a VTS</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The following operating requirements apply within a VTS Special Area: (b) A VMRS User shall: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) Not enter or get underway in the area without prior approval of the VTS; (2) Not enter a VTS Special Area if a hazardous vessel operating condition or circumstance exists; (3) Not meet, cross, or overtake any other VMRS User in the area without prior approval of the VTS</span>;""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A vessel must report: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) Any significant deviation from its Sailing Plan, as defined in \u00a7 161.19, or from previously reported information; or (2) Any intention to deviate from a VTS issued measure or vessel traffic routing system</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""As soon as is practicable, a VTS User shall notify the VTS of any of the following: <span class=\""highlight\"">(1) A marine casualty as defined in 46 CFR 4.05-1; (2) Involvement in the ramming of a fixed or floating object; (3) A pollution incident as defined in \u00a7 151.15 of this chapter; (4) A defect or discrepancy in an aid to navigation</span>;""}]",,109
+2944,Explain the consequences of neglecting the Rules or any required precautions by the ordinary practice of seamen.,"['## Sailing Vessels - (a) When two sailing vessels are approaching one another, so as to involve risk of collision, one of them shall keep out of the way of the other as follows: - (i) when each has the wind on a different side, the vessel which has the wind on the port side shall keep out of the way of the other; - (ii) when both have the wind on the same side, the vessel which is to windward shall keep out of the way of the vessel which is to leeward; - (iii) if a vessel with the wind on the port side sees a vessel to windward and cannot determine with certainty whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or on the starboard side, she shall keep out of the way of the other. - (b) For the purposes of this Rule the windward side shall be deemed to be the side opposite to that on which the mainsail is carried or, in the case of a squarerigged vessel, the side opposite to that on which the largest fore-and-aft sail is carried. ## -INLANDSteering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing, or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 ## Application ## § 83.11 Rules 11 through 18 (§§ 83.11 through 83.18) apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing vessels ## § 83.12', '## Rule 2 ## Responsibility - (a) Nothing in these Rules shall exonerate any vessel, or the owner, master or crew thereof, from the consequences of any neglect to comply with these Rules or of the neglect of any precaution which may be required by the ordinary practice of seamen, or by the special circumstances of the case. - (b) In construing and complying with these Rules due regard shall be had to all dangers of navigation and collision and to any special circumstances, including the limitations of the vessels involved, which may make a departure from these Rules necessary to avoid immediate danger. ## Rule 1-CONTINUED - (e) Whenever the Secretary determines that a vessel or class of vessels of special construction or purpose cannot comply fully with the provisions of any of these Rules with respect to the number, position, range, or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, the vessel shall comply with such other provisions in regard to the number, position, range, or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, as the Secretary shall have determined to be the closest possible compliance with these Rules. The Secretary may issue a certificate of alternative compliance for a vessel or class of vessels specifying the closest possible compliance with these Rules. The Secretary of the Navy shall make these determinations and issue certificates of alternative compliance for vessels of the Navy. - (f) The Secretary may accept a certificate of alternative compliance issued by a contracting party to the International Regulations if it determines that the alternative compliance standards of the contracting party are substantially the same as those of the United States. - (g) The operator of each self-propelled vessel 12 meters or more in length shall carry, on board and maintain for ready reference, a copy of these Rules *. ## Rule 2 ## Responsibility ## § 83.02', '- (e) A vessel other than a crossing vessel or a vessel joining or leaving a lane shall not normally enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except: - (i) In cases of emergency to avoid immediate danger; - (ii) To engage in fishing within a separation zone. - (f) A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with particular caution. - (g) A vessel shall so far as practicable avoid anchoring in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near its terminations. - (h) A vessel not using a traffic separation scheme shall avoid it by as wide a margin as is practicable. - (i) A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic lane. - (j) A vessel of less than 20 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a power-driven vessel following a traffic lane. ## -INTERNATIONAL- ## Steering and Sailing Rules ## Rule 10-CONTINUED - (k) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation in a traffic separation scheme is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. - (l) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when engaged in an operation for the laying, servicing or picking up of a submarine cable, within a traffic separation scheme, is exempted from complying with this Rule to the extent necessary to carry out the operation. ## Section II-Conduct of Vessels in Sight of One Another ## Rule 11 Application Rules in this section apply to vessels in sight of one another. ## Rule 12 ## Sailing Vessels', ""The regulations in this subchapter (subchapter E, 33 CFR parts 83 through 90) have preemptive effect over State or local regulation within the same field. - (b) (i)These Rules constitute special rules made by an appropriate authority within the meaning of Rule 1(b) of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, including annexes currently in force for the United States ('International Regulations'). (ii) All vessels complying with the construction and equipment requirements of the International Regulations are considered to be in compliance with these Rules. - (c) Nothing in these Rules shall interfere with the operation of any special rules made by the Secretary of the Navy with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals for ships of war and vessels proceeding under convoy, or by the Secretary with respect to additional station or signal lights and shapes for fishing vessels engaged in fishing as a fleet. These additional station or signal lights and shapes or whistle signals shall, so far as possible, be such that they cannot be mistaken for any light, shape, or signal authorized elsewhere under these Rules. Notice of such special rules shall be published in the Federal Register and, after the effective date specified in such notice, they shall have effect as if they were a part of these Rules ‡. (d) Traffic separation schemes may be established for the purposes of these Rules. Vessel traffic service regulations may be in effect in certain areas. ## -INTERNATIONALGeneral ## Rule 1-CONTINUED - (e) Whenever the Government concerned shall have determined that a vessel of special construction or purpose cannot comply fully with the provisions of any of these Rules with respect to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, such vessel shall comply with such other provisions in regard to the number, position, range or arc of visibility of lights or shapes, as well as to the disposition and characteristics of sound-signaling appliances, as her Government shall have determined to be the closest possible compliance with these Rules in respect to that vessel. ## Rule 2""]",medium,answer,"According to Rule 2(a) in the provided context, neglecting to comply with the Rules or any required precautions by the ordinary practice of seamen does not exonerate any vessel, owner, master, or crew from the consequences of such neglect. This means that they remain fully responsible for any resulting damages, collisions, or other incidents that occur due to their failure to adhere to these regulations or standard maritime practices. The rule emphasizes accountability regardless of the circumstances, though special circumstances may necessitate a departure from the rules to avoid immediate danger (as noted in Rule 2(b)).",4,Maritime negligence consequences,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Rule 2 Responsibility - (a) <span class=\""highlight\"">Nothing in these Rules shall exonerate any vessel, or the owner, master or crew thereof, from the consequences of any neglect to comply with these Rules or of the neglect of any precaution which may be required by the ordinary practice of seamen, or by the special circumstances of the case</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""(b) <span class=\""highlight\"">In construing and complying with these Rules due regard shall be had to all dangers of navigation and collision and to any special circumstances, including the limitations of the vessels involved, which may make a departure from these Rules necessary to avoid immediate danger</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The regulations in this subchapter (subchapter E, 33 CFR parts 83 through 90) have preemptive effect over State or local regulation within the same field.""}]",,110
 2640,List the security features a test center vendor should have to maintain exam integrity.,"[""- 7. In performing background checks, the use of an electronic process should be required whenever possible. - 8. In those states requiring fingerprints, where possible, exam sites should have the capability to collect electronic fingerprints. ## Retesting or Notice of Failure A state licensing plan should include a method to facilitate prompt retesting of applicants who have failed a test. The 'non-passing' notice should break scores out by each subject area. If the candidate requests to make another attempt, an examination should be made available within a reasonable time period. ## Producer Exam Content and Testing Administration Recommended Best Practices for State Insurance Regulators - · States should use accepted psychometric methods, including job analysis, to determine if the examination content falls within the content domain that a minimally competent candidate of that specific line of authority tested would be expected to know. - · States should set passing scores-cut scores-and difficulty level using psychometric methods and appropriate SMEs based on what an entry-level producer needs to know. - · States are encouraged to move to one-part exams to allow for more success among candidates without jeopardizing consumer protections. - · States should require the test vendor, or other entity responsible for test development, to document the process for ensuring quality control and validity of the examination, including psychometric review and editing and analysis of item bias or cultural and gender sensitivity. - · To allow for meaningful comparison, all jurisdictions should define first-time pass rate as the percentage of candidates who pass the whole test the first time. - · At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics when collected, and number of exams administered should be made available to the public. Reports should include first-time pass success and average scoring by subject area. Whenever possible, the reports should be available by education provider and provided to them."", ""Validation procedures for licensing examinations should be designed to comply with content validation requirements of the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (29 CFR 1607). States should require testing vendors to follow and document standardized methods. This should include appropriate test development personnel in the process. Using the appropriate, credentialed professionals is critical, as there are multiple steps involved in the test development process and various methodologies that can be used for each step. State licensing directors should discuss all options with qualified professionals. ## Vendor Responsibilities Test vendors should be able to meet minimum guidelines for sufficient availability, facilities, personnel and openness in terms of providing information related to their operations. The states, and not the test vendors, must be responsible for all examination content and content outlines. The vendor should provide accessible information regarding the registration system through the internet, toll-free telephone numbers, interactive voice response, fax, and other available technologies. The available information should include permitting candidates to view exam test dates and access forms and content guidelines without requiring prior payment and scheduling of an exam. The vendor should promptly provide the state with all pertinent information, including prompt notification of any candidate complaints, changes to test administration, conflicts at examination test sites, or other information requested or required by the state. The vendor should provide quality, accessible facilities, with an established system of examination site supervision that ensures that competent site administrators consistently provide accurate information to applicants. Where a vendor operates test sites in multiple states, the vendor should permit any applicant to take a state's examination in another state, under the same conditions that would apply if the exam were taken at an in-state location. Vendors should be required, on an ongoing basis, to collect the data on customer satisfaction and, if directed by the state, to make those data available to state insurance regulators, the industry, and the public. ## Test Administration The testing process should be fair and accessible for all candidates. A state should consider including the following elements below in its licensing process to ensure that applicants have equal access to examinations. ## Secure Administration"", ""## Examinations in Languages Other Than English Some industry experts suggest caution about using translated or interpreted exams. The material may not directly translate into equivalent terms or meaning. Cultural biases might cause incorrect interpretation of a meaning. Some experts recommend that tests should be developed and administered in English, especially if other materials necessary to perform job duties for the profession, such as contracts, are in English. State licensing directors should review state law and consult with legal counsel about the appropriateness of offering examinations in a foreign language. ## Reporting Examination Results State licensing procedures should include guidelines that facilitate the prompt issuance of licenses once an applicant passes a test. Elements might include: - 1. Pass/fail notices should be issued at exam sites upon completion of the exam. If an applicant has not achieved a passing score, the applicant should receive immediate notification of failure. States vary as to whether successful completion is reported with a precise score or merely an indication that the candidate passed the exam. When a candidate does not pass the exam, the state should provide the precise score and the percentage of questions in each subject area that the applicant answered incorrectly. - 2. If a state issues a paper license, and if it has been predetermined that an applicant has met all requirements necessary for licensure, including any required fingerprint report, a license should be issued at the exam site, or within 48 hours of completing all necessary requirements. - 3. The state should send an email or other timely communication to a candidate to whom a license has been issued outside the test site or provide information to applicants as to how to check online. - 4. Within 24 hours of license issuance, the new licensee's information should be added to the state's database, and the updated status should be sent to the National Insurance Producer Registry (NIPR). - 5. The states should work with their vendors to report aggregate results in a way that is more uniform with other states. - 6. First-time pass rates should be maintained and made available to the public. First-time pass rates are defined as the percentage of candidates who pass the whole test the first time. - 7. In performing background checks, the use of an electronic process should be required whenever possible."", '- · At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics when collected, and number of exams administered should be made available to the public. Reports should include first-time pass success and average scoring by subject area. Whenever possible, the reports should be available by education provider and provided to them. - · A state advisory committee consisting of state insurance regulators and the industry-including, where possible, recently licensed producers-should annually work with the testing vendor to review the questions on each examination form for substantive and psychometric requirements. If, during any other time, any examination results exhibit significant unexplained deviations, the examination should be reviewed. - · States should work with testing vendors and approve CIBs that describe the examinations and examination policies and procedures, and provide sufficient examination content outline and study references for the candidate to prepare for the examination. Updated editions of the CIB/content outline should be provided to prelicensing education providers at least six weeks in advance of implementation so that training materials can be updated. - · Testing should be made available at locations reasonably convenient to residents of all areas of the state, with registration available online or by telephone and the ability for a candidate to schedule testing within two to five business days of registration. - · Pass/fail notices should be issued at exam sites upon completion of the exam. The fail notice should break out scores by subject area. The state should provide a method to facilitate prompt retesting, while allowing a reasonable time for candidates to review and prepare for retest. - · States should deliver exams in a secure test center network that employs qualified test proctors. - · States should set clear performance standards for test vendors and require accountability. ## Chapter 9 ## Lines of Insurance ## The Major Lines']",medium,answer,"Based on the provided context, the security features a test center vendor should have to maintain exam integrity include:
 
 1. **Secure Administration**: The vendor should ensure the testing process is secure to prevent any form of cheating or unauthorized access.
@@ -386,23 +386,23 @@ These measures are implemented to enhance navigation safety, protect the marine
 3. **Established System of Examination Site Supervision**: The vendor should have a system in place to ensure that competent site administrators consistently provide accurate information to applicants and maintain exam integrity.
 4. **Prompt Notification of Conflicts**: The vendor should promptly notify the state of any conflicts or issues at examination test sites that could compromise exam integrity.
 5. **Quality, Accessible Facilities**: The vendor should provide quality and accessible facilities that support secure and fair testing conditions.
-6. **Secure Test Center Network**: The vendor should deliver exams in a secure test center network to ensure the integrity of the examination process.",4,Exam security requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">In performing background checks, the use of an electronic process should be required whenever possible. In those states requiring fingerprints, where possible, exam sites should have the capacity to electronically scan fingerprints</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Validation procedures for licensing examinations should be designed to comply with content validation requirements of the EEOC&#x27;s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures. State regulatory agencies should ensure proper test validation</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Examinations in Languages Other Than English: Some industry experts suggest caution about using translated or interpreted exams. The material may not directly translate into equivalent terms or meanings.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""At least annually, reports regarding exam pass rates, candidate demographics when collected, and number of exams administered should be made available to the public.""}]",,111
-3864,What type of oil should federal agencies prioritize purchasing according to E.O. 13149?,"[""| EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required | | Annual GHG and Sustainability Data Report | Provide FAST and non-FAST mobile emissions data to OSSM | Gallons of fuel consumed by type Cost of fuel consumed OA Representative provides non- FAST vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 1, or date mutually agreed upon between the OA and OSSM for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - Data Report | Provide FAST inventory, acquisition, and disposal data; fuel consumption, vehicle costs | Vehicle inventory actuals, acquisition actuals, and disposal actuals data Vehicle cost and mileage data report Actual fuel cost and consumption by fuel type data OA Fleet Manger provides owned vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 15 | ## 6. POLICY UPDATES AND/OR REVISIONS At least once every three years the OST Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management will review this Order to determine whether updates or revisions are necessary. In the interim, if Congress revises applicable laws, or the Executive Branch issues new E.O.s, Presidential Memoranda, guidance, or instructions related to fleet sustainability, they are incorporated by reference until the next update to this Order is made. ## 7. POLICY EXCEPTION REQUIREMENTS This Order applies to internal DOT actions and activities that affect the Department's vehicle fleet excluding vehicles cited as exempt within the Guidance for Federal Agencies on E.O. 13514, Section 12, Federal Fleet Management. OA Administrators can submit a request for a policy exception for DOT-owned or leased vehicles to the SSO, through OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management. Specific questions relating to this Order should be addressed to OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager. ## 8. DISTRIBUTION"", 'The GSA-issued fleet charge card is the only Government-issued charge card that may be used for GSA-leased vehicles. - b. The operator or assigned person shall be personally responsible for safeguarding and protecting Government-issued fuel cards. The fuel card must be removed from the vehicle when unattended, especially when left at a commercial facility for service, inspection, or repairs. Use of a fuel card for unauthorized purchases will subject the user to disciplinary action. - c. OA Fleet Managers should periodically review all charges on Government-issued fleet cards and address or correct any unusual charges. - d. Use of a fuel card for unauthorized purchases will subject the user to disciplinary action. Note: 41 CFR § 102-34.320 Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-123, : Appendix B, Improving the Management of Government Charge Card Programs (revised), contains additional specific guidance on the management, issuance, and usage of Government charge cards. The Appendix B guidance consolidates and updates current Government-wide charge card program requirements and guidance issued by OMB, GSA, Department of the Treasury, and other Federal agencies. Appendix B provides a single document to incorporate changes, new guidance, or amendments to existing guidance, and establishes minimum requirements and suggested best practices for Government charge card programs that individual OA policy and procedures may supplement. ## VIII. Motor Vehicle Fueling and Fuel Management On-site fueling facilities will be used to the maximum extent possible. All DOT organizations must be able to account for all fuel used by their respective fleets. This includes bulk fuel transactions, point-of-sale transactions and all transactions resulting from redistribution from tanks/tankers to vehicles. The organization must maintain a detailed record of all transactions that must be available for review/audit upon request.', ""- n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall: - i. Establish and publish local procedures for GSA leased and DOT-owned vehicles that describe what will be done if your fleet vehicles or equipment breakdown, including breakdowns that occur after hours. - ii. Include elements in the procedures such as name, address, and phone number of service provider(s), details of any contractual arrangements, and what each service provider is expected to do. - iii. Secure and publish the name, address, and phone number of wrecking/towing service providers. - iv. Establish contract services to handle requirements such as towing and flat tire repair as needed. - o. Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications. ## X. Disposal and/or Resale of Motor Vehicles FMR 102-34.300 prescribes guidelines for the transfer, storage, and disposal of Governmentowned motor vehicles. DOT's policy is that DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need. OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should consider using the exchange/sale authority (40 U.S.C. § 503) to reduce the cost of replacement personal property. When you have personal property that is wearing out or obsolete and must be replaced, you should consider either exchanging or selling that property and using the exchange allowance or sales proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement personal property."", ""## 8. DISTRIBUTION This Order is distributed to all OA Administrators, Senior Sustainability Officers, Associate Administrators for Administration, Senior Real Property Officers, and Procurement Officials. ## 9. CONTACT If you have specific questions related to this Order, please contact OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager, Mr. Eugene Tumblin at eugene.tumblin@dot.gov. ## 10. CANCELLATION This order cancels DOT M 4440.3C, Motor Vehicle Management Manual Program, dated April 3, 1995. ## FOR THE SECRETARY OF TRANSPORTATION: Jeff Marootian Assistant for Administration \\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_ \\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_ &lt;unknown&gt; ## APPENDIX A - Home-to-Work Distance Limitation Guideline Memo ## APPENDIX B - DOT Order 4359 Fleet Sustainability Policy""]",easy,answer,"According to E.O. 13149, federal agencies should prioritize purchasing re-refined oils over virgin petroleum oils whenever practicable, provided that the re-refined oils meet manufacturers' specifications.",4,Federal vehicle requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and meet future requirements</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The GSA-issued fleet charge card is the only Government-issued charge card that may be used for GSA-leased vehicles. The operator or assigned person shall be personally responsible for safeguarding the fleet charge card</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""DISTRIBUTION: This Order is distributed to all OA Administrators, Senior Sustainability Officers, Associate Administrators for Administration, Senior Real Property Officers, and Procurement Officers.""}]",,112
