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Mirena (LNG IUCD) has to be replaced after :
Mirena (LNG IUD) contains a total of 52 mg levonorgestrel (LNG) LNG is released into the uterine cavity at a rate of approximately 20 microgram/day. Act mainly by local progestogenic effects Effective for up to 5 years.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
5 years
5 year old Boy with something coming out of the anus with pedicle attached to rectal/ anal wall and bright red bleeding- most common diagnosis -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Juvenile rectal Polyp * Juvenile polyps are the most common type of childhood polyp, occurring in up to 1% of preschool children. They are usually solitary polyps found in the rectum which most commonly present with rectal bleeding.* These are hamartomatous polyps, which are usually pedunculated but can be sessile.* "The typical child with a juvenile polyp is 4 to 6 years of age, presents with intermittent painless rectal bleeding with bowel movements."- Rudolph's Pediatrics* Juvenile polyps are usually are not premalignant.* Because the gross appearance of these polyps is identical to adenomatous polyps, these lesions should also be treated by polypectomy.
Surgery
Rectum
Juvenile rectal Polyp
Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Niacin o Option a, c & d are themselves antioxidants, but glutatbion requires niacin as NADPH.o NADPH is necessary tor the maintenance of a reducing environment in the cell.o NADPH plays a key role in antioxidant defences by converting the oxidized glutathione into the reduced glutathione, which is protective.
Biochemistry
Vitamins
Niacin
Prophylactic Chemotherapy is indicated after evacuation of H.Mole in all, Except:
null
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Nulliparous lady
Oral contraceptive pills decrease incidence of all of the following conditions except :
Hepatic adenoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Hepatic adenoma
A 14 year old boy with difficulty in walking and behavioural disturbance, recovered from prolonged jaundice recently, has bluish pigmentation over lunula. The next investigation to be done:
Neurological involvement + Jaundice + Azure Nails (Bluish discoloration of nails) = Wilson's disease Dx: Slit lamp examination and 24 hrs urinary copper Rx: for Neurological feature - Tetrathiomolybdate
Medicine
JIPMER 2018
Slit lamp examination
Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion is used in the management of burns caused by
Hydrofluoric acid causes Hypocalcemia. Calcium based therapies are main stay of treating Hydrofluoric acid burns. Topical application of calcium gluconate onto wounds and IV administration of calcium gluconate for systemic symptoms. Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion provides effective treatment of progressive tissue injury and intense pain.
Surgery
Burns
Hydrofluoric acid
A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg, and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
The child is unable to drink water for 12hrs & weight of the child is 5kg which is less than expected (12kg), which shows severe malnutrition. Inability to drink constitutes a danger sign amongst the clinical manifestations and classifies the pneumonia as very severe disease. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 146; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 142, 143
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Very severe disease
Familial amylodotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of
Ref Robbins 9/e p259 Familial (Hereditary) Amyloidosis A variety of familial forms of amyloidosis have been described; most are rare and occur in limited geographic areas. The best-characterized is an autosomal recessive condition called familial Mediterranean fever. This is a febrile disorder characterized by attacks of fever ccompanied by inflammation of serosal surfaces, includ- ing peritoneum, pleura, and synol membrane. This dis- order is encountered largely in persons of Armenian, Sephardic Jewish, and Arabic origins. It is associated with widespread tissue involvement indistinguishable from reactive systemic amyloidosis. The amyloid fibril proteins are made up of AA proteins, suggesting that this form of amyloidosis is related to the recurrent bouts of inflamma- tion that characterize this disease. The gene for familial Mediterranean fever is called pyrin and encodes a protein that is a component of the inflammasome (Chapter 2). Patients have gain-of-function mutations in pyrin that result in constitutive overproduction of the pro- inflammatory cytokine IL-1 and persistent inflammation. In contrast with familial Mediterranean fever, a group of autosomal dominant familial disorders is characterized by deposition of amyloid predominantly in the peripheral and autonomic nerves. These familial amyloidotic poly- neuropathies have been described in kindreds in different pas of the world--for example, in Pougal, Japan, Sweden, and the United States. As mentioned previously, the fibrils in these familial polyneuropathies are made up of mutant forms of transthyretin (ATTRs).
Anatomy
General anatomy
Mutant transthyretin
Which of the following is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dalrymple's sign o The following are presumptive signs for diagnosis of pregnancy:# Breast changes: Enlargement with vascular changes with delicate veins visible under the skin.# Jacquemier's sign/Chadwick's sign: Dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall, due to local congestion.# Osiander's sign: Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fomices at 8th week.# GoodelVs sign : Cervix becomes soft as early as 6th week.# Piskacek's sign : Assymetrical enlargement of the uterus if there is lateral implantation.# Hegar's sign: Approximationo of fingers placed on the abdomen and in the anterior fornix.# Palmer's sign: Regular, rhythmic uterine contraction during bimanual examination
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Dalrymple sign
False about Hyperophic gastropathy is
It is seen in menetriers disease&ZES &it associated with malignancies & it form cribriform rugacitu on stomach. The condition needs to be differentiated from other forms of hyperophic gastropathy such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, hyperophic hypersecretory gastropathy, lymphocytic gastritis, or gastric carcinoma MALTomas are the tumors referred to as lymphomas of mucosa- associated lymphoid tissue. REFERANCE. menetrier's disease
Pathology
G.I.T
Produce MALTomas
Body temperature regulation centre is located at
Anterior hypothalamus, responds to heat;Posterior hypothalamus, responds to cold. Ref: Ganongs Review of medical physiology;25 th edition ; pg :309; table 17-1.
