section_id
string | query_id
string | passage
string | question
string | answers_spans
sequence |
|---|---|---|---|---|
history_2222 | 7eaa6f41-8991-44c4-a878-75901404831c | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent were the top three ancestry groups combined? | {
"spans": [
"34.8"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | e2234f8c-15ad-4d14-8965-08fb87c11261 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent were in the smallest three ancestry groups combined? | {
"spans": [
"11.8"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 1864c7e4-6dc7-46a6-bb2b-67d33a3653cb | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | Which ancestry groups had between 5% and 9% of the population? | {
"spans": [
"English American",
"Italian American"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
history_2222 | 4a811742-55b9-43c3-aa66-f655311a7b4f | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many more percent of the population were in the largest ancestry group compared to the smallest? | {
"spans": [
"12.2"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | ae791f8a-1d65-4dda-8112-a3355cdc3400 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | Of the group that were foreign born, which was the second largest group? | {
"spans": [
"Asia"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
history_2222 | f24eec9d-07fb-4f4a-88f1-e6decf09e0ce | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | Of those that were foreign bar, which groups had between 20% and 30%? | {
"spans": [
"Asia",
"Latin American"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
history_2222 | b489e1bd-9a3d-4572-a92b-9321e589e346 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of those who were foreign born came from Latin America, Northern America or Africa? | {
"spans": [
"29.3"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | bb475f17-0de7-4385-857e-d760d51df1f9 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not White? | {
"spans": [
"58.5"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | d40f51d0-fd7e-4ec4-84f9-7226fd6bd56b | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not African American? | {
"spans": [
"49"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 922eeae9-2712-4652-ab8f-0770f1d7cd37 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Native American? | {
"spans": [
"99.7"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 30408a5e-9981-4f17-8fbf-11cad99d5ae0 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Asian American? | {
"spans": [
"98.7"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 6a9f3111-5233-454c-ac6f-8f580498ead1 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Pacific Islander American? | {
"spans": [
"100"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 4af2b28b-50d7-4bf7-974c-513c3abef20a | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not from other races? | {
"spans": [
"96.4"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | cff9b9b6-557c-4920-98fd-fedcc61d477b | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Multiracial American? | {
"spans": [
"97.8"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | d8ef8e0d-b134-4467-bc33-17cd69da7a2a | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Hispanic or Latino Americans? | {
"spans": [
"92.7"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 9ecd7d38-9247-435c-b352-3093a20352e2 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not German Americans? | {
"spans": [
"84.8"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | c6fccec9-ef0b-490e-ae7e-9bea0f33dec6 | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Irish American? | {
"spans": [
"89.1"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | e1651827-8aae-42de-a775-20ca18c58dbf | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not English American? | {
"spans": [
"91.3"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2222 | 9d223970-e8be-432d-8dd4-92adaa20e4fd | As of the census of 2000, there were 478,403 people, 190,638 households, and 111,904 families residing in the city. The population density was . There were 215,856 housing units at an average density of . The racial makeup of the city was 51.0% African American, 41.5% White American, 0.3% Native American, 1.3% Asian American, 0.0% Pacific Islander American, 3.6% from other races, and 2.2% from Multiracial American. Hispanic or Latino Americans of any race were 7.3% of the population. Ancestry (United States Census) include German Americans (15.2%), Irish American (10.9%), English American (8.7%), Italian American (5.6%), Polish American (3.2%), and French American (3.0%). Out of the total population, 4.5% were foreign born; of which 41.2% were born in Europe, 29.1% Asia, 22.4% Latin American, 5.0% Africa, and 1.9% Northern America. | How many percent of people were not Italian American? | {
"spans": [
"94.4"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2266 | 3ea70a11-39d8-403f-a3ac-79399ddb88be | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many years is the age range for estimated average requirements for women taking 7.9 mg/day? | {
"spans": [
"4"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2266 | 551377a1-0cdb-4b5d-8834-fe6e59642caa | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many years is the age range for estimated average requirements for women taking 8.1 mg/day? | {
"spans": [