-4082,What's the deal with promises and tribes back in the day?,"[""Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek and obtain tribal consent to any extension of state jurisdiction. See Part I-B, supra ; Clinton 958-962. Unless a State takes these steps, it does ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 'not hav[e] jurisdiction.' 25 U. S. C. §§ 1321(a), 1323(b). 6 'inherent' The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma enjoys authority to try crimes against Native Americans within the Cherokee Reservation makes a mockery of all of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968. The GCA and MCA? On the Court's account, Congress foolishly extended federal criminal law to tribal lands on a mistaken assumption that only tribal law would otherwise apply. Unknown to anyone until today, state law applied all along. The treaty, the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and the provision in Oklahoma's constitution that Congress insisted upon as a condition of statehood? The Court effectively ignores them. The Kansas Act and its sibling statutes? On the Court's account, they were needless too. Congress's instruction in Public Law 280 that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members on tribal lands until they amend contrary state law and obtain tribal consent? Once more, it seems the Court thinks Congress was hopelessly misguided. Through it all, the Court makes no effort to grapple with the backdrop rule of tribal sovereignty. The Court proceeds oblivious to the rule that only a clear act of Congress may impose constraints on tribal sovereignty. The Court ignores the fact that Congress has never come close to subjecting the Cherokee to state criminal jurisdiction over crimes against tribal members within the Tribe's reservation. The Court even disregards our precedents recognizing that the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, (MCA). See R. Anderson, S. Krakoff, &amp; B. BerS. 621, 623 Crimes Act ger, American Indian Law: Cases and Commentary 90-96 (4th ed. 2008) (Anderson). There, Congress directed that, moving forward, only the federal government, not the Tribes, could prosecute certain serious offenses by tribal members on tribal lands. See 18 U. S. C. § 1153(a). On its own initiative, this Court then went a step further. Relying on language in certain laws admitting specific States to the Union, the Court held that States were now entitled to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against non-Indians on tribal lands. See United States v. McBratney, 104 U. (1882); Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 243, 247 (1896). Through all these developments, however, at least one promise remained: States could play no role in the prosecution of crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands. See Williams v. Lee, 358 U. S. 217, 220 (1959). In 1906, Congress reaffirmed this promise to the Cherokee in Oklahoma. As a condition of its admission to the Union, Congress required Oklahoma to 'declare that [it] forever disclaim[s] all right and title in or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limits owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead, Congress provided that tribal lands would'remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. As if the point wasn't clear enough, Congress further provided that 'nothing contained in the [new Oklahoma state] constitution shall be construed to... limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States... respecting [the State's] Indians... which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' Id., at 267-268. The following year, Oklahoma adopted a State Constitution consistent with Congress's instructions. Art."", ""375, 384 (1886). J., dissenting GORSUCH, government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. § 1153(a); see also Part I-B, When Congress enacted the MCA in 1885, it proceeded once more against the 'backdrop' rule that only tribal criminal law applies on tribal lands, that States enjoy no inherent authority to prosecute cases on tribal lands, and that only Congress may displace tribal power. Nor, once more, did Congress's new legislation purport to allow States to prosecute crimes on tribal lands. In response to concerns with how tribal authorities were handling major crimes committed by tribal members, in the MCA Congress took a step beyond the GCA and instructed that, in the future, the federal prosecute certain crimes by Indian defendants on tribal lands. 18 U. supra. Here again, Congress's work hardly would have been necessary or made sense if States already possessed jurisdiction to try crimes by or against Indians on tribal reservations. Plainly, Congress's 'purpose' in adopting the MCA was to answer the 'objection' that major crimes by tribal members on tribal lands would otherwise be subject to prosecution by tribal authorities alone. See Kagama, 118 U. S., at 383385. Consider next the Treaty of New Echota and the Oklahoma Enabling Act. In 1835, the United States entered into a treaty with the Cherokee. In that treaty, the Nation promised that, within a new reservation in what was to become Oklahoma, the Tribe would enjoy the right to govern itself and remain forever free from 'State sovereignties' and 'the jurisdiction of any State.' Treaty with the Cherokee, Preamble, 7 Stat. 478. This Court has instructed that tribal treaties must be interpreted as they 'would naturally be understood by the Indians' at ratification. Herrera v. Wyoming, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (slip op., at 19) (internal ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""408, 416-418 (2003) (Breyer). In refusing to sanction Georgia's power grab, this Court explained that the State's 'assertion of jurisdiction over the Cherokee nation' was 'void,' because under our Constitution only the federal government possessed the power to manage relations with the Tribe. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 542, 561-562. B Two years later, and exercising its authority to regulate tribal affairs in the shadow of Worcester, Congress adopted the General Crimes Act of 1834 (GCA). That law extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands for certain crimes and, in doing so, served two apparent purposes. First, as a 'courtesy' to the Tribes, the law represented a promise by the federal government 'to punish crimes... committed... by and against our own [non-Indian] citizens.' H. Rep. No. 474, 23d Cong., 1st Sess., 13 (1834) (H. Rep. No. 474). That jurisdictional arrangement was also ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, against non-Indians. See consistent with, and even seemingly compelled by, the federal government's treaties with various Tribes. See F. Cohen, Handbook of Federal Indian Law 731 (N. Newton et al. eds. 2005) (Cohen); R. Clinton, Development of Criminal Jurisdiction Over Indian Lands: The Historical Perspective, 17 Ariz. L. Rev. 951, 958-962 (1975) (Clinton). Second, because Worcester held that States lacked criminal jurisdiction on tribal lands, Congress sought to ensure a federal forum for crimes committed by and H. Rep. No. 474, at 13. Otherwise, Congress understood, non-Indian settlers would be subject to tribal jurisdiction alone. See id., at 13, 18; R. Barsh &amp; J. Henderson, The Betrayal, Oliphant v. Suquamish Indian Tribe and the Hunting of the Snark, 63 Minn. L. Rev. 609, 625-626 (1979)."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, House Committee on Indian Affairs, which obS. 376, 379quotation marks omitted). And having just lost their traditional homelands to Georgia, who can doubt that the Cherokee understood this promise as a guarantee that they would retain their sovereign authority over crimes by or against tribal members subject only to federal, not state, law? That was certainly the contemporaneous understanding of the served that '[t]he United States and the Indian tribes [would be] the sole parties' with power over new reservations in the West. H. Rep. No. 474, at 18; see also Part IB, supra. This Court has long shared the same view. 'By treaties and statutes,' the Court has said, 'the right of the Cherokee [N]ation to exist as an autonomous body, subject always to the paramount authority of the United States, has been recognized.' Talton v. Mayes, 163 U. 380 (1896). 4 ------ nations in 1871.' 7, 22, n. 8 In the course of its dicta on the treaty, the Court highlights still two other irrelevant facts-that the Cherokee engaged in treaties with the Confederacy during the Civil War and that 'Congress abolished treatymaking with the Indian Ante, at 21, n. ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,""]",medium,answer,"Back in the day, promises made to tribes, such as the Cherokee, were often formalized through treaties and legislation. These agreements typically guaranteed tribal sovereignty and self-governance, free from state interference. For example, the Treaty of New Echota (1835) promised the Cherokee the right to govern themselves without state jurisdiction. Congress reinforced these promises through laws like the General Crimes Act (1834) and the Major Crimes Act (1885), which extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands, ensuring that states could not prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands without explicit tribal consent. These measures were intended to uphold tribal sovereignty and federal authority over tribal affairs, as seen in cases like Worcester v. Georgia (1832), which voided state assertions of jurisdiction over tribal lands.",5,Tribal legal jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek approval from the federal government</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">J., dissenting GORSUCH, (MCA). See R. Anderson, S. Krakoff, &amp; B. BerS. 621, 623 Crimes Act ger, American Indian Law: Cases and Commentary 90-96 (4th ed. 2008) (Anderson). There, Congress directed federal officials to prosecute</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""375, 384 (1886). J., dissenting GORSUCH, government would have &#x27;exclusive jurisdiction&#x27; to S. C. \u00a7 1153(a); see also Part I-B, When Congress enacted the MCA in 1885, it proceeded once more against the backdrop.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""408, 416-418 (2003) (Breyer). In refusing to sanction Georgia&#x27;s power grab, this Court explained that the State&#x27;s &#x27;assertion of jurisdiction over the Cherokee nation&#x27; was &#x27;void,&#x27; because under our Constitution.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""J., dissenting GORSUCH, House Committee on Indian Affairs, which obS. 376, 379quotation marks omitted). And having just lost their traditional homelands to Georgia, who can doubt that the Cherokee people wished to protect.""}]",,113
-3815,Identify the authority responsible for approving exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags.,"['## § 30104. Authorization of appropriations There is authorized to be appropriated to the Secretary $98,313,500 for the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration to carry out this part in each fiscal year beginning in fiscal year 1999 and ending in fiscal year 2001. ## § 30105. Restrictions on lobbying activities - (a) In general. --No funds appropriated to the Secretary for the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration shall be available for any activity specifically designed to urge a State or local legislator to favor or oppose the adoption of any specific legislative proposal pending before any State or local legislative body. - (b) Appearance as witness not barred. --Subsection (a) does not prohibit officers or employees of the United States from testifying before any State or local legislative body in response to the invitation of any member of that legislative body or a State executive office. ## § 30106. Rented or leased motor vehicle safety and responsibility - (a) In general. --An owner of a motor vehicle that rents or leases the vehicle to a person (or an affiliate of the owner) shall not be liable under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, by reason of being the owner of the vehicle (or an affiliate of the owner), for harm to persons or property that results or arises out of the use, operation, or possession of the vehicle during the period of the rental or lease, if-- - (1) the owner (or an affiliate of the owner) is engaged in the trade or business of renting or leasing motor vehicles; and - (2) there is no negligence or criminal wrongdoing on the part of the owner (or an affiliate of the owner). - (b) Financial responsibility laws. --Nothing in this section supersedes the law of any State or political subdivision thereof-- - (1) imposing financial responsibility or insurance standards on the owner of a motor vehicle for the privilege of registering and operating a motor vehicle; or - (2) imposing liability on business entities engaged in the trade or business of renting or leasing motor vehicles for failure to meet the financial responsibility or liability insurance requirements under State law.', ""- d. State and Local Vehicle Registration and Inspection: If the Government motor vehicle displays U.S. Government license plate and motor vehicle identification, you do not need to register it in the jurisdiction where operated. All motor vehicles must be inspected in accordance with the laws of the jurisdiction where it is regularly operated. - e. DOT-owned License Plates: FMR 102-34.150 provides information for the procurement of license plates for DOT-owned vehicles. GSA has established a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) on behalf of all Federal agencies with Federal Prison Industries (UNICOR) for the procurement of official U.S. Government license plates. The DOT Fleet Manager has executed an addendum to this MOU providing plate design and assignment numbers for all DOT organizations. The table below designates assigned numbers to be used on DOT license plates. Submit any request for additional numbers to the Office of Facilities, Information and Asset Management, the Administrative Services Policy Division (M-93) at Headquarters, Department of Transportation. - f. Lost or Stolen License Plates: OAs must immediately report lost or stolen plates to local law enforcement officials, local security office (or equivalent), the OA Fleet Manager, the Federal Protective Service (FPS) Watch center, update the FMVRS for DOT-owned vehicles, and notify GSA's Fleet Management Center for GSA leased vehicles. Also, take immediate action - to update FMVRS if the vehicle is reassigned or the license plates are voided, lost, or destroyed. - g. Transfer of License Plates: No license plate issued by UNICOR shall be transferred to another vehicle. Remove all DOT license plates from DOT-owned vehicles prior to disposal/transfer and return them to UNICOR for disposal. The OA Fleet Manager is responsible for updating FMVRS and their internal listing of license plate numbers. ## License Plate Number Assignment for DOT Owned Motor Vehicles"", ""## License Plate Number Assignment for DOT Owned Motor Vehicles | Acrony m | Organization | Assigned Numbers | |------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------| | OST | Office of the Secretary of Transportation | 1 - 100 | | OST-R | Office of the Secretary of Transportation - Research and Technology | 101 - 1,999 | | | MARAD Maritime Administration | 2000 - 2,099 | | PHMSA | Pipeline and Hazardous Material Safety Administration | 2,100 - 4,999 | | NHTSA | National Highway Traffic Safety Administration | 5000 - 9,999 | | FMCSA | Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration | 10,000 - 19,900 | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | 20,000 - 39,900 | | FHWA | Federal Highway Administration | 40,000 - 49,900 | | FRA | Federal Railroad Administration | 50,000 - 59,999 | | SLSDC | Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation | 60,000 - 69,999 | | FTA | Federal Transit Administration | 70,000 - 70,999 | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | 71,000 - 79,999 | | NHTSA | National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (Test Vehicles Only) | 80,000 - 80,999 | | STB | Surface Transportation Board | 90,000 - 90,999 | ## V. Motor Vehicle Identification Exemption: Vehicles may be exempted from the display of U.S. Government and agency identification and license tags when they are issued primarily for investigations, law enforcement, or intelligence duties involving security activities or the safety of the vehicle's occupants. Exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags and other identification may be approved by Director of M90 when such identification may endanger the security of individuals or the U.S. Government or interfere with the purpose for which the motor vehicle is used."", ""## 1. PURPOSE The mission of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is to ensure a fast, safe, efficient, accessible and convenient transportation system that meets vital national interests and enhances the quality of life of the American people. This Order conveys policy, delegates authority, and assigns responsibility to ensure that DOT, including its Operating Administrations (OAs), meet all legal and regulatory requirements related to environmentally responsible procurement, operation, maintenance, and disposal of motor vehicles in fulfillment of that mission. This Order supplements and implements the Federal Management Regulations (FMR) 102-34, which documents the Government-wide policy on motor vehicles. A key goal of the Order is to ensure compliance with Federal mandates affecting the DOT Motor Vehicle Fleet Program and the management and operation of its vehicles and equipment, such as Executive Orders (E.O.s), Federal statutes, and DOT Directives. This Order is closely tied to DOT's Fleet Sustainability Order 4359 and there is a great deal of overlap in its goals and objectives. This Order applies to DOT actions and activities that affect its motor vehicle fleet, including DOTowned and leased vehicles. In addition, this Order directs DOT to optimize its fleet while ensuring that it can fulfill the Department's mission, reduce the use of petroleum and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, and increase the use of alternative fuels in fleet vehicles. In addition to contributing to reduced use of petroleum and reduced GHG emissions through purchasing its own fleet, the DOT, through the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), jointly with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have issued regulations requiring improved fuel economy and reduced GHG emissions for light duty vehicles, as well as regulations requiring increased fuel efficiency and reduced GHG emissions for medium- and heavy-duty vehicles, contributing to reduced petroleum consumption and reduced GHG emissions in the national fleet. The requirements of this Order shall not restrict or inhibit DOT operations or the safety of the traveling public. ## 2. POLICY"", '| 30119. Notification procedures...........................................................................................................................................................................................................13 | | 30120. Remedies for defects and noncompliance.....................................................................................................................................................14 | | 30121. Provisional notifications and civil actions to enforce..................................................................................................................16 | | 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative............................................................................................................................17 | | 30123. Tires...................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... 18 | | 30124. Buzzers indicating nonuse of safety belts.................................................................................................................. 18 | | 30125. Schoolbuses and schoolbus equipment............................................................................................................................................................18 | | 30126. Used motor vehicles.................................................................................................................................................................... 19 | | 30127. Automatic occupant crash protection and seat belt use............................................................................................................19 | | 30128. Vehicle rollover prevention and crash mitigation........................................................... 22 | ## SUBCHAPTER III. IMPORTING NONCOMPLYING MOTOR VEHICLES AND EQUIPMENT | | 30141. Importing motor vehicles capable of complying with standards...................................... 22 | |----|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | 30142. Importing motor vehicles for personal use....................................................................... 24 | | | 30143. Motor vehicles imported by individuals employed outside the United States................. 25 | | | 30144. Importing motor vehicles on a temporary basis............................................................... 26 | | | 30145. Importing motor vehicles or equipment requiring further manufacturing........................ 26 | | | 30146. Release of motor vehicles and bonds............................................................................... 26 | | | 30147. Responsibility for defects and noncompliance................................................................. 27 | | | SUBCHAPTER IV. ENFORCEMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE |']",medium,answer,The authority responsible for approving exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags is the Director of M90. This approval is granted when such identification may endanger the security of individuals or the U.S. Government or interfere with the purpose for which the motor vehicle is used.,5,Government vehicle identification,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">\u00a7 30104. Authorization of appropriations There is authorized to be appropriated to the Secretary $98,313,500 for the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration to carry out this part in each fiscal year</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">State and Local Vehicle Registration and Inspection: If the Government motor vehicle displays U.S. Government license plate and motor vehicle identification, you do not need to register it in the State in which it is operated</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""License Plate Number Assignment for DOT Owned Motor Vehicles | Acronym | Organization | Assigned Numbers |""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""PURPOSE: The mission of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is to ensure a fast, safe, efficient, accessible and convenient transportation system that meets vital national interests.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""30119. Notification procedures.""}]",,114
-763,What are the requirements for companies regarding advance drafts of recall notices?,"[""- · responsibility for serving as the firm's primary liaison with CPSC. ## IDENTIFYING AFFECTED PRODUCTS At the outset, the recall coordinator should review fully the firm's product line to verify regulatory conformance of each product. The firm should institute a product identification system if one is not now in use. Model designations and date-ofmanufacture codes should be used on all products, whether they carry the firm's name or are privately labeled for other firms. All children's products are required to bear tracking information as required under section 14(a)(5) of the CPSA (section 102 of the CPSIA). If a product recall is necessary, this practice allows the firm to identify easily all affected products without undertaking a costly recall of the entire production. Similarly, once a specific product has been recalled and corrected, a new model number or other means of identification used on new, corrected products allows distributors, retailers, and consumers to distinguish products subject to recall from the new items. Until a production change can be made to incorporate a new model number or date code, some companies have used sticker labels to differentiate products that have been checked and corrected from recalled products. ## RECORDS MAINTENANCE The goal of any product recall is to retrieve, repair, or replace those products already in consumers' hands, as well as those in the distribution chain that do not comply with a statutory requirement, mandatory standard, regulation, or ban. Maintaining accurate records about the design, production, distribution, and marketing of each product for the duration of its expected life, and maintaining any records required by a regulation or standard is essential for a firm to conduct an effective, economical product recall. Generally, the following records are important both to identifying noncomplying products and conducting and monitoring recalls:"", ""## HOW CPSC ENFORCES ITS STATUTES The goal of the Commission's Compliance Program is to ensure that firms comply with the statutes, rules, regulations, standards, and bans that protect consumers from hazardous products. To achieve this goal, the agency conducts three main types of compliance activities: - · Maintaining surveillance over consumer products by monitoring consumer incidents, following up on reports by entering and inspecting any factory, warehouse or establishment where consumer products are manufactured or held, or any firewalled conformity assessment bodies, and sampling and testing such products that may not be in compliance with federal standards or that may be potentially hazardous products. - · Informing stakeholders or the regulated community of CPSC requirements for their products through education, workshops and seminars, and written informational letters, including guidelines and other publications, as appropriate. - · Testing consumer products to the mandatory requirements, identifying noncompliance, and obtaining corrections of noncompliant products (primarily by working cooperatively with industry, but initiating litigation when necessary) through reconditioning and recalls of hazardous products from the marketplace or consumers. Specific compliance activities regarding enforcement include the following: - · Monitoring compliance with statutes, rules, standards, regulations, bans, and other requirements and enforcing existing regulations and laws by: (1) conducting both domestic surveillance through inspections of manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers of consumer products and import surveillance at ports of entry in conjunction with U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP or Customs); and (2) investigating injury reports, consumer complaints, trade complaints, or other allegations or indications that a firm is manufacturing or distributing consumer products not in compliance with a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under our authority. - · Section 15 of the CPSA requires manufacturers, distributors, and retailers to report to the CPSC, among other things, products that fail to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule under the CPSA or any other similar rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any statute enforced by the CPSC."", ""- · Notices in product catalogs, newsletters, and other marketing materials; - · Notices to repair/parts shops and placements in service bulletins; - · Notices to trade groups, utilities, and home/fire inspectors, as applicable; - · Notices included with product replacement parts/accessories; - · Notices to secondhand stores and/or online retailers; and, - · Incentives, such as money, gifts, premiums, or coupons to encourage consumers to return the product. The CPSC Office of Communications must review and agree upon press releases and social media-based communications that a company intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination. The Office of Compliance and Field Operations must also review and agree upon each form of notice that a firm intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination of the notice. Therefore, it is imperative that companies give the Office of Compliance and Field Operations advance drafts of all notices or other communications that are to be disseminated to media, customers, and consumers. The CPSC uses traditional, social, and online media to communicate recalls to the public in plain language using information from agreed-upon joint press releases. Traditional media includes print, radio, and broadcast outlets. Social media can include CPSC's blog, Twitter handle, YouTube channel, Flickr page, and Storify. The agency also posts recalls on CPSC.gov, Recalls.gov, our Recalls phone app, and to members of our recalls listserv. In media platforms that capture two-way communications, CPSC only manages the messages posted by the agency. The following are some specific suggestions for communicating recall information: ## NEWS RELEASES"", ""## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA) Under section 9 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. § 1198, imported products, fabrics, or related materials delivered from customs custody under bond must conform to applicable flammability standards in effect on the date of entry. Absent such conformance, the Secretary of the Treasury shall demand redelivery. Redelivery is the return of previously released merchandise to Custom's custody. Failure to redeliver will result in the assertion of a claim for liquidated damages for breach of a condition of the bond arising out of such failure to conform or redeliver. For information about reconditioning violative imported products, see Chapter 8. ## CHAPTER 5-RECALLING A REGULATED PRODUCT This Chapter provides information on initiating a product recall when CPSC staff or a regulated entity determines that: (a) a product fails to comply with a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, and (b) the hazard associated with a product warrants recall of the product from the distribution chain or from consumers. The objective of the recall is to: - 2. remove noncomplying product from the distribution chain and from the possession of consumers, if applicable; and - 1. locate all noncomplying product as quickly as possible; - 3. accurately communicate information to the public in a timely manner about a noncomplying product, the hazard it presents, and the action needed to correct the problem. Companies should design all informational materials to motivate retailers and the media inform the public and to motivate consumers to respond affirmatively to the recall. ## PREPARING FOR A PRODUCT RECALL"", '## PROCEDURES FOR OBTAINING AUTHORIZATION TO RECONDITION When CPSC notifies a firm in a LOA that a shipment of goods imported by the firm fails to comply with CPSC requirements, and the firm does not have evidence to the contrary, the firm may request to be given an opportunity to recondition the goods to bring them into compliance with the applicable requirements. Before undertaking such reconditioning, the firm must request and obtain authorization from the CPSC to do so prior to the goods being conditionally released by CBP for reconditioning. The CPSC regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1500.269, covering imported products subject to the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), states that application for authorization to relabel or perform other action to bring violative goods into compliance with the FHSA may be filed only by the owner or consignee of the product. This procedure applies to violative imported products subject to all statutes administered by the CPSC. The application for authorization to recondition violative goods held at CBP or released under bond must be submitted in writing to the Director of the Office of Compliance and Field Operations at the CPSC or as directed in the LOA. The application must: - 1. Contain detailed proposals for bringing the article into compliance with CPSC requirements. - 2. Specify the time and place where the items will be brought into compliance and the approximate time for their completion. CPSC Form #332 may be used to submit this information to the CPSC. A copy of the form generally is provided with the LOA or may be obtained by contacting the Compliance Officer or the CPSC investigator identified in the LOA. If the request for authorization to recondition is granted, CPSC staff will notify the firm in writing (or via CPSC Form #332 if the application was submitted using the form) that authorization has been granted. The notice from the CPSC will specify: - 1. the procedure to be followed; - 2. who will supervise the reconditioning (normally CPSC or CBP personnel); - 3. a time limit for completing the operation; and - 4. such other conditions as are necessary to maintain adequate supervision and control over the article.']",hard,answer,"According to the provided context, companies are required to submit advance drafts of all recall notices or other communications to the CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations for review and approval before publication or dissemination. This includes press releases, social media-based communications, and any other forms of notice intended for media, customers, and consumers. The CPSC Office of Communications must also review and agree upon press releases and social media-based communications before they are published or disseminated.",5,Product recall procedures,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Responsibility for serving as the firm&#x27;s primary liaison with CPSC. IDENTIFYING AFFECTED PRODUCTS: At the outset, the recall coordinator should review fully the firm&#x27;s product line to verify regulatory compliance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">HOW CPSC ENFORCES ITS STATUTES: The goal of the Commission&#x27;s Compliance Program is to ensure that firms comply with the statutes, rules, regulations, standards, and bans that protect consumers from unreasonable risks</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Notices in product catalogs, newsletters, and other marketing materials; Notices to repair/parts shops and placements in service bulletins; Notices to trade groups, utilities, and home/fire insurance companies.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA): Under section 9 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. \u00a7 1198, imported products, fabrics, or related materials delivered from customs custody under bond must comply.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""PROCEDURES FOR OBTAINING AUTHORIZATION TO RECONDITION: When CPSC notifies a firm in a LOA that a shipment of goods imported by the firm fails to comply with CPSC requirements, and the firm does not.""}]",,115