Physiology
Nervous system
Hypothalamus
High Air velocity is measured by -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Anemometer
Unknown
null
Anemometer
A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable:
Women in the question stem with altered sensorium and dehydration is suffering from ketoacidosis. Absence of sugar exclude the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. So ketosis could be due to starvation which can be detected by Rotheras test. During starvation acetylCoA takes alternate fate to form ketone bodies. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 131, 440 ; Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By Chatterjee, 4th Edition, Pages 677- 679
Biochemistry
null
Rothera
A sixteen year old boy receives a superficial cut on the thumb side of his forearm. The superficial vein most likely affected is the?
There are two large cutaneous veins running up the arm. Both veins take origin from the dorsal venous arch of the hand and run up the lateral and medial sides of the arm. On the medial side (near the 5th digit) there is the basilic vein. On the lateral side (by the thumb), there is the cephalic vein. Since the infection is on the thumb side of the forearm, the correct answer is the cephalic vein. The median antebrachial vein runs down the center of the anterior forearm. The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein to the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.
Anatomy
null
Cephalic
Defect in Snurps causes-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thalassemiao Defective splicing (defect in snurps) is the most common mutation causing thalassemia,o Molecular defect in pathogens is of thalassemia:-b-Thalassemiao Most common type of genetic abnormality in b-thalassemia is point mutation i.e., nonsense.o Some may also occur due to deletion or insertion i.e., frame shift mutations,o Defect may occur at different steps of b-chain synthesis:i) Splicing mutationso Mutations leading to aberrant splicing are the most common cause of b-thalassemia.ii) Chain terminator mutationso This cause premature termination of mRNA translation.iii) Promoter region mutationso This results in transcription defect.a-Thalassemiao The most common cause of reduced a-chain synthesis is deletion of a-globin genes,o Rarely nonsense mutation may also cause a-thalassemia.
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
Thalassemia
Not true about Red degeneration of myomas is-
Ans. is 'b' ie immediate surgical intervention needed Red degenerationis the most frequent* complication of myomas during pregnancy.The tumour assumes a peculiar purple red colour.It usually occurs due to thrombosis of large veins in the tumour.it has a peculiar fishy odour*Clinical featuresAcute onset of pain over the tumour*Malaise or even rise of temperature*Tenderness or rigidity over the tumourBlood count shows Leucocytosis*Rapid pulseConstipationTreatmentMainly conservative*Analgesics & sedativesAmpicillinThe symptoms usually clear off within 10 days.Surgery is not required even when laparotomy is done with mistaken diagnosis, abdomen is to be closed without doing anything.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Clinical Features, Diagnosis, and Pathology
Immediate surgical intervention is needed
Which of the following is not supplied by C8 T1 -
Small muscles of hand include- Thenar, Hypothenar, interossei and lumbricals. They are supplied by C8-T1. Extensor indicis is supplied by C7, C8
Anatomy
null
Extensor indicis
All the following enzymes activity is increased in fasting state except
MetabolismRegulatory enzymesLipid metabolism Fatty acid oxidation Carnitine acyltransferase 1KetogenesisHMG CoA synthaseLipolysis Hormone-sensitive lipaseCarbohydrate metabolism Glycogenolysis Glycogen phosphorylase Gluconeogenesis Pyruvate carboxylase Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)Fructose1,6 bisphosphataseGlucose-6-phosphatase(Refer: DM Vasudevan, Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, pg no: 102-103)
Anatomy
All India exam
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Anaesthetic agent not metabolized by body is?
Ans. (a) N20Ref: Miller's 7thedch: 24
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
N20
Which of the following is not true about hydroquinone?
Ans. is'd'i.e., It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy .Ref: KDT Vhle p. 8921Hydroquinone:It is a weak hypopigmentation agent.Inhibits tyrosinase and other melanin forming enzymes, decreases formation of and increases degradation of melanosomes.Regular application (as 2-6% lotion or cream) for months is required in melasma, chloasma of pregnancy, etc.
