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The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if it involves the extremity. Extremity rhabdomyosarcomas in adolescents and young adults usually have alveolar histologic characteristics and carry a worse prognosis. Other poor prognostic factors associated with it includes age less than 1 and more than 10 years, alveolar histology, unorable primary size, size greater than 5cm and higher clinical group. Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Surgery, 13th Edition, Chapter 43; Radiation Oncology: Management Decisions By K. S. Clifford Chao, 3rd Edition, Page 755; Kelley's Essentials of Internal Medicine By H. David Humes, 2nd Edition, Page 445.
Surgery
null
Extremity
The rate-limiting step in the synthesis of coisol is catalyzed by
The first and rate-limiting step in all steroid biosynthesis is catalyzed by cholesterol sidechain cleavage enzyme, resulting in pregnenolone and isocaproic acid.
Physiology
All India exam
Cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme
Cardiac index ratio is determined by
null
Physiology
null
CO & surface area
Peripoal fibrosis is caused by?
Methotrexate. This drug is a well-established cause of hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis. These complications are best recognized following long-term use of the agent in inflammatory disorders such as psoriasis and rheumatoid ahritis, although cases have also followed administration for neoplastic diseases. The risk of liver damage depends largely on the dose, duration, and timing of therapy. In prospective studies, up to 25% of patients receiving a cumulative dose of 1.5 to 2 grams over five years have developed fibrosis or cirrhosis. The risk appears to be lessened by weekly, as opposed to daily, administration of the drug, and exacerbated by concomitant obesity or alcohol abuse. Methotrexate-induced hepatotoxicity is often clinically silent and, even in advanced disease, can exhibit an indolent clinical course. Evidence of poal hypeension or liver failure can nonetheless develop in some cirrhotic cases and may lead to death or the necessity for liver transplantation.
Pathology
G.I.T
Methotrexate
Bacterial "finger printing" illustrate that periodontal pathogens are
null
Dental
null
Transmissible within member of same colonies
Stylohyoid ligament is derived from:
Ans. B 2nd branchial archRef: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 449* The stylohyoid ligament is a fibrous cord extending from the tip of the styloid process to the lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. It gives attachment to the highest fibres of the middle pharyngeal constrictor and is intimately related to the lateral wall of the oropharynx. Below, it is overlapped by hyoglossus.* The ligament is derived from the cartilage of the second branchial arch and may be partially calcified.
Anatomy
Embryology
2nd branchial arch
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises form -
Mucoepidermoid carcinomas are composed of variable mixtures of squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells, and intermediate cells. "The low-grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma is composed of largely mucin-secreting cells, whereas in high-grade tumors, the epidermoid cells predominate."- Schwartz They are the most common malignant tumors of the salivary glands. Treatment The primary t/t of all salivary malignancy is surgical excision: for parotid malignancies- Superficial parotidectomy with preservation of CN VII. Total parotidectomy with nerve preservation if deep lobe is involved. for other salivary gland - Enbloc removal of the involved gland Neck dissection for lymph nodes is done clinically palpable nodes for high grade malignancies Radiation therapy is used postoperatively for specific indications high grade histology presence of extraglandular disease perineural invasion direct invasion of regional structure regional metastasis
Surgery
null
Mucin secreting and epidermal cells
Positive Fouchet's test gives which color?
Fouchet's test : This test is also employed for the detection of bile pigments. Bile pigments are adsorbed on  barium sulfate. Fouchet's reagents (containing ferric chloride in  trichloroacetic acid) oxidizes bilirubin to biliverdin (green) and bilicyanin (blue). Satyanarayana, Ed 3, Pg No 767
Biochemistry
null
Green
A CKD patient had to undergo dialysis. His Hb was 5.2gm% so two blood transfusions were to be given. First bag was completed in 2 hours. Second was staed and midway he developed shoness of breath, hypeension. Vitals: BP 180/120 mm Hg and pulse rate 110/min. What is the cause?
This C.K.D patient has developed severe anemia which is a compensated hea failure state. The patient was given first unit of blood in two hours instead of standard four hours and he is already in compensated hea failure. The acute decompensation due to volume overloading that has subsequently occurred will result in pulmonary edema and shoness of breath. This presentation is called as transfusion associated circulatory overload. Ideally patients of CKD should be given erythropoietin injections to reduce the incidence of having severe anemia.
Medicine
Chronic Kidney Disease & Diabetic Nephropathy
Transfusion related circulatory overload (TACO)
The factories Act (1976) prohibits employment of a person below -
Ans. is `b' i.e., 14 years
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
14 years
Most stable amino acid at the physiological pH is
As histidine titrates in the physiological pH range it remains stable.
Biochemistry
null
Histidine
Trolly tract sign is seen in -
Trolly track sign : The Central radiodense line on frontal radiographs is related to ossification of supraspinous and interspinous ligaments. In addition, there are two more lateral veical linear lines, which represent ossification of the apophyseal joint capsules. The three veical ossified lines together make up the trolley-track sign. Radiological features of Ankylosis spondylitis are : Sacroiliitis Enthesopathy Romanus lesions Bamboo spine Rugger Jersy spine Interveebral disc calcification Dagger sign Trolley track sign Squarring of veebrae.
Radiology
Skeletal system
Ankylosing spondylitis
Pulsatile liver and ascites is found in:
. Ans. a. TR Hepatomegaly with systolic pulsations (of the liver} and ascites are typically seen in tricuspid regurgitation.Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)* The clinical features of TR result primarily from systemic venous congestion and reduction in cardiac output.Typical Physical Examination Findings in Tricuspid Regurgitation* Gross fluid retention:* Significant peripheral edema* Ascites* Pieural effusion* Hepatomegaly with a pulsatile liver (enlarged tender liver with systolic pulsations)* Positive hepatojugular reflux* Dilated jugular veins with prominent 'v' waves and rapid 'y' decent* Blowing holosystolic murmur along lower left sternal margin that increases with inspiration* Prominent RV pulsations (Parasternal heaves) over left parasternal region.
