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All of the following drugs were found to reduce the efficacy of combined OCP when used together, EXCEPT:
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Penicillin was found to have no association with the efficacy of OCP when used together. It is excreted through kidney. Drugs which induce Cyt P450 was found to lower the efficacy of OCPs when combined together. Drugs which induce Cyt P450 are: Rifampin Griseofulvin Phenytoin, mephenytoin Phenobarbital Primidone Carbamazepine Ethosuximide Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 32. Contraception.
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Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Penicillin
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit with sepsis due to a urinary tract infection. While in the ICU she develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and is treated with a loading dose of amiodarone. She converts to sinus rhythm and is sent home on amiodarone to prevent recurrences of atrial fibrillation. In the following weeks she develops increasing fatigue, dry skin, and constipation and her internist finds her TSH to be 25. She is in sinus rhythm. What is the best approach in this situation?
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Amiodarone is a widely used antiarrhythmic drug. It is related structurally to thyroid hormone and is stored in adipose tissue. The drug has a high iodine content as well. Taking amiodarone on an ongoing basis can lead to hypothyroidism by inhibiting deiodinase activity and by acting as a direct antagonist to T4 . In some cases, amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism resolves within a few months; however, in many, especially when accompanying anti-TPO antibodies are present, treatment with levothyroxine is needed. This can be easily monitored and adjusted. While answer a is a consideration, the patient likely needs the amiodarone given her tendency toward paroxysms of atrial fibrillation and the attendant risk of stroke. While starting a beta-blocker may prevent episodes of rapid ventricular response, this decision would be made with the help of her cardiologist, which is not mentioned. Anti-TPO antibodies increase the risk of hypothyroidism but are not necessary to guide therapy in this patient. Although prednisone may be used for treatment of amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism, this patient has hypothyroidism, and prednisone is not indicated.
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Medicine
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Endocrinology
|
Start low dose levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks.
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Internal resorption in a tooth is seen as:
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Dental
| null |
Non-proliferating lesion
|
Contents of Deep perennial pouch include all of the following, Except
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C i.e. Root of penis
|
Anatomy
| null |
Root of penis
|
A cook prepares sandwiches for 10 people going for a picnic. Eight out of them develop severe gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the sandwiches. It is likely that on investigation the cook is found to be the carrier of
|
Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins that can act as food poisons. Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition; pg no: 207
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Microbiology
|
miscellaneous
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
All of the following statements are true about Benedikt's syndrome, except:
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In Benedikt's syndrome, there is injury to the red nucleus and surrounding fibers of the superior cerebellar peduncle. It is not involved with the lesion at the level of pons. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 174; Neurology secrets 4th Edition, Page 138; DeJong's The Neurologic Examination, William Wesley Campbell, 6th edition, Page 280 & 284.
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Medicine
| null |
Lesion at the level of the pons
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Bullet marking indicates -
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type of weapon o The kind of firearm weapon which fired the shot can be determined by -1) Size, shape, composition and primary or secondary marking of bullet.2) Appearance of wound.o Primary markings (class characteristics or bare codes):# These markings result during passage of bullet through barrel and depend on design, dimensions and manufacturing specifications of weapon. So they are most useful in identifying make and model (class) of weapon. Features noted include1) Calibers and type.2) Number and width of lands and grooves.3) Direction and rate of twist of rifling.4) Pitch (angle of spiral) of rifling.o Secondary markings (individual or accidental characteristics/Bullet finger print):# Irregularities on the inner surface of barrel due to accidental manufacturing defects or sticking of particles of prior fired bullets (later is known as metallic fouling) also produce grooving (marking) on surface of bullet. These secondary individual (or accidental) markings are specific for that particular weapon and used to exclude it from all others (bullet fingerpringing). These are more pronounced on lead bullet (which may even sometimes carry weaving pattern of cloth) and jacketed bullet.o The bullet found in body or crime scene is called crime (exhibit) bullet. It is compared under microscope with test bullet fired from suspected weapon. Using same type and brand of ammunition, the suspected weapon is fired into a box filled with cotton waste (bullet traps), a sand bag, bag of rags, oiled saw, dust, blocks of ice, water tank (bullet recovery tank) or against white bloating paper.
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Forensic Medicine
|
Injuries by Firearms
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Type of weapon
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Which of the following behavioural problems would suggest an organic brain lesion
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Visual hallucinations are more common in acute organic states with clouding of consciousness than in functional psychosis. Visual hallucinations are extremely rare in schizophrenia, so much so that they should raise a doubt about the diagnosis. Fish's Clincal Psychopathology 3rd edition, pages 23,24.
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Psychiatry
|
Organic mental disorders
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Visual hallucinations
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Which of the following disease has incubation period< 1week?
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Incubation period of cholera: 1-2 days. Incubation period of kala azar: 1-4 months. Incubation period of filariasis: 8-16 months. Incubation period of measles: 10-14 days.
