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salary per annum pro rata
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<P> It means the figure shown as a wage in a job ad won't be what you'll be paid. EG - £30k per annum (pro rata) for a job advertised as 17.5 hours per week would probably pay around £15k-the £30k refers to the full time pay. Phlodgeybodge · 9 years ago. Thumbs up. 1. <P> Report Abuse. pro rata means accordingly calculated in latin. Per annum means per year in latin. It means that if the pay was £25,000 a year for a full time person you'd get it calculated for the part time position but it's easier to understand how much the salary is if it is written like this. EG - £30k per annum (pro rata) for a job advertised as 17.5 hours per week would probably pay around £15k-the £30k refers to the full time pay. Phlodgeybodge · 9 years ago. Thumbs up. 1. <P> For example: 23789 per annum for full time (37.5hrs) contracted hours 22.5hrs (23789 per annum Pro Rata - 22.5 hrs per week). 23789 divided by 37.5 x 22.5 = 14273.40 Gross per annum. Stick the 14273.40 into the salary calculator on the homepage and you will see the net per month/week/ etc :D. <P> My definition: Pro rata, when it comes to jobs, generally refers to pay. Say the salary is '$40,000 per annum-pro rata', it will mean that if you only work part time, you get part of the pay. A standard week is (about) 40 hours, so the pay for 20 hours will be $20,000 per annum. <P> Calculation. To arrive at your pro rata salary, you must know what the job pays on a full-time basis, what your employer views as full-time hours, the number of weeks you will be working during the year and your required work hours per week. Your pro rata salary is proportionate to the amount that a full-time employee -- who works the same job and has the same qualifications as you -- would receive. For example, this may happen to a teacher who works on a part-time basis for a college or university. Assume a full-time teacher makes $48,000 per year, based on a 40-hour work week, and does the same work you do. If you work 20 hours per week, your annual pro rata salary would be half of $48,000, or $24,000 <P> Answers. Best Answer: well per annum means per year. Pro rata means at that rate. So for example,if you work the full 37.5 hours per week for the full year you will earn £20,000 per annum, however if you end up working half of that you would earn £10,000. So if you only work 3months that is a 1/4 of £20,000, so you would earn £20,000/4 = £5,000. Source(s): Hey, Can anyone help me understand what this means. If your salary will be £20,000 per annum pro rata what does this means? This is for full time work, 37.5 hrs per week, but only for 3 months. <P> This post is for 38 weeks per year, working 40 hours per week, 8.30-5.30 Monday to Friday. Salary will be in the region of £28,000 - £32,000 per annum, pro rata, depending on qualifications and experience. Contact. <P> Hi If the job states £15,000 per annum for 20 hours a week then that is what you will earn, ie £15,000. However if it mentions pro-rata then you need to find out what it is pro-rata to. For example a job might be £15,000 per annum based on 40 hours a week, so if you are doing 20 hours you would get £7,500 of it because you have done half the hours. Or it could be that it is a short term job like a temporary contract, £15,000 per annum pro rata, so if you are there for 1 month you would get 1/12 of the £15,000. Normally jobs are based on 1 working week of 37.5 hours so I would check carefully that the 20 hours isn't pro-rata Gavin. Gavin T · 8 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> For reduced hours, most employers will multiply the full-time salary by the reduced number of hours divided by the full-time hours. For example, if the full-time salary is £20,000 per year for 37.5 hours’ work per week, the pro-rata salary based on a 18-hour working week would be: £20,000 x (18 / 37.5) = £9,600. Income tax, National Insurance and other deductions are then calculated based on this new salary.
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$40,000 per annum-pro rata
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what is sweetmeat
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<P> Full Definition of SWEETMEAT. : a food rich in sugar: as a: a candied or crystallized fruit b: candy, confection. See sweetmeat defined for English-language learners. Definition of SWEETMEAT for Kids. : a food (as a piece of candy or candied fruit) rich in sugar. <P> Confectionery is the art of making confections, which are food items that are rich in sugar and carbohydrates. Exact definitions are difficult. In general, though, confectionery is divided into two broad and somewhat overlapping categories, bakers' confections and sugar confections. Brittles are a combination of nuts and caramelized sugar. Chocolate is a common and popular confectionery and can be used in a wide variety of ways. Sugar confectionery items include sweets, lollipops, candy bars, chocolate, cotton candy, and other sweet items of snack food. <P> LINK / CITE ADD TO WORD LIST. any sweet food or delicacy prepared with sugar or honey, as a cake, confection, preserve, etc.; specif., a candy, candied fruit, etc. Late Middle English sweit meit; from Old English swetmete: see sweet and amp; meat. Origin of sweetmeat. any sweet food or delicacy prepared with sugar or honey, as a cake, confection, preserve, etc.; specif., a candy, candied fruit, etc. <P> Sugar confectionery includes sweets, candied nuts, chocolates, chewing gum, sweetmeats, pastillage, and other confections that are made primarily of sugar. In some cases, chocolate confections (confections made of chocolate) are treated as a separate category, as are sugar-free versions of sugar confections. Brittles are a combination of nuts and caramelized sugar. Chocolate is a common and popular confectionery and can be used in a wide variety of ways. Sugar confectionery items include sweets, lollipops, candy bars, chocolate, cotton candy, and other sweet items of snack food. <P> 10 hilariously insightful foreign words. The term sweetmeats usually refers to candy or sweet confections, and it is often shortened simply to sweets.. They likely first began as a way of preserving fruit and/or nuts with sugar. Post 4. @pocurana-It's quite possible that the word meat is used to describe these sweet candies in relation to the core of the candy rather than the meat (as in dead animal meant to for consumption) we think of most often today. The inside of nuts and fruits is sometimes referred to as the meat of that food. <P> sweetmeat. n. 1. (Cookery) a sweetened delicacy, such as a preserve, sweet, or, formerly, a cake or pastry. (ˈswitˌmit). n. <P> Sweetmeat actually doesn't come from an animal. The term 'sweetmeat' refers to a way of preserving nuts/fruits with sugar. What you are thinking of is 'sweetbreads'. Sweetbrea … ds are taken from the thymus gland, pancreas or genitalia of young animals, most often calves, pigs or lambs. They are roundish in shape and are a favorite ingredient in many European dishes. Varakh, the shiny foil that is used to garnish sweetmeat, is sometimes made of real silver or real gold. These metals are made by pounding the metal into very thin sheets … that are very brittle. <P> Sweetbreads on mushroom (morel) risotto. Sweetbreads or ris are culinary names for the thymus (also called throat, gullet, or neck sweetbread) or the pancreas (also called heart, stomach, or belly sweetbread), especially of calf (ris de veau) and lamb (ris d'agneau), and, less commonly, of beef and pork. The word sweetbread is first attested in the 16th century, but the etymology of the name is unclear. Sweet is perhaps used since the thymus is sweet and rich-tasting, as opposed to savory-tasting muscle flesh. Bread may come from brede, roasted meat or from the Old English brǣd (flesh or meat).
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It is a way of preserving nuts/fruits with sugar.
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what is a pistil in a flower
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<P> Petal: The parts of a flower that are often conspicuously colored. Stamen: The pollen producing part of a flower, usually with a slender filament supporting the anther. Anther: The part of the stamen where pollen is produced. Pistil: The ovule producing part of a flower. The ovary often supports a long style, topped by a stigma. The mature ovary is a fruit, and the mature ovule is a seed. Stigma: The part of the pistil where pollen germinates <P> The Pistil. In plants that reproduce by flowering (angiosperms), the pistil is the female reproductive portion (the gynoecium) of the flower. <P> The pistil is a flower's female organ. Pistils are typically located in the center of the flower and are surrounded by petals, sepals and stamens. Some flowers, such as the sweet pea, have one simple pistil, while others, including larkspur, have more than five pistils. Flower pistils consist of three parts: the ovary, the style and the stigma. <P> The pistil is the collective term for the female reproductive structures in the flower-The Stigma, Style, Ovary and Ovule. Pistil or the female reproduction structure is the innermost whorl, located in the center of the flower. Often vase-shaped, the pistil consists of three parts: the stigma, the … style and the ovary. <P> Noun. 1. pistil-the female ovule-bearing part of a flower composed of ovary and style and stigma. blossom, flower, bloom-reproductive organ of angiosperm plants especially one having showy or colorful parts. reproductive structure-the parts of a plant involved in its reproduction. simple pistil-consists of one carpel <P> Best Answer: The pistil's function is reproduction. The stigma, the head of the pistil, provides a place for pollen grains to land and germinate. The style, the long part of the pistil, provides protection for the pollen tube that emerges from the pollen grain and grows down the inside of the pistil into the ovary. <P> Gynoecium (from Ancient Greek γυνή, gyne, meaning woman, and οἶκος, oikos, meaning house) is most commonly used as a collective term for the parts of a flower that produce ovules and ultimately develop into the fruit and seeds. The gynoecium is the innermost whorl of (one or more) pistils in a flower and is typically surrounded by the pollen-producing reproductive organs, the stamens, collectively called the androecium. <P> : the part in the center of a flower that is made up of the stigma, style, and ovary and produces the seed. Spanish Central: Spanish translation of pistil.
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The female ovule-bearing part of a flower composed of ovary and style and stigma. blossom, flower, bloom-reproductive organ of angiosperm plants especially one having showy or colorful parts.
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what is a mobile notary
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<P> While a mobile notary may perform any type of notarial service prescribed by his or her state's statutory laws, it is more common that mobile notaries are called upon to perform various types of real estate or mortgage transactions. There is minimal compensation for the day-to-day services that notaries provide as public officers; a mobile notary profession is a means of taking your notarial skills to a higher, more profitable level. <P> There is no legal distinction between a notary and a mobile notary as the government has no rules regarding mobile notaries and no paperwork necessary to become one providing you are a notary public in your state. Mobile notaries generally charge a travel fee on top of notary fees. <P> A mobile notary is any notary who, upon request, travels from location to location to perform notarial services. Hence, the mobile notaries who perform such services are often called notary signing agents or mortgage signing agents. They are distinguished from loan closers who, in most states, have more complex duties than a commissioned notary public. (more...). <P> Notary publics -- or notaries public -- prepare legal documents, officially witness signatures and certify documents by affixing an official seal. Their potential client base includes realtors, insurance brokers, lenders, auto dealerships, law offices, health-care providers and private individuals. Find a niche market that will set you apart from other mobile notaries. For instance, you can focus your efforts on loan signings or power of attorney documents. Or, you may choose to offer a wide variety of services instead as a way to attract more clients. <P> Take a quick e-course! Any notary public can become a mobile notary. A mobile notary is simply a notary public who is willing to travel to a client's home, office, hospital, or jail cell. You can learn more about what a mobile notary is and what they do on http://www.123notary.com/succtips.htm. No special knowledge other than navigation skills is necessary to be a mobile notary, however, it is much more lucrative if you learn the art of loan signing and hospital signings which requires some studying. <P> A mobile notary is a notary public who is mobile and travels to clients. Typically a mobile notary goes to anywhere from one to eight places per day and notarize a single signature, or do a loan signing at any particular stop. A mobile notary may charge the regular fee that notaries may charge in their state plus a travel fee. There are no legal regulations regarding travel fees in most states. Please check your state's page on http://www.123notary.com/find-a-notary-public.asp to see if your state has a travel fee limit. To become a mobile notary, you must first become a commissioned notary public in your state. www.becomeanotary.us sells courses to become a notary public in California and New York State. <P> A notary public (or notary or public notary) of the common law is a public officer constituted by law to serve the public in non-contentious matters usually concerned with estates, deeds, powers-of-attorney, and foreign and international business. <P> A notary public may be described as an officer of the law because the office they hold is a judicial and public office. A mobile notary is very similar to a Notary Public in that all of the abilities and authorities given them are the same. A mobile notary is exactly how it sounds a mobile representative who will drive to a citizen's house to conduct the oath or affirmation, or authenticate/ notarize documents, etc... <P> Nationwide Mobile Notary Public. Superior Notary Services pioneered the concept of Mobile Notary Services” in 2000. Serving the legal, financial and real estate industry, we have changed the landscape of the mobile notary public service industry. Our mobile notary services feature agents that come to you, at your convenience. A mobile notary public is not an attorney and cannot make something legal or ensure that it is true. We are, however, experienced and diligent in the notary process, and we will try within the scope of our assigned role to prevent fraud for our clients. <P> A notary is a lawyer or person with legal training who is licensed by the government to perform acts in legal affairs, in particular witnessing signatures on documents.
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A mobile notary is a notary public who is mobile and travels to clients. Typically a mobile notary goes to anywhere from one to eight places per day and notarize a single signature, or do a loan signing at any particular stop.
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Why Use a Gum Stimulator
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<P> Learn how and when to use a gum stimulator and get expert tips and advice on how to maintain healthy teeth and gums in this free oral hygiene video. Expert: Carol Hirt. Bio: Carol Hirt lives in Houston, Texas, where she studied and graduated from the University of Texas Dental Branch in 2004. <P> Making use of a gum stimulator is an excellent solution to get rid of the undesirable plaque and to maintain your gums in good health. <P> Gum stimulator. Use the rubberized tip of the gum stimulator in a circle for ten secs on every single tooth. For plaque elimination, begin with the front-side of the back teeth and perform forwards along the periodontal line. Do the same motion in an identical region, but on the back-side of the teeth. <P> Point the gum stimulator toward your gums at a 45-degree angle. Run the rubber tip of the gum stimulator in a circle for 10 seconds on each tooth. For plaque removal, start with your front-side of your back teeth and work forward along the gum line. Repeat this action in the same area, but on the back-side of the teeth. <P> Ad. In order to use a gum stimulator, a person might first want to brush his teeth and use dental floss. He can then grip the device and begin moving the rubber tips around in a circle at the gum line in order to stimulate this tissue. <P> Learn how and when to use a gum stimulator and get expert tips and advice on how to maintain healthy teeth and gums in this free oral hygiene video. Part of the Video Series: How to Keep Teeth & Gums Healthy. <P> To be able to make use of a gum stimulator, an individual need to brush his or her teeth and also to use a tooth floss. He need to hold the tool and start moving the rubberized tips around in a circle at the periodontal line to be able to massage this tissue mass. <P> The GUM® Stimulator has been designed by dental professionals to promote healthy and firm gums by massaging the gingival tissues and stimulating the blood flow. The GUM® Stimulator is a traditional method to maintain your gums in good health.
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For cleaning the undesirable plaque and to maintain your gums.
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why is litter and waste a problem
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<P> Litter and waste is chosen as the first. theme because: The subject is particularly relevant to and part of the curriculum in both primary and secondary schools. Litter is a visible problem; both students and the local community will notice improvements in the appearance and image of the school. <P> Litter can cause a whole range of problems for everyone in our communities. Litter discarded in streets and parks can travel through the storm water system to our rivers and creeks, where it can cause harm to wildlife. 1 Litter costs money. <P> Litter is always caused by people. It is waste in the wrong place which ruins the appearance of our towns and countryside. Litter has many forms and many sources, from a sweet wrapper thrown on the street to a dumped bag of rubbish or a fly-tipped load of demolition rubble. <P> It is amazing that 94% of people identify litter as a major environmental problem and yet people still litter. Carelessly discarded garbage affects every member of society: it causes harm to people and animals, damages our waterways, cost us money and suggests that we do not care for our environment. <P> 1 Removing litter from the environment costs everyone money. 2 Litter is a threat to public health. 3 Litter attracts vermin and is a breeding ground for bacteria. 4 Items such as broken glass and syringes can be a health hazard in public places. <P> Contacts for waste and litter pollution. Where the depositing of waste causes or threatens material harm to the environment, a number of authorities must be notified-see duty to notify. <P> Before you even start to think about the solution you need to find out more about the problem. Carry out a litter survey in and around the school to find out how big your litter problem is and who or what causes it. <P> Research and experience have shown that litter is the result of individual behavior—choosing to litter or being careless in the handling of waste. And once litter is on the ground, it attracts more litter. A clean community, by contrast, can discourage littering and improve community appearance and quality of life. <P> Cats are fastidious creatures, and nowhere is that more evident than in their litter box habits. When your cat won’t use the litter box -- and at least 10% of all cats develop an elimination problem -- the cause could be anything from an unclean box to an illness.
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Because threatens material harm to the environment
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what should an evacuation plan include
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<P> Your evacuation plan should also include a way to be certain that everyone has left or is otherwise accounted for when you leave the building. Your evacuation plan should also include a way to ensure that everyone has left or is otherwise accounted for when you leave the building. In the event of a fire or fire alarm, supervisors must be sure that all employees evacuate the building and individuals who may need help are assisted to safety. Each office should develop an evacuation plan, which includes a primary and a secondary escape route. <P> When developing your emergency action plan, it is important to determine the following: 1 Conditions under which an evacuation would be necessary. 2 Conditions under which it may be better to shelter-in-place. 3 A clear chain of command and designation of the person in your business authorized to order an evacuation or shutdown. 4 Specific evacuation 5 ... S To ensure the fastest, most accurate accountability of your employees, you may want to consider including these steps in your emergency action plan 1 : Designate assembly areas or areas, both inside and outside your workplace, where employees should gather after evacuating. 2 Take a head count after the evacuation. 3 Establish a method for accounting ... <P> Fire Emergency Evacuation Plan and the Fire Procedure. A fire emergency evacuation plan (FEEP) is a written document which includes the action to be taken by all staff in the event of fire and the arrangements for calling the fire brigade. It can include any relevant information in relation to the FEEP. You should only plan to use defend in place or phased evacuation schemes, or a staff alarm system, if you have sought the advice of a competent person and the fire and rescue service. Action on discovering a fire: On discovering a fire, it is the duty of every person to sound the nearest fire alarm immediately. <P> Certain emergencies may warrant either complete or partial evacuation of a facility. A complete evacuation involves the removal of all occupants from the building, with the possible exception of emergency team members. A partial evacuation may involve either the relocation of occupants to unaffected areas or removal from the building of only those occupants in affected areas. For each situation where evacuation may be necessary, the entities who have the authority to initiate evacuation must be identified. In various situations, the decision to evacuate can be made by a regulatory agency, the building emergency team leader, or an individual member of the emergency team. <P> Before implementing the emergency action plan, the employer should designate and train enough people to assist in the safe and orderly emergency evacuation of employees. Training should be offered to employees when you develop your initial plan and to all newly hired employees. Employees designated to assist in emergencies should be made aware of employees with special needs (who may require extra assistance during an evacuation), how to use the buddy system and any hazardous areas to avoid during an emergency evacuation. <P> 1 Conditions under which an evacuation would be necessary. 2 Conditions under which it may be better to shelter-in-place. 3 A clear chain of command and designation of the person in your business authorized to order an evacuation or shutdown. 4 Specific evacuation procedures, including routes and exits. To ensure the fastest, most accurate accountability of your employees, you may want to consider including these steps in your emergency action plan 1 : Designate assembly areas or areas, both inside and outside your workplace, where employees should gather after evacuating. 2 Take a head count after the evacuation. 3 Establish a method for accounting ... <P> Be sure all employees understand the function and elements of your emergency action plan, including types of potential emergencies, reporting procedures, alarm systems, evacuation plans, and shutdown procedures. Employees designated to assist in emergencies should be made aware of employees with special needs (who may require extra assistance during an evacuation), how to use the buddy system and any hazardous areas to avoid during an emergency evacuation. <P> 1 Conditions under which it may be better to shelter-in-place. 2 A clear chain of command and designation of the person in your business authorized to order an evacuation or shutdown. 3 Specific evacuation procedures, including routes and exits. To ensure the fastest, most accurate accountability of your employees, you may want to consider including these steps in your emergency action plan 1 : Designate assembly areas or areas, both inside and outside your workplace, where employees should gather after evacuating. 2 Take a head count after the evacuation. 3 Establish a method for accounting ... <P> The fire emergency evacuation plan must be included in the instruction and training you need to give your employees. Effective fire routine is dependant on regular instruction, training, practice, etc. You should only plan to use defend in place or phased evacuation schemes, or a staff alarm system, if you have sought the advice of a competent person and the fire and rescue service. Action on discovering a fire: On discovering a fire, it is the duty of every person to sound the nearest fire alarm immediately. <P> Accounting for Employees after an Evacuation To ensure the fastest, most accurate accountability of your employees, you may want to consider including these steps in your emergency action plan: Designate assembly areas where employees should gather after evacuating. Take a head count after the evacuation. Employees designated to assist in emergencies should be made aware of employees with special needs (who may require extra assistance during an evacuation), how to use the buddy system and any hazardous areas to avoid during an emergency
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A way to be certain that everyone has left or is otherwise accounted for when you leave the building.
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cooking time for roasted beef short ribs
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<P> Heat oil in a large roasting pan over medium-high heat. Season the beef ribs generously with salt and pepper. Sear ribs in roasting pan until well browned on all sides, about 15 minutes. Remove ribs and set aside. Wipe out roasting pan, return the ribs, and cover with parchment-lined foil. Transfer ribs to oven and roast until meat is tender and falling off the bone, about 4 hours. <P> Preheat the oven to 400 degrees F. Place the short ribs on a sheet pan, sprinkle with salt and pepper, and roast for 15 minutes. Remove from the oven. Reduce the oven temperature to 300 degrees F. Cover the Dutch oven and bake for 2 hours or until the meat is very tender. Carefully remove the short ribs from the pot and set aside. Discard the herbs and skim the excess fat. Cook the vegetables and sauce over medium heat for 20 minutes, until reduced. <P> Place the ribs into a Dutch oven. 3. Heat the oven to 350 degrees F. 4. Add the remaining ingredients into the Dutch oven then bring to a boil. 5. Cover the Dutch oven tightly and cook for about 1 1/2 to 2 hours or until the ribs are fork-tender. 6. Remove the ribs from the Dutch oven. 7 <P> 1 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 2 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes. 3 Remove from oven, and turn the ribs over, brush with additional sauce, bake for another 30 minutes. 1 Cover, and refrigerate for 2 hours or as long as 48 hours, turning the ribs every so often. 2 Preheat the oven to 325°F. 3 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 4 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes. <P> Preheat the oven to 400 degrees F (204 degrees C). Place the short ribs on a baking sheet, season with salt and pepper, and roast in the oven for 15 minutes. Remove the ribs from the oven, and then reduce oven temperature to 300 degrees F (149 degrees C). <P> Prep Time: 10 Minutes Cook Time: about 2 Hours and 20 Minutes Ready In: about 2 Hours and 30 Minutes Makes 6 servings. Ingredients: 4 lbs. beef short ribs 1/4 tsp. ground cinnamon 1/4 tsp. ground cloves 1/4 tsp. fresh black pepper 3 Tbsp. cider vinegar 2 Tbsp. 3. Heat the oven to 350 degrees F. 4. Add the remaining ingredients into the Dutch oven then bring to a boil. 5. Cover the Dutch oven tightly and cook for about 1 1/2 to 2 hours or until the ribs are fork-tender. 6. Remove the ribs from the Dutch oven. <P> 4. Clean and oil cooking grate. Place short ribs, bone side down, on cooler side of grill about 2 inches from flames. Brush with 1/4 cup glaze. Cover and cook until ribs register 195 degrees, 1.75 to 2.25 hours, rotating and brushing ribs with 1/4 cup glaze every 30 minutes. <P> 1 Place the ribs in a large bowl, and coat with the sauce. 2 Cover, and refrigerate for 2 hours or as long as 48 hours, turning the ribs every so often. 3 Preheat the oven to 325°F. 4 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 5 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes. 1 Cover, and refrigerate for 2 hours or as long as 48 hours, turning the ribs every so often. 2 Preheat the oven to 325°F. 3 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 4 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes. <P> 1 Preheat the oven to 325°F. 2 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 3 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes. 4 Remove from oven, and turn the ribs over, brush with additional sauce, bake for another 30 minutes. 1 Cover, and refrigerate for 2 hours or as long as 48 hours, turning the ribs every so often. 2 Preheat the oven to 325°F. 3 Drain the ribs (reserving the sauce), and place them in a large roasting pan, bone-side down. 4 Brush with sauce, and bake for 30 minutes.
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2 Hours and 30 Minutes
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what is a homolog
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<P> In the context of biology, homology is the existence of shared ancestry between a pair of structures, or genes, in different species. A common example of homologous structures in evolutionary biology are the wings of bats and the arms of primates. Evolutionary theory explains the existence of homologous structures adapted to different purposes as the result of descent with modification from a common ancestor. <P> 1 The term, homolog, may apply to the relationship between genes separated by the event of speciation (see ortholog) or to the relationship betwen genes separated by the event of genetic duplication (see paralog). 2 Orthologs are genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene by speciation. <P> 1 A gene related to a second gene by descent from a common ancestral DNA sequence. 2 The term, homolog, may apply to the relationship between genes separated by the event of speciation (see ortholog) or to the relationship betwen genes separated by the event of genetic duplication (see paralog). <P> The word homology, coined in about 1656, derives from the Greek ὁμόλογος homologos from ὁμός homos same and λόγος logos relation. In biology, two things are homologous if they bear the same relationship to one another, such as a certain bone in various forms of the hand. <P> Definition of Homolog, Ortholog and Paralog. It was suggested that I might want to provide definitions which made the difference between these terms clear. These definitions are provided here. 1 A gene related to a second gene by descent from a common ancestral DNA sequence. <P> Homology is a relationship defined between structures or DNA derived from a common ancestor. Homologous traits of organisms are therefore explained by descent <P> Medical Definition of HOMOLOGY. 1. a: likeness in structure between parts of different organisms due to evolutionary differentiation from the same or a corresponding part of a remote ancestor—compare analogy, homomorphy b: correspondence in structure between different parts of the same individual. 2.
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Relationship between genes separated by the event of speciation.
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which characteristic makes a cell membrane selectively permeable
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<P> 3. One important feature of plasma membranes is that they are selectively permeable. Selectively permeable means that substances can pass through the cell membrane but other substances can’t. Sometimes this selectivity is passive. It does not require the cell to do any work. <P> All cells are enclosed with a cell membrane. A selectively permeable cell membrane is one that allows certain molecules or ions to pass through it by means of active or passive transport. Active transport processes require the cell to expend energy to move the materials, while passive transport can be done without using cellular energy. Selectively permeable membranes can be found around a variety of cells and places. The most common example is the phospholipid bilayer cell membrane that surrounds every cell in our bodies. Another example of a selectively permeable membrane is the inner membranes of an egg. <P> Summary. The cell membrane is semi permeable-meaning some particles can cross the membrane while others may not. It is made up of layers that are both attracted to water-the phosphate bilayers and layers that are hydrophobic (fatty acid layers). Outside of the cell water makes the phosphate layers line up. Osmosis is the movement of water across the semi permeable cell membrane. The cell membrane has phospholipid bilayers. These layers are made up of glycerol, two fatty acids, and a phosphate. The phosphate part of the cell membrane is attracted to water but the fatty acid part of the membrane is not. <P> However, only the Selectively cells can enter and go out of the cell! Th … is is why the selectively permeable membrane is permeable! A cell membrane (the outer casing or inner casing in a plant cell) is selectively permeable because some materials can pass freely through the cell membrane while others cannot. The property of phospholipids that makes them ideal for making up the selectively permeable cell membrane is their ability to form a lipid bilayer. A hydrophilic head and … a hydrophobic tail play an important role in the cell membrane. <P> Each cell is surrounded by a. selectively permeable. cell membrane. which regulates what gets into and out of the cell. A selectively permeable membrane allows some types of molecules and ions to diffuse across the membrane and prevents other types of molecules and ions from crossing the membrane. <P> A selectively permeable membrane is a membrane that allows some substances to pass through easily, while other substances pass through very slowly or not at all. All cell membranes, including the plasma membrane, are selectively permeable. <P> Report Abuse. The cell membrane is NOT freely permeable to water, there are special pores called aquaporins that allow water to move across a cell membrane. The cell membrane does allow the passage of small hydrophobic molecules across the membrane. Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: The cell membrane functions as a barrier that makes it possible for the cytoplasm to maintain a different composition from the material surrounding the cell. The unit membrane is freely permeable to water molecules but very impermeable to ions and charged molecules. <P> Selective permeability refers to the ability of a membrane to only allow certain objects or items in or out of the cell. Cells must be selectively permeable so that the co … ntents of the cell don't leak out. The property of phospholipids that makes them ideal for making up the selectively permeable cell membrane is their ability to form a lipid bilayer. A hydrophilic head and … a hydrophobic tail play an important role in the cell membrane. <P> The cell membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
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A selectively permeable membrane is a membrane that allows some substances to pass through easily, while other substances pass through very slowly or not at all. All cell membranes, including the plasma membrane, are selectively permeable.
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legal age in usa to drive a car with a license
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<P> The legal age to drive a car in the United states is 15 years old with a permit and a licensed adult present. It is the age of 16 when you can get a driver's license. The le … gal age to drive in the United States is different depending on the State you live in. 16 is NOT a legal age in New Jersey, though it is in Michigan. Each state has their own laws regarding age, educational requirements, etc. <P> Cyprus: 18. Europe: 18 (the UK is 17, but considering an increase to 18 years of age). It seems like 18 is the most common age to acquire a driver's license around the world with the exception of the U.S., New Zealand, the UK, and Ethiopia. <P> By: Amy Nutt. The legal driving age is the age in which a person can obtain their driver's license to operate a motor vehicle. In the United States, the age in which a person can legally drive is 16 and there are certain rules that must be met before the teenager receives their license. <P> The legal age to drive a car in the United states is 15 years old with a permit and a licensed adult present. It is the age of 16 when you can get a driver's license. The legal age to drive in the United States is different depending on the State you live in. 16 is NOT a legal age in New Jersey, though it is in Michigan. Each state has their own laws regarding age, educational requirements, etc. <P> Confidence votes 78. The legal age to drive a car in the United states is 15 years old with a permit and a licensed adult present. It is the age of 16 when you can get a driver's license. The legal age to drive in the United States is different depending on the State you live in. 16 is NOT a legal age in New Jersey, though it is in Michigan. Each state has their own laws regarding age, educational requirements, etc.