"31"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2266 | 74ae3da7-0907-496c-97b9-097bceb03d92 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many years is the age range for estimated average requirements for women taking 15.0 mg/day? | {
"spans": [
"3"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2266 | ed73d137-4108-48b8-a404-1334bcce73e8 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many years is the age range for estimated average requirements for women taking 18.0 mg/day? | {
"spans": [
"31"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_2266 | 60841f70-d84d-4067-bc72-d60290714678 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which recommended dietary allowance is higher, pregnancy or lactation? | {
"spans": [
"pregnancy"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
history_2266 | 8c2a52da-d17c-45c0-bf36-0599a0faa65e | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which age groups have a requirement from RDA that enforce an mg/day higher than 14? | {
"spans": [
"15-18",
"19-50"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
history_2266 | 3a2cc99e-3775-42a5-8054-f9c9f3b598a1 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many milligrams less is the RDA for lactation than for pregnancy? | {
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history_2266 | 6c093f56-07e2-4d89-8e49-6434cbb031db | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many years does an RDA of 8 last for children? | {
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history_2266 | 0d78c6c1-deb6-432b-9b5a-eb91ee1c1c94 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many more milligrams is the RDA intake of those 9-13 than those 1-3 years old? | {
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history_2266 | e15f85fb-69dd-4d87-9fd1-34e4842774c9 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which age group has a longer period of any EAR intake, women ages 14-18 or 19-50? | {
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history_2266 | d6827ded-751b-42d3-acd1-59dc2b3dad98 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which age group needs the most iron per day for women by RDA? | {
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history_2266 | aa6b67be-51d1-4057-b497-40fcf65ff204 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which is higher for men, the EAR or RDA? | {
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history_2266 | 56c5c67a-24ca-4a7b-8578-eb12a6425a89 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | What age group needs the highest amount of iron for children? | {
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history_2266 | 6a844ddd-016c-4633-9e9b-679b310f5ded | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many mg/day higher is the ULs for iron than the RDA for pregnant women? | {
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history_2266 | f4d2b585-411f-4121-b85d-21dc6ee98c4f | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many mg/day is the ULs than the RDA for pregnant and nursing women combined? | {
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history_2266 | 89d9cc0d-485f-446c-a5e5-ce6bfc6e1c58 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Is the EAR for iron higher for women or men (over the age of 18)? | {
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history_2266 | 51fc73ff-32f0-4334-9fb2-065185245101 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | How many mg higher is the RDA for women aged 19-50 than for men 19 and older? | {
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history_2266 | d29ba164-27e9-49a9-b447-a6efa27e4340 | The U.S. Institute of Medicine (IOM) updated Estimated Average Requirements (EARs) and Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for iron in 2001. The current EAR for iron for women ages 14–18 is 7.9 mg/day, 8.1 for ages 19–50 and 5.0 thereafter (post menopause). For men the EAR is 6.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. The RDA is 15.0 mg/day for women ages 15–18, 18.0 for 19–50 and 8.0 thereafter. For men, 8.0 mg/day for ages 19 and up. RDAs are higher than EARs so as to identify amounts that will cover people with higher than average requirements. RDA for pregnancy is 27 mg/day and, for lactation, 9 mg/day. For children ages 1–3 years 7 mg/day, 10 for ages 4–8 and 8 for ages 9–13. As for safety, the IOM also sets Tolerable upper intake levels (ULs) for vitamins and minerals when evidence is sufficient. In the case of iron the UL is set at 45 mg/day. Collectively the EARs, RDAs and ULs are referred to as Dietary Reference Intakes. | Which age group within children is the RDA the highest? | {
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nfl_198 | 28593174-3412-4905-a915-b49a434f4b10 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many passes did Huard throw? | {
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nfl_198 | 91297867-3ff6-47a4-8110-94e84a0eebbc | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many times did the 49ers score? | {
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nfl_198 | 8654e7a5-961e-4d69-8e3c-f4d4a631138a | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many total turnovers did the 49ers commit during this game? | {
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nfl_198 | 57e98a0a-fa24-413a-a009-d11fd4a46473 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many total yards did the 49ers accumulate when both rushing and passing are taken into account? | {