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Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Intestinal Infections, Worm Infestations
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Cholera
|
A patient in ICU has normal pulmonary A pressure; low systemic peripheral resistance; low cardiac index; aerial PO,- 93; diagnostic possibilities are
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Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, is when fluid in the pericardium (the sac around the hea) builds up, resulting in compression of the hea.Onset may be rapid or gradual. Symptoms typically include those of cardiogenic shock including shoness of breath, weakness, lightheadedness, and cough. Other s relate to the underlying cause Cardiac tamponade is caused by a large or uncontrolled pericardial effusion, i.e. the buildup of fluid inside the pericardium.This commonly occurs as a result of chest trauma (both blunt and penetrating), but can also be caused by myocardial rupture, cancer, uremia, pericarditis, or cardiac surgery, and rarely occurs during retrograde aoic dissection,or while the person is taking anticoagulant therapy.The effusion can occur rapidly (as in the case of trauma or myocardial rupture), or over a more gradual period of time (as in cancer). The fluid involved is often blood, but pus is also found in some circumstances. Causes of increased pericardial effusion include hypothyroidism, physical trauma (either penetrating trauma involving the pericardium or blunt chest trauma), pericarditis (inflammation of the pericardium), iatrogenic trauma (during an invasive procedure), and myocardial rupture. Surgery One of the most common settings for cardiac tamponade is in the first 24 to 48 hours after hea surgery. After hea surgery, chest tubes are placed to drain blood. These chest tubes, however, are prone to clot formation. When a chest tube becomes occluded or clogged, the blood that should be drained can accumulate around the hea, leading to tamponade Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 460
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Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
Cardiac tamponade
|
A contraindication to the use of ciprofloxacin is a history of :
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Pharmacology
| null |
Epilepsy
|
Most effective natural barrier to rabies
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Water Rabies is primarily a zoonotic disease of warm-blooded animals, paicularly carnivorous such as dogs, Cats, Jackals and wolves. It is transmitted to man usually by bites or licks of rabid animals. It is the communicable disease which is always fatal. Rabies is an enzootic and epizootic disease of world-wide impoance. Geographic boundries play an impoant role in the distribution of rabies. Water appears to be the most effective natural barriers to rabies - So, In India, Lakshadweep and Andman & Nicobar islands are free of the disease. A Rabies free area has been defined as one in which no case of indigenously acquired rabies has occurred in man or any animal species for 2 years. Countries where rabies is not found - Australia, china (Taiwan), Cyprus, Iceland, Ireland, Malta, Japan, Newzealand, Britain.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Water
|
Steven-Johnson syndrome involves
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Both erythema multiformae and steven Johnson syndrome are due to deposition of immune complexes in the superficial microvasculature of skin and mucosa. These immune complex diseases are mediated through type III hypersensitivity reaction.
|
Pathology
| null |
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
|
Acute suppurative Otitis media (ASOM) is treated using all except:
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(c) Streptomycin(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 142)Streptomycin--an aminoglycoside is used in anti- tubercular treatment.The MC organism causing ASOM is Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by Haemophilus influenzae. So beta-lactum, macrolides and fluro-quinolones active against these bacteria, are the antibiotics of choice.
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ENT
|
Ear
|
Streptomycin
|
Prodrornal symptoms precede 1 to 2 days before the onset of disease in
| null |
Pathology
| null |
viral fever
|
Which of the following drug is given intranasally?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Desmopressin Drugs which can be given by intranasal route are :- Desmopressin Liposomes Butorphanol Zanamivir Calcitonin
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Desmopressin
|
Regarding IUGR
|
‘AC is the single most sensitive parameter to detect IUGR’
Dutta Obs 7/e, p 462
‘Serial measurements of AC (not BPD) and estimation of fetal weight are more diagnostic to fetal growth restriction’
Dutta Obs 7/e, p 462
Head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC) ratios: In a normally growing fetus the HC/AC ratio exceeds 1.0 before 32 weeks. It is approximately 1.0 at 32 to 34 weeks. After 34 weeks, it falls below 1.0. If the fetus is affected by asymmetric IUGR, the HC remains larger. The HC/AC is then elevated. In symmetric IUGR, both the HC and AC are reduced. The HC/AC ratio remains normal. Using HC/AC ratio, 85% of IUGR fetuses are detected
Pathophysiology: Basic pathology in small for gestational age is due to reduced availability of nutrients in the mother or its reduced transfer by the placenta to the fetus. It may also be due to reduced ultilization by the fetus. Brain cell size (asymmetric–SGA) as well as cell numbers (symmetric-SGA) are reduced. Liver glycogen content is reduced. AC indirectly reflects the decreased fetal liver size and glycogen content.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
AC indirectly reflects fetal liver size and glycogen storage
|
A 6 year old boy has a history of recurrent dislocation of the right shoulder. On examination, the orthopedician puts the patient in the supine position and abducts his arm to 90 degrees with the bed as the fulcrum and then externally rotates it but the boy does not allow the test to be performed. The test done by the orthopedician is -
|
Apprehension (boy does not allow the test to be performed) on abduction and external rotation of arm is seen in apprehension test for anterior shoulder instability.
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
Apprehension test
|
One of the follo wing does not form hypopharynx:
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Ref: Grays Anatomy, 40th ed., Dhingra PL. s ENTExplanation:BOUNDARIESThe laryngopharynx is situated behind the entire length of the larynx (known clinically as the hypopharynx) and extends from the superior border of the epiglottis, w'here it is delineated from the oropharynx by the lateral glossoepiglottic folds, to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage, where it becomes continuous with the oesophagus.The laryngeal inlet lies in the upper part of its incomplete anterior wall, and the posterior surfaces of the arytenoid and cricoid cartilages lie below this opening.Pyriform fossaA small pyriform fossa lies on each side of the laryngeal inlet, bounded medially by the aryepiglottic fold and laterally by the thyroid cartilage and thyrohyoid membrane.Branches of the internal laryngeal nerve lie beneath its mucous membrane.At rest, the laryngopharynx extends posteriorly from the low:er part of the third cervical vertebral body to the upper part of the sixth.During deglutition it may be elevated considerably by the hyoid elevators.Inlet of larynxThe obliquely sloping inlet of the larynx lies in the anterior part of the laryngopharynx and is bounded above by the epiglottis, below by the arytenoid cartilages of the larynx, and laterally by the aryepiglottic folds,Below the inlet, the anterior wall of the laryngopharynx is formed by the posterior surface of the cricoid cartilageThe hypopharynx is clinically subdivided into three regions: the pyriform sinus. Post cricoids region, and posterior pharyngeal wall.Pyriform fossae are smooth depressions on either side of the larynx, acting as passages that guide swallowed food into the esophagus avoiding the larynx.Sensory innervations to pyriform sinus is internal laryngeal nerveMost common foreign body to get impacted in pyriform sinus is fish boneThe postericoid region is the part of the hypopharynx directly behind the cricoid cartilage. Cancers often occur in the hypopharynx.Carcinoma in the region of pyriform sinus remains silent until it reaches cervical group of lymph nodes.