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16 years
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what else are skeletal muscles called
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<P> They are called skeletal muscles because they are almost always found attached to the skeleton and produce movements in different parts of the skeleton. Smooth Muscles: Smooth muscles form the soft body organs like stomach, intestine, blood vessels etc. <P> Skeletal muscle is made up of individual muscle cells or myocytes, known as muscle fibers. They are formed from the fusion of developmental myoblasts (a type of embryonic progenitor cell that gives rise to a muscle cell) in a process known as myogenesis. Muscle fibres are cylindrical, and multinucleated. The myofibrils are composed of actin and myosin filaments, repeated in units called sarcomeres, the basic functional units of the muscle fiber. The sarcomere is responsible for the striated appearance of skeletal muscle, and forms the basic machinery necessary for muscle contraction. <P> Skeletal muscles are usually attached to bone by tendons composed of connective tissue. This connective tissue also ensheaths the entire muscle & is called epimysium. Skeletal muscles consist of numerous subunits or bundles called fasicles (or fascicles). <P> Skeletal muscle is an example of muscle tissue, one of the four types of basic tissue. The essential characteristic of muscle tissue is that it shortens or contracts. There are three kinds of muscle tissue, skeletal, cardiac and smooth. At the attachment points of the muscle all the connective tissue elements combine to form the connective tissue attachment of the muscle to bone or other tissue. If this attachment is round and cord-like it is called a tendon. If the attachment is broad and sheet-like it is called an aponeurosis. <P> Skeletal muscle is a form of striated muscle tissue which is under the voluntary control of the somatic nervous system. It is one of three major muscle types, the others being cardiac muscle and smooth muscle. Most skeletal muscles are attached to bones by bundles of collagen fibers known as tendons. The myofibrils are composed of actin and myosin filaments, repeated in units called sarcomeres, the basic functional units of the muscle fiber. The sarcomere is responsible for the striated appearance of skeletal muscle, and forms the basic machinery necessary for muscle contraction. <P> Some skeletal muscles are broad in shape and some narrow. In some muscles the fibers are parallel to the long axis of the muscle; in some they converge to a narrow attachment; and in some they are oblique. Each skeletal muscle fiber is a single cylindrical muscle cell. An individual skeletal muscle may be made up of hundreds, or even thousands, of muscle fibers bundled together and wrapped in a connective tissue covering. Each muscle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the epimysium. Fascia, connective tissue outside the epimysium, surrounds and separates the muscles. <P> Skeletal-muscle Basics. Skeletal muscle is also called striated muscle, because when it is viewed under polarized light or stained with an indicator, you can see alternating stripes of light and dark. Skeletal muscle has a complex structure that is essential to how it contracts. <P> Skeletal muscle is striated muscle tissue that is attached to bones. It is composed of fibers that look like a mixture of dark and light bands bundled together that run along the bone. There are three different types of muscle tissue within the body. Skeletal muscle is striated muscle tissue that is attached to bones. Skeletal muscle attaches to the bones. At the macroscopic level, the skeletal muscles are composed of a variety of layers. Working out strengthens skeletal muscles, making them more visibl
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Striated muscle
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how many carbs are in wine
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<P> beer standard beers range from 10 to more than 20 grams of carbs in a 12 ounce glass at the low end stouts and lagers contain 10 to 11 grams in a glass porters ales and wheat beers span the middle of the spectrum with various flavors and sweeteners providing 12 to 20 grams of carbs per serving <P> in my page on calories in wine i say how the average glass of wine has 80 calories and 3 grams of carbohydrates the usda lists values of 0 8g to 1 8g <P> wine despite the range of carb content in beers all varieties of beer are higher in carbohydrates than most red and white wines in an average sized glass red wine contains 2 grams of carbs while white wine has about 1 gram less than even the lowest of the low carb beers <P> wine vs beer aside from its soluble fiber content beer has one advantage over wine it contains less alcohol by volume see reference 4 there are about 7 calories in 1 gram of alcohol and slightly less than 4 calories in 1 gram of carbs <P> the carbohydrates come from residual sugar left in wine dry wines have less than 3 grams liter and sweet wines typically range from 20 150 g l some can have up to 300 g l a late harvest dessert wine may have about 150 g l of sugar compared to coca cola at 111 g l and maple syrup at 700 g l <P> whether sweet or dry nearly all of the carbs in wines come from their content of quick burning fruit sugars see reference 3 in contrast beers contain significant amounts of all three carb varieties the sugar content of standard beers ranges from 0 8 to 2 3 percent of their total weight <P> even sweeter fortified wines are lower in carbs than most beers sherry for example contains only 5 carbs in a standard glass about equivalent to a light or low carb beer dessert wines go against this general trend however with these very sweet wines providing as many as 14 grams of <P> the carb count for wine varies depending on the type of wine there is no black and white difference between red and white some whites are high in carbs and some reds are it all depends on the grape here are some carb counts for popular types of wine per five ounce glass reds burgundy 5 46
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3 grams in a glass
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fupa urban dictionary
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<P> 1 That is, a particularly fat pelvic area on men. 2 That dude has major FUPA. 3 That guy is so fat, his belt is pushing his FUPA down. 4 The waiter's FUPA touched my arm when he leaned over the table. 5 See more words with the same meaning: acronyms (list of) . 6 See more words with the same meaning: fat (part of anatomy) . <P> FUPA. FUPA is an acronym for Fat Upper Pussy Area. Contrary to popular belief, the FUPA is *not* a roll of fat hanging over the vaginal area. Rather, it is the area directly *above* the vaginal area which has become enlarged. The FUPA has strange effects on its victims. <P> The Fupa also divides into the upper fupa and the lower fupa.. This division is caused by the pants that the victims wear near the center of their belly, creating the division. Appearing like ass cheeks sideways and the crack near the belt of the pant. <P> FUPA. FUPA: described as fat upper pussy area or fat upper penile area.. All having to do with the upper pubic area which has become uncommonly and humorously large. Most commonly in gargantuan men and women. Sometimes it happens to cats also, for the same reason. <P> FUPA. Acronym for Fat Upper Pussy Area. Describes the small area of fatty tissue that covers a woman's pubis bone. Not to be confused with a flap an obese person's (man's or woman's) hanging stomach fat that sometimes hangs low enough to obscure the genitals. <P> FUPA: described as fat upper pussy area or fat upper penile area.. All having to do with the upper pubic area which has become uncommonly and humorously large. Most commonly in gargantuan men and women. Sometimes it happens to cats also, for the same reason.
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FUPA described as fat upper pussy area or fat upper penile area.
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what is lupus disease medical definition
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<P> SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus): A chronic inflammatory condition caused by an autoimmune disease. An autoimmune disease occurs when the body's tissues are attacked by its own immune system. Patients with lupus have unusual antibodies in their blood that are targeted against their own body tissues. <P> Lupus is an autoimmune disease, which means that the immune system mistakes the body's own tissues as foreign invaders and attacks them. Some people with lupus suffer only minor inconvenience. Others suffer significant lifelong disability. <P> Lupus: A chronic inflammatory disease that is caused by autoimmunity. Patients with lupus have in their blood unusual antibodies that are targeted against their own body tissues. Lupus can cause disease of the skin, heart, lungs, kidneys, joints, and nervous system. <P> Lupus is a chronic inflammatory disease that occurs when your body's immune system attacks your own tissues and organs. Inflammation caused by lupus can affect many different body systems — including your joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart and lungs. <P> Definition of Lupus. Lupus (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus) is a widespread and chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease that, for unknown reasons, causes the immune system to attack the body’s own tissue and organs. Currently, there is no cure for lupus. Lupus causes a wide variety of devastating symptoms. <P> With lupus, the immune system malfunctions and cannot distinguish between foreign invaders and healthy tissue. Antibodies are then produced against the body's healthy cells and tissues, causing inflammation, pain and damage in various parts of the body. <P> systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) a chronic inflammatory disease, usually febrile and characterized by injury to the skin, joints, kidneys, nervous system, and mucous membranes. It can, however, affect any organ of the body and usually has periods of remissions and exacerbations.
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A chronic inflammatory disease that occurs when your body's immune system attacks your own tissues and organs.
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what is gbb
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<P> Shaw GBB is a globally known engineering firm with special expertise in container handling cranes, wharves conveyor systems and bulk handling equipment. The company formerly known as GBB was acquired by the Shaw Group in 2006. The Shaw Group was purchased by CB&I in February 2013. <P> At Gershman, Brickner & Bratton, Inc. (GBB), we believe effective management of solid waste is an imperative that directly affects the health of our planet—both today and far into the future. <P> AEG or GBB Airsoft guns. For years now, the Airsoft marketplace has been accepting new products that can inspire innovation immediately after viewing the product. In the past few years, we’ve seen the rise of the GBB (Gas Blow Back) rifle, as well as the PolarStar Electro-pneumatic gearbox and rifle collection. As a sport, airsoft thrives and survives off new products and ideas, and these new items will always challenge the accepted principles that are in place today. <P> Without more clarification, I can only assume that you're talking airsoft. GBB for airsoft stands for Gas BlowBack. I have never seen this term used in relation to firearms. That doesn't mean that it is not. I would assume that the definition would be the same. <P> GBB Profile. Shaw GBB is a globally known engineering firm with special expertise in container handling cranes, wharves conveyor systems and bulk handling equipment. The company formerly known as GBB was acquired by the Shaw Group in 2006. The Shaw Group was purchased by CB&I in February 2013.
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Gas Blow Back is a gun
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what is the incubation period of conjunctivitis
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<P> Please Share! When pink eye is caused by certain bacteria or viruses, the infected person can be contagious for several days to several weeks or more. Fortunately, people do not appear to be contagious during the incubation period the time between when they are exposed and when pink eye symptoms begin. Schools and day care centers often require a child diagnosed with pink eye to stay home until the condition is resolved. <P> For someone with pink eye caused by a virus, the person can be contagious for up to 14 days from the time that symptoms first appear. Keep in mind that just because you or your child was given an antibiotic, this does not necessarily mean that it is bacterial conjunctivitis. <P> 1. Pink eye caused by virus or bacteria is highly contagious, but during the incubation period for pink eye, it is not contagious. Bacterial conjunctivitis becomes contagious when the symptoms start to appear and continue for 24 hours after an antibiotic is given. Incubation Period for Pink Eye. Conjunctivitis is also referred to as red eye and is quite common. It is also called infectious conjunctivitis. The front of the eye is covered with a thin tissue layer which gets red and inflamed. <P> The incubation period for pink eye will vary, depending on whether it is caused by bacteria or a virus and the specific type. For a viral infection, generally 12 hours to three days later, signs and/or symptoms of pink eye will appear. Pink eye is the layman's term for conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva, which is a clear, thin piece of tissue that covers the whites of the eyes and the inner eyelids. There are several reasons why the conjunctiva can become inflamed. <P> So the time between the exposure and the beginning of the first symptoms is known as the incubation period. » For a pink eye that has been caused by a viral infection, the incubation period is generally 1 - 12 hours. » If the pinky eye is bacterial, then the incubation period can range from 1 - 3 days. » In some people, STD like chlamydia or gonorrhoea may also trigger pink eye <P> Incubation period for pink eye caused by virus is around 12 hours to 3 days and a person can go back to work or school when the symptoms improve. That would be in 3 to 5 days. For bacterial infection, the person can go back to work 24 hours after antibiotic has been administered and symptoms start improving. Incubation Period for Pink Eye. Conjunctivitis is also referred to as red eye and is quite common. It is also called infectious conjunctivitis. The front of the eye is covered with a thin tissue layer which gets red and inflamed. <P> Viral and bacterial infections, foreign bodies or allergies may cause the condition. Incubation Period For bacterial conjunctivitis, the incubation period ranges from 24-72 hours, and for viral conjunctivitis, the incubation period is usually 12 hours – 3 days. Clinical Description Conjunctivitis, or pink eye, is an acute condition characterized by redness of the eye(s). Other symptoms can include tearing, irritation, and photophobia, which may be followed by swelling of the lids and/or a purulent discharge. <P> Pink eye Incubation Period. The incubation period for pink eye depends on the cause of the condition. Incubation period is amount of time between exposure to pathogen or allergen to the start of symptoms. Symptoms of pink eye do not develop immediately after contracting infectious agent. Symptoms of viral conjunctivitis typically start to appear 12 hours to 3 days after exposure to virus. Incubation period for bacterial conjunctivitis is between 1 and 3 days. Even though viral and bacterial conjunctivitis are contagious, an infected person cannot transmit the disease during the incubation period. <P> Incubation Period for Pink Eye: An Overview. Pink eye is the layman's term for conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva, which is a clear, thin piece of tissue that covers the whites of the eyes and the inner eyelids. There are several reasons why the conjunctiva can become inflamed.
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12 hours to 3 days
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how can i speed up my laptop startup
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<P> If it is taking forever for your laptop to startup then here is how to speed up your laptop startup. You see... The more you use your laptop, the more programs you probably download and install on your laptop. And a lot of these programs are set to automatically load whenever you turn on your laptop. Type in msconfig into the menu. A window will then appear. After that, click on the Startup tab. This will give you a long and detailed list of all of the things that get started up when you turn on your laptop. Go through the list and if you see anything that you don't want started up then uncheck the box. <P> But by getting rid of a few programs, not only will it speed up your laptop startup, but it will run faster in general. It won't be clogged with all of those extra programs that are running. This is a very simple trick that you can do that will do wonders for your computer. The best thing is it only takes a few minutes. Type in msconfig into the menu. A window will then appear. After that, click on the Startup tab. This will give you a long and detailed list of all of the things that get started up when you turn on your laptop. Go through the list and if you see anything that you don't want started up then uncheck the box. <P> VIEW ALL PHOTOS IN GALLERY Windows 7 made notable speed improvements over its predecessor, Vista, but it can't compare with the much faster Windows 8. And most people haven't experienced the 15-second boot that Microsoft engineers were shooting for in Windows 7 (and achieved in Windows 8 for many machines). The problem with most speed-up Windows 7 stories is that they tell you to turn off some of the operating system's more charming visual features. The first nine of my dozen tips show you ways you can speed up your Windows 7 system without compromising its appearance. <P> Cookies and temporary Internet files occupy computer memory which results is slow computer performance. You can go to Internet options under tools on your browser and delete cookies. You can also use my computer section of your computer and right click your C drive and perform disk clean up to remove unwanted files. This is quick way to boost your laptop / PC performance. <P> 9. One of the most tried and true ways to speed up your boot process is to keep unnecessary programs from starting up with your computer. You can do this in Windows 10 by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc to open the Task Manager, and going to the Startup tab. If you’re still running Windows 7, open the Start menu, type msconfig, and press enter. You’ll see all the programs that launch when you boot up your computer. <P> Below are some of the best tips to speed up your Windows startup. The first and most important thing you could do to speed up Windows startup is remove or disable programs from starting up when you boot Windows. There are two ways to do this manually. Remove Programs from StartUp. 1 Click on the Windows Start button in the left corner of your screen. 2 Type run in the Search field. 3 Type msconfig in the Run command line, this will load the System Configuration tool. <P> Ignore this : Speed up and make windows 8.1 /windows 8 fast startup boot run max performance. Speed Up windows 8.1 2014. how to get more ram on windows 8 how to increase ram on windows 8. how to make windows 8 faster for gaming. <P> This will speed up your computer when accessing files and starting programs because your computer will not have to search all over the hard drive for things that should be located next to one another. Check to see what is on your startup menu by choosing START, RUN and typing in msconfig. Go to the startup tab. Delete any non essential programs set to automatically start when you power on the computer and this should speed up your computer. You can also use a software program that makes the process easier. It is called Autoruns. <P> Clean Out Programs that Launch at Startup. One of the most tried and true ways to speed up your boot process is to keep unnecessary programs from starting up with your computer. You can do this in Windows 10 by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc to open the Task Manager, and going to the Startup tab. If you’re still running Windows 7, open the Start menu, type msconfig, and press enter. You’ll see all the programs that launch when you boot up your computer. <P> Another way of speeding up your startup is changing your Windows Theme. Find out how to do this in our Change Windows Theme guide. A third method to speed the Windows startup is to remove unnecessary programs from your computer and registry. Remove Programs from StartUp. 1 Click on the Windows Start button in the left corner of your screen. 2 Type run in the Search field. 3 Type msconfig in the Run command line, this will load the System Configuration tool.
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In Windows 10 by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc to open the Task Manager, and going to the Startup tab.If you’re still running Windows 7, open the Start menu, type msconfig, and press enter. You’ll see all the programs that launch when you boot up your computer.
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what is rosehip seed oil
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<P> Rosehip seed oil has been used by the people of Chile for hundreds of years as a cosmetic treatment for the skin, but it has only recently gained visibility in other parts of the world. 1 Rosehip seed oil is not suitable for people with oily or acne-prone skin. 2 Perform a patch test 24 hours before using rosehip seed oil to check for allergic reaction. 3 Apply a small amount of oil in an inconspicuous area and wait for 24 hours. <P> In a moisturizer and as a moisturizer. Rosehip seed oil is often described as a “dry” oil (one that is easily absorbed into your skin, leaving no oily residue). I don’t find this to be completely the case, however. 1 Nighttime moisturizer: I’ll apply rosehip seed oil directly to my face and neck with a cotton pad and let it sit there for 10-20 minutes or so as I finish up getting ready for bed. 2 I’ll then take another cotton pad and gently wipe off any excess before going to sleep. <P> Contrary to my facial expression, rosehip seed oil is not deathly boring. In a toner spray. I love reading interviews with professional models about the skincare products they use (I mean, it’s their job to have amazing skin!), and again and again kept seeing rosehip seed oil come up. 1 Nighttime moisturizer: I’ll apply rosehip seed oil directly to my face and neck with a cotton pad and let it sit there for 10-20 minutes or so as I finish up getting ready for bed. 2 I’ll then take another cotton pad and gently wipe off any excess before going to sleep. <P> We often come across the words rosehip seed oil while reading the ingredients list on skincare products. But it wasn't until former Victoria's Secret Angel Miranda Kerr name dropped it as the secret to her radiant complexion that we explored further. With beauty benefits like these, we believe rosehip seed oil has the potential to become the next coconut oil. Kerr told PopSugar Beauty: I like to wear rosehip oil at night. It’s full of that many antioxidants and it really works on a cellular level too to rejuvenate the skin. <P> Apply undiluted rosehip seed oil twice daily to the face and body to treat wrinkles, scars, sun damage, dermatitis, stretch marks and discoloration. Use rosehip seed oil as a daily moisturizer for very dry skin. 1 Rosehip seed oil is not suitable for people with oily or acne-prone skin. 2 Perform a patch test 24 hours before using rosehip seed oil to check for allergic reaction. 3 Apply a small amount of oil in an inconspicuous area and wait for 24 hours. <P> Most of the rose hips used for rosehip seed oil grow wild in the southern Andes although that is not the only habitat for the Sweet Briar, or Eglantine rose. It is a deciduous shrub with delicious apple-scented leaves. Rosehip seed oil in short helps prevent premature aging, soothes, heals and moisturizes mature skin, and prevents the formation of keloid scar tissue, which is the characteristic thickening of the skin in scar formation. It also helps to heal conditions such as: 1 Dermatitis. <P> With skin rejuvenating properties like vitamin C and lycopene, rosehip seed oil is a safer solution to repair the skin's surface, restore elasticity and protects against sun and pollution stressors that can lead to wrinkles. With beauty benefits like these, we believe rosehip seed oil has the potential to become the next coconut oil. Kerr told PopSugar Beauty: I like to wear rosehip oil at night. It’s full of that many antioxidants and it really works on a cellular level too to rejuvenate the skin. <P> Before you start slathering rosehip seed oil on your face, we asked Joanna Vargas, celebrity facialist and founder of the eponymous salon and skincare collection, and Dr. Elizabeth Tanzi, co-director of the Washington Institute of Dermatologic Laser Surgery, to explain why this skin savior is so great. With beauty benefits like these, we believe rosehip seed oil has the potential to become the next coconut oil. Kerr told PopSugar Beauty: I like to wear rosehip oil at night. It’s full of that many antioxidants and it really works on a cellular level too to rejuvenate the skin.
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Rose hip seed oil is a pressed seed oil, extracted from the seeds of a wild rose bush (Rosa moschata or Rosa rubiginosa) in the southern Andes.
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what type of business combination was heinz kraft
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<P> With the merger, Kraft’s products will benefit from Heinz’s presence outside the U.S. The two companies also expect to trim $1.5 billion in annual costs by the end of 2017. “This is my kind of transaction, uniting two world-class organizations and delivering shareholder value,” Buffett said in the statement. Berkshire and 3G will invest $10 billion in the deal, which values Kraft at about $46 billion, before net debt, based on its stock price Tuesday and the cash payment investors will receive. The merger creates a stable of household names -- everything from Heinz ketchup to Jell-O -- with revenue of about $28 billion. <P> The Kraft Heinz Company Announces Successful Completion of the Merger between Kraft Foods Group and H.J. Heinz Holding Corporation Combination Creates Unparalleled Portfolio of Powerful and Iconic Brands. PITTSBURGH, Pa. and NORTHFIELD, Ill. pleased to announce the successful completion of the merger between Kraft and Heinz. The transaction creates the third-largest food and beverage company in North America and. the fifth-largest food and beverage company in the world with an unparalleled portfolio of. iconic brands. <P> The $70 billion combination of Kraft and Heinz is a big, big deal, but it is perhaps most interesting for how the parties have agreed to run the combined company. It is also an odd deal from the start. Kraft shareholders will receive one share of Heinz stock for each share of Kraft stock. This is par for the course. <P> The Kraft Heinz Company is a multinational food company formed as a result of the merger between Kraft Foods and Heinz. The Kraft Heinz Company now has 13 different brands valued at $500 million or more each. The merger has been agreed to by the boards of both companies, with approvals by shareholders and regulatory authorities. <P> 1 Combined company to be named The Kraft Heinz Company and to be co-headquartered in Pittsburgh and the Chicago area. 2 The new company will have revenues of approximately $28 billion with eight $1+ billion brands and five brands between $500 million-$1 billion. Global Brand Portfolio Powerhouse. The combination of these iconic food companies joins together two portfolios of beloved brands, including Heinz, Kraft, Oscar Mayer, Ore-Ida and Philadelphia. Together the new company will have eight $1+ billion brands and five brands between $500 million and <P> The combination of these iconic food companies joins together two portfolios of beloved brands, including Heinz, Kraft, Oscar Mayer, Ore-Ida and Philadelphia. Together the new company will have eight $1+ billion brands and five brands between $500 million and $1 billion. The combined companies will generate about $28 billion in annual revenues. Each Kraft shareholder will get a $16.50 cash dividend, according to the release. Shareholders will also have a 49% stake in the combined company. Existing Heinz shareholders will own 51% of the new company, according to the release. <P> Kraft Foods Group. Heinz and Kraft have just announced a merger that will make the unified companies into the fifth-largest food and beverage company in the world, according to a press release. Berkshire Hathaway and 3G Capital are investing $10 billion in the combined company, which will be called The Kraft Heinz Company. The combined companies will generate about $28 billion in annual revenues. Each Kraft shareholder will get a $16.50 cash dividend, according to the release. Shareholders will also have a 49% stake in the combined company. Existing Heinz shareholders will own 51% of the new company, according to the release. <P> The new company is expected to become the fifth-largest food and beverage company in the world and the third-largest in the United States. The company will have dual headquarters in Pittsburgh and Chicago, the respective headquarters of Heinz and Kraft. Under the merger, Kraft's shareholders received 49% of shares in the combined company, plus a one-time payment of US$16.50 dividend per share. The Kraft Heinz Company now has 13 different brands valued at $500 million or more each. The merger has been agreed to by the boards of both companies, with approvals by shareholders and regulatory authorities. <P> As a combined company, Kraft Heinz will have revenue of about $28 billion, with eight individual brands each reporting sales of at least $1 billion a year, and five brands with $500 million to $1 billion in sales. McCormick. $2.4. Heinz will control 51 percent of the combined company, while Kraft shareholders, who have yet to vote on the deal, will own 49 percent. Kraft shareholders will receive a special cash dividend of $16.50 a share, or about $10 billion, to be paid for by 3G Capital and Berkshire.
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Kraft Foods and Heinz
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what is colovesical fistula medical definition
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<P> By Sally Robertson, BSc. A fistula is an abnormal, tube-like connection that forms between two organs or vessels that are lined with epithelial cells. Fistulas are generally the result of a disease condition, but artificial fistulas may also be surgically created for therapy. Fistulas may also form between the rectum and the vagina and this is called a rectovaginal fistula. Although fistulas are usually caused by injury or surgery, they may also form after an infection has led to severe inflammation. <P> A colovesical fistula is the presence of a communication between the lumen of the colon and that of the bladder, either directly or via an intervening abscess cavity (foyer intermediaire). When the communication is between the rectum and urinary bladder, the term rectovesical fistula is used. Radiographic features. In most cases the fistula occurs thought the dome of the bladder (~ 60%). The posterior wall (~ 30%) and trigone (~ 10%) are less frequent sites 2. A colovesical fistulas and its cause can be visualised in a number of ways, although the fistulous tract itself is often difficult to demonstrated. <P> Colovesical fistula usually results from bowel disease, with the bladder being secondarily involved. Half of such fistulas are complications of diverticulitis, secondary to abscess formation between the two organs. <P> Vaginal fistula, (particularly due to diverticular disease), Crohn's disease or carcinoma of the colon or bladder, instrumentation and after trauma are other causes of gas production, and differential diagnosis should be made with emphysematous cystitis. colovesical fistula, a fistula connecting the colon and the urinary bladder. Also called vesicocolonic fistula. 1 Facebook. 2 Twitter. <P> Definitions: 1. a fistulous passage connecting the colon and urinary bladder. Synonyms: vesicocolic fistula. The definition information for colovesical fistula is provided by Stedman's. You can search our medical dictionary here. <P> Examples of naturally occurring fistulas are those that form between the end of the bowel and skin near the anus (anal fistula) or between the intestine and the vagina (enterovaginal fistula). Fistulas may also form between the rectum and the vagina and this is called a rectovaginal fistula. Although fistulas are usually caused by injury or surgery, they may also form after an infection has led to severe inflammation. <P> Colovesical fistula. Definition. noun. (1) An abnormal connection (or passageway) between colon and urinary bladder. (2) A form of vesicointestinal fistula located between the large intestine and urinary bladder. Supplement. Normally the urinary system is not connected to the alimentary canal. However, certain conditions may result in a fistula between them, in this case, between colon and the urinary bladder. <P> These fistulas may form a connection between the bladder and the vagina (vesicovaginal), the skin of the abdomen (vesicocutaneous), or the intestinal tract. Fistulas that connect to any part of the intestine are collectively referred to as vesicoenteric fistulas. Fistulas between the bladder and intestine can occur at the colon (colovesical, most common), rectum (rectovesical), ileum (ileovesical), or the appendix (appendicovesical). The result of any of these conditions is a free exchange of fluids between the bladder and the area connected by the fistula
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1) An abnormal connection (or passageway) between colon and urinary bladder. (2) A form of vesicointestinal fistula located between the large intestine and urinary bladder.
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hematologic response definition
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<P> Molecular Response is defined as a negative PCR or other negative molecular test. Molecular responses can only be measured using a Polymerase Chain Reaction/PCR test. A PCR test is defined as a very sensitive test which can be used to detect the presence of very low levels of specific genetic material (DNA) . The response can be partial HR (reduction in white cells,but not down to normal range) or complete CHR (white blood count at or below approximately 12,000 white cells/microliter). Your doctor will anticipate CHR within the first three months of treatment, however, some patients may take longer to achieve this level. <P> 1) C ytogenetic response (CR or CyR): A cytogenetic response means any Ph+ chromosome reading less than what you began with at diagnosis; 2) Major cytogenetic response (MCR or MCyR); Major means 35% or less of the cells in your marrow test positive for the Philadelphia chromosome, but more than 0%; The response can be partial HR (reduction in white cells,but not down to normal range) or complete CHR (white blood count at or below approximately 12,000 white cells/microliter). Your doctor will anticipate CHR within the first three months of treatment, however, some patients may take longer to achieve this level. <P> A major molecular response means that the amount of BCR-ABL protein in your marrow is very low. A complete molecular response, formerly (and sometimes still) referred to as PCRU means that no BCR-ABL protein is detectible in the marrow utilizing the P olymerase C hain R eaction test. Today, the use of PCRU as an indicator of deepest response is changing. The response can be partial HR (reduction in white cells,but not down to normal range) or complete CHR (white blood count at or below approximately 12,000 white cells/microliter). Your doctor will anticipate CHR within the first three months of treatment, however, some patients may take longer to achieve this level. <P> A hematologic response (HR) is one that happens with blood counts. For example, when diagnosed your white count may have been quite high. A positive hematologic response would be indicated by a decrease in your white count. For practical purposes, a HR means that your blood counts have returned to the normal range. A cytogenetic response is indicated by the number (or percentage) of Philadelphia Chromosome positive (PH+) cells contained in the bone marrow. A complete cytogenetic response (CCyR) indicates that no PH+ metaphases are present in the sample. <P> Although imatinib can induce a hematologic response in 52-82% of patients, the response is sustained for at least 4 weeks in only 31-64% of patients. The complete response rate is lower, at 7-34% of patients. In 118 patients with chronic-phase CML, a major cytogenetic response was attained in 32% of patients, a complete cytogenetic response was attained in 24%, and a complete hematologic response was attained in 73%. <P> Major cytogenetic responses occurred in 16% of patients, with 7% of the responses being complete. For patients with chronic-phase CML, imatinib at 400 mg/day is the best candidate for primary therapy, because it induces a complete hematologic response in almost all patients and causes a high cytogenetic response rate. In 118 patients with chronic-phase CML, a major cytogenetic response was attained in 32% of patients, a complete cytogenetic response was attained in 24%, and a complete hematologic response was attained in 73%. <P> In blast phase: 52% of patients achieved a hematologic remission and 31% a sustained remission lasting at least 4 weeks with imatinib mesylate. However, the median response duration is only 10 months, even when considering only patients with sustained remission (i.e., lasting at least 4 weeks). Patients with a lymphoid blastic phase treated with therapy similar to that given for acute lymphocytic leukemia (i.e. vincristine, doxorubicin, and dexamethasone, with or without cyclophosphamide) have a complete response rate of 60%. <P> Standardization studies are ongoing and definition of molecular response currently vary. 1 Complete molecular response: no detectable bcr-abl transcripts by RT-PCR. 2 Major molecular response: ≥ 3-log reduction in the level of bcr-abl transcripts or bcr-abl/abl ratio ≤ 0.05%. Patients with a lymphoid blastic phase treated with therapy similar to that given for acute lymphocytic leukemia (i.e. vincristine, doxorubicin, and dexamethasone, with or without cyclophosphamide) have a complete response rate of 60%. <P> Medical Definition of HEMATOLOGIC. : of or relating to blood or to hematology. — he·ma·to·log·i·cal·ly or chiefly British hae·ma·to·log·i·cal·ly \-i-k(ə-)lē\ adverb.
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A hematologic response (HR) is one that happens with blood counts.