-1647,Identify the populations that require different efforts and resources to improve their health.,"['135 In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ, people who have a disability or who live in a rural community, and others who have historically been excluded), thus further increasing health inequities. Strategies aimed at the general population are often less effective among racial/ethnic minority groups and those of low socioeconomic status. Initiatives must address the unique challenges and barriers that certain groups often face when attempting to modify lifestyle behaviors, with culturally appropriate tailoring and equitable support to promote healthy behaviors. Trends in excess body weight among youth are also a significant public health concern; children with obesity are more likely than normal-weight children to become adults with obesity, and their obesity in adulthood is likely to be more severe. 136 Promoting obesity prevention and positive lifestyle behaviors during youth is more effective, and often more successful, than efforts to change unhealthy patterns of behavior in adult populations. 137 Therefore, creating health-promoting and antiobesogenic environments that make it easier for children to establish positive eating and physical activity behaviors early in life are critical. ## Improving Healthy Eating and Active Living-Related Environments Effective strategies are being tested to address healthy ating and active living by numerous organizations that have e reated c evidence-based recommendations, including the WHO, 138 the National Academy of Medicine, 139 the CDC, the WCRF/AICR, and the American Heart Association. 4 140 A consensus among these recommendations is a call for policy and systems change, the identification of key environments to promote change, and the need for multiple sectors to work collaboratively to reduce barriers to healthy eating and active living, particularly among lower income and racial/ethnic minority and rural communities. Thus, health promotion considerations should be incorporated into urban, rural, and regional planning and development. To reduce health-related inequities among specific population groups, communitybased approaches should be adapted to meet the needs of the target community. 139', '158 Ensuring that all individuals have access to affordable, healthy food choices and opportunities for safe physical activity will require multiple strategies and bold action, ranging from the implementation of community, worksite, school, childcare, and other health promotion programs to policies that affect community planning, architecture, transportation, school-based physical education, food advertising and marketing, and food services. Special attention must also be paid to recognizing that individuals and populations with the greatest needs, the least resources, and/or those facing increased and unique burdens and challenges require different, not equal, effort and resources to improve their health. Policies, programs, and services should be explicit about prioritizing these populations to achieve health equity. Public, private, and community organizations at local, state, and national levels should consider the implementation and testing of new policies and the reallocation or expansion of resources to weight management, greater physical activity, and healthful diet choices (including avoidance of alcohol) that will improve health. Health care professionals; school, business, faith group, and other community leaders; and elected officials and policy makers are in unique and critical positions to provide leadership and advocate for purposeful changes in public policy and in community environments that are necessary to help all individuals maintain a healthy body weight and remain physically active throughout life, and to engage community members in the design, implementation, and evaluation of these strategies within the aforementioned sectors. 111 ## Common Questions and Answers This section is intended to assist clinicians, public health professionals, and policymakers in addressing questions that commonly arise within the general public. ## Acrylamide ## What is acrylamide, and is it associated with an increased risk of cancer? Acrylamide is a chemical used in industrial processing and is also found in food and tobacco smoke. Acrylamide in food is formed as a by-product of the Maillard reaction, in which the amino acid asparagine reacts with certain sugars when heated to high temperatures. The major sources of acrylamide in our diets are French fries and potato chips; crackers, bread, and cookies; breakfast cereals; canned black olives; prune juice; and coffee.']",medium,answer,"The populations that require different efforts and resources to improve their health include marginalized groups such as people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ individuals, people with disabilities, those living in rural communities, and others who have historically been excluded. Additionally, racial/ethnic minority groups, individuals of low socioeconomic status, and children with obesity are highlighted as needing targeted strategies to address health inequities and promote healthy behaviors.",2,Health equity considerations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ individuals, and rural residents)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Ensuring that all individuals have access to affordable, healthy food choices and opportunities for safe physical activity will require multiple strategies and bold action, ranging from the implementation of new policies</span>.""}]",,116
+6. **Secure Test Center Network**: The vendor should deliver exams in a secure test center network to ensure the integrity of the examination process.",4,Exam security requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vendor should provide <span class=\""highlight\"">accessible information regarding the registration system through the internet, toll-free telephone numbers, interactive voice response, fax, and other available technologies</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vendor should <span class=\""highlight\"">promptly provide the state with all pertinent information, including prompt notification of any candidate complaints, changes to test administration, conflicts at examination test sites, or other information requested or required by the state</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The vendor should provide <span class=\""highlight\"">quality, accessible facilities, with an established system of examination site supervision that ensures that competent site administrators consistently provide accurate information to applicants</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""States should <span class=\""highlight\"">deliver exams in a secure test center network that employs qualified test proctors</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In performing background checks, <span class=\""highlight\"">the use of an electronic process should be required whenever possible</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In those states requiring fingerprints, where possible, <span class=\""highlight\"">exam sites should have the capability to collect electronic fingerprints</span>.""}]",,111
+3864,What type of oil should federal agencies prioritize purchasing according to E.O. 13149?,"[""| EISA Section 142 Fleet Plan | Revised plan to meet petroleum reduction and alternative fuel increase requirements | Specific and quantifiable means by which DOT will remedy any current shortfall and catch-up to meet the next year's milestone OA Fleet Manger provides input | No later than August 15, if required | | Annual GHG and Sustainability Data Report | Provide FAST and non-FAST mobile emissions data to OSSM | Gallons of fuel consumed by type Cost of fuel consumed OA Representative provides non- FAST vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 1, or date mutually agreed upon between the OA and OSSM for the previous fiscal year | | FAST - Data Report | Provide FAST inventory, acquisition, and disposal data; fuel consumption, vehicle costs | Vehicle inventory actuals, acquisition actuals, and disposal actuals data Vehicle cost and mileage data report Actual fuel cost and consumption by fuel type data OA Fleet Manger provides owned vehicle information | Annually, no later than December 15 | ## 6. POLICY UPDATES AND/OR REVISIONS At least once every three years the OST Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management will review this Order to determine whether updates or revisions are necessary. In the interim, if Congress revises applicable laws, or the Executive Branch issues new E.O.s, Presidential Memoranda, guidance, or instructions related to fleet sustainability, they are incorporated by reference until the next update to this Order is made. ## 7. POLICY EXCEPTION REQUIREMENTS This Order applies to internal DOT actions and activities that affect the Department's vehicle fleet excluding vehicles cited as exempt within the Guidance for Federal Agencies on E.O. 13514, Section 12, Federal Fleet Management. OA Administrators can submit a request for a policy exception for DOT-owned or leased vehicles to the SSO, through OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management. Specific questions relating to this Order should be addressed to OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager. ## 8. DISTRIBUTION"", 'The GSA-issued fleet charge card is the only Government-issued charge card that may be used for GSA-leased vehicles. - b. The operator or assigned person shall be personally responsible for safeguarding and protecting Government-issued fuel cards. The fuel card must be removed from the vehicle when unattended, especially when left at a commercial facility for service, inspection, or repairs. Use of a fuel card for unauthorized purchases will subject the user to disciplinary action. - c. OA Fleet Managers should periodically review all charges on Government-issued fleet cards and address or correct any unusual charges. - d. Use of a fuel card for unauthorized purchases will subject the user to disciplinary action. Note: 41 CFR § 102-34.320 Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-123, : Appendix B, Improving the Management of Government Charge Card Programs (revised), contains additional specific guidance on the management, issuance, and usage of Government charge cards. The Appendix B guidance consolidates and updates current Government-wide charge card program requirements and guidance issued by OMB, GSA, Department of the Treasury, and other Federal agencies. Appendix B provides a single document to incorporate changes, new guidance, or amendments to existing guidance, and establishes minimum requirements and suggested best practices for Government charge card programs that individual OA policy and procedures may supplement. ## VIII. Motor Vehicle Fueling and Fuel Management On-site fueling facilities will be used to the maximum extent possible. All DOT organizations must be able to account for all fuel used by their respective fleets. This includes bulk fuel transactions, point-of-sale transactions and all transactions resulting from redistribution from tanks/tankers to vehicles. The organization must maintain a detailed record of all transactions that must be available for review/audit upon request.', ""- n. Unscheduled Repairs/Breakdowns: OA Fleet Managers shall, to the extent possible, work to ensure maximum vehicle availability for customers with minimum interruptions due to unscheduled repairs and breakdowns. OA Fleet Managers shall: - i. Establish and publish local procedures for GSA leased and DOT-owned vehicles that describe what will be done if your fleet vehicles or equipment breakdown, including breakdowns that occur after hours. - ii. Include elements in the procedures such as name, address, and phone number of service provider(s), details of any contractual arrangements, and what each service provider is expected to do. - iii. Secure and publish the name, address, and phone number of wrecking/towing service providers. - iv. Establish contract services to handle requirements such as towing and flat tire repair as needed. - o. Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications. ## X. Disposal and/or Resale of Motor Vehicles FMR 102-34.300 prescribes guidelines for the transfer, storage, and disposal of Governmentowned motor vehicles. DOT's policy is that DOT-owned motor vehicles may be disposed of, funds permitting, when the vehicle meets or exceeds the minimum federal replacement standards, and/or when it is excess to an organization's need. OA Fleet Managers, when replacing vehicles, should consider using the exchange/sale authority (40 U.S.C. § 503) to reduce the cost of replacement personal property. When you have personal property that is wearing out or obsolete and must be replaced, you should consider either exchanging or selling that property and using the exchange allowance or sales proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement personal property."", ""## 8. DISTRIBUTION This Order is distributed to all OA Administrators, Senior Sustainability Officers, Associate Administrators for Administration, Senior Real Property Officers, and Procurement Officials. ## 9. CONTACT If you have specific questions related to this Order, please contact OST's Office of Facilities, Information, and Asset Management, DOT Fleet Manager, Mr. Eugene Tumblin at eugene.tumblin@dot.gov. ## 10. CANCELLATION This order cancels DOT M 4440.3C, Motor Vehicle Management Manual Program, dated April 3, 1995. ## FOR THE SECRETARY OF TRANSPORTATION: Jeff Marootian Assistant for Administration \\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_ \\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_\\_ &lt;unknown&gt; ## APPENDIX A - Home-to-Work Distance Limitation Guideline Memo ## APPENDIX B - DOT Order 4359 Fleet Sustainability Policy""]",easy,answer,"According to E.O. 13149, federal agencies should prioritize purchasing re-refined oils over virgin petroleum oils whenever practicable, provided that the re-refined oils meet manufacturers' specifications.",4,Federal vehicle requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Lubricants: Vehicle Coordinators will ensure that E.O. 13149 is followed whenever practicable. For example, section 403 mandates that <span class=\""highlight\"">federal agencies shall not purchase or allow the use of virgin petroleum oils when re-refined oils are reasonably available and meet manufacturers' specifications</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""By managing and adhering to PM programs, a well-managed fleet operation can detect and correct minor problems before they result in service-disrupting breakdowns and costly repairs.""}]",,112
+4082,What's the deal with promises and tribes back in the day?,"[""Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek and obtain tribal consent to any extension of state jurisdiction. See Part I-B, supra ; Clinton 958-962. Unless a State takes these steps, it does ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, 'not hav[e] jurisdiction.' 25 U. S. C. §§ 1321(a), 1323(b). 6 'inherent' The Court's suggestion that Oklahoma enjoys authority to try crimes against Native Americans within the Cherokee Reservation makes a mockery of all of Congress's work from 1834 to 1968. The GCA and MCA? On the Court's account, Congress foolishly extended federal criminal law to tribal lands on a mistaken assumption that only tribal law would otherwise apply. Unknown to anyone until today, state law applied all along. The treaty, the Oklahoma Enabling Act, and the provision in Oklahoma's constitution that Congress insisted upon as a condition of statehood? The Court effectively ignores them. The Kansas Act and its sibling statutes? On the Court's account, they were needless too. Congress's instruction in Public Law 280 that States may not exercise jurisdiction over crimes by or against tribal members on tribal lands until they amend contrary state law and obtain tribal consent? Once more, it seems the Court thinks Congress was hopelessly misguided. Through it all, the Court makes no effort to grapple with the backdrop rule of tribal sovereignty. The Court proceeds oblivious to the rule that only a clear act of Congress may impose constraints on tribal sovereignty. The Court ignores the fact that Congress has never come close to subjecting the Cherokee to state criminal jurisdiction over crimes against tribal members within the Tribe's reservation. The Court even disregards our precedents recognizing that the ------ ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, (MCA). See R. Anderson, S. Krakoff, &amp; B. BerS. 621, 623 Crimes Act ger, American Indian Law: Cases and Commentary 90-96 (4th ed. 2008) (Anderson). There, Congress directed that, moving forward, only the federal government, not the Tribes, could prosecute certain serious offenses by tribal members on tribal lands. See 18 U. S. C. § 1153(a). On its own initiative, this Court then went a step further. Relying on language in certain laws admitting specific States to the Union, the Court held that States were now entitled to prosecute crimes by non-Indians against non-Indians on tribal lands. See United States v. McBratney, 104 U. (1882); Draper v. United States, 164 U. S. 240, 243, 247 (1896). Through all these developments, however, at least one promise remained: States could play no role in the prosecution of crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands. See Williams v. Lee, 358 U. S. 217, 220 (1959). In 1906, Congress reaffirmed this promise to the Cherokee in Oklahoma. As a condition of its admission to the Union, Congress required Oklahoma to 'declare that [it] forever disclaim[s] all right and title in or to... all lands lying within [the State's] limits owned or held by any Indian, tribe, or nation.' 34 Stat. 270. Instead, Congress provided that tribal lands would'remain subject to the jurisdiction, disposal, and control of the United States.' Ibid. As if the point wasn't clear enough, Congress further provided that 'nothing contained in the [new Oklahoma state] constitution shall be construed to... limit or affect the authority of the Government of the United States... respecting [the State's] Indians... which it would have been competent to make if this Act had never been passed.' Id., at 267-268. The following year, Oklahoma adopted a State Constitution consistent with Congress's instructions. Art."", ""375, 384 (1886). J., dissenting GORSUCH, government would have 'exclusive jurisdiction' to S. C. § 1153(a); see also Part I-B, When Congress enacted the MCA in 1885, it proceeded once more against the 'backdrop' rule that only tribal criminal law applies on tribal lands, that States enjoy no inherent authority to prosecute cases on tribal lands, and that only Congress may displace tribal power. Nor, once more, did Congress's new legislation purport to allow States to prosecute crimes on tribal lands. In response to concerns with how tribal authorities were handling major crimes committed by tribal members, in the MCA Congress took a step beyond the GCA and instructed that, in the future, the federal prosecute certain crimes by Indian defendants on tribal lands. 18 U. supra. Here again, Congress's work hardly would have been necessary or made sense if States already possessed jurisdiction to try crimes by or against Indians on tribal reservations. Plainly, Congress's 'purpose' in adopting the MCA was to answer the 'objection' that major crimes by tribal members on tribal lands would otherwise be subject to prosecution by tribal authorities alone. See Kagama, 118 U. S., at 383385. Consider next the Treaty of New Echota and the Oklahoma Enabling Act. In 1835, the United States entered into a treaty with the Cherokee. In that treaty, the Nation promised that, within a new reservation in what was to become Oklahoma, the Tribe would enjoy the right to govern itself and remain forever free from 'State sovereignties' and 'the jurisdiction of any State.' Treaty with the Cherokee, Preamble, 7 Stat. 478. This Court has instructed that tribal treaties must be interpreted as they 'would naturally be understood by the Indians' at ratification. Herrera v. Wyoming, 587 U. S. \\_\\_\\_, \\_\\_\\_ (2019) (slip op., at 19) (internal ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,"", ""408, 416-418 (2003) (Breyer). In refusing to sanction Georgia's power grab, this Court explained that the State's 'assertion of jurisdiction over the Cherokee nation' was 'void,' because under our Constitution only the federal government possessed the power to manage relations with the Tribe. Worcester, 6 Pet., at 542, 561-562. B Two years later, and exercising its authority to regulate tribal affairs in the shadow of Worcester, Congress adopted the General Crimes Act of 1834 (GCA). That law extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands for certain crimes and, in doing so, served two apparent purposes. First, as a 'courtesy' to the Tribes, the law represented a promise by the federal government 'to punish crimes... committed... by and against our own [non-Indian] citizens.' H. Rep. No. 474, 23d Cong., 1st Sess., 13 (1834) (H. Rep. No. 474). That jurisdictional arrangement was also ## J., dissenting GORSUCH, against non-Indians. See consistent with, and even seemingly compelled by, the federal government's treaties with various Tribes. See F. Cohen, Handbook of Federal Indian Law 731 (N. Newton et al. eds. 2005) (Cohen); R. Clinton, Development of Criminal Jurisdiction Over Indian Lands: The Historical Perspective, 17 Ariz. L. Rev. 951, 958-962 (1975) (Clinton). Second, because Worcester held that States lacked criminal jurisdiction on tribal lands, Congress sought to ensure a federal forum for crimes committed by and H. Rep. No. 474, at 13. Otherwise, Congress understood, non-Indian settlers would be subject to tribal jurisdiction alone. See id., at 13, 18; R. Barsh &amp; J. Henderson, The Betrayal, Oliphant v. Suquamish Indian Tribe and the Hunting of the Snark, 63 Minn. L. Rev. 609, 625-626 (1979)."", ""## J., dissenting GORSUCH, House Committee on Indian Affairs, which obS. 376, 379quotation marks omitted). And having just lost their traditional homelands to Georgia, who can doubt that the Cherokee understood this promise as a guarantee that they would retain their sovereign authority over crimes by or against tribal members subject only to federal, not state, law? That was certainly the contemporaneous understanding of the served that '[t]he United States and the Indian tribes [would be] the sole parties' with power over new reservations in the West. H. Rep. No. 474, at 18; see also Part IB, supra. This Court has long shared the same view. 'By treaties and statutes,' the Court has said, 'the right of the Cherokee [N]ation to exist as an autonomous body, subject always to the paramount authority of the United States, has been recognized.' Talton v. Mayes, 163 U. 380 (1896). 4 ------ nations in 1871.' 7, 22, n. 8 In the course of its dicta on the treaty, the Court highlights still two other irrelevant facts-that the Cherokee engaged in treaties with the Confederacy during the Civil War and that 'Congress abolished treatymaking with the Indian Ante, at 21, n. ## J., dissenting GORSUCH,""]",medium,answer,"Back in the day, promises made to tribes, such as the Cherokee, were often formalized through treaties and legislation. These agreements typically guaranteed tribal sovereignty and self-governance, free from state interference. For example, the Treaty of New Echota (1835) promised the Cherokee the right to govern themselves without state jurisdiction. Congress reinforced these promises through laws like the General Crimes Act (1834) and the Major Crimes Act (1885), which extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands, ensuring that states could not prosecute crimes by or against Native Americans on tribal lands without explicit tribal consent. These measures were intended to uphold tribal sovereignty and federal authority over tribal affairs, as seen in cases like Worcester v. Georgia (1832), which voided state assertions of jurisdiction over tribal lands.",5,Tribal legal jurisdiction,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In 1835, the United States entered into a treaty with the Cherokee. In that treaty, <span class=\""highlight\"">the Nation promised that, within a new reservation in what was to become Oklahoma, the Tribe would enjoy the right to govern itself and remain forever free from 'State sovereignties' and 'the jurisdiction of any State'</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Two years later, and exercising its authority to regulate tribal affairs in the shadow of Worcester, <span class=\""highlight\"">Congress adopted the General Crimes Act of 1834 (GCA). That law extended federal criminal jurisdiction to tribal lands for certain crimes</span> and, in doing so, served two apparent purposes.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""First, as a 'courtesy' to the Tribes, <span class=\""highlight\"">the law represented a promise by the federal government 'to punish crimes... committed... by and against our own [non-Indian] citizens'</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Second, because Worcester held that States lacked criminal jurisdiction on tribal lands, <span class=\""highlight\"">Congress sought to ensure a federal forum for crimes committed by and against non-Indians</span>. Otherwise, Congress understood, non-Indian settlers would be subject to tribal jurisdiction alone.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Now, before a State like Oklahoma may try crimes by or against Native Americans arising on tribal lands, <span class=\""highlight\"">it must take action to amend any state law disclaiming that authority; then, the State must seek and obtain tribal consent to any extension of state jurisdiction</span>.""}]",,113
+3815,Identify the authority responsible for approving exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags.,"['## § 30104. Authorization of appropriations There is authorized to be appropriated to the Secretary $98,313,500 for the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration to carry out this part in each fiscal year beginning in fiscal year 1999 and ending in fiscal year 2001. ## § 30105. Restrictions on lobbying activities - (a) In general. --No funds appropriated to the Secretary for the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration shall be available for any activity specifically designed to urge a State or local legislator to favor or oppose the adoption of any specific legislative proposal pending before any State or local legislative body. - (b) Appearance as witness not barred. --Subsection (a) does not prohibit officers or employees of the United States from testifying before any State or local legislative body in response to the invitation of any member of that legislative body or a State executive office. ## § 30106. Rented or leased motor vehicle safety and responsibility - (a) In general. --An owner of a motor vehicle that rents or leases the vehicle to a person (or an affiliate of the owner) shall not be liable under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, by reason of being the owner of the vehicle (or an affiliate of the owner), for harm to persons or property that results or arises out of the use, operation, or possession of the vehicle during the period of the rental or lease, if-- - (1) the owner (or an affiliate of the owner) is engaged in the trade or business of renting or leasing motor vehicles; and - (2) there is no negligence or criminal wrongdoing on the part of the owner (or an affiliate of the owner). - (b) Financial responsibility laws. --Nothing in this section supersedes the law of any State or political subdivision thereof-- - (1) imposing financial responsibility or insurance standards on the owner of a motor vehicle for the privilege of registering and operating a motor vehicle; or - (2) imposing liability on business entities engaged in the trade or business of renting or leasing motor vehicles for failure to meet the financial responsibility or liability insurance requirements under State law.', ""- d. State and Local Vehicle Registration and Inspection: If the Government motor vehicle displays U.S. Government license plate and motor vehicle identification, you do not need to register it in the jurisdiction where operated. All motor vehicles must be inspected in accordance with the laws of the jurisdiction where it is regularly operated. - e. DOT-owned License Plates: FMR 102-34.150 provides information for the procurement of license plates for DOT-owned vehicles. GSA has established a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) on behalf of all Federal agencies with Federal Prison Industries (UNICOR) for the procurement of official U.S. Government license plates. The DOT Fleet Manager has executed an addendum to this MOU providing plate design and assignment numbers for all DOT organizations. The table below designates assigned numbers to be used on DOT license plates. Submit any request for additional numbers to the Office of Facilities, Information and Asset Management, the Administrative Services Policy Division (M-93) at Headquarters, Department of Transportation. - f. Lost or Stolen License Plates: OAs must immediately report lost or stolen plates to local law enforcement officials, local security office (or equivalent), the OA Fleet Manager, the Federal Protective Service (FPS) Watch center, update the FMVRS for DOT-owned vehicles, and notify GSA's Fleet Management Center for GSA leased vehicles. Also, take immediate action - to update FMVRS if the vehicle is reassigned or the license plates are voided, lost, or destroyed. - g. Transfer of License Plates: No license plate issued by UNICOR shall be transferred to another vehicle. Remove all DOT license plates from DOT-owned vehicles prior to disposal/transfer and return them to UNICOR for disposal. The OA Fleet Manager is responsible for updating FMVRS and their internal listing of license plate numbers. ## License Plate Number Assignment for DOT Owned Motor Vehicles"", ""## License Plate Number Assignment for DOT Owned Motor Vehicles | Acrony m | Organization | Assigned Numbers | |------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------| | OST | Office of the Secretary of Transportation | 1 - 100 | | OST-R | Office of the Secretary of Transportation - Research and Technology | 101 - 1,999 | | | MARAD Maritime Administration | 2000 - 2,099 | | PHMSA | Pipeline and Hazardous Material Safety Administration | 2,100 - 4,999 | | NHTSA | National Highway Traffic Safety Administration | 5000 - 9,999 | | FMCSA | Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration | 10,000 - 19,900 | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | 20,000 - 39,900 | | FHWA | Federal Highway Administration | 40,000 - 49,900 | | FRA | Federal Railroad Administration | 50,000 - 59,999 | | SLSDC | Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation | 60,000 - 69,999 | | FTA | Federal Transit Administration | 70,000 - 70,999 | | FAA | Federal Aviation Administration | 71,000 - 79,999 | | NHTSA | National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (Test Vehicles Only) | 80,000 - 80,999 | | STB | Surface Transportation Board | 90,000 - 90,999 | ## V. Motor Vehicle Identification Exemption: Vehicles may be exempted from the display of U.S. Government and agency identification and license tags when they are issued primarily for investigations, law enforcement, or intelligence duties involving security activities or the safety of the vehicle's occupants. Exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags and other identification may be approved by Director of M90 when such identification may endanger the security of individuals or the U.S. Government or interfere with the purpose for which the motor vehicle is used."", ""## 1. PURPOSE The mission of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is to ensure a fast, safe, efficient, accessible and convenient transportation system that meets vital national interests and enhances the quality of life of the American people. This Order conveys policy, delegates authority, and assigns responsibility to ensure that DOT, including its Operating Administrations (OAs), meet all legal and regulatory requirements related to environmentally responsible procurement, operation, maintenance, and disposal of motor vehicles in fulfillment of that mission. This Order supplements and implements the Federal Management Regulations (FMR) 102-34, which documents the Government-wide policy on motor vehicles. A key goal of the Order is to ensure compliance with Federal mandates affecting the DOT Motor Vehicle Fleet Program and the management and operation of its vehicles and equipment, such as Executive Orders (E.O.s), Federal statutes, and DOT Directives. This Order is closely tied to DOT's Fleet Sustainability Order 4359 and there is a great deal of overlap in its goals and objectives. This Order applies to DOT actions and activities that affect its motor vehicle fleet, including DOTowned and leased vehicles. In addition, this Order directs DOT to optimize its fleet while ensuring that it can fulfill the Department's mission, reduce the use of petroleum and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, and increase the use of alternative fuels in fleet vehicles. In addition to contributing to reduced use of petroleum and reduced GHG emissions through purchasing its own fleet, the DOT, through the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), jointly with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have issued regulations requiring improved fuel economy and reduced GHG emissions for light duty vehicles, as well as regulations requiring increased fuel efficiency and reduced GHG emissions for medium- and heavy-duty vehicles, contributing to reduced petroleum consumption and reduced GHG emissions in the national fleet. The requirements of this Order shall not restrict or inhibit DOT operations or the safety of the traveling public. ## 2. POLICY"", '| 30119. Notification procedures...........................................................................................................................................................................................................13 | | 30120. Remedies for defects and noncompliance.....................................................................................................................................................14 | | 30121. Provisional notifications and civil actions to enforce..................................................................................................................16 | | 30122. Making safety devices and elements inoperative............................................................................................................................17 | | 30123. Tires...................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... 18 | | 30124. Buzzers indicating nonuse of safety belts.................................................................................................................. 18 | | 30125. Schoolbuses and schoolbus equipment............................................................................................................................................................18 | | 30126. Used motor vehicles.................................................................................................................................................................... 19 | | 30127. Automatic occupant crash protection and seat belt use............................................................................................................19 | | 30128. Vehicle rollover prevention and crash mitigation........................................................... 22 | ## SUBCHAPTER III. IMPORTING NONCOMPLYING MOTOR VEHICLES AND EQUIPMENT | | 30141. Importing motor vehicles capable of complying with standards...................................... 22 | |----|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | | 30142. Importing motor vehicles for personal use....................................................................... 24 | | | 30143. Motor vehicles imported by individuals employed outside the United States................. 25 | | | 30144. Importing motor vehicles on a temporary basis............................................................... 26 | | | 30145. Importing motor vehicles or equipment requiring further manufacturing........................ 26 | | | 30146. Release of motor vehicles and bonds............................................................................... 26 | | | 30147. Responsibility for defects and noncompliance................................................................. 27 | | | SUBCHAPTER IV. ENFORCEMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE |']",medium,answer,The authority responsible for approving exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags is the Director of M90. This approval is granted when such identification may endanger the security of individuals or the U.S. Government or interfere with the purpose for which the motor vehicle is used.,5,Government vehicle identification,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Exemptions from displaying U.S. Government license tags and other identification may be approved by <span class=\""highlight\"">Director of M90</span> when such identification may endanger the security of individuals or the U.S. Government or interfere with the purpose for which the motor vehicle is used.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Vehicles may be exempted from the display of U.S. Government and agency identification and license tags when they are issued primarily for investigations, law enforcement, or intelligence duties involving security activities or the safety of the vehicle's occupants.""}]",,114