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Anatomy
|
Pharynx
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Epiglottis
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Lamina cribrosa is absent in:
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Ans. (a) Morning Glory syndromeRef: Morning Glory syndrome- A histopathological study British Journal of ophthalmology; the morning Glory syndrome' Opthalmologica 1983; 187 (7): 222-230 1990, 74; 56-58
|
Ophthalmology
|
Neuro-Ophthalmology
|
Morning Glory syndrome
|
Flag sign and flaky paint dermatitis are characteristically seen in
|
(A) Kwashiorkar # Hair changes: The hair is thin, dry, brittle, easily pluckable, sparse, and devoid of their normal sheen. It becomes straight and hypopigmented. The length of the hair that grows during the period of nutritional deprivation appears reddish brown. During the phases of better nutrition, the growing part of the hair gets appropriately pigmented. This gives appearance of alternate bands of hypo-pigmented and normally pigmented hair (flag sign)> Hair changes are related more to the duration of undernutrition and are absent in acute PEM.> The eyelashes can undergo the same change, having a so-called broomstick appearance.> Skin changes: Large areas of skin show erythema, followed by hyperpigmentation. Hyperpigmented patches may desquamate to expose raw hypopigmented skin. It gives appearance of old paint flaking off the surface of the wood (flaky paint dermatosis). Lesions are mere marked on extremities. The underlying raw skin is easily infected The skin lesions are marked in body areasmost exposed to continuous pressure and irritation
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Pediatrics
|
Miscellaneous
|
Kwashiorkar
|
Lucio phenomenon is treated with
|
Answer- D. Exchange transfusionLucion phenomenon is a very rare comcomplication of leprosy.It presents as sudden necrotizing vasculopathy in Patients with longstanding, untreated lepromatous leprosy.TreatmentOptimal wound care and therapy for bacteremia are indicated. Ulcers tend to be chronic and heal poorly.In severe cases exchange transfusion is indicated.
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Medicine
| null |
Exchange transfusion
|
True about physiological Jaundice -
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Ans. is None Criteria for physiological jaundice Clinical jaundice appears after 24 hours of age Total bilirubin rises by less than 5mg/dl per day (no sudden rise) o Peak bilirubin occurs at 3-5 days of age, with a total bilirubin of no more than 15 mg/dl Clinical jaundice is resolved by 1 weeks in term infants and 2 weeks in preterm infants.
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Pediatrics
| null | null |
Atomic weight is equal to total number of:
|
Ans. Protons, neutrons and electrons
|
Radiology
| null |
Protons and neutrons
|
Aspirin should be used with caution in the following groups of patients because of which of the following reason:
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Aspirin- Urate excretion: Aspirin in high dose reduces renal tubular excretion of urate- dose more than 5 grams per day- that is more than the antiinflammatory dose ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 195
|
Pharmacology
|
Autacoids
|
In gout, because it can increase serum uric acid
|
20 year old patient presents with hypokalemia, alkalosis with normal blood pressure and no edema. the diagnosis is
|
It is characterized by hypokalemia , alkalosis, high rennin level and hypercalciuria , but with normal blood pressure and no edema.
This is due to mutation Na-k-cl co transporter gene , usually begins in childhood.
|
Unknown
| null |
Bartter syndrome
|
Setting expansion is advantageous in:
| null |
Dental
| null |
Investment
|
Post resection of terminal ileum, deficiency of which of the following vitamins is seen along with Steatorrhea:
|
Ans. (a) B12Ref: Harrison 18th ed, ch. 294* Post resection of ileum, vitamin B12 deficiency is seen.* Steatorrhea is fat malabsorption leading to malodorous stools. Fat malabsorption leads to deficiency of vitamin A,D,E,K.
|
Surgery
|
Miscellaneous (Small & Large Intestine)
|
B12
|
The lymphatic drainage of pyriform fossa is to:
|
Pyriform sinus drains into jugular chain and then to deep cervical group of lymph nodes. Post cricoid region drains into para pharyngeal and paratracheal group of lymph nodes. Posterior pharyngeal wall drains into para pharyngeal lymph nodes and finally to deep cervical lymph nodes. Ref Tuli 1/e,p 231,232.
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Anatomy
| null |
upper deep cervical nodes
|
Injection DMPA is given once in ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 months Depot formulations (Injectable hormones) They are given i.m. as oily solution 1. Long acting progestin alone Depot medroxy progesterone acetate (DMPA) 150 mg at 3 month intervals. or Norethindrone (norethisterone) enanthate (NEE) 200 mg at 2 months intervals. The most impoant undesirable propey is complete disruption of mestural bleeding pattern and total amenorrhoea (more common with DMPA). 2. Long acting progestin + long acting estrogen - once a month.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
3 months
|
Swarming is seen in:
|
Ans. B. Clostridium tetaniSwarming/ spreading type of growth is seen in many bacteria i.e. Proteus, Clostridium tetani, Vibrio parahemolyticus etc.