Pharmacology
null
It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy
A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as:
Ans. C. AnthropoidBy tradition, pelvis are classified as belonging to one of four major groups. The gynecoid pelvis is the classic female pelvis with a posterior sagittal diameter of the inlet only slightly shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter. In the android pelvis, the posterior sagittal diameter at the inlet is much shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter, limiting the use of the posterior space by the fetal head. In the anthropoid pelvis, the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the inlet is greater than the transverse diameter, resulting in an oval with large sacrosciatic notches and convergent side walls. Ischial spines are likely to be prominent. The platypelloid pelvis is flattened with a short AP and wide transverse diameter. Wide sacrosciatic notches are common. The pelves of most women do not fall into a pure type and are blends of one or more of the above types.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
Anthropoid
Celiac plexus block all the following is true except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach Celiac plexus block can be done by following three approaches : Retrocrural (classic) approach, anterocrural approach and splanchnic nerve block. See explanation- 4 of session- 8 of Anaesthesia of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book.
Anaesthesia
null
Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach
Which of the following is used in mixed dentition classification of malocclusion
null
Dental
null
Flush terminal plane
All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except
Ether has high blood solubility (high blood : gas partition coefficient) → induction is slow. It is irritant in nature and increases salivary & respiratory secretions. Blood pressure is maintained because of reflex stimulation and high sympathetic tone. It does not sensitizes the heart to arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline It is highly inflammable, cautery should not be used.
Anaesthesia
null
Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias
Minimum fluid collection required for radiological detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view is: September 2009
Ans. Amount of pleural fluid required to cause a blunted costophrenic angle discernible on chest radiography is more than 300 ml. A chest computerized tomography scan is more sensitive than a simple chest x-ray and is often used for assessment of loculated effusions because, in some instances, up to 500 cc of loculated fluid can be obscured behind the dome of the diaphragm
Radiology
null
25 ml
Pseudopolyps are features of –
Ulcerative colitis Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by - Inflammation involving only the mucosa and submucosa Formation of pseudopolyps Involvement is in a continuous fashion (absent of skip lesions which are characteristic of CD) Ulcerative colitis involves the rectum and extends proximally in a retrograde fashion to involve the entire colon (pancolitis) in more severe cases.
Pediatrics
null
Ulcerative colitis
Coracoid process of the scapula is:
Ans. C Atavistic epiphysisRef: Clinical Anatomy, Kulkarni 2nd ed. P 73TYPES OF EPIPHYSIS* Pressure: Seen at the end of long bones subjected to pressure. E.g. Femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia and femur.* Traction: Formed due to pull of muscles. E.g. Mastoid process, tibial tuberosity, tubercles, trochanters.* Atavistic: Functional in lower animals. Degenerated in humans e.g. Coracoid process of scapula, os trigonum of talus* Abberant: It is an extra epiphysis. E.g. Proximal end of 1st metacarpal bone.
Anatomy
Joints
Atavistic epiphysis
Which of the following is the least likely cause of infant moality rate?
The principal causes of infant moality in India are low bih weight (57%), respiratory infections (17%), diarrhoeal diseases(4%), congenital malformations (5%), cord infections (2%), bih injury (3%) Park 23e pg:569
Social & Preventive Medicine
Maternal and child care
Tetanus
Mittelschimerz pain is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle o Has been explained in previous sessions.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstrual Cycle
Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle
Osteoporosis is seen in all the following except-
Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroidism Hyperparathyroidism Diabetes mellitus Hypogonadism Cushing's syndrome Malnutrition Malabsorption Anorexia nervosa Multiple myeloma Mastocytosis Rheumatoid ahritis Marfan's syndrome Ehler-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteoporosis Fig. 9.47 Anticonvulsants Steroids Vitamin A Alcohol Heparin Furosemide Thyroid hormone in excessive doses Lithium GnRH agonist Cyclosporin Cytotoxic drugs 8.Cigarette smoking 9.Glucocoicoid therapy 10.Hypogonadism 11.Alcoholism 12.Renal disease 13.GI/Hepatic disorders. Bone forming agents a.Fluoride--75 mg/day b.Anabolic steroids: Testosterone is used in the treatment of osteoporotic man with gonadal deficiency. R ALAGAPPAN MANUAL OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE FOUH EDITION PAGE NO-690
Medicine
Endocrinology
Hypoparathyroidism
All are true about rifampicin except :
null
Pharmacology
null
Used in treatment of meningiococcal meningitis
All local anesthetic produces vasodilation on local application except
Cocaine is a vasoconstrictor as it is sympathomimetic. * Cocaine was the first local Anesthetic to be used clinically. IT is only natural local anesthetic. Koller introduced this in the field of ophthalmology. It is the only local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor action. It is sympathomimetic and inhibits metabolism of catecholamine. * Procaine - 1st synthetic local anesthetic. It is used primarily to reduce the pain of intramuscular injection of penicillin. * Chloroprocaine - It is shoest acting local anesthetic used for sho procedures * Benzocaine - Is a common ingredient in topical sprays, can also cause methemeglobinamia. (See complications) * Tetracaine - Also called amethocaine mostly used topically.