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nfl_198 | 738b36db-2db1-4fcf-9c6b-7a8c9836a2e5 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | Did the 49ers gain more yards on passing plays or rushing plays? | {
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nfl_198 | 06df5f1b-bd93-48c5-b1e5-0b814f9c6735 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many incomplete passes diid Damon Huard throw throughout this game? | {
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nfl_198 | 8883d0bc-e1c1-4bd1-89e3-20ebf0bdce4b | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many points off of a perfect passer rating did Damon Huard measure for this game? | {
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nfl_198 | 497ae459-0c0e-4e1e-9cfd-7fad51523ea0 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many more sacks this game did the 49ers give up relative to the first three games worth of sacks? | {
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nfl_198 | 5840b43d-5159-45b7-bd27-df971e4bbd21 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | Which team had the most turnovers? | {
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nfl_198 | 3940041b-ef9c-40d5-9c5f-ce337168a474 | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many more fumbles than interceptions did the 49ers have? | {
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nfl_198 | 189c3ec8-28ac-4473-bdda-2fd3ccc9e65e | On October 1, the Chiefs hosted the San Francisco 49ers at Arrowhead Stadium. Coach Herman Edwards confirmed Trent Green would not play in the game. The game was broadcast on Fox at noon Kansas City time. The Chiefs defense shut out the 49ers high scoring offense, forcing two interceptions and three forced fumbles. Quarterback Alex Smith was held to 92 yards passing and the 49ers to 93 yards rushing. In their first three games, the 49ers had given up only four sacks, but against the Chiefs, they allowed five total sacks. Quarterback Damon Huard completed 18 of 23 passes for 208 yards and two passing touchdowns. While compiling a 133.3 passer rating - 158.3 is perfect - Huard was hardly ever touched or even hurried by a San Francisco defense which had rung up 12 sacks in its first three games. The game marked the first shutout for the Chiefs defense since December 1, 2002, and the 49ers their first shutout since 2004 and only their second since 1977. | How many more of Damon Huard's passes were incomplete than complete? | {
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history_2263 | 0960d1cb-39f6-48b0-8ef3-f36f162aea9e | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many years did the life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increase between 1970 - 1975 and 2011 - 2015? | {
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history_2263 | cb8ac791-b471-44ef-b3b1-1fe5b5733ff2 | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many years more than the national average was the life expectancy in Himachal Pradesh than the national average in 2011-15? | {
"spans": [
"3.7"
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history_2263 | d2c6e39b-e8b3-4fff-82ad-6ab8d3196b4b | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many people per year has the birth rate declined between 1971 and 2010? | {
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history_2263 | f9ee75f3-4933-4b11-bf82-698211d0f75f | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many years passed by as the Himachal Pradeshs literacy has almost doubled between 1981-2011? | {
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history_2263 | 283fd806-bd5c-4e92-8880-2df5f40df813 | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many years was life expectancy between 2011-2015 for 49.7 to 72.0 years? | {
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history_2263 | a829c8c0-9845-4830-a5b7-a28095377a9c | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many more years has the life expectancy at birth increased from 52.6 to 72.0? | {
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history_2263 | 62c8885c-0bf2-447d-a412-1cc7c22d25aa | The life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years in the period from 1970-75 (above the national average of 49.7 years) to 72.0 years for the period 2011-15 (above the national average of 68.3 years). The infant mortality rate stood at 40 in 2010, and the crude birth rate has declined from 37.3 in 1971 to 16.9 in 2010, below the national average of 26.5 in 1998. The crude death rate was 6.9 in 2010. Himachal Pradeshs literacy rate has almost doubled between 1981 and 2011 (see table to right). The state is one of the List of Indian states and union territories by literacy rate with a literacy rate of 83.78% as of 2011. | How many years did the life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh increased significantly from 52.6 years to 72.0 years? | {