Medicine
Liver
TR
Which of the following is a treatment option for Volkmann's ischemia?
Ans. A. FasciotomyVolkmann's ischemia is synonymous with Compartment syndrome. If the same is missed, there occurs necrosis followed by fibrosis of forearm flexors leading to a flexion contracture in hand also called as Volkmann's ischemic contracture.
Orthopaedics
Management In Orthopedics
Fasciotomy
Migratory thrombophlebitis is associated with the following malignancies except -
Ans. is None or 'b' i.e., Prostate cancer "Multifocal migratory thrombophlebitis has been associated with numerous malignancies especially in patients younger than 50 years of age. It is most commonly found with GI cancer, but also lung, prostate, ovary, as well as leukemias and lymphomas. It may be related to hypercoagulable state associated with advanced cancer. Specific syndrome of a cordlike thrombophlebitis of anterior chest (Mondor's disease) may be associated with breast cancer."- Devita's Oncology Migratory thromobophlebitis In ceain cancers hypercoagulability occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome. The resultant venous thrombosis have a tendency to appear in one site, only to disappear and to be followed by thrombosis in other veins. This is called migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign).
Surgery
null
Prostate cancer
Child has lesion on buttocks since 2 year spreading peripherally with central scarring non symptomatic diagnosis-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythema annuiase cetrifugam o Erythema annulare centrifugum : an asymptomatic or pruritic eruption of variable duration. The eruption may be associated with an underlying disease (eg, infection, malignancy, sarcoidosis, other systemic illness)o The eruption begins as erythematous papules that spread peripherally while clearing centrally. These lesions enlarge at a rate of approximately 2-5 mm/d to produce annular, arcuate, figurate, circinate, or polycyclic plaqueso Lesions demonstrate a predilection for the thighs and the legs, but they may occur on the upper extremities, the trunk, or the face. The palms and the soles are spared.o Erythema migrans: These lesions are typically less numerous, less circinate in configuration, and often accompanied by a history# of a tick bite.o Erythema gyratum repens: EAC can be distinguished from this condition by its slower rate of spread and by its less bizarre configuration. Also, erythema gyratum repens is almost always associated with an underlying malignancy.o Erythema marginatum rheumaticum: This is a nonscaling gymate erythema that by definition is found in association with rheumatic fever (10-18% of patients with rheumatic fever).
Pediatrics
Infection
Erythema annular cetrifugam
Piezoelectric handpiece
null
Dental
null
v All of the above
Thornwaldt's abscess treatment does not include
Treatment includes- Antibiotics to treat infection Marsupialization of cystic swelling Adequate removal of its lining membrane Ref: Textbook of ENT, Dhingra; 6th edition; Pg no: 245 ref img
ENT
Miscellaneous ENT
Antihistaminics
Which of the following is true about multiple sclerosis except -
null
Medicine
null
Nystagmus on adducting eye
A 2 month old child has a respiratory rate of 45/ minute. He is not accepting feeds from last 4 days and shows sign of dehydration. Which type of pneumonia is this: March 2013 (c)
Ans. C i.e. Severe pneumonia In children below 2 months of age, presence of any of the following indicates severe disease: Fever (38 degree C or more) Convulsions Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake Not feeding Tachypnea Altered sensorium etc.
Pediatrics
null
Severe pneumonia
Fall in alkalinity of Ca(OH)2 wheh used as a root canal dressing starts at
null
Dental
null
1 week
Most common inherited childhood tumor is:
Retinoblastoma is a neuroectodermal malignancy arising from embryonic retinal cells. It is the most common intraocular tumor in pediatric patients and causes 5% of cases of childhood blindness. Retinoblastoma is the prototype of hereditary cancers due to a mutation in the retinoblastoma gene (RB1), which is located on the long arm of chromosome 13 (13q14). Approximately 40% of retinoblastoma are inherited. Ref: Graham D.K., Quinones R.R., Keating A.K., Maloney K., Foreman N.K., Giller R.H., Greffe B.S. (2012). Chapter 31. Neoplastic Disease. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
Pediatrics
null
Retinoblastoma
In Burkitts lymphoma, translocation seen is chromosome
Answer is B (8 - 14 translocation) Presence oft (8; 14) or one of its variants t (2; 8) or t (8; 22) can be confirmatory - Harrison 16th/ 652. Impoant translocation to be remembered
Medicine
null
8 - 14 translocation
False statement about cleft palate repair is: March 2011
Ans. C: Repaired immediately after bih Timing of primary cleft palate procedures: Soft palate alone: One operation at 6 months Soft and hard palate: 2 operations; Soft palate at 6 months and hard palate at 15-18 months
Surgery
null
Repaired immediately after bih
The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person is given under Section______ of IPC:
Ans. d. 85 (Ref: Reddy 33/e p290-297, 400-401, 411-414 28/e p423-426; Textbook on the Indian Penal Code by Krishna Deo Gaur 4/e p594; the-indian-penal-code-pdf-d74214920)The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person are given under section 85 of IPC.Section 193 in the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for giving false evidence.Section 193 Indian Penal CodeWhoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding, or fabricates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine, and whoever intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in any other case, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.Important Criminal Procedure Codes (CrPC)CrPCDescription39Doctor is duty bound to provide information about enlisted offences to the policeQ53Examination of accused by medical practitioner at request of policeQ53AExamination of accused of rapeQ54Examination of arrested person by medical officer at request of arrested personQ61Format of summonsQ62Summons how servedQ70Form of warrant of arrest and durationQ174Police inquestQ176Magistrates inquestQ238-265Magistrates trialQ293Exception to oral evidenceQ327Open trial-closed room. In camera trial-rape casesQ416Postponement of capital sentence pregnant womanQImportant Indian Evidence Acts (IEA)IEADescription114ADoctrine of adverse inferenceQ (presume absence of consent)137Recording of