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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Abortion stick used in criminal abortion causes abortion by the mechanism of and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Uterine contraction Abortion stick is a thin wooden or bamboo stick about 15 to 20 cm long, or a twig of similar length from some irritant plant as mentioned below.When the stick is used it is equipped at one end with cotton wool or a piece of cloth soaked in an irritant substance as mentioned below.The abortion stick or the twig is introduced in the os of the uterus and retained there till uterine contractions begin.Irritant substances used to soak the abortion stickmarking nut juicecalotropis (madar)jequirityasafoetidapaste made from white arsenic, red lead etc.Irritant plants twig used for abortionmadar (Calotropis)chitra (Plumbago zeylandica)lal chitra (Plumbago rosea)kaner (Nerium odorum) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth is produced by and explain in detail? | CMB also called Robesons cooked meat -contains nutrient broth and cooked meat of ox hea Saccharolytic reaction positive for cl.perfringes Proteolytic reaction positive for cl.tetani Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:51 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most unlikely cause of acute tubular necrosis amongst the following is : and explain in detail? | Answer is D (Rupture of Aoic Aneurysm): Rupture of Aoic Aneurysm is the most unlikely cause of ATN amongst the following. It would rather result in instant death. Causes of Acute Tubular Necrosis Ischemic HvpovolemiuQ Low cardiac outputQ Renal vascular occlusionQ Renal vasoconstriction, DIC, Thrombotic microangiopathy (HUS, TTP, Malignant Hypeension, Vasculitis) Toxins Endogenous Toxins Rhabdomvolv.sis or Crush Syndrome (myoglobins)Q Hemolysis (hemoglobins)Q Uric acid, OxalateQ Plasma cell dyscrasias (Paraproteinemias e.g. myeloma)Q Massive burnsQ Exogenous Toxins Rudiocontrast agents Q CyclasporineQ Antibiotics (e.g. Aminoglycosides, Amphoterein B)Q Chemotherapy (eg. Cisplatin)Q Organic Solvents (e.g. Ethylene Glvcol)Q ParacetamolQ Illegal Aboifacients |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Minimum visual acuity below which a person is called Blind and explain in detail? | According to WHO, minimum visual acuity below which a person is called Blind is 3/60. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following statements about diabetic nephropathy is true: and explain in detail? | Answer is C (0-islet cell/pancreatic transplantation can improve the proteinuria in early stage): Pancreatic transplantation (or /3-islet cell transplantation) may improve protein aria in early stages. Pancreatic Trnaplantation may improve diabetic nephropathy (proteinuria) Successful pancreatic transplantation results in normalization of blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin levels. Microalbuminuria is associated with long term cardiovascular morbidity `Both microalbuminuria and macroalbuminuria in individuals with DM are associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease (morbidity)' - Harrison 17th/2287 Strict glycemic control may prevent or reve microalbuminuria `With tight control of hyperglycemia and rigrous control of blood pressure the development of microalbuminuria may be prevented or reveed' - Harrison 13th/1312, Harrison 12th/1185 Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors are more effective than other drugs in slowing progression of diabetic nephropathy. Blood pressure control with any agent is extremely impoant, but a drug specific benefit in diabetic nephropathy, independent of blood pressure control has only been shown for ACE inhibitors or Angiotensin receptor blockers. Protein Restriction is helpful in diabetic nephropathy Protein intake should be restricted in diabetic individuals with microalbuminuria and macroalbuminuria to modest levels. - Harrison 17th/2289 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Immersion syndrome occurs due to ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vagal inhibition Types of drowning Drowning is classified as (1) typical and (2) atypical. 1. Typical drowning (wet drowning) Typical drowning refers to obstruction of air passages and lungs by inhalation of water or other fluid. Therefore it is also called wet drowning and findings offluid and froth are present in PM examination. Typical drowning may be :- Fresh water drowning : In fresh water drowning large quantities of water cross the alveolar membrane into circulation causing hypervolaemia and hemodilution. RBCs imbibe water and burst (hemolysis) with liberation of potossium. Therefore, hea is exposed to volume overload, potassium excess, sodium deficit (hyponatremia), and anoxia. Anoxia and hyperkalemia cause ventricular fibrillation and death in 4-5 minutes. Salt water drowning : Hypeonicity of inhaled water causes loss of fluid from circulation into the lungs giving rise fulminating pulmonary edema with progressive hypovolaemia, circulatary shock, and eventually cardiac standstill (asystole) with death in 8-12 minutes. 2. Atypical drowning It refers to drowning in which even after submersion of body in water, little or no water anters respiratory passages and lungs. Hence typical findings of wet drowning in the form of froth and oedema aquosum of lungs are not found. Atypical drowning may be :- Dry drowning : On contact with water, especially cold water, there results intense laryngospasm, so that water does not enter the lungs. Death is due to asphyxia because of laryngospasm. Immersion syndrome (hydrocution/submersion inhibition/vagal inhibition) : Sudden death occurs due to vagal inhibition as a result of (a) sudden impact with cold water, (b) duck diving (falling in water with feet first), and (c) horizontal entry in water with impact on epigastrium. Submersion of unconscious : If person is unconscious since before submersion in water, little or no water enters respiratory passages. It may occur in MI, cerebrovascular accident, hypeension, epilepsy, cerebral aneurysm and in drunk state. Near drowning (secondary drowning syndrome/post immersion syndrome) : In this drowning is survived and death occurs at a later stage after removal from water. Either the person himself comes out of water or he is recovered alive, but due to complications of submersion, he dies at a later stage. It is due to hypoxic encephalopathy and fibrosing alveolitis. The death occurs due to combined effect of cerebral hypoxia, pulmonary edema, aspiration pneumonitis, electrolyte disturbances and metabolic acidosis. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is MMR Type of vaccine: and explain in detail? | Live attenuated |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Carbamoyl phosphate synthase - 1 acts on - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e, CO2 & ammonia o Explained |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Albinism is due to deficiency of - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tyrosinase o Tyrosinase deficiency results in albinism.Metabolic diseaseEnzyme deficientMaple syrup urine diseaseMethyl-melonic aciduriaSweaty feet odor in bodyTyrosinemia I (Tyrosinosis)Tyrosinemia IINeonatal tyrosinemiaAlbinismBranched chain ketoacid dehydrogenaseMethyl-malonyl CoA mutase (isomerase)Isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenaseFumarylacetoacetate hydroxylaseTyrosine transaminase (Tyrosine aminotransferase)Hydroxyphenyl pyruvate hydroxylaseTyrosinaseAlkaptonuriaPhenylketonuriaOrotic aciduriaHomocystinuriaLesh-Nyhan syndrome CystinosisHomogentisate oxidasePhenylalanine hydroxylaseOMP decarboxylaseCystathionine synthataseComplete deficiency of enzyme HGPRTCystine reductase |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is: and explain in detail? | Dysgerminoma is the most common malignant germ cell malignancy of the ovary, accounting for about 40% of all ovarian cancers of germ cell origin. Ref: Multimodality Therapy in Gynecologic Oncology By BU. Sevin, 1996, Page 137 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following drug shows nephrotoxicity during administration? and explain in detail? | Adverse effects of tacrolimus: Nephrotoxicity Neurotoxicity (e.g., tremor, headache, motor disturbances, seizures) GI complaints Hypeension Hyperkalemia Hyperglycemia Diabetes The major side effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, including leukopenia (common), thrombocytopenia (less common), and/or anemia (uncommon). The principal toxicities of Mycophenolate mofetil are gastrointestinal and hematologic. Leflunomide is hepatotoxic and can cause fetal injury when administered to pregnant women. Ref: Krensky A.M., Bennett W.M., Vincenti F. (2011). Chapter 35. Immunosuppressants, Tolerogens, and Immunostimulants. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In some kidney transplants Hyperacute graft rejection is seen . It is due to and explain in detail? | Ref - Bailey and love 25 e p1410 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A doctor receives commision from a medical representative for prescribing his drugs. This is a serious professional misconduct and is known as? and explain in detail? | Dichotomy or fee-splitting is receiving or giving commission or other benefits to a professional colleague or manufacturer or trader in drugs or a chemist etc. Covering is assisting someone who has no medical qualification to attend, treat or perform an operation on some person in cases requiring professional discretion or skill. Adultery is the voluntary sexual intercouse between a married person, and a person married or not, other than his or her spouse. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th Ed Page 23. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The complication of diabetes which cannot be prevented by strict control of blood sugar is - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Macular edema o The DCCT demonstrated that improvement of glvcemia controly Reduced nonproliferative and proliferative retinopathy (47% reduction).y Microalbuminuria (39% reduction).y Clinical nephropathy (54% reduction).y Neuropathy (60% reduction).y Improved glycemic control also slowed the progression of early diabetic complication.y There vras a nonsignificant trend in reduction of macrovascular events during the trial.o The UKPDS demonstrated that each percentage point reduction in AIC was associated with a 35% reduction in microvascular complications. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Baby '0* positive, blood group, mother Rh negative, cord bilirubin 7 mg%, conjugated I now treatment is? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stop breast tad and prepare for exchange blood transfusion |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is To what extent must the oxygen content be reduced before an explosion of methane and air is impossible? and explain in detail? | For a mixture of strictly methane and air, the oxygen content must be 12 percent or less.