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteria
|
Clostridium tetani
|
Perception without stimuli is
|
Delusion: False belief, based on incorrect inference about external reality, that is firmly held despite objective and obvious contradictory proof or evidence and despite the fact that other members of the culture do not share the belief. Delirium: Acute reversible mental disorder characterized by confusion and some impairment of consciousness; generally associated with emotional lability, hallucinations or illusions, and inappropriate, impulsive, irrational, or violent b Reference:p.922 chap 7.3 Signs and Symptoms in Psychiatry(Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition)
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Psychiatry
|
All India exam
|
Hallucination
|
Which one of the following is not a treatment of gastroesophageal variceal haemorrhage -
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Surgery
| null |
Gastric freezing
|
PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH management which can be given over 24 hours is-
|
PGF2[?] is CARBOPROST 250 ug I.M. up to 8 doses and maximum dose is 2 mg given I.M. always ( i.v. can cause sudden hypeension )
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
NEET 2019
|
2 mg
|
Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from:
| null |
Pathology
| null |
Dental lamina
|
Young female with painless, mobile lump of 4 cm in a breast. Diagnosis is?
|
Ans. (c) FibroadenomaRef: Sabiston 19th ed. / 827* Fibroadenoma aka Breast mouse is the most common benign tumor of breast.* It is MC seen in young age group females (15-30 yrs)* Clinically, it is slow growing, painless solitary mass, which is mobile in nature (that's why known as breast mouse).* IOC: FNAC* Upon mammography: Popcorn calcification
|
Surgery
|
Fibroadenoma
|
Fibroadenoma
|
Relative contraindication to thrombolytic therapy includes all the following except :
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Hypotension
|
Tactile hallucination seen in abuse with -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cocaine o Magnan's symptoms is tactile hallucination (formication) i.e. feeling of bugs crawling under the skin is seen with cocaine abuse/ poisoning.Cocaineo Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from the Coca bush, Erythrexylum CoCa. It was the first local anaesthetic which was used clinically. Toxicity' of cocaine may be : -Acute toxicity': - Acute cocaine intoxication is characterized by : -Sympathetic hyperactivity: - Tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, sweating, nausea & vomiting.Hypomanic state : - Increased psychomotor activity, grandiosity', elation, hypervigilance, Increased speech output.Chronic overuse: - Chronic overuse can cause: -Psy chotic episodes (Cocaine psychosis): - Persecutory delusions with tactile hallucinations (formination)Tactile hallucinations are manifested as bugs crawling under the skin - Cocaine bugs or magnan 's symptoms.Other: - Anxiety reaction, compulsive behavior, delirium and delusional disorders.Black pigmentation of tongue and teetho A combination of cocaine and heroin taken by injection is called speed ball.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
|
Cocaine
|
The subtype of Hodgkin&;s disease, which is histogentically distinct from all the other subtypes is -
|
<p>The lympocytic predominance type of HD is characterised by proliferation of small lympocytes admixed with a varying number of histiocytes.Polypoid ( or popcorn )Reed Sternberg cells are seen in thus type of HD with lobulated nucleus in the shape of popcorn.</p><p>Reference :Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 371</p>
|
Medicine
|
Haematology
|
Lymphocyte predominant
|
Kidney changes in AIIDS patient -a) Membranous GNb) Wire loop lesionc) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosisd) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritise) Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion
| null |
Pathology
| null |
bc
|
APC gene is located on which chromosome
|
Ref Robbins 9/e p296 APC is classified as a tumor suppressor gene. Tumor suppressor genes prevent the uncontrolled growth of cells that may result in cancerous tumors. The protein made by the APC gene plays a critical role in several cellular processes that determine whether a cell may develop into a tumor. The APC protein helps control how often a cell divides, how it attaches to other cells within a tissue, how the cell polarizes and the morphogenesis of the 3D structures, or whether a cell moves within or away from a tissue. This protein also helps ensure that the chromosome number in cells produced through cell division is correct. The APC protein accomplishes these tasks mainly through association with other proteins, especially those that are involved in cell attachment and signaling. The activity of one protein in paicular, beta-catenin, is controlled by the APC protein (see: Wnt signaling pathway). Regulation of beta-catenin prevents genes that stimulate cell division from being turned on too often and prevents cell overgrowth. The human APC gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 5 in band q22.2 (5q22.2). The APCgene has been shown to contain an internal ribosome entry site. APC ohologs have also been identified in all mammals for which complete genome data are available.
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
Chromosome 5
|
Under classification of Renal injuries, Laceration more than 1 cm without extension into the renal pelvis or collecting system comes under which Grade?
|
Grade Type Description I Contusion Microscopic (>3 RBCs/HPF)or gross hematuria, urological studies normal Hematoma Subcapsular, nonexpanding without parenchymal laceration. II Hematoma Nonexpanding perirenal hematoma, confined to renal retroperitoneum Laceration <1 cm parenchymal depth of renal coex without urine extravasation. III Laceration >1 cm parenchymal depth of renal coex without collection system rupture or urinary extravasation IV Laceration Parenchymal laceration extending through collecting system Vascular Main renal aery or vein injury with contained hemorrhage V Laceration Completely "Shattered kidney" Vascular Avulsion of renal hilum, devascularising the kidney.
|
Surgery
|
Kidney and ureter
|
Grade III
|
Which of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture?
|
Maxillary fractures may be classified as LeFort I, II, or III. The LeFort III is the highest and most severe.
|
Surgery
| null |
LeFort III
|
Tylectomy literally means?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Excision of a lump
|
Surgery
| null |
Excision of a lump
|
All sensations carried through lateral spinothalamic tract except
|
(D) Vibration
|
Physiology
|
Nervous System
|
Vibration
|
In Pemphigus vulgaris, tzank smear shows –
| null |
Dental
| null |
Acantholytic cells
|
Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of adrenaline at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them?