evidenceQ139Cross-examination of a person called to produce a documentQ141Leading questionsQ152Question intending to insult or annoyQ159Refreshing memoryQ162Production of documentsQ SectionDeals with44 IPCDefinition of injury (any harm caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property)53 IPCAn accused can be examined by a medical practitioner at the request of police, even without his consent and by use of forceQ84 IPCInsanity & criminal responsibilityQ85 IPCCriminal responsibility of a person incapable of judgment by reasons intoxication caused against his will191 IPCDefines perjury or hostile witnessQ193 IPCPunishment for perjuryQ197 IPCPunishment for doctors for submitting false medical certificates202 IPCIntentional omission to give information of offence by person bound to inform228A IPCDisclosure of identity of victim of certain offences under section 376 (rape) Q269 IPCNegligent act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to lifeSectionDeals with270 IPCMalignant act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to life299 IPCCulpable homicideQ300 IPCDefinition of murderQ302 IPCPunishment for murderQ304A IPCCausing death by negligence, punishment up to 2 years (medical negligence)304B IPCDowry deathQ, punishment 7 years to life imprisonment306 IPCAbetment of suicideQ307 IPCAttempt to murderQ306 IPCAbetment to commit culpable homicideQ312 IPCCausing illegal miscarriage with woman's consentQ313 IPCCausing illegal miscarriage without woman's consentQ314 IPCDeath of mother caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriageQ315 IPCAct done with intent to prevent child being born alive or to cause it to die after birthQ316 IPCCausing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicideQ317 IPCExposure & abandonment of child under 12 years318 IPCConcealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body319 IPCDefinition of Hurt (whoever causes bodily pain, disease, or infirmity to any person is said to cause hurt)320 IPCGrevious hurtQ definition321 IPCVoluntarily causing hurtQ322 IPCVoluntarily causing Grevious hurtQ323 IPCPunishment for voluntarily causing hurt324 IPCVoluntarily causing hurt by dangerous weapons or means325 IPCPunishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt326 IPCVoluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means330 IPCVoluntarily causing hurt to extort confession or to compel restoration of property331 IPCVoluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort confession or to compel restoration of property351 IPCDeals with assaultQ354 IPCAssault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty375 IPCDefines rapeQ376 IPCPunishment of rapeQ377 IPCUnnatural sexual offencesQ497 IPCAdultery
Forensic Medicine
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
85
All are true regarding menstrual regulation except:
Ans. is c i.e. Done upto 12 weeks Menstrual regulation - consists of aspiration of contents of uterine cavity by means of plastic cannula (Karman's cannula) and a plastic 50 cc syringe. It is carried out effectively within 14 days of beginning of LMP. A paracervical block or pre-operative sedative alone suffices but sometimes in apprehensive patient GA is required. Blood loss is less. It is included in methods of performing MTP. Friends-- there are 2 different methods -- menstrual regulation and manual vaccum aspiration. Both of them are based on same principle i.e. creating a vaccum which helps in extracting out the products of conception. But menstrual regulation is done within 2 weeks whereas, manual vaccum aspiration is a safe method uptil 12 wks.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Done upto 12 weeks
Which of the following is true about Constitutional Delay in growth?
Constitutional growth delay is a physiological variant of sho stature. Here children grow normally upto 6-12 months of life. Thereafter, there is deceleration such that the height and weight fall below the 3rd centile. By 3 yrs of age,normal height velocity is resumed and continues to grow below and parallel to the 3rd centile. Here pubey is delayed; And the bone age is consistent with the child&;s height age, but lower than the chronological age by 2-3 yrs , unlike in the familial sho stature. Hence IGF-1 produced is low for the chronological age but consistent with the bone age that corresponds to the height age. Ref. OP.Ghai ,9th edition, chapter 2
Pediatrics
Growth and development
IGF-1 levels are low for chronological age
A 32-year-old male with a painless lymph node in the cervical region. Lymph node biopsy showed normal thyroid gland features. The thyroid is normal on palpation clinically. The diagnosis is
Thyroid tissue present in cervical lymph nodes in the face of a clinically normal thyroid gland is a metastasis from an occult primary thyroid carcinoma Occasionally, a metastatic papillary thyroid cancer manifests as a painless lateral neck mass that is clinically detected before detecting the primary thyroid lesion. Comment: Normal thyroid tissue is a trap by the examiner, remember in young people papillary thyroid cancer mostly is well differentiated. Well, differentiated cells look like normal cells and tend to grow .and spread more slowly than poorly differentiated cells (anaplastic carcinoma).
Surgery
null
Papillary carcinoma thyroid
The 27-year-old male triathlon competitor complained that he frequently experienced deep pains in one calf that almost caused him to drop out of a regional track-and-field event. Doppler ultrasound studies indicated, and surgical exposure confirmed, the existence of an accessory portion of the medial head of the gastrocnemius that was constricting the popliteal artery. Above the medial head of the gastrocnemius, the superior medial border of the popliteal fossa could be seen. Which of the following structures forms this border?
The tendons of the semitendinosus and semimembranosus provide the superior medial border of the popliteal fossa. The semitendinosus inserts with the pes anserinus on the proximal, medial tibia. The semimembranosus inserts on the tibia posteriorly. The biceps femoris forms the superior lateral border of the fossa, as the tendon passes to insertion on the fibula. The plantaris arises from the femur just above the lateral head of the gastrocnemius, passing distally to insert on the calcaneus via the tendo Achilles. The popliteus arises from the tibia and passes superiorly and laterally to insert on the lateral condyle of the femur, with a connection to the lateral meniscus.