It is however, significant to note that there is a combination of combustible gases following explosions and during fires.
So the maximum allowable oxygen will vary according to variations in the combustible and inert gases. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about vitiligo are all except: and explain in detail? | VITILIGO -Autoimmune disorder -Skin biopsy specimen shows absence of melanocytes. Poor prognostic factors: Leucotrichia Long standing type Lesions over bony prominences Acrofacial -Surgical treatment is indicated if medical treatment fails and disease is stable for >1 year. - Modalities : Skin grafting Non-cultured autologous melanocytic transfer Cultured autologous melanocytic transfer. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A person is very impatient, competitive and works like a perfectionist. He/she can be best described as ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type A personality Type A personality:Impatient, time-conscious, highly competitive, ambitious, hostile, and aggressive.They have difficulty in relaxing and are concerned about their status.Type A individuals are often highly achieving workaholics,who do multitask, drive themselves with deadlines and are unhappy about the smallest of delay.Expressed in three major symptoms : -Time urgency and impatience (Time pressure)Free floating hostilityCompetitiveness |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Induction of treatment in serious fungal infections is mostly done by : and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mastitis in infants - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Treated with antibiotics Infatile mastitiso Mastitis (infection of breast tissue) typically occurs in infants after 2 months of age. During the first 2 weeks of life, it occurs with equal frequency in males and females; thereafter, it is more common in girls, with a female:male ratio of approximately 2:1o This is thought to be related to the longer duration of physiologic breast hypertrophy in female infants. The majority of cases of neonatal mastitis are caused by Staphylococcus aureus; less common causes include gramnegative enteric organisms (e.g. Escherichia coli, Salmonella), anaerobes, and Group B Streptococcuso Clinically, infants usually present with unilateral swelling, erythema, warmth, tenderness, and induration of the breast, occasionally with purulent discharge from the nipple, and/or fluctuation suggesting breast abscesso Mastitis in infancy is usually a local infection, and systemic symptoms such as fever, vomiting, lethargy, and irritability are uncommon.o Much of the literature recommends treatment with parenteral antibiotics with good coverage for S. aureus. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Incomplete closure of ectodermal cleft is know to cause and explain in detail? | Inderbir Singh&;s Human embryology Tenth edition Pg 364 Failure of the choroidal fissure to obliterate completely may lead to deficiencies( coloboma)of various layers of eyeball including iris ciliary body and choroid |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following statements are true about the management in a lady with hematuria diagnosed to have Stage II Transitional Cell Carcinoma of bladder? and explain in detail? | Transurethral Resection(TUR) alone in the management of patients with invasive bladder cancer carries a high likelihood of recurrence and progression. Considering the high likelihood of recurrence and progression, a greater than, 70%> chance of requiring cystectomy within 5 years appears to be logically correct. Ref: The surgical review: an integrated basic and clinical science study guide By Pavan Atluri, Giorgos C. Karakousis, Paige M. Porrett, Larry R. Kaiser, Page 398; Principle of internal medicine Harrison's 16th Edition, Page 539-540. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 5 years old child presented with generalised edema and ascites there was no hypertension or hematuria Renal function tests were normal . Urinalysis revealed massive proteinuria . Most probable diagnosis is and explain in detail? | All the above features suggest Nephrotic syndrome Most common cause is Minimal Change disease. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is the most common etiologic agent of Phlyctenular conjunctivitis? and explain in detail? | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is a delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV cell mediated) response to endogenous microbial proteins most commonly staphylococcus proteins. Previously, tuberculous proteins was considered as the most common cause. Also know: Signs of phlyctenular conjunctivitis: Simple phlyctenular conjunctivitis: Most common variety. It is characterized by the presence of a typical pinkish white nodule surrounded by hyperemia on the bulbar conjunctiva near the limbus. Necrotizing phlyctenular conjunctivitis: Is characterised by the presence of a very large phlycten with necrosis and ulceration leading to severe pustular conjunctivitis. Miliary phlyctenular conjunctivitis: Is characterised by the presence of multiple phlyctens which may be arranged haphazardly or in the form of a ring around the limbus. Ref: Comprehensive ophthalmology By AK Khurana, 4th edn, page 77-8 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Legacy effect is related to which of the diabetes complication ? and explain in detail? | . |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Etravirine and explain in detail? | Etravirine (ETR, brand name Intelence, formerly known as TMC125) is a drug used for the treatment of HIV. Etravirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Unlike the currently available agents in the class, resistance to other NNRTIs does not seem to confer resistance to etravirine. Etravirine is marketed by Janssen, a subsidiary of Johnson & Johnson. In January 2008, the Food and Drug Administration approved its use for patients with established resistance to other drugs, making it the 30th anti-HIV drug approved in the United States and the first to be approved in 2008. It was also approved for use in Canada on April 1, 2008.Etravirine is licensed in the United States, Canada, Israel, Russia, Australia and the European Union, and is under regulatory review in Switzerland.
Indications and dosage
Etravirine, in combination with other anti-retrovirals, is indicated for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) infection in antiretroviral treatment-experienced adult patients, who have evidence of viral replication and HIV-1 strains resistant to a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) and other antiretroviral agents.
The recommended dose of etravirine is 200 mg (2 x 100 mg tablets, or 1 x 200 mg tablet as of 03/18/2011) taken twice daily following a meal. The type of food does not affect the exposure to etravirine.
Contraindication
Each 100 mg etravirine tablet contains 160 mg of lactose. Patients with rare hereditary problems of galactose intolerance, the Lapp lactase deficiency or glucose-galactose malabsorption should not take this medicine.
Mechanism of action
Etravirine is a second-generation non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), designed to be active against HIV with mutations that confer resistance to the two most commonly prescribed first-generation NNRTIs, mutation K103N for efavirenz and Y181C for nevirapine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Adipocere formation is seen in? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dead body buried in damp, clay soil Adipocere formation (saponification)o Adipocere is a modification ofputrefaction, which occurs in the absence of air. That is when there is excessive moisture (humidity) and warnth (warm temperature), but absence of air i.e. warm humid climate, normal putrefaction does not occur, rather saponification occurs.o Thus adipocese formation occurs in dead bodies which are lying in water (immered in water) or hurried in damp lay soil.o Saponification (adipocer formation) is the conversion of dead body into soft, fatty waxy substance due to conversion of unsaturated liquid fats to saturated solid fats under the influence of intrinsic lipase and lecithinase produced by Cl. perfringens. The process involves gradual hydrolysis and hydrogenation of body fats into higher fatty acids which combine with calcium and ammonium ions to form insoluble soaps. Ultimately, palmitic, oleic, stearic and hydroxystearic acids are formed, mixture of these is known as adipocere.o Adipocere formation starts in subcutaneous fat and is marked in areas having excessive fat, eg. cheeks, female breast, buttocks and abdomen. Slowly the whole body including muscles and internal viscera change into adipocere. Adipocere has offensive or sweetish smell, however in early stages, smell is ammonical.o Body is converted into soft, waxy and brittle substance, it floats on water, it can be cut easily, it dissolves in alcohol and ethers, and it melts on heating. Facial features and injuries on body are well preserved, thus identfication of body and determination cause of death (in case of injury) are possible.o Normally adipocere formation requires 3 weeks to upto 3 to 6 months. However shortest recorded period in india is 3 days 22 hours. In india, it has been observed to begin within 4-5 days. Adipocere may persist for years or decades. Adipocere does not occur in foetus less than 7 months.o Medicolegal importance : (i) Identification of body (facial features are preserved), (ii) cause of death (injury marks are preserved), (iii) time since death can be estimated. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Legal age by which fetus is capable of independent existence is : and explain in detail? | D i.e. 210 days |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Physiological amenorrhea is presentin all except: and explain in detail? | Post-pubey |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Q-test is used for detecting: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Golden hour in thrombolytic therapy for cerebral stroke- and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Amblyopia and explain in detail? | Amblyopia, also called lazy eye, is a disorder of sight in which the brain fails to fully process input from one eye and over time favors the other eye. It results in decreased vision in an eye that typically appears normal in other respects. Amblyopia is the most common cause of decreased vision in a single eye among children and younger adults.The cause of amblyopia can be any condition that interferes with focusing during early childhood. This can occur from poor alignment of the eyes (strabismic), an eye being irregularly shaped such that focusing is difficult, one eye being more nearsighted or farsighted than the other (refractive), or clouding of the lens of an eye (deprivational). After the underlying cause is addressed, vision is not restored right away, as the mechanism also involves the brain. Amblyopia can be difficult to detect, so vision testing is recommended for all children around the ages of four to five.Early detection improves treatment success. Glasses may be all the treatment needed for some children. If this is not sufficient, treatments which encourage or force the child to use the weaker eye are used. This is done by either using a patch or putting atropine in the stronger eye. Without treatment, amblyopia typically persists. Treatment in adulthood is usually much less effective.Amblyopia begins by the age of five. In adults, the disorder is estimated to affect 1–5% of the population. While treatment improves vision, it does not typically restore it to normal in the affected eye. Amblyopia was first described in the 1600s. The condition may make people ineligible to be pilots or police officers. The word amblyopia is from Greek ἀμβλύς amblys, meaning "blunt", and ὤψ ōps, meaning "sight".
