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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Weakness of both abduction & adduction occurs in and explain in detail? | C i.e. Duane retraction syndrome type 3 Duane retraction syndrome is characterized by limited/restricted/weakened/absent abduction (type 1) or adduction (type 2) or both (type 3) "BDB = aBduction, aDDuction, Both". Congental Cranial Dysinnervation Disorders (CCDD) Strabismus Fixus Neuromuscular disorders d/ t developmental errors in innervations of ocular & Both eyes are fixed by fibrous tightening facial muscles. It includes Duane syndrome, Mobius syndrome, congenital fibrosis of MR (convergent SF) or LR (divergent of extraocular muscles, Marcus Gunn jaw winking syndrome, congenital ptosis / SF) facial palsy. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disease that results from defects in: and explain in detail? | Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disease that results from acquired mutations in the phosphatidylinositol glycan complementation group A gene (PIGA), an enzyme that is essential for the synthesis of ceain cell surface proteins. Proteins are anchored into the lipid bilayer in two ways. Most have a hydrophobic region that spans the cell membrane; these are called transmembrane proteins. The others are attached to the cell membrane through a covalent linkage to a specialized phospholipid called glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI). In PNH, these GPI-linked proteins are deficient because of somatic mutations that inactivate PIGA. Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 14. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency and explain in detail? | Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency is a rare metabolic disorder that prevents the body from converting certain fats called long-chain fatty acids into energy, particularly during periods without food. It is caused by a mutation in CPT1A on chromosome 11.Carnitine, a natural substance acquired mostly through the diet, is used by cells to process fats and produce energy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are extracranial complications of CSOM except? and explain in detail? | Ans: c (Perisinus abscess) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, 109; 4th ed, p. 77All the given abscess are extracranial location except perisinus abscess, which is located in relation to lateral sinus, an intracranial structure.Perisinus abscess: Abscess formed in relation to outer dural wall (sigmoid sinus/lateral sinus). Bony dural plate may remain intactOutcomes or It may be destroyed by coalescent bone erosion & cholesteatomaComplications of CSOMExtracranialIntracranialMastoiditisExtradural abscessPetrositisSubdural abscessLabrynthitisBrain abscessFacial nerve paralysisMeningitis Lateral sinus thrombosis Otitic hydrocephalausAbscess seen in relation to mastoid1. Post auricular abscess - commonest abscess over mastoid2. Zygomatic abscess3. Bezold abscess-following a/c coalescent mastoiditis when pus breaks through the thin medial side of tip of mastoid.4. Meatal abscess (Luc abscess) -Pus breaks through the bony wall between antrum and external osseous meatus.5. Citellis abscess-Behind the mastoid (Remember post auricular abscess is formed over the mastoid)6. Parapharyngeal abscess & retropharyngeal abscesses. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of these amino acids will migrate slowest to the anode end at the physiological pH? and explain in detail? | At physiological pH basic aminoacid (positive charged a.a) will move slowest towards anode (positively charged electrode).Basic amino acids are: Arginine (Most basic), Lysine and Histidine (Weakly basic) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine in: and explain in detail? | Comparison of ergot derivatives and Oxytocin |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Antral obstruction with vomitting is Not Characterised by - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Erythema multiforme minor and explain in detail? | Erythema multiforme is usually a reaction of the skin and mucous membranes that occurs suddenly. It appears as a symmetrical rash and may include the mucous membrane lesions. This means that the body is sensitive to something that causes the skin and mucous membranes to react |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Study done on a group of patients showed coefficient of variance for BP and serum creatinine to be 20% & 15% respectively. Inference is that: and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Variation in BP is more than in serum creatinine. Coefficient of Variance (CV) is a tool tocompare variability of two different characteristics (eg. BP, serum creatinine, height weight etc.) in the same group of subjects orcompare variability of the same character in two or more different groups.Thus it is a measure used to compare relative variability.For example, coefficient of variance measureswhether weight varies more than height in a group of studentwhether weight varies more in girls of boys.Thus in the above question - variability is more in BP than in serum creatinine value.* Since coefficient of variance is a ratio, it has no units of measurement (<dimensionless). It can be used to compare variability irrespective of the units of measurement used in two or more different group.For example - it can compare variability if height measures as cm in one group & inches in another group. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are TNF alpha inhibitors except? and explain in detail? | TNF alpha inhibitors include:* Adalimumab* Ceolizumab* Etanercept* Infliximab* Golimumab Daclizumab is a monoclonal antibody against CD 25 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Compared to the inter tubular dentin, peritubular
dentin is characterized by which of the following? and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Treatment of jaundice in third trimester ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is not primary amenorrhea? and explain in detail? | Ans. is a, i.e. Sheehan's syndromeRef: Shaw 14th/ed, p256-257* Kallmann's sydnrome is due to hypothalamic dysfunction characterized by a deficiency of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) causing a hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This is associated with anosmia. It can occasionally be associated with optic problems, such as color blindness or optic atrophy, nerve deafness, cleft palate, cryptorchidism, renal agenesis, and mirror movement disorder.* MRKH syndrome, also known as Mullerian agenesis is due to anatomical absence of uterus. This is the second most common cause of primary amenorrhea.* Turner's syndrome is a type of gonadal dysgenesis and is overall the most common cause of primary amenorhea* Sheehan's syndrome is postpartum pituitary necrosis. It leads to secondary amenorrhea and not primary amenorrhea. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following statements are true regarding warfarin toxicity (skin necrosis) except: and explain in detail? | Ans. (B) Most common sites are toes and tips of fingers(Ref: Harrison 18/e p433)Common sites of warfarin-induced skin necrosis are breasts, thighs and buttocks. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A child was admitted to the hospital with H.influenza meningitis .cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because? and explain in detail? | Cefotaxime is injectable 3rd generation cephalosporin whereas ampicillin is oral pencillin.therfore,ampicillin must be having higher oral bioavailability as compared to cefotaxime. All beta lactam are bactericidal drugs. Resistance to most starins of H.influenza occurs due to production of beta lactamases.therefore ampicillin is not effective in many patients.now a third generation cephalosporin likr cefotaxime or amoxicillin-clavulinic acid combination is prefered amoung beta lactams.another highly effective drug for H.influenza is azithromycin.(ref.harrison 19th/ep1011 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Section 498 of IPC describes - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Punishment for cruelty by husband towards wife Low prescribing punishment for causing cruelty to a married women (Sec. 498A, IPC)* Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 498A, IPC for causing cruelty to a married woman. Cruelty is defined as any willful conduct which drives the woman to commit suicide or grave physical or mental injury to her or harassment of the women with a view to coerce (intimidate) her for dowry. Punishment includes imprisonment which may extend upto 3 years and fine. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Bone does not present at bih is and explain in detail? | *Malleus and incus - derived from the dorsal end of Meckel&;s cailage *Stapes - from the dorsal end of the cailage of the second pharyngeal arch. *The ear ossicles ossify fully in the 4th month of IUL - 1st bones in the body to do so. *The mastoid process is not present at bih and stas developing at end of the first year and reaches its adult size at pubey. *Mastoid antrum is an air-filled sinus within petrous pa of temporal bone. Development of the mastoid air cell system doesn't occur until after bih. Reference: I B Singh&;s Embryology, 10th edition, pg 368 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A infant on top feeding develops distension of abdomen & bleeding per rectum. He recently recovered from acute upper respiratory tract infection. What is probable diagnosis: and explain in detail? | A (Necrotising enterocollitis) IntussusceptionNelson 18th/1569-70Correlation with prior or concurrent respiratory adenovirus (type C) infection has been noted & the condition may complicates otitis media,gastroenteritis. Henoch-schonlein purpura or upper respiratory tract infection -Nelson 18th/ 1569It is postulated that gastrointestinal infection or the introduction of new food protein result in swollen peyer pateches in the terminal ileum & which lead to mucosal prolapse of the ileum into the colon, thus causing an intussusception.Stools of normal appearance may be evacuated in the first few hours of symptoms. After this time, fecal excretions are small or more often do not occur & little or no flatus is passed. Blood is generally passed in the 1st 12 hr, but at times not for 1-2 days, & infrequently not at all; 60% of infants pass a stool containing red blood & mucus, the currant jelly stool.The presence of bloody mucus on the finger as it is withdrawn after rectal examination supports the diagnosis of intussusception.Necrotising Enterocolitis (NEC): Nelson 18th/755The onset of NEC usually occur in the 1st 2wk of life but can be as late as 3 month of age.The first signs of impending disease may be nonspecific including lethargy & temperature instability or related to gastro intestinal pathology such as abdominal distention & gastric retention. Obvious bloody stools are seen in 25% of patient.Almost all patients of NEC are artificially fed prior to the onset of illness. Breast milk is protective. (O.P. Ghai 6th/164)Mucosal injury in intestine is attributed to ischemic damage due to fetal distress, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory'distress syndrome, hypothermia etc.Meckel's Diverticulum (Love & Bailey 25th/83)A meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of the vitelline duct that is located about 60 cm proximal to the ileocaecal valve & is present in about 2% of individual.It may cause peptic ulceration & profuse (relatively painless) dark red rectal bleeding.This disease has no association with respiratory infection or top feeding.Volvulus [Nelson 18th/ 1557)Gastric volvulus is a triad of sudden onset of severe epigastric pain intractable rectching with emesis & inability to pass a tube into the stomach.The clinical presentation of gastric volvulus is non specific & suggest high intestinal obstruction. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Type I MEN involves all except- and explain in detail? | MEN type 1 (MEN 1), which is also referred to as Wermer's syndrome, is characterized by the triad of tumors involving the parathyroids, pancreatic islets (gastrinomas, insulinomas, nonfunctioning and PPoma, glucagonoma, VIPoma) and anterior pituitary (prolactinoma, somatotrophinoma, coicotropinoma, nonfunctioning). Reference : page 2335-36 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a standard Electrocardiogram, an augmented limb lead measures the electrical potential difference between and explain in detail? | Augmented limb leads are recordings between one limb and the other two limbs Augmented limb leads, designated by the letter a (aVR, aVL, aVF), are generally used Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:495 aVR: b/w right arm (+electrode)and left arm+left leg(-electrode) aVL: b/w the left arm(+electrodes) and right arm+left leg(-electrode) aVF: b/w the left foot (+electrode)and right arm+left arm(-electrode) Vector of augmented limb lead=3/2 vector of unaugmented limb lead. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Epidemic typhus is transmitted by - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Louse DiseaseAgentInsect vectorMammalian reservoir1.Typhus group a. Epidemic typhusR. prowazekiiLouseHumans b. Murine typhus (Endemic typhus)R. typhiFleaRodents c. Scrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMiteRodents2.Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhusR. conoriiTickRodents, dogs b. Rocky mountain spotted feverR. rickettsiiTickRodents, dogs c. Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice3.Others a. Q feverC. burnetiiNilCattle, sheep, goats. b. Trench feverRocholimaca quintanaLouseHumans |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Bloom Richardson grading - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carcinoma breasto Bloom Richardson Grading and its variants are used to grade breast cancers. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In sickle cell anemia replacement is: and explain in detail? | B i.e. Glu by val in b6 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Neuromuscular disorder is related to which type of lung cancer ? and explain in detail? | Answer- B. Squamous cell carcinomaMyasthenia- Bronchogenic CaCerebellar degneration- Small cell Ca of lungLambe- Eaton Syndrome- Small cell Ca of lungPeripheral neuropathy- Small cell Ca of lungDermatomyositis/ Polymyositis- Small cell Ca of lungStiffman Syndrome- GIT cancers, Breast cancer, Ovarian cancer |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The kinetic energy of the body is least in one of the following phases of walking cycle; and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e. MidstanceRef.: Gray's 38th/e p 898 & 899According to Gray's- "In walking each foot is on the ground (stance phase) for about 60% of the stride and off (swing phase) for about 40%. Thus single support phases (one foot on the ground) alternate with double support phases (two foot)."Gray's further states- "The speed and so the kinetic energy of the body passes through a maximum in each double-support phase and a minimum in each single support phase."Here are various phases of waling cycle:Double Support phases of the walking - Heel Strike cycle includes - - Foot flatToe flatSingle limb support phases of the - Mid stance walking cycle includes - - Heel offMid swingSo the answer is obvious now because the only single limb support phase in the question is mid stance. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is ATP is consumed at which step of glycolysis and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is HLA marker for Gluten sensitive enteropathy ? and explain in detail? | Gluten sensitive enteropathy ( celiac disease ) has a strong association with HLA DQ2 and DQ8 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about stem cells- and explain in detail? | a stem cell is a cell with a unique capacity to produce unaltered daughter cells (self-renewal) and to generate specialized cell types (potency). Stem cells are characterized by two impoant propeies: self-renewal capacity and asymmetric replication As mature cells die, the tissue is replenished by the differentiation of cells generated from stem cells. In human embryo in about 3rd week of development stem cells appear in the yolk sac. ref robbins basic pathology 9th ed page 60 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mechanism of action of propylthiouracil in hyperthyroidism is: and explain in detail? | Propylthiouracil, carbimazole and methimazole act by inhibiting the enzyme, thyroid peroxidase. It catalyses:
Oxidation of iodine
Organification
Coupling |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is If there are 4 nucleotides instead of 3 in codon, how many amino acids may be formed ? and explain in detail? | Formula for calculating no. of codons = (4)n
n = no. of nucleotides that constitute codon.
e.g. if n = 2; no. of codons = (4)2 = 16
if n = 3; no. of codons = (4)3 = 64
if n = 4; no. of codons = (4)4 = 256
so on |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Max. Hepatitis C virus transmission to foetus in pregnancy depends on - and explain in detail? | High levels of hepatitis C virus RNA indicates a higher chance of transmission to the fetus. REF:Textbook of microbiology, Ananthanarayan, and Paniker. Page no.:549 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which tooth is first to erupt in lower jaw is? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Central incisor First temporary tooth to appear (in primary dentition) is lower central incisors and last temporary tooth to erupt is 2nd molar.The sequence of eruption is lower central incisor > upper central incisor > upper lateral incisor > lower lateral incisor > 1st molar > Canine > 2nd molar.Therefore eurption of temporary teeth is completed by eruption of 2nd molar at 25 months (2 years). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 4 1/2- year-old girl always had to wear warm socks even is summer season. On physical examination, it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial and carotid pulse, a chest radiograph showed remarkable notching of ribs along with their lower borders. This was due to: and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e. coarctation of Aorta. Cold extremities, high B.P. in upper extremity with marked diminution of pulsations and B.P. in lower extremity is characteristic of Coarctation of Aorta.More facts about Coarctation of AortaMost patients are asymptomatic.Symptomatic patients usually present with foilwing features.Headache dizziness *Epistaxis*Cold extremities and weakness in legs *Claudication with exercise. *Hypertension in upper extremities with marked diminution of pulsation in lower extremities.Mid systolic or continuous murmur over anterior part of chest and back.*Enlarged and pulsatile collateral vessels in intercostal spaces anteriorly in axilla or posteriorly in interscapular area.Upper extremity is more developed than the lower extremity. *Remember that the Cardiac output responds normally to exercise.*Most common site* of Coarctation of Aorta is just distal to origin of left subclavian artery.If it arises above subclavian artery, blood pressure elevation is evident only in right arm.Bicuspid aortic valve* is the most common abnormality associated with coarctation of Aorta.Radiographynotching of inferior surface of ribs*indentation of aorta at site of coarctation and '3' sign* on para mediastinal shadow.Complications:cerebral aneurysmleft ventricular failure*infective endocarditis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 35 years male presents with a swelling in scrotum that is non tender and seperate from testes and on transillumination, chinese lantern pattern is seen diagnosis and explain in detail? | Answer- C. Epididymal cystCysts of the epididymis (multiloculated epididymal cyst, spermatocele) are not swrounded by fluid and for this reason are felt as swellings above, behind the testis, which is also easily palpable in this situation.Because of the septation, multiloculated epididlmal cysts have a characteristic 'Chinese lantern' aPPearance on transillumination. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Following instruments are used in and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 58-year-old man complains of an enlarged, pitted nose, and a facial rash that "flushes" in response to drinking hot liquids or alcohol. The rash is on both cheeks, and it is red and flushed in appearance, with some telangiectatica and small papules. (See Figure below) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail? | Rhinophyma is a complication of rosacea. It can be treated surgically by shaving off the excessive tissue with a scalpel, but regrowth occurs in time. There is very little evidence to support the association between alcoholism and rhinophyma. The other conditions do not cause flushing or blushing-type appearance. Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis have lesions that have white dry scales. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The injury to the marked area of skull will cause intracranial hemorrhage due to damage to which vessel and explain in detail? | The marked structure is Pterion. It is the 'H' shaped point where frontal, parietal,temporal and sphenoid bones meet togather. Middle meningeal Aery lies under this point and is vulnerable to damage leading to EDH. Intracranial hemorrhage Type Vessel involved Head CT Epidural Middle meningeal aery Lenticular shaped Subdural Bridging veins Crescent shaped Subarachnoid Rupture of aneurysms, aeriovenous malformation. Hyperdense material in subarachnoid space. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of the following microorganism: and explain in detail? | The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker in gram-positive than in gram-negative bacteria. Comparison of Cell Walls of Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Bacteria: Component Gram-Positive Cells Gram-Negative Cells Peptidoglycan Thicker; multilayer Thinner; single layer Teichoic acids Present Absent Lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin) Absent Present Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 2. Structure of Bacterial Cells. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Serial interval is: and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Gap between primary & secondary cases |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is a long acting insulin preparation? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Insulin detemir * Insulin detemir and insulin glargine are the long acting insulin preparations. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Children with apathy, general weakness, loosening of the skin, marasmic features also has X3B Xerophthalmia features. Eye finding will be and explain in detail? | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 470)X3A Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting less than a one-third corneal surfaceX3B corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting more than a one-third corneal surfaceXS corneal scar due to xerophthalmia XF Xerophthalmic fundus |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 16years old girl presents with rapid onset of hirsutism and amenorrhea . Best investigation is _____________ and explain in detail? | Testosterone estimation: Assays of testosterone are impoant in the diagnosis and management of a number of clinical conditions in females including precocious pubey, androgen-secreting tumors, and polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) . There are several limitations to their use, and there is currently no standardized assay in the United States. Moreover, most testosterone assays have poor sensitivity and accuracy in the female ranges (normal range, 20-60 ng/dl), which, even when elevated in conditions such as PCOS, tend to be well below normal male ranges (300-1000 ng/dl) Circulating levels in females vary according to reproductive maturity, phase of the menstrual cycle, time of day, and also feeding . There are no age and gender normal ranges, and in fact there is no testosterone standard on which to base an assay . Other steroids with similar configuration may cross-react with the antibody used in immunoassay. Measurement of total testosterone by mass spectrometry (MS) has been recommended as a possible solution to these problems. This is usually performed after extraction and purification by chromatography and is thought to be highly accurate, although gas chromatography (GC) (which is more difficult and costly) appears to be more precise than liquid chromatography (LC) Ref Dutta 4/e p 524 ; speroff 7/e p 502- 511 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a syphilis patient, site which does not help in isolation of organism:- and explain in detail? | T. pallidum is very difficult to demonstrate in Gumma (Teiary syphilis). Infectivity of a patient to the sexual paner is maximum during primary, secondary and early latent stage. During these stages spirochetes are abundant in the lesions. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Complete denture teeth are in edge to edge contact in centric occlusion. What should be done? and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is . What is the Neutrophil count for moderate neutropenia ? and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following local anaesthetic should not be alkalinized with soda bicarbonate and explain in detail? | Local anaesthetic drug if dissociated –it wont act on sodium channel.
So drug is kept undissociated by adding soda bicarbonate to maintain pka 7.7→ 8.2
But for bupivacaine soda bicarbonate is not used as it gets precipitated. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Giving commission to other doctor is and explain in detail? | Ans. a (Dichotomy). (Ref. Textbook of FMT by Parikh-5th ed. 558)Dichotomy is giving commission to the other doctor for favouring or referring the patient, recommending or procuring any patient for medical, surgical or other treatment (fee-sharing).Covering is a RMP protecting a non-medical person who practices medicine. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All except one are true about cocaine and explain in detail? | Cocaine being metabolisd by liver, does not produce PABA. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 50 people are suffering from cholera in a population of 5000. Out of 50 suffering from cholera, 10 died. But the total deaths are 50. What is the death rate? and explain in detail? | Death rate is calculated as the total number of deaths per 1000 population. Since 50 persons died in 5000 population, the death rate would be 10 per 1000 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about autism - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Stas before 2-3 years of age Autism o Autism is a neurologic disroder characterized by ? Qualitative impairment in social interaction Qualitative impairment in communication. Restricted repetitive and streotyped patterns of behaviour, interests, and activities. Onset of symptoms is usually before 3 years of age. 3-5 times more common in boys, but more severe when occurs in girls. o More common among low socio-economic groups. Clinical features Impairment in communication Impairment in social interaction Inability to concentrate Restricted repetitive and streotypes patterns of behaviour, interests and activities. Failure to acquire speech. Approximately 75% of children with autism are mentally retarded. Epilepsy develops in approximately one-fifth to one-third individuals. Half of autistic patients have abnormalties on EEG. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Reverse smoking causes and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) Carcinoma hard palateRef: K. Park 21sted. /357-58* In eastern coastal regions of Andhra Pradesh epidermoid carcinoma of hard palate is most common. It is linked with habit of reverse smoking of cigar (chutta), i.e., smoking with burning end inside the mouth. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A common cause of Primary hyperparathyroidism is- and explain in detail? | a single abnormal parathyroid gland is the cause in 80% of patients ( harre 17 pg 2380) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Gancyclovir is used intravitreallyfor treatment of? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., CMV retinitis Some drugs which are used intravitreally are :? 1) Bevacizumab : inhibits VEGF action; used in metastatic colorectal cancer; off label use as intravitreous injection to slow progression of neovascular macular degeneration. 2) Foscarnet : CMV retinitis. 3) Gancyclovir : CMV retinitis. 4) Ranibizumab : slow macular degeneration. 5) Pegaptanib : neovascular age related macular degeneration. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Belzutifan and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following may cause testicular atrophy except : and explain in detail? | Torsion testis : It is twisting of spermatic cord which typically results in obstruction of testicular venous drainage while leaving the aeries patent. If untreated this can lead to congestion, hemorrhage and testicular infarction, but this cannot cause atrophy of testis. Main causes of testicular atrophy :- Hypopituitarism Cryptorchidism Irradiation Liver cirrhosis Inflammatory orchitis Antiandrogens prolonged use as in treatment of carcinoma prostate. Persistent stimulation by high levels of the FSH may lead to exhaustion atrophy. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Humerus and explain in detail? | The humerus (; pl. humeri) is a long bone in the arm that runs from the shoulder to the elbow. It connects the scapula and the two bones of the lower arm, the radius and ulna, and consists of three sections. The humeral upper extremity consists of a rounded head, a narrow neck, and two short processes (tubercles, sometimes called tuberosities). The body is cylindrical in its upper portion, and more prismatic below. The lower extremity consists of 2 epicondyles, 2 processes (trochlea & capitulum), and 3 fossae (radial fossa, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa). As well as its true anatomical neck, the constriction below the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus is referred to as its surgical neck due to its tendency to fracture, thus often becoming the focus of surgeons.
Etymology
The word "humerus" is derived from Latin: humerus, umerus meaning upper arm, shoulder, and is linguistically related to Gothic ams shoulder and Greek ōmos.
Structure
Upper extremity
The upper or proximal extremity of the humerus consists of the bones large rounded head joined to the body by a constricted portion called the neck, and two eminences, the greater and lesser tubercles.
Head
The head (caput humeri), is nearly hemispherical in form. It is directed upward, medialward, and a little backward, and articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula to form the glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint). The circumference of its articular surface is slightly constricted and is termed the anatomical neck, in contradistinction to a constriction below the tubercles called the surgical neck which is frequently the seat of fracture. Fracture of the anatomical neck rarely occurs.
The diameter of the humeral head is generally larger in men than in women.