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
Tendons of semitendinosus and semimembranosus
All of the following are layers of the scalp except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Dura o A mnemonic for the layers of the scalp is:# SCALPo This is particularly helpful when considering the location of a scalp haematoma.# S: skin# C: connective tissue# A: (galea) aponeurosis# L: loose connective tissue# P: periosteumo A retractor is applied between the galea aponeurotica and the loose connective tissue during surgery as the first three layers are tightly bound to each other.
Surgery
Miscellaneous
Dura
The number of major hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland is
Six major hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland are Prolactin (PRL), Growth hormone (GH), Adrenocoicotropin hormone (ACTH), Luteinizing hormone (LH), Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) & Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).Reference: Harrison 19th edition 401e-1
Medicine
Endocrinology
6
Glaucomflecken are seen in:
Angle-closure glaucoma can have the appearance of glaucomflecken. Glaucomflecken are small anterior subcapsular opacities secondary to lens epithelial necrosis resulting from acute angle-closure glaucoma. - Signs of Angle closure glaucoma :Stony hard eye, steamy cornea, Veically oval mid-dilated non reacting pupil - Symptoms: Severe pain, coloured halos, sudden drop in vision. Symptoms occurs in late night - Nd-Yag Laser iridotomy is done for management of Angle closure glaucoma
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
Angle closure glaucoma
Frontal lobe function
The frontal lobe plays a large role in voluntary movement. It houses the primary motor coex. The function of the frontal lobe involves the ability to project future consequences resulting from current actions, the choice between good and bad actions (or better and best) (also known as conscience), the override and suppression of socially unacceptable responses, and the determination of similarities and differences between things or events. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:841,842,843
Physiology
Nervous system
Personality
Enterobacteriaceae are A/E - rpt
rpt question
Microbiology
Bacteriology
Pseudomonas
Movements taking place during abduction of shoulder joint are all except?
Medial rotation of scapula. Abduction of the ann involves rotation of the scapula as well as movement at the shoulder joint. For every 3deg abduction, a 2 deg abduction occurs in the shoulder joint & 1 deg abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula Also know: Abduction is initiated by the supraspinatus but the deltoid muscle is the main abductor.
Anatomy
null
Medial rotation of scapula
Tentative cuts are seen in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Suicidal attempt * Hesitation cuts (Tentative cuts or trial cuts) are characteristic features of suicidal attempt.
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
Suicidal attempt
Nucleus ambiguos is related to all cranial nerve except
Cells in nucleus ambiguous contain motor neurons associated with three cranial nerves : (rostral pole-glossopharyngeal; middle pa-vagus; caudal pole-spine accessory). Axons arising from nucleus ambiguous pass laterally and slightly ventrally to exit the medulla just dorsal to the inferior olive. Facial nerve nuclei are located in the pons. (Ref: vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 94)
Anatomy
Brain
VIII
Chandler Index is 225. What is the interpretation?
Chandler Index This is the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for the entire community (Average number of eggs per gram of stools). (Ref. Park PSM 18thed.195)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health care of community & international health
Potential danger to community
According to cephalo caudal gradient of growth axis of growth:
Axis of growth increases from Head towards Feet 3rd month IU = Head 50% of Body length Birth : Head 30% of body length Adult = Head 12% of that of body length.
Dental
null
Increases from head towards feet.
To differentiate restrictive cardiomypathy and constrictive pericarditis, features favouring constrictive pericarditis are -a) Diastolic pressures are equalisedb) There is mild pericardial effusionc) Thick pericardium is presentd) RV size in increased
null
Medicine
null
ad
Capsule of pneumococcus is:
Polysaccharide
Microbiology
null
Polysaccharide
Vectors for Plague transmission
The commonest and the most efficient vector of plague is the rat flea , X. cheopis, but other fleas may also transmit the infection, e.g., X. astia, X. brasiliensis and Pulex irritans(human flea). Both sexes of the flea bite and transmit the disease. Ref: Pg No:320;park Textbook ,25th Edition
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
All of the above
Drug of choice for cheese reaction is
Phentolamine is the drug of choice in CHEESE REACTION It is a rapidly acting alpha blocker with sho duration of action (in minutes). It is non selective alpha blocker therefore blocks both alpha 1 and 2 Non Selective a Blockers Selective a1 Blockers Irreversible - Phenoxybenzamine - Used for pheochromocytoma Reversible - Phentolamine, Tolazoline,ergotamine - DOC for cheese reaction and clonidine withdrawal Prazosin Terazosin Doxazosin Alfuzosin - These drugs are used for BHP and HTN. - Also used for scorpion sting
Pharmacology
Sympathetic System
Phentolamine
Referred pain in external haemorrhoids is due to -
Pain sensation below the pectinate line is carried by inferior rectal nerve, a branch of pudendal nerve.
Anatomy
null
Inferior rectal nerve
Which testicular tumor produces feminizing symptoms?
Interstitial cell tumours arise from Leydig or Seoli cells. A Leydig cell tumour masculinises; a Seoli cell tumour feminises.Seoli cell tumours typically present as a testicular mass or firmness, and their presence may be accompanied by gynaecomastia (25%)Bailey and Love 26e pg: 1386
Surgery
Urology
Seoli cell tumour
Inquest is conducted by magistrate in case of -
null
Forensic Medicine
null
Police firing
A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis?
Wolman disease is caused by mutations in the lysosomal acid lipase (LIPA) gene and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Wolman disease is the most severe expression of LAL deficiency; a milder form of LAL deficiency is known as cholesteryl ester storage disease (CESD).