Signs and symptoms
Many people with amblyopia, especially those who only have a mild form, are not aware they have the condition until tested at older ages, since the vision in their stronger eye is normal. People with amblyopia typically have poor stereo vision, since it requires both eyes. They further may have, on the affected eye, poor pattern recognition, poor visual acuity, and low sensitivity to contrast and motion.Amblyopia is characterized by several functional abnormalities in spatial vision, including reductions in visual acuity, contrast sensitivity function, and vernier acuity, as well as spatial distortion, abnormal spatial interactions, and impaired contour detection. In addition, individuals with amblyopia have binocular abnormalities such as impaired stereoacuity (stereoscopic acuity) and abnormal binocular summation. Also, central vision in amblyopes is more crowded than central vision in normal observers.These deficits are usually specific to the amblyopic eye. Subclinical deficits of the "better" eye have also been demonstrated.People with amblyopia also have problems of binocular vision such as limited stereoscopic depth perception and usually have difficulty seeing the three-dimensional images in hidden stereoscopic displays such as autostereograms. Perception of depth, from monocular cues such as size, perspective, and motion parallax remains normal.
Cause
Amblyopia has three main causes:
Strabismic: by strabismus (misaligned eyes)
Refractive: by anisometropia (difference of a certain degree of nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism), or by significant amount of equal refractive error in both eyes
Deprivational: by deprivation of vision early in life by vision-obstructing disorders such as congenital cataract
Strabismus
Strabismus, sometimes also incorrectly called lazy eye, is a condition in which the eyes are misaligned. Strabismus usually results in normal vision in the preferred sighting (or "fellow") eye (the eye that the person prefers to use), but may cause abnormal vision in the deviating or strabismic eye due to the difference between the images projecting to the brain from the two eyes.
Adult-onset strabismus usually causes double vision (diplopia), since the two eyes are not fixed on the same object.
Childrens brains are more neuroplastic, so can more easily adapt by suppressing images from one of the eyes, eliminating the double vision. This plastic response of the brain, interrupts the brains normal development, resulting in the amblyopia. Recent evidence points to a cause of infantile strabismus lying with the input to the visual cortex.Those with strabismic amblyopia tend to show ocular motion deficits when reading, even when they use the nonamblyopic eye. In particular, they tend to make more saccades per line than persons with normal stereo vision, and to have a reduced reading speed, especially when reading a text with small font size.Strabismic amblyopia is treated by clarifying the visual image with glasses, or encouraging use of the amblyopic eye with an eyepatch over the dominant eye or pharmacologic penalization of the better eye. Penalization usually consists of applying atropine drops to temporarily paralyze the accommodation reflex, leading to the blurring of vision in the good eye. It also dilates the pupil. This helps to prevent the bullying and teasing associated with wearing a patch, although sometimes application of the eye drops is challenging. The ocular alignment itself may be treated with surgical or nonsurgical methods, depending on the type and severity of the strabismus.
Refractive
Refractive amblyopia may result from anisometropia (unequal refractive error between the two eyes). Anisometropia exists when there is a difference in the power between the two eyes. The eye which provides the brain with a clearer image typically becomes the dominant eye. The image in the other eye is blurred, which results in abnormal development of one half of the visual system. Refractive amblyopia is usually less severe than strabismic amblyopia and is commonly missed by primary care physicians because of its less dramatic appearance and lack of obvious physical manifestation, such as with strabismus. Given that the refractive correction of anisometropia by means of spectacles typically leads to different image magnification for the two eyes, which may in turn prevent binocular vision, a refractive correction using contact lenses is to be considered. Also pediatric refractive surgery is a treatment option, in particular if conventional approaches have failed due to aniseikonia or lack of compliance or both.Frequently, amblyopia is associated with a combination of anisometropia and strabismus. In some cases, the vision between the eyes can differ to the point where one eye has twice average vision while the other eye is completely blind.
Deprivation and occlusion
Deprivation amblyopia (amblyopia ex anopsia) results when the ocular media become opaque, such as is the case with congenital cataract or corneal haziness. These opacities prevent adequate visual input from reaching the eye, and disrupt development. If not treated in a timely fashion, amblyopia may persist even after the cause of the opacity is removed. Sometimes, drooping of the eyelid (ptosis) or some other problem causes the upper eyelid to physically occlude a childs vision, which may cause amblyopia quickly. Occlusion amblyopia may be a complication of a hemangioma that blocks some or all of the eye. Other possible causes of deprivation and occlusion amblyopia include obstruction in the vitreous and aphakia. Deprivation amblyopia accounts for less than 3% of all individuals affected by amblyopia.
Pathophysiology
Amblyopia is a developmental problem in the brain, not any intrinsic, organic neurological problem in the eyeball (although organic problems can lead to amblyopia which can continue to exist after the organic problem has resolved by medical intervention).
The part of the brain receiving images from the affected eye is not stimulated properly and does not develop to its full visual potential. This has been confirmed by direct brain examination. David H. Hubel and Torsten Wiesel won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1981 for their work in showing the extent of the damage to ocular dominance columns produced in kittens by sufficient visual deprivation during the so-called "critical period". The maximum "critical period" in humans is from birth to two years old.
Diagnosis
Amblyopia is diagnosed by identifying low visual acuity in one or both eyes, out of proportion to the structural abnormality of the eye and excluding other visual disorders as causes for the lowered visual acuity. It can be defined as an interocular difference of two lines or more in acuity (e.g. on Snellen chart) when the eye optics are maximally corrected. In young children, visual acuity is difficult to measure and can be estimated by observing the reactions of the patient when one eye is covered, including observing the patients ability to follow objects with one eye.
Stereotests like the Lang stereotest are not reliable exclusion tests for amblyopia. A person who passes the Lang stereotest test is unlikely to have strabismic amblyopia, but could nonetheless have refractive or deprivational amblyopia. Binocular retinal birefringence scanning may be able to identify, already in very young children, amblyopia that is associated with strabismus, microstrabismus, or reduced fixation accuracy. Diagnosis and treatment of amblyopia as early as possible is necessary to keep the vision loss to a minimum. Screening for amblyopia is recommended in all people between three and five years of age.
Treatment
Treatment of strabismic or anisometropic amblyopia consists of correcting the optical deficit (wearing the necessary spectacle prescription) and often forcing use of the amblyopic eye, by patching the good eye, or instilling topical atropine in the good eye, or both.: 130 Atropine appears to result in similar outcomes to patching. If there is overpatching or overpenalizing the good eye when treating amblyopia, "reverse amblyopia" can result. Eye patching is usually done on a part-time schedule of about 4–6 hours a day. Treatment is continued as long as vision improves. It is not worthwhile continuing to patch for more than 6 months if no improvement continues.Deprivation amblyopia is treated by removing the opacity as soon as possible followed by patching or penalizing the good eye to encourage the use of the amblyopic eye |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Unilateral renal agenesis is associated with – and explain in detail? | Malformations associated with unilateral renal agenesis
Single umbilical artery
Absent ureter
Controlateral vesicoureteric reflux
Absent Ipsilateral vas defrens
Bilateral renal agenesis
It is incompatible with extrauterine life, death occurs shortly after birth from pulmonary hypoplasia.