+763,What are the requirements for companies regarding advance drafts of recall notices?,"[""- · responsibility for serving as the firm's primary liaison with CPSC. ## IDENTIFYING AFFECTED PRODUCTS At the outset, the recall coordinator should review fully the firm's product line to verify regulatory conformance of each product. The firm should institute a product identification system if one is not now in use. Model designations and date-ofmanufacture codes should be used on all products, whether they carry the firm's name or are privately labeled for other firms. All children's products are required to bear tracking information as required under section 14(a)(5) of the CPSA (section 102 of the CPSIA). If a product recall is necessary, this practice allows the firm to identify easily all affected products without undertaking a costly recall of the entire production. Similarly, once a specific product has been recalled and corrected, a new model number or other means of identification used on new, corrected products allows distributors, retailers, and consumers to distinguish products subject to recall from the new items. Until a production change can be made to incorporate a new model number or date code, some companies have used sticker labels to differentiate products that have been checked and corrected from recalled products. ## RECORDS MAINTENANCE The goal of any product recall is to retrieve, repair, or replace those products already in consumers' hands, as well as those in the distribution chain that do not comply with a statutory requirement, mandatory standard, regulation, or ban. Maintaining accurate records about the design, production, distribution, and marketing of each product for the duration of its expected life, and maintaining any records required by a regulation or standard is essential for a firm to conduct an effective, economical product recall. Generally, the following records are important both to identifying noncomplying products and conducting and monitoring recalls:"", ""## HOW CPSC ENFORCES ITS STATUTES The goal of the Commission's Compliance Program is to ensure that firms comply with the statutes, rules, regulations, standards, and bans that protect consumers from hazardous products. To achieve this goal, the agency conducts three main types of compliance activities: - · Maintaining surveillance over consumer products by monitoring consumer incidents, following up on reports by entering and inspecting any factory, warehouse or establishment where consumer products are manufactured or held, or any firewalled conformity assessment bodies, and sampling and testing such products that may not be in compliance with federal standards or that may be potentially hazardous products. - · Informing stakeholders or the regulated community of CPSC requirements for their products through education, workshops and seminars, and written informational letters, including guidelines and other publications, as appropriate. - · Testing consumer products to the mandatory requirements, identifying noncompliance, and obtaining corrections of noncompliant products (primarily by working cooperatively with industry, but initiating litigation when necessary) through reconditioning and recalls of hazardous products from the marketplace or consumers. Specific compliance activities regarding enforcement include the following: - · Monitoring compliance with statutes, rules, standards, regulations, bans, and other requirements and enforcing existing regulations and laws by: (1) conducting both domestic surveillance through inspections of manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers of consumer products and import surveillance at ports of entry in conjunction with U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP or Customs); and (2) investigating injury reports, consumer complaints, trade complaints, or other allegations or indications that a firm is manufacturing or distributing consumer products not in compliance with a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under our authority. - · Section 15 of the CPSA requires manufacturers, distributors, and retailers to report to the CPSC, among other things, products that fail to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule under the CPSA or any other similar rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any statute enforced by the CPSC."", ""- · Notices in product catalogs, newsletters, and other marketing materials; - · Notices to repair/parts shops and placements in service bulletins; - · Notices to trade groups, utilities, and home/fire inspectors, as applicable; - · Notices included with product replacement parts/accessories; - · Notices to secondhand stores and/or online retailers; and, - · Incentives, such as money, gifts, premiums, or coupons to encourage consumers to return the product. The CPSC Office of Communications must review and agree upon press releases and social media-based communications that a company intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination. The Office of Compliance and Field Operations must also review and agree upon each form of notice that a firm intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination of the notice. Therefore, it is imperative that companies give the Office of Compliance and Field Operations advance drafts of all notices or other communications that are to be disseminated to media, customers, and consumers. The CPSC uses traditional, social, and online media to communicate recalls to the public in plain language using information from agreed-upon joint press releases. Traditional media includes print, radio, and broadcast outlets. Social media can include CPSC's blog, Twitter handle, YouTube channel, Flickr page, and Storify. The agency also posts recalls on CPSC.gov, Recalls.gov, our Recalls phone app, and to members of our recalls listserv. In media platforms that capture two-way communications, CPSC only manages the messages posted by the agency. The following are some specific suggestions for communicating recall information: ## NEWS RELEASES"", ""## IMPORT AUTHORITY UNDER THE FLAMMABLE FABRICS ACT (FFA) Under section 9 of the FFA, 15 U.S.C. § 1198, imported products, fabrics, or related materials delivered from customs custody under bond must conform to applicable flammability standards in effect on the date of entry. Absent such conformance, the Secretary of the Treasury shall demand redelivery. Redelivery is the return of previously released merchandise to Custom's custody. Failure to redeliver will result in the assertion of a claim for liquidated damages for breach of a condition of the bond arising out of such failure to conform or redeliver. For information about reconditioning violative imported products, see Chapter 8. ## CHAPTER 5-RECALLING A REGULATED PRODUCT This Chapter provides information on initiating a product recall when CPSC staff or a regulated entity determines that: (a) a product fails to comply with a statute, rule, regulation, standard, or ban, and (b) the hazard associated with a product warrants recall of the product from the distribution chain or from consumers. The objective of the recall is to: - 2. remove noncomplying product from the distribution chain and from the possession of consumers, if applicable; and - 1. locate all noncomplying product as quickly as possible; - 3. accurately communicate information to the public in a timely manner about a noncomplying product, the hazard it presents, and the action needed to correct the problem. Companies should design all informational materials to motivate retailers and the media inform the public and to motivate consumers to respond affirmatively to the recall. ## PREPARING FOR A PRODUCT RECALL"", '## PROCEDURES FOR OBTAINING AUTHORIZATION TO RECONDITION When CPSC notifies a firm in a LOA that a shipment of goods imported by the firm fails to comply with CPSC requirements, and the firm does not have evidence to the contrary, the firm may request to be given an opportunity to recondition the goods to bring them into compliance with the applicable requirements. Before undertaking such reconditioning, the firm must request and obtain authorization from the CPSC to do so prior to the goods being conditionally released by CBP for reconditioning. The CPSC regulation at 16 C.F.R. § 1500.269, covering imported products subject to the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), states that application for authorization to relabel or perform other action to bring violative goods into compliance with the FHSA may be filed only by the owner or consignee of the product. This procedure applies to violative imported products subject to all statutes administered by the CPSC. The application for authorization to recondition violative goods held at CBP or released under bond must be submitted in writing to the Director of the Office of Compliance and Field Operations at the CPSC or as directed in the LOA. The application must: - 1. Contain detailed proposals for bringing the article into compliance with CPSC requirements. - 2. Specify the time and place where the items will be brought into compliance and the approximate time for their completion. CPSC Form #332 may be used to submit this information to the CPSC. A copy of the form generally is provided with the LOA or may be obtained by contacting the Compliance Officer or the CPSC investigator identified in the LOA. If the request for authorization to recondition is granted, CPSC staff will notify the firm in writing (or via CPSC Form #332 if the application was submitted using the form) that authorization has been granted. The notice from the CPSC will specify: - 1. the procedure to be followed; - 2. who will supervise the reconditioning (normally CPSC or CBP personnel); - 3. a time limit for completing the operation; and - 4. such other conditions as are necessary to maintain adequate supervision and control over the article.']",hard,answer,"According to the provided context, companies are required to submit advance drafts of all recall notices or other communications to the CPSC Office of Compliance and Field Operations for review and approval before publication or dissemination. This includes press releases, social media-based communications, and any other forms of notice intended for media, customers, and consumers. The CPSC Office of Communications must also review and agree upon press releases and social media-based communications before they are published or disseminated.",5,Product recall procedures,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The CPSC Office of Communications must review and agree upon press releases and social media-based communications that a company intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The Office of Compliance and Field Operations must also review and agree upon each form of notice that a firm intends to use in a product recall before publication or dissemination of the notice</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Therefore, <span class=\""highlight\"">it is imperative that companies give the Office of Compliance and Field Operations advance drafts of all notices or other communications that are to be disseminated to media, customers, and consumers</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The CPSC uses traditional, social, and online media to communicate recalls to the public in plain language using information from agreed-upon joint press releases.""}]",,115
+1647,Identify the populations that require different efforts and resources to improve their health.,"['135 In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ, people who have a disability or who live in a rural community, and others who have historically been excluded), thus further increasing health inequities. Strategies aimed at the general population are often less effective among racial/ethnic minority groups and those of low socioeconomic status. Initiatives must address the unique challenges and barriers that certain groups often face when attempting to modify lifestyle behaviors, with culturally appropriate tailoring and equitable support to promote healthy behaviors. Trends in excess body weight among youth are also a significant public health concern; children with obesity are more likely than normal-weight children to become adults with obesity, and their obesity in adulthood is likely to be more severe. 136 Promoting obesity prevention and positive lifestyle behaviors during youth is more effective, and often more successful, than efforts to change unhealthy patterns of behavior in adult populations. 137 Therefore, creating health-promoting and antiobesogenic environments that make it easier for children to establish positive eating and physical activity behaviors early in life are critical. ## Improving Healthy Eating and Active Living-Related Environments Effective strategies are being tested to address healthy ating and active living by numerous organizations that have e reated c evidence-based recommendations, including the WHO, 138 the National Academy of Medicine, 139 the CDC, the WCRF/AICR, and the American Heart Association. 4 140 A consensus among these recommendations is a call for policy and systems change, the identification of key environments to promote change, and the need for multiple sectors to work collaboratively to reduce barriers to healthy eating and active living, particularly among lower income and racial/ethnic minority and rural communities. Thus, health promotion considerations should be incorporated into urban, rural, and regional planning and development. To reduce health-related inequities among specific population groups, communitybased approaches should be adapted to meet the needs of the target community. 139', '158 Ensuring that all individuals have access to affordable, healthy food choices and opportunities for safe physical activity will require multiple strategies and bold action, ranging from the implementation of community, worksite, school, childcare, and other health promotion programs to policies that affect community planning, architecture, transportation, school-based physical education, food advertising and marketing, and food services. Special attention must also be paid to recognizing that individuals and populations with the greatest needs, the least resources, and/or those facing increased and unique burdens and challenges require different, not equal, effort and resources to improve their health. Policies, programs, and services should be explicit about prioritizing these populations to achieve health equity. Public, private, and community organizations at local, state, and national levels should consider the implementation and testing of new policies and the reallocation or expansion of resources to weight management, greater physical activity, and healthful diet choices (including avoidance of alcohol) that will improve health. Health care professionals; school, business, faith group, and other community leaders; and elected officials and policy makers are in unique and critical positions to provide leadership and advocate for purposeful changes in public policy and in community environments that are necessary to help all individuals maintain a healthy body weight and remain physically active throughout life, and to engage community members in the design, implementation, and evaluation of these strategies within the aforementioned sectors. 111 ## Common Questions and Answers This section is intended to assist clinicians, public health professionals, and policymakers in addressing questions that commonly arise within the general public. ## Acrylamide ## What is acrylamide, and is it associated with an increased risk of cancer? Acrylamide is a chemical used in industrial processing and is also found in food and tobacco smoke. Acrylamide in food is formed as a by-product of the Maillard reaction, in which the amino acid asparagine reacts with certain sugars when heated to high temperatures. The major sources of acrylamide in our diets are French fries and potato chips; crackers, bread, and cookies; breakfast cereals; canned black olives; prune juice; and coffee.']",medium,answer,"The populations that require different efforts and resources to improve their health include marginalized groups such as people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ individuals, people with disabilities, those living in rural communities, and others who have historically been excluded. Additionally, racial/ethnic minority groups, individuals of low socioeconomic status, and children with obesity are highlighted as needing targeted strategies to address health inequities and promote healthy behaviors.",2,Health equity considerations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""In general, fewer opportunities exist for engaging in health-promoting dietary and physical activity patterns among <span class=\""highlight\"">marginalized populations (e.g., people living in poverty, people of color, LGBTQ, people who have a disability or who live in a rural community, and others who have historically been excluded)</span>, thus further increasing health inequities.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Strategies aimed at the general population are often less effective among <span class=\""highlight\"">racial/ethnic minority groups and those of low socioeconomic status</span>. Initiatives must address the unique challenges and barriers that certain groups often face when attempting to modify lifestyle behaviors, with culturally appropriate tailoring and equitable support to promote healthy behaviors.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Trends in excess body weight among youth are also a significant public health concern; <span class=\""highlight\"">children with obesity are more likely than normal-weight children to become adults with obesity</span>, and their obesity in adulthood is likely to be more severe.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Special attention must also be paid to recognizing that <span class=\""highlight\"">individuals and populations with the greatest needs, the least resources, and/or those facing increased and unique burdens and challenges require different, not equal, effort and resources to improve their health</span>.""}]",,116
 1129,List the two main objectives outlined in § 30101.,"[""| G. | Improving criteria used in a recall. [Sec. 15 of TREAD Act]............................................................. 41 | | H. | Follow-up report [Sec. 16 of TREAD Act]......................................................................................... 42 | | I. | Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 17 of TREAD Act]................................................................. 42 | | J. | Anton's Law......................................................................................................................................... 42 | | K. | Side-impact crash protection rulemaking. [Sec. 10302 of SAFETEA-LU]........................................ 45 | | L. | Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU]..................................................................................... 46 | | M. | Vehicle backover avoidance technology study. [Sec. 10304 of SAFETEA-LU]................................ 46 | | N. | Nontraffic incident data collection. [Sec. 10305 of SAFETEA-LU]................................................... 47 | | O. | Study of safety belt use technologies. [Sec. 10306 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................... 47 | | P. | Power window switches. [Sec. 10308 of SAFETEA-LU]................................................................... 47 | | Q. | Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 10310 of SAFETEA-LU]....................................................... 48 | | R. | Cameron Gulbransen Kids Transportation Safety Act of 2007........................................................... 49 | ## SUBCHAPTER I. GENERAL ## § 30101. Purpose and policy The purpose of this chapter is to reduce traffic accidents and deaths and injuries resulting from traffic accidents. Therefore it is necessary-- - (1) to prescribe motor vehicle safety standards for motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment in interstate commerce; and - (2) to carry out needed safety research and development. ## § 30102. Definitions"", ""- (C) Effective date. --Subsection (a) shall not take effect before the final rule under subparagraph (B) takes effect. - (b) Coordination with department of justice. --The Attorney General may bring an action, or initiate grand jury proceedings, for a violation of subsection (a) only at the request of the Secretary of Transportation. ## RELATED UNCODIFIED PROVISIONS | A. | Improving air bag safety. [Sec. 7103 of TEA-21]........................................................................... 37 | |------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | B. | Insurance study. [Sec. 3 (d) of TREAD Act]................................................................................... 38 | | C. | Endurance and resistance standards for tires. [Sec. 10 of TREAD Act].......................................... 38 | | D. | Improved tire information. [Sec. 11 of TREAD Act]...................................................................... 39 | | E. | Tire pressure warning. [Sec. 13 of TREAD Act]............................................................................. 39 | | F. | Improving the safety of child restraints [Sec. 14 of TREAD Act]................................................... 40 | | G. | Improving criteria used in a recall. [Sec. 15 of TREAD Act].......................................................... 41 | | H. | Follow-up report [Sec. 16 of TREAD Act]..................................................................................... 42 | | I. | Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 17 of TREAD Act]............................................................. 42 | | J. | Anton's Law..................................................................................................................................... 42 | | K. | Side-impact crash protection rulemaking. [Sec. 10302 of SAFETEA-LU]..................................... 45 | | L. | Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU].................................................................................. 46 |"", 'As used in this Act, the following definitions apply: - (1) Child restraint.--The term ""child restraint\'\' means any product designed to provide restraint to a child (including booster seats and other products used with a lap and shoulder belt assembly) that meets applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards prescribed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. - (2) Production year.--The term ""production year\'\' means the 12-month period between September 1 of a year and August 31 of the following year. - (3) Passenger motor vehicle.--The term ""passenger motor vehicle\'\' has the meaning given that term in section 405(f)(5) of title 23, United States Code. ## SEC. 8. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS. (a) In General.-There are authorized to be appropriated $5,000,000 to the Secretary of Transportation for-- - (1) the evaluation required by section 6 of this Act; and - (2) research of the nature and causes of injury to children involved in motor vehicle crashes. (b) Limitation.-Funds appropriated under subsection (a) shall not be available for the general administrative expenses of the Secretary. L. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10303. Tire research. Within 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall transmit a report to the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation and the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce on research conducted to address tire aging. The report shall include a summary of any Federal agency findings, activities, conclusions, and recommendations concerning tire aging and recommendations for potential rulemaking regarding tire aging. (a) Conforming Amendment.-The chapter analysis for chapter 301 is amended by inserting after the item relating to section 30127 the following: ""30128. Vehicle accident ejection protection.\'\'. M. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION ## IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10304. Vehicle backover avoidance technology study.', '| L. | Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU].................................................................................. 46 | | M. | Vehicle backover avoidance technology study. [Sec. 10304 of SAFETEA-LU]............................ 46 | | N. | Nontraffic incident data collection. [Sec. 10305 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................... 47 | | O. | Study of safety belt use technologies. [Sec. 10306 of SAFETEA-LU]........................................... 47 | | P. | Power window switches. [Sec. 10308 of SAFETEA-LU]............................................................... 47 | | | Q. Authorization of appropriations. [Sec. 10310 of SAFETEA-LU]..................................................... 48 | ## RELATED UNCODIFIED PROVISIONS ## UNCODIFIED PROVISION: 49 USC 30127 note. ## TRANSPORTATION EQUITY ACT FOR 21 CENTURY (TEA-21) st June 9, 1998, Pub. L. 105-178, Title VII, Subtitle A, § 7103, 112 Stat. 465 ## ""SEC. 7103. Improving air bag safety. ## ""(a) Rulemaking to improve air bags. ""(1) Notice of proposed rulemaking. Not later than September 1, 1998, the Secretary of Transportation shall issue a notice of proposed rulemaking to improve occupant protection for occupants of different sizes, belted and unbelted, under Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 208, while minimizing the risk to infants, children, and other occupants from injuries and deaths caused by air bags, by means that include advanced air bags. ""(2) Final rule. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary shall complete the rulemaking required by this subsection by issuing, not later than September 1, 1999, a final rule with any provision the Secretary deems appropriate, consistent with paragraph (1) and the requirements of section 30111, title 49, United States Code. If the Secretary determines that the final rule cannot be completed by that date to meet the purposes of paragraph (1), the Secretary may extend the date for issuing the final rule to not later than March 1, 2000.', ""IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10306. Study of safety belt use technologies. The Secretary shall conduct a review of safety belt use technologies to consider possible revisions in strategies for achieving further gains in safety belt use. The Secretary shall complete the study by July 1, 2008. P. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10308. Power window switches. The Secretary shall upgrade Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard 118 to require that power windows in motor vehicles not in excess of 10,000 pounds have switches that raise the window only when the switch is pulled up or out. The Secretary shall issue a final rule implementing this section by April 1, 2007. ## UNCODIFIED MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY PROVISION ## IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) ## Sec. 10310. Authorization of appropriations. There are authorized to be appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this subtitle, chapter 301 of title 49, and part C of subtitle VI of title 49, United States Code-- - (1) $136,000,000 for fiscal year 2006; - (2) $142,800,000 for fiscal year 2007; - (3) $149,900,000 for fiscal year 2008; and - (4) $157,400,000 for fiscal year 2009. W ## CAMERON GULBRANSEN KIDS TRANSPORTATION SAFETY ACT OF 2007 [[Page 639 STAT. 122]] Public Law 110-189 110th Congress Approved February 28, 2008 ## An Act To direct the Secretary of Transportation to issue regulations to reduce the incidence of Feb. 28, 2008 child injury and death occurring inside or outside of light motor vehicles, and for other purposes. [H.R. 1216] | Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of | Cameron | |---------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------| | the United States of America in Congress assembled, | Gulbransen Kids Transportation Safety Act of 2007. | | SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. | | This Act may be cited as the ''Cameron Gulbransen Kids Transportation""]",medium,answer,"The two main objectives outlined in § 30101 are:
 1. To prescribe motor vehicle safety standards for motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment in interstate commerce.