Pediatrics
null
Wolman's disease
In exhausted child with severe bronchiolitis, for every 10 mm Hg increase in PCO2, how many milliEq of bicarbonate will increase:-
Bronchiolitis is most common type of acute lower respiratory tract infections in children and young infants. Most common causative agent is respiratory syncytial virus. It's mostly seen in age group 6months to 3years C/F hyperinflated chest, respiratory distress of varying degree, hypoxia. Rx is mainly suppoive as no role of antibiotics as it's a viral infection. When pco2 is increased results is respiratory acidosis. In order to compensate that body tries to save more bicarbonate. Compensation in primary respiratory disorders For every 10 mm increase in pco2: DISORDER RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS Acute HCO3 increases by 1 HCO3 decreases by 2 Chronic HCO3 increased by 3.5 HCO3 decreases by 4 Compensation in metabolic disorders DISORDER EXPECTED COMPENSATION Metabolic acidosis PCO2 = 1.5 * (HCO3) + 8 +/-2 Metabolic alkalosis pco2 increases by 7 for each 10 mEq/L increases in H From the above picture we see that for every acute process hco3 increases by 1 in respiratory acidosis
Pediatrics
JIPMER 2018
1
A Gridiron incision becomes a Rutherford Morison's incision is extended by -
null
Surgery
null
Cutting the muscles laterally
Ionising radiation acts on tissue depending upon:
Ans. Excitation of electron from orbit
Radiology
null
Excitation of electron from orbit
The most malignant form of malignant melanoma is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Nodular Schwaz 9/e p415 writes that- "In general, there is no significant difference between different histologic tumor types in terms of prognosis, when matched for tumor thickness, gender, age, or other. Nodular melanomas have the same prognosis as superficial spreading types when lesions are matched for depth of invasion. Lentigo maligna types, however, have a better prognosis even after correcting for thickness, and acral lentiginous lesions have a worse prognosis."
Surgery
null
Nodular
Pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt pathway) produces -
HMP shunt pathway gives NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate.
Biochemistry
null
NADPH
Which of the following methods can be used to detect rubella infection in children -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgM antibody in fetal blood Laboratory diagnosis o Isolation of virus in cell cultures of throat samples, urine or other secretions. o Normally, maternal rubella antibodies in the form of IgG is transferred to infants and is gradually last over a period of 6 months. Persistent beyond 1 year in an unvaccinated child suggests the diagnosis of congenital rubella. o Presence of Ig M antibodies is diagnostic. o PCR for rubella RNA.
Pediatrics
null
IgM antibody in fetal blood
The primary function of access openings is to
null
Dental
null
Provide straight line access to the apex
The most important cause of the death in septic shock is:
Ans. (d) CardiacRef: Sabiston 85/19th Edition* Most common cause of death in septic shock - Hypotension* Hypotension is due to decreased cardiac output leading to hypotension
Surgery
Shock
Cardiac
A 26 years old female suffers from PPH on her second postnatal day. Her APTT is prolonged while bleeding time and prothrombin time and platelet count are normal. Likely diagnosis is:
This is a case of acquired hemophilia A. Approximately 50 percent of acquired hemophilia A patients have an underlying condition, such as an autoimmune disorder (e.g., rheumatoid ahritis or systemic lupus erythematosus), malignancy, pregnancy, or a history consistent with a drug reaction. Patients with acquired hemophilia A have a prolonged aPTT caused by decreased or absent factor VIII activity in the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. The diagnosis of acquired hemophilia A is made by the demonstration of a solitary prolonged activated paial thromboplastin time (aPTT) that fails to correct on mixing with equal volumes of normal plasma (50:50 mix). The prothrombin time (PT), thrombin time (TT), and fibrinogen activity are all normal. Specific factor assays then are performed to determine whether a specific coagulation factor inhibitor or a lupus anticoagulant is present. Ref: Lollar P. (2010). Chapter 128. Antibody-Mediated Coagulation Factor Deficiencies. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Acquired haemophilia A
Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all, except:
Chalky white optic disc is not seen in traumatic injury of the optic nerve. Ref: Practical Approach to Ophthalmoscopic Retinal Diagnosis By A. K. Gupta, Shahana Mazumdar, Saurabh Choudhry, M.D, Page 68 ; Clinical Ophthalmology By Kanski, 4th Edition, Pages 588-9
Ophthalmology
null
Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Nocardia is differentiated from Actinomyces by:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ziehl Neelsen stainRef: (Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 393; 9th/e, p. 394; Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1324; Jawetz, 24th/e, p. 182)Nocardia - Partially acid fast, obligate aerobe, habitat is soil and infections occur exogenously.Actinomyces - Nonacid fast, facultative anaerobe, habitat is oral flora so infections occur endogenously.
Microbiology
Bacteria
ZN stain
Patient presents with Hb-5 g%, TLC-9000/cc,DLC- Neutrophils-3%, Lymphoblasts-75% and fever for 1 mth. Drug used is -
Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic used to treat a number of bacterial infections.This includes bone and joint infections, intra abdominal infections, ceain type of infectious diarrhea, respiratory tract infections, skin infections, typhoid fever, and urinary tract infections, among others.For some infections it is used in addition to other antibiotics. It can be taken by mouth, as eye drops, as ear drops, or intravenously Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 580
Medicine
Oncology
iv Ciprofloxacin
Outer layer of the pars tensa called the cutaneous layer is lined by which of the following type of epithelium?
Pars tensa of the tympanic membrane is a funnel shaped area that stretches between the malleus handle and bony ear canal. It is composed of 3 layers, outer cutaneous layer, middle lamina propria and the inner mucosal layer. The cutaneous layer is lined by smooth stratified squamous epithelium. Inner mucosal layer consist of a single layer of squamous epithelium.