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history_2347 | 284ca707-ac0d-41d9-be00-4087169af6b9 | Emory University research is heavily funded by the United States Department of Health and Human Servicess National Institutes of Health. The federal agency awarded the university nearly $300 million in the fiscal year of 2015. In 2015, Emory University was one of four institutions selected by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases for its seven-year, multimillion-dollar Tuberculosis Research Units (TBRU) program, which aims to drive innovation in tuberculosis research and reduce the global burden of the disease. In 2015, an Emory-led research consortium received a five-year, 15 million dollar grant from the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to research human immune system to Varicella zoster virus and pneumococcal vaccination. The university also received a $9 million grant over five years from the NIH to support one of three national Centers for Collaborative Research in Fragile X syndrome. The grant is a renewal of Emorys National Fragile X Research Center, continuously funded by the NIH for more than 10 years. In 2015, the university received an $8.9 million grant over five years from the NIH National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute(NHLBI) to better understand the role of reactive oxygen species and inflammation in blood vessel function and to explore new interventions and preventive approaches for atherosclerosis and aortic aneurysms. In 2015, the university received a $8 million grant over five years from the NIH to develop and validate mathematical models of how prior immunity affects recall immune responses to influenza viruses. The researchers will create and disseminate powerful, user-friendly modeling tools for use by the wider research community in developing more effective vaccines. In 2015, the university received a $3.6 million grant over five years from the NIH to examine the effects of maternal stress on brain function, development, and behavior in African-American infants, including the biochemical connection between the brain and the microbiome. In 2015, the university received a $3.5 million grant over five years from the NIH National Cancer Institute (NCI) for an Informatics Technology for Cancer Research award. Winship Cancer Institute and Emory School of Medicine researchers will develop software tools to help the cancer research community gain new insights from cancer imaging “big data” and develop new open-source cancer research applications. In 2015, the university received a $3.4 million grant from the NIH International Collaborations in Infectious Disease Research Program to support a partnership between the Emory Vaccine Center and the International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology (ICGEB) in New Delhi, India to study dengue virus infection in India. | How many millions of dollars did the University receive from the grant related to Fragile X syndrome combined with the grant from the NIH's National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute? | {
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history_2347 | b9ffcd50-4ce7-4659-8c54-9dd1e6f0356a | Emory University research is heavily funded by the United States Department of Health and Human Servicess National Institutes of Health. The federal agency awarded the university nearly $300 million in the fiscal year of 2015. In 2015, Emory University was one of four institutions selected by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases for its seven-year, multimillion-dollar Tuberculosis Research Units (TBRU) program, which aims to drive innovation in tuberculosis research and reduce the global burden of the disease. In 2015, an Emory-led research consortium received a five-year, 15 million dollar grant from the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to research human immune system to Varicella zoster virus and pneumococcal vaccination. The university also received a $9 million grant over five years from the NIH to support one of three national Centers for Collaborative Research in Fragile X syndrome. The grant is a renewal of Emorys National Fragile X Research Center, continuously funded by the NIH for more than 10 years. In 2015, the university received an $8.9 million grant over five years from the NIH National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute(NHLBI) to better understand the role of reactive oxygen species and inflammation in blood vessel function and to explore new interventions and preventive approaches for atherosclerosis and aortic aneurysms. In 2015, the university received a $8 million grant over five years from the NIH to develop and validate mathematical models of how prior immunity affects recall immune responses to influenza viruses. The researchers will create and disseminate powerful, user-friendly modeling tools for use by the wider research community in developing more effective vaccines. In 2015, the university received a $3.6 million grant over five years from the NIH to examine the effects of maternal stress on brain function, development, and behavior in African-American infants, including the biochemical connection between the brain and the microbiome. In 2015, the university received a $3.5 million grant over five years from the NIH National Cancer Institute (NCI) for an Informatics Technology for Cancer Research award. Winship Cancer Institute and Emory School of Medicine researchers will develop software tools to help the cancer research community gain new insights from cancer imaging “big data” and develop new open-source cancer research applications. In 2015, the university received a $3.4 million grant from the NIH International Collaborations in Infectious Disease Research Program to support a partnership between the Emory Vaccine Center and the International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology (ICGEB) in New Delhi, India to study dengue virus infection in India. | Was the grant from the NIH's National Cancer Institute bigger or smaller than the grant from NIH's International Collaborations in Infectious Disease Research Program? | {