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what is a characteristic of dicotyledonous plants
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<P> Daisies, along with most food crops and woody plants such as roses, are dicots. Dicotyledonous plants, commonly called dicots, are one of the two major classes -- along with monocots -- of flowering plants known as angiosperms. Blurred Taxonomy. Some dicotyledonous plants are difficult to classify because they have characteristics of both monocots and dicots. This mixture of characteristics results from the shared ancestry of both classes of angiosperms. DNA sequencing has shown that some dicots may be more closely related to monocots than other dicot <P> di·cot·y·le·don. A flowering plant having two cotyledons that usually appear at germination of the seed. Dicotyledons have leaves with a network of veins radiating from a central main vein, flower parts in multiples of 4 or 5, and a tissue layer known as cambium. Most cultivated plants and many trees are dicotyledons. <P> Monocot and dicot are short for monocotyledon and dicotyledon. These are different types of Angiosperms (flower-producing plants). Monocotyledons have veins going up to the top of the leaf and no midrib, while dicotyledons have veins branching out from a thick, center midrib. Monocots have only one cotyledon in the seed while dicots have two cotyledons <P> They constitute one of the major groups into which flowering plants (or angiosperms) have traditionally been divided, the rest of the flowering plants having two cotyledons and being classed as dicotyledons, or dicots. Historically, this feature was used to contrast the monocots with the dicotyledons or dicots which typically have two cotyledons; however modern research has shown that the dicots are not a natural group. <P> These are different types of Angiosperms (flower-producing plants). Monocotyledons … have veins going up to the top of the leaf and no midrib, while dicotyledons have veins branching out from a thick, center midrib. Monocots have only one cotyledon in the seed while dicots have two cotyledons. <P> Young castor oil plant showing its prominent two embryonic leaves (cotyledons), that differ from the adult leaves. The dicotyledons, also known as dicots (or more rarely dicotyls), were one of the two groups into which all the flowering plants or angiosperms were formerly divided. The traditional dicots are thus a paraphyletic group. The largest clade of the dicotyledons are known as the eudicots. They are distinguished from all other flowering plants by the structure of their pollen. <P> Diffen › Science › Biology › Botany. Flowering plants are divided into monocots (or monocotyledons) and dicots (or dicotyledons). This comparison examines the morphological differences in the leaves, stems, flowers and fruits of monocots and dicots. The number of cotyledons differs in the two types of flowering plants, and forms the basis for the main classification of monocots and dicots. Cotyledons are the seed leaves of the embryo and contain nutrition for the embryo until it is able to grow leaves and produce food by the process of photosynthesis. <P> Plants are classified by botanists as either monocotyledons or dicotyledons. Monocotyledons, or monocots for short, are plants with just one cotyledon. A cotyledon is a seed leaf, which is the first leaf of a plant to develop and an important part of the seed and embryo. Dicotyledons, or dicots, are plants that have two initial cotyledons. This lesson focuses on dicots. In addition to having two seed leaves, dicots have flower parts in groups of four or five. Examples of Dicotyledon Plants. One classic example of a dicotyledon plant is the magnolia tree. These trees grow in many places in the southern United States. In fact, the magnolia is the state tree of Mississippi. Magnolia trees are classified as dicots because they germinate with two <P> The other group of flowering plants were called monocotyledons or monocots, typically having one cotyledon. Historically, these two groups formed the two divisions of the flowering plants. The traditional dicots are thus a paraphyletic group. The largest clade of the dicotyledons are known as the eudicots. They are distinguished from all other flowering plants by the structure of their pollen.
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Dicotyledonous plants are difficult to classify because they have characteristics of both monocots and dicots. This mixture of characteristics results from the shared ancestry of both classes of angiosperms.
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what is marketable title
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<P> A marketable title is a title to a piece of real estate which has no defects which could be discovered by a prudent purchaser. It is deemed more or less “perfect” and there are no reasons why the title cannot be transferred. The marketable title is the gold standard in title quality. <P> Both buyers and sellers usually want a marketable title in a real estate transaction. From the point of view of both, when a title is marketable it means that there should be no problems with the legal transfer of title which would hinder the deal. <P> A marketable title is one that contains no defects that would inhibit the transfer or sale of the property. PhotoObjects.net/PhotoObjects.net/Getty Images. When you purchase a home or other piece of real property, the title – or ownership rights – to that property are transferred to you from the seller. <P> Marketable Title: Is a implied warranty in the land sale contract that says the the title to property is not subject to a claim or defect that would present a substantial probability of litigation and buyer is receiving property free from reasonable doubt. Seller is also promising there is no encumbrances on property. <P> Marketable title (real estate) is a title that a court of equity considers to be so free from defect that it will legally force its acceptance by a buyer. <P> Title that is free from reasonable doubt or any sort of threat of litigation. An implied promise in a contract when a seller is selling land to a buyer is that the seller will deliver marketable title to the buyer at the date of the closing. <P> Marketable Title Law & Legal Definition. Marketable title refers to holding ownership of property reasonably free of defects and liens that would subject it to a lawsuit. It is a good and clear title, without adverse claims against it that would cloud the title.
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Title that a court of equity considers to be so free from defect that it will legally force its acceptance by a buyer.
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the nerves,blood vessels, and glands are located in which layer of the skin
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<P> Dermis. The dermis, the skin's next layer, is a thick layer of fibrous and elastic tissue (made mostly of collagen, elastin, and fibrillin) that gives the skin its flexibility and strength. The dermis contains nerve endings, sweat glands and oil (sebaceous) glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels. <P> The sensitive connective tissue layer of the skin located below the epidermis, containing nerve endings, sweat and sebaceous glands, and blood and lymph vessels. Also called corium, cutis vera, derma. <P> The thick bottom layer of the dermis (the inner layer of the skin). The reticular dermis has blood vessels and connective tissue that supports the skin. Hair follicles, oil and sweat glands, and other structures are also found in the reticular dermis. <P> A blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to tissues and organs in the body. Dermis. The inner layer of the two main layers of the skin. The dermis has connective tissue, blood vessels, oil and sweat glands, nerves, hair follicles, and other structures. It is made up of a thin upper layer called the papillary dermis, and a thick lower layer called the reticular dermis. Epidermis. <P> The inner layer of the two main layers of the skin. The dermis has connective tissue, blood vessels, oil and sweat glands, nerves, hair follicles, and other structures. It is made up of a thin upper layer called the papillary dermis, and a thick lower layer called the reticular dermis. <P> dermis, the layer of the skin just below the epidermis, consisting of papillary and reticular layers and containing blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves and nerve endings, glands, and hair follicles. Formerly called corium. dermal, adj.
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Just below the epidermis, consisting of papillary and reticular layers.
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where do fir trees grow
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<P> Despite this, nearly 50% of all Christmas trees grown in Oregon are Noble fir. Grand fir (Abies grandis) is the third most common Christmas species in Oregon, accounting for about 10% of the annual production. This tree is a true fir, like noble fir, but it is cultured or shaped like Douglas-fir. Douglas-fir (Psuedotsuga menziesii), Oregon's state tree, has historically been the primary tree species grown for Christmas trees in the Pacific Northwest. About one-half of all trees produced annually are Douglas-fir. This tree takes 5 to 7 years to bring it to market. <P> No newly planted tree grows fast enough to please a gardener, but the Douglas fir (Pseudotsuga menziesii) is no slow Joe. A mature Douglas fir is one of the tallest and most majestic trees on the planet, a true giant that shoots up to scrape the sky in a natural setting. The mighty Douglas fir is native to the Pacific Northwest, growing in coastal forests from British Columbia to northern California. Its trunk is tall and ramrod straight, and the tree presents a slender, columnar or pyramidal shape. <P> Description: Douglas-fir trees, which are also called red firs, Oregon pines, and Douglas spruce, are neither true fir trees nor pines nor spruces! The scientific genus name Pseudotsuga means “false hemlock,” alluding to another kind of tree that Douglas-firs are similar too. <P> 1 Leaves: Fir trees have needles instead of traditional leaves. 2 The smooth, flexible needles are short, flat and stick up like toothbrush bristles and remain green year-round. 3 Branches: The branches grow in whorls around the tree's trunk to form a pyramid-like shape. 4 The Fir's cones hang from the branches. <P> Three Methods: Planting a Pine Trees Seedling Caring for a Pine Tree Seedling Growing Pine Trees from Seeds. Pine trees are evergreen trees that come in many varieties. Young pines need special attention, and need to be guarded rigorously against animals and sun damage during their first few years. <P> By Nikki Phipps (Author of The Bulb-o-licious Garden). Growing pine and fir trees from seed can be a challenge to say the least. However, with a little (actually a lot) of patience and determination, it is possible to find success when growing pine and fir trees. Let’s take a look at how to grow a pine tree from seed. <P> Nordmann fir, noble fir, Fraser fir and balsam fir are popular Christmas trees, generally considered to be the best for this purpose, with aromatic foliage that does not shed many needles on drying out. Fir Tree redirects here. For the County Durham town, see Fir Tree, County Durham. Firs (Abies) are a genus of 48–56 species of evergreen coniferous trees in the family Pinaceae. They are found through much of North and Central America, Europe, Asia, and North Africa, occurring in mountains over most of the range. Firs are most closely related to the genus Cedrus (cedar) <P> Noble fir (Abies procera) is Oregon's premier Christmas tree. It commands a higher price than any species, up to twice the value of Douglas-fir. Noble fir is a slower growing tree (6 to 10 years) and much more genetically variable. Douglas-fir (Psuedotsuga menziesii), Oregon's state tree, has historically been the primary tree species grown for Christmas trees in the Pacific Northwest. About one-half of all trees produced annually are Douglas-fir. This tree takes 5 to 7 years to bring it to market. <P> Overview. Fraser fir trees grow to a height of 30 to 50 feet and spread 15 to 25 feet. Their nearly perfect pyramidal shape makes them ideal lawn specimens. Fraser fir trees are native to the Appalachian Mountains. Water Fraser fir trees regularly during the growing season. Stop watering after the first part of September but allow the trees to receive any natural rainfall. Give them a good watering before the first hard frost and again just after the second hard frost.
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North and Central America, Europe, Asia, and North Africa occurring in mountains over most of the range.
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what is brain surgery
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<P> Brain surgery is an operation to treat problems in the brain and surrounding structures. Before surgery, the hair on part of the scalp is shaved and the area is cleaned. The doctor makes a surgical cut through the scalp. The location of this cut depends on where the problem in the brain is located. The surgeon creates a hole in the skull and removes a bone flap. <P> Brain Surgery – Brain Tumor And Neurosurgery Resources. The purpose of this website is to provide clear, understandable, non-technical information about the medical conditions that usually require brain surgery, as well as information about the techniques and skills needed for successful surgery on the brain. <P> any surgery involving the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves. Brain surgery is performed to treat a wound, vascular disorders, or epilepsy; remove a tumor or foreign body; relieve pressure in intracranial hemorrhage or hydrocephaly; excise an abscess; treat parkinsonism; or relieve pain. <P> During open brain surgery, your surgeon may opt to remove tumors, clip off an aneurysm, drain blood or fluid from an infection, or remove abnormal brain tissue. When the procedure is complete, the bone flap is usually secured in place with plates, sutures, or wires. <P> Deep brain stimulation (DBS) is a surgical procedure used to treat several disabling neurological symptoms—most commonly the debilitating motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease (PD), such as tremor, rigidity, stiffness, slowed movement, and walking problems. <P> The term “brain surgery” refers to various medical procedures that involve repairing structural problems with the brain. There are numerous types of brain surgery. The type used is based on the area of the brain and condition being treated. Advances in medical technology let surgeons operate on portions of the brain without a single incision near the head. Brain surgery is a critical and complicated process. The type of brain surgery done depends highly on the condition being treated. For example, a brain aneurysm is typically repaired using an endoscope, but if it has ruptured, a craniotomy may be used.
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Brain surgery is a critical and complicated process. The type of brain surgery done depends highly on the condition being treated.
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average temperature of uranus
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<P> Uranus orbits the sun every 84 years at an average distance of 1.8 billion miles (2.9 billion km) and spins on its own axis every 17 hours compared to 24 hours on Earth. Uranus has the coldest atmospheric temperature of any planet in the solar system, around -224C (-371F). Temperatures in its interior are lower than those found in the other outer planets, possibly less than 4500C (8132F) . <P> 1 Uranus is the seventh planet from the sun and the third largest in the solar system. 2 Its diameter is 31,763 miles (51,118 km) which is four times larger than Earth. 3 The planet is categorized as an ice giant due to the high levels of icy elements in its composition. Uranus has the coldest atmospheric temperature of any planet in the solar system, around -224C (-371F). Temperatures in its interior are lower than those found in the other outer planets, possibly less than 4500C (8132F) . <P> Uranus hits the coldest temperatures of any planet: With minimum atmospheric temperature of -224°C Uranus is nearly coldest planet in the solar system. While Neptune doesn’t get as cold as Uranus it is on average colder. Uranus is the seventh planet from the Sun. It’s not visible to the naked eye, and became the first planet discovered with the use of a telescope. Uranus is tipped over on its side with an axial tilt of 98 degrees. <P> Uranus Temperature. Taken in 1986 by Voyager 2 (notice Uranus's continuous darkness in coldness). The effective temperature of Uranus is -216°C or -357°F. At 1 bar of pressure in the planet the temperature is -197°C or -322.6°F and at .1 bar of pressure in the planet the temperature is -220°C or -364°F. Although Uranus is not the furthest planet from the Sun it is definitely the coldest planet in our solar system. It also has the least warm core at 4,727°C or 8,540.6°F than any of the other gas planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune) <P> Weather.gov Sioux Falls, SD. Uranus is the third gas giant planet of four in proximity to the Sun. Overall, Uranus is the seventh planet in our solar system, residing at an average distance of 1.8 billion miles from the Sun (twice as far as Saturn). Its rotation is quick, at about 18 hours, enough to flatten the planet at its poles (a characteristic of all gas giants). The coldest temperature found in Uranus' lower atmosphere so far is -371 degrees F., which rivals Neptune's frigid temperatures. Findings from Hubble reveal that clouds circle Uranus at over 300 mph. <P> The seventh planet from the sun, Uranus has the coldest atmosphere of any of the planets in the solar system, even though it is not the most distant. Despite the fact that its equator faces away from the sun, the temperature distribution on Uranus is much like other planets, with a warmer equator and cooler poles. But weather on Uranus functions much as it does on other gas giants. Like Jupiter and Saturn, the planet has bands of zones and belts that orbit parallel to the equator, which is warmer than the poles. The warm temperatures that drive the planet's weather come from the interior of the planet, rather than from the sun. <P> It has been recently found that wind speeds on Uranus range from 90 to 360 mph and the planet's average temperature is a frigid -353 degrees F. The coldest temperature found in Uranus' lower atmosphere so far is -371 degrees F., which rivals Neptune's frigid temperatures. Findings from Hubble reveal that clouds circle Uranus at over 300 mph. <P> The average temperature on Uranus is about 60 Kelvin (- 350 degrees Fahrenheit). The minimum near the tropopause is 52 K (-366 F) at the 0.1-bar pressure level. <P> The atmosphere of Uranus is composed of 83% helium, 15% methane and 2% methane plus trace amounts of other gases such as ethane. The average temperature of the surface of Uranus is 49° Kelvin or -224° Celsius. What makes the planet so cold is that it has a low internal temperature. Uranus is 14.5 times bigger than Earth, making it the third largest planet in the Solar System after Jupiter and Saturn; Uranus’s core alone is as large as our planet. <P> How’s the temperature on Uranus? Cold. In fact, the temperature of Uranus makes it the coldest planet in the Solar System. The average temperature of the cloud tops on Uranus is 49 K (?224 °C).
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49° Kelvin or -224° Celsius.
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what is the disease measles
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<P> Measles is a disease caused by a virus that is spread through the air by breathing, coughing, or sneezing. Measles virus is highly contagious and can remain so for up to 2 hours in the air or on surfaces. Symptoms of measles are rash, high fever, cough, runny nose, and red, watery eyes. Some people who become sick with measles also get an ear infection, diarrhea, or a serious lung infection, such as pneumonia. <P> Measles is caused by the measles virus (a paramyxovirus). The measles virus is highly contagious. Measles is spread through droplet transmission from the nose, throat, and mouth of someone who is infected with the virus. These droplets are sprayed out when the infected person coughs or sneezes. Among unimmunized people exposed to the virus, over 90% will contract the disease <P> Measles. Measles is a childhood infection caused by a virus. Once quite common, measles can now almost always be prevented with a vaccine. Signs and symptoms of measles include cough, runny nose, inflamed eyes, sore throat, fever and a red, blotchy skin rash. <P> Measles is caused by a virus. It is spread when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or shares food or drinks. The measles virus can travel through the air. This means that you can get measles if you are near someone who has the virus even if that person doesn't cough or sneeze directly on you. Measles is a very contagious (easily spread) infection that causes a rash all over your body. It is also called rubeola or red measles. The measles vaccine protects against the illness. This vaccine is part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) and MMRV (measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella [chickenpox]) vaccines. <P> Measles, also known as morbilli, rubeola, or red measles, is a highly contagious infection caused by the measles virus. Initial signs and symptoms typically include fever, often greater than 40 °C (104.0 °F), cough, runny nose, and red eyes. The measles vaccine is effective at preventing the disease. Vaccination has resulted in a 75% decrease in deaths from measles between 2000 and 2013 with about 85% of children globally being currently vaccinated. No specific treatment is available. <P> Rubella, also known as German measles or three-day measles, is an infection caused by the rubella virus. This disease is often mild with half of people not realizing that they are sick. A rash may start around two weeks after exposure and last for three days. <P> Measles, also known as rubeola, is a viral infection of the respiratory system. Measles is a very contagious disease that can spread through contact with infected mucus and saliva. The coughing or sneezing of an infected person can release the virus into the air. The virus can live on surfaces for several hours <P> Measles is caused by infection with the rubeola virus, a paramyxovirus of the genus Morbillivirus. The virus lives in the mucus of the nose and throat of an infected child or adult. The infected person is contagious for four days before the rash appears, and continues so for about four to five days afterwards. Knowledge center. Measles, also known as Rubeola or morbilli, is a highly infectious illness caused by a virus-a viral infection caused by the rubeola virus. Measles is an endemic disease; meaning it is continually present in a community and many people develop resistance.
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The air by breathing, coughing, or sneezing.
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average temperature in brazil
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<P> Sao São paulo has a warm temperate climate with dry winters and hot. Summers the area within 25 mi of this station is covered by (grasslands36), % (croplands24), %-built up (areas21), % (forests9), % and (shrublands9). % <P> Rio in the Winter. Rio's winter climate runs between June and September, and this is the ideal time to visit if you don't do well with extreme heat. It's still very warm at this time of the year, with average highs of around 24°C and nights at a balmy 18°C, but the humidity is lower and visitors feel more comfortable. <P> 1 The average temperature in Manaus, Brazil is hot at 26.7 degrees Celsius (80.1 degrees Fahrenheit). 2 There is a range of average monthly temperatures of 1.6 C (2.9 F) which is an extremely low range. 1 There is a variation/ range of mean daily temperatures of 8.2 C (14.7 F). 2 The warmest month (October) is hot having an average temperature of 27.6 degrees Celsius (81.68 degrees Fahrenheit). 3 The coldest month (February) is hot having a mean temperature of 26 degrees Celsius (78. <P> Rio de Janeiro: Annual Weather Averages. January is the hottest month in Rio de Janeiro with an average temperature of 27°C (81°F) and the coldest is July at 21°C (69°F) with the most daily sunshine hours at 9 in February. The wettest month is February with an average of 13.8mm of rain. <P> Earlier records are either unavailable or unreliable. Rio de Janeiro has a tropical savanna climate with dry winters. The area within 25 mi of this station is covered by croplands (33%), oceans and seas (27%), built-up areas (23%), forests (11%), and grasslands (7%). <P> The climate in the Amazon region of Brazil is an equatorial climate, characterised by high humidity, warm weather and a lot of rainfall throughout the year, but particularly from November to May. The average temperature throughout the year in the Amazon region of Brazil is 25°C (77°F) during the day. Night time temperature in Brazil’s Amazon region do drop considerably, particularly in November and again in May as the season changes between the rainy season and the less rainy season. Weather in Brazil. The climate and weather in Brazil varies considerably from region to region. The economic powerhouse of South America has five climatic zones ranging from subtropical, highland tropical, equatorial and semi-arid to tropical. <P> 1 Of the land area, 19.9% has a tropical rainforest climate (Af), 1.8% has a tropical monsoon climate (Am), 62.5% has a tropical wet and dry/ savanna climate (Aw), 5.4% has a temperate/ mesothermal climate with significant precipitation in all seasons (Cf), 10.3% has a temperate/ mesothermal climate with dry winters (Cw). <P> Summer in Sao Paulo runs from December to February, and the temperatures really climb-average highs in the daytime are just short of 30°C, with nights at around 20°C. It's very humid too, as this is the height of the rainy season in Sao Paulo. Sao Paulo has four distinct seasons with a winter, spring, summer and autumn, but the climate is heavily influenced by the monsoon. Locals say that it's possible to experience all four seasons in one day, as the rapidly changing weather, especially in the winter, can catch residents and visitors alike by surprise. <P> Precipitation levels vary widely. Most of Brazil has moderate rainfall of between 1,000 and 1,500 mm (39 and 59 in) a year, with most of the rain falling in the summer (between December and April) south of the Equator. The Northeast is the driest part of the country. The region also constitutes the hottest part of Brazil, where during the dry season between May and November, temperatures of more than 38 °C (100 °F) have been recorded. <P> Average Temperatures in Manaus, Brazil. 1 The average temperature in Manaus, Brazil is hot at 26.7 degrees Celsius (80.1 degrees Fahrenheit). 2 There is a range of average monthly temperatures of 1.6 C (2.9 F) which is an extremely low range. 3 There is a variation/ range of mean daily temperatures of 8.2 C (14.7 F). 1 There is a variation/ range of mean daily temperatures of 8.2 C (14.7 F). 2 The warmest month (October) is hot having an average temperature of 27.6 degrees Celsius (81.68 degrees Fahrenheit). 3 The coldest month (February) is hot having a mean temperature of 26 degrees Celsius (78.
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Average temperature of 27°C (81°F) and the coldest is July at 21°C (69°F).
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how much do you earn at mcdonalds as a crew member
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<P> Follow Business Insider: Fast food workers across the country are striking for better wages. The strikers are seeking to make $15 an hour—about twice the minimum wage in most states. We reached out to Glassdoor to find out how much the top fast food companies pay workers. Only one of the companies pays crew members above $10 an hour on average. Taco Bell ($7.37 an hour). <P> The basic pay rate for a salary as a Mc Donalds crew member is 7.25 dollars an hour. for example if a person works 20 or more hours per week, they are most likely to make abou … t 145.00 to 181.25 per month. The yearly pay for this amount of hourly work would come out to 1740.00 to 2175.00. 5 people found this useful. Orca trainers name about 200 dollars a day-not very much. That adds up to about 1,400 dollars a week. They're obviously not in it for the money.But for their curiosity abou … t the orcas. $1400 a week adds up to about $70,000 a year. <P> Report Abuse. minimum wage or student minimum wage depending on your age. here in Ontario it is $8.25 for students, which is what i got paid there. but you get raises every now and again, i think every six months. Source(s): experience; i worked there. <P> With that in mind, McDonalds’ own sample budget confirms that, without a second job on top of full-time work at McDonalds, it’s not possible to make a personal budget work — even if, as Kiley points out, you don’t eat or pay for any heat in the winter. Add another $100 for your second job — or remove the second job’s income. C) Then explain your $250/month on food — less than $10 a day — to make up the $450/month you claim. <P> Official figures on McDonald's worker pay aren't publicly available, but the median wage for fast-food workers overall is $8.90 per hour. By comparison, former McDonald's CEO James Skinner raked in $9,247 for an hour of his precious time last year, according to NerdWallet. That means the average McDonald's employee would have to work for 3.86 months straight at an overtime wage -- or 1.5 times her regular hourly pay -- to match what Skinner made in an hou <P> Well, many McDonald’s restaurants are owned and managed by independent franchises. This means salaries can vary according to location. However, a crew trainer is a responsible role, right below the management team, and because of this you will earn more than a regular crew member. There are perks on top of the basic wage as well. <P> A McDonald's employee working overtime for nearly four months straight would make as much as the company's former CEO earned in just 60 minutes, according to an analysis published Tuesday. That means the average McDonald's employee would have to work for 3.86 months straight at an overtime wage -- or 1.5 times her regular hourly pay -- to match what Skinner made in an hour, according to NerdWallet. <P> In Michigan a McDonalds crew member starts out at $7.40 per hour. Every six months each crew member gets a performance review. Depending on how the crew member performed in th … e prior six months they earn anywhere between 5 cents and 25 cents. I'm not sure what maintenance/secondary maintenance and management make. Orca trainers name about 200 dollars a day-not very much. That adds up to about 1,400 dollars a week. They're obviously not in it for the money.But for their curiosity abou … t the orcas. $1400 a week adds up to about $70,000 a year. <P> So how much does a McDonald’s crew member make per year? after surveying numerous McDonald’s employees, it has been determined that the average McDonald’s crew member salary is $28,000 per year.
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At $7.40 per hour.
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What age do you have to be to get a regular license in alaska
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<P> 1 Must be 21 to 68 years of age when renewing your Driver's License (you may not renew your driver license online if you are 69 years of age or older on the expiration date of the driver's license being renewed however, you may renew your ID card). 2 Must be 21 years of age when renewing an ID card. 1 Must be 21 years of age when renewing an ID card. 2 If your current license is the vertical “Under 21” license, you must pass the Alcohol Awareness Test before you can renew your license. ( 3 2 AAC 90.425). * 4 If you are 20 or 21 and attending college outside of Alaska, click here for information. <P> 1 While practicing with your learner's permit, the adult with you must have been licensed for 1 year and must be 21 years of age or older. 2 Your parent, legal guardian or employer must provide proof that you have had at least forty (40) hours of driving experience. You must apply for your provisional license in person at your local DMV office. You must also pass a road test in order to get your provisional license. Please note: The DMV has developed additional services to assist Alaska's rural residents with licensing issues unique to remote communities. <P> To apply for an M2 permit, you must be at least 14 years old and have your parent's consent. Here's what you must do in order to obtain your M2 permit: 1 Pass a written knowledge test, if you do not hold an Alaska passenger vehicle learner's permit. 2 Pass the written motorcycle knowledge test. 3 Pass a vision test. If you're younger than 18 years old, you are also required to have your parent's consent in order to obtain a motorcycle license. In Alaska, it is the law that a minor must wear a helmet while driving a motorcycle or riding on one as a passenger. <P> In Alaska, you must be at least 14 years old to apply for a motorcycle instruction permit and if you are younger than 18, will be required to have your parent's consent to obtain a learner's permit. If you're younger than 18 years old, you are also required to have your parent's consent in order to obtain a motorcycle license. In Alaska, it is the law that a minor must wear a helmet while driving a motorcycle or riding on one as a passenger. <P> To get your learner's permit, you'll need to visit your local Alaska DMV office and: 1 Be at least 14 years old. 2 Have your parent/legal guardian complete a Parent/Guardian Consent for a Minor (Form 433). 3 Complete an Application for Alaska Driver License, Permit or Identification Card (Form 478). Unrestricted Alaska Driver's License. You are eligible for an unrestricted driver's license after you hold your provisional license for at least 6 months OR until you are 18 years old. If you decide to upgrade your driver's license before you turn 18 years old, you'll need to: <P> 1 You must have held a learner's permit for a minimum of six (6) months. 2 While practicing with your learner's permit, the adult with you must have been licensed for 1 year and must be 21 years of age or older. You must apply for your provisional license in person at your local DMV office. You must also pass a road test in order to get your provisional license. Please note: The DMV has developed additional services to assist Alaska's rural residents with licensing issues unique to remote communities. <P> Learner's Permit must be held for 180 days and learner must be 16 and 180 days before getting a restricted license. If the learner is younger than 18 years of age on receiving the driver's license, it is considered probationary. Pennsylvania's 1909 licensing laws were the first to give an age restriction (18 years of age) and the first state to allow 16-year-olds to drive (accompanied by a licensed driver) was Connecticut in 1921. <P> Requirements to receive a provisional driver license: 1 You must be at least 16 years old or older. 2 You must have held a learner's permit for a minimum of six (6) months. 3 While practicing with your learner's permit, the adult with you must have been licensed for 1 year and must be 21 years of age or older. You must apply for your provisional license in person at your local DMV office. You must also pass a road test in order to get your provisional license. Please note: The DMV has developed additional services to assist Alaska's rural residents with licensing issues unique to remote communities. <P> In order to apply for your motorcycle license Class M1, you must be at least 16 years old and if you are younger than 18 years old, you must have had your learner's permit for at least 6 months. If you're younger than 18 years old, you are also required to have your parent's consent in order to obtain a motorcycle license. In Alaska, it is the law that a minor must wear a helmet while driving a motorcycle or riding on one as a passenger.
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You must be at least 16 years old or older.
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what does the privacy act require
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<P> A system of records is a group of records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifier assigned to the individual. The Privacy Act requires that agencies give the public notice of their systems of records by publication in the Federal Register. Following the controversial Passenger Name Record agreement signed with the European Union (EU) in 2007, the Bush administration provided an exemption for the Department of Homeland Security and the Arrival and Departure Information System (ADIS) from the U.S. Privacy Act. <P> There are, however, several exceptions to the Privacy Act. For one thing, government agencies that are engaged in law enforcement can excuse themselves from the Act's rules. Agencies have also circumvented information sharing rules by exploiting a routine use exemption. The Privacy Act requires any agency maintaining a system of records to give an individual access to any records they might have about him. He should be allowed to review the record, and make copies of it. If the record is incomplete or in error, he is also entitled to ask that his record be corrected. <P> The Privacy Act prohibits the disclosure of information from a system of records absent the written consent of the subject individual, unless the disclosure is pursuant to one of twelve statutory exceptions. Following the controversial Passenger Name Record agreement signed with the European Union (EU) in 2007, the Bush administration provided an exemption for the Department of Homeland Security and the Arrival and Departure Information System (ADIS) from the U.S. Privacy Act. <P> The Privacy Act establishes safeguards for the protection of records the Government collects and keeps on individuals. The Privacy Act provides the Government with a framework in which to conduct its day-to-day business when that business requires the collection or use of information about individuals. Specifically, it requires that the Government: 1 Maintain no secret files on individuals. <P> Confidence votes 387. The Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C.A. 552a) is a federal law that places restrictions on the federal government's collection, use, and dissemination of personal information. As with most comprehensive federal statutes, the act provides general and specific exemptions as well as an administrative appeals process. The Privacy Act core requirements provide for: Limitations on the collection, use and dissemination of personally identifiable information about an individual. Disclosure restrictions to third parties. Access and amendments rights of the individuals who are subjects of the files. <P> About the Privacy Act. The Privacy Act of 1974 is a companion to the FOIA. The Privacy Act: 1 Regulates Federal Government agency record keeping and disclosure practices. 2 Allows most individuals to seek access to Federal agency records about themselves. 3 Requires that personal information on agency files be accurate, complete, relevant, and timely <P> The GLB Act requires companies to give consumers privacy notices that explain the institutions' information-sharing practices. In turn, consumers have the right to limit some-but not all-sharing of their information. Here's a brief look at the basic financial privacy requirements of the law. <P> They will be giving the Privacy Act Statement which provides protection to individuals by ensuring that personal information collected by Federal agencies is limited to that which is legally authorized and necessary and is maintained in a manner which precludes unwarranted intrusions upon individual privacy. . The Privacy Act of 1974 protects against invasion of personal privacy through the misuse of records by Federal Agencies, and all requests for information must be made in w … riting. <P> The Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C.A. 552a) is a federal law that places restrictions on the federal government's collection, use, and dissemination of personal information. The Privacy Act of 1974 protects against invasion of personal privacy through the misuse of records by Federal Agencies, and all requests for information must be made in w … riting. <P> Consult the Making a Request link if you plan to make a Privacy Act request to the Federal Trade Commission. More Resources. Text of the Privacy Act, A Citizen’s Guide on Using FOIA and the Privacy Act to Request Government Records, The Privacy Act: 1 Regulates Federal Government agency record keeping and disclosure practices. 2 Allows most individuals to seek access to Federal agency records about themselves.