ENT
null
Stratified squamous epithelium
Floaters are seen in following except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Acute congestive glaucoma {Ref: Clinical ophthalmology 5th/e p. 139]Floaterso A floater is something in the fluids of the eye that casts a shadow on the retina and looks like a dark spot or spots floating around in the field of vision. Floaters are usually described by patients, as small, semitranslucent particles of varying shapes moving across the visual field with the movement of the eye. Floater can only be seen with the eyes open and in a lighted environment. Floaters are usually grey or black, since they are actually shadow on the retina.o Causes of floaters arei) Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)ii) Retinal detachmentiii) High myopiaiv) Bleeding (vitreous hemorrhage)v) Inflammation of eye (uveitis)
Ophthalmology
Vitreous Haemorrhage Vitrectomy
Acute congestive glaucoma
What is common between systemic and pulmonary circulation is
null
Physiology
null
Volume of the circulation per minute
A person on fasting for 7 days, the source of energy is: NIMS 11
Ans. Acetone
Forensic Medicine
null
Acetone
A woman with a history of repeated aboions gave bih to a low bih weight baby. The child is having rashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probable diagnosis is September 2009
Ans. B: Congenital Syphilis Symptoms in newborns with congenital syphilis may include: Failure to gain weight or failure to thrive Fever Irritability No bridge to nose (saddle nose) Early rash -- small blisters on the palms and soles Later rash -- copper-colored, flat or bumpy rash on the face, palms, and soles Rash of the mouth, genitalia, and anus Watery discharge from the nose Congenital rubella predominantly include cochlear (sensori-neural deafness), cardiac (septal defects, PDA), hematologic, ophthalmic (cataracts, retinopathy) and chromosomal abnormalities.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Congenital syphilis
Ambulatory patients after a Disaster are categorized into ____ colour of Triage:
Triage - Disaster categorization of victims 1. Red - Immediate Resuscitation 2. Yellow - possible resuscitation 3. Green - Minor injuries (Ambulatory) 4. Black - Dead/ moribund patient
Social & Preventive Medicine
Disaster Management
Green
All of the following shows positive myoclonus except?
Negative myoclonus: Metabolic cause which contributes to development of myoclonus. E.g. Metabolic encephalopathies Variant CJD- stale / reflex myoclonus variant (loud noise causes a myoclonus) Janz syndrome- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy Hypnogogic jerks: Falling to sleep and sudden jerky movement e.g. while going off to sleep
Medicine
Epilepsy and EEG
Hepatic encephalopathy
Which of the following transmits mandibular nerve?
Key concept: The foramen ovale transmits the mandibular nerve, the lesser petrosal nerve, the accessory meningeal  artery, an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins, and  occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.
Anatomy
null
Foramen ovale
Which is true about measurement of BP with sphygmomanometer versus intra-aerial pressure measurements?
The reason for this is - "dissipation of pressure". When BP is measured by sphygmomanometry, the principle is 'balancing of pressure between the cuff and the brachial aery'. Suppose the pressure in the aery is, say, 100 mm Hg. When the pressure just outside the aery is 100 mm Hg, the aery will be occluded completely, or when the pressure outside the aery becomes just less than 100, the aery will open up and the flow will sta in the aery. However, for pressure just outside the aery to be 100, pressure in the cuff has to be about 106 mm Hg; about 6 mm Hg is dissipated in the intervening tissue (muscle, fat) between the cuff and the aery. Thus, if we are looking for a point at which the aery is just occluded (with aerial pressure being 100), the cuff pressure at which it happens is about 106 mm Hg Hence, by sphygmomanometry, the pressure measured is higher as compared to direct intravascular pressure measurement.
Physiology
Circulation
More than intravascular pressure
A 28-year-old woman with diabetes presents with lesions on her leg. They are not painful, and have a central depression and raised irregular margin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(b) Source: (Kasper, p. 2169)This lesion is more frequent in females and may antedate other clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes. The plaques are round, firm, and reddish-brown to yellow in color. They most commonly involve the legs but can also involve the hands, arms, abdomen, and head.
Medicine
Endocrinology
necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Stratified cuboidal epithelium seen in
Stratified cuboidal epithelium is seen in large ducts of exocrine glands like sweat glands ,pancreas and salivary glands The ovarian surface epithelium, also called the germinal epithelium of Waldeyer, is a layer of simple squamous-to-cuboidal epithelial cells covering the ovary. The upper cervix (endocervix) is lined by a simple columnar epithelium that contains mucous-secreting cells. In contrast, the lower cervix (ectocervix) is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium. The transition point between these two epithelia is known as the external os. Larynx is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium except vocal cords (lined by stratified squamous epithelium). Inderbir Singh's textbook of Human Histology Seventh edition Pg no;48
Anatomy
General anatomy
Sweat glands ducts
A 3-year-old child presented with fatigue, malaise, fever, sore throat, headache, nausea, abdominal pain and myalgia. O/E Generalized lymphadenopathy Hepatosplenomegaly Tonsillar enlargement Palatal petechiae Rashes and edema of the eyelids. the above condition can't occur in which of the following: -
This is a case of Infectious mononucleosis. So, there are no B-cells in X-linked agammaglobulinemia to be affected. In rest all the 3 conditions, B-cells are normal. Di-George and Wiskott-aldrich syndrome are T-cell deficiencies. 1st image shows tonsillitis with membrane formation Peripheral blood film shows atypical lymphocytes or Downey cells are lymphocytes that become large as a result of antigen stimulation. B cells are the main reservoir of infection. An EBV envelope glycoprotein binds CD21 (CR2), the receptor for the C3d component of complement, which is present on B cells.
Unknown
Integrated QBank
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Vectors may transmit infection by all of the following methods, EXCEPT:
Methods by which vectors transmit an infectious agents are: Biting Regurgitation Scratching in infected faeces Contamination of host by body fluids of vectors Ref: Preventive and Social Medicine, by K.Park, 19th edition, Page 92.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Ingestion
A 15-year-old boy presented with fever and chills for the last 3 days. A peripheral blood smear revealed the following. Which of the following is the most probable causative agent?