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history_2347 | 436f3550-bc9e-4150-b0e9-dc30efc635a7 | Emory University research is heavily funded by the United States Department of Health and Human Servicess National Institutes of Health. The federal agency awarded the university nearly $300 million in the fiscal year of 2015. In 2015, Emory University was one of four institutions selected by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases for its seven-year, multimillion-dollar Tuberculosis Research Units (TBRU) program, which aims to drive innovation in tuberculosis research and reduce the global burden of the disease. In 2015, an Emory-led research consortium received a five-year, 15 million dollar grant from the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to research human immune system to Varicella zoster virus and pneumococcal vaccination. The university also received a $9 million grant over five years from the NIH to support one of three national Centers for Collaborative Research in Fragile X syndrome. The grant is a renewal of Emorys National Fragile X Research Center, continuously funded by the NIH for more than 10 years. In 2015, the university received an $8.9 million grant over five years from the NIH National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute(NHLBI) to better understand the role of reactive oxygen species and inflammation in blood vessel function and to explore new interventions and preventive approaches for atherosclerosis and aortic aneurysms. In 2015, the university received a $8 million grant over five years from the NIH to develop and validate mathematical models of how prior immunity affects recall immune responses to influenza viruses. The researchers will create and disseminate powerful, user-friendly modeling tools for use by the wider research community in developing more effective vaccines. In 2015, the university received a $3.6 million grant over five years from the NIH to examine the effects of maternal stress on brain function, development, and behavior in African-American infants, including the biochemical connection between the brain and the microbiome. In 2015, the university received a $3.5 million grant over five years from the NIH National Cancer Institute (NCI) for an Informatics Technology for Cancer Research award. Winship Cancer Institute and Emory School of Medicine researchers will develop software tools to help the cancer research community gain new insights from cancer imaging “big data” and develop new open-source cancer research applications. In 2015, the university received a $3.4 million grant from the NIH International Collaborations in Infectious Disease Research Program to support a partnership between the Emory Vaccine Center and the International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology (ICGEB) in New Delhi, India to study dengue virus infection in India. | How many millions of dollars was awarded by the largest individual grant mentioned? | {
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history_2347 | bee091c4-001e-4405-a792-fccfbb8cb293 | Emory University research is heavily funded by the United States Department of Health and Human Servicess National Institutes of Health. The federal agency awarded the university nearly $300 million in the fiscal year of 2015. In 2015, Emory University was one of four institutions selected by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases for its seven-year, multimillion-dollar Tuberculosis Research Units (TBRU) program, which aims to drive innovation in tuberculosis research and reduce the global burden of the disease. In 2015, an Emory-led research consortium received a five-year, 15 million dollar grant from the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to research human immune system to Varicella zoster virus and pneumococcal vaccination. The university also received a $9 million grant over five years from the NIH to support one of three national Centers for Collaborative Research in Fragile X syndrome. The grant is a renewal of Emorys National Fragile X Research Center, continuously funded by the NIH for more than 10 years. In 2015, the university received an $8.9 million grant over five years from the NIH National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute(NHLBI) to better understand the role of reactive oxygen species and inflammation in blood vessel function and to explore new interventions and preventive approaches for atherosclerosis and aortic aneurysms. In 2015, the university received a $8 million grant over five years from the NIH to develop and validate mathematical models of how prior immunity affects recall immune responses to influenza viruses. The researchers will create and disseminate powerful, user-friendly modeling tools for use by the wider research community in developing more effective vaccines. In 2015, the university received a $3.6 million grant over five years from the NIH to examine the effects of maternal stress on brain function, development, and behavior in African-American infants, including the biochemical connection between the brain and the microbiome. In 2015, the university received a $3.5 million grant over five years from the NIH National Cancer Institute (NCI) for an Informatics Technology for Cancer Research award. Winship Cancer Institute and Emory School of Medicine researchers will develop software tools to help the cancer research community gain new insights from cancer imaging “big data” and develop new open-source cancer research applications. In 2015, the university received a $3.4 million grant from the NIH International Collaborations in Infectious Disease Research Program to support a partnership between the Emory Vaccine Center and the International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology (ICGEB) in New Delhi, India to study dengue virus infection in India. | How many millions of dollars was awarded by the smallest individual grant mentioned? | {