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Pharmacologic antagonist
|
Ilio femoral ligament arise from:
|
D i.e. Anterior inferior iliac spine
|
Anatomy
| null |
Anterior inferior iliac spine
|
Glucose reabsorption occurs in the
|
Glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate are reabsorbed along with Na+ in the early portion of the proximal tubule.
|
Physiology
| null |
Proximal tubule.
|
A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency room with symptoms of acute intestinal obstruction. His temperature is 38degC (101degF), respirations are 25 per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a mass in the right lower abdominal quadrant. At laparoscopy, there are numerous small bowel strictures and a fistula extending into a loop of small bowel. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
|
Crohn disease is a transmural, chronic inflammatory disease that may affect any part of the digestive tract. Intestinal obstruction and fistulas are the most common intestinal complications of Crohn disease. Occasionally, free perforation of the bowel occurs. The risk of small bowel cancer is increased at least threefold in patients with Crohn disease. Pseudomembranous colitis (choice D) and ulcerative colitis (choice E) are not associated with fistula formation. Adenocarcinoma (choice A) rarely, if ever, arises in the terminal ileum.Diagnosis: Crohn disease
|
Pathology
|
G.I.T.
|
Crohn disease
|
Furasol DA is :
|
D i.e. Used to increase oxygen delivery to tissue
|
Physiology
| null |
Used to increase 02 delivery to tissue
|
Western equine encephalitis virus is transmitted by-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Culex mosquitoMosquito speciesDisease transmittedAnophelesMalaria, filariasis (not in India), arboviruses of febrile and encephalitic diseaseCulexBaneroftian filariasis, Japanese encephalitis, West- Nile fever, St. Louis encephalitis, western equine encephalitisAedesYellow fever (in Africa), Dengue, Dengue haemorrhagic fever, Chickengunya, Chickengunya haemorrhagic fever, Rift valley fever, Sindbis, Baneroftian filariasis (not in India)MansoniaBrugian filariasis, Baneroftian filariasis, Chickengunya
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable Diseases
|
Culex mosquito
|
Cause for pneumatoceles
|
Pneumatoceles an thin - walled, gas - filled cystic lung spaces.
Causes :
S.aureus (infants & children).
P.carini (AIDS).
H.influenzae & E - coli (Neonate).
|
Radiology
| null |
All of the above
|
Merciful anosmia is seen in -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atrophic rhinitis Clinical features of atrophic rhinitis o The disease is mostly seen in females and tends to appear during puberty. o The disease is always bilateral except in case of DNS where it is seen on the wider side. o There is foul smell from the nose making the patient a social outcast though patient himself is unaware of the smell due to marked anosmia (merciful anosmia). o The patient complains of nasal obstruction in spite of unduly wide nasal chambers. This is due to large crusts filling the nose. o Epistaxis may occur when the crusts are removed. o Crusting may occur in the larynx and cause hoarseness. o Apart from the nose, other sites may also be involved. Pharynx - Atrophic pharyngitis may be seen Larynx - Atrophic laryngitis may be seen which can lead to a cough and hoarseness of voice. Ear - Obstruction of eustachian tube can cause serous otitis media PNS - Small/under developed and have thick walls. They appear opaque on X-ray.
|
Unknown
| null |
Atrophic rhinitis
|
Parathyroid glands develop from .............branchial pouches?
|
HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:136The inferior parathyroid glands develop from endoderm of the third pharyngeal pouchThe superior parathyroid glands develop from endoderm of the fouh pharyngeal pouch
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
3rd & 4th
|
All of these pulmonary changes are seen in restrictive lung disease except:
|
Vital capacity is sum of ERV + TV + IRV. All these lung volumes are Reduced in Restrictive lung disease due to pulmonary fibrosis. Do not mix with Timed vital capacity which is a ratio of FEV1/ FVC and is increased in restrictive lung disease.
|
Medicine
|
Flow Volume curve, Spirometry and DLCO
|
| VC
|
Propofol infusion syndrome is characterized by
|
Propofol infusion syndrome occurs when propofol infusion is continued for more than 48 hours
Severe metabolic acidosis
Acute cardiacfailure
Hyperkalemia
Hyperlipidemia
Skeletal myopathy
Refractory bradycardia.
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
Bradycardia
|
Adequate mixing of mercury is indicated by:
| null |
Dental
| null |
Shiny Mix
|
Organism which is CAMP test positive and Bacitracin resistant is
|
S.Agalactiae which is a group B Streptococcus shows
CAMP test positive
HHT positive
BACITRACIN RESISTANT
|
Microbiology
| null |
S.Agalactiae
|
Missing cases are detected by
|
Sentinal surveillance is a method of identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. Helps to estimate disease prevalence. Repoing bias minimized. Note: India is the 1st country to have Sentinal surveillance set up for follow up of cataract surgeries. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition - Page no. 45
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of health and disease
|
Sentinel surveillance
|
A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilinibinemia and presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which amongst the following is the least likely diagnosis-
|
Hemolytic jaundice results from excessive RBC destruction.there is increased release of Hb that leads to overproduction of bilirubin. Hyperbilirubinemia develops whn the capacity of liver to conjugate large amt of bilirubin is exceeded. There is also increased urinary excretion of urobilinogen. Ref.Harsh mohan page no.598 6th edition
|
Medicine
|
G.I.T
|
Hemolytic jaundice
|
Cause of secondary PPH is
|
Causes of secondary PPH: Retained bits of cotyledon or membranes Infection and separation of slough over a deep cervicovaginal laceration Endometritis Hemorrhage from cesarean section wound Withdrawal bleeding following estrogen therapy for suppression of lactation Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 392.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
General obstetrics
|
Retained placental bits
|
Amnion is present on :
|
B i.e. Fetal surfaceAmnion is the inner most layer facing fetus Q; decidua perietalis & basalis are the outer most layers & face towards maternal surface Q
|
Anatomy
| null |
Fetal surface
|
In case of Myelofibrosis what is most likely to be seen on the peripheral blood smear?
|
Dacrocytes(D),more commonly known as tear-drop cells, are strongly indicative of myelofibrosis. Sickle cells (B) occur due to homozygous haemoglobin S which causes cell sickling on polymerization. Schistocytes (A), more commonly known as fragmented red cells, can be seen in a number of conditions such as haemolytic anaemia
or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Spherocytes (C) are commonly seen in haemolytic anaemia or in
congenital disease, such as hereditary spherocytosis.
|
Unknown
| null |
Dacrocytes
|
Which is not a feature of benign hypeension in Kidney?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fibrinoid necrosis
|
Pathology
| null |
Fibrinoid necrosis
|
All the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer except
|
Refer Katzung 10th/897 Letrozole, anastrozole and exemestane are aromatase inhibitors useful for the treatment of tamoxifen resistant breast cancer Tamoxifen is a SERM It is also used for breast cancer Taxol is commonly used term for paxclitaxel
|
Pharmacology
|
Chemotherapy
|
Taxol
|
The following is the feature of depolarizing blockade ?