-2. To carry out needed safety research and development.",5,Motor vehicle safety objectives,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">G. Improving criteria used in a recall. [Sec. 15 of TREAD Act]. H. Follow-up report [Sec. 16 of TREAD Act]</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">(C) Effective date. --Subsection (a) shall not take effect before the final rule under subparagraph (B) takes effect. (b) Coordination with department of justice. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""As used in this Act, the following definitions apply: (1) Child restraint.--The term &quot;child restraint&quot; means any product designed to provide restraint to a child (including booster seats and other products).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""L. Tire research [Sec. 10303 of SAFETEA-LU]. M. Vehicle backover avoidance technology study. [Sec. 10304 of SAFETEA-LU].""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""IN SAFETEA-LU (Aug. 10, 2005; P.L. 109-59) Sec. 10306. Study of safety belt use technologies. The Secretary shall conduct a review of safety belt use technologies to consider possible revisions in strategies.""}]",,117
-1183,How is the reimbursement amount calculated for the dealer's installation work?,"[""- (A) a statement that the Secretary has decided that a defect related to motor vehicle safety or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter exists and that the manufacturer is contesting the decision in a civil action in a United States district court; - (B) a clear description of the Secretary's stated basis for the decision; - (C) the Secretary's evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (D) measures the Secretary considers necessary to avoid an unreasonable risk to motor vehicle safety resulting from the defect or noncompliance; - (E) a statement that the manufacturer will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title, but that the requirement to remedy without charge is conditioned on the outcome of the civil action; and - (F) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation or includes in the order requiring the notice. - (2) A notification under this subsection does not relieve a manufacturer of liability for not giving notification required by an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Civil actions for not notifying.-(1) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers under section 30119(c) and (d) of this title is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty, unless the manufacturer prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section or the court in that action enjoins enforcement of the order. Enforcement may be enjoined only if the court decides that the failure to notify is reasonable and that the manufacturer has demonstrated the likelihood of prevailing on the merits. If enforcement is enjoined, the manufacturer is not liable during the time the order is stayed. - (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title."", ""- (2) if a vehicle, the manufacturer or distributor immediately shall give to the distributor or dealer at the manufacturer's or distributor's own expense, the part or equipment needed to make the vehicle comply with the standards or correct the defect. - (b) Distributor or dealer installation. --The distributor or dealer shall install the part or equipment referred to in subsection (a)(2) of this section. If the distributor or dealer installs the part or equipment with reasonable diligence after it is received, the manufacturer shall reimburse the distributor or dealer for the reasonable value of the installation and a reasonable reimbursement of at least one percent a month of the manufacturer's or distributor's selling price prorated from the date of notice of noncompliance or defect to the date the motor vehicle complies with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter or the defect is corrected. - (c) Establishing amount due and civil actions. --The parties shall establish the value of installation and the amount of reimbursement under this section. If the parties do not agree, or if a manufacturer or distributor refuses to comply with subsection (a) or (b) of this section, the distributor or dealer purchasing the motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment may bring a civil action. The action may be brought in a United States district court for the judicial district in which the manufacturer or distributor resides, is found, or has an agent, to recover damages, court costs, and a reasonable attorney's fee. An action under this section must be brought not later than 3 years after the claim accrues. ## § 30117. Providing information to, and maintaining records on, purchasers"", '## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding-- - (1) to prescribe a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter; or - (2) to decide whether to issue an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Statement of facts. --The petition must state facts that the person claims establish that a motor vehicle safety standard or order referred to in subsection (a) of this section is necessary and briefly describe the order the Secretary should issue. - (c) Proceedings. --The Secretary may hold a public hearing or conduct an investigation or proceeding to decide whether to grant the petition. - (d) Actions of Secretary. --The Secretary shall grant or deny a petition not later than 120 days after the petition is filed. If a petition is granted, the Secretary shall begin the proceeding promptly. If a petition is denied, the Secretary shall publish the reasons for the denial in the Federal Register. ## § 30163. Actions by the Attorney General - (a) Civil actions to enforce. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin-- - (1) a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (2) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction, in interstate commerce, or the importation into the United States, of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for which it is decided, before the first purchase in good faith other than for resale, that the vehicle or equipment-- - (A) contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety about which notice was given under section 30118(c) of this title or an order was issued under section 30118(b) of this title; or - (B) does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '- (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. - (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer, the Secretary shall exempt the manufacturer from this section if the Secretary decides a defect or noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. The Secretary may take action under this subsection only after notice in the Federal Register and an opportunity for any interested person to present information, views, and arguments. - (e) Hearings about meeting notification requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on petition of any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements. If the Secretary decides that the manufacturer has not reasonably met the notification requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter. ## § 30119. Notification procedures - (a) Contents of notification. --Notification by a manufacturer required under section 30118 of this title of a defect or noncompliance shall contain-- - (1) a clear description of the defect or noncompliance; - (2) an evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (3) the measures to be taken to obtain a remedy of the defect or noncompliance; - (4) a statement that the manufacturer giving notice will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (5) the earliest date on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge, and for tires, the period during which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (6) the procedure the recipient of a notice is to follow to inform the Secretary of Transportation when a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer does not remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (7) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation.']",hard,answer,"The reimbursement amount for the dealer's installation work is calculated based on the reasonable value of the installation and a reasonable reimbursement of at least one percent a month of the manufacturer's or distributor's selling price. This amount is prorated from the date of notice of noncompliance or defect to the date the motor vehicle complies with applicable motor vehicle safety standards or the defect is corrected. If the parties do not agree on the value of installation and the amount of reimbursement, the distributor or dealer may bring a civil action to recover damages, court costs, and a reasonable attorney's fee.",4,Dealer reimbursement regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">A statement that the Secretary has decided that a defect related to motor vehicle safety or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter exists and that the manufacturer must remedy the defect or noncompliance</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">If a vehicle, the manufacturer or distributor immediately shall give to the distributor or dealer at the manufacturer&#x27;s or distributor&#x27;s own expense, the part or equipment needed to make the vehicle or equipment comply</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer.""}]",,118
-555,What's the OSHA equivalent of a 'Beware of Dog' sign for centrifuges?,"[""- · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf ## Personal Protective Equipment The Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) standard (29 CFR 1910.132) requires that employers provide PPE and ensure that it is used wherever 'hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants [are] encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact,' 29 CFR 1910.132(a). - · Complete standards - n 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10118 - · Fact Sheet - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/ppe-factsheet.pdf - · Brochures/Booklets - n Personal Protective Equipment. OSHA Publication 3151 (2003). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3151.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/personalprotectiveequipment/index.html The Eye and Face Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.133) requires that employers ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation, 29 CFR 1910.133(a). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection"", ""## Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards ## Centrifuges - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf ## Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice. OSHA Publication 3408 (2011). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-cryogens-dryice.pdf ## Laser hazards - · Safety and Health Information Bulletin - n - Hazard of Laser Surgery Smoke (1988). http://www.osha.gov/dts/hib/hib\\_data/hib19880411.html - · Hospital eTool - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/surgical/lasers.html - · Safety and Health Topics Pages - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserhazards/index.html - n Laser/Electrosurgery Plume http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserelectrosurgeryplume/index.html ## Safety Hazards The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or start-up of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.147 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9804 - · Booklet - n Control of Hazardous Energy Lockout/Tagout. OSHA Publication 3120 (2002). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3120.pdf""]",medium,answer,"The OSHA equivalent of a 'Beware of Dog' sign for centrifuges would be the safety guidelines and warnings provided in the OSHA QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges (OSHA Publication 3406, 2011). This document outlines the necessary precautions and safety measures to be taken when operating centrifuges to prevent hazards. While OSHA does not use a specific sign like 'Beware of Dog,' they require proper labeling, training, and adherence to safety protocols to ensure safe operation of centrifuges.",2,Laboratory safety requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf Personal Protection Equipment</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards - Centrifuges - QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf</span>.""}]",,119
-1057,Why might command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use be ineffective in low-income countries?,"[""## Institutions and compliance Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle is an example. This zoonotic disease was eradicated in Sweden in the 1950s based on the robust diagnostics available at that time (Cerenius 2010). This was made possible because communal grazing and mixing of herds were limited, engagement in farmers' organizations was strong, and the veterinary authority and service interacted closely with the farmers. These institutional factors made compliance with external biosecurity measures effective. The opposite conditions still apply in many countries where brucellosis is an issue (Plumb et al. 2013). In such cases, where animal productivity is generally low and where the disease is endemic and symptoms vague, farmers may be reluctant to invest in control measures such as vaccination. A lack of compensation for culled animals further increases resistance to control measures. The development and strengthening of institutions, both state and non-state, in such areas are vital to improving control of livestock diseases. Stronger groups of livestock keepers make it easier for government organizations and veterinary services to interact with larger numbers of local people, learn about their opinions and needs, and provide them with the information and services they require. It also makes compliance with disease-control measures more possible (FAO, 2020). ## Monitoring and surveillance Advances in technology are making it possible to detect and respond to livestock diseases more quickly. Improved testing and control have made it possible to eradicate diseases such as bovine brucellosis and porcine pseudorabies in the United States (USDA 2019a, 2019b). For some diseases it is now possible to perform a rapid diagnosis on the farm itself. To be practicable, such tests must be cheap and quick. Currently, some 'pen-side' tests and several basic laboratory tests are in common use in HICs."", '## Use One Health to control zoonotic and food-borne diseases Zoonotic and food-borne diseases are best tackled using a One Health approach. Resources should be allocated where they most reduce the risk of zoonotic and foodborne diseases. Interventions must be based on knowledge of the socio-economic situations of farmers, food business operators and consumers. A combination of crosscompliance and soft law approaches may work best. Improving animal husbandry and welfare is important for reducing the risks of zoonotic and food-borne diseases. Data on the occurrence of food-borne diseases and the disease burden in the human population are crucial to assess the costs and benefits of diseasecontrol measures in the livestock production and processing systems. Postharvest interventions are also required to reduce the risk of the pathogens surviving, multiplying and contaminating food. In HICs, efficient control and monitoring of targeted diseases are needed by well-functioning regulatory bodies using command-and-control, crosscompliance and market approaches. In low-income countries, such approaches are less likely to be useful; there, soft laws in the form of recommendations and guidance will probably be more effective. ## Reduce use of antimicrobials Not all governments have the capacity to impose command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use, and overly harsh regulations could jeopardize the profitability and livelihoods of livestock producers. It also risks pushing antimicrobial use into a poorly regulated black market dominated by sub-standard products that are administered inappropriately. The cross-compliance approach also requires the capacity to enforce regulations, and the market approach relies on consumers demanding food produced without excessive use of antimicrobials. Such approaches will probably work only in HICs. Soft law - guidelines and persuasion - along with education and information, also has a place in HICs, but may be the only realistic option in LMICs. ## Promote animal welfare']",hard,answer,"Command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use might be ineffective in low-income countries due to several reasons. Firstly, these countries often lack the capacity to enforce such regulations effectively. Overly harsh regulations could also jeopardize the profitability and livelihoods of livestock producers, making compliance difficult. Additionally, stringent measures risk pushing antimicrobial use into a poorly regulated black market dominated by sub-standard products that are administered inappropriately. In low-income countries, softer approaches like guidelines, persuasion, education, and information may be more realistic and effective.",2,Antimicrobial resistance management,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Institutions and compliance: Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle is an example. This zoonotic disease was eradicated from high-income countries</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Use One Health to control zoonotic and food-borne diseases: Zoonotic and food-borne diseases are best tackled using a One Health approach. Resources should be allocated where they most reduce the risk to people</span>.""}]",,120
-4398,What are the consequences of not adhering to the specified timeframes for reporting?,"['- · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. See, 15 U.S.C. §2064(b) and 16 CFR part 1115. If a firm elects to conduct an investigation in order to evaluate the existence of reportable information, the 24-hour period begins when the firm has information which reasonably supports the conclusion that its consumer product: - · fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; - · fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission; - · contains a defect which could create a substantial risk of injury to the public; or, - · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. Thus, a firm could report to the Commission before the conclusion of a reasonably expeditious investigation and evaluation if the reportable information becomes known during the course of the investigation. In lieu of the investigation, the firm may report the information immediately. 13 ## REPORTING PROCEDURES The Commission considers a firm to have knowledge of product safety information when such information is received by an employee or official of the firm who may reasonably be expected to be capable of appreciating the significance of that information. Under ordinary circumstances, five days is the maximum reasonable time for that information to reach the chief executive officer or other official assigned responsibility for complying with the reporting requirements. Weekends and holidays are not counted in that timetable. 16 C.F.R. §§ 1115.11(a) and 1115.14(b). The Commission will evaluate whether and when a firm should have reported. This evaluation will be based, in part, on what a reasonable person, acting under the circumstances, knows about the hazard posed by the product. Thus, a firm shall be deemed to know what it would have known if it had exercised due care in ascertaining the accuracy of complaints or other representations. 16 C.F.R. § 1115.11(b). ## PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT', ""Section 15(b) of the CPSA defines responsibilities of manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers of consumer products. Each is required to notify the Commission immediately if it obtains information that reasonably supports the conclusion that a product: - 1. fails to comply with a consumer product safety rule or a voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9 of the CPSA; - 2. fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any other statute enforced by the Commission; - 3. contains a defect which could create a substantial product hazard described in section 15(a)(2) of the CPSA; or - 4. creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. The Commission's interpretative regulation (16 C.F.R. part 1115) explains the firm's obligations and those of the Commission. A copy of the regulation can be found at: http://www.cpsc.gov/BUSINFO/frnotices/fr06/E611758.pdf. ## Firms may report under section 15 online at: https://www.saferproducts.gov/CPSRMSpublic/Section15. ## REPORTING PRODUCTS INVOLVED IN LAWSUITS In addition to the reporting requirements at 15 U.S.C. § 2064(b), section 37 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2084, requires manufacturers (including importers) of a consumer product to report to the Commission, if: - 1. a particular model of a consumer product is the subject of at least three civil actions that have been filed in federal or state court; - 2. each lawsuit alleges the involvement of that model in death or grievous bodily injury (as defined in § 37(e)(1)); - 3. at least three of the actions result in a final settlement involving the manufacturer or in a judgment for the plaintiff within any one of the two-year periods specified in section 37(b)."", ""attempt to prevent through its own efforts, such as information and education programs, safety labeling, and adoption of product safety standards. Although the CPSC relies on sources other than firm reports to identify substantial product hazards, reporting by companies under the reporting provisions is invaluable because firms often learn of product safety problems long before the Commission. For this reason, any firm involved in the manufacture, importation, distribution, or sale of consumer products should develop a system of reviewing and maintaining consumer complaints, inquiries, product liability suits, and comments on the products they handle. If a firm reports to the Commission under section 15 of the CPSA, it does not necessarily mean that a substantial product hazard exists. Section 15 requires firms to report whenever a product: (1) fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or with a voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; (2) fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any other Act enforced by the Commission; (3) contains a defect that could create a substantial product hazard; or (4) creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. Thus, a product need not actually create a substantial product hazard to trigger the reporting requirement. ## WHEN TO REPORT UNDER SECTION 15 OF THE CPSA It is the Commission's view that a firm should take the all-important first step of notifying the Commission when the information available to the firm reasonably indicates that a report is required. It is in the firm's best interest to assign the responsibility of reporting to someone in executive authority. A firm should report immediately (within 24 hours) after a firm has obtained information which reasonably supports the conclusion that its consumer product: - · fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; - · fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission; - · contains a defect which could create a substantial risk of injury to the public; or, - · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death."", ""§ 1015.18(c), the following information must be included with the request for exemption: - 2. state whether the information claimed to be confidential has ever been released in any manner to a person who was not an employee or in a confidential relationship with the firm; - 1. identify specifically the exact portion(s) of the document claimed to be confidential; - 3. state whether the information so specified is known commonly within the industry or is readily ascertainable by outside persons with a minimum of time and effort; - confidentiality on behalf of the person or organization concerned. - 4. state how release of the information so specified would be likely to cause substantial harm to the firm's competitive position; and 5. state whether the submitter is authorized to make claims of If the Commission determines that information marked as confidential may be disclosed because it is not confidential, the Commission must provide written notice that it intends to disclose this information, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(a)(5). This notice must be provided not less than 10 working days prior to disclosure. Any person receiving such notice may bring an action in an appropriate district court to prevent disclosure of the information, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(a)(6). The Commission's regulations under the Freedom of Information Act, 16 C.F.R. § 1015, govern confidential treatment of requests for exportation of violative products that have claimed trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information. In addition, section 6(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(b), also provides limitations on the Commission's disclosure of any information identifying manufacturers or private labelers, and further limits the Commission's disclosure of information received under section 15(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(b)(5). ## CONFIDENTIALITY OF REPORTS UNDER SECTION 15(b) OF THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA)""]",medium,answer,"The consequences of not adhering to the specified timeframes for reporting are not explicitly detailed in the provided context. However, the context does mention that the Commission will evaluate whether and when a firm should have reported, based on what a reasonable person, acting under the circumstances, knows about the hazard posed by the product. Additionally, there is a section titled 'PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT,' which implies that there are penalties for not complying with the reporting requirements, though the specific penalties are not described in the provided context.",4,Regulatory reporting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. See, 15 U.S.C. \u00a72064(b) and 16 CFR part 1115. If a firm elects to conduct an investigation in order to evaluate the existence of reportable information</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Section 15(b) of the CPSA defines responsibilities of manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers of consumer products. Each is required to notify the Commission immediately if it obtains information</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Attempt to prevent through its own efforts, such as information and education programs, safety labeling, and adoption of product safety standards. Although the CPSC relies on sources other than firm reports.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 1015.18(c), the following information must be included with the request for exemption: 2. state whether the information claimed to be confidential has ever been released in any manner to a person.""}]",,121