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Is a federal law that places restrictions on the federal government's collection, use, and dissemination of personal information.
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principle definition what does the t mean in sport
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<P> Usage. The words principle and principal are pronounced in the same way but they do not have the same meaning. Principle is normally used as a noun meaning ‘a fundamental basis of a system of thought or belief’, as in this is one of the basic principles of democracy. Principal, on the other hand, is normally an adjective meaning ‘main or most important’, as in one of the country’s principal cities. Principal can also be a noun, where it is used to refer to the most senior or most important person in an organization or other group: the deputy principal. <P> The key principles when planning a programme are: 1 Specificity – training must be matched to the needs of the sporting activity to improve fitness in the body parts the sport uses. 2 Overload-fitness can only be improved by training more than you normally do. The best training programmes are built on principles of specificity, overload, progression and reversibility. You can also use the FITT acronym to help remember the key things to consider when tailoring programmes for individual sporting goals. It stands for; Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type. <P> Training should be matched to an individual's needs. By using the principles of training as a framework we can plan a personal training programme that uses scientific principles to improve performance, skill, game ability and physical fitness. The best training programmes are built on principles of specificity, overload, progression and reversibility. You can also use the FITT acronym to help remember the key things to consider when tailoring programmes for individual sporting goals. It stands for; Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type. <P> The Reversibility Principle in Sports Training. The length of the detraining period and the training status of the athlete dictate how much performance is lost. Detraining occurs within a relatively short time period after an athlete ceases to train. In short, If you don't use it, you lose it. (1) While rest periods are necessary for recovery, extended rest intervals reduce physical fitness. The physiological effects of fitness training diminish over time, causing the body to revert back to its pretraining condition. <P> Using the FITT principle, the best type of exercise to tax or improve the cardiovascular system should be continuous in nature and make use of large muscle groups. Examples include running, walking, swimming, dancing, cycling, aerobics classes, circuit training, cycling etc. Again, intensity has a say and particularly grueling strength sessions may last as little as 20 - 30 minutes. Perhaps the most important principle of training (that ironically doesn't have it's own letter in the FITT principle) is rest. <P> In planning a programme, use the FITT principles to add the detail: 1 Frequency-decide how often to train. 2 Intensity-choose how hard to train. 3 Time-decide for how long [how long: If you are studying the AQA specification this is known as 'duration'. 4 Type-decide which methods of training to use. The best training programmes are built on principles of specificity, overload, progression and reversibility. You can also use the FITT acronym to help remember the key things to consider when tailoring programmes for individual sporting goals. It stands for; Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type. <P> Think of The FITT principle as a set of rules that must be adhered to in order to benefit from any form of fitness training program. These rules relate to the Frequency, Intensity, Type and Time (FITT) of exercise... Again, intensity has a say and particularly grueling strength sessions may last as little as 20 - 30 minutes. Perhaps the most important principle of training (that ironically doesn't have it's own letter in the FITT principle) is rest. <P> The Reversibility Principle dictates that athletes lose the beneficial effects of training when they stop working out. Conversely, it also means that detraining effects can be reversed when athletes resume training. In short, If you don't use it, you lose it. (1) While rest periods are necessary for recovery, extended rest intervals reduce physical fitness. The physiological effects of fitness training diminish over time, causing the body to revert back to its pretraining condition. <P> Getting the best out of your training requires a little planning. The best training programmes are built on principles of specificity, overload, progression and reversibility. You can also use the FITT acronym to help remember the key things to consider when tailoring programmes for individual sporting goals. It stands for; Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type. <P> The Overload Principle is a basic sports fitness training concept. It means that in order to improve, athletes must continually work harder as they their bodies adjust to existing workouts. Overloading also plays a role in skill learning.
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The best training programmes are built on principles of specificity, overload, progression and reversibility. You can also use the FITT acronym to help remember the key things to consider when tailoring programmes for individual sporting goals.It stands for; Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type.
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how much does kumon charge
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<P> This Site Might Help You. RE: How much is the Kumon monthly fee for 1 subject? I'm in NJ and I even ordered the brochure thing from their site but it didn't say anything about the monthly fee. It only said that the registration fee is from $30-50. The average fee is a little over $100.00. At the center that I work at, we charge different prices for if you are doing math, if you are doing reading, if you are doing both, if you are in the Junior Kumon program math and/or reading. <P> Kumon has been running in the UK for over 20 years and is a worldwide organisation with over 50 years of experience. In the UK, there are over 69,000 students studying with Kumon and over 4.3 million students worldwide. <P> $85-$115 per month per subject, depending on location (all Kumon centers set their own prices). A placement test is given, which is free of charge. Kumon is a really good center... It helps you learn how to do math and reading I happen to be a 4th grader and I am learning algerbra already! … I am the head of my class! Stay with Kumon it will make your life so much easier in the future! <P> Kumon offers math and reading at a monthly cost ranging from $80 to $100 for a single subject, with a beginning registration fee of $50, and material fees of $15. Again, the fees associated are set at the determination of each franchise owner, as are the hours of operation, and will vary. Parents find that Time4Learning s cost for six months is less than the monthly cost of most tutoring centers. As an added bonus, Time4Learning also includes a two-week money-back guarantee. Go back to the top or sign up now. It's amazing how quickly my kids are learning difficult concepts on the Time4Learning program. <P> Typical recommended program for a K to 12th grade student is in the range of 150 to 200 hours. Typical cost is $45/hour with most centers recommending 6 hours and up per week. … You do the math! SAT/ACT exam prep rate is $65 to $85/hour with recommended programs usually around 40 hours. Typical cost is $45/hour with most centers recommending 150-200 hours tutoring. … You do the math! SAT/ACT exam prep rate is $65 to $85/hour with recommended programs usually 46 hours. <P> A Sylvan instructional hour costs $45-50. The Sylvan Skills Assessment™, which costs $149-199, gives an estimate of the number of hours needed to meet a student's educatio … nal needs. Once a student is assessed and registered to enroll, there is a $50 registration fee, there are no additional fees above tuition. Typical cost is $45/hour with most centers recommending 150-200 hours tutoring. … You do the math! SAT/ACT exam prep rate is $65 to $85/hour with recommended programs usually 46 hours. <P> Typical recommended program for a K to 12th grade student is in the range of 150 to 200 hours. Typical cost is $45/hour with most centers recommending 150-200 hours tutoring. … You do the math! SAT/ACT exam prep rate is $65 to $85/hour with recommended programs usually 46 hours. Most Huntingtons are franchises, with the owners free to set their own rate <P> Kumon offers math and reading at a monthly cost ranging from $80 to $100 for a single subject, with a beginning registration fee of $50, and material fees of $15. Again, the fees associated are set at the determination of each franchise owner, as are the hours of operation, and will vary. <P> Let’s face it, cost factors into the equation for most of it. Each Kumon center is independently owned and operated, so costs will vary by location. In general, though, expect to pay $95 – $125 per month, per subject, plus a $30 – $50 one-time registration fee. In reality, it is a curriculum for math and/or reading. If you register for a Kumon program, your child will need to work this program in addition to his or her regular school assignments after school. The curriculum consists of hundreds of short assignments (worksheets) completed in sequential order. <P> It costs around$90-$115 a month. Kumon is a really good center... It helps you learn how to do math and reading I happen to be a 4th grader and I am learning algerbra already! … I am the head of my class! Stay with Kumon it will make your life so much easier in the future!
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$95 – $125 per month, per subject.
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what was mao zedong address
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<P> The Early Years. Mao Zedong (1893-1976) was both a product and a part of the revolutionary change in 20th-century China. He was born December 26, 1893, in the small village of Shaoshan in Hunan province. <P> During the early 1960s, Mao became concerned with the nature of post-1959 China. He saw that the revolution and Great Leap Forward had replaced the old elite with a new one. He was concerned that those in power were becoming estranged from the people they were supposed to serve. From the next generation, Zemin's son, Mao Yuanxin, was raised by Mao Zedong's family. He became Mao Zedong's liaison with the Politburo in 1975. In Li Zhisui's The Private Life of Chairman Mao, Mao Yuanxin played a role in the final power-struggles. <P> Mao Zedong, 1957 © Mao was a Chinese communist leader and founder of the People's Republic of China. He was responsible for the disastrous policies of the 'Great Leap Forward' and the 'Cultural Revolution'. Mao was born on 26 December 1893 into a peasant family in Shaoshan, in Hunan province, central China. After training as a teacher, he travelled to Beijing where he worked in the University Library. <P> “In his address, Hu recalled Mao’s achievements, and summarized the outstanding contributions made to the revolution and the development of China by the Chinese communists with Mao as their top representative, who have developed Mao Zedong Thought, namely, Marxism with Chinese characteristics. It’s the most wonderful day of the year…if you’re a fan of British holidays with obscure and poorly understood origins or an unreconstructed Chinese Leftist. December 26 is the birthday of Mao Zedong, the portly gentleman from Hunan who, for 70% better and 30% ill, led China from 1949 until his death in 1976. <P> After Mao Zedong won the Chinese civil war in 1949, his goal became the unification of the five nationalities under the big family, the People's Republic of China, and under a single political system, the Communist Party of China. From the next generation, Zemin's son, Mao Yuanxin, was raised by Mao Zedong's family. He became Mao Zedong's liaison with the Politburo in 1975. In Li Zhisui's The Private Life of Chairman Mao, Mao Yuanxin played a role in the final power-struggles. <P> When this photograph of Mao addressing his followers was taken in 1944, he was the leader of the Chinese Communist Party. Mao had organized and trained a peasant army to resist the Japanese occupation of China during World War II. Background. Mao Zedong was born in China's Hunan province in 1893. At that time, the Chinese people were unhappy with the Qin dynasty. They felt that foreign nations had too much control over China's resources. Mao later said that it seemed to be a time when “the dismemberment of China” would happen quickly <P> In late autumn 1958, Mao Zedong strongly condemned widespread practices of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) such as subjecting peasants to exhausting labour without adequate food and rest, which had resulted in epidemics, starvation and deaths. From the next generation, Zemin's son, Mao Yuanxin, was raised by Mao Zedong's family. He became Mao Zedong's liaison with the Politburo in 1975. In Li Zhisui's The Private Life of Chairman Mao, Mao Yuanxin played a role in the final power-struggles. <P> Mao's Early Life: On December 26, 1893, a son was born to the Mao family, wealthy farmers in Shaoshan, Hunan Province, China. They named the boy Mao Zedong. The child studied Confucian classics at the village school for five years, but left at the age of 13 to help out full-time on the farm. Shortly after Mao took power in China, he sent the People's Volunteer Army in to the Korean War to fight alongside the North Koreans against the South Koreans and United Nations forces. <P> or. (mou dzŭ-do͝ong) , 1893–1976, founder of the People's Republic of China. Mao was one of the most prominent Communist theoreticians and his ideas on revolutionary struggle and guerrilla warfare have been extremely influential, especially among Third World revolutionaries.
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Hu recalled Mao’s achievements, and summarized the outstanding contributions made to the revolution and the development of China by the Chinese communists with Mao as their top representative.
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powdered gelatin is good for
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<P> To mix gelatin powder (green lid) into liquid without clumps: First mix into a small amount of cool water and stir well. Let sit for 2 minutes and then add the needed amount of warm water. This tempers the gelatin and makes it smooth. I order Gelatin online and use this brand since I’ve been able to verify that it comes from grass-fed, humanely raised animals. The Collagen Protein (green lid) will gel and is good for things like Jello while the Collagen Peptides (blue lid) is great for mixing in to hot or cold drinks. <P> To make, stir 1 tablespoon of Gelatin powder (green lid) in to 1/2 cup of cool water until mixed. Add 1/2 cup warm/hot water, 1 teaspoon of apple cider vinegar and 1 teaspoon of honey to create a thick gel/liquid. Pour into hair and massage through hair and scalp. I order Gelatin online and use this brand since I’ve been able to verify that it comes from grass-fed, humanely raised animals. The Collagen Protein (green lid) will gel and is good for things like Jello while the Collagen Peptides (blue lid) is great for mixing in to hot or cold drinks. <P> My oldest brother used Knox Gelatin powder in a small amount of water as a hair gel. It has no smell, chemicals to damage your hair and has great hold. Also of you get wet and it runs, it doesn’t have a horrid taste or hurt your eyes either. Works great for mohawks and spikes of all kinds. I order Gelatin online and use this brand since I’ve been able to verify that it comes from grass-fed, humanely raised animals. The Collagen Protein (green lid) will gel and is good for things like Jello while the Collagen Peptides (blue lid) is great for mixing in to hot or cold drinks. <P> It is much easier and tastier to get collagen in a food form from bone broth and gelatin powder. Liver Detox: Gelatin is rich in glycine, which can be considered a conditionally essential amino acid. The human body needs a great deal of glycine for detoxification from exposure to chemicals in our toxic environment. You can find grass fed Kosher beef gelatin here. Gelatin is basically dehydrated broth powder made up of bones, cartilage, collagen and minerals. Homemade bone broth can be a great source of gelatin but many people on the run feel they don’t have time to make it. <P> How I incorporate gelatin daily I include gelatin in my diet daily. I either eat soup, drink broth or supplement with gelatin powder. You can get my recipe for slow cooker chicken broth HERE and slow cooker beef broth HERE. We also use gelatin to make homemade jello, gummy treats and desserts, like panna cotta. <P> Gelatin is most effective when used internally, but even externally, it can smooth and strengthen skin. Another tip: Mix 1 tablespoon Gelatin Powder with 2 tablespoons warm water and 1 tablespoon fresh lemon juice and apply to face. Leave on for 15 minutes and rinse with warm water. I order Gelatin online and use this brand since I’ve been able to verify that it comes from grass-fed, humanely raised animals. The Collagen Protein (green lid) will gel and is good for things like Jello while the Collagen Peptides (blue lid) is great for mixing in to hot or cold drinks. <P> GELATIN Overview Information. Gelatin is a protein made from animal products. Gelatin is used for weight loss and for treating osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and brittle bones (osteoporosis). Some people also use it for strengthening bones, joints, and fingernails. Gelatin is also used for improving hair quality and to shorten recovery after exercise and sports-related injury. In manufacturing, gelatin is used for preparation of foods, cosmetics, and medicines. <P> Alternatively, powdered gelatin is a quick substitute for bone broth that can be a valuable addition to the diet if it is from healthy animals. Gelatin is a great source of amino acids, which support a healthy mood, strong bones, smooth skin and proper muscle synthesis. You can find grass fed Kosher beef gelatin here. Gelatin is basically dehydrated broth powder made up of bones, cartilage, collagen and minerals. Homemade bone broth can be a great source of gelatin but many people on the run feel they don’t have time to make it. <P> For a powder, 1 to 2 Tbsp per day should be enough; and for a capsule supplement, follow manufacturer instructions. You can also drink bone broth (which is high in gelatin) or eat gelatin-rich cuts of meat (anything that is on the bone or has connective tissue attached) such as shank, oxtail, and even pig's feet. <P> Gelatin is a translucent, colorless, brittle, flavorless solid substance, derived from collagen found in animal bones. It is commonly used as a gelling agent in food, pharmaceuticals, photography, and cosmetic manufacturing. You can find grass fed Kosher beef gelatin here. Gelatin is basically dehydrated broth powder made up of bones, cartilage, collagen and minerals. Homemade bone broth can be a great source of gelatin but many people on the run feel they don’t have time to make it.
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Weight loss and for treating osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and brittle bones.Some people also use it for strengthening bones, joints, and fingernails.Gelatin is also used for improving hair quality and to shorten recovery after exercise and sports-related injury.
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how is the nerve cord of a crayfish differ from humans
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<P> Near the eyes you may be able to see the brain, a large swelling of the forward nerve cord. The antennal glands, sometimes called green glands, are also in the head-they extract wastes from the blood, and form urine, which is stored in bladders and expelled from excretory pores in the face. <P> The dorsal nerve cord is later modified in vertebrates into the central nervous system which is composed of the brain and spinal cord. Dorsal nerve cord is mainly found in subphylum Vertebrata. Dorsal means the back side, as opposed to Ventral which is the front side of an organism. In organisms with Bipedalism dorsal is the back and ventral is the front. Unsourced material may be challenged and removed. (June 2013). The dorsal nerve cord is one of the embryonic features unique to chordates, along with a notochord, a post-anal tail, an endostyle, and pharyngeal slits. The dorsal nerve cord is a hollow cord dorsal to the notochord. <P> Flexor muscle: muscle that bends the tail of the crayfish. Digestive gland: glandular organ that produces digestive enzymes. Ganglion of ventral nerve cord: budge related to a collection of nerves of the abdomen of a crayfish. Ventral nerve cord: collection of nerves in the abdomen of a crayfish. Maxilliped: pair of appendages of a crayfish used for holding prey. Esophagus: part of the digestive tract between the mouth and the stomach. Mandible: lower jaw. Mouth: entrance to the digestive tract. Internal anatomy of a crayfish: edible freshwater crustacean, with pincers on the two forelegs. Encephalon: site of the mental functions of a crayfish. Stomach: part of the digestive tract between the esophagus and the intestine. <P> In vertebrates, it also includes a spinal cord. The primary cell type found in the nervous system is the neuron, which has a cell body, containing the nucleus, and long extensions to carry information from one part of the body to another. All vertebrates have a distinct central component that consists of a brain and spinal cord, as well as peripheral structures such as ganglia and nerves. The primary difference from invertebrates is in the number of neurons and the size of nervous system structures. <P> An earthworm also has the same type nervous system as a human, just like a pig. As for the circulatory system, a human’s pumps blood to and from the body and lungs with the help of the heart, blood vessels, and arteries. A pig, however, has a heart, blood, blood vessels, lungs, and a circulatory mechanism. Body Systems of Various Organisms. All organisms in the world have a range of systems and organs in their body. Some organisms may share similar body systems while others have absolutely nothing in common. Several of those organisms include humans, pigs, crayfish, and earthworms. <P> Compared to a human, pigs have the same type of nervous system with the same parts and the same functions. As for a crayfish’s nervous system, it is composed of a ventral nerve cord fused with segmental ganglia, sup esophageal, and sub esophageal ganglia. Body Systems of Various Organisms. All organisms in the world have a range of systems and organs in their body. Some organisms may share similar body systems while others have absolutely nothing in common. Several of those organisms include humans, pigs, crayfish, and earthworms. <P> This enlargement can be considered a primitive brain, and together with the nerve cord comprises the central nervous system. Without any type of brain, the coordination between different segments of the organism is limited at best, and the nervous system primarily produces simple reflexive movements. All vertebrates have a distinct central component that consists of a brain and spinal cord, as well as peripheral structures such as ganglia and nerves. The primary difference from invertebrates is in the number of neurons and the size of nervous system structures. <P> They are in the Subphylum Crustacea. This subphylum ranges in size from microscopic copepods to the king crab-with a leg span of over 12 feet. Crayfish and close relatives like lobsters are sometimes called decapods - meaning that they have ten feet, or five pairs of legs. Crayfish actually have four pairs of walking legs. The other pair of legs are the chelipeds-commonly refered to as pinchers. The body of the crayfish is covered by a two-part exoskeleton made of chitin. Chitin contains a high percentage of calcium, similar to your fingernails. 1 Cephalothorax-the head (5 segments) and thorax (8 segments). 2 Abdomen-composed of 7 segments.
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As for a crayfish’s nervous system, it is composed of a ventral nerve cord fused with segmental ganglia, sup esophageal, and sub esophageal ganglia.
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what is wave soldering
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<P> These 10 animal facts will amaze you. Wave soldering is an automated process in which components are soldered onto a printed wiring board (PWB) as the board passes over the top of a wave of solder. Air pumped up from the bottom of a container of melted solder creates this wave. The solder connections formed by the wave soldering process not only attach the components to the board, but also form electrical connections between them. This is what allows the final product to function electronically. Soldering defects are not only a cosmetic concern <P> Wave soldering is a process by which large printed circuit boards can be soldered quickly and reliably during PCB assembly. The wave soldering process gains its name from the fact that the process passes the printed circuit boards to be soldered over a wave of solder. In this way a complete board can be soldered in a matter of seconds producing joints that are reliably, both mechanically and electrically. Wave soldering can be used in PCB assembly for both conventional through hole mounted components as well as surface mount components. However other methods such as infra-red reflow soldering are more applicable to the fine features being used today on printed circuit boards for surface mount components. <P> Indium Corporation offers a variety of state-of-the-art and traditional wave soldering products that meet IPC J-STD, Department of Defense, and telecom specifications, as well as customer-specific commercial specifications for wave and selective soldering operations. Wave soldering flux is the heart of the wave soldering operation. There are many types of soldering fluxes. Picking the correct flux chemistry depends on a number of factors, including: 1 The solderability level of the parts to be assembled. 2 The type of finish or coating used on the assembly. 3 The flux application method. <P> The basic equipment used during the process is a conveyor that moves the PCB through the different zones, a pan of solder used in the soldering process, a pump that produces the actual wave, the sprayer for the flux and the preheating pad. The solder is usually a mixture of metals. Flux in the wave soldering process has a primary and a secondary objective. The primary objective is to clean the components that are to be soldered, principally any oxide layers that may have formed. There are two types of flux, corrosive and noncorrosive. <P> PC Board Assembly-Wave Soldering capabilities of Electro Soft, Incorporated. This video shows the process of a PC Board running through a wave soldering machine. For more information on Electro Soft, Incorporated and their PC Board Assembly services, please visit us at: http://electrosoftinc.com/esi/printed... <P> 1 In view of the way that wave soldering works, where the solder wave is caused by the solder flowing out of the reservoir tank, and the board passes over it, the spacing requirements are dependent upon the direction of the board relative to the solder flow. Wave soldering can be used in PCB assembly for both conventional through hole mounted components as well as surface mount components. However other methods such as infra-red reflow soldering are more applicable to the fine features being used today on printed circuit boards for surface mount components. <P> Wave soldering is used for both through-hole printed circuit assemblies, and surface mount. In the latter case, the components are glued onto the surface of a printed circuit board (PCB) by placement equipment, before being run through the molten solder wave. Flux in the wave soldering process has a primary and a secondary objective. The primary objective is to clean the components that are to be soldered, principally any oxide layers that may have formed. There are two types of flux, corrosive and noncorrosive.
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Wave soldering is used for both through-hole printed circuit assemblies, and surface mount.
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cost for acl reconstruction surgery
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<P> Knee replacement surgery cost: 1 Without insurance, the cost of a knee replacement will range from $20000 to $50000. 2 If you have insurance and only pay a co-pay or a percentage of the bill, your costs will be anywhere from $800 to $3000. 3 According to this AARP.org article, the cost of ACL surgery in 2008 was $45,783. <P> Paying for ACL Yourself. If you don’t have insurance and will be paying for your ACL surgery, do a little research. The cost of ACL surgery varies across the country and from facility to facility. The average cost of ACL surgery in 2010 was about $5,000 to $6,000. But this cost did not include the surgeon’s fees or the anesthesiologist’s fees. The total cost of ACL surgery can be as high as $11,500. <P> ACL Surgery Cost. ACL acl, acl surgery cost, advice, cost, costs, expensive, knee, price, surgery, survey aclsurgery. ACL surgery is expensive and plays a large role in the decision of whether or not to have surgery. Insurance companies and coverage varies. <P> 1 For patients not covered by health insurance, the cost of ACL reconstruction, including the surgeon's fee, facility fee, anesthesia and graft, if needed, ranges from just under $20,000 to $50,000. 2 ACL reconstruction usually would be considered medically necessary and covered by health insurance. <P> 1 For patients covered by health insurance, out-of-pocket costs typically include a hospital admission fee, copays for pre-and post-surgical doctor visits, a copay or coinsurance for the surgery and anesthesia. 2 Out-of-pocket costs can range from $800 to $3,000 or more.
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$20,000 to $50,000.
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meaning of name romilly
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<P> You can focus your search to emigration records dating from that era. Emigration records can tell you an ancestor's name, ship name, port of departure, port of arrival and destination. Census records can tell you a lot of little known facts about your Romilly ancestors, such as occupation. Occupation can tell you about your ancestors social and economic status. The information for this chart came from the U.S. Immigration Collection at Ancestry. You can find out where the majority of the Romilly families were living before they immigrated to the U.S and learn where to focus your search for foreign records. <P> [ syll. ro-mil-ly, rom-i- lly ] The baby girl name Romilly is pronounced as RAHM IY LLiy †. Romilly has its origins in the Latin language. The name means 'wanderer'. A derivative of Romilly is the name Romille. Romilly is irregularly used as a baby girl name. It is not ranked within the top 1000. Baby names that sound like Romilly include Rosenelle (English), Ragnalle, Richmal (English), Romelle, and Romille <P> Meanings and history of the name Romilly: | Edit. From a French place name and later use as an English surname. The name Romelia is of Hebrew origin and means God's beloved one. I'm not sure if the names are related or not but Romilly sounds like it could be a variant of Romelia so that is the definition I plan to apply to it. Personal experiences with the name Romilly: | Edit. The only Romilly I know is male. In the UK Romilly is a gender neutral name. I haven't checked to see if you have it in the male list too, but plan to do that next! My name is Romilly & Im female...I totaly love my name <P> Originally a male name springing from the Roman twin Romulus, this attractively dainty name was introduced to the English-speaking world by painter Augustus John who used it for his son. Romilly John became Admiral of the Fleet in England. A French surname from the twelfth century on, it's more recently and more appropriately been heard as a girls' name; Emma Thompson, for example, used Romilly as her daughter Gaia 's middle name. The logical nickname would be Romy, which is very much in style <P> Here's what we do know. Romilly (pronounced RAH-mi-lee) is the name of several small towns in north central France. Romilly is also a district in Barry, the town in Wales, and while there you apparently have to watch out for the local goblins. None of these places really seem to have much of a claim to fame. I'm not sure if this name will appeal to many Neo-Pagans. I would think that most of use would prefer names with a clear history or meaning. For magickal names, it's pretty much a requirement. If that's not a prerogative, Romilly is a unique option. <P> Meaning & History. Originally denoted a person who came from any of the various places in northern France called Romilly or Remilly, or from Romiley in England. <P> Click on a place to view Romilly immigration records. The information for this chart came from the U.S. Immigration Collection at Ancestry. You can find out where the majority of the Romilly families were living before they immigrated to the U.S and learn where to focus your search for foreign records.
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Romilly has its origins in the Latin language. The name means 'wanderer'.
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how to make a will online
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<P> 100% money-back guarantee if you are not totally satisfied! The Online Will is easy, thorough and legally valid in your state*. Enjoy unlimited revisions and secure 24-hour online access to your document -- plus, you'll receive detailed instructions for what to do when your document is complete. <P> Select witnesses and an executor. Wills produced online need to be printed out or mailed to you. All states require at least two people to witness the signing of your will. They need to sign in your presence and in each other's presence, Randolph says. <P> Writing a Will doesn't have to be complicated or expensive. This site provides a free and simple way to compose your own legal Will online in a few easy steps: 1 Enter basic information (name, address, marital status, children). 2 Name a Will Executor. 3 Describe how you would like your assets to be distributed. 4 Download and save your document in Adobe PDF or Editable Text Format. <P> Online Will. Write your will online right now! Make a will and ensure that your final wishes are carried out. 100% money-back guarantee if you are not totally satisfied! Nolo's Online Will is easy, thorough and legally valid in your state*. <P> Now, there are plenty of online ways to create a will or trust, many of which take less than an hour from start to finish. Here's an easy guide to writing a will on your own—often for much less than $100. Calculate your assets. <P> The cost of making an online will usually ranges from about $20 to $100. For as little as $5 to $20, you can also buy a standard will and testament on ready-made forms sold in stores such as OfficeMax, Office Depot or Staples.
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Enter basic information (name, address, marital status, children),Name a Will Executor,Describe how you would like your assets to be distributed,Download and save your document in Adobe PDF or Editable Text Format.