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Progression to dual blockade
|
True about generator potential:
|
Generator potentialare graded potentials whose magnitude is propotional to ghe intensity of the stimulus . Graded potentials have different names depending on which type of stimulus causes them and where they occur. For eg, when a graded potential occurs in the dendrites or cell body of a neuron in response to a neurotransmitter, it is called a postsynaptic potential. On the other hand, the graded potentials that occur in sensory receptors are termed receptor or generator potentials. Other examples: end-plate potentials, pacemaker potentials, and slow wave potentials. PROPEIES OF GRADED POTENTIAL
|
Physiology
|
Nervous System
|
Graded
|
In normal pressure hydrocephalus, all are seen except?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Convulsion Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus is an uncommon syndrome consisting of an abnormal gait (ataxic or apractic) dementia (usually mild to moderate) urinary incontinence This is a communicating hydrocephalus with patent aqueduct of Sylvius. NPH is presumed to be caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexity and delayed absorption into the venous system. The indolent nature of process results in an enlarged lateral ventricles but relatively little increase in CSF pressure. Following conditions have been seen to cause NPH by producing scarring of basilar meninges (blocking upwards flow of CSF) - meningitis - subarchnoid haemorrhage - head injury Approx 30-50% of the patients of NPH will show improvement with a ventricular shunting procedure.
|
Surgery
| null |
Convulsion
|
All of the following are a features of mania except -
|
Psychomotor activity is increased in mania.
|
Psychiatry
| null |
Decreased motor activity
|
Maximum age of foetus for MTP is :
|
20 weeks
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
20 weeks
|
Tonsiloliths are best treated with:
|
The treatment for these tonsillar concretions or chronic tonsillitis is aggressive mouth care, which includes irrigation of the tonsils or cleaning them with a cotton swab soaked in 3% hydrogen peroxide. With time, the cellular debris is often retained in the branching crypts and with recurrent formation of focal bacterial abscesses in the tonsillar parenchyma, which later undergoes fibrosis and scarring; local care may not control these symptoms. Tonsillar surgery and elimination of these cryptic structures may be needed to control these infections.
|
ENT
| null |
Hydrogen peroxide
|
The lacerated wound will look like an incised wound in the region of-
|
Ans-B (4.10-Parikh 6th)Split lacerations (Incised like or incised looking wound)* Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to bones, and the subcutaneous tissues are scanty, may produce a wound which by the linear splitting of the tissues may look like an incised wound. Common sites (4.10 Parikh 6th)(181- Reddy 32th edition)* Scalp* Scalp* Face* Eyebrows* Hands* Cheekbones* Lower legs* Lower jaw * Iliac crest * Perineum * Shin* Flying is seen in Avulsion type lacerations.* The incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in Homicides.* Face - lesser impact causes a maximum bruise.* Rickshaw tire mark is an example of patterned abrasion/bruise since it reproduces the pattern of the object (Tread of Rickshaw tyre).* Primary impact injury are commonly seen on the legs.* Commonest organ to be injured in primary blast injury is - EAR drum or tympanic membrane (Eardrum > Lumg > Eye > Intestine).* Antemortem abrasion can be confused with Ant-bite marks**
|
Unknown
| null |
Forehead
|
Most common tumour of pineal region is?
|
Most common tumour of pineal region is germinoma. Most common tumour of pineal parenchymal gland is pineocytoma.
|
Radiology
|
Neuroradiology
|
Germinoma
|
Reflux oesophagitis is common in which type of Hiatus Hernia
|
HIATUS HERNIA It is displacement of stomach into the chest through oesophageal opening of the diaphragm. Most patients are elderly, past 40 years. This disorder is of two types: 1. Sliding:- Stomach is pushed into the thorax, in line with the oesophagus. Reflux oesophagitis is common and may give rise to ulceration and stenosis. Haematemesis may occur. It is caused by raised intra-abdominal pressure. 2. Paraoesophageal: A pa of the stomach along with its peritoneal covering passes up into the thorax by the side of oesophagus. The gastro-oesophageal junction still remains below the diaphragm and the angle between oesophagus and stomach is maintained. There is no reflux oesophagitis in this type of hernia. The main symptom is dyspnoea on exeion due to position of stomach in the thorax and sometimes bleeding. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-343
|
ENT
|
Oral cavity & Oesophagus
|
Sliding type of Hiatus Hernia
|
An elderly male presented with fever, dry cough and chest pain. The causative organism was detected in sputum which is cultured on charcoal yeast medium. The organism is:
|
This is a case of Legionella infection. The established approach to diagnosis combines direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) with culture of infected tissues. Cultures must be made on buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar medium that includes supplements (amino acids, vitamins, L-cysteine, ferric pyrophosphate), which meets the growth requirements of Legionella. It is buffered to meet the acidic conditions--optimal for Legionella growth (pH 6.9). The isolation of large Gram-negative rods on BCYE after 2 to 5 days that have failed to grow on routine media (blood agar, chocolate agar) is presumptive evidence for Legionella. Diagnosis is confirmed by DFA staining of bacterial smears prepared from the colonies. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 34. Legionella. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
|
Microbiology
| null |
Legionella
|
The greatest advantage of using extra oral anchorage is that:
| null |
Dental
| null |
It permits posterior movement of teeth in one arch without disturbing the opposing arch adversely
|
All of the following are pneumatic bones except?