The given clinical scenario and the peripheral smear showing the Maurer&;s dots are suggestive of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum. Features of Plasmodium falciparum on peripheral smear are Maurer's dots, ring form, accole form, and banana-shaped gametocytes. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition
Microbiology
miscellaneous
Plasmodium falciparum
Thyrotoxicosis can be differentiated from anxiety neurosis clinically by
Pulse rate in thyrotoxicosis Ref image - reasearchgate.net
Medicine
Endocrinology
Sleeping pulse rate
Halstaed's mastectomy is
Ans. (c) Radical Mastectomy(Ref Internet Sources)Halstaed Radical mastectomy is historical.* It involves removal of Entire breast, Nipple and areola with tumor* Also removes all level 1,2,3 nodes* Muscles like Pectoralis major, Serratus Anterior are also removed.* It's a very high morbid procedure and hence not done now a days after the wide usage of chemotherapy and radiotherapy.* Now we commonly do MRM- in which Pectoralis major muscle is preserved.
Surgery
Breast
Radical mastectomy
Renal calculi are commonly made up of
There are four main types of kidney stones Calcium stones are the most common type of kidney stones. They are usually made of calcium and oxalate (a natural chemical found in most foods), but are sometimesmade of calcium and phosphate. Uric acid stones form when your urine is often too acidic. Refer robbins 9/e p951
Pathology
Urinary tract
Calcium oxalate
Regarding color vision, which of the following is TRUE?
The color opponent process is a color theory that states that the human visual system interprets information about color by processing signals from cones and rods in an antagonistic manner. The opponent-process theory states that the cone photoreceptors are linked together to form three opposing color pairs: blue/yellow, red/green, and black/white. The Young-Helmholtz theory postulates that the retina contains three types of cones, each with a different photopigment maximally sensitive to one of the primary colors (red, blue, and green). The sensation of any given color is determined by the relative frequency of impulses from each type of cone. Parvocellular ganglion cells receive color-specific signals from the three types of cones and relay them to the brain the optic nerve. Ref: Waxman S.G. (2010). Chapter 15. The Visual System. In S.G. Waxman (Ed),Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26e.
Physiology
null
Involves opponent color cells
A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is
Because the exposure site is likely significantly contaminated from the injury that occurred 24 hours previously, direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide is contraindicated. A calcium hydroxide pulpectomy should not be the automatic procedure accomplished because continued root elongation and closure of the pulp canal will likely not occur. A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy is preferable for a traumatized tooth with an open apex with either a large exposure or a small exposure of several hours or days postinjury. Clinically, the tooth should be anesthetized and, under sterile conditions, and the clinician should open the pulp chamber in search of healthy pulp tissue. It is likely that vital tissue will be present within 24 hours of the injury.
Dental
null
Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
Battle's sign is:TN 11
Ans. Mastoid ecchymosis
Forensic Medicine
null
Mastoid ecchymosis
Most commonly involved bone in Paget's disease?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pelvis The pelvis and tibia being the commonest sites, and femur, skull, spine (veebrae) and clavicle the next commonest.
Surgery
null
Pelvis
Fox Fordyce's disease is a disease of ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Apocrine sweat glands See explanation- I of session- 9 of Skin of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book.
Skin
null
Apocrine sweat glands
The scalp A. Is attached by occipitalis muscle to the skull B. Is attached by the frontalis muscle to the skull C. Receives sensory innervation from the dorsal rami of first 3 cervical nerves D. Is supplied, in part, by the ophthalmic artery E. Drains directly to the subcutaneous lymph nodes at the base of the skull
Frontalis is attached to orbicularis oculi and not to bone.
Anatomy
null
A = True, B = False, C = True, D = True, E = True
Generalised anxiety disorder is characterized by
GAD is characterized by free floating anxiety and negative apprehension about day today tril life events. Anxiety about specific situations are more likely to be seen in phobia. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 407
Psychiatry
All India exam
Anxiety about specific situations
Raw material used in nylon suture is:-
Raw material used in nylon suture is Polyamide polymer. Suture Types Raw material Tensile strength Absorption rate Silk Braided or twisted multifilament; Coated (with wax or silicone) or uncoated Natural proteinRaw silk from silkworm Loses 20% when wet; 80-100% lostby 6 months Fibrous encapsulation in body at 2-3 weeks ; Absorbed slowly over 1-2 yearQ Catgut Plain Collagen derived from healthy sheep or cattle Lost within 7-10 days Phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation within 7-10 daysQ Catgut Chromic Tanned with chromium salts to improve handling and resist degradation in tissueQ Lost within 21-28 days Phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation within 90 days Polyglactin (Vicryl) Braided multifilament Copolymer of lactide & glycolideQ in a ratio of 90:10, coated with polyglactin & calcium stearate Approx, 60% remains at 2 weeks; 30% remains at 3 weeks Hydrolysis minimal until 5-6 weeks; Complete absorption 60-90 daysQ Polyglyconate Monofilament Dyed or undyed Copolymer of glycolic acid and trimethylene carbonateQ Approx, 70% remains at 2 weeks; 55% remains at 3 weeks Hydrolysis minimal until 8-9 weeks; Complete absorption 180 daysQ Polyglycaprone (Monocryl) Monofilament Coplymer of glycolide & caprolactoneQ 21 days maximum 90-120 daysQ Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) Braided multifilament Dyed or undyed Coated or Uncoated Polymer of polyglycolic acidQ Approx, 40% remains at 1 week; 20% remains at 3 weeks HydrolysisQ minimal at 2 weeks; significant at 4 weeks; Complete absorption 60-90 daysQ Polydioxanone (PDS) Monofilament dyed or undyed Polyester polymerQ Approx, 70% remains at 2 weeks; 50% remains at 4 weeks; 14% remains at 8 weeks Hydrolysis minimal at 90 days; Complete absorption 180 daysQ Nylon Monofilament or braided multifilament Dyed or undyed Polyamide polymer Loses 15-20% per year Degrades at approximately 15-20% per year Polypropylene Monofilament. Dyed or undyed Polymer of propylene Infinite (>1 year) Non-absorbable: remains encapsulated in body tissues
Surgery
Sutures and Anastomoses
Polyamide polymer
Characteristic radiological finding in sarcoidosis-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy "The characteristic radiologicalfinding in patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy ".