Anatomical neck
The anatomical neck (collum anatomicum) is obliquely directed, forming an obtuse angle with the body. It is best marked in the lower half of its circumference; in the upper half it is represented by a narrow groove separating the head from the tubercles. The line separating the head from the rest of the upper end is called the anatomical neck. It affords attachment to the articular capsule of the shoulder-joint, and is perforated by numerous vascular foramina. Fracture of the anatomical neck rarely occurs.The anatomical neck of the humerus is an indentation distal to the head of the humerus on which the articular capsule attaches.
Surgical neck
The surgical neck is a narrow area distal to the tubercles that is a common site of fracture. It makes contact with the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery.
Greater tubercle
The greater tubercle (tuberculum majus; greater tuberosity) is a large, posteriorly placed projection that is placed laterally. The greater tubercle is where supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor muscles are attached. The crest of the greater tubercle forms the lateral lip of the bicipital groove and is the site for insertion of pectoralis major.
The greater tubercle is just lateral to the anatomical neck. Its upper surface is rounded and marked by three flat impressions: the highest of these gives insertion to the supraspinatus muscle; the middle to the infraspinatus muscle; the lowest one, and the body of the bone for about 2.5 cm. below it, to the teres minor muscle. The lateral surface of the greater tubercle is convex, rough, and continuous with the lateral surface of the body.
Lesser tubercle
The lesser tubercle (tuberculum minus; lesser tuberosity) is smaller, anterolaterally placed to the head of the humerus. The lesser tubercle provides insertion to subscapularis muscle. Both these tubercles are found in the proximal part of the shaft. The crest of the lesser tubercle forms the medial lip of the bicipital groove and is the site for insertion of teres major and latissimus dorsi muscles.
The lesser tuberosity, is more prominent than the greater: it is situated in front, and is directed medialward and forward. Above and in front it presents an impression for the insertion of the tendon of the subscapularis muscle.
Bicipital groove
The tubercles are separated from each other by a deep groove, the bicipital groove (intertubercular groove; bicipital sulcus), which lodges the long tendon of the biceps brachii muscle and transmits a branch of the anterior humeral circumflex artery to the shoulder-joint. It runs obliquely downward, and ends near the junction of the upper with the middle third of the bone. In the fresh state its upper part is covered with a thin layer of cartilage, lined by a prolongation of the synovial membrane of the shoulder-joint; its lower portion gives insertion to the tendon of the latissimus dorsi muscle. It is deep and narrow above, and becomes shallow and a little broader as it descends. Its lips are called, respectively, the crests of the greater and lesser tubercles (bicipital ridges), and form the upper parts of the anterior and medial borders of the body of the bone.
Shaft
The body or shaft of the humerus is triangular to cylindrical in cut section and is compressed anteroposteriorly. It has 3 surfaces, namely:
Anterolateral surface: the area between the lateral border of the humerus to the line drawn as a continuation of the crest of the greater tubercle. The antero-lateral surface is directed lateralward above, where it is smooth, rounded, and covered by the deltoid muscle; forward and lateralward below, where it is slightly concave from above downward, and gives origin to part of the Brachialis. About the middle of this surface is a rough, rectangular elevation, the deltoid tuberosity for the insertion of the deltoid muscle; below this is the radial sulcus, directed obliquely from behind, forward, and downward, and transmitting the radial nerve and profunda artery.
Anteromedial surface: the area between the medial border of the humerus to the line drawn as a continuation of the crest of the greater tubercle. The antero-medial surface, less extensive than the antero-lateral, is directed medialward above, forward and medialward below; its upper part is narrow, and forms the floor of the intertubercular groove which gives insertion to the tendon of the latissimus dorsi muscle; its middle part is slightly rough for the attachment of some of the fibers of the tendon of insertion of the coracobrachialis muscle; its lower part is smooth, concave from above downward, and gives origin to the brachialis muscle.
Posterior surface: the area between the medial and lateral borders. The posterior surface appears somewhat twisted, so that its upper part is directed a little medialward, its lower part backward and a little lateralward. Nearly the whole of this surface is covered by the lateral and medial heads of the Triceps brachii, the former arising above, the latter below the radial sulcus.Its three borders are:
Anterior: the anterior border runs from the front of the greater tubercle above to the coronoid fossa below, separating the antero-medial from the antero-lateral surface. Its upper part is a prominent ridge, the crest of the greater tubercle; it serves for the insertion of the tendon of the pectoralis major muscle. About its center it forms the anterior boundary of the deltoid tuberosity, on which the deltoid muscle attaches; below, it is smooth and rounded, affording attachment to the brachialis muscle.
Lateral: the lateral border runs from the back part of the greater tubercle to the lateral epicondyle, and separates the anterolateral from the posterior surface. Its upper half is rounded and indistinctly marked, serving for the attachment of the lower part of the insertion of the teres minor muscle, and below this giving origin to the lateral head of the triceps brachii muscle; its center is traversed by a broad but shallow oblique depression, the spiral groove (musculospiral groove). The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove. Its lower part forms a prominent, rough margin, a little curved from backward, forward the lateral supracondylar ridge, which presents an anterior lip for the origin of the brachioradialis muscle above, and extensor carpi radialis longus muscle above, a posterior lip for the triceps brachii muscle, and an intermediate ridge for the attachment of the lateral intermuscular septum.
Medial: the medial border extends from the lesser tubercle to the medial epicondyle. Its upper third consists of a prominent ridge, the crest of the lesser tubercle, which gives insertion to the tendon of the teres major muscle. About its center is a slight impression for the insertion of the coracobrachialis muscle, and just below this is the entrance of the nutrient canal, directed downward; sometimes there is a second nutrient canal at the commencement of the radial sulcus. The inferior third of this border is raised into a slight ridge, the medial supracondylar ridge, which became very prominent below; it presents an anterior lip for the origins of the brachialis muscle and the pronator teres muscle, a posterior lip for the medial head of the triceps brachii muscle, and an intermediate ridge for the attachment of the medial intermuscular septum.
The Deltoid tuberosity is a roughened surface on the lateral surface of the shaft of the Humerus and acts as the site of insertion of deltoideus muscle. The posterorsuperior part of the shaft has a crest, beginning just below the surgical neck of the humerus and extends till the superior tip of the deltoid tuberosity. This is where the lateral head of triceps brachii is attached.
The radial sulcus, also known as the spiral groove is found on the posterior surface of the shaft and is a shallow oblique groove through which the radial nerve passes along with deep vessels. This is located posteroinferior to the deltoid tuberosity. The inferior boundary of the spiral groove is continuous distally with the lateral border of the shaft.
The nutrient foramen of the humerus is located in the anteromedial surface of the humerus. The nutrient arteries enter the humerus through this foramen.
Distal humerus
The distal or lower extremity of the humerus is flattened from before backward, and curved slightly forward; it ends below in a broad, articular surface, which is divided into two parts by a slight ridge. Projecting on either side are the lateral and medial epicondyles.
Articular surface
The articular surface extends a little lower than the epicondyles, and is curved slightly forward; its medial extremity occupies a lower level than the lateral. The lateral portion of this surface consists of a smooth, rounded eminence, named the capitulum of the humerus; it articulates with the cup-shaped depression on the head of the radius, and is limited to the front and lower part of the bone.
Fossae
Above the front part of the trochlea is a small depression, the coronoid fossa, which receives the coronoid process of the ulna during flexion of the forearm.
Above the back part of the trochlea is a deep triangular depression, the olecranon fossa, in which the summit of the olecranon is received in extension of the forearm.
The coronoid fossa is the medial hollow part on the anterior surface of the distal humerus. The coronoid fossa is smaller than the olecranon fossa and receives the coronoid process of the ulna during maximum flexion of the elbow.
Above the front part of the capitulum is a slight depression, the radial fossa, which receives the anterior border of the head of the radius, when the forearm is flexed.
These fossæ are separated from one another by a thin, transparent lamina of bone, which is sometimes perforated by a supratrochlear foramen; they are lined in the fresh state by the synovial membrane of the elbow-joint, and their margins afford attachment to the anterior and posterior ligaments of this articulation.
The Capitulum is a rounded eminence forming the lateral part of the distal humerus. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum.
The trochlea is spool-shaped medial portion of the distal humerus and articulates with the ulna.