-2272,How much soluble fiber is needed daily to reduce the risk of CHD?,"[""| | Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | *Plant Sterol/ stanol esters and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.83) | At least 0.65 g plant sterol esters per RACC of spreads and salad dressings, or At least 1.7 g plant stanol esters per RACC of spreads, salad dressings, snack bars, and dietary supplements. Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, and Spreads and salad dressings that exceed 13 g fat per 50 g must bear the statement'see nutrition information for fat content' Salad dressings are exempted from the minimum 10% DV nutrient requirement | Required terms: 'May' or'might' reduce the risk of CHD 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease' 'Plant sterol esters' or 'plant stanol esters'; except'vegetable oil' may replace the term 'plant' if vegetable oil is the sole source of the sterol/ stanol ester Claim specifies plant stero/stanol esters are part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol. Claim does not attribute any degree of CHD risk reduction. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters necessary to reduce CHD risk, and the amount provided per serving. Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day."", ""## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How health claims that meet the Significant Scientific Agreement standard and Qualified Health Claims (QHCs) characterize the between a substance to a disease or health-related condition (see CFR 101.14). (S/F) claims describe the effect that a has on the structure or function of the body and do not make to a disease. Both S/F and health claims can be used on the label in the labeling of conventional foods and dietary supplements. An of a S/F claim is 'Calcium builds strong bones.' S/F claims must be and not misleading and are not pre-reviewed or authorized by FDA. U.S.C. 343(r)(6) and 21 CFR 101.93 Answer: Both (SSA) relationship 21 Structure/function substance reference and example truthful 21 ## are health claims different from statements about dietary H4. How guidance? examples of an authorized health claim, which by definition must the elements of a substance and a disease or health-related condition, 'Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 per serving.' and 'Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that 25 grams of soy protein a day may reduce the risk of heart disease'. Two contain are: fat grams include health claims that meet the SSA standard and QHCs a relationship between a substance and a disease or health-related (see CFR 101.14). elements of 1) a substance and 2) a are present in a health claim. Dietary guidance does not contain both (and therefore does not constitute a health claim, but may contain element or another. Typically, dietary guidance statements make reference a category of foods (i.e., a grouping that is not readily characterized and not to a specific substance. The following illustrations be helpful: Answer: Both characterize condition 21 Both disease elements one to compositionally) may"", ""| | Fiber-Containing Grain Products, Fruits, and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.76) | A grain product, fruit, or vegetable that contains dietary fiber; Low fat, and Good source of dietary fiber (without fortification) | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber' 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Fruits, Vegetables and Grain Products that contain Fiber, particularly Soluble Fiber, and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.77) | A fruit, vegetable, or grain product that contains fiber; Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, Low fat, At least 0.6 grams of soluble fiber per RACC (without fortification), and, Soluble fiber content provided on label | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', 'Some types of dietary fiber', 'Some dietary fibers', or 'Some fibers' 'Saturated fat' and 'Cholesterol' 'Heart disease' or 'Coronary heart disease' | Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain some types of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fiber, may reduce the risk of heart disease, a disease associated with many factors. |"", ""--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Soluble Fiber from Certain Foods and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.81) | Low saturated fat Low cholesterol Low fat, and The food product must include one or more of the following whole oat or barley foods: 1) oat bran, 2) rolled oats, 3) whole oat f lour, 4) whole grain barley or dry milled barley, and the whole oat or barley foods must contain at least 0.75 g of soluble fiber per RACC of the food product; or Oatrim that contains at least 0.75 g of beta--glucan soluble per RACC of the food product; or Psyllium husk that contains at least 1.7 g of soluble fiber per RACC of food product. Eligible Sources of Soluble Fiber Beta-glucan soluble fiber from the following whole oat and barley sources: 1) Oat bran 2) Rolled Oats 3) Whole Oat Flour 4) Oatrim 5) Whole Grain Barley and Dry Milled Barley 6) Barley Betafiber 7) Soluble fiber from psyllium husk with purity of no less than 95% The amount of soluble fiber per RACC must be declared in nutrition label. | Required terms: 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease.' 'Saturated fat' and 'cholesterol.' In specifying the substance the claim uses the term'soluble fiber' qualified by the name of the eligible source of by the name of the eligible source of the soluble fiber, which is either whole oat or barley or psyllium seed husk. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product."", ""Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product. Additional Required Label Statement Foods bearing a psyllium seed husk health claim must also bear a label statement concerning the need to consume them with adequate amounts of f luids; e.g., 'NOTICE: This food should be eaten with at least a full glass of liquid. Eating this product without enough liquid may cause choking. Do not eat this product if your have difficulty in swallowing. (21 CFR 101.17(f)) | Soluble fiber from foods such as [name of soluble fiber source, and, if desired, name of food product], as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk heart disease. A serving of [name of food product] supplies _ grams of the [necessary daily dietary intake for the benefit] soluble fiber from [name of soluble fiber source] necessary per day to have this effect. protein. | | Approved Claims | Requirements the Food for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|""]",medium,answer,"According to the context, the daily dietary intake of soluble fiber necessary to reduce the risk of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is specified as follows: For soluble fiber from certain foods like whole oat, barley, or psyllium husk, the claim specifies the necessary daily dietary intake. For example, foods containing psyllium husk must provide at least 1.7 grams of soluble fiber per Reference Amount Customarily Consumed (RACC) to qualify for the health claim. Additionally, the context mentions that the claim must specify the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD, but the exact daily amount may vary depending on the specific source of soluble fiber (e.g., whole oat, barley, or psyllium husk).",5,Heart disease prevention requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">How are health claims different from structure/function claims? Health claims that meet the Significant Scientific Agreement standard and Qualified Health Claims (QHCs) characterize the relationship between</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Fiber-Containing Grain Products, Fruits, and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.76) | A grain product, fruit, or vegetable that contains dietary fiber; Low fat, and Good source of dietary fiber.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Table showing various health claim requirements and specifications for food products.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD. Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product. Additional Required Elements.""}]",,122
+2. To carry out needed safety research and development.",5,Motor vehicle safety objectives,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The purpose of this chapter is to reduce traffic accidents and deaths and injuries resulting from traffic accidents. Therefore it is necessary--\n[[start_highlight]](1) to prescribe motor vehicle safety standards for motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment in interstate commerce; and\n(2) to carry out needed safety research and development.[[end_highlight]]""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""These objectives are part of \u00a7 30101, which is found in Subchapter I: General of the motor vehicle safety regulations.""}]",,117
+1183,How is the reimbursement amount calculated for the dealer's installation work?,"[""- (A) a statement that the Secretary has decided that a defect related to motor vehicle safety or noncompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter exists and that the manufacturer is contesting the decision in a civil action in a United States district court; - (B) a clear description of the Secretary's stated basis for the decision; - (C) the Secretary's evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (D) measures the Secretary considers necessary to avoid an unreasonable risk to motor vehicle safety resulting from the defect or noncompliance; - (E) a statement that the manufacturer will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title, but that the requirement to remedy without charge is conditioned on the outcome of the civil action; and - (F) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation or includes in the order requiring the notice. - (2) A notification under this subsection does not relieve a manufacturer of liability for not giving notification required by an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Civil actions for not notifying.-(1) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers under section 30119(c) and (d) of this title is liable to the United States Government for a civil penalty, unless the manufacturer prevails in a civil action referred to in subsection (a) of this section or the court in that action enjoins enforcement of the order. Enforcement may be enjoined only if the court decides that the failure to notify is reasonable and that the manufacturer has demonstrated the likelihood of prevailing on the merits. If enforcement is enjoined, the manufacturer is not liable during the time the order is stayed. - (2) A manufacturer that does not notify owners and purchasers as required under subsection (a) of this section is liable for a civil penalty regardless of whether the manufacturer prevails in an action on the validity of the order issued under section 30118(b) of this title."", ""- (2) if a vehicle, the manufacturer or distributor immediately shall give to the distributor or dealer at the manufacturer's or distributor's own expense, the part or equipment needed to make the vehicle comply with the standards or correct the defect. - (b) Distributor or dealer installation. --The distributor or dealer shall install the part or equipment referred to in subsection (a)(2) of this section. If the distributor or dealer installs the part or equipment with reasonable diligence after it is received, the manufacturer shall reimburse the distributor or dealer for the reasonable value of the installation and a reasonable reimbursement of at least one percent a month of the manufacturer's or distributor's selling price prorated from the date of notice of noncompliance or defect to the date the motor vehicle complies with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter or the defect is corrected. - (c) Establishing amount due and civil actions. --The parties shall establish the value of installation and the amount of reimbursement under this section. If the parties do not agree, or if a manufacturer or distributor refuses to comply with subsection (a) or (b) of this section, the distributor or dealer purchasing the motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment may bring a civil action. The action may be brought in a United States district court for the judicial district in which the manufacturer or distributor resides, is found, or has an agent, to recover damages, court costs, and a reasonable attorney's fee. An action under this section must be brought not later than 3 years after the claim accrues. ## § 30117. Providing information to, and maintaining records on, purchasers"", '## § 30162. Petitions by interested persons for standards and enforcement - (a) Filing. --Any interested person may file a petition with the Secretary of Transportation requesting the Secretary to begin a proceeding-- - (1) to prescribe a motor vehicle safety standard under this chapter; or - (2) to decide whether to issue an order under section 30118(b) of this title. - (b) Statement of facts. --The petition must state facts that the person claims establish that a motor vehicle safety standard or order referred to in subsection (a) of this section is necessary and briefly describe the order the Secretary should issue. - (c) Proceedings. --The Secretary may hold a public hearing or conduct an investigation or proceeding to decide whether to grant the petition. - (d) Actions of Secretary. --The Secretary shall grant or deny a petition not later than 120 days after the petition is filed. If a petition is granted, the Secretary shall begin the proceeding promptly. If a petition is denied, the Secretary shall publish the reasons for the denial in the Federal Register. ## § 30163. Actions by the Attorney General - (a) Civil actions to enforce. --The Attorney General may bring a civil action in a United States district court to enjoin-- - (1) a violation of this chapter or a regulation prescribed or order issued under this chapter; and - (2) the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction, in interstate commerce, or the importation into the United States, of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment for which it is decided, before the first purchase in good faith other than for resale, that the vehicle or equipment-- - (A) contains a defect related to motor vehicle safety about which notice was given under section 30118(c) of this title or an order was issued under section 30118(b) of this title; or - (B) does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter.', '- (2) decides in good faith that the vehicle or equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter. - (d) Exemptions. --On application of a manufacturer, the Secretary shall exempt the manufacturer from this section if the Secretary decides a defect or noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. The Secretary may take action under this subsection only after notice in the Federal Register and an opportunity for any interested person to present information, views, and arguments. - (e) Hearings about meeting notification requirements. --On the motion of the Secretary or on petition of any interested person, the Secretary may conduct a hearing to decide whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements under this section. Any interested person may make written and oral presentations of information, views, and arguments on whether the manufacturer has reasonably met the notification requirements. If the Secretary decides that the manufacturer has not reasonably met the notification requirements, the Secretary shall order the manufacturer to take specified action to meet those requirements and may take any other action authorized under this chapter. ## § 30119. Notification procedures - (a) Contents of notification. --Notification by a manufacturer required under section 30118 of this title of a defect or noncompliance shall contain-- - (1) a clear description of the defect or noncompliance; - (2) an evaluation of the risk to motor vehicle safety reasonably related to the defect or noncompliance; - (3) the measures to be taken to obtain a remedy of the defect or noncompliance; - (4) a statement that the manufacturer giving notice will remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (5) the earliest date on which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge, and for tires, the period during which the defect or noncompliance will be remedied without charge under section 30120 of this title; - (6) the procedure the recipient of a notice is to follow to inform the Secretary of Transportation when a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer does not remedy the defect or noncompliance without charge under section 30120 of this title; and - (7) other information the Secretary prescribes by regulation.']",hard,answer,"The reimbursement amount for the dealer's installation work is calculated based on the reasonable value of the installation and a reasonable reimbursement of at least one percent a month of the manufacturer's or distributor's selling price. This amount is prorated from the date of notice of noncompliance or defect to the date the motor vehicle complies with applicable motor vehicle safety standards or the defect is corrected. If the parties do not agree on the value of installation and the amount of reimbursement, the distributor or dealer may bring a civil action to recover damages, court costs, and a reasonable attorney's fee.",4,Dealer reimbursement regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""If the distributor or dealer installs the part or equipment with reasonable diligence after it is received, the manufacturer shall reimburse the distributor or dealer for <span class=\""highlight\"">the reasonable value of the installation and a reasonable reimbursement of at least one percent a month of the manufacturer's or distributor's selling price prorated from the date of notice of noncompliance or defect to the date the motor vehicle complies with applicable motor vehicle safety standards prescribed under this chapter or the defect is corrected</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">The parties shall establish the value of installation and the amount of reimbursement under this section. If the parties do not agree, or if a manufacturer or distributor refuses to comply with subsection (a) or (b) of this section, the distributor or dealer purchasing the motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment may bring a civil action</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The action may be brought in a United States district court for the judicial district in which the manufacturer or distributor resides, is found, or has an agent, <span class=\""highlight\"">to recover damages, court costs, and a reasonable attorney's fee</span>.""}]",,118
+555,What's the OSHA equivalent of a 'Beware of Dog' sign for centrifuges?,"[""- · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Chemical Fume Hoods. OSHA Publication 3407 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-chemical-fume-hoods.pdf ## Personal Protective Equipment The Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) standard (29 CFR 1910.132) requires that employers provide PPE and ensure that it is used wherever 'hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants [are] encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact,' 29 CFR 1910.132(a). - · Complete standards - n 29 CFR 1910 Subpart I http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=10118 - · Fact Sheet - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data\\_General\\_Facts/ppe-factsheet.pdf - · Brochures/Booklets - n Personal Protective Equipment. OSHA Publication 3151 (2003). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3151.html - · Safety and Health Topics Page - n Personal Protective Equipment http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/personalprotectiveequipment/index.html The Eye and Face Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.133) requires that employers ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation, 29 CFR 1910.133(a). - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.133 - http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9778 - · eTool - n Eye and Face Protection"", ""## Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards ## Centrifuges - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf ## Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice - · QuickFacts - n Laboratory Safety - Cryogens &amp; Dry Ice. OSHA Publication 3408 (2011). - http://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-cryogens-dryice.pdf ## Laser hazards - · Safety and Health Information Bulletin - n - Hazard of Laser Surgery Smoke (1988). http://www.osha.gov/dts/hib/hib\\_data/hib19880411.html - · Hospital eTool - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/hospital/surgical/lasers.html - · Safety and Health Topics Pages - n Laser Hazards http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserhazards/index.html - n Laser/Electrosurgery Plume http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/laserelectrosurgeryplume/index.html ## Safety Hazards The Control of Hazardous Energy standard (29 CFR 1910.147), often called the 'Lockout/Tagout' standard, establishes basic requirements for locking and/or tagging out equipment while installation, maintenance, testing, repair, or construction operations are in progress. The primary purpose of the standard is to protect workers from the unexpected energization or start-up of machines or equipment, or release of stored energy. - · Complete standard - n 29 CFR 1910.147 http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show\\_document?p\\_table=STANDARDS&amp;p\\_id=9804 - · Booklet - n Control of Hazardous Energy Lockout/Tagout. OSHA Publication 3120 (2002). http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3120.pdf""]",medium,answer,"The OSHA equivalent of a 'Beware of Dog' sign for centrifuges would be the safety guidelines and warnings provided in the OSHA QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges (OSHA Publication 3406, 2011). This document outlines the necessary precautions and safety measures to be taken when operating centrifuges to prevent hazards. While OSHA does not use a specific sign like 'Beware of Dog,' they require proper labeling, training, and adherence to safety protocols to ensure safe operation of centrifuges.",2,Laboratory safety requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Additional OSHA Information on Physical Hazards\nCentrifuges\n[[start_highlight]]QuickFacts - Laboratory Safety - Centrifuges. OSHA Publication 3406 (2011).\nhttp://www.osha.gov/Publications/laboratory/OSHAquickfacts-lab-safety-centrifuges.pdf[[end_highlight]]""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) standard (29 CFR 1910.132) requires that employers <span class=\""highlight\"">provide PPE and ensure that it is used wherever 'hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants [are] encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact,'</span> 29 CFR 1910.132(a).""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""OSHA publishes various guidance documents and standards to ensure laboratory safety, including specific publications for different equipment types such as centrifuges, chemical fume hoods, and cryogens & dry ice.""}]",,119
+1057,Why might command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use be ineffective in low-income countries?,"[""## Institutions and compliance Changes in institutions may be just as important as improved technology in controlling diseases. Brucellosis in cattle is an example. This zoonotic disease was eradicated in Sweden in the 1950s based on the robust diagnostics available at that time (Cerenius 2010). This was made possible because communal grazing and mixing of herds were limited, engagement in farmers' organizations was strong, and the veterinary authority and service interacted closely with the farmers. These institutional factors made compliance with external biosecurity measures effective. The opposite conditions still apply in many countries where brucellosis is an issue (Plumb et al. 2013). In such cases, where animal productivity is generally low and where the disease is endemic and symptoms vague, farmers may be reluctant to invest in control measures such as vaccination. A lack of compensation for culled animals further increases resistance to control measures. The development and strengthening of institutions, both state and non-state, in such areas are vital to improving control of livestock diseases. Stronger groups of livestock keepers make it easier for government organizations and veterinary services to interact with larger numbers of local people, learn about their opinions and needs, and provide them with the information and services they require. It also makes compliance with disease-control measures more possible (FAO, 2020). ## Monitoring and surveillance Advances in technology are making it possible to detect and respond to livestock diseases more quickly. Improved testing and control have made it possible to eradicate diseases such as bovine brucellosis and porcine pseudorabies in the United States (USDA 2019a, 2019b). For some diseases it is now possible to perform a rapid diagnosis on the farm itself. To be practicable, such tests must be cheap and quick. Currently, some 'pen-side' tests and several basic laboratory tests are in common use in HICs."", '## Use One Health to control zoonotic and food-borne diseases Zoonotic and food-borne diseases are best tackled using a One Health approach. Resources should be allocated where they most reduce the risk of zoonotic and foodborne diseases. Interventions must be based on knowledge of the socio-economic situations of farmers, food business operators and consumers. A combination of crosscompliance and soft law approaches may work best. Improving animal husbandry and welfare is important for reducing the risks of zoonotic and food-borne diseases. Data on the occurrence of food-borne diseases and the disease burden in the human population are crucial to assess the costs and benefits of diseasecontrol measures in the livestock production and processing systems. Postharvest interventions are also required to reduce the risk of the pathogens surviving, multiplying and contaminating food. In HICs, efficient control and monitoring of targeted diseases are needed by well-functioning regulatory bodies using command-and-control, crosscompliance and market approaches. In low-income countries, such approaches are less likely to be useful; there, soft laws in the form of recommendations and guidance will probably be more effective. ## Reduce use of antimicrobials Not all governments have the capacity to impose command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use, and overly harsh regulations could jeopardize the profitability and livelihoods of livestock producers. It also risks pushing antimicrobial use into a poorly regulated black market dominated by sub-standard products that are administered inappropriately. The cross-compliance approach also requires the capacity to enforce regulations, and the market approach relies on consumers demanding food produced without excessive use of antimicrobials. Such approaches will probably work only in HICs. Soft law - guidelines and persuasion - along with education and information, also has a place in HICs, but may be the only realistic option in LMICs. ## Promote animal welfare']",hard,answer,"Command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use might be ineffective in low-income countries due to several reasons. Firstly, these countries often lack the capacity to enforce such regulations effectively. Overly harsh regulations could also jeopardize the profitability and livelihoods of livestock producers, making compliance difficult. Additionally, stringent measures risk pushing antimicrobial use into a poorly regulated black market dominated by sub-standard products that are administered inappropriately. In low-income countries, softer approaches like guidelines, persuasion, education, and information may be more realistic and effective.",2,Antimicrobial resistance management,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Not all governments have the capacity to impose command-and-control measures to restrict antimicrobial use, and <span class=\""highlight\"">overly harsh regulations could jeopardize the profitability and livelihoods of livestock producers</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""It also <span class=\""highlight\"">risks pushing antimicrobial use into a poorly regulated black market dominated by sub-standard products that are administered inappropriately</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The cross-compliance approach also <span class=\""highlight\"">requires the capacity to enforce regulations</span>, and the market approach relies on consumers demanding food produced without excessive use of antimicrobials. Such approaches will probably work only in HICs.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Soft law - guidelines and persuasion - along with education and information, also has a place in HICs, but may be the only realistic option in LMICs</span>.""}]",,120