Anaesthesia
Regional Anesthesia
Cocaine
Which is not elevated in a child presenting with icterus, Pruritus and clay coloured stools
The child is suffering from obstructive jaundice or Cholestasis Enzymes elevated in Chloestasis ALP 5'-Nucleotidase Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1997
Anatomy
G.I.T
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ulnar nerve * Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand.
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
Ulnar nerve
In humans and other primates, as well as in guinea pigs, this vitamin cannot be synthesized, because of the absence of the enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase; the vitamin is:
null
Biochemistry
null
Ascorbic acid
Psoriasis is associated with:
null
Pathology
null
Geographic tongue
Diagnostic feature of parathyroid carcinoma is
Parathyroid carcinomas may be circumscribed lesions that are difficult to distinguish from adenomas. Cells are usually uniform and resemble normal parathyroid cells and of enclosed in a capsule. Diagnosis of carcinoma based on cytologic detail is unreliable , and invasion of surrounding tissues and metastasis are the only reliable criteria. Ref: Robbins and cotrans 9e Pg 1102
Pathology
Endocrinology
Metastasis
D.I.C. is seen in-
Answwr is option 1 Abstract Malignancy is associated with a "hypercoagulable" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threatening bleeding is frequent in acute leukemias, paicularly in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). Laboratory assessments show profound hemostatic imbalance in this condition, with activation of coagulation, fibrinolysis, and nonspecific proteolysis systems. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 455
Pathology
Haematology
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
Halting a disease at its incipient stages and preventing its complications is known as:
null
Dental
null
Secondary prevention
The most common ocular motility defect noted in ocular Graves' disease is due to involvement of:
Ans. Inferior rectus
Ophthalmology
null
Inferior rectus
Foreign body aspirated during dental procedures can be retrieved by:
null
Medicine
null
Bronchoscopy
Drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus
Desmopressin is used to treat neurogenic diabetes insipidus, bedwetting, hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease it acts as an agonist to vasopressin receptor or ADH receptor- produce antidiuresis- less urine production-used in DI, bedwetting, vasoconstriction - used in esophageal varices and produces vwf- used in von Willebrand disease ref KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Kidney
Desmopressin
A 20 Yr old male presented with repeated episodes of hemetemesis. There is no history of jaundice or liver decompensation. On examination the significant findings include splenomegaly (8cms below costal margin), and presence of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is
Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis Condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of liver(mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusoidal) causing wide variation in normal architecture There is no true cirrhosis Etiology Chronic ingestion of arsenic, copper, vinyl chloride Clinical features Youny age patient with features of poal hypeension with conspicuous absence of liver cell failure Patient are usually on 2nd or 3rd decade Onset of symptoms is gradual Most common presenting symptom is GI bleed (90% cases) Splenomegaly Jaundice, Hepatomegaly, ascites and stigmata of liver cell failure are uncommon Diagnosis Site of block is smaller branches (3rd or 4th order branches) Ultrasound shows normal splenopoal axis. Withered tree appearance and peripoal fibrosis is seen in NCPF Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pgno : 1099-1105
Anatomy
G.I.T
Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis
Which electrolyte should be replenished in hyperophic pyloric stenosis ?
Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis is the classic electrolyte and acid-base imbalance of pyloric stenosis. This prolonged vomiting causes progressive loss of fluids rich in hydrochloric acid, which causes the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions in or of potassium. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Gastrointestinal tract
Chloride
Feed forward mechanism is employmed in regulation of:
Feed forward control ,in which no stimulus is required but the system still anticipates and makes changes.it is also known as anticipatory control or adaptive control .It is seen in: Temperature regulation Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Role of cerebellum in motor coordination Thinking about exercise Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:7
Physiology
Endocrinology
Temperature
Not safe disposal but good for soil building:
null
Dental
null
Composting
Perifascicular atrophy is seen in –
Muscle biopsy in dermatomyositis shows myonecrosis, myophagocytosis and perifascicular atrophy.
Pediatrics
null
Dermatomyositis
Antenatal screening is done using the following except :
Peripheral lymphocytes
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Peripheral lymphocytes
The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:-
Laparoscopy Needle used for pneumoperitoneum veress needle Most commonly used gas: CO2 Flow of gas: 1L /min Intra-abdominal pressure: 12-15 mm Hg Trocar is inseed at or just below the umbilicus penetrating skin, superficial & deep fascia, fascia transversals & parietal peritoneum
Surgery
Robotics, Laparoscopy and Bariatric Surgery
10-15 mm of Hg
Cells which surround the oocyte in Graafian follicle are called:
Oocyte lies eccentrically in the ovarian (Graafian) follicle surrounded by some granulosa cells called cumulus oophorus. Discus proligerus is the attachment point of the cumulus oophorus to the most peripheral granulosa cells of an antral follicle. Large fluid-filled antrum (A) Cumulus oophorus (CO) Membrane granulose (stratum granulose, SG)
Anatomy
Development period- week 1,2,3,4
Cumulus oophorus
In transtentorial herniation, a pa of the brain is displaced from the supratentorial to the infratentorial compament through the tentorial opening. It results in all of the following, EXCEPT:
The uncus (on the medial aspect of the temporal lobe) herniates under the tentorium cerebelli. The uncus can compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III), compromising the parasympathetic fibers and resulting in ipsilateral pupillary dilation with associated ophthalmoplegia ("down and out"). Cheyne-Stokes respirations are commonly seen with mesial temporal transtentorial herniation. If the uncus is forced fuher medially, it compresses the cerebral peduncle, producing contralateral hemiparesis. After the brain herniates, the patients are decerebrate and comatose, have fixed and dilated pupils, and eye movements are absent. Ref: Cowan J.A., Thompson B. (2010). Chapter 36. Neurosurgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.