Epicondyles
The epicondyles are continuous above with the supracondylar ridges.
The lateral epicondyle is a small, tuberculated eminence, curved a little forward, and giving attachment to the radial collateral ligament of the elbow-joint, and to a tendon common to the origin of the Supinator and some of the Extensor muscles.
The medial epicondyle, larger and more prominent than the lateral, is directed a little backward; it gives attachment to the ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow-joint, to the Pronator teres, and to a common tendon of origin of some of the Flexor muscles of the forearm; the ulnar nerve runs in a groove on the back of this epicondyle.
The Medial supracondylar crest forms the sharp medial border of the distal humerus continuing superiorly from the medial epicondyle. The Lateral Supracondylar crest forms the sharp lateral border of the distal humerus continuing superiorly from the lateral epicondyle.
Borders
The medial portion of the articular surface is named the trochlea, and presents a deep depression between two well-marked borders; it is convex from before backward, concave from side to side, and occupies the anterior, lower, and posterior parts of the extremity.
The lateral border separates it from the groove which articulates with the margin of the head of the radius.
The medial border is thicker, of greater length, and consequently more prominent, than the lateral.The grooved portion of the articular surface fits accurately within the semilunar notch of the ulna; it is broader and deeper on the posterior than on the anterior aspect of the bone, and is inclined obliquely downward and forward toward the medial side.
Articulations
At the shoulder, the head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid fossa of the scapula. More distally, at the elbow, the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the head of the radius, and the trochlea of the humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna.
Nerves
The axillary nerve is located at the proximal end, against the shoulder girdle. Dislocation of the humeruss glenohumeral joint has the potential to injure the axillary nerve or the axillary artery. Signs and symptoms of this dislocation include a loss of the normal shoulder contour and a palpable depression under the acromion.
The radial nerve follows the humerus closely. At the midshaft of the humerus, the radial nerve travels from the posterior to the anterior aspect of the bone in the spiral groove. A fracture of the humerus in this region can result in radial nerve injury.
The ulnar nerve lies at the distal end of the humerus near the elbow. When struck, it can cause a distinct tingling sensation, and sometimes a significant amount of pain. It is sometimes popularly referred to as the funny bone, possibly due to this sensation (a "funny" feeling), as well as the fact that the bones name is a homophone of humorous. It lies posterior to the medial epicondyle, and is easily damaged in elbow injuries.
Function
Muscular attachment
The deltoid originates on the lateral third of the clavicle, acromion and the crest of the spine of the scapula. It is inserted on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus and has several actions including abduction, extension, and circumduction of the shoulder. The supraspinatus also originates on the spine of the scapula. It inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus, and assists in abduction of the shoulder.
The pectoralis major, teres major, and latissimus dorsi insert at the intertubercular groove of the humerus. They work to adduct and medially, or internally, rotate the humerus.
The infraspinatus and teres minor insert on the greater tubercle, and work to laterally, or externally, rotate the humerus. In contrast, the subscapularis muscle inserts onto the lesser tubercle and works to medially, or internally, rotate the humerus.
The biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis (which attaches distally) act to flex the elbow. (The biceps do not attach to the humerus.) The triceps brachii and anconeus extend the elbow, and attach to the posterior side of the humerus.
The four muscles of supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis form a musculo-ligamentous girdle called the rotator cuff. This cuff stabilizes the very mobile but inherently unstable glenohumeral joint. The other muscles are used as counterbalances for the actions of lifting/pulling and pressing/pushing.
Other animals
Primitive fossils of amphibians had little, if any, shaft connecting the upper and lower extremities, making their limbs very short |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Definition of Blindness when visual acuity is less than ___________ in better eye according to NPCB and WHO respectively and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 65 year man presented with an episode of syncope. He said he felf dizzy during defection and noticed gross bleeding in the pan. Fecal occult blood test done cancer was negative. There is no history of recent weight loss. What is the likely colonoscopic finding? and explain in detail? | .Sigmoid diveiculitis in elderly with loop lying towards right side may present as pain in the right iliac fossa. Clinical Features of colonic carcinoma includes, * Occurs usually after 50 years. Familial type can present in younger age group. Common in males (M : F :: 3 : 2). * Commonly present with loss of appetite and weight, anaemia, abdominal discomfo and mass per abdomen. ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 836 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Soap bubble appearance is seen in and explain in detail? | (Giant cell tumour) (181 -Apley's 8th)* Soap-bubble appearance due to ridging of the surrounding bone in Giant cell tumourX-Ray Appearance* Osteosarcoma - Sunray appearance**, Codman's triangle tumour new bone* Ewing's tumour - Onion - peel appearance*** Chondrosarcoma - Mottled calcification within the tumour* Simple Bone cyst - Well defined lobulated, radio lucent zone in the metaphysis or diaphysis of bone* Osteo chondroma - Large lesion shows "Cauliflower " appearance and degeneration and calcification in the centre of the cartilage cap |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Endodermal sinus tumour is assocaited with and explain in detail? | Schiller duval body [Ref. Robbins 7th/e p 11011 Endodermal sinus tumour (yolk sac tumour) This tumour is rare but it is the second most common malignant tumour of germ cell origin. It is thought to be derived from differentiation of malignant germ cells towards extraembryonic yolk sac structure. Similar to the yolk sac the tumour is rich is a feto protein and a1 antitrypsin. The characteristic histological feature of yolk sal tumour is schiller duval body. Schiller Duval body is a glomerulus like structure composed of central blood vessel enveloped by germ cells within a space lined by germ cells. Also know Call Exner body --> Granulosa cell tumour Reinke's crystal ---> Hilus cell tumour Signet ring cells Krukenberg tumour Hobnail cells Clear cell carcinoma Psammoma bodies -4 Papillary serous cystadenoma of ovary. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cherry red spot is seen in the following except ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is `d' i.e., Multiple aromatase deficiency |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which one of the following is of most serious prognostic significance in a patient of essential hypeension- and explain in detail? | In more than 95% of cases, a specific underlying cause of hypeension cannot be found. Such patients are said to have essential hypeension. The pathogenesis of this is not clearly understood. Many factors may contribute to its development, including renal dysfunction, resistance vessel tone, endothelial dysfunction, autonomic tone, insulin resistance and neurohumoral factors.~80-95% of hypeensive patients are diagnosed as having "essential" hypeension (also referred to as primary or idiopathic hypeension).Essential hypeension tends to be familial and is likely to be the consequence of an interaction between environmental and genetic factors. The prevalence of essential hypeension increases with age, and individuals with relatively high blood pressures at younger ages are at increased risk for the subsequent development of hypeension. It is likely that essential hypeension represents a spectrum disorders with different underlying pathophysiologies. In the majority of patients with established hypeension, peripheral resistance is increased and cardiac output is normal or decreased; however, in younger patients with mild or labile hypeension, cardiac output may be increased and peripheral resistance may be normal. When plasma renin activity (PRA) is plotted against 24-h sodium excretion, ~10-15% of hypeensive patients have high PRA .Inconsistent associations between plasma aldosterone and blood pressure have been described in patients with essential hypeension.papilledema with renal failure is the most serious prognostic feature of essential hypeension. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2450 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Reticulocytosis is not seen in: September 2005 and explain in detail? | Ans. A: Chronic renal failure anemiaReticulocytes are immature RBCs, typically composing about 1% of the red cells in the human body. Like mature red blood cells, reticulocytes do not have a cell nucleus.They are called reticulocytes because of a reticular (mesh-like) network of ribososmal DNAWhen there is an increased production of red blood cells to overcome chronic or severe loss of mature red blood cells, such as in haemolytic anemia, there is markedly high number and percentage of reticulocytes.Abnormally low numbers of reticulocytes can be attributed to;ChemotherapyAplastic anemiaPernicious anemiaBone marrow malignanciesOther causes of anaemia |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Incubation period of pertussis is – and explain in detail? | Pertussis
After an incubation period of about 1-2 weeks, the disease takes a protracted course comprising three stages, - the catarrhal, paroxysmal and Convalescent - each lasting approximately two weeks.