Radiology
Nervous System
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Which of the following does not causes pneumonia?
ANSWER: (A) MumpsREF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 1795"Pneumonia is known complication of measles"Viruses commonly causing pneumonia in childrenRSVInfluenzaAdenovirusRhinovirusPara influenza virus
Pediatrics
Viral Infections
Mumps
False + ve VDRL, is seen in all except -
null
Microbiology
null
Pregnancy
True about tumour lysis syndrome is ME -
null
Medicine
null
Hypercalcemia
An infant presents with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is:
B i.e. Lamellar cataract
Ophthalmology
null
Lamellar cataract
Agents recommended in treatment of aortic dissection are all except
Diazoxide is vasodilator ,which can aggravate dissection, so containdicated in aortic dissection.
Medicine
null
Diazoxide
Magnesium sulphate toxicity include all EXCEPT
MgSo4 acts by inhibition of neuromuscular transmission. NOTE: we monitor urine output while patient is on MgSO4, not because it is a sign of MgSO4 toxicity, but because oliguria is secondary to PIH (glomerular endotheliosis) and decreased urine output would decrease MgSO4 clearance and increase risk of toxicity. Serum Mg2+ levels(meq/l) Clinical effects 4-7 Normal therapeutic level 8 - 10 Patellar reflex disappear 10-15 Respiratory depression 12-15 Respiratory paralysis 25 - 30 Cardiac arrest
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pregnancy induced Hypeension
Oliguria
A 25 year-old-male presents with sudden painless loss of vision. The ocular and systemic examination is normal. What is probable diagnosis?
Optic neuritis is an inflammatory, demyelinating condition that causes acute, usually monocular, visual loss. Most cases of acute demyelinating optic neuritis occur in women (two-thirds) and typically develop in patients between the ages of 20 and 40.
Ophthalmology
All India exam
Optic neuritis
The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves
Acetyl CoA carboxylase  Production of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA is the initial and rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis. The reaction is catalyzed by acetyl-CoA carboxylase.
Biochemistry
null
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Deep transverse arrest occurs in ...... pelvis :
Android
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Android
What is the wavelength of UV rays used in Woods lamp?
Ans. A. 360nMA Wood's lamp generates 360-nm ultraviolet (or "black") light produced by a mercury vapor source passed through a nickel oxide filter that can be used to aid the evaluation of certain skin disorders.
Skin
General
360 nM
A 7-year-old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true?
Grade 3 proteinuria, and the presence of hyaline and fatty cast in urine suggest the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in a child is minimal change disease ( not IgA nephropathy or Alport syndrome) In minimal change disease there is no deposition of immune reactants (immunoglobulin or complement), and serum complement levels are normal.
Pathology
null
No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on renal biopsy
A 8.5-year-old child with missing 11 reported to your clinic. 21 erupted at 6.5 years of age. The child had trauma to 21, 4 months back and got it endodontically treated for that. What is your further treatment about missing teeth?
In question patient is of 8.5 years of age with missing right maxillary central incisor and has his Maxillary left Central Incisor Erupted on Schedule. Now non-eruption of a tooth beyond normal possible age of eruption while the contralateral tooth is being erupted on usual time can be due to its presence in impacted state or it can be congenitally missing. To rule out of these conditions radiographic examination is essential If tooth is impacted due to presence of any supernumerary tooth or due to any other region or tooth is congenitally missing we can plan further treatment with that situation.
Dental
null
Take radiograph and rule out a supernumerary tooth
Cat acts as a reservoir in which of the following?
“Toxoplasma gondii is a coccidian protozoa of worldwide distribution that infects a wide range of animals and birds but does not appear to cause disease in them. The normal final hosts are strictly the cat and its relatives in the family Felidae, the only hosts in which the oocyst-producing sexual stage of Toxoplasma can develop”
Microbiology
null
Toxoplasma gondii
`Coronory steal phenomenon' is caused by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dipyridamole o There are two types of vessels in coronary circulaton ? 1. Larger conducting aeries which run epicardially and send perforating branches. 2. Smaller resistance aerioles - These are perforating branches of conducting aeries. These aerioles supply blood to endocardium. o During ischemia, adenosine (a local mediator) causes dilatation of resistance aerioles in ischemic area only, tone of resistance vessels of nonischemic area does not change --> increased flow to ischemic area. o Dipyridamole is a powerful coronary dilator; increases total coronary flow by preventing uptake and degradation of adenosine. o It dilates resistance vessels in nonischemic zone as well ----> Dives the already reduced blood flow away from ischemic zone - Coronary steal phenomenon. o It has no effect on larger conducting vessels (contrast nitrates which dilate larger conducting vessels and cause redistribution of blood towards ischemic zone). o Dipyridamole inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP (by inhibiting phosphodiesterase) which potentiates PGI, and interferes with aggregation. o It is not useful as an antianginal drug (due to coronary steal phenomenon), but can be used for prophylaxis of coronary and cerebral thrombosis in post MI and post stroke patients as well as to prevent thrombosis in patients with prosthetic hea valve.
Pharmacology
null
Dipyridamole
Rupak, a 22-year-old, unmarried man is suffering from sudden onset of third person hallucination for the past 12 days. He is suspicious of his relatives and close friends and is having reduced appetite and improper sleep. He is probably suffering from: September 2010
Ans. D: Schizophrenia Psychosis means abnormal condition of the mind, and is a generic psychiatric term for a mental state often described as involving a "loss of contact with reality". Psychosis is given to the more severe forms of psychiatric disorder, during which hallucinations and delusions and impaired insight may occur.
Psychiatry
null
Schizophrenia