Physiology
null
Ipsilateral hemiparesis
Infection occuring after man's bite is -
null
Microbiology
null
Staphylococcus
Drug of choice in thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy is :
Carbimazole
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Carbimazole
Which of the following is the skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver and renal disease ?
Atracurium is degraded by both pH and temperature dependent Hofmann elimination (autolysis) and by ester hydrolysis; it therefore does not require a dosage adjustment in patients with renal or hepatic failure. However, acidosis and severe hypothermia decrease the rate of drug metabolism and should prompt dose reduction. Mivacurium is a sho-acting benzylisoquinoline with an onset of action comparable to atracurium but with one-third its duration of action, because of rapid hydrolysis by plasma pseudocholinesterase. However, patients with renal or hepatic insufficiency may have depressed pseudocholinesterase activity leading to delayed elimination. Vecuronium is an aminosteroid compound with an intermediate duration of action. It is hepatically metabolized to three active metabolites, all of which are eliminated by the kidney.
Anaesthesia
null
Atracurium
Residual bodies are
lysosomes Residual bodies are nothing but secondary lysosomes with undigested wastes. The digested materials are diffused into the cell cytoplasm through the lysosomal membrane. (Ref: www.sivabio.50web.com)
Physiology
General physiology
Lysosomes
Measure of communicability of a disease -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary attect rate Secondary attack rateo SAR is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary caseSAR =No of exposed persons developing disease within the range of the incubation period------------------------------------------Total number of exposed/susceptible contactx 100o The important features of SAR are:-i) The primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator.ii) Denominator is restricted to susceptible contacts of primary case.iii) In denominator, person should be suscetible - Immune person (to disease) are not susceptible to develop the disease, So they are excluded.iv) Disease should develop within the range of incubation period.o SAR is an important measure of communicability. Higher secondary attack rate means, more numbers of susceptible contacts are developing the disease after exposure to primary case. So, higher the SAR higher is the communicability (infectiousness) of disease.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
Secondary attack rate
In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome'?
Answer is C (Cerebellum) Von Hipple-Lindau Syndrome is associated with haemangioblastomas of cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla or pons.
Medicine
null
Cerebellum
Signature fracture of skull is seen in
DEPRESSED SKULL FRACTURE It is a common neurosurgical problem among the head injuries. It means fracture depression is more than the depth of inner table of the skull. Investigations: CT scan. Problems in depressed fracture Tear in the dura beneath Haematoma in the deeper plane Injury to the cerebrum Injury to the venous sinuses--may cause life-threatening haemorrhage. Fracture should not be elevated in such occasion, as it itself can precipitate bleeding Convulsions Meningitis Treatment Antibiotics, anticonvulsants. Elevation of the depressed fracture: Burr holes are made in the adjacent normal skull. Fracture is elevated. Bony fragments and necrotic materials are removed. Dural tear is closed with interrupted sutures. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1099
Surgery
Trauma
Depressed fracture
True about intrauterine fetal death (IUD) :
Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Gas bubbles in great vessels; Overlapping of skull bone; and Decreased amniotic fluid volume
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
All of the above
Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl tRNA Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blocking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex.
Pharmacology
null
Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA
Adverse effects of losaan are all EXCEPT -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Angioedema
Pharmacology
null
Angioedema
Muscle's of anterior compament of leg is/ are:
Ans. (a) Peroneus teiusThe 4 muscles in the anterior compament of the leg are- the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis(Peroneus) teius
Anatomy
null
Peroneus teius
Albinism is a genetic disease that results in incomplete metabolism of:
null
Biochemistry
null
Tyrosine
40 years male with spherophakia is at risk for developing
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 248) Phacomorphic glaucoma is an acute secondary angle-closure glaucoma caused by:Intumescent lens i.e., swollen cataractous lens due to rapid maturation of cataract or sometimes following traumatic rupture of the capsule is the main cause of phacomorphic glaucomaAnterior subluxation or dislocation of the lensSpherophakia (congenital small spherical lens) Phacomorphic glaucoma is the term used for secondary angle-closure glaucoma due to lens intumescence. The increase in lens thickness from an advanced cataract, a rapidly intumescent lens, or a traumatic cataract can lead to pupillary block and angle closure.