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who sang long train running
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<P> read more. The Doobie Brothers are an American rock group, best known for hit singles like Black Water, China Grove, Listen to the Music, Long Train Runnin', and What a Fool Believes. They have sold over 22 million albums in the United States from the 1970s to the present. <P> Long Train Running was sung by The Doobie Brothers, they're a 1970s American rock band (from California), not Sri Lankan =). <P> Music video by Josh Turner performing Long Black Train. (C) 2002 MCA Nashville, a Division of UMG Recordings, Inc. 1 Long Black Train by Josh Turner (Google Play • iTunes • AmazonMP3). 2 Music. 3 Standard YouTube License. <P> In 1993, the Doobie Brothers version was remixed and charted again in several countries. The song is sometimes titled Long Train Runnin' (Without Love) due to the words without love being sung frequently during the song. The song was covered by Richie Havens in 1976 on the album The End Of The Beginning. The Gipsy Kings provided flamenco guitar on Bananarama's version, using the pseudonym Alma de Noche (Soul of the Night). UK singer Zoe zoë provided backing. vocals <P> Song's origin [edit]. The tune evolved from an untitled and mostly ad-libbed jam that the Doobies developed onstage years before it was finally recorded. Its working title, according to Johnston, was Rosie Pig Moseley and later Osborn. I didn't want to cut it, Johnston later confessed. The song was covered by Richie Havens in 1976 on the album The End Of The Beginning. The Gipsy Kings provided flamenco guitar on Bananarama's version, using the pseudonym Alma de Noche (Soul of the Night). UK singer Zoe zoë provided backing. vocals <P> Long Black Train is a song written and recorded by American country music singer Josh Turner. It was released in May 2003 as the second single and title from his debut album of the same name. Having spent more than thirty weeks on the Billboard country charts, Long Black Train reached a peak of #13 in early 2004. On 06/01/2006 it was certified Gold by the RIAA. <P> Turner told The Boot that the song was inspired by a vision that he had of a long, black train running down a track in the middle of nowhere. Turner said, I could see people standing out to the sides of this track watching this train go by. It was released in May 2003 as the second single and title from his debut album of the same name. Having spent more than thirty weeks on the Billboard country charts, Long Black Train reached a peak of #13 in early 2004. On 06/01/2006 it was certified Gold by the RIAA. <P> It was included on the band's 1973 album The Captain and Me and released as a single, becoming a top 10 hit on the US Billboard Hot 100, peaking at number 8. It was covered by Italian band Traks in 1982 and was then by English girl group Bananarama in 1991. The song was covered by Richie Havens in 1976 on the album The End Of The Beginning. The Gipsy Kings provided flamenco guitar on Bananarama's version, using the pseudonym Alma de Noche (Soul of the Night). UK singer Zoe zoë provided backing. vocals <P> Sometimes they come right away, and sometimes it's like pulling teeth. We played 'Long Train Runnin'' for three years before it got recorded, and it got called several different names, and most of the time I would make up the words as we were playing the song. Randy Bachman has implied that The Doobie Brothers lifted the guitar riff of this song from the Bachman-Turner Overdrive song Let It Ride .. According to Bachman, in 1972 The Doobie Brothers were sharing a dressing room with BTO for a show at The Warehouse in New Orleans, which is when they wrote Let It Ride.. <P> Doobie Brothers guitarist and lead singer Tom Johnston wrote this song, which they played live for three years before recording. Johnston told us: Generally I write the music first, and sometimes I have a devil of a time getting the words. Randy Bachman has implied that The Doobie Brothers lifted the guitar riff of this song from the Bachman-Turner Overdrive song Let It Ride .. According to Bachman, in 1972 The Doobie Brothers were sharing a dressing room with BTO for a show at The Warehouse in New Orleans, which is when they wrote Let It Ride..
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Doobie Brothers
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what is the difference between refraction and diffraction
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<P> Report Abuse. DIFFRACTION-diffraction is bending of light at the corner of an obstacle. eg: DIFFRACTION OF LIGHT REFRACTION-Refraction is the bending of a wave when it enters a medium where it's speed is different. Refraction-is the change in direction of waves which occurs when waves travel from one medium to another Diffraction-is the bending of waves around obstacles and opening. <P> Reflection is the rebounding of light from the surface of an object. Refraction is the passing of light through a medium (may be liquid or a transparent solid) with some change in the velocity of light during the process. Reflection: When light beam is in contact with a reflective polished surface than it traces its path according to laws of reflection. Diffraction: Its a phenomenon by which light bends around the corner of small obstacles and it spreads out. (You can imagine this obstacle as a very sharp corner of a lab plane mirror). <P> 1.7k Views. DIFFRACTION: The phenomenon of bending of light around the corners of an obstacle or aperture into region of geometrical shadow. The diffraction of light more pronounced when the dimension of the obstacle or aperture is comparable to the wavelength of the wave. Reflection: When light beam is in contact with a reflective polished surface than it traces its path according to laws of reflection. Diffraction: Its a phenomenon by which light bends around the corner of small obstacles and it spreads out. (You can imagine this obstacle as a very sharp corner of a lab plane mirror). <P> Both diffraction and refraction involve change of direction of waves. When a wave encounters an obstacle, bending or spreading occurs, which we call diffraction. On the other hand, waves refract when they travel from one medium to another. Intensity of the fringes decreases as we move along either side of the central maxima. Refraction. When a wave passes from one medium to another at any angle except 90° and 0°, its line of travel changes at the interface due to the change in velocity of the wave. This is what we call refraction. Although light waves provide most of the examples for refraction, any other wave can also refract <P> Answer by Physics-nerd. Confidence votes 414. in reflection occurs when a wave bounces off a reflective surface, refraction is when a wave enters a new median, changing its speed, direction, and wavelength, and diffraction is when a wave bends due to a boundary. <P> Diffraction is the bending of waves around an obstacle, while interference is the meeting of two waves. For instance, diffraction is what results from a pinhole blocking a wav … e source, the wave spreads out from that one point. <P> Difference Between Diffraction and Refraction. • Diffraction is bending or spreading of waves around an obstacle, while refraction is bending of waves due to change of speed. • Both diffraction and refraction are wavelength dependant. Hence, both can split white light in to its component wavelengths. Intensity of the fringes decreases as we move along either side of the central maxima. Refraction. When a wave passes from one medium to another at any angle except 90° and 0°, its line of travel changes at the interface due to the change in velocity of the wave. This is what we call refraction. Although light waves provide most of the examples for refraction, any other wave can also refract <P> Surfline forecaster Katie Jackson discusses the difference between refraction and diffraction of swell.. A Physic's definition of refraction involves a change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another. <P> Best Answer: Refraction is the change in direction of waves which occurs when waves travel from one medium to another. Refraction is always accompanied by a wavelength and speed change. Diffraction is the bending of waves around obstacles and openings. The amount of diffraction increases with increasing wavelength. Refraction-is the change in direction of waves which occurs when waves travel from one medium to another Diffraction-is the bending of waves around obstacles and opening.
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Diffraction is bending or spreading of waves around an obstacle, while refraction is bending of waves due to change of speed.
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what is histones
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<P> Types of histones. Each octamer has two pairs of different histone proteins: H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. They are arranged as a pair of H2A-H2B dimers, and an (H3)2(H4)2 tetramer. There is an additional type of histone, the linker histone H1, which is present in condensed DNA. Histone packaging of DNA is a ubiquitous mechanism throughout species, and the structures of histones are highly conserved. They contain high amounts of two positively charged amino acids: lysine and arginine. Of course, there are some differences between the types of histone proteins: 1 H2A and H2B contain more lysine; <P> There are four types of histones found in chromatin: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. Two of each histone comprise a protein core, a nucleosome, which DNA wraps around twice. What results is a bead on a string model in which the nucleosomes are the beads and the linker DNA binds them together. Another characteristic of histones are the protein tails that extend outward from the bead.. The tails and the degree of their acetylation is an important factor in gene expression. <P> Histones are alkaline (basic pH) proteins. They are found inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. Their purpose is to package DNA into structural units called nucleosomes. They are the main proteins in chromatin (a combination of DNA and protein), which makes up the contents of a cell nucleus. The core histones form the center of the nucleosome, hence the term 'core'. The linker histones are found at the entrance and exit sites of the nucleosome and lock the DNA in place, hence the term 'linker'. <P> Histones are one of the specific proteins involved in cell division and cancer. Technically, the ball-like groups of histones are referred to as nucleosomes, but--for simplicity--the website will continue to refer to these groups as histones. <P> H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 are the core histones, and H1 and H5 are the linker histones. The core histones form the center of the nucleosome, hence the term 'core'. The linker histones are found at the entrance and exit sites of the nucleosome and lock the DNA in place, hence the term 'linker'. <P> Histone methylation is a process by which methyl groups are transferred to amino acids of histone proteins that make up nucleosomes, which the DNA double helix wraps around to form chromosomes. The fundamental unit of chromatin, called a nucleosome, contains DNA wound around a protein octamer. This octamer consists of two copies each of four histone proteins: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. Each one of these proteins has a tail extension, and these tails are the targets of nucleosome modification by methylation. <P> histone / histones. Under the microscope in its extended form, chromatin looks like beads on a string. The beads are called nucleosomes. Each nucleosome is made of DNA wrapped around eight histone proteins that function like a spool and are called a histone octamer. <P> Histones are basic proteins, and their positive charges allow them to associate with DNA, which is negatively charged. Some histones function as spools for the thread-like DNA to wrap around. Under the microscope in its extended form, chromatin looks like beads on a string. The beads are called nucleosomes. Each nucleosome is made of DNA wrapped around eight histone proteins that function like a spool and are called a histone octamer. <P> Best Answer: Histones are the proteins closely associated with DNA molecules. They are responsible for the structure of chromatin and play important roles in the regulation of gene expression. Five types of histones have been identified: H1 (or H5), H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. H1 and its homologous protein H5 are involved in higher-order structures of chromatin. The other four types of histones associate with DNA to form nucleosomes. H1 (or H5) has about 220 residues. Other types of histones are smaller, each consisting of 100-150 residues. Each nucleosome consists of 146 bp DNA and 8 histones: two copies for each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 <P> Histones are a family of basic proteins that associate with DNA in the nucleus and help condense it into chromatin. Nuclear DNA does not appear in free linear strands; it is highly condensed and wrapped around histones in order to fit inside of the nucleus and take part in the formation of chromosomes. Under the microscope in its extended form, chromatin looks like beads on a string. The beads are called nucleosomes. Each nucleosome is made of DNA wrapped around eight histone proteins that function like a spool and are called a histone octamer.
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Histones are a family of basic proteins that associate with DNA in the nucleus and help condense it into chromatin.
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how tall do you have to be to become a model
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<P> You are about 5 inches too short to be a runway model but you can be a bikini model: Bikini models are usually curvaceous and fit. For women, usually the models can be shorter, around 5 ft 5 in-5 ft 8 in (1.65 m-1.73 m) and need to be in the range of 90–110 lb (41–50 kg). Apparently 5'4'' is pretty average so models that are like 5'9 + would be pretty scary lol But I reallllly want to be a model!! My mum says I look like Gemma Ward hehe and I really do have that 'model look' Is there a hope in the world... Source(s): tall model: https://tr.im/eOnFv. Kissiah · 2 months ago. Thumbs up. <P> Starting a Modeling Agency.... 5. Cancel. To be an editorial or fashion model, women will need to be between 5-foot-8 and 6 feet tall, while male models will need to be between 6 feet and 6-foot-2. <P> Though today the models are as tall as 5'9 and 6'0. But you have to be really thin and pretty. If you are all that then sure you can be a runway model. im 14 and want to become a runway model and i am 5'7 /170cm tall i want to know how tall i need to be so i can fufill my dreams and do you think i will grow taller?? <P> When you see the incredibly tall and lean figures that grace the runways and editorials for the leading fashion houses and designers, these are the High Fashion models. They are generally required to be between 172cm to 180cm (5”8 to 5”11), with a dress size of 4-6 US (6-8 UK), with a typical bust size of 34. The age range can be from 14 to 25. For guys the age range is more flexible and they can start from the age of 16 until their late 40’s. They need to be between 180cm to 188cm (5”11 to 6”2), with an excellent physique and a chest size of 94cm to 106cm (37” to 42”) and 76cm to 81cm (30” to 32”) waist. Guys tend to have longer careers if they look after themselves <P> This depends on what kind of modeling you want to do. Fashion/editorial/runway models are required to be between 5'8-6'0 for females and 5'10-6'2 for males. Commercial/pri … nt models should be between 5'5-5'7 for females and 5'9-6'2 for males. If you are trying to do commercial/print, the minimum height is 5'5. For fashion and runway you should ideally already be 5'8 or 5'7 with the hope of growing taller in the … next few years. <P> At age 14, if you want to be a fashion/runway model, agencies will require you to be 5'8 but for younger models they typically will lower the height requirement to 5'6 or 5' … 7 since they know you will have a shot at growing taller as you get older. If you are trying to do commercial/print, the minimum height is 5'5. For fashion and runway you should ideally already be 5'8 or 5'7 with the hope of growing taller in the … next few years. <P> Apparently 5'4'' is pretty average so models that are like 5'9 + would be pretty scary lol But I reallllly want to be a model!! My mum says I look like Gemma Ward hehe and I really do have that 'model look' Is there a hope in the world I will get... Apparently 5'4'' is pretty average so models that are like 5'9 + would be pretty scary lol But I reallllly want to be a model!! My mum says I look like Gemma Ward hehe and I really do have that 'model look' Is there a hope in the world... Source(s): tall model: https://tr.im/eOnFv. Kissiah · 2 months ago. Thumbs up. <P> You have to be at least 5' 10 or 5' 11. Also, you have to be size 4 or 6. Runway model is not only about height but also about your clothing size. Size 4 is the average size for runway model. Designers prefer runway model to have longer legs than longer body because their designs are in 9 heads proportion. 4 heads are measured from upper body and 5 heads are measured lower body. If you want to be a runway model, you better start learning how to walk a straight line now. <P> You are JUST tall enough. Despite all the bad publicity, you still have to be painfully thin to be a model though. I'm 5'8and a UK size 8, US 4 and considered far too curvy to be a model! I'm not prepared to starve myself so never seriously considered it as a career option.
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5”8 to 5”11
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what happens when baby is teething
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<P> Most babies get their first tooth at around 6 months, but your child's chompers may appear as early as 3 months or as late as 14, depending on such factors as when Mom and Dad started sprouting teeth and whether or not your baby was a preemie (preemies tend to teethe on the late side). <P> 1 Use a clean finger (or cold teething ring) to gently rub your baby's gum for about 2 minutes at a time. 2 Many babies find this soothing, although they may protest at first. Here are some tips to help your baby feel better while teething: 1 Use a clean finger (or cold teething ring) to gently rub your baby's gum for about 2 minutes at a time. 2 Many babies find this soothing, although they may protest at first. 3 Provide safe objects for your baby to chew on, such as teething rings <P> 23. Teething occurs when the teeth emerge through the gums. It can be a frustrating time for many parents, as babies and children can become unsettled when they teethe. There are measures which you can take to improve symptoms of teething in your baby or child. Teething occurs when the 'baby teeth' (or milk teeth) come through the gums. It is a normal part of development. Although the milk teeth develop when the baby is growing in the womb, the teeth only start to grow throughout the gums when the baby is 6-9 months old (although it can be before or after these ages) <P> When a baby begins teething, there is no set pattern on when it will begin, how long it will take and how painful it will be. For one baby cutting a tooth might happen overnight without pain, while another child might have to go through a long, drawn out and painful experience. The process of teething often follows hereditary patterns, so if the mother and father teethed early or late, your baby may follow the same pattern. On average the first tooth comes in during the seventh month, although it can arrive as early as three months, as late as a year, or in rare cases even earlier or later. <P> 1 Give your baby something cool to chew on, such as a chilled teething ring or a whole, peeled carrot that's been in the fridge. 2 Stay near your baby when he is chewing anything in case of choking (NHS 2014a) . 3 If your baby is older than four months, you can rub sugar-free teething gel for babies on his gums. 1 If your baby is older than four months, you can rub sugar-free teething gel for babies on his gums. 2 You can buy this from your pharmacy (NHS 2014a) . 3 If your baby is older than six months, he may get relief from eating cold foods, such as apple puree or yoghurt, straight from <P> Teething usually begins around 6 months of age. But it is normal for teething to start at any time between 3 months and 12 months of age. By the time your child is about 3 years old, he or she will have all 20 primary teeth. The lower front teeth usually come in first. Upper front teeth usually come in 1 to 2 months after the lower front teeth. Here are some tips to help your baby feel better while teething: 1 Use a clean finger (or cold teething ring) to gently rub your baby's gum for about 2 minutes at a time. 2 Many babies find this soothing, although they may protest at first. 3 Provide safe objects for your baby to chew on, such as teething rings <P> Teething can be a long drawn-out process for your baby (and you). In fact, the move from that gummy grin to a mouthful of gleaming teeth can take your baby his first three years to complete. Most babies sprout their first tooth at around six months (BDHF nd, NHS 2014a) . 1 If your baby is older than four months, you can rub sugar-free teething gel for babies on his gums. 2 You can buy this from your pharmacy (NHS 2014a) . 3 If your baby is older than six months, he may get relief from eating cold foods, such as apple puree or yoghurt, straight from the fridge. <P> A 9-month-old infant with a visible right lower central incisor. Teething is the process by which an infant 's first teeth (the deciduous teeth, often called baby teeth or milk teeth) sequentially appear by emerging through the gums, typically arriving in pairs. Teething may start as early as six months or as late as eight months.
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When a baby begins teething, there is no set pattern on when it will begin, how long it will take and how painful it will be.
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what is independence day
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<P> Independence Day is annually celebrated on July 4 and is often known as the Fourth of July. It is the anniversary of the publication of the declaration of independence from Great Britain in 1776. Patriotic displays and family events are organized throughout the United States. The Declaration of Independence was first published two days later on July 4, 1776. The first public reading of the Declaration of Independence was on July 8, 1776. Delegates began to sign the Declaration of Independence on August 2, 1776. In 1870, Independence Day was made an unpaid holiday for federal employees. <P> Independence Day is the national holiday of the United States of America commemorating the signing of the Declaration of Independence by the Continental Congress on July 4, 1776, in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. At the time of the signing the US consisted of 13 colonies under the rule of England’s King George III. <P> Independence Day celebrates the birthday of the United States of America. Founded July 4th 1776, with the signing of the Declaration of Independence, America is celebrating it’s 234th birthday this year (2010). The 4th of July is a time for the Red White and Blue. A time for Picnics, Parades and Marching Bands. <P> INDEPENDENCE DAY. On July 4, 1776, the thirteen colonies claimed their independence from England, an event which eventually led to the formation of the United States. Each year on July 4th, also known as Independence Day, Americans celebrate this historic event. Conflict between the colonies and England was already a year old when the colonies convened a Continental Congress in Philadelphia in the summer of 1776 <P> noun. Tweet. : a holiday celebrating the anniversary of a country's independence from another country that ruled it in the past; especially: July 4 celebrated as a legal holiday in the U.S. in honor of the day when the Declaration of Independence was signed in 1776. <P> Newsletter. On July 4, 1776, the thirteen colonies claimed their independence from England, an event which eventually led to the formation of the United States. Each year on July 4th, also known as Independence Day, Americans celebrate this historic event. Conflict between the colonies and England was already a year old when the colonies convened a Continental Congress in Philadelphia in the summer of 1776 <P> Variously known as the Fourth of July and Independence Day, July 4th has been a federal holiday in the United States since 1941, but the tradition of Independence Day celebrations goes back to the 18th century and the American Revolution (1775-83). <P> Independence Day (Dia día de La) independencia is A mexican holiday to celebrate “the cry of” independence On september, 16, 1810 which staked a revolt against The. Spaniards it follows from the day of The cry Of (Dolores El grito De) , dolores On september. 15 image Of Miguel, hidalgo who fought For'mexico s. independence <P> The Story of the Fourth of July. The Declaration of Independence. We celebrate American Independence Day on the Fourth of July every year. We think of July 4, 1776, as a day that represents the Declaration of Independence and the birth of the United States of America as an independent nation. But July 4, 1776 wasn't the day that the Continental Congress decided to declare independence (they did that on July 2, 1776). <P> On July 4, 1776, the thirteen colonies claimed their independence from England, an event which eventually led to the formation of the United States. Each year on July 4th, also known as Independence Day, Americans celebrate this historic event. Conflict between the colonies and England was already a year old when the colonies convened a Continental Congress in Philadelphia in the summer of 1776.
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A holiday celebrating the anniversary of a country's independence from another country that ruled it in the past.
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meaning of names joanna
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<P> English name. In English, the name Joanna means-from the name joanne. Other origins for the name Joanna include-English, Hebrew, French.The name Joanna is most often used as a girl name or female name. English Name Meaning-from the name joanne. Origin-England. Other origins for the name Joanna include-English, Hebrew, French.The name Joanna is most often used as a girl name or female name. English Name Meaning <P> Joanna is a very popular first name for women (#324 out of 4276, Top 8%) but a rare last name for both adults and children. (2000 U.S. Census). Presented below is the birth name popularity of Joanna for girls. Joanna reached its apex rank of #137 in the U.S. during 1980-1989, and is at #327 currently. <P> Sometimes in modern English Joanna is reinterpreted as a compound of the two names Jo and Anna, and therefore given a spelling like JoAnna, Jo-Anna, or Jo Anna. However, the original name Joanna is a single unit, not a compound. The names Hannah, Anna, Anne, Ann are etymologically related to Joanna just the same: they are derived from Hebrew חַנָּה Ḥannāh 'grace' from the same verbal root meaning 'to be gracious'. <P> Origin of the name Joanna: Middle Latin feminine form of Joannes (God is gracious). The name is derived from the Greek Iōannes, a derivative of the Hebrew Yehanan, a short form of Yehohanan, which is from yehōhānān (Yahweh is gracious). Personal experiences with the name Joanna: | Edit. --My name is Joanna, too, and I think it's a great name. It's a bit uncommon, but everyone has heard of it and they don't give me a weird look when I introduce myself. <P> Look up Joanna in Wiktionary, the free dictionary. Joanna is a feminine given name deriving from Koine Greek ἰωάννα Iōanna from Hebrew יוֹחָנָה Yoḥānnāh yôḥānnāh 'Meaning god is'. gracious The names Hannah, Anna, Anne, Ann are etymologically related to Joanna just the same: they are derived from Hebrew חַנָּה Ḥannāh 'grace' from the same verbal root meaning 'to be gracious'. <P> Meaning & History. English and Polish form of Latin Iohanna, which was derived from Greek ιωαννα (Ioanna) , the feminine form of Ioannes (see JOHN). This is the spelling used in the English New Testament, where it belongs to a follower of Jesus who is regarded as a saint. In the Middle Ages in England it was used as a Latinized form of Joan (the usual feminine form of John) and it became common as a given name in the 19th century. Expand Name Links. <P> Hebrew Meaning: The name Joanna is a Hebrew baby name. In Hebrew the meaning of the name Joanna is: Gift from God. American Meaning: The name Joanna is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Joanna is: Gift from God. French Meaning: The name Joanna is a French baby name. In French the meaning of the name Joanna is: God's gift. Biblical Meaning: The name Joanna is a Biblical baby name. In Biblical the meaning of the name Joanna is: Grace or gift of the Lord. <P> Joanna is the English/Latinate female equivalent of John. The Latin Iohannes (John) and Iohanna (Joanna) are ultimately derived from the Hebrew “Yochanan” meaning “Yahweh is gracious” or “God is merciful, generous” (the name John first appears in the Old Testament in the person of one of King David’s mighty men. <P> The name Joanna is an English baby name. In English the meaning of the name Joanna is: Feminine of John. Latin Meaning: The name Joanna is a Latin baby name. In Latin the meaning of the name Joanna is: God is gracious. In French the meaning of the name Joanna is: God's gift. Biblical Meaning: The name Joanna is a Biblical baby name. In Biblical the meaning of the name Joanna is: Grace or gift of the Lord.
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In America,French, : Gift from God. English:Feminine of John. Latin: God is gracious.
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when was charles spurgeon born
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<P> Charles Haddon Spurgeon, Victorian England's best-known Baptist minister, was born on June 19, 1834 in Kelvedon, Essex and spent his childhood and early teenage years in Stambourne, Colchester, and Newmarket. <P> Charles Hadon Spurgeon. Charles Haddon Spurgeon (1834-1892) was born in Essex, England. After preaching his first sermon at the age of 16, he became pastor of the church in Waterbeach at the age of 17. His most fruitful years of ministry were at the New Park Street and later the Metropolitan Tabernacle pulpit in Lond <P> CHARLES HADDON SPURGEON (18341892). Charles Haddon Spurgeon was born on June 19, 1834 just ten days after the great William Carey died in India. Because of economic conditions the young Spurgeon was sent to live with his grandparents at the age of 18 months. His grandfather, James Spurgeon, ministered to the church at Stambourne for 54 years <P> Biography. Charles Haddon, elder son of John Spurgeon, by his wife, the youngest sister of Charles Parker Jarvis of Colchester, was born at Kelvedon, Essex, in England on 19 June 1834. Spurgeon married, in 1856, Susannah, daughter of Robert Thompson of Falcon Square, London, by whom he had twin sons, Charles and Thomas. His widow and sons survived him. Towards the end of his life he suffered severely from gout, and was repeatedly forced to take long rests. <P> Charles Haddon (CH) Spurgeon (/ˈhaedən ˈhædən/ ; ˈspɜrdʒən 19 june – 1834 31 january) 1892 was A British Particular baptist. preacher At 22, Spurgeon was the most popular preacher of the day. On 8 January 1856, Spurgeon married Susannah, daughter of Robert Thompson of Falcon Square, London, by whom he had twin sons, Charles and Thomas born on 20 September 1856. At the end of that year, tragedy struck on 19 October 1856, as Spurgeon was preaching at the Surrey Gardens Music Hall for the first time. <P> Early years. Charles Haddon Spurgeon was born into a godly home in the heart of rural Essex on June 19, 1834, only ten days after the death of the pioneer Baptist missionary, William Carey (1761-1834). Spurgeon’s forebears originally came from the Netherlands, which they had left in the 1500s due to religious persecution. <P> Charles Spurgeon was born on 19 June 1834, in Kelvedon, in the English county of Essex. He was the eldest child of Eliza Jarvis and John Spurgeon. His mother Eliza was born in nearby Belchamp Otten on 3 May 1815. She was about 19-years-old when Spurgeon was born. His father John Spurgeon, born in Clare, Suffolk on 15 July 1810, was about 24-years-old. There were 17 children in Spurgeon's family, but nine of them died when they were babies <P> Charles Haddon (CH) Spurgeon (/ˈhaedən ˈhædən/ ; ˈspɜrdʒən 19 june – 1834 31 january) 1892 was A British Particular baptist. Preacher spurgeon remains highly influential Among christians of various, denominations among whom he is known as The prince Of. preachers At 22, Spurgeon was the most popular preacher of the day. On 8 January 1856, Spurgeon married Susannah, daughter of Robert Thompson of Falcon Square, London, by whom he had twin sons, Charles and Thomas born on 20 September 1856. At the end of that year, tragedy struck on 19 October 1856, as Spurgeon was preaching at the Surrey Gardens Music Hall for the first time.
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June 19, 1834
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how much does a medical laboratory technician make an hour
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<P> Medical laboratory technician’s salary (also know as medical lab tech salary or mlt salary) in the United States is about $56,000 per year and an average hourly wage of more than $26 per hour. The annual starting salary for a newly graduated medical laboratory technician is around $24,000 per year while a senior laboratory technician earns more than $57,000 per year. Medical laboratory technician salary is one of the highest. <P> (United States). The average Medical Laboratory Technician in the United States can expect to rake in roughly $18.35 per hour. The income range spans the entire spectrum between $13.87 per hour and $23.88. Earnings for this group are mostly affected by geographic location, followed by the specific employer and years of experience. The average beginner in this position makes around $35K, but folks who have been around for five to 10 years see a markedly higher median salary of $39K. Medical Laboratory Technicians claiming one to two decades of experience make an estimated median of $42K. <P> Those on the lower end of the wage spectrum earn about $36,000 per year, while those on the higher end of the wage spectrum earn $74,000 per year. On the other hand, the average annual salary for a medical technician was $ 35,380 in May 2008. About 50 percent of the medical technicians surveyed by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics earned between $28,420 and $44,310 per year. The annual salary of medical technicians and technologists varies depending on the city or state in which the worker is employed, and on the employer. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, in May 2008, the average salary for a clinical technologist was $53,5 <P> The median expected salary for a medical Laboratory technician in the United States is around $42,199 per year and an average hourly wage is about $28.64. The annual starting salary for a newly graduated medical laboratory technician is around $24,000 per year while a senior laboratory technician earns more than $57,000 per year. Medical laboratory technician salary is one of the highest. <P> For example the median expected annual pay for a typical Medical Laboratory Technician in the United States is $45,041 so 50% of the people who perform the job of Medical Laboratory Technician in the United States are expected to make less than $45,041. Source: HR Reported data as of October 2015. Median $45,041. The annual salary for someone with the job title Medical Laboratory Technician may vary depending on a number of factors including industry, company size, location, years of experience and level of education. <P> Relevance. Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: An ASCP certified medical laboratory technician (MLT(ASCP)) makes between $12 and $20 per hour depending on location (higher salaries in coastal areas), experience, and setting. <P> The annual salary for the highest 10 percent of medical laboratory technicians is more than $56,040 while the lowest 10 percent of them received over $24,210 per year. It has been reported that majority of the medical laboratory technicians usually earn their salary ranging from between $35,000 to $50,000 per annum. The annual starting salary for a newly graduated medical laboratory technician is around $24,000 per year while a senior laboratory technician earns more than $57,000 per year. Medical laboratory technician salary is one of the highest. <P> The annual salary for an average medical laboratory technician in Canada ranges from $40,000 – $45,000 per year and a median hourly wage is about 22.19. The highest paid medical laboratory technician receives an hourly wage of about 27.75 per hour while the lowest paid receives about 17.40 per hour. The annual starting salary for a newly graduated medical laboratory technician is around $24,000 per year while a senior laboratory technician earns more than $57,000 per year. Medical laboratory technician salary is one of the highest. <P> Laboratory technician salary in Australia. An average hourly wage for a laboratory technician in Australia is between AU$37 and AU$60 per hour which averages to a total mean salary of about AU$40,000 per year. According to payscale, a laboratory technician in Australia receives an annual salary ranging from between AU$13,737 – AU$71,505. Laboratory technician salary. Laboratory technician’s salary (shortly known as laboratory tech salary or lab tech salary) in the United States according to the U.S. Department of Labor’s Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is about $37,860 per year.