It is also known as Potter syndrome. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is What&;s the most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail? | Pneumococcal Pneumonia : Produces inflammatory edema in the alveoli which spreads Via POres Kohn to more lateral alveoli. Extensive infiltrate usually abutting pleural surface. Prominent air bronchograms Organism is aspirated into the lungs from. the upper airways so it shows Predllection for lower lobes. Ref : David Sutton 9th ed |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Commonest age group for diptheria is - and explain in detail? | Diphtheria paicularly affects children aged 1 to 5 yrs. In countries where widespread immunization practised, a shift in age incidence has been observed from preschool to school age. Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page :160 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In which of the following enzyme does selenium act as a cofactor? and explain in detail? | Glutathione peroxidase contains selenium as a prosthetic group. In erythrocytes and other tissues, it catalyses the destruction of hydrogen peroxide and lipid peroxidase, protecting membrane lipids and hemoglobin against oxidation. Must know: Some other Co-factors that have been asked: Cofactor for carbonic anhydrase: Zn Cofactor for tyrosinase: Cu Cofactor for cytochrome oxidase Cu Cofactor for xanthine oxidase: Mo Cofactor for transamination reaction: Pyridoxine Cofactor for superoxide dismutase: Mn Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 21. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway & Other Pathways of Hexose Metabolism. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is CrPC 174 defines which of the following? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Police inquest CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE (CRPC), 1973* t provides the mechanism for punishment of offences against substantive criminal law. In simple words, it prescribes the procedure of investigation and trial of criminal offences. Important sections of CrPC are# 2(C) CrPC: Cognisable offence.# 6 to 25 CrPC: Constitution of criminal courts and officer.# 26 CrPC: Division of offences.# 27-35 CrPC: Power of courts.# 39 CrPC: Every person should give information to nearest magistrate or police officer, if that person is aware of commission of or intention of commission of an offence which is punishable under IPC.# 40 CrPC: Duty of officers appointed and every person residing in a village to inform unnatural death or dead body found.# 160 CrPC: Police officer has the power to summon any witness to police station for recording of statement (a male below 15 years and a women cannot be called to police station).# 161 CrPC: Police officer has the power to examine witness.# 162 CrPC: Oral statements made to the police and recorded by the police should not be signed.# 174 CrPC: Police inquest.# 174(3) CrPC: Procedure in dowry death.# 175 CrPC: Power of police to summon panchas.# 176 CrPC: Magistrate inquest.# 211 to 224 CrPC: Charge.# 225 to 237 CrPC: Session's trial.# 238 to 265 CrPC: Magistrate's trial.# Section 416 CrPC: Postponement of capital sentence on pregnat woman or its commutation of imprisonment for life can be done by the high court.# Section 409 CrPC: Withdrawal of cases and appeals by Session Judge.# Section 410 CrPC: Withdrawal of cases by Judicial Magistrate.# Section 411 CrPC: Making over or withdrawal of cases by executive magistrates.# Section 412 CrPC: Reasons to be recorded A Session judge or Magistrate making an order under section 408, 409, 410 or 411. Shall record his reasons for making it. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 68 year old male is diagnosed of having colorectal cancer. What is the commonest presentation of Ca ascending colon ? and explain in detail? | The presentation depends on the site of the cancer: Right colon cancers: weight loss, anemia, occult bleeding, mass in right iliac fossa, disease more likely to be advanced at presentation. Left colon cancers: often colicky pain, rectal bleeding, bowel obstruction, tenesmus, mass in left iliac fossa, early change in bowel habit, less advanced disease at presentation. A tumor in the left (descending) colon is likely to cause obstruction at an earlier stage, because the left colon has a smaller diameter and the stool is semisolid. Cancer tends to encircle this pa of the colon, causing alternating constipation and frequent bowel movements before obstruction. A tumor in the right (ascending) colon does not cause obstruction until late in the course of the cancer, because the ascending colon has a large diameter and the contents flowing through it are liquid. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 35 year old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5 min. On arrival,the patient is in lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5cm dilated. What is the most appropriate method of pain control for this patient? and explain in detail? | When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labour,epidural analgesia is safest and simplest. Ref: Williams Obs 24e pg 513 . |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are ocular features of Albinism except and explain in detail? | Albinism/Occulo-cutaneous disorder - Defective melanogenesis Depigmented skin and hair Autosomal recessive, mutation in Tyrosinase (TYR) gene Associated with photophobia and increased risk of skin malignancies(SCC) The ocular findings in OCA correlate with the degree of hypopigmentation and include decreased visual acuity, nystagmus, photophobia, strabismus, and a lack of normal binocular vision. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Diagnosis of Dengue fever can be made earliest by? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., NS-1 antigen detection |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The following is true regarding benzodiazepines and explain in detail? | If taken in higher doses it is less toxic than other sedatives Impoant features of Benzodiazepenes Benzodiozepenes are impoant sedatives. Benzodiazepenes act by enhancing presynaptic/postsynaptic inhibition through a specific BZD receptor which is an integral pa of the GABA receptor-C1- channel complex. Benzodiozepenes have a high therapeutic index. - Ingestion of even 50 hyphotic doses does not endanger life there is no less of conciousness (though amnesia occurs) and patient cannot be arousd. Respiration is not so depressed as to need assistance. Benzodiazepenes do not affect respiration or cardiovascular functions. - Higher doses can produce mild respiratory depression and hypotension which can be problematic in patients with respiratory insufficiency and cardiac hemodynamic abnormality. Benzodiazepenes have practically no action on other body systems. - Only on i.v. injection the B.P. falls (may be marked in an occasional patient) and cardiac contractility decreases. Benzodiazepenes cause less distoion of sleep architecture. - Rebound phenomenon on discontinuation of regular use are less marked. Benzodiazepenes do not alter disposition of other drugs by microsomal enzyme induction. - They do not induce liver enzymes. They have lower abuse liability, - Tolerance is mild, psychologial and physical dependence and withdraw! syndroms are less marked. Pharmacokinetics Benzodiazepenes are effective after administration by mouth. The liver metabolizes them usually to inactive metabolites but some compounds produce active metabolites some with long t i/2 whih greatly extends drug action e.g. chlordiazepoxide, clorazepate and diazepam ali form desmethyldiazepam. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ohobaric oxygen is used in and explain in detail? | .HYPERBARIC OXYGEN It is administration of oxygen 1 or 2 atmospheres above the atmospheric pressure in a compression chamber. It increases the aerial oxygen saturation so that oxygen perfusion of tissues will be increased.Indications 1. Carbon monoxide poisoning. 2. Tetanus, gas gangrene infections. 3. Bedsores, frostbites, necrotising fasciitis. 4. Drenching in paralytic ileus to reduce the nitrogen gas in distended bowel. 5. As a radiosensitizer in the treatment of cancer. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 98 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mallet finger is due to - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Avulsion of extensor tendon from base of distal phalynx Mallet finger (Base ball finger)* Sudden passive flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint (as by a ball striking the tip of the finger) may rupture the extensor tendon at the point of its insertion into the base of distal phalanx.* Sometimes, a fragment of bone is avulsed from the phalanx.* Clinically, distal phalanx is in slight flexion and patient is unable to extend DIP joint fully.* Treatment is by immobilizing the DIP joint in hyperextension with the help of an aluminium splint (finger extension splint) or plaster cast. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not used as sub-gingival irrigant: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following actions are caused by 2-4-diinitrophenol? and explain in detail? | 2,4-dinitrophenol and valinomycin are two uncouplers which inhibit oxidative phosphorylation. 2,4-dinitrophenol is a potent uncoupler even in low concentrations by dissolving itself in the bi-lipid core of the inner cell membrane. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th/107; Biochemistry 3E By S C Rastogi, 2010, Page 224. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The following drug acts as Rho- kinase(ROCK enzyme) inhibitor and explain in detail? | Fasudil is the Rho kinase inhibitor. Rock enzyme produce vasoconstriction and increase oxygen demand which is blocked by fasudil decreasing the myocardial oxygen demand |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are primary suppos of uterus except and explain in detail? | Primary suppos of Uterus Secondary suppos of Uterus Levator ani(Main suppo) Pubocervical ligament Uterosacral ligament Transverse cervical ligament(M. Imp ligament) Round ligament of uterus Broad ligament- not a suppo of uterus. it is a misnomer as it is a peritoneal fold, not a ligament. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Regarding bacterial vaginosis, all are true except: and explain in detail? | - The main organism in bacteria vaginosis is gardenella vaginalis which replaces the lactobacillus in vagina A fishy vaginal odor, which is paicularly noticeable following coitus Vaginal secretions are gray and thinly coat the vaginal walls. The pH of these secretions is higher than 4.5 (usually 4.7 to 5.7). Microscopy of the vaginal secretions reveals an increased number of clue cells. Leukocytes are conspicuously absent. In advanced cases of BV, more than 20% of the epithelial cells are clue cells. The addition of KOH to the vaginal secretions (the "whiff" test) releases a fishy, amine like odour. There is no associated inflammation or edema and that's why it is called vaginosis in place of vaginitis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cystoglandular hyperplasia is a feature of: and explain in detail? | Metropathia hemorrhagica Prolonged amenorrhea followed by heavy withdrawl Amenorrhea for 2 1/2 -3 months In a women >40 yrs Anovulatory cycle, irregular Hyperplasia of endometrial glands present Non secretory endometrium Diagnosed by currettage and microscopic examination Cystic glandular hyperplasia (Swiss cheese endometrium) Very less stroma Self-limiting disease DNC is of curative treatment. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The anterior cranial base is a suitable for superimposition