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
Phacomorphic glaucoma
Crystalline Lens is derived from (JIPMER May 2019)
- Eye ball have contribution from several structures - Neural plate ectoderm forms Neural tube form - CNS which have diencephalon pa of brain aExtension of diencephalon (optic sulcus) into eyeball form retina (optic cup) & optic nerve (optic stalk) - Neural plate ectoderm also forms - epithelium of ciliary body & iris muscle - Muscles of Iris - Sphincter pupillae, dilator pupillae - Eye ball have some contribution from surface ectoderm as well which gives Surface epithelium of cornea (1st layer) Eye lens - Most of derivatives in eyeball come from neural crest cells which gives Secondary mesoderm of eyeball - Forms sclera, choroid, ciliary body & Iris (not epithelium) - All other layers of cornea except 1st layer develops from N.C.C
Anatomy
JIPMER 2019
Surface ectoderm
Morbid jealousy is associated with which addiction?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcohol Morbid jealousy (Pathological jealousy)* Also referred to as delusional jealously, obsessive jealousy and Othello syndrome. This condition occurs when a person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful.* Morbid jealousy can occur in alcoholism, Schizophrenia, manic phase of bipolar illness, OCD, depression, or anxiety disorder.Also knowAlcoholic paranoia falcohal induced psychotic disorder with delusions)* Alcoholic parania refers to alcohol induced psychotic disorder with delusions. Delusions in alcoholic paranoia are fixed, ie. Alcoholic paranoia is associated with fixed delusions. Patients develop delusion of either persecution or jealousy, accompanied by delusion of reference. Auditary hallucinations may occur but play a minor role.
Psychiatry
Substance Abuse
Alcohol
Tripod fracture is the name given for
Zygoma fracture is also known as tripod fracture. Clinical features of zygoma fracture Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult. Flattening of malar prominence. Step-deformity of infraorbital margin. Anaesthesia in the distribution of infraorbital nerve. Trismus, due to depression of zygoma on the underlying coronoid process. Oblique palpebral fissure, due to the displacement of lateral palpebral ligament. Restricted ocular movement, due to entrapment of inferior rectus muscle. It may cause diplopia. Periorbital emphysema, due to escape of air from the maxillary sinus on nose-blowing. The mucosa of the maxillary sinus may be lacerated and cause epistaxis on that side. Fracture of the zygoma may or may not be painful to palpation and running a finger along the zygomatic arch may give a feel of a depressed fracture or a small dimple. The cheek may appear flattened compared to symmetry with the opposite side. This may be obvious immediately following trauma or several days later once swelling has subsided.
ENT
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Zygomatic fracture
Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain
Ref : PJ Mehta 16/e p372,T. Singh 1/e p34 Ref Robbins 9/e pg 24 Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films,They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophils granules are basophilic and stains blue.hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red. Various modification available are leishman's stain,Wright's stain, Giemsa and and Jenner's stain. Basophilic stripping,Howell jolly bodies and Cabot rings are seen by romanowsky stain
Anatomy
Haematology
All of the above
Most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasis is
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Pediatrics
null
21 Hydroxylase deficiency
Kelly's medium is used in the isolation of -
null
Microbiology
null
Borrelia
In all of the found except:
Ans. (a) Measles cZef Park 22/e, p 154 In measles and whooping cough only cases are found with no carriers. Chronic carriers seen in: Typhoid Dysentery Hepatitis B Cerebrospinal meningitis Malaria Gonorrhea
Microbiology
null
Measles
Which is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis in pregnancy:
N. meningitidis is dangerous because it can cause Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome & Addisonian crisis So, chemoprophylaxis is recommended Ceftriaxone as a single IM or IV injection is highly effective in carriage eradication and can be used at all ages and in pregnancy
Medicine
Bacterial infection
Ceftriaxone
Regarding pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland true statement (s) is /are
Eighty percent salivary neoplasms are in the parotids of which 80% are benign.Pleomorphic adenoma is more common in parotids(80%).It is more common in females in a ratio of 3:1.It is also called as mixed salivary tumour.Malignant transformation can occur in 3-5% in early tumours and 10% in long duration tumours.(15 or more years).Adenolymphoma is Wahin 's tumour. SRB,5th,414
Surgery
Head and neck
Parotid gland is most commonly involved
Least failure in sterilization occurs with :
The success rates are best when clips and rings are used and worst with electrocoagulation. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 393
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraception
Unipolar cauterisation
Bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space, EXCEPT:
Omental bursa, paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are peritoneal recesses. Peritoneal recesses These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults. Sometimes they persists to form potential sites for internal hernias and strangulation. These are: Lesser or omental bursa Duodenal recesses: includes superior duodenal recess, inferior duodenal recess, paraduodenal recess, retroduodenal recess, Duodenojejunal recess and mesenterico-parietal fossa (of waldeyer) Caecal fossa: Superior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess, Inferior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess and retrocaecal recess. Intersigmoid recess Ref: BDC Vol II, 3/e, Page 204.