|
Pneumatic bones are maxilla, frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid bones and mastoid process.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Mandible
|
Management of stage 2 pressure sore, clean ulcer without cellulitis is
|
Answer- B. Moist dressing
|
Surgery
| null |
Moist dressing
|
The ductus aeriosus is derived from the following aoic arch
|
The pa of the left sixth arch aery, between the branch to the lung bud and aoa,forms the ductus aeriosus HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:255
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
6th
|
Turner no of chromosomes -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 45 Molecular pathogenesis of Turner's syndromeo Turner's syndrome results from complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome and is characterized primarily by hypogonadism in phenotypic females,o The genotype in Turner's syndrome is AOo As already discussed absence of Y chromosome allows the development of female gonads ovary,o So these patients have female gonads.o What is the abnormality produced due to loss o f one X chromosome.o Both X chromosomes are active durine oosenesis and are essential for normal development of ovaries.o In Turners syndrome fetal ovaries develop normally early in embryogenesis, but the absence of second X chromosome leads to loss of oocytes from the ovary' and the ovaries are atrophied,o The ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous strands devoid of ova and follicles "Streak ovaries". (Gonadal dysgensis)o Short stature in Turner *s syndrome is also attributed to the loss ofhomeobox (SHOX) gene.o Homeobox gene is present on both the X chromosomes and is responsible for skeletal development.o Loss of this gene in Turner's syndrome results in short stature,o Congenital cardiac defects occur in Turner's syndrome.o Turner's syndrome results from complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome and is characterized primarily by hypogonadism in phenotypic females.o It is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in females.Features of Turner syndrome in childreno The most severely affected patients generally present during infancy writh edema (owing to lymph stasis) of the dorsum of the hand and foot and sometimes swelling of the nape of the neck.o Swelling of the neck is related to markedly distended ly mphatic channels, producing so called cystic hygroma.o As these infants develop, the swelling subsides but often leave bilateral neck webbing and persistent looseness of skin on the back of the neck.o Congenital heart disease is also common, particularly preductal coarctation of Aorta and bicuspid Aortic valve,o C.V.S abnormalities are most important cause of mortality in children with Turner s syndrome.Features of Turner's syndrome in Adolescents and Adulto At puberty there is failure to develop normal secondary sex characteristics.o The genitalia remains infantile, breast development is inadequate and there is little pubic hair. Nipples are widely- spaced.o Turner syndrome is the single most important cause of primary- amenarrhoea accounting for approximately 1/3 of the cases.a Short stature (height rarely exceeds 150 cm).o The mental status of these patients is usually normal but subtle defects in nonverbal, visual spatial information processing have been noted (Recall that mental retardation is associated with the presence of extra chromosome) not with loss of X chromosome.o About 50% of the patients develop autoantibodies directed to the thyroid gland and upto one half of these patients develop hypothyroidism.o Glucose intolerance, obesity and insulin resistance are also seen.
|
Pathology
|
Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects
|
45
|
Phosphofructokinase is the key enzyme of
|
Step 3 of Glycolysis -6-phosphate is fuher phosphorylated to fructose1,6-bisphosphate. The enzyme is phosphofructokinase. ii.PFK is an allosteric, inducible, regulatory enzyme. It is an impoant key enzyme of this pathway. This is again an activation process, the energy being derived by hydrolysis of yet another molecule of ATP. This irreversible step is the rate-limiting reaction in glycolysis. However, during gluconeogenesis, this step is circumvented by fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 109
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of carbohydrate
|
Glycolysis
|
Which of the following antibiotics is not used in
the treatment of infectious mononucleosis?
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Gentamycin
|
Which of the following drugs inhibits de nove synthesis of purines?
|
(Ref: KDT 6/e p841) By inhibiting the enzyme IMP dehydrogenase, mycophenolate inhibits the de novo synthesis of purines.
|
Pharmacology
|
Other topics and Adverse effects
|
Mycophenolate
|
Level of lower border of lung at mid axillary line is
|
B i.e. 8th rib
|
Anatomy
| null |
8th rib
|
In femoral hernia the base of sac lies -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Below and lateral pubic tubercle * The base of hernia sac appears below and lateral to the pubic tubercle and lies in the upper leg rather than in the lower abdomen.Femoral hernia* In this hernia the abdominal contents pass through the femoral ring, traverse the femoral canal and come out through the saphenous opening.* It is more common in females (But remember that most common hernia in the females is not femoral, but it is indirect inguinal)* Femoral hernia is rare in men and nulliparous women but more common in multiparous women due to stretching of the pelvic ligaments.* In contrast to inguinal hernia, femoral hernia is rare in infancy and childhood. It is rare before puberty.* It is more common on right side* It is bilateral in 20% of cases.* Among all the types of hernia, femoral hernia is most liable to become strangulated, mainly because of the narrowness of the neck of the sac and the rigidity of the femoral ring. Infact strangulation is the initial presentation of 40% of femoral hernias.
|
Surgery
|
Hernia
|
Below and lateral to pubic tubercle
|
Screening test for cervical cancer is:
|
Ans. (b) Papaniculaou smearRef. Shaw's Gynae 15th ed./. 403* Pap smear is taken from cervix, with Arye spatula, rotated 360deg to pick up cells from squamo-columnar junction. Vaginal smear for hormonal evaluation is taken from lateral fornix* The objective of screening is to reduce the incidence and mortality from cervical cancer* Pap smear test has been effective reducing the incidence of cervical cancer by 80% and the mortality by 70%.* Please refer to above explanation also.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Staging, Investigation and Prognostic Factors
|
Papaniculaou smear
|
Multiple myeloma is a tumor of?
|
Ans. (d) Plasma cell(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 598-602)Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells derived from a single clone.
|
Pathology
|
Misc. (W.B.C)
|
Plasma cell
|
A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency depament after the acute onset of headache, vomiting, nuchal rigidity, and impaired mental status. MRI reveals a posterior fossa tumor that fills the 4th ventricle. Surgery is immediately staed, and intraoperative consultation leads to a "frozen section" diagnosis of medulloblastoma. Which of the following pathologic mechanisms most likely accounts for this child's clinical presentation?