B. pertussis infection
↓
Incubation period (1-2 weeks)
↓
Catarrhal stage (1-2 weeks)
↓
Paroxysmal stage (2-4 weeks)
↓
Convalescent stage (1-2 weeks but may last 1 to 3 months)
Remember
Catarrhal stage is the stage of maximum infectivity.
Maximum complications occur in Paroxysmal stage. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he staed forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis? and explain in detail? | C i.e. Cognitive dysfunction Post cardiac surgery delirium (similar to ICU syndrome) is fairly common disorder typically occurring after 24-48 hours of surgeryQ in fearful patients. It presents as cognitive dysfunction affecting information processin intellect, concentration retention, visuo-spatial organization and memoryQ. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Commonest cause of death in peptic ulcer patients is ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hemorrhage |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Pediatirc airway differ from adult ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Large tongue Airway : Pediatric Vs Adult Obligate nasal breather Large tongue Larynx & trachea are funnel shaped Larynx located higher (C4) Vs C6 in adult. Narrowest pa is cricoid (glottis in adults) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Not present in DNA ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uracil Two types of bases are found in nucleotides : (i) purines and (ii) pyrimidines. Purines : Two major purine bases found both in DNAs as well as RNAs are (i) adenine (A) and (ii) guanine (G). Pyrimidines : Three major pyrimidine bases are (i) cytosine (C), (ii) Uracil (U) and (iii) Thymine (T). Cytosine and uracil are found in RNAs and cytosine and thymine are found in DNAs. Uracil is not found in DNAs e and thymine is not found in RNAs. Different major bases with their corresponding nucleosides and nucleotides Base Ribonucleoside Ribonucleotide Adenine (A) Adenosine Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) Guanine (G) Guanosine Guanosine monophosphate (GMP) Uracil (U) Uridine Uridine monophosphate (UMP) Cytosine (C) Cytidine Cytidine (Monophosphate) (CMP) Base Deoxyribonucleoside Deoxyribonucleotide Adenine Deoxyadenosine Deoxyadenosine monophosphate (dAMP) Guanine Deoxyguanosine Deoxyguanosine monphosphate (dGMP) Cytosine Deoxycytidine Deoxycytidine monophosphate (dCMP) Thymine Deoxythymidine Deoxythymidine monophosphate (dCMP) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except - and explain in detail? | Femoral canal (Femoral sheath)
- Medial compartment
Opening- Femoral ring
Content- Lymph nodes of Cloquet/Rosenmuller, Lymphatics, fat, areolar tissue.
- Intermedius compartment
Content- femoral vein
- Lateral compartment
Content- femoral artery, femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
Femoral ring Formation
- Anterior - Inguinal ligament
- Medial - Lacunar ligament
- Posterior - Pectineus with fascia
- Lateral - septum separating it from femoral vein |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Normal commensal in female genital tract - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tetracyclines can be given in all forms except : and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Hemiplegia is most commonly due to Occlusion Of? and explain in detail? | The MCA is the most common site for the occurrence of ischemic stroke. Contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory loss of the face, upper and lower extremities is the most common presentation of MCA syndrome Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2234 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Criteria for a disease fit for screening including - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o The disease to be screened should fulfil the following criteria before it is considered suitable for screening.1. The condition sougth should be an important health problem (in general, prevalence should be high).2. There should be a recognizable latent or early asymptomatic stage.3. The natural history of the contition, including development from latent to declared disease, should be adequately understood (so that we can know at what stage the process ceases to be reversible).4. There is a test that can detect the disease prior to the onset of signs and symptoms.5. Facilities should be available for confirmation of the diagnosis.6. There is an effective treatment.7. There should be an agreed-on policy concerning whom to treat as patients (e.g., lower ranges of blood pressure; border-line diabetes).8. There is good evidence that early detection and treatment reduces morbidity and mortality.9. The expected benefits (e.g., the number of lives saved) of early detection exceed the risks and costs. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In the immediate post operative period, the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following except and explain in detail? | Causes of Acute Post-operative shoness of breath MI and hea failure Chest infections Pulmonary embolism Exacerbation of asthma or COPD In mild hypovolemia, the systemic blood circulation is maintained by shifting the blood from splanchnic circulation to the systemic circulation Healthy volunteers could have 10-15% of their blood volume removed with no significant change in hea rate, BP, cardiac output or blood flow to the splanchnic bed Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 292 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Not true regarding M cells and explain in detail? | Color contrast is seen by P cells and not M Cells PARALLEL PROCESSING M CELL P CELL COLOR CONTRAST NO YES LUMINANCE CONTRAST HIGHER LOWER SIZE LARGER CELLS SMALLER CELLS SPATIAL FREQUENCY LOWER HIGHER TEMPORAL FREQUENCY HIGHER LOWER |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tear drop bladder is seen in and explain in detail? | In case of extra peritoneal rupture of bladder a cystogram shows extravasation of contrast material into the pelvis around the base of bladder. The characteristic TEAR DROP' deformity represents bladder compression by a large pelvic haematoma. Ref : Schwaz 7/e p1803 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Drug of choice for tonic-clonic seizures is ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sodium valproate |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mammography uses and explain in detail? | Answer: b.There are two types of x-radiation produced when electrons hit the x-ray tube anode.Bremsstrahlung is the most common and is in the form of a broad continuous photon energy spectrum with a maximum energy determined by the selected KV value.Characteristic radiation is produced under certain conditions and is confined to just a few photon energies.The molybdenum filter attenuates and blocks much of the bremsstrahlung spectrum above the energy of 20 keV.This results in the spectrum that is most often used in mammography, produced with the "moly/moly" anode/filter combination. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Risk factors for Placenta Accreta include all of the following, except: and explain in detail? | In placenta accreta, there is a failure of normal decidua to form which causes the placenta to be directly anchored to the myometrium either paially or completely without any intervening decidua. Placenta prae in the present pregnancy is a risk factor for placenta accreta but previous placenta prae is not a risk factor. Ref: Manual of Pathology of the Human Placenta By Rebecca N. Baergen, Ku Benirschke; 2nd edition, Pages 192-97; Dutta textbook of Obstetrics 6th edition, Pages 420-21 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis is present with: and explain in detail? | - Pt.'s with diabetes or immunocompromised are at risk of invasive Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis - The acidosis causes dissociation of iron from sequestering proteins in serum resulting in enhanced fungal survival & hyperglycemia contributes to risk of mucormycosis through its association with poorly characterised defect in phagocytic function. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Caries tetralogy by Newburn includes the fourth factor, which is: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Contraindication of IUCD : and explain in detail? | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. PID; Uterine malformation; and Previous caesarian Note : Some books mention diabetes as a contraindication for IUCD but according to Leon Speroff Cu containing IUCDs can be the ideal choice for women with diabetes especially if their is associated vascular disease. "No increase in adverse events has been observed with copper IUD use in women with either insulin dependant or non insulin dependant diabetes. Indeed, the IUCD can be an ideal choice for a woman with diabetes, especially if vascular disease is present." "IUCDs - They are the contraceptive method of choice in woman with either type I or Type II diabetes." |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Glyceryl trinitrate is given by sublingual route because of: and explain in detail? | Ans. (B) High hepatic first pass metabolism(Ref: KDT 8th/e p588)Main advantage of sublingual route of drug administration is that liver is bypassed and drugs with high first pass metabolism are absorbed directly into systemic circulation. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following factor increases gastric motility? and explain in detail? | Fats, carbohydrates, and acid in the duodenum inhibit gastric acid and pepsin secretion and gastric motility neural and hormonal mechanisms. The messenger involved is probably peptide YY. CCK has also been implicated as an inhibitor of gastric emptying. Hyperosmolality of the duodenal contents is sensed by "duodenal osmoreceptors" that initiate a decrease in gastric emptying, which is probably neural in origin. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 27. Gastrointestinal Motility. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Risperidone and explain in detail? | Risperidone, sold under the brand name Risperdal among others, is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is taken either by mouth or by injection (subcutaneous or intramuscular). The injectable versions are long-acting and last for 2–4 weeks.Common side effects include movement problems, sleepiness, dizziness, trouble seeing, constipation, and increased weight. Serious side effects may include the potentially permanent movement disorder tardive dyskinesia, as well as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, an increased risk of suicide, and high blood sugar levels. In older people with psychosis as a result of dementia, it may increase the risk of death. It is unknown if it is safe for use in pregnancy. Its mechanism of action is not entirely clear, but is believed to be related to its action as a dopamine and serotonin antagonist.Study of risperidone began in the late 1980s and it was approved for sale in the United States in 1993. It is on the World Health Organizations List of Essential Medicines. It is available as a generic medication. In 2019, it was the 149th most commonly prescribed medication in the United States, with more than 4 million prescriptions.