+4398,What are the consequences of not adhering to the specified timeframes for reporting?,"['- · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. See, 15 U.S.C. §2064(b) and 16 CFR part 1115. If a firm elects to conduct an investigation in order to evaluate the existence of reportable information, the 24-hour period begins when the firm has information which reasonably supports the conclusion that its consumer product: - · fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; - · fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission; - · contains a defect which could create a substantial risk of injury to the public; or, - · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. Thus, a firm could report to the Commission before the conclusion of a reasonably expeditious investigation and evaluation if the reportable information becomes known during the course of the investigation. In lieu of the investigation, the firm may report the information immediately. 13 ## REPORTING PROCEDURES The Commission considers a firm to have knowledge of product safety information when such information is received by an employee or official of the firm who may reasonably be expected to be capable of appreciating the significance of that information. Under ordinary circumstances, five days is the maximum reasonable time for that information to reach the chief executive officer or other official assigned responsibility for complying with the reporting requirements. Weekends and holidays are not counted in that timetable. 16 C.F.R. §§ 1115.11(a) and 1115.14(b). The Commission will evaluate whether and when a firm should have reported. This evaluation will be based, in part, on what a reasonable person, acting under the circumstances, knows about the hazard posed by the product. Thus, a firm shall be deemed to know what it would have known if it had exercised due care in ascertaining the accuracy of complaints or other representations. 16 C.F.R. § 1115.11(b). ## PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT', ""Section 15(b) of the CPSA defines responsibilities of manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers of consumer products. Each is required to notify the Commission immediately if it obtains information that reasonably supports the conclusion that a product: - 1. fails to comply with a consumer product safety rule or a voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9 of the CPSA; - 2. fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any other statute enforced by the Commission; - 3. contains a defect which could create a substantial product hazard described in section 15(a)(2) of the CPSA; or - 4. creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. The Commission's interpretative regulation (16 C.F.R. part 1115) explains the firm's obligations and those of the Commission. A copy of the regulation can be found at: http://www.cpsc.gov/BUSINFO/frnotices/fr06/E611758.pdf. ## Firms may report under section 15 online at: https://www.saferproducts.gov/CPSRMSpublic/Section15. ## REPORTING PRODUCTS INVOLVED IN LAWSUITS In addition to the reporting requirements at 15 U.S.C. § 2064(b), section 37 of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2084, requires manufacturers (including importers) of a consumer product to report to the Commission, if: - 1. a particular model of a consumer product is the subject of at least three civil actions that have been filed in federal or state court; - 2. each lawsuit alleges the involvement of that model in death or grievous bodily injury (as defined in § 37(e)(1)); - 3. at least three of the actions result in a final settlement involving the manufacturer or in a judgment for the plaintiff within any one of the two-year periods specified in section 37(b)."", ""attempt to prevent through its own efforts, such as information and education programs, safety labeling, and adoption of product safety standards. Although the CPSC relies on sources other than firm reports to identify substantial product hazards, reporting by companies under the reporting provisions is invaluable because firms often learn of product safety problems long before the Commission. For this reason, any firm involved in the manufacture, importation, distribution, or sale of consumer products should develop a system of reviewing and maintaining consumer complaints, inquiries, product liability suits, and comments on the products they handle. If a firm reports to the Commission under section 15 of the CPSA, it does not necessarily mean that a substantial product hazard exists. Section 15 requires firms to report whenever a product: (1) fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or with a voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; (2) fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA or any other Act enforced by the Commission; (3) contains a defect that could create a substantial product hazard; or (4) creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death. Thus, a product need not actually create a substantial product hazard to trigger the reporting requirement. ## WHEN TO REPORT UNDER SECTION 15 OF THE CPSA It is the Commission's view that a firm should take the all-important first step of notifying the Commission when the information available to the firm reasonably indicates that a report is required. It is in the firm's best interest to assign the responsibility of reporting to someone in executive authority. A firm should report immediately (within 24 hours) after a firm has obtained information which reasonably supports the conclusion that its consumer product: - · fails to comply with an applicable consumer product safety rule or voluntary consumer product safety standard upon which the Commission has relied under section 9; - · fails to comply with any other rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the CPSA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission; - · contains a defect which could create a substantial risk of injury to the public; or, - · creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death."", ""§ 1015.18(c), the following information must be included with the request for exemption: - 2. state whether the information claimed to be confidential has ever been released in any manner to a person who was not an employee or in a confidential relationship with the firm; - 1. identify specifically the exact portion(s) of the document claimed to be confidential; - 3. state whether the information so specified is known commonly within the industry or is readily ascertainable by outside persons with a minimum of time and effort; - confidentiality on behalf of the person or organization concerned. - 4. state how release of the information so specified would be likely to cause substantial harm to the firm's competitive position; and 5. state whether the submitter is authorized to make claims of If the Commission determines that information marked as confidential may be disclosed because it is not confidential, the Commission must provide written notice that it intends to disclose this information, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(a)(5). This notice must be provided not less than 10 working days prior to disclosure. Any person receiving such notice may bring an action in an appropriate district court to prevent disclosure of the information, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(a)(6). The Commission's regulations under the Freedom of Information Act, 16 C.F.R. § 1015, govern confidential treatment of requests for exportation of violative products that have claimed trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information. In addition, section 6(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(b), also provides limitations on the Commission's disclosure of any information identifying manufacturers or private labelers, and further limits the Commission's disclosure of information received under section 15(b) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. § 2055(b)(5). ## CONFIDENTIALITY OF REPORTS UNDER SECTION 15(b) OF THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY ACT (CPSA)""]",medium,answer,"The consequences of not adhering to the specified timeframes for reporting are not explicitly detailed in the provided context. However, the context does mention that the Commission will evaluate whether and when a firm should have reported, based on what a reasonable person, acting under the circumstances, knows about the hazard posed by the product. Additionally, there is a section titled 'PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT,' which implies that there are penalties for not complying with the reporting requirements, though the specific penalties are not described in the provided context.",4,Regulatory reporting requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""The Commission <span class=\""highlight\"">will evaluate whether and when a firm should have reported</span>. This evaluation will be based, in part, on what a reasonable person, acting under the circumstances, knows about the hazard posed by the product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Thus, a firm shall be deemed to know what it would have known if it had exercised due care in ascertaining the accuracy of complaints or other representations. <span class=\""highlight\"">16 C.F.R. \u00a7 1115.11(b)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT</span>""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""A firm should report immediately (within 24 hours) after obtaining information which reasonably supports the conclusion that its consumer product fails to comply with safety rules, contains a defect which could create a substantial risk of injury, or creates an unreasonable risk of serious injury or death.""}]",,121
+2272,How much soluble fiber is needed daily to reduce the risk of CHD?,"[""| | Approved Claims | Requirements for the Food | Claim Requirements | Model Claim Statements | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | *Plant Sterol/ stanol esters and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.83) | At least 0.65 g plant sterol esters per RACC of spreads and salad dressings, or At least 1.7 g plant stanol esters per RACC of spreads, salad dressings, snack bars, and dietary supplements. Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, and Spreads and salad dressings that exceed 13 g fat per 50 g must bear the statement'see nutrition information for fat content' Salad dressings are exempted from the minimum 10% DV nutrient requirement | Required terms: 'May' or'might' reduce the risk of CHD 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease' 'Plant sterol esters' or 'plant stanol esters'; except'vegetable oil' may replace the term 'plant' if vegetable oil is the sole source of the sterol/ stanol ester Claim specifies plant stero/stanol esters are part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol. Claim does not attribute any degree of CHD risk reduction. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters necessary to reduce CHD risk, and the amount provided per serving. Claim specifies that plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed with two different meals each a day."", ""## are health claims different from structure/function claims? H3. How health claims that meet the Significant Scientific Agreement standard and Qualified Health Claims (QHCs) characterize the between a substance to a disease or health-related condition (see CFR 101.14). (S/F) claims describe the effect that a has on the structure or function of the body and do not make to a disease. Both S/F and health claims can be used on the label in the labeling of conventional foods and dietary supplements. An of a S/F claim is 'Calcium builds strong bones.' S/F claims must be and not misleading and are not pre-reviewed or authorized by FDA. U.S.C. 343(r)(6) and 21 CFR 101.93 Answer: Both (SSA) relationship 21 Structure/function substance reference and example truthful 21 ## are health claims different from statements about dietary H4. How guidance? examples of an authorized health claim, which by definition must the elements of a substance and a disease or health-related condition, 'Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This cereal has 2 per serving.' and 'Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that 25 grams of soy protein a day may reduce the risk of heart disease'. Two contain are: fat grams include health claims that meet the SSA standard and QHCs a relationship between a substance and a disease or health-related (see CFR 101.14). elements of 1) a substance and 2) a are present in a health claim. Dietary guidance does not contain both (and therefore does not constitute a health claim, but may contain element or another. Typically, dietary guidance statements make reference a category of foods (i.e., a grouping that is not readily characterized and not to a specific substance. The following illustrations be helpful: Answer: Both characterize condition 21 Both disease elements one to compositionally) may"", ""| | Fiber-Containing Grain Products, Fruits, and Vegetables and Cancer (21 CFR 101.76) | A grain product, fruit, or vegetable that contains dietary fiber; Low fat, and Good source of dietary fiber (without fortification) | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', or 'Total dietary fiber' 'Some types of cancer' or 'Some cancers' Does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer. | Low fat diets rich in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. | | Approved Claims | the Food Requirements for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Fruits, Vegetables and Grain Products that contain Fiber, particularly Soluble Fiber, and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.77) | A fruit, vegetable, or grain product that contains fiber; Low saturated fat, Low cholesterol, Low fat, At least 0.6 grams of soluble fiber per RACC (without fortification), and, Soluble fiber content provided on label | Required terms: 'Fiber', 'Dietary fiber', 'Some types of dietary fiber', 'Some dietary fibers', or 'Some fibers' 'Saturated fat' and 'Cholesterol' 'Heart disease' or 'Coronary heart disease' | Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain some types of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fiber, may reduce the risk of heart disease, a disease associated with many factors. |"", ""--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Soluble Fiber from Certain Foods and Risk of Coronary Heart Disease (21 CFR 101.81) | Low saturated fat Low cholesterol Low fat, and The food product must include one or more of the following whole oat or barley foods: 1) oat bran, 2) rolled oats, 3) whole oat f lour, 4) whole grain barley or dry milled barley, and the whole oat or barley foods must contain at least 0.75 g of soluble fiber per RACC of the food product; or Oatrim that contains at least 0.75 g of beta--glucan soluble per RACC of the food product; or Psyllium husk that contains at least 1.7 g of soluble fiber per RACC of food product. Eligible Sources of Soluble Fiber Beta-glucan soluble fiber from the following whole oat and barley sources: 1) Oat bran 2) Rolled Oats 3) Whole Oat Flour 4) Oatrim 5) Whole Grain Barley and Dry Milled Barley 6) Barley Betafiber 7) Soluble fiber from psyllium husk with purity of no less than 95% The amount of soluble fiber per RACC must be declared in nutrition label. | Required terms: 'Heart disease' or 'coronary heart disease.' 'Saturated fat' and 'cholesterol.' In specifying the substance the claim uses the term'soluble fiber' qualified by the name of the eligible source of by the name of the eligible source of the soluble fiber, which is either whole oat or barley or psyllium seed husk. Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product."", ""Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product. Additional Required Label Statement Foods bearing a psyllium seed husk health claim must also bear a label statement concerning the need to consume them with adequate amounts of f luids; e.g., 'NOTICE: This food should be eaten with at least a full glass of liquid. Eating this product without enough liquid may cause choking. Do not eat this product if your have difficulty in swallowing. (21 CFR 101.17(f)) | Soluble fiber from foods such as [name of soluble fiber source, and, if desired, name of food product], as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk heart disease. A serving of [name of food product] supplies _ grams of the [necessary daily dietary intake for the benefit] soluble fiber from [name of soluble fiber source] necessary per day to have this effect. protein. | | Approved Claims | Requirements the Food for | Claim Requirements | Claim Model Statements | |------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|""]",medium,answer,"According to the context, the daily dietary intake of soluble fiber necessary to reduce the risk of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is specified as follows: For soluble fiber from certain foods like whole oat, barley, or psyllium husk, the claim specifies the necessary daily dietary intake. For example, foods containing psyllium husk must provide at least 1.7 grams of soluble fiber per Reference Amount Customarily Consumed (RACC) to qualify for the health claim. Additionally, the context mentions that the claim must specify the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD, but the exact daily amount may vary depending on the specific source of soluble fiber (e.g., whole oat, barley, or psyllium husk).",5,Heart disease prevention requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""For soluble fiber from certain foods, the qualifying foods must contain minimum amounts per RACC: whole oat or barley foods must contain <span class=\""highlight\"">at least 0.75 g of soluble fiber per RACC</span> of the food product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Psyllium husk must contain at least 1.7 g of soluble fiber per RACC</span> of food product.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source necessary to reduce the risk of CHD</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Claim specifies the amount of soluble fiber in one serving of the product.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Foods bearing a psyllium seed husk health claim must also bear a label statement concerning the need to consume them with adequate amounts of fluids.""}]",,122
 3800,Explain the conditions under which a Federal agency can acquire a vehicle that is not low GHG-emitting.,"[""## Monitoring for Policy Compliance The Department must use the following monitoring and documentation systems related to the above program initiatives and abide by reporting. The table below describes the major activities and reporting deadlines DOT must follow to meet the requirements of this Order. Unless stated otherwise, these reports are the responsibility of the DOT Fleet Manager, and are required to satisfy DOT-wide motor vehicle fleet reporting requirements. These systems are generally web-based and proprietary to the Federal Government. | Reporting Module | Purpose | Data Attributes to Report | Minimum Reporting Frequency (sustainability requirements) | |-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------------------------------| | FAST - EISA 2007 Section 141 | Report summarizing DOT compliance with EISA Section 141 | Vehicle type Fuel type Model year Vehicle location Number of vehicles OA Fleet Manager provides owned vehicle acquisition information | Annually, no later than December 15 | | Annual Vehicle Acquisition, Petroleum and Alternative Fuels Report to Congress | Summary of activities to meet fleet management requirements | Report of DOT's compliance with fleet requirements for acquisition, petroleum reduction and alternative fuel | Annually, but no later than February 15 for the previous fiscal year |"", '- c) Presidential Memorandum of December 2, 2011 (Implementation of Energy Savings Projects and Performance-Based Contracting for Energy Savings); - d) Section 1 of Presidential Memorandum of February 21, 2012 (Driving Innovation and Creating Jobs in Rural America through Bio-based and Sustainable Product Procurement); and - e) Presidential Memorandum of December 5, 2013 (Federal Leadership on Energy Management); and - f) Presidential Memorandum of May 24, 2011 (Federal Fleet Performance) - v. When acquiring LDVs and MDVs, OAs must only acquire low GHG-emitting vehicles with the following characteristics, unless the Assistant Secretary for Administration approves a functional-need exception waiver in accordance with the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements: - a) Low GHG-emitting vehicles, as designated by the EPA; - b) AFVs for locations with access to alternative fuel within five miles or 15 minutes of garaged location including: diesel vehicles for locations with access to biodiesel blends and electric vehicles to replace gasoline vehicles; - c) Vehicles with greatest fuel efficiency; - d) Vehicles with the smallest wheelbase and average track width; - e) Other guidance as provided by DOT, Department of Energy (DOE) or GSA. - f) OAs may apply for an exception from one or more of the above acquisition requirements based on the following process: - g) The OA Administrator must submit an exception request to the DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration, following the instructions provided in the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements, and - h) OAs must receive written approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration before pursuing vehicle acquisition(s). - i) DOT must ensure that all non-exempt GOCO vehicles performing official business for the Department comply with the AFV acquisition requirements set forth in this Order; and - j) DOT must ensure that the above acquisition requirements are included in all GOCO contracts. ## f. Low Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Vehicles', ""contractor; e.g., when a medical van is to be equipped with Government- or contractor-supplied equipment. - a. DOT Policy: The acquisition of Government vehicles shall be limited to the minimum number required to meet operational requirements, and these vehicles shall be of the smallest, most economical and fuel-efficient types that will enable DOT to meet its mission needs. - i. CFR § 102-34 Subparts B through K prescribe requirements and guidelines to promote energy conservation in the acquisition, operation, management, maintenance, and disposal of motor vehicles used for official purposes by the Federal Government. - ii. The Energy Policy Act (EPAct) of 1992 required that 75 percent of DOT's light duty vehicle (LDV) requirements in Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs) be Alternative Fuel Vehicles (AFVs). The Presidential Memorandum on Federal Fleet Performance, dated May 24, 2011, requires that all new LDVs acquired by DOT be AFVs by December 31, 2015. In addition, E.O. 13423 requires DOT to use Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicles (PHEVs) when they are commercially available at a life-cycle cost reasonably comparable to non-PHEVs. - iii. The source for acquisition to purchase or lease Government vehicles is the GSA Interagency Fleet Management System (IFMS). See 41 CFR part 101-39. DOT policy is that GSA shall be the sole source for acquisition of all vehicles to the maximum extent practicable. If a required vehicle is not available through GSA IFMS, the requesting organization must perform a lease versus buy analysis to determine the most economical and advantageous method to acquire the vehicle commercially. The DOT Fleet Manager, upon approval from GSA, may authorize the purchase of vehicles from sources other than GSA. - iv. All motor vehicles shall be of minimum body size, engine size, and operational equipment (if any) necessary to fulfill the needs the vehicles must meet. Limit passenger vehicles to'small,''subcompact' or 'compact' unless otherwise approved by the DOT Fleet Manager.""]",hard,answer,"A Federal agency can acquire a vehicle that is not low GHG-emitting under the following conditions:
 1. The Assistant Secretary for Administration approves a functional-need exception waiver in accordance with the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements.
 2. The OA Administrator submits an exception request to the DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration, following the instructions provided in the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum.