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history_2430 | 6d003a17-76e5-4b9d-be6f-07b623841ae1 | The Kashmiri Pandits, the only Hindus of the Kashmir valley, who had stably constituted approximately 4 to 5% of the population of the valley during Dogra rule (1846–1947), and 20% of whom had left the Kashmir valley by 1950, began to leave in much greater numbers in the 1990s. According to a number of authors, approximately 100,000 of the total Kashmiri Pandit population of 140,000 left the valley during that decade. Other authors have suggested a higher figure for the exodus, ranging from the entire population of over 150 to 190 thousand (1.5 to 190,000) of a total Pandit population of 200 thousand (200,000) to a number as high as 300 thousand (300,000). | How many years did the Dogra rule take place? | {
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history_2430 | b4f0bb36-e8d3-4eef-b706-292eaebd7724 | The Kashmiri Pandits, the only Hindus of the Kashmir valley, who had stably constituted approximately 4 to 5% of the population of the valley during Dogra rule (1846–1947), and 20% of whom had left the Kashmir valley by 1950, began to leave in much greater numbers in the 1990s. According to a number of authors, approximately 100,000 of the total Kashmiri Pandit population of 140,000 left the valley during that decade. Other authors have suggested a higher figure for the exodus, ranging from the entire population of over 150 to 190 thousand (1.5 to 190,000) of a total Pandit population of 200 thousand (200,000) to a number as high as 300 thousand (300,000). | How many Kashmiri Pandit remained in the valley when a great number began to leave in the 1990s? | {
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history_2430 | e4091363-bb5e-45db-94d8-acbd0bd424bb | The Kashmiri Pandits, the only Hindus of the Kashmir valley, who had stably constituted approximately 4 to 5% of the population of the valley during Dogra rule (1846–1947), and 20% of whom had left the Kashmir valley by 1950, began to leave in much greater numbers in the 1990s. According to a number of authors, approximately 100,000 of the total Kashmiri Pandit population of 140,000 left the valley during that decade. Other authors have suggested a higher figure for the exodus, ranging from the entire population of over 150 to 190 thousand (1.5 to 190,000) of a total Pandit population of 200 thousand (200,000) to a number as high as 300 thousand (300,000). | How many years after the Dogra rule did 20% of the Kashmiri Pandits leave? | {
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history_2430 | a2211eb7-e4da-49b3-b9bb-1a40ecf92c3e | The Kashmiri Pandits, the only Hindus of the Kashmir valley, who had stably constituted approximately 4 to 5% of the population of the valley during Dogra rule (1846–1947), and 20% of whom had left the Kashmir valley by 1950, began to leave in much greater numbers in the 1990s. According to a number of authors, approximately 100,000 of the total Kashmiri Pandit population of 140,000 left the valley during that decade. Other authors have suggested a higher figure for the exodus, ranging from the entire population of over 150 to 190 thousand (1.5 to 190,000) of a total Pandit population of 200 thousand (200,000) to a number as high as 300 thousand (300,000). | During the 1990s, approximately how many of the Kashmiri Pandit population stayed in the valley? | {
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history_2430 | a7f3006e-7507-48e5-89c6-9a9808d4be3d | The Kashmiri Pandits, the only Hindus of the Kashmir valley, who had stably constituted approximately 4 to 5% of the population of the valley during Dogra rule (1846–1947), and 20% of whom had left the Kashmir valley by 1950, began to leave in much greater numbers in the 1990s. According to a number of authors, approximately 100,000 of the total Kashmiri Pandit population of 140,000 left the valley during that decade. Other authors have suggested a higher figure for the exodus, ranging from the entire population of over 150 to 190 thousand (1.5 to 190,000) of a total Pandit population of 200 thousand (200,000) to a number as high as 300 thousand (300,000). | What is the highest estimate given for the total Kashmiri Pandit population? | {
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nfl_3351 | 53aff161-02a6-463a-9f81-87060cc3db11 | In a rematch of the Divisional playoff game from the previous season, the Cowboys took an early 21-6 lead over the Packers, before the Packers rallied to pull themselves within six points at the end of the third quarter. In the fourth quarter, the lead changed hands four times, with the Packers getting the last push. With just over a minute left, Aaron Rodgers led a drive that was capped off by a 12-yard touchdown pass to Davante Adams with eleven seconds left in the game, giving the Packers their third win in a row. Rookie running back Aaron Jones also had his first 100-yard game of his NFL game, as well as the first for any running back on the Packers for the season. | How many touchdown passes did Rodgers throw in the fourth quarter? | {