of serial cephalograms because of its and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most potent cycloplegic among the following and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Regarding this procedure in trauma - False statement? and explain in detail? | Ans. (c) Done when pressure is 20mmHg.* Done when pressure >30mmHg.* Two incisions running deep is needed to decompress all the compartments.* Myoglobinuria and renal failure can occur in late cases |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Feature of aging periodontium is and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Screening for condition recommended wrhen - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Early diagnosis can change disease course because of effective treatment o The disease to be screened should fulfil the following criteria before it is considered suitable for screening.1. The condition sougth should be an important health problem (in general, prevalence should be high).2. There should be a recognizable latent or early asymptomatic stage.3. The natural history of the contition, including development from latent to declared disease, should be adequately understood (so that we can know at what stage the process ceases to be reversible).4. There is a test that can detect the disease prior to the onset of signs and symptoms.5. facilities should be available for confirmation of the diagnosis.6. There is an effective treatment.7. There should be an agreed-on policy concerning whom to treat as patients (e.g., lower ranges of blood pressure; border-line diabetes).8. There is good evidence that early detection and treatment reduces morbidity and mortality.9. The expected benefits (e.g., the number of lives saved) of early detection exceed the risks and costs. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 14 year old female patient complains of firm swelling on cheek. Intra-oral examination reveals a firm, fibrous growth of 1×1 cm on buccal mucosa which was excised using laser. The effect produced in this procedure at a temperature above 400°C is: and explain in detail? | Interactions with the substrate can occur in photothermal, photochemical, or other ways. Generally, dental lasers produce photothermal effects, with soft or hard tissue being ablated by the action.
At low temperatures, below 100° C, thermal effects denature proteins, produce hemolysis, and cause coagulation and shrinkage.
Above 100° C, water in soft or hard tissues boils, producing explosive expansion.
Above approximately 400° C, the carbonization of organic materials is completed with the onset of some inorganic changes.
As the temperature increases from 400° to 1400° C, inorganic constituents change in chemistry, may melt and/or recrystallize, and may vaporize.
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Mosby, 4th Edition, Page No: 327, 326 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Sensory receptors with delayed recovery and least coverage? and explain in detail? | Ans. D. Merkel's diskReceptive field of sensory receptors :Smallest receptive field (Least coverage) : Merkel's disc, Meissner corpuscles ii) Wide receptive field : Pacinian corpuscle, Ruffini end organ (Ruffini corpuscle)Adaptation of sensory receptors :-Rapidly adapting (rapid recovery) - Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, II) Slowly adapting (delayed recovery) -4 Merkel's disc, Ruffini's end organs |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Commonest variety of acute inflammation is ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Catarrhal inflammation o While the basic process of acute inflammation is same in all tissues, there are frequently qualitative differences in the inflammatory response seen under different circumstances. 1. Catarrhal inflammation o An inflammatory process that occurs in mucous membrane and is characterized by increased blood flow to the mucosal vessels, edema of interstitial tissue, enlargment of the secretory gland epithelial cells, and profuse discharge of mucus and epithelial debris. o It is very common, and mostly occurs in mucosal membrane of nose, pharynx and ear after upper respiratory tract infection or irritation. o It can also occur in other mucosal surfaces, e.g., GIT. 2. Serous inflammation o Marked by outpouring of a thin, serous fluid that is derived either from plasma or the secretion of mesothelial cell lining the peritoneal, pleural or pericardial cavity. The most common example is blister resulting from burn. Fibrinous inflammation o It occurs due to more severe injury when there is increased vascular permeability and larger molecules such as fibrinogen pass the vascular barrier, and fibrin is formed and deposited in the extracellular space. o It is seen in cavities, e.g., meninges, pericardium and pleura. Suppurative or Purulent inflammation It is characterized by the production of large amount ofpus (neutrophils + necrotic cells & debris + edema fluid). It is typically seen after infection with pyogenic bacteria e.g., staphylococci. A common example of an acute suppurative inflammation is acute appendicitis. Abscess is localized collection of purulent inflammatory tissue. 5. Ulcer (Ulcerative inflammation) An ulcer is a local defect, or excavation, of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing (shedding) of inflammatory necrotic tissue. Ulceration occurs when tissue necrosis and resultant inflammation exist on or near a surface. It is seen in --> Inflammatory necrosis of mucosa of mouth, stomach, duodenum or genitourinary tract, and Subcutaneous inflammation of lower extremities in older persons who have circulatory disturbances that predispose to extensive necrosis. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints of fever and weakness for the last one month. There is generalised lymphadenopathy. There was also associated hepatomegaly Biopsy of liver showed non caseating granuloma. These are most likely due to infection with - and explain in detail? | Ans. is D i.e., Brucella Melitensis The history of contact with animal (sheep) and the characteristic symptomatology & pathology ours the diagnosis of Brucella melitensis. All the organisms given in the question have animals as their natural host but they can also infect human. So the choice comes to Brucella melitensis because the patient has a history of contact with sheep. Brucella melitensis usually infects Goats, camel & sheeps Brucella canis usually infect Dogs Yersinia pestis infects Rodents(wild) Francicella tularemia Rabbits |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Antidepressant, which is selective 5HT inhibitor is - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluoxetine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Coils are incorporated in orthodontic appliances to: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a patient of primary hypothyroidism, the hormonal profile will read - and explain in detail? | Ref - semantischolar.org |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mechanism of action of digitalis in atrial fibrillation is: and explain in detail? | Digoxin reduces ventricular rate in A. Fib. by decreasing the number of impulses that are able to pass down the A-V node and bundle of His. It increases ERP of A-V node by direct, vagomimetic and antiadrenergic actions --> Minimum interval between consecutive impulses that can successfully traverse the conducting tissue is prolonged. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Somatic mutations involve: and explain in detail? | C i.e. Frame shift alteration in coding nucleotide |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Schwannoma, the marked area represents and explain in detail? | Schwannoma Well circumscribed, encapsulated masses that are attached to a nerve but can be separated from it (Whereas neurofibromas are unencapsulated, an ill circumscribed mass that presents within the nerve and expanding them, hence the tumor cannot be separated from the nerve)Microscopic findings :Two patterns - Antoni A and Antoni B patterns Antoni A - Cellular with spindle cells showing nuclear palisades. There is an alternate array of nuclear palisades and nuclear-free zones were together called "Verocay bodies"Antoni B - Less densely cellular and consists of a loose meshwork of cells, microcysts, and myxoid stroma.Ref: Robbins 8/e p1340 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Late deceleration indicates: and explain in detail? | Ans. C. Foetal hypoxiaDeceleration pattern - Three typea. Early deceleration - due to head compressionb. Late deceleration - chronic placental insufficiencyc. Variable deceleration - cord compressiond. Sinusoidal pattern - It is stable baseline FHR with fixed base line variability without any acceleration. If is often associated with fetal anaemia, feto-maternal hemorrhage, fetal hypoxia, and when narcotics are given to motherse. In situations of uteroplacental insufficiency, the uterine contractions may decrease the placental perfusion sufficiently to cause fetal hypoxia which outlasts the duration of the contraction.f. The FHR tracing shows decelerations which begin with the peak of the uterine contractions and persists even after the conclusion of the contraction (late deceleration), late decelerations are indicative of fetal compromise |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Picket fence fever is a feature of - and explain in detail? | Ans. B. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis Ref: Dhingra Sth/e p. 95] Hectic Picket-Fence fi:pe of fever with rigor, |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cast perforated resin retained FPD for posterior teeth was first described by and explain in detail? | This concept was expanded to replacement of posterior teeth by Livaditis. Perforated retainers were used to increase resistance and retention. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Median nail dystrophy and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Inflammatory mediator of generalised systemic inflammation is and explain in detail? | ref Robbins 8/e p57 ; 61 ,7/e p71 ,9/e p86 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Circle of Hebra is involved in ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Scabies Scabies Scabies in is caused by mites of the family Sarcoptidae, which includes Sarcoptes scabiei, the scabies mite. Usually affects children but can occur at any age. More common in low socioeconomic strata as overcrowding and poor hygiene facilitate the spread. The most imp mean of spread is direct contact with the infected individual. Scabies is water shed disease which occurs die to inadequate use of water and improper hygiene. Clinical features :? Severe itching is the most prominent clinical feature abd has following characterstics Worse at night Generelised Affecting several family members 2. Body areas most commonly involved are web spaces of fingers, wrists, elbow, axilla and groin area, areas known as circle of Hebra. 3. Burrow is serpentine (S. shaped), thread like grey brown line which represents the intraepidermal tunnel created by moving female mite in stratum corneum. Burrow is pathognomic sign of scabies. Burrows are very difficult to demonstrate in infants. 4. Paules and papulovesicular eruptions due to hypersensitivity to mite 5. Pustules can occur due to seceondary infection 6. Excoriation and scratch marks 7. History of involvement of family members |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Investigation of choice for fistula in ano is and explain in detail? | Initial investigation is fistulogram.