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$26 per hour
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how is a caldera different from a crater
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<P> Caldera. A large depression made because of volcanic activity is called a caldera. It is the result of a large cavity created underground when a chamber of magma and lava gets emptied. This cavity creates pressure and the over ground rocks collapse to create a large depression. This large depression is called a caldera. Crater. A volcanic crater is a bowl like structure at the top of a volcano around the opening that is used for eruption of magma and lava. This is a depression that is the result of sinking in of the rocks because of high pressure. Mostly it has the opening through which lava and ash flows upwards. <P> A caldera is a cauldron-like volcanic feature on large central volcanoes, a special sort of volcanic crater (from one to several kilometers in diameter), formed when a magma chamber was emptied. The depression then originated either in very big explosive eruptions or in erosion and collapse of the magma chamber roof. <P> Best Answer: A CALDERA is a large depression in a volcano formed either by the collapse of the top of a composite volcano after an explosive eruption, or from the collapse of the top of a shield volcano after the magma chamber is drained. A CRATER is a steep walled depression located at the summit of a volcano. <P> A caldera is a large crater, up to 50 kilometers, that can form when the summit or side of a volcano collapses into the magma chamber during of after an explosion. A crater is … an indentation, only up to 1 kilometer in diameter, that forms around the central vent at the summit of a volcano. The main difference is size. <P> Collapse calderas form when a large magma chamber is emptied by a volcanic eruption or by subsurface magma movement. The unsupported rock that forms the roof of the magma chamber then collapses to form a large crater. Crater Lake and many other calderas are thought to have formed by this process. Calderas are some of the most spectacular features on Earth. They are large volcanic craters that form by two different methods: 1) an explosive volcanic eruption; or, 2) collapse of surface rock into an empty magma chamber. The image at right is a satellite view of one of the most famous calderas-Crater Lake in Oregon. <P> A caldera is a large crater, up to 50 kilometers, that can form when the summit or side of a volcano collapses into the magma chamber during of after an explosion. A crater is … an indentation, only up to 1 kilometer in diameter, that forms around the central vent at the summit of a volcano. The main difference is size. A caldera is a depression in the land surface caused by the collapse of land into an emptied magma chamber as a result of an eruption of a stratovolcano. A caldera indicat … es that the volcano produced an extremely violent eruption. <P> A great example is Crater Lake located in Oregon. This is actually a caldera. Photo courtesy of Wikicommons. Photographer: unknown. The main difference between craters and calderas is how they are formed. Craters are caused by impacts from meteorites, and can range in size from very small to several hundred km across. According to the US Geological Survey, a caldera is a large (at least one km across), circular depression formed at the top of a volcano when the magma chamber collapse <P> In strictly volcanic terms, they are two different kinds of depressions. A caldera is formed when a large eruption of magma, or lava, leaves a gigantic empty chamber underground. The volcanic material above the chamber, usually made of volcanic rock and tuff, collapses into the empty magma chamber.
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A large depression made because of volcanic activity is called a caldera. A volcanic crater is a bowl like structure at the top of a volcano around the opening that is used for eruption of magma and lava.
Caledra is the result of a large cavity created underground when a chamber of magma and lava gets emptied. Crater is a depression that is the result of sinking in of the rocks because of high pressure.
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HIV texas Reporting Laws
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<P> Office of AIDS. Federal and state laws require HIV/AIDS case reporting to be conducted by laboratories, local health departments, counseling and testing (C&T) sites and healthcare providers. <P> Guest. Posts: n/a. Texas partner notification for HIV or Aids. Texas-- I am courious to find out whether or not Texas has any partner notification laws pertaining to HIV, AIDS, or any other sexually transmitted dieases. <P> E-mail the HIV/STD Program. E-mail data requests to HIV/STD Program-This email can be used to request data and statistics on HIV, TB, and STDs in Texas. It cannot be used to get treatment or infection history for individuals, or to request information on programs and services. <P> Many states have laws about informing contacts of their HIV exposure, and some health departments require that if a patient refuses to report a partner who may have been exposed, the clinician must report to the health department any partner of whom the clinician is aware [12]. <P> In some states, if you are HIV-positive and don’t tell your partner(s), you can be charged with a crime. Some health departments require healthcare providers to report the name of your sex and needle-sharing partner(s) if they know that information—even if you refuse to report that information yourself. <P> In Texas, a person who knows that he or she is infected with HIV/AIDS and intentionally exposes another person to the disease may be charged with assault with a deadly weapon. A deadly weapon is anything that that can be used to cause death or serious injury. (Tex.
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Federal and state laws require HIV/AIDS case reporting to be conducted by laboratories.
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what happens when you cut the vagus nerve
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<P> Thus if you take a normal heart at rest that's innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, and then sever the vagus nerve, you lose the parasympathetic input to the heart, while leaving the sympathetic input intact. The result is that the resting heart rate increases, to something closer to 100 bpm. The vagus never innervates the heart and affects the SA node. Otto Loewi discovered that the vagus nerve through the action of Ach (a neurotransmitter) slowed the heart. … So the vagus nerve can slow the action (or beating) of <P> Etymology: L, vagus, wandering, temnein, to cut. the cutting of certain branches of the vagus nerve, performed with gastric surgery, to reduce the amount of gastric acid secreted and lessen the chance of recurrence of a gastric ulcer. With the patient under general anesthesia, a gastrectomy is performed, and the appropriate branches of the vagus nerve are excised. vagotomy. interruption of the impulses carried by the vagus nerve or nerves; so called because it was first performed by surgical methods. The surgical procedure is done as part of the treatment of gastric or duodenal ulcer and often is performed in combination with gastroenterostomy or partial gastrectomy. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: B. The heart rate would increase The vagus nerve carries important information to the heart from a part of the central nervous system called the parasympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system is often considered the rest and digest system <P> The vagus nerve releases the neurotransmitter, aceytlcholine, that slows down the heart rate. It is not the nerve impulses per se that do this, rather it is the the rele … ase of transmitter and it's interaction with post-synaptic receptors that have this effect. 4 people found this useful. The vagus never innervates the heart and affects the SA node. Otto Loewi discovered that the vagus nerve through the action of Ach (a neurotransmitter) slowed the heart. … So the vagus nerve can slow the action (or beating) of <P> The vagus nerve is used to regulate the heartbeat and the muscle movement necessary to keep you breathing. This nerve also regulates the chemical levels in the digestive system so that the intestines can process food and keep track of what types of nutrients are being gained from the food that is taken in. <P> There will also be an increase in blood pressure. This is because the vagus nerve provides parasympathetic support to the cardiovascular system. slide 3 of 4. The muscles of the esophagus will lose their tone and this can create a problem with food entering the esophagus if the vagus nerve is damaged. Introduction to the Vagus Nerve. The vagus nerve is the paired tenth cranial nerve that branches out from the brain and supplies parts of the gastrointestinal system such as the stomach, and parts of the respiratory system such as the lungs. To supply vital organs, it has further to travel than the other cranial nerves <P> Electrical stimulation of the vagus nerve, called vagus nerve stimulation (VNS), is sometimes used to treat people with epilepsy or depression. The vagus nerve is involved in one of the most common causes of fainting, called vasovagal syncope. This is an overreaction of the body to certain stimuli, like the sight of blood, which involves the stimulation of the vagus nerve. This stimulation causes a drop in blood pressure and heart rate. Less blood flows to brain, resulting in loss of consciousness. <P> Answer: Since the vagus nerve is parasympathetic is action. When the nerve is stimulated, the following actions occur at the myocardium: 1. The heart rate and t … he force of heart contraction slows down. 2. It leads to conronary vasoconstriction. 3. The vagus never innervates the heart and affects the SA node. Otto Loewi discovered that the vagus nerve through the action of Ach (a neurotransmitter) slowed the heart. … So the vagus nerve can slow the action (or beating) of
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Etymology: L, vagus, wandering, temnein, to cut. the cutting of certain branches of the vagus nerve, performed with gastric surgery, to reduce the amount of gastric acid secreted and lessen the chance of recurrence of a gastric ulcer.
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cost to repair shoe sole
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<P> A: As long as the upper leather portion of your shoes is in good condition, your shoes can be resoled 2-3 times on average. A: While we make every effort to get the shoes in and out of our repair facility as quickly as possible, please allow three to four weeks to receive your recrafted shoes. <P> 1 On average, a shoe repair service can range anywhere from $5 to as much as $50. 2 New rubber heels and soles for both men and women can cost anywhere from $15 to $50. 3 Shoe stretching and adding sole guard protection can can cost $15 to $30, while heel replacement and insole replacement can cost $6 to $15. <P> 1 The size of the shoe may also have an affect on the cost. 2 On average, a shoe repair service can range anywhere from $5 to as much as $50. 3 New rubber heels and soles for both men and women can cost anywhere from $15 to $50. <P> 1 Shoe stretching and adding sole guard protection can can cost $15 to $30, while heel replacement and insole replacement can cost $6 to $15. 2 According to EuropeanShoeRepair.net, a service that offers shoe repair service, the price of shoe repair varies depending on the type of repair the shoe needs. <P> Men's Shoe Resole & Repair Price List. The prices below do not include shipping & handling. See Shoe Repair by Mail for Easy Instructions OR if you need a postage paid mailing bag or box dispatched to you. We repair and service over 150 brands of footwear: Click here for list of Brands We Repair. <P> 1 According to EuropeanShoeRepair.net, a service that offers shoe repair service, the price of shoe repair varies depending on the type of repair the shoe needs. 2 This company can repair soles, which can be full or half soles as well as crepe, lug and leather soles; these can be repaired for anywhere from $32 to $50. <P> 1 New rubber heels and soles for both men and women can cost anywhere from $15 to $50. 2 Shoe stretching and adding sole guard protection can can cost $15 to $30, while heel replacement and insole replacement can cost $6 to $15. <P> 1 $15+. 2 Sole protectors – This is a thin piece of rubber that goes over the leather sole to make it last longer. 3 $15+. 4 Shoe stretch – Your shoes can actually be stretched if they’re just a little too small for your feet. <P> Of course, the costs and benefits of shoe repair are going to largely depend on what type of shoe it is. $50 athletic shoes aren’t worth more than a quick, shoe-glue fix. Your $200 dress shoes or boots, on the other hand, are worth a cobble or two.
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$32 to $50.
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where was the beach filmed
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<P> The waterfall scene, where DiCaprio and others jump from a high cliff to the water below, was filmed in Khao Yai National Park in central Thailand, at the Haew Suwat Waterfall. The map in the film was illustrated by the author of the book that The Beach was based upon, Alex Garland. It is reported that crew members flattened the beach with a tractor, much to the locals' dismay. The tsunami of 2004, however, has reshaped the beach to its natural look. Boyle has been cited saying that the look of the jungle scenes in the film was inspired by the Rare/ Nintendo game Banjo-Kazooie. <P> Photograph: haveseen / iStockphoto. Danny Boyle ’s film of the Alex Garland novel was filmed on Hat Maya, the main beach of Phi Phi Leh Island, near Phuket, Thailand, amid allegations of ecological vandalism when imported palms were planted to make the ‘perfect’ beach even more perfect. <P> Locations. Phi Phi Leh. To get to Phi Phi Leh where the most of ‘The Beach’ was shot, the usual route is by longboat from the neighbouring Phi Phi Don. There is no hotels or guesthouses on Phi Phi Leh as it’s a national park, but you can stay the night by camping on the beach within Maya Bay. Me in Maya Bay, Where The Beach was Filmed. There is a lot of hotels and guesthouses on Phi Phi Don though, but no airport. <P> Most of the movie adaptation of “The Beach” was filmed on Thailand’s Maya Bay, an insanely picturesque spot with glass-clear water that is completely flat. Large, jungle-covered cliffs nearly surround the entire bay, which is located on Ko Phi Phi Leh on Thailand’s east coast (somewhat close to Krabi and Phuket). To visit “The Beach” (Ko Phi Phi Leh Beach), first you need to get from Bangkok to Phuket (or Krabi). Ko Phi Phi Leh and Maya Beach are both wildly popular with tourists, who are eager to visit the utopian island they saw in the movie (however fictional it was). <P> On the Beach is a 1959 American black-and-white post-apocalyptic science fiction drama film from United Artists, produced and directed by Stanley Kramer, starring Gregory Peck, Ava Gardner, Fred Astaire and Anthony Perkins. On the Beach premiered simultaneously in 17 cities on six continents on December 17, 1959. The Hollywood premiere was attended by the film's stars, Fred Astaire and Anthony Perkins, in addition to other celebrities, including Cary Grant. <P> by Roger | September 22nd, 2008. Tweet. If you’ve read the book or seen the movie “The Beach,” you’re familiar with author Alex Garland’s fictional creation of a Utopian society set on a gorgeous Thai beach. While the story maybe be fiction, the real beach where “The Beach” was filmed is real – sort of. To visit “The Beach” (Ko Phi Phi Leh Beach), first you need to get from Bangkok to Phuket (or Krabi). Ko Phi Phi Leh and Maya Beach are both wildly popular with tourists, who are eager to visit the utopian island they saw in the movie (however fictional it was). <P> We have a lot more information on the location where the movie “The Beach” was filmed, but here is some basic information: The movie “The Beach” was filmed in Maya Bay, a small cove surrounded by 300-foot cliffs. Maya Bay is on the island Ko Phi Phi Leh, a picturesque and uninhabited island on Thailand’s west coast. Ko Phi Phi Leh is the smallest of the two Phi Phi islands; many travelers are familiar with Ko Phi Phi Don, which is larger than Leh and offers accommodation. »More about where The Beach was filmed. If you’re looking for information about visiting the location of the movie “The Beach,” which was filmed in Thailand in 2000 and stars Leonardo DiCaprio, look no further. This picturesque bay is a favorite of holiday-makers in Thailand, and a relatively easy spot to visit <P> This feature is not available right now. Please try again later. The Beach is a 2000 drama film by the Trainspotting team of writer John Hodge, producer Andrew Macdonald and director Danny Boyle based on The Beach, a 1996 novel by Alex Garland. The film stars Leonardo DiCaprio, Tilda Swinton, Robert Carlyle, Virginie Ledoyen and Guillaume Canet. Richard (Leonardo DiCaprio). <P> The Beach (film). From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. The Beach is a 2000 adventure drama film directed by Danny Boyle and based on the 1996 novel of the same name by Alex Garland, which was adapted for the film by John Hodge. The film stars Leonardo DiCaprio and features Tilda Swinton, Robert Carlyle, Virginie Ledoyen, Guillaume Canet, and Paterson Joseph. It was filmed on the Thai island Koh Phi Phi. It is reported that crew members flattened the beach with a tractor, much to the locals' dismay. The tsunami of 2004, however, has reshaped the beach to its natural look. Boyle has been cited saying that the look of the jungle scenes in the film was inspired by the Rare/ Nintendo game Banjo-Kazooie.
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In Maya Bay, a small cove surrounded by 300-foot cliffs.
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what do cell biologists do
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<P> Cell biology is the study of cell structure and function, and it revolves around the concept that the cell is the fundamental unit of life. Focusing on the cell permits a detailed understanding of the tissues and organisms that cells compose. <P> Cell biologists research and study the properties, interactions and structure of cellular molecules from which they can extrapolate basic principles or generalizations about the effects of cell behavior on an organism. <P> Cell biologists study the cells of living organisms and analyze their physiological properties, structure, life cycle, and interaction with the environment. They study single-celled organisms such as bacteria and multi-cellular organisms including human beings. <P> Cell biologists study life at the cellular level. They analyze either organisms that can usually only be seen with a microscope or single cells of more complex organisms. They can work for government agencies or for private companies. <P> Cell biology is a branch of biology that focuses on the study of cells and all of their components and properties. Cell biologists are highly educated scientists that focus on the study of cells and living organisms for a variety of purposes. <P> Cells are the fundamental units of all living things. Understanding the relationship between cell structures and their functions -- the main work of a cell biologist -- is necessary for many molecular biology and biomedical fields. <P> Cell biologists also tend to seek similarities between different kinds of cells or between cells belonging to different species. A cell biologist is also typically very interested in proteins; there are many different kinds of proteins within cells, and each has a purpose within the cell. Ad. Many other fields of biology are closely linked with cellular biology; a cell biologist may find his work relating to genetics, chemistry, or other fields.
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Cell biologists are highly educated scientists that focus on the study of cells and living organisms for a variety of purposes.
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what cause neck and shoulder pain
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<P> Cervical radiculopathy, commonly called a pinched nerve occurs when a nerve in the neck is compressed or irritated where it branches away from the spinal cord. This may cause pain that radiates into the shoulder, as well as muscle weakness and numbness that travels down the arm and into the hand. <P> 1 Degenerative disc disease in the neck (cervical spondylosis) can cause local neck pain or radiating pain from disc herniation, causing pinching of nerves (cervical radiculopathy). 2 Abnormal conditions involving the spinal cord, heart, lungs, and some abdominal organs also can cause neck and shoulder pain. 1 This can also cause muscle spasms in the neck and shoulder areas. 2 Tendonitis: The tendons connect the muscles to the bones. 3 With strain, the tendons can become swollen and cause pain. 4 This is also referred to as tendinitis. 5 Gallbladder disease: This can cause a pain referred to the right shoulder. <P> What causes neck pain? Causes of neck pain include abnormalities in the bone or joints, trauma, poor posture, degenerative diseases, and tumors. Pain in the soft tissues (muscles, tendons, and ligaments) is the most common cause of neck pain and usually occurs as a result of an acute or a chronic muscle strain. The neck is very mobile, which means it is less stable than other areas of the body and more easily injured. <P> By far the most common cause of a stiff neck is a muscle sprain or muscle strain, particularly to the levator scapula muscle. Located at the back and side of the neck, the levator scapula muscle connects the cervical spine (the neck) with the shoulder. A stiff neck may also be accompanied by a headache, neck pain, shoulder pain and/or arm pain, and cause the individual to turn the entire body as opposed to the neck when trying to look sideways or backwards. Stiffness in the neck, or cervical spine, may be accompanied by shoulder pain or headache <P> 1 Pain can lead to a stiff neck or shoulder and loss of range of motion. 2 Headache may result. 3 The character of each symptom is important to your doctor because the particular features can be clues to the cause of your pain. <P> The treatment of soft tissue neck and shoulder pain often includes the use of anti-inflammatory medication such as ibuprofen (Advil or Motrin) or naproxen (Aleve or Naprosyn). Pain relievers such as acetaminophen (Tylenol) may also be recommended. Causes of neck pain include: 1 Abnormalities in the bone or joints. 2 Trauma. 3 Poor posture. 4 Degenerative diseases. 5 Tumors. 6 Muscle strain. <P> Neck and Shoulder Pain: Other Causes. Sometimes neck and shoulder pain is a sign of something more serious. While not common, these conditions might include: 1 Spinal cord tumor. 2 When spinal cord tumors arise in the cervical region of the spine, they usually cause neck pain, and may eventually trigger pain in the shoulders, arms, or legs as the tumor grows and compresses different nerves. 1 Bone spurs. 2 In advanced cases of disk degeneration, bone spurs may form. 3 Bone spurs are tiny growths on the bones in your spine that can irritate the spinal nerves, resulting in pressure and irritation and causing pain in your neck, shoulders, and arms. 4 Arthritis of the neck. <P> 1 X-rays can be helpful in diagnosing neck and shoulder pain. 2 Plain X-rays can reveal disc space narrowing, rheumatologic disease, destructive lesions, slippage, stenosis, fractures, and instability with flexion-extension views. Pain in the soft tissues (muscles, tendons, and ligaments) is the most common cause of neck pain and usually occurs as a result of an acute or a chronic muscle strain. The neck is very mobile, which means it is less stable than other areas of the body and more easily injured. <P> Certain medical problems can cause neck pain. These include: 1 Problems related to aging, such as: 2 Narrowing of the spinal canal (cervical spinal stenosis). 3 Arthritis of the neck (cervical spondylosis). 4 Illnesses such as: 5 Meningitis, which causes inflammation around the tissues of the brain and spinal cord. Activities that cause neck pain. Most neck pain is caused by activities that involve repeated or prolonged movements of the neck. This can result in a strain (an overstretched or overused muscle), a sprain (injury to a ligament), or a spasm of the neck muscles. These activities include:
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Neck pain include abnormalities in the bone or joints, trauma, poor posture, degenerative diseases, tumors and Abnormal conditions involving the spinal cord, heart, lungs, and some abdominal organs also can cause shoulder pain.
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what was the equal rights amendment
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<P> Equal Rights Amendment. The Equal Rights Amendment to the Constitution was first proposed in the United States Congress in December 1923. It was promoted by Alice Paul and National Women's party, but opposed by many of their colleagues who had worked to pass the Nineteenth Amendment (women's suffrage) in 1920. <P> Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was the most highly publicized and debated constitutional amendment before the United States for most of the 1970s and early 1980s. First submitted by Congress to the states for ratification on March 22, 1972, it failed to be ratified by its final deadline of June 30, 1982. <P> The text of the Equal Rights Amendment is: Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article. Section 3. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment is not yet in the U.S. Constitution. The ERA, affirming the equal application of the Constitution to all persons regardless of their sex, was written in 1923 by Alice Paul, suffragist leader and founder of the National Woman's Party. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was a proposed amendment to the United States Constitution designed to guarantee equal rights for women. The ERA was originally written by Alice Paul and Crystal Eastman. In 1923, it was introduced in the Congress for the first time. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment states: Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. Section 2. <P> The proposed addition would have read, Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.. The ERA was written by alice paul, of the National Woman's Party, and was first introduced in Congress in 1923.
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The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was a proposed amendment to the United States Constitution designed to guarantee equal rights for women.
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where are the thyroid and cricoid cartilage located
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<P> The cricoid cartilage /ˌkraɪkɔɪd ˈkɑːrtɪlɪdʒ/ , or simply cricoid (from the Greek krikoeides meaning ring-shaped), is the only complete ring of cartilage around the trachea. Inferior to it are the rings of cartilage around the trachea (which are not continuous-rather they are C-shaped with a gap posteriorly). The cricoid is joined to the first tracheal ring by the cricotracheal ligament, and this can be felt as a more yielding area between the firm thyroid cartilage and firmer cricoid. <P> The cricoid cartilage sits just inferior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck, at the level of the C6 vertebra, and is joined to it medially by the median cricothyroid ligament and postero-laterally by the cricothyroid joints. Inferior to it are the rings of cartilage around the trachea (which are not continuous-rather they are C-shaped with a gap posteriorly). The cricoid is joined to the first tracheal ring by the cricotracheal ligament, and this can be felt as a more yielding area between the firm thyroid cartilage and firmer cricoid. <P> Cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage in the presence of cricothyroid ligament. There is also a cricotracheal ligament that attaches the cricoid cartilage to the first ring of the trachea [ 3 ]. The other five are the following: 1 Epiglottis: This is attached to the thyroid gland. 2 It is made up of fibrocartilage with a shape like that of a spoon. 3 Epiglottis and cricoid cartilage are the laryngeal cartilages that are not paired. <P> The inferior border of the thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the cricothyroid membrane in the midline and the cricothyroid muscles on either side. The superior horn along with the entire superior edge of the thyroid cartilage is attached to the hyoid bone by the thyrohyoid membrane. They are pyramidal in shape and have 3 surfaces, a base, and an apex. They are located superior to the cricoid cartilage in the posterior part of the larynx, with the base of the arytenoid cartilages articulating on either side with the posterior aspect of the upper border of the cricoid lamina. <P> The thyroid gland is one of the body's most important endocrine organs. It is located in the neck just below the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) and cricoid cartilage. Although its size can vary, based on each individual's size and iodine intake, the thyroid generally weighs approximately 15-20 grams (1/2 - 3/4 oz). <P> The thyroid cartilage is the largest of the nine cartilages that make up the laryngeal skeleton, the cartilage structure in and around the trachea that contains the larynx. The thyroid cartilage is a cartilage that sits in front of the larynx and above the thyroid gland. The cartilage is composed of two halves, which meet in the middle at a peak called the laryngeal prominence, also called the Adam's apple. In the midline above the prominence is the superior thyroid notch. <P> Cricoid Cartilage Definition and Structure. Cricoid cartilage is an unpaired hyaline cartilage located in the larynx at C6 vertebral level. It rests inferior to the thyroid cartilage. It has a characteristic signet ring shape where the anterior part has an arch and the posterior part is a broad lamina. The other five are the following: 1 Epiglottis: This is attached to the thyroid gland. 2 It is made up of fibrocartilage with a shape like that of a spoon. 3 Epiglottis and cricoid cartilage are the laryngeal cartilages that are not paired. <P> The cricoid cartilage is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the trachea, or windpipe. It is located near the middle and center of the neck. This cartilage consists of strong connective tissue constituting the dorsal (back) part of the larynx, or voice box. The cricoid cartilage is located slightly below the thyroid cartilage, which it connects with through the medial cricothyroid ligament. It also joins the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament. The thyroid gland has an anatomical relationship with this cartilage <P> Fascia and Ligament. The thyroid gland is ensheathed by the visceral fascia, a division of the middle layer of deep cervical fascia, which attaches it firmly to the laryngoskeleton. The anterior suspensory ligament extends from the superior-medial aspect of each thyroid lobe to the cricoid and thyroid cartilage. The posteromedial aspect of the gland is attached to the side of the cricoid cartilage, first and second tracheal ring, by the posterior suspensory ligament (ie, Berry ligament). <P> It is also anatomically related to the thyroid gland; although the thyroid isthmus is inferior to it, the two lobes of the thyroid extend superiorly on each side of the cricoid as far as the thyroid cartilage above it. Inferior to it are the rings of cartilage around the trachea (which are not continuous-rather they are C-shaped with a gap posteriorly). The cricoid is joined to the first tracheal ring by the cricotracheal ligament, and this can be felt as a more yielding area between the firm thyroid cartilage and firmer cricoid.
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The cricoid cartilage is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the trachea, or windpipe.The thyroid gland is located in the neck just below the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) and cricoid cartilage.
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medicare mri cost
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<P> Our insurance gave us an EOB yesterday the MRI is going to cost us $2700.00 and the contrast dye was $600.00 so in total a 45 minute brain MRI with contrast dye at Aurora St. Lukes in Milwaukee, WI is $3300.00 with Allegiance Medical Insurance. 1 It typically costs about $1,000-$5,000, depending on the complexity of the condition being investigated, including a $100-$200 doctor's fee. 2 A pelvic MRI is used to diagnose or monitor various types of pelvic diseases or to clarify results from other tests. <P> 1 If you are admitted to a public hospital as a private patient you will have to claim the costs of the MRI through Medicare and your private health insurance provider. 2 If you have your MRI in a private hospital or a private radiology practice there may be out-of-pocket expenses. <P> No. 1: We heard from one Kaiser member, who received an MRI of the lower back, without contrast or dye (CPT code 72148) at the Kaiser Antioch Medical Center on Sand Creek Road in Antioch, Calif. This person was charged $973.25 and paid $973.25; insurance paid nothing. Procedure: MRI 72147, chest spine MRI with dye. Charged price, $3,163; insurance paid $0; you paid $3,163. Comment: “High deductible so paid the whole thing and then found out I could have had it done for *HALF* the price only blocks away. My first foray into individual insurance and it sucked. <P> Robert Cole. President-ROCO Insurance Agency,LLC,, WWW.ROCOINSURANCE.COM, Dallas,TX. Original Medicare pays 80% for an MRI and you pay 20%. Often times a Medicare Advantage plan from a private insurance company such as Aetna, application here http://tiny.cc/d8doax ,has small copay's from $0 to $250 for a MRI. <P> What you pay in a Medicare Advantage Plan. Your out-of-pocket costs in a Medicare Advantage Plan (Part C) depend on: 1 Whether the plan charges a monthly premium. 2 Whether the plan pays any of your monthly Medicare Part B (Medical Insurance) premium. 3 Whether the plan has a yearly deductible or any additional deductibles. <P> 1 A spinal MRI is used to find various spinal problems, including nerve damage or tumors. 2 It typically costs $1,000-$5,000, depending on the part of the spine being scanned and whether the procedure is performed in a hospital or physician's office. 1 It typically costs about $1,000-$5,000, depending on the complexity of the condition being investigated, including a $100-$200 doctor's fee. 2 A pelvic MRI is used to diagnose or monitor various types of pelvic diseases or to clarify results from other tests. <P> Add in the Doctors and Hospitals. Charges for a single MRI scan vary widely across the country for reasons beyond startup costs. According to the recently released Medicare data, MRIs charges are as little as $474 or as high as $13,259, depending on where you go. When it comes to pricey hospital procedures, MRIs come to mind. Sure enough, according to recently released Medicare pricing data analyzed by NerdWallet Health, the average cost of an MRI in the U.S. is $2,611. Here’s what’s behind that number. <P> It's very similar to the two MRI facilities in Dallas. Facility A cost for an MRI is only $1,785 while Facility B's cost is $2,199. A difference of $414. It's like this in every city around the US. Imagine how much money you could save if you called a few more facilities and asked them what they charge for an MRI. It's up to you to make sure you get the best price. <P> MRI cost can range between $400 to $3,500 depending upon which MRI procuedure is performed (example: brain mri vs. shoulder mri) and where you have the MRI test performed. The same exact MRI test can vary by hundreds of dollars from testing facility to testing facility. Facility A cost for an MRI is only $1,785 while Facility B's cost is $2,199. A difference of $414. It's like this in every city around the US. Imagine how much money you could save if you called a few more facilities and asked them what they charge for an MRI. It's up to you to make sure you get the best price.
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As little as $474 or as high as $13,259
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what is fraternal polyandry
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<P> Fraternal polyandry has been practised in Tibet and Nepal, as well as the subcontinent of India, but is waning in popularity; it has the advantage of producing fewer heirs per generation, reducing the issues related to primogeniture and the parcelling of lands by succeeding generations. <P> Fraternal polyandry. Fraternal polyandry (from the Latin frater-brother) is a form of polyandry in which two or more brothers share one wife or more. It is also termed adelphogamy, but this term also has other meanings. Fraternal polyandry is found in certain areas of Tibet and Nepal, where polyandry is accepted as a social practice. The form of polyandry in which a woman is married to two or more brothers is known as fraternal polyandry, and it is believed by many anthropologists to be the most frequently encountered form. Human <P> Polyandry is a form of polygamy whereby a woman has several husbands. In Tibet, those husbands are often brothers, which is why it is most commonly called Fraternal Polyandry. Concern over the delicate question of which children are fathered by which brother falls on the wife alone. As has been seen, fraternal polyandry was a form of marriage that was prevalent among the tre-ba class. Traditionally, marriages were arranged by the parents, often when the children were still very young. <P> Polyandry is contrasted with polygyny, involving one male and two or more females. If a marriage involve a plural number of husbands and wives participants of each gender, it can be called polyamory, group or conjoint marriage. It is a rare form of marriage that exists not only among poor families, but also the elite. For example, polyandry in the Himalayan mountains is related to the scarcity of land; the marriage of all brothers in a family to the same wife allows family land to remain intact and undivided. <P> Fraternal polyandry (from the Latin frater —brother) is a form of polyandry in which a woman is married to two or more men who are one another's brothers. Fraternal polyandry is found in certain areas of Tibet and Nepal, where polyandry is accepted as a social practice. It is a rare form of marriage that exists not only among poor families, but also the elite. For example, polyandry in the Himalayan mountains is related to the scarcity of land; the marriage of all brothers in a family to the same wife allows family land to remain intact and undivided. <P> (CNN) -- Polyandry is a form of polygamy where a woman is married to two or more husbands at the same time. Kundar Singh Pundir, left, and his brother Amar, right, share Indira Devi, centre, as their wife. Increasingly rare, polyandry has been predominantly practised in Asia, specifically in the Himalayan region. 1 Story Highlights. 2 Polyandry is a form of polygamy where a woman is married to two or more husbands. 3 Polyandry has been predominantly practised in the Himalayan region. 4 The paternity of any children is not debated -- they are raised by all the parents. <P> Fraternal polyandry was traditionally practiced among Tibetans in Nepal, parts of China and part of northern India, in which two or more brothers are married to the same wife, with the wife having equal sexual access to them. It is most common in egalitarian societies marked by high male mortality or male absenteeism. It is a rare form of marriage that exists not only among poor families, but also the elite. For example, polyandry in the Himalayan mountains is related to the scarcity of land; the marriage of all brothers in a family to the same wife allows family land to remain intact and undivided. <P> Definition of FRATERNAL POLYANDRY. : polyandry in which several brothers share one wife —contrasted with sororal polygyny. ADVERTISEMENT. This word doesn't usually appear in our free dictionary, but the definition from our premium Unabridged Dictionary is offered here on a limited basis. <P> The fraternal polyandry marriage relationship of Tibet is widely considered. to be a means of preventing the division of a family's resources among its male heirs. As a family resource preservation strategy, Tibetan polyandry accomplishes the same goal of the European stem family system, but in a very different way.