Surgery
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Rectouterine pouch
All are true about aspirin poisoning except
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Medicine
null
Hypothermia
Low grade Central Nervous System tumour among the following is
(D) Meningioma # SPECTRUM OF CNS TUMORS range from Diffuse astrocytoma (grade ll/IV) Anaplastic astrocytoma (grade lll/IV) Glioblastoma (grade IV/IV)> Most meningiomas have a relatively low risk of recurrence or aggressive growth, and so are considered WHO grade l/IV.
Pathology
Misc.
Meningioma
The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is :
WHO classification of Progression to Carcinoma The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is 29% Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; pg no: 248
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
29%
A female presents with 3 cm painless ulcer with raised edges on labia majora. Most common cause is: (E. REPEAT 2013)
Ref: E s sent to Is in Dermatology, 1st editionExplanation:* Presence of 3 cm ulcer with raised edges in the labia majora suggests Syphilis. (See the following table) SyphilisGranuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)Chancroid(Soft sore. Soft Chancre, Ulcus molle)LymphogranulomaVenereumEtiologyTreponema pallidumCalymmatobacteriumdonovaniGram negative Obligate intracellularHemophilus ducreiChlamydia trachomatis (LI, L2 and L3 types)IncubationPeriodPrimary syphilis: 1-3 weeks Secondary syphilis: 6-12 weeks8-12 days(17 days average)3 days - 2 weeks (1-5 days average)3-30 daysClinicalSigns* Painless indurated* Single punched out* Usually non-bleeding* Lymph nodes are rubbery* Dark field microscopy* FTA-ABS - Most sensitive test and Earliest lest to become positive* VDRL* RPR liters* TPT - Most specific* TPH - 2nd most sensitive test* Painless genital ulcer* Soft. Beefy* Clean friable base* Distinct raised rolled margins* Massive scarring* Lymphatic obstruction* Pseudobubos(Subcutaneous granulomas not nodes)* Extremely painful. Suppurative ulcers of genital mucosa* Soft friable, non- indurated, ragged undermined edges* Foul smelling yellow grey exudate* Suppurative inguinal lymph nodes (Bubo)* Ito-Reenstierna test - Intradermal test* Skin or mucosal ulcer followed by ulcerated inguinal lymph nodes* "Sign of the groove"* Frei's Test: Intradermal test* Genital elephantiasis (Esthiomene)Pathology Hypertrophic ulcers Donovan Bodies (Safety pin shaped)Pyogenic ulcerationNecrotising granulomatous inflammation with stricture formationTreatmentPenicillin G -Drug of Choice forall stages of syphilisDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeksAzithromycin 1 gsingle oral dose (or)Ceftriaxone 250 mg1M single dose (or)Ciprofloxacin 500 mgbd for 3 daysDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Specific Infections
Syphilis
Regarding stones in gall bladder the following are true except -
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Surgery
null
90% of GB stones are radioopaque
Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by:
Ans. (b) Microtubules(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.39)Microtubules provide structural support that can determine the shape of the cell and resist forces that tend to deform it
Physiology
General
Microtubules
systematic desensitization was introduced by
SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION JOSEPH WOLPE Joseph Wolpe gave the concept of systematic desensitization This is a treatment used in phobia In phobia there is a conditioned fear response to aversive neutral stimulus and avoidance of that response leads to phobia Whenever there is a fear response there is stimulation of sympathetic system In that case stimulation of parasympathetic system by relaxation there is reduction in anxiety First step is to make a step ladder which are arranged based on the severity Then is go step by step and along with doing applied relaxation Slowly the the sympathetic system is reduced The patient will be able to approach stimulus without anxiety Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th editio, pg no. 845
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
joseph wolpe
Haabs striae are seen in-
Haabs striae -Tears and breaks in descemets membrane . These occur because Descemt's membrane is less elastic than the corneal stroma. Tears are usually peripheral, concentric with the limbus and appear as lines with double contour. Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:226
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
Buphthalmos
Which of the following is not a minor diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma?
Ans. (c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy(Ref: Wintrobes 12th/pg2377)Durie and Salmon criteria for diagnosis of Multiple myeloma.A minimum of 1 major and 1 minor criterion needed, although (1) + (a) is not sufficient, or 3 minor criteria that must include (a) and (b).However, International myeloma working group 2011 has revised the criteria as mentioned in pretexts.