IOC is MR fistulogram. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Dietl crisis is seen in: and explain in detail? | Ans: a (Intermittent hydronephrosis) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed,Died crisis is seen in intermittent hydronephrosis.Dietel crisisAfter an attack of a/c renal pain a swelling in loin is found. Pain is relieved and swelling disappears following the passage of a large volume of urine some hours later.Note:Unilateral hydronephrosis is most commonly caused by idiopathic pelviureteric junction obstruction or calculus. Right side is more commonly involved. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cholecystitis and explain in detail? | Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. Symptoms include right upper abdominal pain, pain in the right shoulder, nausea, vomiting, and occasionally fever. Often gallbladder attacks (biliary colic) precede acute cholecystitis. The pain lasts longer in cholecystitis than in a typical gallbladder attack. Without appropriate treatment, recurrent episodes of cholecystitis are common. Complications of acute cholecystitis include gallstone pancreatitis, common bile duct stones, or inflammation of the common bile duct.More than 90% of the time acute cholecystitis is caused from blockage of the cystic duct by a gallstone. Risk factors for gallstones include birth control pills, pregnancy, a family history of gallstones, obesity, diabetes, liver disease, or rapid weight loss. Occasionally, acute cholecystitis occurs as a result of vasculitis or chemotherapy, or during recovery from major trauma or burns. Cholecystitis is suspected based on symptoms and laboratory testing. Abdominal ultrasound is then typically used to confirm the diagnosis.Treatment is usually with laparoscopic gallbladder removal, within 24 hours if possible. Taking pictures of the bile ducts during the surgery is recommended. The routine use of antibiotics is controversial. They are recommended if surgery cannot occur in a timely manner or if the case is complicated. Stones in the common bile duct can be removed before surgery by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or during surgery. Complications from surgery are rare. In people unable to have surgery, gallbladder drainage may be tried.About 10–15% of adults in the developed world have gallstones. Women more commonly have stones than men and they occur more commonly after age 40. Certain ethnic groups are more often affected; for example, 48% of American Indians have gallstones. Of all people with stones, 1–4% have biliary colic each year. If untreated, about 20% of people with biliary colic develop acute cholecystitis. Once the gallbladder is removed outcomes are generally good. Without treatment, chronic cholecystitis may occur. The word is from Greek, cholecyst- meaning "gallbladder" and -itis meaning "inflammation".
Signs and symptoms
Most people with gallstones do not have symptoms. However, when a gallstone temporarily lodges in the cystic duct, they experience biliary colic. Biliary colic is abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastric region. It is episodic, occurring after eating greasy or fatty foods, and leads to nausea and/or vomiting. People with cholecystitis most commonly have symptoms of biliary colic before developing cholecystitis. The pain becomes severe and constant in cholecystitis. Nausea is common and vomiting occurs in 75% of people with cholecystitis. In addition to abdominal pain, right shoulder pain can be present.On physical examination, an inflamed gallbladder is almost always tender to the touch and palpable (~25-50% of cases) in the midclavicular right lower rib margin. Additionally, a fever is common. A gallbladder with cholecystitis is almost always tender to touch. Because of the inflammation, its size can be felt from the outside of the body in 25–50% of people with cholecystitis. Pain with deep inspiration leading to termination of the breath while pressing on the right upper quadrant of the abdomen usually causes severe pain (Murphys sign). Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) may occur but is often mild. Severe jaundice suggests another cause of symptoms such as choledocholithiasis. People who are old, have diabetes, chronic illness, or who are immunocompromised may have vague symptoms that may not include fever or localized tenderness.
Complications
A number of complications may occur from cholecystitis if not detected early or properly treated. Signs of complications include high fever, shock and jaundice. Complications include the following:
Gangrene
Gallbladder rupture
Empyema
Fistula formation and gallstone ileus
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
Gangrene and gallbladder rupture
Cholecystitis causes the gallbladder to become distended and firm. Distension can lead to decreased blood flow to the gallbladder, causing tissue death and eventually gangrene. Once tissue has died, the gallbladder is at greatly increased risk of rupture (perforation), which can cause sharp pain. Rupture can also occur in cases of chronic cholecystitis. Rupture is a rare but serious complication that leads to abscess formation or peritonitis. Massive rupture of the gallbladder has a mortality rate of 30%.
Empyema
Untreated cholecystitis can lead to worsened inflammation and infected bile that can lead to a collection of pus inside the gallbladder, also known as empyema. The symptoms of empyema are similar to uncomplicated cholecystitis but greater severity: high fever, severe abdominal pain, more severely elevated white blood count.
Fistula formation and gallstone ileus
The inflammation of cholecystitis can lead to adhesions between the gallbladder and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly the duodenum. These adhesions can lead to the formation of direct connections between the gallbladder and gastrointestinal tract, called fistulas. With these direct connections, gallstones can pass from the gallbladder to the intestines. Gallstones can get trapped in the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly at the connection between the small and large intestines (ileocecal valve). When a gallstone gets trapped, it can lead to an intestinal obstruction, called gallstone ileus, leading to abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, and abdominal distension.
Causes
Cholecystitis occurs when the gallbladder becomes inflamed. Gallstones are the most common cause of gallbladder inflammation but it can also occur due to blockage from a tumor or scarring of the bile duct. The greatest risk factor for cholecystitis is gallstones. Risk factors for gallstones include female sex, increasing age, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, obesity, diabetes mellitus, ethnicity (Native North American), rapid weight loss.
Acute calculous cholecystitis
Gallstones blocking the flow of bile account for 90% of cases of cholecystitis (acute calculous cholecystitis). Blockage of bile flow leads to thickening and buildup of bile causing an enlarged, red, and tense gallbladder. The gallbladder is initially sterile but often becomes infected by bacteria, predominantly E. coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Clostridium species. Inflammation can spread to the outer covering of the gallbladder and surrounding structures such as the diaphragm, causing referred right shoulder pain.
Acalculous cholecystitis
In acalculous cholecystitis, no stone is in the biliary ducts. It accounts for 5–10% of all cases of cholecystitis and is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates. Acalculous cholecystitis is typically seen in people who are hospitalized and critically ill. Males are more likely to develop acute cholecystitis following surgery in the absence of trauma. It is associated with many causes including vasculitis, chemotherapy, major trauma or burns.The presentation of acalculous cholecystitis is similar to calculous cholecystitis. Patients are more likely to have yellowing of the skin (jaundice) than in calculous cholecystitis. Ultrasonography or computed tomography often shows an immobile, enlarged gallbladder. Treatment involves immediate antibiotics and cholecystectomy within 24–72 hours.