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nfl_3351 | 6be4c98c-fd36-439e-8d0e-d5a55f914ea4 | In a rematch of the Divisional playoff game from the previous season, the Cowboys took an early 21-6 lead over the Packers, before the Packers rallied to pull themselves within six points at the end of the third quarter. In the fourth quarter, the lead changed hands four times, with the Packers getting the last push. With just over a minute left, Aaron Rodgers led a drive that was capped off by a 12-yard touchdown pass to Davante Adams with eleven seconds left in the game, giving the Packers their third win in a row. Rookie running back Aaron Jones also had his first 100-yard game of his NFL game, as well as the first for any running back on the Packers for the season. | How many touchdown passes did Rodgers throw in the second half? | {
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nfl_954 | 2f37ceb2-97f1-4393-b6f0-4208daca9699 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many losses in a row was this game for the Bills? | {
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nfl_954 | 5e764557-ae12-49c9-9bad-84bd13bd459c | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards was the shortest field goal? | {
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nfl_954 | ac42180e-e1ab-4749-b04e-c0a04177cb5b | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which player scored the last points of the game? | {
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nfl_954 | d0fd0590-d8f4-466a-a918-08cda61c0b13 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which team scored the last points of the game? | {
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nfl_954 | 798cb958-20d0-4d20-bb77-354d3a9b5e98 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards longer was Gostkowski's longest field goal over Lindell's one? | {
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nfl_954 | 13448089-b7fc-447d-88ef-22bf932ce405 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards longer was Gostkowski's total yards of field goals than Lindell's one? | {
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nfl_954 | ecfc2346-53d4-44bd-a9bc-61bac9f1c01a | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which player had the second longest touchdown run? | {
"spans": [
"BenJarvus Green-Ellis"
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} |
nfl_954 | 70898006-7e03-4d1f-9c34-c20375a7247e | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Who threw the only TD pass of the game? | {
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"Trent Edwards"
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nfl_954 | bb60b6e2-689b-4a8f-b1fb-3ac73ade01ea | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Who kicked the longest field goal? | {
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"Gostkowski"
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nfl_954 | c9f3293e-5501-49c6-8716-a94b3c3fd755 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Who kicked the second longest field goal? | {
"spans": [
"Gostkowski"
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]
} |
nfl_954 | 9cb1991c-8a78-4262-838b-4943aeac5669 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Who kicked the third longest field goal? | {
"spans": [
"Lindell"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 22e83fc2-301d-4074-b647-f61e1f42110e | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards of field goals did Gostkowski make? | {
"spans": [
"69"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 44b75723-58d7-44d4-a285-e5a356e3f13c | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | What are the top two longest field goals made? | {
"spans": [
"37-yard",
"32-yard"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 7718aacb-67d5-4c2a-a4d8-8a13abcc7b46 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards combined are the top two longest field goals? | {
"spans": [
"69"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 866fbcc5-be26-4e6b-9f70-61d9cc32463b | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | What are the two shortest field goals made? | {
"spans": [
"25-yard",
"32-yard"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | ac2568d5-ac7f-4d75-be00-4ba8fdbc4dfe | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards difference is there between the longest and shortest field goal? | {
"spans": [
"12"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 25f41ed2-7394-49c9-bed5-bdce37f2b3ae | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which player scored more field goals, Stephen Gostkowski or Rian Lindell? | {
"spans": [
"Stephen Gostkowski"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | ebec5d80-8593-430f-8586-0b0d0424ac15 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which player scored at least two field goals? | {
"spans": [
"Stephen Gostkowski"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 3f56030a-60d8-400f-a433-b54e575d9eab | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many more field goals did Stephen Gostkowski make over Rian Lindell? | {
"spans": [
"1"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 9a4ca53b-a518-4b01-9d24-d49447cf1756 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which field goals did Stephen Gostkowski make? | {
"spans": [
"32-yard",