Pathology
Misc. (W.B.C)
Plasmacytoma on biopsy
Frequency polygon is obtained by joining the points of
Ans. d (Histogram blocks) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/ 788; Methods in Bio-statistics, by B. K. Mahajan 6th/p. 23)Quantitative data is presented by the following graphsQualitative or discrete or enumeration data is presented by the following graphs:# Histogram.# Bar diagram# Frequency polygon.# Pie or sector diagram# Frequency curve.# Pictogram# Line chart or graph.# Spot map# Cumulative frequency diagram (Ogive). # Scatter or dot diagram.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
Histogram blocks
Wave One is classified as
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Dental
null
Sgp33
Following are hepatotoxic anesthetic agents except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Propofol o Following are the groups of hepatotoxic anesthetic agents:i) Group I: Drugs with well known hepatotoxic potential and containing Chlorine or bromine. Eg: chloroform,ii) Group II: Drugs which contain fluorine Eg: halothane, methoxyflurane. o Desflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, nitrous oxide and carbon tetrachloride are also linked with hepatotoxic ity.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia)
Propofol
Normal glomerular filtration rate is -
In man, resting glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml/min (lSOL/day), the renal plasma flow is about 600 ml/min. Thus about one-fish (20%) of plasma passing through kidney is filtered„ i.e., a fraction of renal plasma flow that is filtered (filtration fraction)
Physiology
null
125 ml/min
An elderly male presents with one episode of gross haematuria. All of the following investigations are recommended for investigating this patient except:
Answer is C (Urine tumor markers) Urine tumor markers are the single best answer of exclusion as these are neither sensitive nor specific enough to replace cystoscopy and cytology. 'Individuals older than 40 years of age who develop haematuria , should have a urine specimen for cytology and undergo cystoscopy and imaging of the urinary tract with an intravenous prelozram or CT Recommended investigations in individuals greater than 40 years who develop haematuria include: Devita/H16th Urinary cytologyQ for malignant cells Cvstocopy Imaging of the urinary tract with Intravenous Pyelogram or CT scanQ Other urine assay' (tumor markers) have been used to diagnose disease and follow up patients including flow cytometry, blood group antigens (Lewis x), cytokeratins, nuclear matrix proteins, Fibrin degradation products and telomerose. None is sensitive or specific enough to replace cystoscopy and urine cytology. - Devita
Medicine
null
Urine tumor markers
Cold caloric test stimulates
Stimulation of semicircular canal produces nystagmus and the direction of nystagmus is determined by the plane of the canal being stimulated. In cold caloric test, the lateral semicircular canal is stimulated. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition)
ENT
Ear
Lateral semicircular canal
Drug resistant in tuberculosis is due to ?
Drug resistance in M.tb is by Mutation in Chromosomes Metabolic defects occur as a result of mutation Eg - M.tb is normally catalase +ve INH resistant M.tb are Catalase -ve
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa-2 and Pa-3 (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics)
Mutation
Cells present in Cerebellar coex are all except?
There are 5 types of neurons present in cerebellar coex:- Granule cell- Golgi cell- Basket cell - Stellate cell- Purkinje cellBipolar neurons are less common. A single axon and dendrite arise at opposite poles of the cell body. Their cell bodies are located in the retina, the olfactory epithelium, and the cochlear and vestibular ganglia.
Anatomy
null
Bipolar
Telefono is
TELEFONO consists of repeated slapping of the sides of the head by open palms of the assailant this may cause rupture of ear drums. Ref : internet sources
ENT
All India exam
Beating on ears
Adipocere is likely to occur in -
null
Forensic Medicine
null
Warm humid climate
Rituximab is a targeted antibody against -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 20 * Rituximab is a targeted antibody against cell surface molecule CD-20, i.e. Rituximab is anti CD-20 antibody.* It is used in:i) B-cell lymphomas Low grade lymphomas, mantle cell lymphomas, relapsed aggressive B cell lymphomas, CLLii) SLEiii) Rheumatoid arthritis
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
CD 20
Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is
Superoxide dismutase ref Robbins 7/e p17 , Harrison 17/e p 2572 ,9/e p48.
Anatomy
General anatomy
Superoxide dismutase
Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iodides of Na Iodine and Iodides Iodine is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor Most impoant action is inhibition of hormone release (thyroid constipation); but all facets of thyroid synthesis may be affected. Excess iodide inhibits its own transpo in thyroid cells and may alter the redox potential of cells, thus interfering iodination - reduced T4/T3 synthesis (Wolff-chaikoff effect).
Pharmacology
null
Iodides of Na/ K
Clinically in the non-injured eye, sympathetic ophthalmitis may manifest as:
Ans. All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
All of the above
An 8 years old child has left sided flank pain and mental retardation. On ultrasound, a hyperechoic lesion in the right kidney and multiple lesions in the liver are noted. CT examination of the abdomen revealed -50 to -80 HU density of these lesions. The most probable diagnosis is:
Answer- A (Tuberous sclerosis)AML is a benign clonal neoplasm consisting of varying amounts of mature adipose tissue, smooth muscle and thick-walled vessels.
Surgery
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Tuberous sclerosis