Chronic cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis occurs after repeated episodes of acute cholecystitis and is almost always due to gallstones. Chronic cholecystitis may be asymptomatic, may present as a more severe case of acute cholecystitis, or may lead to a number of complications such as gangrene, perforation, or fistula formation.Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis (XGC) is a rare form of chronic cholecystitis which mimics gallbladder cancer although it is not cancerous. It was first reported in the medical literature in 1976 by McCoy and colleagues.
Mechanism
Blockage of the cystic duct by a gallstone causes a buildup of bile in the gallbladder and increased pressure within the gallbladder. Concentrated bile, pressure, and sometimes bacterial infection irritate and damage the gallbladder wall, causing inflammation and swelling of the gallbladder. Inflammation and swelling of the gallbladder can reduce normal blood flow to areas of the gallbladder, which can lead to cell death due to inadequate oxygen.
Diagnosis
The diagnosis of cholecystitis is suggested by the history (abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever) and physical examinations in addition to laboratory and ultrasonographic testing. Boass sign, which is pain in the area below the right scapula, can be a symptom of acute cholecystitis.
Blood tests
In someone suspected of having cholecystitis, blood tests are performed for markers of inflammation (e.g. complete blood count, C-reactive protein), as well as bilirubin levels in order to assess for bile duct blockage. Complete blood count typically shows an increased white blood count (12,000–15,000/mcL). C-reactive protein is usually elevated although not commonly measured in the United States. Bilirubin levels are often mildly elevated (1–4 mg/dL). If bilirubin levels are more significantly elevated, alternate or additional diagnoses should be considered such as gallstone blocking the common bile duct (common bile duct stone). Less commonly, blood aminotransferases are elevated. The degree of elevation of these laboratory values may depend on the degree of inflammation of the gallbladder.
Imaging
Right upper quadrant abdominal ultrasound is most commonly used to diagnose cholecystitis. Ultrasound findings suggestive of acute cholecystitis include gallstones, pericholecystic fluid (fluid surrounding the gallbladder), gallbladder wall thickening (wall thickness over 3 mm), dilation of the bile duct, and sonographic Murphys sign. Given its higher sensitivity, hepatic iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan can be used if ultrasound is not diagnostic. CT scan may also be used if complications such as perforation or gangrene are suspected.
Histopathology
Histopathology is indicated if preoperative imaging and/or gross examination gives a suspicion of gallbladder cancer.
Differential diagnosis
Many other diagnoses can have similar symptoms as cholecystitis. Additionally the symptoms of chronic cholecystitis are commonly vague and can be mistaken for other diseases. These alternative diagnoses include but are not limited to:
Perforated peptic ulcer
Acute pancreatitis
Liver abscess
Pneumonia
Myocardial ischemia
Hiatal hernia
Biliary colic
Choledocholithiasis
Cholangitis
Appendicitis
Colitis
Acute peptic ulcer exacerbation
Amoebic liver abscess
Acute intestinal obstruction
Kidney stone
Biliary ascariasis
Treatment
Surgery
For most people with acute cholecystitis, the treatment of choice is surgical removal of the gallbladder, laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed using several small incisions located at various points across the abdomen. Several studies have demonstrated the superiority of laparoscopic cholecystectomy when compared to open cholecystectomy (using a large incision in the right upper abdomen under the rib cage). People undergoing laparoscopic surgery report less incisional pain postoperatively as well as having fewer long-term complications and less disability following the surgery. Additionally, laparoscopic surgery is associated with a lower rate of surgical site infection.During the days prior to laparoscopic surgery, studies showed that outcomes were better following early removal of the gallbladder, preferably within the first week. Early laparoscopic cholecystectomy (within 7 days of visiting a doctor with symptoms) as compared to delayed treatment (more than 6 weeks) may result in shorter hospital stays and a decreased risk of requiring an emergency procedure. There is no difference in terms of negative outcomes including bile duct injury or conversion to open cholecystectomy. For early cholecystectomy, the most common reason for conversion to open surgery is inflammation that hides Calots triangle. For delayed surgery, the most common reason was fibrotic adhesions.
Other
Supportive measures may be instituted prior to surgery. These measures include fluid resuscitation |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Pompholyx affects: and explain in detail? | Ans. d. Palm & solesPompholyx is a form of recurrent palmoplantar eczema with firm deep-seated vesicles on sides of finger giving sago grain or tapioca like feel |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In right handed person temporoparietal lobe injury leads to all, Except - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Optic disc changes of retinitis pigmentosa: and explain in detail? | Retinitis pigmentosa (RP) is a type of retinal dystrophy predominantly effecting the rod photo receptor cells of the retina with subsequent degeneration of the cones Sporadic: most common Clinic - investigative features Night blindness May occur before the retinal changes appear. Fundus changes Retinal pigmentary changes occur in the form of perivascular deposition (jet black spots) of bony corpuscle pigments in the equatorial region which later spread both. Anteriorly and posteriorly Retinal aerioles are attenuated Optic disc becomes pale waxy ending in consecutive optic atrophy. Visual field changes Annular of ring scotoma Tubular vision in advanced cases - Electrophysiological changes Appears even before the subjective symptoms and signs Scotopic flash ERG: decrease in amplitude of the 'a' wave EOG is extinguished |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Main enzyme involved in digestion of fatty food- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pancreatic lipase o Ebner's glands on the dorsum of the tongue secrete lingual lipase and the stomach also secretes a lipase (gastric lipase}.o However, they are of very little significance in fat digestion.o Fat digestion essentially begins in the duodenum with entry of pancreatic and biliary secretions.o Pancreatic juice contains lipase (pancreatic lipase), the most important enzyme for fat digestion.o The pancreatic lipase digests triglycerides (triacylglycerois) into free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides (2- monocyiglycerols).o Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes 1-and 3-bonds of triglycerides with relative sparing of 2-bonds, so the principal products of its action are free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular storage, during smooth muscle contraction is/are due to: and explain in detail? | D i.e. IP3- DAGDuring smooth muscle contraction increase in cytosolic calcium is due to influx through voltage or ligand gated plasma membrane Ca++ channelsQ and release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum activated by 1P3 receptor calcium channelsQ- Different source of calcium- As in skeletal & cardiac muscle, Ca++ plays a impoant role in initiation of contraction but the source of Ca.* increase is much different- Unlike skeletal & like cardiac muscle most of the calcium which enters sarcoplasm comes from ECF and very little comes from sarcoplasmic reticulumQ. So the source of ca-- are:Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for its binding to actinLack of troponin in smooth muscles prevents Ca'* activation troponin binding. Rather Ca** binds to calmodulin and resulting complex activates calmodulin dependent myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). This enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of myosine light chain on serine at position 19Myosin LC20 phosphorylation is a must and increases myosin ATPase activityQ resultingin binding of myosin to actin and contraction . However, phosphorylation & dephosphorylation of myosin also occur in skeletal muscle but phosphorylation is not necessary for activation of ATPaseDephosphorylation & Latch bridgesMyosin LC is dephosphorylated by myosin light chain phosphatase but it does not necessarily Vt relaxation & final detachmentQ of myosin cross bridges from actin until the intracellular concentration of falls below a critical level.This continued attachment of myosin cross bridges to actin even after dephosphorylation creates latch bridgesLatch bridges do not make significant cycles of attachment & detachmentQ between actin & myosin so do not require much ATPQ and so maintain prolonged contractions without expenditure of much energy.If epinephrine or NE is added, the membrane potential becomes larger, the spikes decrease in frequency & muscle relaxes. Whereas acetylcholine addition 1/t decreased membrane potential, spikes become more frequent, muscle becomes more active with an increase in tonic tension & number of rhythmic contractions.During smooth muscle contraction increase in cytosolic calcium is due to influx through voltage or ligand gated plasma membrane Ca++ channelsQ and release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum activated by 1P3 receptor calcium channelsQ |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A I 6-y ear-old girl presented with abdominal pain after administration of a sulfa drug. She was incoherent and suffered a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely possibility? and explain in detail? | Ans.a Acuteintermittentporphyria (Re/: Harrison 19/ep2521, 18/ep3168-3169)Acute intermittent porphyria is precipitated by barbiturates, alcohol, exposure to heavy metals, sulfa drugs.Acute Intermittent Porphyria:Precipitated by barbiturates, alcohol, exposure to heary metals, sulfa drugsPresent with nonspecific neurovisceral pain: Abdominal pain, psychiatric disorders, seizures, coma and bulbar Paralysis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is true with microsporidia ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is a protozoa Microsporidia . Microsporidia are oblique intracellular spore forming protozoa. . They are gram positive . They cause disese in humans, especially as oppounistic pathogenes in AIDS. . Currently, eight genera of microsporidia are recognized as a cause of human disease. - Encephalitozoon - Trachitaleistopora - Pleistophora - Brachiola - Nosema - Enterocytozoon - Vittaforma - Microsporidium (has been added in 1 7the of Harrison) . Encephalitozoon intestinals can cause fever, diarrhea, sinusitis, cholangitis, bronchiolitis. . Pleistophora causes myositis. . Encephalitozoon hellen causes superficial kerato conjuctivitis sinusitis, respiratory tract disease and disseminated infection. . Nosema and vittaforma cause stromal keratitis. . Enterocytozoon bieneusi can cause chronic diarrhea and wasting. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following are true about Irinotecan except and explain in detail? | Irinotecan & Topotecan are Topoisomerase-I inhibitors.