"37-yard"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | b85756ad-f54a-4c9e-bf32-3e2bcc445093 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many total field goal yards did Stephen Gostkowski make? | {
"spans": [
"69"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | a28bd98d-9c4e-4e65-b63c-85720a411dd8 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | Which players score field goals longer than 20 yards? | {
"spans": [
"Rian Lindell",
"Stephen Gostkowski"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | ce3ea982-07eb-477a-a089-18297f122510 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many field goals between 20 and 60 yards were made? | {
"spans": [
"3"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | a3d54199-7408-4ba2-bc4c-cca52168bfaa | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards longer was Stephen Gostkowski's second field goal compared to his first? | {
"spans": [
"5"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 6e1aad6e-b71a-4bfe-87f3-5c37313a2d7c | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | What all field goals did Stephen Gostkowski make? | {
"spans": [
"32-yard",
"37-yard"
],
"types": [
"span",
"span"
]
} |
nfl_954 | 270fd6d8-6201-4745-a168-9957608a86c2 | Trying to snap their two-game losing streak, the Bills wrapped up their three-straight divisional games in Gillette Stadium with a Week 10 AFC East duel with the New England Patriots. In the first quarter, Buffalo trailed early as Patriots QB Matt Cassel got a 13-yard TD run. In the second quarter, New England increased their lead as kicker Stephen Gostkowski got a 32-yard field goal. The Bills closed out the half with kicker Rian Lindell getting a 25-yard field goal. In the third quarter, the Patriots answered with Gostkowski nailing a 37-yard field goal. In the fourth quarter, New England pulled away with RB BenJarvus Green-Ellis getting a 1-yard TD run. Buffalo ended the game with QB Trent Edwards completing a 14-yard TD pass to rookie WR James Hardy. | How many yards difference was Stephen Gostkowski’s first field goal compared to his second? | {
"spans": [
"5"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | b3a33627-5f39-4690-bd06-ed3fad2535b7 | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | How many types of drachmae notes were issued by the government? | {
"spans": [
"4"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | 787fe982-00cd-4a20-b09d-0cb47b13d5d3 | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | How many types of drachma notes did the Bank of Greece issue? | {
"spans": [
"6"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | 3859bb27-c54a-4007-9707-7ffee892ff0d | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | How many drachma was the smallest note worth? | {
"spans": [
"1"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | 86ab2bf0-489a-418f-9e63-980f3a678612 | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | How many drachma was the smallest note produced by a bank worth? | {
"spans": [
"50"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | fbf8bc0c-4094-4330-86a2-2166ea44112d | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | What were the denominations of the notes that the government issued in 1944? | {
"spans": [
"1, 5, 10 and 20"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
history_1728 | 94feccdd-5018-43d6-9246-9739655235ef | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | What were the denominations of the coins that were issued in 1954? | {
"spans": [
"5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces"
],
"types": [
"span"
]
} |
history_1728 | 087c9eac-488e-46fc-932a-1eb5c54caaf6 | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | How many years passed between 1954 and new coins being issued depicting Constantine II of Greece? | {
"spans": [
"12"
],
"types": [
"number"
]
} |
history_1728 | 804707bb-379d-4c4d-88a0-7a76831b61a2 | In November 1944, after Greece was liberated from Germany, old drachmae were exchanged for new ones at the rate of 50,000,000,000 to 1. Only paper money was issued. The government issued notes of 1, 5, 10 and 20 drachmae, with the Bank of Greece issuing 50-, 100-, 500-, 1000-, 5000-, and 10,000-drachma notes. This drachma also suffered from high inflation. The government later issued 100-, 500-, and 1000-drachma notes, and the Bank of Greece issued 20,000-and 50,000-drachma notes. Third modern drachma coins The first issue of coins minted in 1954 consisted of holed aluminium 5-, 10- and 20-lepton pieces, with 50-lepton, 1-, 2-, 5- and 10-drachma pieces in cupro-nickel. A silver 20-drachma piece was issued in 1960, replacing the 20-drachma banknote, and also minted only in collector sets in 1965. Coins in denominations from 50 lepta to 20 drachmae carried a portrait of Paul of Greece (1947–1964). New coins were introduced in 1966, ranging from 50 lepta to 10 drachmae, depicting Constantine II of Greece (1964–1974). A silver 30 drachma coin for the centennial of Greeces royal dynasty was minted in 1963. The following year a non-circulating coin of this value was produced to commemorate the royal wedding. The reverse of all coins was altered in 1971 to reflect the military junta which was in power from 1967 to 1974. This design included a soldier standing in front of the flames of the rising phoenix. | What year was the non-circulating 30 drachma coin issued to commemorate the royal wedding? | {
"spans": [
"1964"
],
"types": [
"date"
]
} |
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