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It is a form of polyandry in which a woman is married to two or more men who are one another's brothers.
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what kind of cactus is the top part of the grafted cactus
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<P> Scientific Name: The two cactus species most commonly used for moon cactus are Gymnocalycium mihanovichii as the top cactus and Hylocereus spp. as the base. Plant Type: Grafted cactus. Light: The moon cactus plant requires bright indirect sunlight. Full sun will actually harm this container plant, so keep it out of direct sunlight for long periods of time. Water: Water moon cactus thoroughly, then let the plant dry out between waterings. The top cactus of the moon cactus has a mutation that causes it to lack the chlorophyll that makes the cactus green. This mutation exposes the red, orange or yellow color beneath. Cactus that lack chlorophyll cannot live on their own – they die as seedlings unless grafted onto another cactus with chlorophyll. <P> Intro: The popular moon cactus plant is a small grafted cactus. Grafting, which can be done with many plants, is a propagation technique in which a gardener will take two separate plant species, cut them and grow them together as one plant. The plants, if they are compatible, will bond and grow as one. The top cactus of the moon cactus has a mutation that causes it to lack the chlorophyll that makes the cactus green. This mutation exposes the red, orange or yellow color beneath. Cactus that lack chlorophyll cannot live on their own – they die as seedlings unless grafted onto another cactus with chlorophyll. <P> A cactus (plural: cacti, cactuses, or cactus) is a member of the plant family Cactaceae within the order Caryophyllales. The word cactus derives, through Latin, from the Ancient Greek κάκτος, kaktos, a name originally used by Theophrastus for a spiny plant whose identity is not certain. Pereskia (which is close to the ancestral species from which all cacti evolved) does have long-lasting leaves, which are, however, thickened and succulent in many species. Other species of cactus with long-lasting leaves, such as the opuntioid Pereskiopsis, also have succulent leaves. <P> Then prepare the rootstock by beheading a cactus to within a few inches of the soil. Set the scion on top of the cut portion of the still rooted rootstock so both vascular cambium are situated together. Use rubber bands to hold the pieces joined as one. Grafted cactus care is the same as ungrafted cactus. Watch for any insects at the union or rot. Grafting cactus plants is also done to create unique forms, such as weeping plants. Advertisement. Grafting is common in fruiting plants because it increases the maturity of an existing cultivar for earlier fruit production. The scion becomes the top part of the plant with all the originating species’s characteristics. <P> The top of one of these is cut off, and another type of cactus is also cut and placed on top. This is the tricky part: you need to know a bit about each plant's vascular system-the part that gets the food and water around in the plants. <P> The tallest free-standing cactus is Pachycereus pringlei, with a maximum recorded height of 19.2 m (63 ft), and the smallest is Blossfeldia liliputiana, only about 1 cm (0.4 in) in diameter at maturity. Pereskia (which is close to the ancestral species from which all cacti evolved) does have long-lasting leaves, which are, however, thickened and succulent in many species. Other species of cactus with long-lasting leaves, such as the opuntioid Pereskiopsis, also have succulent leaves. <P> Propagation of Moon Cactus. The moon cactus is usually sold already grafted in a process that removes the bottom of the Hibotan and the top of the rootstock cactus. The two halves are set together at the cut ends and soon heal together. The life of the moon cactus can be extended by re-grafting it onto a fresh rootstock. In the event that it doesn’t, care of moon cactus is similar to any succulent or cactus species. Hibotan plants prefer temperatures on the warm side but need a minimum of 48 F. (9 C.) to survive. <P> Cactus Grafting Guide. Cacti are grafted for a variety of reasons. One may simply be to produce a different species mechanically, but the process also produces disease free stems, to provide a new stem for an existing stem that is rotting or to enhance photosynthesis in plants that lack the ability. Grafting cactus plants is also done to create unique forms, such as weeping plants. Advertisement. Grafting is common in fruiting plants because it increases the maturity of an existing cultivar for earlier fruit production. The scion becomes the top part of the plant with all the originating species’s characteristics. <P> These grafted cacti -- occurring in yellow and white as well as red -- typically live only a few years and do not grow appreciably. The Gymnocalycium cultivar -- sometimes called ruby ball cactus or moon cactus -- is actually two cacti in one. Assume your grafted cactus is frost-sensitive, for the stock cactus is often a tropical species, and keep it in rooms where the temperature is above 60 degrees Fahrenheit. Fertilize monthly during the growing season of April to September. <P> 7 Steps to Grafting Cactus. 1. Purchase a healthy red, yellow or orange Gymnocalycium mihanovichii and a healthy Hylocereus large enough for grafting. 2. Disinfect a sharp knife (to reduce risk of infection in the cacti). 3. With the knife, cut the top off of a healthy Hylocereus. The top cactus of the moon cactus has a mutation that causes it to lack the chlorophyll that makes the cactus green. This mutation exposes the red, orange or yellow color beneath. Cactus that lack chlorophyll cannot live on their own – they die as seedlings unless grafted onto another cactus with chlorophyll.
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rootstock cactus.
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cost of skimming plasterboard
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<P> How much is it? 1 On average, the may vary on the company, location, professional hired, labor costs, and extent of work to be done. 2 According to ReviewJournal.com, the average 10-by-10 room could cost as little as $690. 3 On BuildingModern.net, they received a quote for $850 to skim cost a 260 square foot ceiling. 1 According to ReviewJournal.com, the average 10-by-10 room could cost as little as $690. 2 <P> Get an INSTANT estimate of the cost to Skim Coating! Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Skim Coating project. For a basic 500 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Skim Coating ranges between $0.95 - $1.16 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: <P> Average Labour Cost/Price to Plaster/Skim a Wall. To clarify the following prices it is recommended that you read the article in the INFORMATION box below the PRICES…. (These prices are based on a tradesman’s rate of £150.00 per day and a labourer if required at £100.00 per day. You can add an additional….. £150.00……. to each of the following prices if you want them removed and replaced. Job 1 (A patching repair job). Lets assume 30% of the plaster is off the walls in various areas around the room. This will take 2 men 1 day, so £250 + about £40 for materials………… <P> Material Information One bag of finish plaster £6: 5l tub of PVA £15. Standard Job: to plaster one 4m x 4m room with one doorway, one chimney breast, and two windows. Assumption – walls are sound, with loose plaster. 1.5 days for a plasterer and labourer. You can add an additional….. £150.00……. to each of the following prices if you want them removed and replaced. Job 1 (A patching repair job). Lets assume 30% of the plaster is off the walls in various areas around the room. This will take 2 men 1 day, so £250 + about £40 for materials………… <P> The second step is called polishing, this is where the plaster is sprayed or brushed with a light film of water and then polished down with a trowel or sponge to produce a smooth finish. As of May 2011 the cost of materials for a single layer of plaster skim are between 50-75p per m 2. In a bathroom as a surface to place tiles on you may want to go with a waterproof plasterboard, these cost more per unit area but are resistant to mold and mildew. As of May 2011 it costs about £12.50 per m 2 for the materials. <P> $1.16. Get an INSTANT estimate of the cost to Skim Coat! Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Drywall Skimming project. For a basic 500 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Skim Coat ranges between $0.95 - $1.16 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1 <P> After the board is hung, the entire surface is covered with an even coat of plaster, which is smoothed and polished. This process is significantly less expensive than wire lath plastering, but at an average cost of $1.10 to $1.30 per square foot, it's somewhat more expensive than joint-compound taping. <P> Plaster Skimming. Both dry lining and wet plastering will usually be finished with a plaster skim. This is a final coat of plastering with a very smooth durable finish to it. In general a plaster skim will only be 2-3mm thick. Plaster skimming is again a difficult art to master. In a bathroom as a surface to place tiles on you may want to go with a waterproof plasterboard, these cost more per unit area but are resistant to mold and mildew. As of May 2011 it costs about £12.50 per m 2 for the materials. <P> If you get it right, doing your own skim plastering can save you a lot of money. If you get it wrong it can cost you a fortune putting it right. Buying (and being prepared to throw away) a sheet of plasterboard and a bag of top coat plaster will cost an extra £20.00 or so but will be worth every penny. Practice laying on skim plaster on a spare plasterboard sheet. The main thing that DIY'ers are unaware of is just how quickly top coat plaster goes hard.
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50-75p per m 2
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what are eyes
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<P> Brown eyes are the most common eye color in the world with over 55% of the world's population having brown eyes. Brown eye color is a dominant genetic trait, and is created by the presence of melanin in the eye. Blue Eyes. Green eye color is often confused with hazel eye color, yet is entirely separate and distinct. Green eye color is the rarest color found around the world, and it is estimated that only around 2% of the world's population has green colored eyes. <P> Most of the eye is filled with a clear gel called the vitreous. Light projects through the pupil and the lens to the back of the eye. The inside lining of the eye is covered by special light-sensing cells that are collectively called the retina. The retina converts light into electrical impulses. Behind the eye, the optic nerve carries these impulses to the brain. The macula is a small extra-sensitive area within the retina that gives central vision. It is located in the center of the retina and contains the fovea, a small depression or pit at the center of the macula that gives the clearest vision. <P> Pit eyes, also known as stemma, are eye-spots which may be set into a pit to reduce the angles of light that enters and affects the eyespot, to allow the organism to deduce the angle of incoming light. Found in about 85% of phyla, these basic forms were probably the precursors to more advanced types of simple eye. Apposition eyes are the most common form of eyes, and are presumably the ancestral form of compound eyes. They are found in all arthropod groups, although they may have evolved more than once within this phylum. Some annelids and bivalves also have apposition eyes <P> Human eye color charts once were used to predict eye colors of children. In the most simplified versions of these charts, brown eyes are considered dominant over both blue and green eyes. And green eyes are thought to be dominant over blue eyes. While these concepts generally are true, the genetics of how eye colors are inherited turn out to be far more complicated than once thought. Eye colors depend on the amount of pigment (melanin) found in the iris and how it is distributed. Light gray-blue eyes contain much less pigment than extremely dark brown eyes. And there are many shades of eye color in between. SEE ALSO: <P> Hazel Eyes. Blue eyes are genetically recessive, and therefore much less common worldwide. Blue eyes are formed by the absence of pigments in the eye, where the blue color is formed by the scattering of light as it's reflected off the iris. Blue Eyes. Green eye color is often confused with hazel eye color, yet is entirely separate and distinct. Green eye color is the rarest color found around the world, and it is estimated that only around 2% of the world's population has green colored eyes. <P> Hazel eyes are similar to brown eyes, although they are typically lighter in color, and have more of a green-yellow tint. Hazel eyes have a higher concentration of melanin (pigment) around the eye's border, which can result in a multi-colored appearance that varies between copper and green depending on the lighting. Most people estimate that around 5-8% of the world's population has hazel colored eyes. Blue Eyes. Green eye color is often confused with hazel eye color, yet is entirely separate and distinct. Green eye color is the rarest color found around the world, and it is estimated that only around 2% of the world's population has green <P> Rod and cone cells in the retina allow conscious light perception and vision including color differentiation and the perception of depth. The human eye can distinguish about 10 million colors. By age 13, the eye attains its full size. The typical adult eye has an anterior to posterior diameter of 24 millimetres, a volume of six cubic centimetres (0.4 cu. in.), and a mass of 7.5 grams (weight of 0.25 oz.). <P> A compound eye may consist of thousands of individual photoreceptor units or ommatidia (ommatidium, singular). The image perceived is a combination of inputs from the numerous ommatidia (individual eye units), which are located on a convex surface, thus pointing in slightly different directions. Apposition eyes are the most common form of eyes, and are presumably the ancestral form of compound eyes. They are found in all arthropod groups, although they may have evolved more than once within this phylum. Some annelids and bivalves also have apposition eye
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Eye is filled with a clear gel called the vitreous and the inside lining of the eye is covered by special light-sensing cells that are collectively called the retina.
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what are the terrestrial planets
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<P> Terrestrial and telluric are from the Latin words for Earth (Terra and Tellus) because these planets composition is similar to that of the Earth. The four terrestrial planets are (in order of distance from the Sun): Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Other than Earth, it is believed that the conditions on Mars are the most hospitable for life. It may have had life there in the past, and there may still be life on Mars today. A terrestrial planet, also known as a telluric planet or rocky planet is defined as a planet that is composed primarily silicate rocks or metals. In our solar system, the terrestrial planets are the inner planets-i.e. the ones closest to the Sun <P> Mercury is the smallest terrestrial planet in the solar system, about a third of the size of Earth. It has a thin atmosphere, which causes it to swing between burning and freezing temperatures. Mercury is also a dense planet, composed mostly of iron and nickel with an iron core. Earth. Of the four terrestrial planets, Earth is the largest, and the only one that has extensive regions of liquid water. Wateris necessary for life as we know it, and life is abundant on Earth — from the deepest oceans to the highest mountains. <P> In our solar system, there are four terrestrial planets, which also happen to be the four closest to the sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. During the creation of the solar system, there were likely more terrestrial planetoids, but they likely merged or were destroyed. Earth. Of the four terrestrial planets, Earth is the largest, and the only one that has extensive regions of liquid water. Wateris necessary for life as we know it, and life is abundant on Earth — from the deepest oceans to the highest mountains. <P> The innermost four planets of our solar system are called the “terrestrial” planets, which comes from the word “telluric”. It is derived from the Latin words “terra” and “tellus”, used to refer to Earth. The terrestrial planets (in order of their distances from the Sun) are Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. They are made mostly of silicate rocks and metals, with solid surfaces and atmospheres that range from thick (on Venus) to very thin (on Mercury). 1 The terrestrial planets in our solar system orbit relatively close to the Sun, this gives them their other name; the “Inner Planets”. 2 Earth is the most hospitable to life. 3 Mars may have supported life in the past, but there is no evidence that conditions have ever been life-friendly on Mercury or Venus. <P> Terrestrial Planets. A terrestrial planet, also known as a telluric planet or rocky planet is defined as a planet that is composed primarily silicate rocks or metals. In our solar system, the terrestrial planets are the inner planets-i.e. the ones closest to the Sun <P> The terrestrial planets Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars, sizes to scale. A terrestrial planet, telluric planet or rocky planet is a planet that is composed primarily of silicate rocks or metals. Within the Solar System, the terrestrial planets are the inner planets closest to the Sun, i.e. Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. The terms terrestrial planet and telluric planet are derived from Latin words for Earth (Terra and Tellus), as these planets are, in terms of composition, Earth-like. The Solar System has four terrestrial planets: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Only one terrestrial planet, Earth, is known to have an active hydrosphere. <P> Not all planets are terrestrial. In our solar system, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are gas giants, also known as jovian planets. It's unclear what the dividing line is between a rocky planet and a terrestrial planet; some super-Earths may have a liquid surface, for example. Earth. Of the four terrestrial planets, Earth is the largest, and the only one that has extensive regions of liquid water. Wateris necessary for life as we know it, and life is abundant on Earth — from the deepest oceans to the highest mountains. <P> From left to right: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. A terrestrial planet is mostly made of rock (silicate) Earth is the original terrestrial planet. When astronomers started understanding the kinds of planet they extended the term to include our nearest rocky neighbours: Mercury, Venus and Mars. It is often said that they are similar to Earth.
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They are planets, those are composed primarily of silicate rocks or metals.
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what is the major highways in georgia
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<P> The major north/south highways in Illinois are IL55 (Chicago to St. Louis MO), IL90 (Chicago to Beloit WI) and IL57 (Chicago to Kentucky. The major east/west highways in … Illinois are IL80 and IL88, both of which will take you to Iowa. <P> Interstate highways crossing the state include: I-91, I-291, I-391, I-84, I-93, I-95, I-495, I-195, I-395, I-90 (the Massachusetts Turnpike), I-290, and I-190. Other major tho … roughfares are U.S. 1, Route 2, Route 3, U.S. Route 3, U.S. Route 6, U.S. Route 20, Route 24, and Route 128. <P> Three major components of Georgia’s transportation system are vital to the state’s economy-the interstate highway system, Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport, and the deepwater ports of Savannah and Brunswick. <P> Since their construction in the 1960s and 1970s, Atlanta's interstate highways have helped fuel urban sprawl, first around the northern I-285 perimeter and Interstates 75 and 85 north of the city in the 1960s, 1970s, and 1980s. <P> Spaghetti Junction in Atlanta. Other superhighways with interstate designations are circumferential highways or spurs connecting interstate highways within Georgia. In Atlanta, I-285 is the city's perimeter highway, and I-575 connects I-75 with counties in north Georgia. I-675 creates a shortcut from I-285 to I-75 south of the city, and I-985 connects I-85 with the Gainesville area in north Georgia. In Macon, I-475 allows travelers to bypass the city. <P> The Interstate System in Metropolitan Atlanta. Georgia's. 1,244 miles of interstate highways perform several functions vital to the state's economy: connecting Georgia to the rest of the nation, linking the state's major cities, and helping move suburban commuters to and from work centers. <P> Two of the interstate highways-I-85 and I-285 - pass very near Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport-another component of Georgia’s transportation system that is vital to the state’s economy. Hartfield-Jackson is always one of the busiest airports in the nation.
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I-91, I-291, I-391, I-84, I-93, I-95, I-495, I-195, I-395, I-90 (the Massachusetts Turnpike), I-290, and I-190
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what is the difference between isolation and quarantine
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<P> For example, hospitals use isolation for patients with infectious tuberculosis. Quarantine is used to separate and restrict the movement of well persons who may have been exposed to a communicable disease to see if they become ill. These people may have been exposed to a disease and do not know it, or they may have the disease but do not show symptoms. <P> Best Answer: There are different types of isolation. Protective isolation (the patients immune system is weakened and people entering must gown, glove and mask up e.g. AIDS, Chemotherapy) or general (people gown and glove, and/or mask to prevent the spread of a disease from the patient to others e.g. TB, MRSA). This is done for the good of the patient, but is not enforced by the law. <P> Isolation and quarantine are public health practices used to stop or limit the spread of disease. Isolation is used to separate ill persons who have a communicable disease from those who are healthy. Isolation restricts the movement of ill persons to help stop the spread of certain diseases. Quarantine is used to separate and restrict the movement of well persons who may have been exposed to a communicable disease to see if they become ill. These people may have been exposed to a disease and do not know it, or they may have the disease but do not show symptoms. <P> Isolation is the process in which people who are known to be ill with a dangerous, contagious disease are treated to prevent the disease from spreading. Quarantine is the process in which people who have been exposed to an infectious disease, but are not yet known to be ill, are kept separate from others and monitored. Isolation lasts for the period of time in which a disease is considered infectious. Quarantine lasts for the incubation period for the disease, after which officials can be certain that an individual is not infected. <P> edit Process. People in isolation receive care for their disease, separate from others, with precautions put into place to protect doctors such as wearing protective clothing. They are usually cared for in a hospital or in a care facility, but occasionally receive care in their home. Isolation lasts for the period of time in which a disease is considered infectious. Quarantine lasts for the incubation period for the disease, after which officials can be certain that an individual is not infected. <P> People who are ill with a contagious disease are put into isolation to prevent the disease from spreading. Healthy individuals who have been exposed to a dangerous contagious disease are put into quarantine. Isolation lasts for the period of time in which a disease is considered infectious. Quarantine lasts for the incubation period for the disease, after which officials can be certain that an individual is not infected. <P> Quarantine is legally enforced isolation, typically to contain the spread of something considered dangerous, often but not always disease. Quarantine can be brief (as in remove those contaminated clothes) or a longer term (when you bring a pet into the UK). AIDS, Chemotherapy) or general (people gown and glove, and/or mask to prevent the spread of a disease from the patient to others e.g. TB, MRSA). This is done for the good of the patient, but is not enforced by the law. <P> The difference between quarantine and isolation can be summed up like this: 1 Isolation applies to persons who are known to be ill with a contagious disease. 2 Quarantine applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease but who may or may not become ill. <P> As the definition suggest, isolation is the act of separating people who are already sick from other people in order to keep the general public from getting sick. A person is often kept in an enclosed space in the hospital or home, where they are allowed only limited contact with the other public. Quarantine is often used when a person comes into contact with an unknown substance or hazardous materials, which may or may not be detrimental to the person’s health. In this case, the person is usually placed under quarantine until proper tests are conducted. Difference between Isolation and Quarantine: Isolation. <P> Key Difference: Isolation is when the person who is infected with a particular disease is separated from the public to keep the public safe. The terms quarantine and isolation often scare people because usually represents the seriousness of a disease. Quarantine is often used when a person comes into contact with an unknown substance or hazardous materials, which may or may not be detrimental to the person’s health. In this case, the person is usually placed under quarantine until proper tests are conducted. Difference between Isolation and Quarantine: Isolation.
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Isolation is the process in which people who are known to be ill with a dangerous, contagious disease are treated to prevent the disease from spreading. Quarantine is the process in which people who have been exposed to an infectious disease, but are not yet known to be ill, are kept separate from others and monitored.solation lasts for the period of time in which a disease is considered infectious. Quarantine lasts for the incubation period for the disease, after which officials can be certain that an individual is not infected.Isolation applies to persons who are known to be ill with a contagious disease. uarantine applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease but who may or may not become ill.
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what constitutes a mountain
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<P> Unfortunately, there is no universally accepted standard definition for the height of a mountain or a hill although a mountain usually has an identifiable summit. In the United Kingdom, a mountain must be over 600 meters (1969 feet) or over 300 meters (984 feet) if it's an abrupt difference in the local topography. However, some hills can be called mountains and some mountains can be called hills-it's just a matter of the original name given to the relief. <P> The dictionary defines a mountain as that which is ‘ higher and steeper than a hill ’. A mountain is a landform that rises high above the surrounding terrain in a limited area. They are made from rocks and earth. Generally, mountains are higher than 600 metres. Those less than 600 metres are called hills. <P> · just now. Report Abuse. I'm not sure but according to what I found on the internet 69 feet is enough to get called a mountain cliff and 534 feet by some counts and 509 feet by others is enough to be called a mountain. Pools Bluff is a mountain cliff in Washington County in the state of Louisiana (LA). <P> Defining what a mountain is can be tricky, but a good definition is, any land mass higher and steeper than a hill.. Many geographers agree that mountains are a minimum of two thousand feet high, and have a slope that's greater than two degrees. <P> The dictionary defines a mountain as that which is ‘ higher and steeper than a hill ’. A mountain is a landform that rises high above the surrounding terrain in a limited area. They are made from rocks and earth. Generally, mountains are higher than 600 metres. Those less than 600 metres are called hills. Some common features of mountains include the following: 1 the summit, or the top of a mountain; 2 the slope, or side of the mountain; and. 3 a very steep valley between young mountains, known as a gorge. <P> A mountain's height above sea level is called its elevation, with its highest point called a summit or peak. Geologists, it turns out, don't readily agree what height makes a mountain a mountain, but an elevation of 300 meters (1,000 feet) is generally high enough to earn the classification. Mt. Everest, located in the country of Nepal, rises 8,850 meters (29,035 feet) above sea level, which makes it the world's highest point. <P> A mountain range (also mountain barrier/belt/chain/system) is a geographic area containing numerous geologically related mountains. A mountain system or system of mountain ranges, sometimes is used to combine several geological features that are geographically (regionally) related. If the definition of a mountain range is stretched to include underwater mountains, then the Ocean Ridges form the longest continuous mountain system on Earth, with a length of 65,000 kilometres (40,400 mi). <P> A mountain is a large landform that stretches above the surrounding land in a limited area, usually in the form of a peak. A mountain is generally steeper than a hill. Mountains are formed through tectonic forces or volcanism. For a while, the US defined a mountain as being 1,000 feet (300 m) or taller. Any similar landform lower than this height was considered a hill. However, today, the United States Geological Survey (USGS) concludes that these terms do not have technical definitions in the US. <P> The Answer: According to our dictionary, a mountain is a natural elevation of the earth's surface rising more or less abruptly to a summit, and attaining an altitude greater than that of a hill, usually greater than 2000 ft. (610 m).. <P> Whether a landform is called a mountain may depend on local usage. The highest point in San Francisco, California, is called Mount Davidson, notwithstanding its height of 300 m (980 ft), which makes it twenty feet short of the minimum for a mountain by American designations. Similarly, Mount Scott outside Lawton, Oklahoma is only 251 m (823 ft) from its base to its highest point. For a while, the US defined a mountain as being 1,000 feet (300 m) or taller. Any similar landform lower than this height was considered a hill. However, today, the United States Geological Survey (USGS) concludes that these terms do not have technical definitions in the US.
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The US defined a mountain as being 1,000 feet (300 m) or taller.Any similar landform lower than this height was considered a hill. However, today, the United States Geological Survey (USGS) concludes that these terms do not have technical definitions in the US.
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types of blood cancers
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<P> Needless to say, she breathed a big sigh of relief. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, or CLL, is one of the many types of blood cancers. Blood cancers derive from the cells of the bone marrow and lymph nodes. <P> There are four types of blood cancer depending upon the course of the disease and the origin of the affected blood cells. The former criterion classifies the types into either acute or chronic. The later criterion further divides the types as lymphoblastic or lymphocytic leukemias and myeloid or myelogenous leukemias. The red blood cells provide oxygen to the entire body. The white blood cells protect our body and platelets helps in clotting of the blood in the face of injury. Irrespective of the types of the disease, any abnormality in these cell types leads to blood cancer. <P> When white blood cells belonging to this system are affected, the cancer is lymphoid cancer. Myeloid Cancer: As mentioned earlier, blood cells are produced in the bone marrow. The process is technically called Haematopoiesis. All these cells of blood are produced from single cell type called the stem cell. The red blood cells provide oxygen to the entire body. The white blood cells protect our body and platelets helps in clotting of the blood in the face of injury. Irrespective of the types of the disease, any abnormality in these cell types leads to blood cancer. <P> 1 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: Cancer that develops in the lymphatic system from cells called lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that helps the body fight infections. 2 Hodgkin lymphoma: Cancer that develops in the lymphatic system from cells called lymphocytes. Types of blood cancers. Common types of blood cancer include: 1 Leukemia: Cancer that originates in blood-forming tissue. 2 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: Cancer that develops in the lymphatic system from cells called lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that helps the body fight infection <P> 1 Leukemia: Cancer that originates in blood-forming tissue. 2 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: Cancer that develops in the lymphatic system from cells called lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that helps the body fight infections. Types of blood cancers. Common types of blood cancer include: 1 Leukemia: Cancer that originates in blood-forming tissue. <P> Blood cancer is a type of cancer or tumor. Blood cancer hurts the blood, bone marrow, lymph, and lymphatic system. Sometimes more than one body part is hurt. The cause is usually different from other types of cancer. The way to find out if a person has this cancer is also different. The treatment is usually drugs. <P> There are three main types of blood cancers: Leukemia, a type of cancer found in your blood and bone marrow, is caused by the rapid production of abnormal white blood cells. Myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells. Plasma cells are white blood cells that produce disease-and infection-fighting antibodies in your body. Myeloma cells prevent the normal production of antibodies, leaving your body's immune system weakened and susceptible to infection. <P> Blood cancers affect the production and function of your blood cells. Most of these cancers start in your bone marrow where blood is produced. Stem cells in your bone marrow mature and develop into three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, or platelets. In most blood cancers, the normal blood cell development process is interrupted by uncontrolled growth of an abnormal type of blood cell. Myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells. Plasma cells are white blood cells that produce disease-and infection-fighting antibodies in your body. Myeloma cells prevent the normal production of antibodies, leaving your body's immune system weakened and susceptible to infection.
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Leukemia, Yeloma, and Myeloma.
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where is stars hollow filmed
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<P> Scenes from the Town of Stars Hollow: The pilot for “Gilmore Girls” was shot in a small town in Toronto (Historic Unionville) . When the show was picked up, they reproduced the look of the interiors from the pilot on soundstages in Burbank, California. I absolutely LOVE Gilmore Girls! I was also late getting into the show but I watch the reruns on t.v. all the time. I always tell my husband I want to live in Stars Hollow! Thank you for posting these pictures; I love the cozy feeling of Lorelai and Rory’s house. <P> (March 2012). Stars Hollow was inspired by and is loosely based on the actual village of Washington Depot, Connecticut (located in the middle of the western half of the state, about 45 minutes from both Hartford and New Haven) which writer Amy Sherman-Palladino once traveled through. Unionville, Ontario 's Main Street was used as a stand-in for Stars Hollow in the show's pilot which became the first episode. Since 2010, the Gilmore Girls set is used for the ABC Family show, Pretty Little Liars. Luke's Diner is now used as Rosewood Cafe. Hart of Dixie' s fictional Bluebell also uses the square <P> Stars Hollow is a fictional small town in Connecticut featured on the television show Gilmore Girls. It is depicted as a close-knit small town with many quirky characters, located roughly thirty minutes by car from Hartford. It is loosely based on the towns of Essex, Wallingford, and Washington, Connecticut, but filming of the pilot was done in historical Main Street Unionville in Unionville, Ontario. Unionville, Ontario 's Main Street was used as a stand-in for Stars Hollow in the show's pilot which became the first episode. Since 2010, the Gilmore Girls set is used for the ABC Family show, Pretty Little Liars. Luke's Diner is now used as Rosewood Cafe. Hart of Dixie' s fictional Bluebell also uses the square <P> 635 pages on this wiki. Stars Hollow is the small town Lorelai and Rory live in. The show, Gilmore Girls, takes place in a fictional town named Stars Hollow created by Amy Sherman-Palladino. Lorelai came from a wealthy family with everything open to her, but ended up in the small town in Connecticut. Through out the show you learn about how Stars Hollow was founded and how it was named <P> Stars Hollow is actually a Warner Bros. backlot set that was built decades earlier for films like The Music Man. So it was not meant to look like Washington Depot. Still when I arrived in the town center there were all the familiar elements: a town hall, churches, small businesses, and a central lawn. On the show its portrayed a quaint little town with lots of quirky characters and it kind of shaped my expectations of Connecticut when I moved up here. I did a quick search on the Wikipedia and discovered that show creator Amy Sherman-Palladino based Stars Hollow on the real-life town of Washington Depot, CT. <P> Stars Hollow from Gilmore Girls. Despite the fact that Amy Sherman-Palladino’s dramedy was ostensibly about the titular mother-daughter duo, Lorelai and Rory Gilmore, it was the town of Stars Hollow that gave the show its heart. <P> In trying to think of where to go, I came up with the idea of searching for the real Stars Hollow, CT. Stars Hollow is the fictional town that played host to the Gilmore Girls, a television show which I embarrassingly admit I used to watch. On the show its portrayed a quaint little town with lots of quirky characters and it kind of shaped my expectations of Connecticut when I moved up here. I did a quick search on the Wikipedia and discovered that show creator Amy Sherman-Palladino based Stars Hollow on the real-life town of Washington Depot, CT. <P> ``Hey, literally, this place does not exist. It's a total imagination.''. But for fans of ``The Gilmore Girls,'' Stars Hollow is dead-on in its depiction of the cozy Connecticut exurbs, down to its storefront coffee shop and the gazebo on the green. Not bad for a generic back lot that ``has been in thousands of movies,'' Sherman-Palladino said.