Etoposide & Teniposide are Topoisomerase-II inhibitors. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Marfan's syndrome associated with a/e: and explain in detail? | Ans. Roth spots |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Traumatic eye with late presentation of hyperaemic sclera with unilateral proptosis is due to: and explain in detail? | Severe blunt trauma to the orbit can occasionally cause a retrobulbar hematoma. When a retrobulbar hematoma is large enough, it can cause an abrupt increase in intraocular pressure, causing decreased blood flow to the optic nerve and loss of vision. The conscious patient will complain of pain, proptosis, and decreasing vision. A CT scan of the orbit will demonstrate retrobulbar hemorrhage. An intraocular pressure >40 mm Hg is a consideration for emergency canthotomy. No matter what the intraocular pressure, if retrobulbar hematoma is suspected or confirmed, request emergency ophthalmology consultation. Ref: Walker R.A., Adhikari S. (2011). Chapter 236. Eye Emergencies. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The mode of toxicity of the following poison is:- and explain in detail? | Mode of toxicity of barium 1. Hypokalaemia and neuromuscular blockade: The rapid onset of the marked hypokalaemia so characteristic of barium intoxication is due to sequestering of potassium by muscle cells. Barium clogs the exit channel for potassium ions in skeletal muscle cells. 2. Barium stimulates striated, smooth, and cardiac muscle resulting in violent peristalsis, aerial hypeension and arrhythmias. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following drugs can lead to SLE like reaction except? and explain in detail? | Ans. b. Penicilline |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following muscles of pollex are supplied by median nerve, EXCEPT? and explain in detail? | Pollex means Thumb, which means strong in latin. There are four sho muscles of thumb (pollex), they are abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis and adductor pollicis. The first three of these muscles form the thenar eminence. All these muscles are supplied by median nerve except for adductor pollicis which is innervated by ulnar nerve. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A multgravida 4 kg fetus is in labour since 15 hours and has 5cm dilation of cervix for last 8 hours. What is the fuher management of this patient ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is With reference to varicocele, which one of the following is not true of it ? and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following are having lipid envelope except? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Enterovirus |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a rape indence occurred in child of 5yrs the hymen is and explain in detail? | ref : narayana reddy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is ADPKD pt taking TOLVAPTAN complaining of symptoms of abdomen pain and loose stools Which of these is the likely cause and explain in detail? | ref : harissons 21st ed |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is true statement about golgi tendon organ is and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Incubation period of salmonella in food poisoning and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include the following except: and explain in detail? | Biotransformation reactions can be classified into:
Nonsynthetic/Phase 1/Functionalization reactions:
A functional group (- OH, -COOH, -CHO, H2, - SH) is generated or exposed- metabolite may be active or inactive.
Synthetic / Conjugation / Phase lI reactions:
An endogenous radical is conjugated to the drug- metabolite is mostly inactive; except few drugs, e.g. glucuronide conjugate of morphine and sulfate conjugate of minoxidil are active.
Certain drugs already have functional groups and are directly conjugated, while others undergo a phase I reaction first followed by a phase II reaction. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not seen in MVP? and explain in detail? | Mitral Valve Prolapse TIA occur in MVP due to endothelial disruption-Cerebral emboli. IE occurs in MVP with Mitral regurgitation PVC and PSVT can occur due to stress on papillary muscles and myocardium. Defect in type III collagen has been incriminated in MVP |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In Emergency contraception which progesteron is used - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Levonorgestrol Postcoital (emergency) pills a) Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinyl estradiol 0.1 mg --> within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and repeated after 12 hours - Yuzpe method. b) Levonorgestrel alone 0.75 mg taken twice with 12 hour gap within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse --> method of choice for emergency contraception. c) Mifepristone 600 mg single dose within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. d) Other methods:- progesterone only pill (mini pills), IUD inseion, High dose estrogens. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Coical mastoidectomy in indicated in: and explain in detail? | Schwaz operation is another name for coical/sample mastoidectomy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Contraction of muscle can be caused by - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Release of acetylcholine o The process by which excitation (depolarization) of muscle fiber initiates its contraction is known as excitation contraction coupling.o The skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by A-a motor neuron.o When A-a motor neuron is stimulated, it carries the impulse (action potential) to neuromuscular junction where release of acetylcholineQ from presynaptic vesicle occurs. Acetylcholine binds to specific receptors (NmnicotinicQ) on motor-end plate (post-synaptic membrane).o This results in production of end-plate potential. If end-plate potential depolarizes the motor-end plate to firing (threshold) level, action potential is produced.o Once the Ca2+ concentration outside the reticulum has been lowered sufficiently, chemical interaction between myosin and actin ceases and the muscle relaxes,o This is due to reuptake of Ca2+ by sarcoplasmic reticulum,o Thus during relaxation :- Cytoplasmic concentration of Ca^ decreases.Sarcoplasmic reticulum concentration of Ca"2 increases.About option 'a'o Ca2+(ion) does not move out of cytoplasm (i.e. extracellular). Ca"2is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum.Mechanism of muscle contractiono The Ca+2 released from the terminal cisterns bind with troponin C and this triggers further steps in muscle contraction(AI 08) Ca+2- Troponin - C complex induces changes in troponin I and Troponin-T, which in turn brings about a lateral shift of tropomyosin awray from active sites of actin. As a result, the binding sites (active sites) on the actin filament are exposed.o ATP binds to myosin and myosin splits this ATP into ADP due to its ATPase activity. The energy released activates the myosin and the activated myosin head binds to active sites of actin filament, i.e.. Cross-bridging of myosin with actin. This cross-bridging immediately produces bending (flexion) of myosin head from 90deg to 45deg. Bending of myosin head produces "power stroke' that causes sliding of actin on myosin and muscle contraction,o As the myosin head flexes to 45,:' (during power stroke), the ADP present on it is cast off making way for a fresh molecule of ATP. When fresh ATP binds to myosin ATPase, the myosin head detaches from actin and the cross-bridge repeats all over-again till the contraction is complete - So, this is called cross-bridge cycle.o During contraction: -Z lines come closerQ thereby shortenining sarcomereH-band disappearsQ.Width of I band decreasesQ.Width of A band is unchaged.Discharge in motor neuron|Release of acetylcholine at NM junction from presynaptic vesicles|Binding of acetylcholine to nicotinic Ach receptors|Opening of Na+ channels in Motor end plate|Generation of end plate potential|Generation of action potential or sarcolemma adjacent to NM junction|Spread of AP muscle fibers in both direction|Inward spread of depolarization along T-tubules|Interaction of dihydropyridien receptor and Ryanodine receptor|Release of Ca+2 ions from terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum through Ryanodine receptor channels|Increased cytoplasmic (sarcoplasmic) Ca+2 concentration|Binding of Troponic C and Ca++|Lateral movement of tropomyosin with uncovering of active sites of actin|Cross-linkage of myosin with actin and muscle contractionMechanism of relaxationo Relaxation is due to removal of calcium ions from sarcoplasm into terminal cisterns by active transport (Ca+2 ATPase). Due to this calcium pump (Ca+2 ATPase) the concentration of Ca+2 ions in terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum is very high and very low in sarcoplasmQCa+2 pumped back into terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum by Ca+2 ATPase|Release of Ca+2 from troponin|Tropomyosin covering active sites of actin|Cessation of interaction between myosin and actin with resultant muscle relaxation |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is seen in apoptosis ? and explain in detail? | Councilman bodies are apoptotic bodies seen in acute vital hepatitis. |
Subsets and Splits