|
Any tumor "filling the 4th ventricle" blocks the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This blockage leads to increased intracranial pressure, which manifests with nausea, vomiting, headache,nuchal rigidity, and mental status changes. If surgery is not performed promptly, cerebellar tonsillar herniation and rapid death will ensue. In children, medulloblastoma and ependymoma are the most frequent neoplasms presenting in this manner. There is no evidence in this case suggesting that acute hemorrhage into the 4th ventricular cavity has occurred, nor is medulloblastoma typically associated with this complication. CNS tumors that frequently bleed are metastases from melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, and choriocarcinoma. Alterations in medullary function lead to cardiorespiratory instability and may be caused by direct tumor compression or infiltration of the medulla, neither of which is suppoed by MRI findings in this case. Infiltration of the cerebellar vermis is ceainly seen in many cases of medulloblastoma, a tumor that arises from this midline cerebellar structure. However, this would lead to truncal ataxia and gait instability, not symptoms of increased intracranial pressure. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 30. Disturbances of Cerebrospinal Fluid and Its Circulation, Including Hydrocephalus, Pseudotumor Cerebri, and Low-Pressure Syndromes. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e.
|
Pathology
| null |
Increased intracranial pressure
|
A 40 yrs old female who is known case of ischemic hea disease (IHD) is diagnosed having hypothyroidism. Which of the following would be most appropriate line of management for her -
|
Levothyroxine replacement in ischaemic hea disease Hypothyroidism and ischaemic hea disease are common conditions that often occur together. Although angina may remain unchanged in severity or paradoxically disappear with restoration of metabolic rate, exacerbation of myocardial ischaemia, infarction and sudden death are recognised complications of levothyroxine replacement, even using doses as low as 25 mg per day. In patients with known ischaemic hea disease, thyroid hormonereplacement should be introduced at low dose and increased veryslowly under specialist supervision. It has been suggested that T3 has an advantage over T4, since T3 has a shoer half-life and any adverse effect will reverse more quickly, but the more distinct peak in hormone levels after each dose of T3 is a disadvantage. Coronary intervention may be required if angina is exacerbated by levothyroxine replacement therapy Ref - davidsons 23e p641
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
Sta levothyroxine at low dose
|
Ivermectin is indicated in:
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
All of the above
|
Increased sweat chloride is seen in all except -
|
Ans. is d i.e., Obesity Increased sweat chloride is seen in - i) Cystic fibrosis v) Familial cholestasis ix) Untreated adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) ii) Malnutrition vi) Ectodermal dysplasia x) Hereditary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus iii) Pancreatitis vii) Fucosidosis xi) Hypoparathyroidism iv) Hypothyroidism viii) Mucopolysaccharidosis xii)Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Obesity
|
True about colour blindness: September 2005
|
Ans. D: Defect in 1 or more prime colours Colour blindness is inherited as recessive and X-linked characteristics. The prefixes "Prot-" "Deuter-"and "Trit-" stands for defects of Red, Green and Blue cone systems. So tritanopia (Rarest) has Defect of blue colour. Trichromats are normal individuals.
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Defect in 1 or more prime colours
|
Causes of unilateral dysmenorrhea are all except:
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Large fundal fibroid * Causes of unilateral dysmenorrhea1) Ovarian Dysmenorrhea (Right ovarian vein syndrome)2) Bicornuate uterus3) Unicornuate uterus4) Rudimentary horn5) Unilateral pelvic endometriosis6) Small fibroid polyp near one cornu
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Gynaecological Disorders in Obs.
|
Large fundal fibroid
|
Copper content in low copper amalgams is:
| null |
Dental
| null |
6%
|
Neill-Mooser reaction is used to diagnose-
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Rickettsiae
|
Smallest cross-section of large bowel is seen at:
|
(Refer: Richard S. Snell’s Clinical Anatomy by Regions, 9th edition, pg no: 158)
Characteristic Features of Rectosigmoid Junction
The diameter of the large intestine narrows.
There is an absence of complete peritoneal investment.
There is no true mesentery.
The three taeniae coli diverge to form a continuous longitudinal muscle coat on the rectum.
There are no appendices epiploicae.
Endoscopically, an acute angle is encountered at the narrowing of the rectosigmoid and the rectal mucosa is smooth and flat, whereas the mucosa of the sigmoid forms prominent rugal folds.
|
Unknown
| null |
Sigmoid colon
|
A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient depament with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:
|
Ans. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch's
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch's
|
Granular layer is absent in:
|
A i.e. Ichtyosis vugaris Icthyosis vulgaris - Icthyosis vulgaris is autosomal dominant disorderQ, occurring due to reduced or absence of filaggrin protein and granular layerQ. It presents with dry scaly skin resembling fish (reptile or crocodile) skin K/a sauroderma. AD means one parent should also manifest disease. It is a congenital condition which is not present at bih but develops during first year of life. - Diy looking large mosaic like scales most commonly over anterior (extensor) surface of legs. Major flexors (axillae, groins, popliteal & cubital fossa) are always and face is usually spared; though cheeks & forehead may be rarely involved. Condition improves in humid & summers and deteriorates in winter. It may be associated with atopic diathesis, keratosis pilaris, hyper linear & exaggerated palm & sole creases, and occasionally, keratoderma.
|
Skin
| null |
Ichtyosis vugaris
|
Which method is not used for autopsy -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., ThomasMethods of removal of organso Virchow's technique - organs are removed one by one. Crania] cavity is exposed first, followed by thoracic, cervical & abdominal organs.o Rokitansky rs technique - It involves in situ dissection in part, combined with en block removal,o Lettulle's technique - Cervical, thoracic, abdominal & pelvic organs are removed en masse & dissected as organ block.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Medicolegal Autopsy
|
Thomas
|
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