-3. The OA receives written approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration before pursuing the vehicle acquisition.",3,Federal vehicle acquisition requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Monitoring for Policy Compliance: The Department must use the following monitoring and documentation systems related to the above program initiatives and abide by reporting. The table below describes the different systems</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Presidential Memorandum of December 2, 2011 (Implementation of Energy Savings Projects and Performance-Based Contracting for Energy Savings); d) Section 1 of Presidential Memorandum of February 21, 2012</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Contractor; e.g., when a medical van is to be equipped with Government- or contractor-supplied equipment. a. DOT Policy: The acquisition of Government vehicles shall be limited to the minimum number required.""}]",,123
-2347,What additional statement is required for fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC?,"[""claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must not exceed the total fat disqualifying level (13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). (See 'Qualified Health Claims Subject to Enforcement Discretion, Omega-3 Fatty Acids and Coronary Heart Disease' and the enforcement dis- cretion letter for Omega-3 Fatty Acids and Coronary Heart Disease) Fish (i.e., 'products that are essentially all fish') may not exceed 16.0 g total fat per RACC. Fish with a total fat content greater than 13.0 g per RACC must include 'See nutrition informa- tion for total fat content' with the health claim. The 'products that are essentially all fish' include fish without any added ingredients and fish with a small amount of added fat or carbo- hydrate that meets the definition of an insignificant amount in 21 CFR 101. 9(f)(1 ). Examples of these products are raw fish, boiled fish, and broiled fish. | Supportive but not conclusive research shows that consumption of EPA and DHA omega-3 fatty acids may reduce the risk of coronary heart disease. One serving of [Name of the food] provides [ ] gram of EPA and DHA omega-3 fatty acids. [See nutrition information for total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol content.] Note: Dietary supplements may declare the amount of EPA and DHA per serving in 'Supplement Facts,' instead of making the declaration in the claim. | (Continued)"", ""processing. State if food is not 'Low' or 'Reduced Calorie' (c)(2) The terms 'Unsweetened' and 'No Added Sweeteners' remain as factual statements (c)(3) The claim does not refer to sugar alcohols, which may be present. For dietary supplements: 'Sugar Free' and 'No Added Sugar' may be used for vitamins and minerals intended to be used by infants and children less than 2 years of age. (c)(4) | ## Notes: - = Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed. ·RACC - Except if the ingredient listed in the ingredient statement has an asterisk that refers to footnote '* adds a trivial amount of fat'). * (e.g., - RACC = Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons less (for dehydrated foods that are typically consumed when rehydrated with water or a containing an insignificant amount, as defined in CFR 101.9(f)(1), all per RACC, the per 50 g criterion refers to the prepared form of the food). ·Small or diluent 21 of nutrients - term 'light' may be used to describe a physical or organoleptic attribute of the food if it conveys the nature of the product, e.g., 'light in color,' 'light in texture.' CFR 101.56(e) ·The clearly 21 - levels exceed: 13 g Total Fat, 4 g Saturated Fat, 60 mg Cholesterol, and 480 mg Sodium per per labeled serving or, for foods with small RACC, per 50 g, a disclosure statement is as part of claim (e.g., 'See nutrition information for\\_\\_\\_content' with the blank filled in nutrient(s) that exceed the prescribed levels). ·When RACC, required with - there has been a long history of use of the term 'light' associated with a product it may to be used, e.g., 'light corn syrup,' 'light brown sugar.' 21 CFR 101.56(f) · If continue ## 10. APPENDIX B: ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS"", ""| | Qualified | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Claims Health Calcium and Colon/Rectal Cancer & Calcium and Recurrent Colon/ Rectal Polyps Docket No. 2004Q-0097 10/12/2005 enforcement discretion letter | Dietary supplements containing calcium | The dietary supplement must meet or exceed the requirement for a 'high' level of calcium as defined in 21 CFR 101.54(b) (i.e., 200 mg or more calcium per RACC) The calcium content of the dietary supplement must be assimilable (i.e., bioavailable) (21 CFR 101.72(c) (ii)(B)), and meet the United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) standards for disintegration and dissolution applicable to their component calcium salts. For dietary supplements for which no U.S.P. standards exist, the dietary supplement must exhibit appropriate assimilability under the conditions of use stated on the product label (21 CFR 101.72(c)(ii)(C)). | Colon/Rectal Cancer: Some evidence suggests that calcium supplements may reduce the risk of colon/rectal cancer, however, FDA has determined that this evidence is limited and not conclusive. Recurrent Colon Polyps: Very limited and preliminary evidence suggests that calcium supplements may reduce the risk of colon/rectal polyps. FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence to support this claim. |"", ""| | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------| | | | Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products. Sodium All conventional foods and dietary supplements must meet the sodium disqualifying level (≤ 480 mg per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp for individual foods, ≤ 960 mg per label serving size for meal products, ≤ 720 mg per label serving size for main dish products). The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement All conventional foods must meet the 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement (Vitamin A 500 IU, Vitamin C 6 mg, Iron 1.8 mg, Calcium 100 mg, Protein 5 g, Fiber 2.5 g per RACC), prior to any nutrient addition. The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement does not apply to dietary supplements (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)). | |""]",medium,answer,"For fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC, the additional statement required is 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim.",4,Food labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must not exceed the total fat disqualifying level (13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is \u2264 30 g or \u2264 2 tbsp). (See &#x27;Qualified Health Claims&#x27; below)</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Processing. State if food is not &#x27;Low&#x27; or &#x27;Reduced Calorie&#x27; (c)(2) The terms &#x27;Unsweetened&#x27; and &#x27;No Added Sweeteners&#x27; remain as factual statements (c)(3) The claim does not refer to sugar alcohols, which are not sugars</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Qualified | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements.""}]",,124
-3661,Why do vessels need to contact VTS New Orleans before passing certain points on the river?,"['- (3) A vessel of less than 100 meters in length is exempt from the provisions set forth in §161.13(b)(3) of this part. - (4) Approval will not be granted for: - (i) A vessel of 100 meters or more in length to meet or overtake a vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more; - (ii) A vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more to meet or overtake a vessel of 100 meters or more in length; - (iii) A vessel of 100 meters or more in length to cross or operate within 2,000 yards (except when crossing astern) of a vessel of 40,000 deadweight tons or more; or - (iv) A vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more to or cross or operate within 2,000 yards (except when crossing astern) of a vessel of 100 meters or more in length. - (d) Reporting Point. Inbound vessels in the Strait of Juan de Fuca upon crossing 124° W. ## §161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. - (a) The VTS area consists of the navigable waters of the United States north of a line drawn from Cape Hinchinbrook Light to Schooner Rock Light, comprising that portion of Prince William Sound between 146°30 W. and 147°20 W. and includes Valdez Arm, ′ ′ Valdez Narrows and Port Valdez. - (b) The Valdez Arm VTS Special Area consists of the waters of the Valdez Arm Traffic Separation Scheme (described in § 167.1703 of this chapter); the waters northeast of a line drawn from shoreline to shoreline through the points 60°58.04 N, 146°46.52 W and ′ ′ 60°58.93 N, 146°48.86 W; and southwest of a line bearing 307° True from Tongue Point ′ ′ at 61°02.10 N, 146°40.00 W. ′ ′', '- (iii) No Light -Do not proceed, immediately notify VTS and await further directions. NOTE TO § 161.65(c)(1): To provide advance notification to downbound vessels, a traffic repeater signal of Gretna Light is located at Westwego, LA, 29°54.8 N; 90°08.3 W (101.4 miles AHP). ′ ′ - (2) A vessel awaiting a signal change or VTS directions must keep clear of other vessels transiting the area. - (d) The Eighty-one Mile Point VTS Special Area consists of navigable waters of the LMR between 167.5 miles AHP and 187.9 miles AHP. - (e) Additional Eighty -one Mile Point VTS Special Area Operating Requirements. The following additional requirements are applicable in the Eighty-one Mile Point VTS Special Area: - (1) Prior to proceeding upriver past 167.5 miles AHP, Sunshine Bridge, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in. Vessels must provide name and destination, confirm proper operation of their automated identification system (AIS) if required under 33 CFR 164.46, and, if applicable, size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. At 173.7 miles AHP, Bringier Point Light, ascending vessels must contact VTS New Orleans and provide a follow-on position check. At both check-in and follow-on position check, VTS New Orleans will advise the vessel on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point. - (2) Prior to proceeding downriver past 187.9 miles AHP COS-MAR Lights, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in. Vessels must provide name and destination, confirm proper operation of their AIS if required under 33 CFR 164.46, and, if applicable, size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. At 183.9 miles AHP, Wyandotte Chemical Dock Lights, descending vessels must contact VTS New Orleans and provide a follow-on position check. At both check-in and follow-on position check, VTS New Orleans will advise the vessel on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point.', ""Canadian and United States Vessel Traffic Centers (Prince Rupert, B.C., Canada; Vancouver, B.C., Canada; and Seattle, WA) manage traffic within the CVTS area irrespective of the International Boundary. - (b) VTS Special Area: The Eastern San Juan Island Archipelago VTS Special Area consists of all waters of the eastern San Juan Island Archipelago including: Rosario Strait bounded to the south by latitude 48°26.40 N. (the center of the Precautionary Area 'RB') ′ extending from Lopez Island to Fidalgo Island, and to the north by latitude 48°40.57 N. ′ (the center of the Precautionary Area 'C') extending from Orcas Island to Lummi Island; Guemes Channel; Bellingham Channel; Padilla Bay and southern Bellingham Bay (Samish Bay) south of latitude 48°38.42 N. ′ NOTE: The center of precautionary area 'RB' is not marked by a buoy. All precautionary areas are depicted on National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) nautical charts. - (c) Additional VTS Special Area Operating Requirements. The following additional requirements are applicable in the Eastern San Juan Island Archipelago VTS Special Area: - (1) A vessel engaged in towing shall not impede the passage of a vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more. - (2) A vessel of less than 40,000 dead weight tons is exempt from the provision set forth in §161.13(b)(1) of this part. - (3) A vessel of less than 100 meters in length is exempt from the provisions set forth in §161.13(b)(3) of this part."", ""## § 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 ''Ports and Waterways Safety'' setting up a national system of Vessel Traffic Services that will enhance navigation, vessel safety, and marine environmental protection, and promote safe vessel movement by reducing the potential for collisions, rammings, and groundings, and the loss of lives and property associated with these incidents within VTS areas established hereunder. - (b) Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment. - (c) The owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel remains at all times responsible for the manner in which the vessel is operated and maneuvered, and is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel under all circumstances. Compliance with these rules or with a direction of the VTS is at all times contingent upon the exigencies of safe navigation. 161.20 Position Report (PR). 161.21 Automated reporting. 161.22 Final Report (FR). 161.23 Reporting exemptions. ## Subpart C - Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points 161.25 Vessel Traffic Service New York Area. 161.30 Vessel Traffic Service Louisville. 161.35 Vessel Traffic Service Houston/Galveston. 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. 161.45 Vessel Traffic Service St. Marys River. 161.50 Vessel Traffic Service San Francisco. 161.55 Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound and the Cooperative Vessel Traffic Service for the Juan de Fuca Region. 161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River. 161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur.""]",medium,answer,"Vessels need to contact VTS New Orleans before passing certain points on the river to ensure safe navigation and traffic management. According to the context, vessels must check-in with VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A before proceeding upriver past 167.5 miles AHP, Sunshine Bridge, and downriver past 187.9 miles AHP COS-MAR Lights. During these check-ins, vessels are required to provide their name and destination, confirm the proper operation of their automated identification system (AIS) if required, and, if applicable, the size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. Additionally, vessels must provide follow-on position checks at specified points. VTS New Orleans uses this information to advise vessels on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point, thereby reducing the risk of collisions and enhancing the safe routing of vessels through congested or hazardous waterways.",4,Maritime navigation regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">A vessel of less than 100 meters in length is exempt from the provisions set forth in \u00a7161.13(b)(3) of this part. (4) Approval will not be granted for: (i) A vessel of 100 meters or more in length</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">No Light -Do not proceed, immediately notify VTS and await further directions. NOTE TO \u00a7 161.65(c)(1): To provide advance notification to downbound vessels, a traffic repeater signal of Gretna Light is located at Westwego Light</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Canadian and United States Vessel Traffic Centers (Prince Rupert, B.C., Canada; Vancouver, B.C., Canada; and Seattle, WA) manage traffic within the CVTS area irrespective of the International Boundary.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""\u00a7 161.1 Purpose and Intent. (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 &#x27;Ports and Waterways Safety&#x27; setting up vessel traffic service areas.""}]",,125
+3. The OA receives written approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration before pursuing the vehicle acquisition.",3,Federal vehicle acquisition requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""When acquiring LDVs and MDVs, OAs must only acquire low GHG-emitting vehicles with the following characteristics, <span class=\""highlight\"">unless the Assistant Secretary for Administration approves a functional-need exception waiver in accordance with the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements</span>:""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""OAs may apply for an exception from one or more of the above acquisition requirements based on the following process:\n<span class=\""highlight\"">The OA Administrator must submit an exception request to the DOT Assistant Secretary for Administration, following the instructions provided in the February 24, 2011, DOT Action Memorandum on Federal Vehicle Fleets Replacement Requirements</span>,""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">OAs must receive written approval from the Assistant Secretary for Administration before pursuing vehicle acquisition(s)</span>.""}]",,123
+2347,What additional statement is required for fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC?,"[""claim. Dietary supplements that weigh more than 5 g per RACC must not exceed the total fat disqualifying level (13.0 g per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp). (See 'Qualified Health Claims Subject to Enforcement Discretion, Omega-3 Fatty Acids and Coronary Heart Disease' and the enforcement dis- cretion letter for Omega-3 Fatty Acids and Coronary Heart Disease) Fish (i.e., 'products that are essentially all fish') may not exceed 16.0 g total fat per RACC. Fish with a total fat content greater than 13.0 g per RACC must include 'See nutrition informa- tion for total fat content' with the health claim. The 'products that are essentially all fish' include fish without any added ingredients and fish with a small amount of added fat or carbo- hydrate that meets the definition of an insignificant amount in 21 CFR 101. 9(f)(1 ). Examples of these products are raw fish, boiled fish, and broiled fish. | Supportive but not conclusive research shows that consumption of EPA and DHA omega-3 fatty acids may reduce the risk of coronary heart disease. One serving of [Name of the food] provides [ ] gram of EPA and DHA omega-3 fatty acids. [See nutrition information for total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol content.] Note: Dietary supplements may declare the amount of EPA and DHA per serving in 'Supplement Facts,' instead of making the declaration in the claim. | (Continued)"", ""processing. State if food is not 'Low' or 'Reduced Calorie' (c)(2) The terms 'Unsweetened' and 'No Added Sweeteners' remain as factual statements (c)(3) The claim does not refer to sugar alcohols, which may be present. For dietary supplements: 'Sugar Free' and 'No Added Sugar' may be used for vitamins and minerals intended to be used by infants and children less than 2 years of age. (c)(4) | ## Notes: - = Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed. ·RACC - Except if the ingredient listed in the ingredient statement has an asterisk that refers to footnote '* adds a trivial amount of fat'). * (e.g., - RACC = Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons less (for dehydrated foods that are typically consumed when rehydrated with water or a containing an insignificant amount, as defined in CFR 101.9(f)(1), all per RACC, the per 50 g criterion refers to the prepared form of the food). ·Small or diluent 21 of nutrients - term 'light' may be used to describe a physical or organoleptic attribute of the food if it conveys the nature of the product, e.g., 'light in color,' 'light in texture.' CFR 101.56(e) ·The clearly 21 - levels exceed: 13 g Total Fat, 4 g Saturated Fat, 60 mg Cholesterol, and 480 mg Sodium per per labeled serving or, for foods with small RACC, per 50 g, a disclosure statement is as part of claim (e.g., 'See nutrition information for\\_\\_\\_content' with the blank filled in nutrient(s) that exceed the prescribed levels). ·When RACC, required with - there has been a long history of use of the term 'light' associated with a product it may to be used, e.g., 'light corn syrup,' 'light brown sugar.' 21 CFR 101.56(f) · If continue ## 10. APPENDIX B: ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR NUTRIENT CONTENT CLAIMS"", ""| | Qualified | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Claims Health Calcium and Colon/Rectal Cancer & Calcium and Recurrent Colon/ Rectal Polyps Docket No. 2004Q-0097 10/12/2005 enforcement discretion letter | Dietary supplements containing calcium | The dietary supplement must meet or exceed the requirement for a 'high' level of calcium as defined in 21 CFR 101.54(b) (i.e., 200 mg or more calcium per RACC) The calcium content of the dietary supplement must be assimilable (i.e., bioavailable) (21 CFR 101.72(c) (ii)(B)), and meet the United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) standards for disintegration and dissolution applicable to their component calcium salts. For dietary supplements for which no U.S.P. standards exist, the dietary supplement must exhibit appropriate assimilability under the conditions of use stated on the product label (21 CFR 101.72(c)(ii)(C)). | Colon/Rectal Cancer: Some evidence suggests that calcium supplements may reduce the risk of colon/rectal cancer, however, FDA has determined that this evidence is limited and not conclusive. Recurrent Colon Polyps: Very limited and preliminary evidence suggests that calcium supplements may reduce the risk of colon/rectal polyps. FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence to support this claim. |"", ""| | Qualified Claims Health | Eligible Foods | for Exercising Factors Discretion Enforcement | Claim Statements | |----------------------------|------------------|------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|--------------------| | | | Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim. Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products. Sodium All conventional foods and dietary supplements must meet the sodium disqualifying level (≤ 480 mg per RACC and per 50 g if RACC is ≤ 30 g or ≤ 2 tbsp for individual foods, ≤ 960 mg per label serving size for meal products, ≤ 720 mg per label serving size for main dish products). The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement All conventional foods must meet the 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement (Vitamin A 500 IU, Vitamin C 6 mg, Iron 1.8 mg, Calcium 100 mg, Protein 5 g, Fiber 2.5 g per RACC), prior to any nutrient addition. The 10 percent minimum nutrient requirement does not apply to dietary supplements (21 CFR 101.14(e)(6)). | |""]",medium,answer,"For fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC, the additional statement required is 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim.",4,Food labeling requirements,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Fish must meet the extra lean criterion with regard to cholesterol content (< 95 mg per RACC and per 100 g, whichever is greatest), but not with regard to saturated fat content. <span class=\""highlight\"">Fish with cholesterol content greater than 60 mg per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for cholesterol content' with the qualified health claim</span>.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Conventional foods other than fish must meet the low cholesterol criterion (21 CFR 101.62(d)(2)). See 21 CFR 101.62(d)(2) for the low cholesterol criterion specific for individual foods, meal products, and main dish products.""}, {""type"": ""secondary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""Fish (i.e., 'products that are essentially all fish') may not exceed 16.0 g total fat per RACC. Fish with a total fat content greater than 13.0 g per RACC must include 'See nutrition information for total fat content' with the health claim.""}]",,124
+3661,Why do vessels need to contact VTS New Orleans before passing certain points on the river?,"['- (3) A vessel of less than 100 meters in length is exempt from the provisions set forth in §161.13(b)(3) of this part. - (4) Approval will not be granted for: - (i) A vessel of 100 meters or more in length to meet or overtake a vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more; - (ii) A vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more to meet or overtake a vessel of 100 meters or more in length; - (iii) A vessel of 100 meters or more in length to cross or operate within 2,000 yards (except when crossing astern) of a vessel of 40,000 deadweight tons or more; or - (iv) A vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more to or cross or operate within 2,000 yards (except when crossing astern) of a vessel of 100 meters or more in length. - (d) Reporting Point. Inbound vessels in the Strait of Juan de Fuca upon crossing 124° W. ## §161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. - (a) The VTS area consists of the navigable waters of the United States north of a line drawn from Cape Hinchinbrook Light to Schooner Rock Light, comprising that portion of Prince William Sound between 146°30 W. and 147°20 W. and includes Valdez Arm, ′ ′ Valdez Narrows and Port Valdez. - (b) The Valdez Arm VTS Special Area consists of the waters of the Valdez Arm Traffic Separation Scheme (described in § 167.1703 of this chapter); the waters northeast of a line drawn from shoreline to shoreline through the points 60°58.04 N, 146°46.52 W and ′ ′ 60°58.93 N, 146°48.86 W; and southwest of a line bearing 307° True from Tongue Point ′ ′ at 61°02.10 N, 146°40.00 W. ′ ′', '- (iii) No Light -Do not proceed, immediately notify VTS and await further directions. NOTE TO § 161.65(c)(1): To provide advance notification to downbound vessels, a traffic repeater signal of Gretna Light is located at Westwego, LA, 29°54.8 N; 90°08.3 W (101.4 miles AHP). ′ ′ - (2) A vessel awaiting a signal change or VTS directions must keep clear of other vessels transiting the area. - (d) The Eighty-one Mile Point VTS Special Area consists of navigable waters of the LMR between 167.5 miles AHP and 187.9 miles AHP. - (e) Additional Eighty -one Mile Point VTS Special Area Operating Requirements. The following additional requirements are applicable in the Eighty-one Mile Point VTS Special Area: - (1) Prior to proceeding upriver past 167.5 miles AHP, Sunshine Bridge, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in. Vessels must provide name and destination, confirm proper operation of their automated identification system (AIS) if required under 33 CFR 164.46, and, if applicable, size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. At 173.7 miles AHP, Bringier Point Light, ascending vessels must contact VTS New Orleans and provide a follow-on position check. At both check-in and follow-on position check, VTS New Orleans will advise the vessel on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point. - (2) Prior to proceeding downriver past 187.9 miles AHP COS-MAR Lights, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in. Vessels must provide name and destination, confirm proper operation of their AIS if required under 33 CFR 164.46, and, if applicable, size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. At 183.9 miles AHP, Wyandotte Chemical Dock Lights, descending vessels must contact VTS New Orleans and provide a follow-on position check. At both check-in and follow-on position check, VTS New Orleans will advise the vessel on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point.', ""Canadian and United States Vessel Traffic Centers (Prince Rupert, B.C., Canada; Vancouver, B.C., Canada; and Seattle, WA) manage traffic within the CVTS area irrespective of the International Boundary. - (b) VTS Special Area: The Eastern San Juan Island Archipelago VTS Special Area consists of all waters of the eastern San Juan Island Archipelago including: Rosario Strait bounded to the south by latitude 48°26.40 N. (the center of the Precautionary Area 'RB') ′ extending from Lopez Island to Fidalgo Island, and to the north by latitude 48°40.57 N. ′ (the center of the Precautionary Area 'C') extending from Orcas Island to Lummi Island; Guemes Channel; Bellingham Channel; Padilla Bay and southern Bellingham Bay (Samish Bay) south of latitude 48°38.42 N. ′ NOTE: The center of precautionary area 'RB' is not marked by a buoy. All precautionary areas are depicted on National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) nautical charts. - (c) Additional VTS Special Area Operating Requirements. The following additional requirements are applicable in the Eastern San Juan Island Archipelago VTS Special Area: - (1) A vessel engaged in towing shall not impede the passage of a vessel of 40,000 dead weight tons or more. - (2) A vessel of less than 40,000 dead weight tons is exempt from the provision set forth in §161.13(b)(1) of this part. - (3) A vessel of less than 100 meters in length is exempt from the provisions set forth in §161.13(b)(3) of this part."", ""## § 161.1 Purpose and Intent. - (a) The purpose of this part is to promulgate regulations implementing and enforcing certain sections of 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 ''Ports and Waterways Safety'' setting up a national system of Vessel Traffic Services that will enhance navigation, vessel safety, and marine environmental protection, and promote safe vessel movement by reducing the potential for collisions, rammings, and groundings, and the loss of lives and property associated with these incidents within VTS areas established hereunder. - (b) Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard. Under certain circumstances, a VTS may issue directions to control the movement of vessels in order to minimize the risk of collision between vessels, or damage to property or the environment. - (c) The owner, operator, charterer, master, or person directing the movement of a vessel remains at all times responsible for the manner in which the vessel is operated and maneuvered, and is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel under all circumstances. Compliance with these rules or with a direction of the VTS is at all times contingent upon the exigencies of safe navigation. 161.20 Position Report (PR). 161.21 Automated reporting. 161.22 Final Report (FR). 161.23 Reporting exemptions. ## Subpart C - Vessel Traffic Service and Vessel Movement Reporting System Areas and Reporting Points 161.25 Vessel Traffic Service New York Area. 161.30 Vessel Traffic Service Louisville. 161.35 Vessel Traffic Service Houston/Galveston. 161.40 Vessel Traffic Service Berwick Bay. 161.45 Vessel Traffic Service St. Marys River. 161.50 Vessel Traffic Service San Francisco. 161.55 Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound and the Cooperative Vessel Traffic Service for the Juan de Fuca Region. 161.60 Vessel Traffic Service Prince William Sound. 161.65 Vessel Traffic Service Lower Mississippi River. 161.70 Vessel Traffic Service Port Arthur.""]",medium,answer,"Vessels need to contact VTS New Orleans before passing certain points on the river to ensure safe navigation and traffic management. According to the context, vessels must check-in with VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A before proceeding upriver past 167.5 miles AHP, Sunshine Bridge, and downriver past 187.9 miles AHP COS-MAR Lights. During these check-ins, vessels are required to provide their name and destination, confirm the proper operation of their automated identification system (AIS) if required, and, if applicable, the size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges. Additionally, vessels must provide follow-on position checks at specified points. VTS New Orleans uses this information to advise vessels on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point, thereby reducing the risk of collisions and enhancing the safe routing of vessels through congested or hazardous waterways.",4,Maritime navigation regulations,False,"[{""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Prior to proceeding upriver past 167.5 miles AHP, Sunshine Bridge, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in. Vessels must provide name and destination, confirm proper operation of their automated identification system (AIS) if required under 33 CFR 164.46, and, if applicable, size of tow and number of loaded and empty barges</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Prior to proceeding downriver past 187.9 miles AHP COS-MAR Lights, vessels must contact VTS New Orleans on VHF Channel 5A to check-in</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""At both check-in and follow-on position check, <span class=\""highlight\"">VTS New Orleans will advise the vessel on traffic approaching Eighty-one Mile Point</span>.""}, {""type"": ""primary"", ""abbreviatedContent"": ""<span class=\""highlight\"">Vessel Traffic Services provide the mariner with information related to the safe navigation of a waterway. This information, coupled with the mariner's compliance with the provisions set forth in this part, enhances the safe routing of vessels through congested waterways or waterways of particular hazard</span>.""}]",,125