Medical uses
Risperidone is mainly used for the treatment of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability associated with autism.
Schizophrenia
Risperidone is effective in treating psychogenic polydipsia and the acute exacerbations of schizophrenia.Studies evaluating the utility of risperidone by mouth for maintenance therapy have reached varying conclusions. A 2012 systematic review concluded that evidence is strong that risperidone is more effective than all first-generation antipsychotics other than haloperidol, but that evidence directly supporting its superiority to placebo is equivocal. A 2011 review concluded that risperidone is more effective in relapse prevention than other first- and second-generation antipsychotics with the exception of olanzapine and clozapine. A 2016 Cochrane review suggests that risperidone reduces the overall symptoms of schizophrenia, but firm conclusions are difficult to make due to very low-quality evidence. Data and information are scarce, poorly reported, and probably biased in favour of risperidone, with about half of the included trials developed by drug companies. The article raises concerns regarding the serious side effects of risperidone, such as parkinsonism. A 2011 Cochrane review compared risperidone with other atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine for schizophrenia:
Long-acting injectable formulations of antipsychotic drugs provide improved compliance with therapy and reduce relapse rates relative to oral formulations. The efficacy of risperidone long-acting injection appears to be similar to that of long acting injectable forms of first generation antipsychotics.
Bipolar disorder
Second-generation antipsychotics, including risperidone, are effective in the treatment of manic symptoms in acute manic or mixed exacerbations of bipolar disorder. In children and adolescents, risperidone may be more effective than lithium or divalproex, but has more metabolic side effects. As maintenance therapy, long-acting injectable risperidone is effective for the prevention of manic episodes but not depressive episodes. The long-acting injectable form of risperidone may be advantageous over long acting first generation antipsychotics, as it is better tolerated (fewer extrapyramidal effects) and because long acting injectable formulations of first generation antipsychotics may increase the risk of depression.
Autism
Compared to placebo, risperidone treatment reduces certain problematic behaviors in autistic children, including aggression toward others, self-injury, challenging behaviour, and rapid mood changes. The evidence for its efficacy appears to be greater than that for alternative pharmacological treatments. Weight gain is an important adverse effect. Some authors recommend limiting the use of risperidone and aripiprazole to those with the most challenging behavioral disturbances in order to minimize the risk of drug-induced adverse effects. Evidence for the efficacy of risperidone in autistic adolescents and young adults is less persuasive.
Dementia
While antipsychotic medications such as risperidone have a slight benefit in people with dementia, they have been linked to higher incidence of death and stroke. Because of this increased risk of death, treatment of dementia-related psychosis with risperidone is not FDA approved and carries a black box warning. However many other jurisdictions regularly use it to control severe aggression and psychosis in those with dementia when other non-pharmacological interventions have failed and their pharmaceutical regulators have approved its use in this population.
Other uses
Risperidone has shown promise in treating therapy-resistant obsessive-compulsive disorder, when serotonin reuptake inhibitors alone are not sufficient.Risperidone has proven to be effective in treatment with Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder especially in cases of aggression or with another mental condition.Risperidone has not demonstrated a benefit in the treatment of eating disorders or personality disorders, except for limited evidence in schizotypal personality disorder.
Forms
Available forms of risperidone include tablet, oral dissolving tablet, oral solution, and powder and solvent for suspension for injection.
Adverse effects
Common side effects include movement problems, sleepiness, dizziness, trouble seeing, constipation, and increased weight. About 9 to 20% of people gained more than 7% of the baseline weight depending on the dose. Serious side effects may include the potentially permanent movement disorder tardive dyskinesia, as well as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, an increased risk of suicide, and high blood sugar levels. In older people with psychosis as a result of dementia, it may increase the risk of death.While atypical antipsychotics appear to have a lower rate of movement problems as compared to typical antipsychotics, risperidone has a high risk of movement problems among the atypicals. Atypical antipsychotics, however, are associated with a greater amount of weight gain and other metabolic side effects.
Drug interactions
Carbamazepine and other enzyme inducers may reduce plasma levels of risperidone. If a person is taking both carbamazepine and risperidone, the dose of risperidone will likely need to be increased. The new dose should not be more than twice the patients original dose.
CYP2D6 inhibitors, such as SSRI medications, may increase plasma levels of risperidone and those medications.
Since risperidone can cause hypotension, its use should be monitored closely when a patient is also taking antihypertensive medicines to avoid severe low blood pressure.
Risperidone and its metabolite paliperidone are reduced in efficacy by P-glycoprotein inducers such as St Johns wort
Discontinuation
The British National Formulary recommends a gradual withdrawal when discontinuing antipsychotic treatment to avoid acute withdrawal syndrome or rapid relapse. Some have argued the additional somatic and psychiatric symptoms associated with dopaminergic super-sensitivity, including dyskinesia and acute psychosis, are common features of withdrawal in individuals treated with neuroleptics. This has led some to suggest the withdrawal process might itself be schizomimetic, producing schizophrenia-like symptoms even in previously healthy patients, indicating a possible pharmacological origin of mental illness in a yet unknown percentage of patients currently and previously treated with antipsychotics. This question is unresolved, and remains a highly controversial issue among professionals in the medical and mental health communities, as well as the public.
Dementia
Older people with dementia-related psychosis are at a higher risk of death.
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
Risperidone has been classified as a "qualitatively atypical" antipsychotic agent with a relatively low incidence of extrapyramidal side effects (when given at low doses) that has more pronounced serotonin antagonism than dopamine antagonism. Risperidone contains the functional groups of benzisoxazole and piperidine as part of its molecular structure. Although not a butyrophenone, it was developed with the structures of benperidol and ketanserin as a basis. It has actions at several 5-HT (serotonin) receptor subtypes. These are 5-HT2C, linked to weight gain, 5-HT2A, linked to its antipsychotic action and relief of some of the extrapyramidal side effects experienced with the typical neuroleptics.It has been found that D-amino acid oxidase, the enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of D-amino acids (e.g. D-alanine and D-serine — the neurotransmitters) is inhibited by risperidone.Risperidone acts on the following receptors:
Dopamine receptors: This drug is an antagonist of the D1 (D1, and D5) as well as the D2 family (D2, D3 and D4) receptors, with 70-fold selectivity for the D2 family. It has "tight binding" properties, which means it has a long half-life. Like other antipsychotics, risperidone blocks the mesolimbic pathway, the prefrontal cortex limbic pathway, and the tuberoinfundibular pathway in the central nervous system. Risperidone may induce extrapyramidal side effects, akathisia and tremors, associated with diminished dopaminergic activity in the striatum. It can also cause sexual side effects, galactorrhoea, infertility, gynecomastia and, with chronic use reduced bone mineral density leading to breaks, all of which are associated with increased prolactin secretion.Serotonin receptors: Its action at these receptors results in a relatively lesser tendency to cause extrapyramidal side effects, like the reference substance clozapine.Alpha α1 adrenergic receptors: This action accounts for the orthostatic hypotensive effects and perhaps some of the sedating effects of risperidone.Alpha α2 adrenergic receptors: Risperidones action at these receptors may cause greater positive, negative, affective, and cognitive symptom control.Histamine H1 receptors: effects on these receptors account for its sedation and reduction in vigilance. This may also lead to drowsiness and weight gain.Voltage-gated sodium channels: Because it accumulates in synaptic vesicles, Risperidone inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels at clinically used concentrations.
Pharmacokinetics
Risperidone undergoes hepatic metabolism and renal excretion. Lower doses are recommended for patients with severe liver and kidney disease. The active metabolite of risperidone, paliperidone, is also used as an antipsychotic.
