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2. Judicial Review
3. Federalism
4. Written Constitution
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
180. Assertion: Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Residuary
powers were vested in the Central Legislature. Reason: The Government of
India Act of 1935 divided the subjects into three lists viz. the federal,
provincial and concurrent. Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
181. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Rigid Constitution
2. Bicameral legislature
3. Office of the CAG
4. Collective responsibility
5. Office of the Governor
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
182. Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the
Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson. Reason: The
Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the
President of India.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
183. The correct statements about Finance Commission are:
1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism
2. It consists of a chairman and three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the
President.
4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
184. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:
1. Pocket veto
2. Absolute veto
3. Suspensive veto
4. Qualified veto
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
185. The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers
is governed by the provisions of:
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 48th Amendment Act
(c) 54th Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
186. The Zonal Councils have been established by:
(a) Article 263 of the Constitution
(b) States reorganisation Act
(c) Zonal Councils Act
(d) An order of the President of India
187. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Parliament can increase a tax.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
188. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the
expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament.
2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
189. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning
powers of President and Governor are:
1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the
President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the
Governor cannot.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
190. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of a
Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?
1. It is laid down in Article 200.
2. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.
3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the position of High Court.
4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
191. The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:
1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms
Commission.
2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the
Prime Minister.
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.
4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 5
192. Which of the following civil services find mention in the Constitution?
1. Indian Administrative Service
2. Indian Forest Service
3. Indian Police Service
4. All-India Judicial Service
5. Indian Foreign Service
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4
193. In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a
member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?
1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside
the duties of his office.
2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or
agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the
government of a state.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
194. Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?
1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
4. Disciplinary matters
5. Talent hunting
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the respective lists.
195. List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. Indian Councils Act 1. Introduced Dyarchy
B. Government of 3. Introduced representative institutions.
India Act of 1919 4. Introduced provincial autonomy.
C. Indian Councils Act 5. Introduced the principle of election.
of 1892
D. Pitts India Act of
1784
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
196. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body.
Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.
197. Assertion: The Constitution of India in quasi-federal.
Reason: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the
state governments.
198. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of state government.
Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
199. Which of the following are correct with regard to the functions of the
UPSC?
1. To conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.
2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and operating schemes of joint
recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special
qualifications are required.
3. To advise the Union and state governments on all matters relating to
methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
4. To present, annually, to the President a report as to the work done by it.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
200. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of
India?
(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quowarranto
Answers
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. b
11. d 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. c 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. d
41. b 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. d
51. d 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. d
61. b 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. b
71. a 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. d
81. d 82. c 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. c
91. d 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. d 97. d 98. d 99. c 100. b
101. a 102. c 103. c 104. d 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. a 110. a
111. d 112. c 113. c 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. c 120. d
121. b 122. b 123. b 124. c 125. b 126. a 127. c 128. d 129. a 130. b
131. a 132. b 133. c 134. b 135. b 136. c 137. b 138. a 139. c 140. b
141. c 142. d 143. c 144. d 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. b 149. c 150. a
151. d 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. b 156. a 157. d 158. d 159. b 160. c
161. c 162. b 163. d 164. b 165. a 166. a 167. d 168. a 169. d 170. c
171. b 172. b 173. a 174. d 175. c 176. b 177. b 178. c 179. d 180. d
181. d 182. d 183. c 184. d 185. d 186. b 187. b 188. c 189. b 190. c
191. b 192. d 193. d 194. c 195. d 196. a 197. a 198. d 199. c 200. d
Appendix IX UPSC Questions on Indian
Polity (General Studies— Mains 2010–
2019)
2010 TEST PAPER
1. Answer the following (in about 250 words): 20
(a) “Disputes between the riparian states on sharing of river
waters in postIndependence India are becoming
increasingly complex.” Objectively analyse the major
disputes in this connection, with special reference to the
Southern States.
2. Answer the following (in about 150 words): 12
(a) With respect to Cooperative Societies what are the
salient features of the 106th and 111th Constitutional
Amendment Bills as at present?
3. Answer the following (in about 150 words): 12
(a) What are the grounds of disqualification of a Member of
Parliament from either House? Quote relevant provisions
in your answer.
4. Write brief but precise note on the following. Your answer
should not exceed 50 words. 5
(a) Legislative powers assigned to the Rajya Sabha under
Art. 249 and Art. 312 of the Constitution.
5. Answer the following (in about 150 words): 12
(a) Bring out the powers and responsibilities attached to the
office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
6. Answer the following, briefly but precisely. Answer should be
less than 50 words. 5
(a) How is disagreement between the Legislative Council
and the Legislative Assembly of a State in passing of an
ordinary Bill, resolved?
2011 TEST PAPER
1. Answer the following (in about 250 words each): 20 3 =
60
(a) “Essentially all that is contained in Part IV - A of the
Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to the
Indian way of life’. Critically examine this statement.
(b) “The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but
is based on several principles, and discretion has to be
exercised in public considerations.” Analyse this
statement in the context of the judicial powers of the
President of India.
(c) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994,
and the implications of its amendment in 2003.
2. Comment on the following (in about 150 words each): 12
3 = 36
(a) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
(b) Evolution of “Green Benches” in our higher judiciary.
(c) Distinction between “Department Related Parliamentary
Standing Committees” and “Parliamentary Forums’.
3. Comment on the following in NOT more than 50 words
each: 5 2 = 10
(b) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been
in the news recently?
4. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words: 5
2012 TEST PAPER
1. Answer the following (in about 150 words each): 15 2 =
30
(a) The Union Cabinet recently cleared the proposal to
rename and amend the Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Act, 1986. What are the salient features of
the proposed amendments?
(b) What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection
(Amendment) Bill, 2011 introduced in the Lok Sabha in
December 2011?
2. Answer the following (in about 50 words each): 5 3 = 15
(a) What is the “Parivarik Mahila Lok Adalat’?
(b) What are the Rights within the ambit of Article 21 of the
Indian Constitution?
(c) Comment on the significance of the Preamble contained
in the Right to Information Act.
3. Comment on the following (in about 20 words): 2
(a) Determining the “value” assigned to the vote of a
Member of a State Legislative Assembly and of a
2013 TEST PAPER
1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has
diminished over the years and as a result healthy
constructive
2. Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged
violation of Article 19 of the Constitution. [200 words] 10