Society and culture
Legal status
Risperidone was approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1993 for the treatment of schizophrenia. In 2003, the FDA approved risperidone for the short-term treatment of the mixed and manic states associated with bipolar disorder. In 2006, the FDA approved risperidone for the treatment of irritability in autistic children and adolescents. The FDAs decision was based in part on a study of autistic people with severe and enduring problems of violent meltdowns, aggression, and self-injury; risperidone is not recommended for autistic people with mild aggression and explosive behavior without an enduring pattern. On 22 August 2007, risperidone was approved as the only drug agent available for treatment of schizophrenia in youths, ages 13–17; it was also approved that same day for treatment of bipolar disorder in youths and children, ages 10–17, joining lithium.
On 16 December 2021, the Committee for Medicinal Products for Human Use (CHMP) of the European Medicines Agency (EMA) adopted a positive opinion, recommending the granting of a marketing authorization for the medicinal product Okedi, intended for the treatment of schizophrenia in adults for whom tolerability and effectiveness has been established with oral risperidone. The applicant for this medicinal product is Laboratorios Farmacéuticos Rovi, S.A. Risperidone was approved for medical use in the European Union in February 2022.
Availability
Janssens patent on risperidone expired on 29 December 2003, opening the market for cheaper generic versions from other companies, and Janssens exclusive marketing rights expired on 29 June 2004 (the result of a pediatric extension). It is available under many brand names worldwide.Risperidone is available as a tablet, an oral solution, and an ampule, which is a depot injection.
Lawsuits
On 11 April 2012, Johnson & Johnson (J&J) and its subsidiary Janssen Pharmaceuticals Inc. were fined $1.2 billion by Judge Timothy Davis Fox of the Sixth Division of the Sixth Judicial Circuit of the U.S. state of Arkansas. The jury found the companies had downplayed multiple risks associated with risperidone. The verdict was later reversed by the Arkansas state supreme court.In August 2012, Johnson & Johnson agreed to pay $181 million to 36 U.S. states in order to settle claims that it had promoted risperidone and paliperidone for off-label uses including for dementia, anger management, and anxiety.In November 2013, J&J was fined $2.2 billion for illegally marketing risperidone for use in people with dementia.In 2015, Steven Brill posted a 15-part investigative journalism piece on J&J in The Huffington Post, called "Americas most admired lawbreaker", which was focused on J&Js marketing of risperidone.J&J has faced numerous civil lawsuits on behalf of children who were prescribed risperidone who grew breasts (a condition called gynecomastia); as of July 2016 there were about 1,500 cases in Pennsylvania state court in Philadelphia, and there had been a February 2015 verdict against J&J with $2.5 million awarded to a man from Alabama, a $1.75 million verdict against J&J that November, and in 2016 a $70 million verdict against J&J. In October 2019, a jury awarded a Pennsylvania man $8 billion in a verdict against J&J.
Names
Brand names include Risperdal, Risperdal Consta, Risperdal M-Tab, Risperdal Quicklets, Risperlet, Okedi, and Perseris.
References
Further reading
Dean L (2017) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common type of polio is ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is `d' i.e., Inapparent infection |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mirizzi's Syndrome is and explain in detail? | Mirriz's syndrome(Functional hepatic syndrome) It is defined as obstruction of the common hepatic duct or CBD by external compression or by erosion of stone in the Hamann pouch or cystic duct. External compression has been classified as type I where as erosion as type II Mirriz's syndrome by McSherry Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1510 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which interleukin is needed for differentiation of eosinophils:September 2009 and explain in detail? | Ans. D: IL5 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following statements regarding treatment of hypothyroidism in a patient with Ischemic hea disease is true - and explain in detail? | In patients with known ischemic hea disease, thyroid hormone replacement using levothyroxine should be introduced at low dose and increased very slowly. The staing dose of levothyroxine is 12.5-25 mg/d with similar increments every 2-3 months until TSH is normalized. Exacerbation of myocardial ischemia, MI and sudden death are recognised complications of levothyroxine replacement, even using doses as low as 25 mg/day. Coronary angioplasty or bypass surgery may be required if angina is exacerbated by levothyroxine replacement therapy. Reference : page 2293 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition and page 744 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which structure connects the Broca's and Wernicke area? and explain in detail? | Arcuate fasciculus connects Wernicke's area present in posterior superior temporal gyrus of dominant hemisphere (sensory area of speech) to broca's speech area present in prefrontal & premotor facial region of cerebral coex to integrate language understanding & skilled motor function. Damage to Wernicke's area = Wernicke's aphasia (lack meaning) Damage to Broca's area = motor aphasia (vocal system couldn't emit words) Damage to arcuate fasciculus = conduction aphasia |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Obturation with gutta-percha cones is indicated in primary teeth only when: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is the shoest acting local anaesthetic ? and explain in detail? | Procaine and chloroprocaine are the shoest acting local anaesthetics. Prilocaine is intermediate acting, bupivacaine and tetrcaine are long acting local anaesthetics. Reference Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 5e page 320. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is According to AJCC 8th edition, staging of 2 cm size pancreatic cancer if it involves poal vein in: and explain in detail? | 8th AJCC(2017) TNM Classification of Pancreatic cancer Tis Carcinoma in situ T1 Tumor limited to pancreas upto 2 cm in greatest dimension T1a : Tumor <= 0.5 cm in greatest dimension T1B: Tumor > 0.5 cm but <= 1 cm in greatest dimension T1c : Tumor > 1 cm but <= 2 cm in greatest dimension T2 Tumor limited to pancreas > 2-4 cm in greatest dimension T3 Tumor > 4 cm in greatest dimension T4 Tumor involves Coeliac axis, superior mesenteric aery and / or common hepatic aery N1 Metastasis in 1-2 regional LN N2 Metatasis in 4 or more regional LN M1 Distant metatasis Stage 0 Stage IA Stage IB Stage IIA Stage IIB Stage III Stage IV Tis N0 M0 T1 N0 M0 T2 N0 M0 T1-T3 N1 Mo T1-T3 N2 M0T4 AnyN M0 T1-T3 N2 M0T4 Any N M0 Any T AnyN M1 Involvement of veins does not change the staging. Size of 2cm pancreatic cancer is under T1 according to TNM staging. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Spore rorming anaerobic gram positive bacilli and explain in detail? | Ans. is. 'b' i. e. Clostridia |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A primigravida at 10 weeks with ove diabetes on insulin has been hospitalised for ketoacidosis. Which could have been the most probable cause for her ketoacidosis? and explain in detail? | Diabetic ketoacidosis in a pregnant diabetic patient may occur as a result of Hyperemesis gravidarum Use of sympathomimetic drugs for tocolysis Infections Use of coicosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Non compliance with Insulin Therapy Since patient is in her first trimester and there is no history suggestive of infection in the question, hyperemesis would be the answer of choice here. Pancreatitis causing Ketoacidosis ( Called 'Kabadi' Syndrome ) is seen in 15 % cases of Acute Pancreatitis... not the likely cause here. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is CAMP acts through: and explain in detail? | A i.e., Activation of protein kinase |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following type of cataract gives a polychromatic lustre on slit lamp examination of the eye? and explain in detail? | Slit lamp examination of the lens of the eye in a case of complicated cataract shows bread crumbs like appearance and a characteristic rainbow display of colours which replaces the normal achromatic sheen (polychromatic lustre). Complicated cataract results from a disturbance of nutrition of the lens due to inflammatory or degenerative disease of other pas of the eye, such as iridocyclitis, ciliary body tumors, choroiditis, degenerative myopia, anterior segment ischemia, retinitis pigmentosa or retinal detachment. Ref: Parsons' Diseases of the Eye By Ramanjit Sihota & Radhika Tandon 21st edn page 262 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Curie is a unit of- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Radioactivity * Old unit of radioactivity is Curie and new unit (SI) is Becquerel.* Old unit of radiation exposure is Roentegn and new unit (SI) is Columb/cmQuantity measuredOld unitNew (SI)unit RadioactivityCurieBecquerel1 curie = 3.7 x 101 becquerel -2.7 x 10Radiation exposureRoentgenColumb/cm Absorbed doseRadGray100 rad = 1 gray1 rad = 0.01 grayDose equivalentRemSievert (Sv)100 rem = 1 SvIrem = 0.01 Sv |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The highest concentration of potassium is in - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Darrow's solution |
Subsets and Splits