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Washington Depot, Connecticut.
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what is card cvv
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<P> The CVV Number ( C ard V erification V alue) on your credit card or debit card is a 3 digit number on VISA®, MasterCard® and Discover® branded credit and debit cards. On your American Express® branded credit or debit card it is a 4 digit numeric code. CVV numbers are NOT your card's secret PIN (P ersonal I dentification N umber). You should. enter your PIN number when asked to provide your CVV. <P> For American Express, the four-digit CVV number is printed on the front of the card above the card account number. Visa / MasterCard / Discover American Express The verification number for Visa, MasterCard, and Discover cards are a 3-digit number printed on the back. It appears after and to the right of your card number. The American Express verification number is a 4-digit number printed on the front of your card. <P> For Visa, MasterCard, and Discover cards, the card code is the last 3 digit number located on the back of your card on or above your signature line. For an American Express card, it is the 4 digits on the FRONT above the end of your card number. Visa calls this code Card Verification Value (CVV); MasterCard calls it Card Validation Code (CVC); Discover calls it Card ID (CID). The card code is a three-or four-digit security code that is printed on the back of cards. The number typically appears at the end of the signature panel. <P> Turn your card over and look at the signature box. You should see either the entire 16-digit credit card number or. just the last four digits followed by a special 3-digit code. This 3-digit code is your CVV number / Card Security Code. American Express® cardholders: Look for the 4-digit code printed on the front of your card just above and to the right of your main credit card number. This 4-digit code is your Card Identification Number (CID). <P> Datto. Card verification value (CVV) is a combination of features used in credit, debit and automated teller machine (ATM) cards for the purpose of establishing the owner's identity and minimizing the risk of fraud. The CVV is also known as the card verification code (CVC) or card security code (CSC). <P> The card security code is located on the back of MasterCard, Visa, Discover, Diners Club, and JCB credit or debit cards and is typically a separate group of 3 digits to the right of the signature strip. <P> (it is the last 3 digits AFTER the credit card number in the signature area of the card). You can find your four-digit card verification number on the front of your American Express credit card above the credit card number on either the right or the left side of your credit card. CARD VERIFICATION VALUE CODE (CVV). <P> CVV is an anti-fraud security feature to help verify that you are in possession of your credit card. For Visa/MasterCard, and Discover, the three-digit CVV number is printed on the signature panel on the back of the card immediately after the card's account number. The verification number for Visa, MasterCard, and Discover cards are a 3-digit number printed on the back. It appears after and to the right of your card number. The American Express verification number is a 4-digit number printed on the front of your card. <P> For Visa®, MasterCard®, and Discover® cards, the card code is the last 3 digit number located on the back of your card on or above your signature line. For an American Express® card, it is the 4 digits on the FRONT above the end of your card number. Visa ® calls this code Card Verification Value (CVV); MasterCard ® calls it Card Validation Code (CVC); Discover ® calls it Card ID (CID). The card code is a three-or four-digit security code that is printed on the back of cards. The number typically appears at the end of the signature panel. <P> CVV stands for Card Verification Value (Discover Card calls it the Cardmember ID). 1 It is the three-digit number printed in the signature space on the back of most credit cards, such as Visa, Mastercard, and Discover cards. 2 It is a four-digit number on the front of American Express cards. 1 It is the three-digit number printed in the signature space on the back of most credit cards, such as Visa, Mastercard, and Discover cards. 2 The CVV2 number is always the last group of numbers in the signature space on the back of the card. 3 It is not part of your regular credit card number.
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Card verification value (CVV) is a combination of features used in credit, debit and automated teller machine (ATM) cards for the purpose of establishing the owner's identity and minimizing the risk of fraud.
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what is softwood good for
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<P> Classifying wood as either a hardwood or softwood comes down to its physical structure and makeup, and so it is overly simple to think of hardwoods as being hard and durable compared to soft and workable softwoods. <P> Softwood is also used in the production of paper, and for various types of board such as MDF (medium-density fiberboard). The finer softwoods have many special uses. they are used for making window frames,doors,frames,t.v. stands,flooring and beds. <P> Softwood is just normal wood from a tree, but it's only wood from certain types of trees. All the pine and fir trees are softwood trees (conifers) and the leafy trees like oak … s and maples (deciduous) are hardwood trees. <P> When comparing hardwood vs softwood it's important to understand that all firewood is not equal. Specific burning characteristics like heat generation, coaling qualities and lighting ability should all play a role in deciding which type of firewood will work best for you. <P> Softwood timber, which is used for softwood decking comes from faster growing, evergreen or coniferous trees. Commonly used hardwoods for decking are: ipe, teak, iroko and cumaru. The most commonly used softwood for decking is pine. <P> As it turns out, a hardwood is not necessarily a harder material (more dense) and a softwood is not necessarily a softer material (less dense). For example, balsa wood is one of the lightest, least dense woods there is, and it's considered a hardwood. <P> Examples are Pine, Fir, Spruce, Larch, Cedar and the Giant Redwood. Remember, the terms softwoods and hardwoods are used to describe the leaves, seeds and structure of the trees. It is NOT used to describe the type of wood produced. For example, balsa is light and very soft to use. <P> Softwood is just normal wood from a tree, but it's only wood from certain types of trees. All the pine and fir trees are softwood trees (conifers) and the leafy trees like oak … s and maples (deciduous) are hardwood trees. <P> used for making stuff like childrens toys etc Softwood has a huge range of applications: it is the primary material used for building components, and is also found in furnitu … re and other products such as millwork (mouldings, doors, windows).
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Making window frames,doors,frames,t.v. stands,flooring and beds.
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how do we capture this energy source for kids
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<P> It is renewable! It is considered ' Renewable Energy ' because... The technology used to convert the sun's power into electricity does not produce smoke (carbon dioxide and other air pollutants). Tapping the sun's energy does not usually destroy the environment. Solar panels do not generate electricity directly. Instead they heat up water directly. A pump pushes cold water from a storage tank through pipes in the solar panel. The water is heated by heat energy from the Sun and returns to the tank. <P> Turning the energy of the ocean's waves and tides into power that we can use is a new and unproven technology. However, the potential is there for a significant renewable and environmentally clean energy source. There are also three main ways that tidal energy is harnessed: 1 Tidal Barrages-A tidal barrage works like a dam. 2 When the tide goes high, the reservoir fills up. 3 When the tide drops the dam lets the water out. 4 In both directions the moving water can spin the blades of turbines to create electricity. <P> Some people think tidal energy is a very good source of renewable, clean energy and that we should use it in as many places as we can. Other people think that since tidal energy plants can only produce electricity for about ten hours every day, it is not worth the danger to plants, animals, and ecosystems. Benefits of Tidal Energy. Tidal energy is a good source of alternative energy because it does not create any pollution of any kind. It is completely safe for our environment. It is also good because a high amount of energy can be captured using the tides and it does not cost much to turn it to electricity. <P> We asked Paul Alivisatos, deputy laboratory director at Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory in California and a leader of their Helios solar energy research project, to explain how people capture energy from sunlight and how we can do it better. <P> Nuclear reactions energize stars, including our Sun. The energy we capture for use on Earth comes largely from the Sun or from nuclear forces local to our own planet. Sunlight is by far the predominant source, and it contains a surprisingly large amount of energy. <P> The Sun. Most of the energy we capture for use on Earth originates in the nuclear reactions powering our Sun. Coal, oil, natural gas, biomass, and even the wind and hydropower we harness to generate electricity, originally derive their energy content from the Sun. Learn how our local star is the ultimate energy source <P> Play Power Up! Play Power Up! Capture clean energy from the wind and the Sun to produce enough electricity to run the town. Move your wind turbine up and down to keep it in the strongest, fastest winds. Keep your solar panels in the bright sunlight and out of the rain. See if you can light up the whole town. <P> Solar power is energy from the sun. Solar is the Latin word for sun and it's a powerful source of energy. Without it, there will be no life. Solar energy is considered as a serious source of energy for many years because of the vast amounts of energy that is made freely available, if harnessed by modern technology. Solar panels do not generate electricity directly. Instead they heat up water directly. A pump pushes cold water from a storage tank through pipes in the solar panel. The water is heated by heat energy from the Sun and returns to the tank. <P> Electricity can be produced using several kinds of renewable resources. Wind energy can produce electricity in regions where steady winds blow. Giant wind turbines capture the wind’s energy and use it to power generators. Biomass is material that is formed from living organisms, such as wood or agricultural wastes. Biomass can be burned to produce electricity, or be converted to a gas and used for fuel. Geothermal energy uses hot water or steam from deep beneath the earth’s surface to produce electricity. Hydroelectric power plants use the energy of falling water to spin generator turbines.
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ost of the energy we capture for use on Earth originates in the nuclear reactions powering our Sun. Coal, oil, natural gas, biomass, and even the wind and hydropower we harness to generate electricity, originally derive their energy content from the Sun.
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highest point in maine
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<P> Maine County High Points, benchmark data. Arranged alphabetically by county. There are 16 counties in Maine; but there are 18 peaks listed since two counties, Washington and York, have competing high points either of which could be the true highest peak. <P> Property details for 8 High Point Dr, Saco, ME 04072. This Single Family Home is located at High Point in Saco, Maine. The home provides approximately 2494 square feet of living space. This property features 3 bedrooms. There are 3 bathrooms. 8 High Point Dr, Saco, ME 04072 falls within the York county lines. <P> Mount Katahdin (pronounced /kəˈtɑːdən/ , kə-TAH-dən ) is the highest mountain in Maine at 5,270 feet (1,606 m). Named Katahdin by the Penobscot Indians, which means The Greatest Mountain, Katahdin is the centerpiece of Baxter State Park. <P> Question: What is the highest elevation in Maine? Here we answer one simple question: What is the highest point in Maine? Or more formally, what is the highest elevation in Maine? To find the highest point in Maine, we looked at the distance between sea level and high points in the state of Maine. The place with the highest distance to sea level would be the highest point in Maine. <P> Mount Katahdin is the highest mountain in Maine, the highest point in Baxter State Park, and the northern terminus of the Appalachian Trail. Katahdin is the 22nd highest state high point. Kahtadin is also a sacred mountain to Native Americans in New England including the Penobscot Indians. <P> Fast Facts: Mount Katahdin is the highest mountain in Maine, the highest point in Baxter State Park, and the northern terminus of the Appalachian Trail. Katahdin is the 22nd highest state high point. Kahtadin is also a sacred mountain to Native Americans in New England including the Penobscot Indians.
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Mount Katahdin
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recommended markup price for temp agencies
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<P> 1 The typical fee for employers using a temp agency is 12-50% of the employee's hourly rate. 2 For example, if an employee earns $10 per hour from the temp agency, and the agency's markup is 50%, the employer will pay an extra $5 per hour to the temp agency for a total of $15 per hour. <P> Staffing Markup. Staffing markup is a term used by staffing companies to describe the fees charged over and above wages paid to a contract or temporary employee. The implication is that you, the client, has input into the decision on pay rate of the temp or contract employee. <P> 1 When a business chooses to hire a temp agency as a permanent employee, the business must pay the temp agency a permanent staffing fee ranging from 10-25% of the employee's first-year salary. <P> After settling on an hourly rate that the company is willing to pay the employee, the temp agency adds a markup to this amount. The markup ranges anywhere from 25 percent to 100 percent, depending on the agency and how much demand there is for the employee. <P> 1 For example, if an employee earns $10 per hour from the temp agency, and the agency's markup is 50%, the employer will pay an extra $5 per hour to the temp agency for a total of $15 per hour. 2 Some large organizations have in-house temporary agencies which apply similar fees for their services. <P> The pay rate (aka hourly rate) of the worker plus the markup is called the bill rate. Markups can range from 30% to 60%+ with an average in the high thirtieth percentiles across all skill disciplines. Some staffing suppliers promote rates below 30% and, conversely, some services may charge 75% to 100%+ markups. <P> 1. Temp agencies... generally charge 35 to 40% markup above the pay rate their client is willing to pay the temp employee. However, those rates are subject to negotiation and in this economy, some agencies are charging much less for their services. Also, the rate will change depending on the geographic location. <P> 1 Some large organizations have in-house temporary agencies which apply similar fees for their services. 2 For example, the University of Washington charges a 29% markup, with department's paying $18.06 per hour for a temporary employee who actually earns $14 per hour.
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$10 per hour
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what organisms causes eye corneal ulcer
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<P> There are several causes of corneal ulcers in dogs. The most common cause is trauma. An ulcer may result from blunt trauma, such as a dog rubbing its eye on the carpet, or due to a laceration, such as a cat scratch or a contact with a sharp object. Another common cause is chemical burn of the cornea. <P> If your doctor suspects that bacteria are the cause of your corneal ulcer, usually treatment includes frequent application of topical antibiotics, with or without initial cultures. The location and size of the ulceration will guide your eye doctor in determining the need for cultures. Most cases of corneal ulcer are due to a bacterial infection that invades the cornea often following eye injury, trauma or other damage. A corneal ulcer can result from an infection following damage from an eye injury or irritation from an ill-fitting or dirty contact lens. <P> Tiny tears to the cornea may also cause corneal ulcers. These tears can come from direct trauma, scratches or particles such as sand, glass or small pieces of metal. Such injuries damage the cornea and make it easier for bacteria to invade and cause an ulcer. 1 Bacterial infections cause corneal ulcers and are common in people who wear contact lenses. 2 Viral infections are also possible causes of corneal ulcers. 3 Such viruses include the herpes simplex virus (the virus that causes cold sores) or the varicella zoster virus (the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles). <P> Tiny cuts or scratches in the corneal surface may become infected and lead to corneal ulcers. For example, metal, wood, glass, or almost any type of particle that strikes the cornea can cause minor trauma. Such injuries damage the corneal surface and make it easier for bacteria to invade and cause a corneal ulcer. Most corneal ulcers are caused by infections. Bacterial infections cause corneal ulcers and are common in people who wear contact lenses. Bacteria can directly invade the cornea if the corneal surface has been disrupted. Some bacteria produce toxins that can cause ulceration of the cornea. <P> 1 Tiny tears to the cornea may also cause corneal ulcers. 2 These tears can come from direct trauma; scratches; or particles, such as sand, glass, or small pieces of steel. 3 Such injuries damage the cornea and make it easier for bacteria to invade and cause a serious ulcer. 1 People who contract this type of infection have been treated with steroid eyedrops or are wearing contact lenses which are not properly disinfected. 2 Tiny tears to the cornea may also cause corneal ulcers. 3 <P> (Redirected from Ulcerative keratitis). For the condition in animals, see Corneal ulcers in animals. Corneal ulcer, or ulcerative keratitis, is an inflammatory or more seriously, infective condition of the cornea involving disruption of its epithelial layer with involvement of the corneal stroma. It is a common condition in humans particularly in the tropics and the agrarian societies. Corneal ulcers are a common human eye disease. They are caused by trauma, particularly with vegetable matter, as well as chemical injury, contact lenses and infections. Other eye conditions can cause corneal ulcers, such as entropion, distichiasis, corneal dystrophy, and keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye). <P> Corneal ulcer. A corneal ulcer is usually due to a bacteria or virus causing a painful, red eye. The corneal ulcer may feel like something is in the eye irritating it and there may be increased sensitivity to light. People who get a lot of cold sores often develop corneal ulcers. 1 Bacterial infections cause corneal ulcers and are common in people who wear contact lenses. 2 Viral infections are also possible causes of corneal ulcers. 3 Such viruses include the herpes simplex virus (the virus that causes cold sores) or the varicella zoster virus (the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles). <P> Scraping the Ulcer. If your doctor spots an ulcer on your cornea, he or she will further investigate to find out what caused it. Your doctor may determine the cause by numbing your eye with eye drops, then gently scraping the ulcer to obtain a sample of it. He will test the sample to find out if it contains bacteria, fungi, or a virus. At the front of the eye is a clear layer of tissue called the cornea. The cornea is the window of your eye and permits light to enter the eye. Tears constitute the natural defense against bacteria, viruses, or fungi for the cornea. A corneal ulcer is an open sore that forms on the cornea, usually caused by infection <P> 1 Bacterial infections cause corneal ulcers and are common in people who wear contact lenses. 2 Viral infections are also possible causes of corneal ulcers. 3 Such viruses include the herpes simplex virus (the virus that causes cold sores) or the varicella virus (the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles). 1 People who contract this type of infection have been treated with steroid eyedrops or are wearing contact lenses which are not properly disinfected. 2 Tiny tears to the cornea may also cause corneal ulcers. 3 These tears can come from direct trauma; scratches; or particles, such as sand, glass, or small pieces of steel.
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Bacteria or virus
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what is the currency of vancouver
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<P> Currency Exchange in Vancouver While there are plenty of banks in the Vancouver area to help you with your currency exchange, it’s always best to go to an agency that specializes in foreign currency. About Vancouver. Vancouver is a coastal city in British Columba, Canada. The city has over 2.4 million residents and is the third highest populated city in Canada. It is the fourth densest populated city in North America, behind only New York City, San Francisco and Mexico City. <P> It’s a well known fact that Vancouver is one of the most expensive cities in North America in many respects – property prices, dining, hotels and more, and although you’re not likely to be buying any property coming here as a visitor, you should be aware that generally things are going to cost you more. In Vancouver you’re liable for both the federal goods and services tax (GST) and for the BC provincial sales tax (PST). The good news is that the GST has been reduced a little over the past few years and is now 5%; PST meanwhile is 7%. <P> It is advisable to exchange some cash before arriving in Vancouver. Visit the other Vancouver city guide sections to get more detailed travel advice, and information on the best Vancouver attractions and sightseeing activities, recommended shops and restaurants, as well as the best Vancouver hotels. 900 West Georgia Street Vancouver British Columbia V6C 2W6 Canada. Located in the heart of Vancouver, The Fairmont Hotel Vancouver is in the center of the downtown business, shopping and entertainment districts and only five blocks away from the Vancouver Convention & Exhibition Center. <P> Money in Vancouver. It’s a well known fact that Vancouver is one of the most expensive cities in North America in many respects… Read more ». In Vancouver you’re liable for both the federal goods and services tax (GST) and for the BC provincial sales tax (PST). The good news is that the GST has been reduced a little over the past few years and is now 5%; PST meanwhile is 7%. <P> Currency Exchange in Vancouver. While there are plenty of banks in the Vancouver area to help you with your currency exchange, it’s always best to go to an agency that specializes in foreign currency. Knightsbridge Foreign Exchange can guarantee the best exchange rate—much better than the ones the banks can guarantee. About Vancouver. Vancouver is a coastal city in British Columba, Canada. The city has over 2.4 million residents and is the third highest populated city in Canada. It is the fourth densest populated city in North America, behind only New York City, San Francisco and Mexico City. <P> Currency. The currency used in Vancouver, and indeed the rest of Canada, is the Canadian Dollar. There are 100 cents in a dollar, and currency comes in the following denominations: 1 Coins – 1 cent, 5 cents (nickel), 10 cents (dime), 25 cents (quarter), one dollar (loonie) and two dollars (toonie). In Vancouver you’re liable for both the federal goods and services tax (GST) and for the BC provincial sales tax (PST). The good news is that the GST has been reduced a little over the past few years and is now 5%; PST meanwhile is 7%. <P> Money Matters: 2012 Note: 2012 brings big changes in Canadian currency, both bills & coins. Canada is in the process of issuing new polymer (plastic) bills. The 50's & 100's have been in circulation since early 2012, and the 20's will be released in November 2012, with the others to follow. Since it will take a couple of years for the old bills to go out of circulation, I have left information on them below. The Canadian Dollar is available in $5, $10, $20, $50, $100. ($1 and $2 bills have been replaced by coins) The notes are coloured and are difficult to counterfeit. (I have never understood the reluctance in the US to move towards different coloured bills. <P> MoneyWay is the most favorable go-to Currency Exchange House in Vancouver. Our personal staff is always available to serve you. Our service, availability, great exchange rates and quick delivery makes us the leading exchange house in Vancouver.
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The currency used in Vancouver, and indeed the rest of Canada, is the Canadian Dollar. There are 100 cents in a dollar, and currency comes in the following denominations: 1 Coins – 1 cent, 5 cents (nickel), 10 cents (dime), 25 cents (quarter), one dollar (loonie) and two dollars (toonie)
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how much is enough credit for to qualify for social security
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<P> We use your total yearly earnings to figure your Social Security credits. The amount needed for a credit in 2015 is $1,220. You can earn a maximum of four credits for any year. The amount needed to earn one credit increases automatically each year when average wages increase. You must earn a certain number of credits to qualify for Social Security benefits. The number of credits you need depends on your age when you apply and the type of benefit application. No one needs more than 40 credits for any Social Security benefit. More Information. <P> Example: If you became disabled at age 29, you must have enough credits for 4 years of work (16 credits). The following chart outlines how many work credits you will need to receive Social Security Disability benefits. For example, disability applicants who are under 24 years of age may be able to qualify for Social Security Disability benefits if they have earned a total of six work credits in the three years prior to the onset of the disability. <P> No matter how much your household income is, you can qualify for Social Security Disability SSDI benefits if you meet the SSA's disability criteria and have enough work credits to qualify for SSDI benefits from the Social Security Administration. For example, disability applicants who are under 24 years of age may be able to qualify for Social Security Disability benefits if they have earned a total of six work credits in the three years prior to the onset of the disability. <P> The number of credits you need to be eligible for Social Security depends on the program and your age. For retirement benefits, the required number of credits is simple: You have to have earned 40 credits, equivalent to 10 years of work if you earn the maximum number of credits per year. Disability benefits involve complex rules. Having 40 credits is always adequate, but the younger you are, the fewer credits you need. <P> Social Security requires a minimum of 40 credits for retirement benefits, whether you take early retirement at age 62 or wait until your full retirement age (which varies between 65 and 67, depending on the year of your birth). If you don't have the 40 credits, you don't draw any retirement. <P> Earning Social Security credits is simple. Each year, the SSA looks at the amount of money you earn from work on which you pay Social Security payroll taxes. In 2015, you get one credit for every $1,220 you make and pay Social Security taxes on. That $1,220 figure gets adjusted for inflation every year. For retirement benefits, the required number of credits is simple: You have to have earned 40 credits, equivalent to 10 years of work if you earn the maximum number of credits per year. Disability benefits involve complex rules. Having 40 credits is always adequate, but the younger you are, the fewer credits you need. <P> If you have not worked or do not have enough Social Security credits to qualify for your own Social Security benefits, you may be able to receive spouse’s benefits. To qualify for spouse’s benefits, you must be: 1 At least 62 years of age; or. <P> In 2015, a worker must earn $1,220 to earn one work credit. In order to qualify for Social Security Disability benefits, you will generally need to have earned a total of 20 work credits, although there are age exceptions to this rule. For example, disability applicants who are under 24 years of age may be able to qualify for Social Security Disability benefits if they have earned a total of six work credits in the three years prior to the onset of the disability. <P> The Social Security Administration (SSA) determines if you have worked enough to qualify for SSD by converting your earnings into work credits. The dollar amount it takes to earn one work credit is calculated annually. In the year 2015, you must earn $1,220 to get one Social Security work credit, or $4,880 to get the maximum four credits for the year. It doesn't matter in which quarter you did the work. Previously (before 1978), a credit was equal to having worked for one quarter in which you earned at least $50 <P> You are allowed to continue working and still receive Social Security benefits. However, if you are under full retirement age, you are limited in the amount you can earn. In 2011, that amount is $14,160. If you are under full retirement age, then you will have to repay $1 for every $2 year earn over that limit. A special rule applies in the year you reach the full retirement age, and then once you actually reach your full retirement age there is no limit on the amount you can earn.
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40 credits
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what temp to roast veggies
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<P> TOMATOES Slow-Roasted Tomatoes 200F is the perfect temperature for slow-roasting tomatoes. WHOLE VEGETABLES How to Roast a Whole Pumpkin and How to Roast a Whole Butternut Squash show how to roast whole vegetables although without the crispy edges and usually for mashing or cooking with. ONE AT A TIME Mostly, we roast one vegetable at a time since it’s hard for more than one kind to finish cooking at the same time. Yes, with experience, it’s possible to combine vegetables, cooking a more-starchy vegetable a little longer than a less-starchy vegetable. OVEN TEMPERATURE for ROASTING We roast vegetables at high temperature, 375 degrees on the low end and 500 degrees on the high end but typically 400F or 425F. SAME SIZE While the oven preheats, prep the vegetables <P> You can roast just about anything, but vegetables especially benefit from the high, dry heat of the oven. Their flavor becomes concentrated and their natural sugars caramelize, transforming them into richly satisfying sides. For every 2 pounds of vegetables, toss with 1 tablespoon olive oil prior to roasting. <P> Most of your summer produce will respond delectably to roasting, with luscious and healthful results. Slow or fast, roasting yields great flavor. You can roast vegetables in a slow oven, up to 325°F, or a fast oven, with a temperature as high as 500°F. The oven temperature will depend on the type of vegetable, as some work best with long, slow cooking and others with quick, hot methods. Slow roasting works especially well with carrots or other root vegetables. A little olive oil, rosemary, vinegar, salt, and garlic will imbue rapid-roasted tomatoes with added flavor. Oven roasting can be completed in as little as 10 minutes in a preheated oven and can be done ahead of time. Then the vegetables can be brought back to room temperature or reheated. As long as you have an oven, even a small toaster oven, you can roas <P> One of the easiest, most versatile side dishes is roasted vegetables. You’d be amazed at what 20-40 minutes in the good ol’ oven can do to your veggies. We’re talking crispy on the outside, soft on the inside, warm, comforting, and nourishing real foods. 1 The heat needs to be high. 2 I generally roast at 425 degrees F. 3 The high temperature ensures that the veggies will cook quickly; they’ll brown on the outside, but stay tender on the inside. <P> Choosing Your Vegetables. Best Veggies: Some vegetables especially benefit from roasting, such as onions, potatoes, carrots, beets, winter squash, carrots, and other hearty root vegetables, but most vegetables will work. Tender vegetables, such as asparagus and mushrooms, also transform in the heat of the oven. Less-Good Veggies: Green beans, broccoli, and other green-hue vegetables are not as well suited for roasting because they tend to turn olive green, and the green beans shrivel before becoming tender. How to Roast Vegetables. Roasting vegetables in a very hot oven gives them a caramelized exterior and flavor while keeping the inside moist and tender. This showy cooking method can easily feed a crowd or just a couple, and it lets you choose the vegetables. <P> 1 Toss carrots, potatoes, shallots, oil, salt and pepper on a large rimmed baking sheet. 2 Roast the vegetables on the highest rack for 1 hour, stirring once. 3 Increase the oven temperature to 425°F. 4 Stir the vegetables again and transfer to the lowest rack. 1 Roast the vegetables on the highest rack for 1 hour, stirring once. 2 Increase the oven temperature to 425°F. 3 Stir the vegetables again and transfer to the lowest rack. 4 Roast until the vegetables are browned and crisp, about 20 minutes more <P> 1 Toss with vegetables until they are coated. 2 Spread evenly on a large roasting pan. 3 Roast for 35 to 40 minutes in the preheated oven, stirring every 10 minutes, or until vegetables are cooked through and browned. 1 In a small bowl, stir together thyme, rosemary, olive oil, vinegar, salt, and pepper. 2 Toss with vegetables until they are coated. 3 Spread evenly on a large roasting pan. 4 <P> 1 Preheat the oven to 450 degrees F or to the temperature specified in your recipe. 2 Hearty vegetables such as potatoes, turnips, parsnips, fennel, carrots, onions, and cauliflower need a little extra roasting time, so put them in a shallow roasting pan, a 15x10x1-inch baking pan, or a 13x9x2-inch baking pan first. 1 Roast the vegetables, uncovered, about 20 minutes, stirring occasionally. 2 Remove the pan from the oven and add quicker-cooking vegetables such as eggplant, sweet peppers, roma tomatoes, asparagus, precooked green beans (see tip above), zucchini, and summer squash. 3 Toss gently to combine.
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425 degrees F.
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where is heidelberg germany located
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<P> Heidelberg Castle and the city's historical centre can be reached in 30 minutes from the property on foot or using public transport. While Heidelberg Zoo is 1.6 miles away, the Heidelberg Thermal Baths are just 0.9 miles from Boardingstudio Heidelberg. Frankfurt Airport is located 45.4 miles from the property. Nice are, walking distance to center. Richard, Netherlands. Just 1,650 feet from Central Station Heidelberg, this self-catering accommodation located in Heidelberg. Featuring a furnished terrace, Boardingstudio Heidelberg also offers free WiFi internet access. <P> Stay in the Heart of Heidelberg. Hotel am Kornmarkt is located just below Heidelberg Castle, offering guests unique and easy access to the heart of the city. Set in a historic building, the bright rooms also come with free WiFi access. <P> Understand [edit]. It is no secret that Heidelberg is a jewel among German travel destinations. Heidelberg is in the Neckar river valley right where the legend-rich Odenwald (Forest of Odes or Odin) opens up towards the plains of the Rhine Valley. Heidelberg is home to the oldest university in Germany (est. <P> Share. We’ve compiled a list of recommended hotels to help you choose where to stay in Heidelberg, Germany. Though Heidelberg does not have many 5-star hotels, and budget accommodations are even harder to find, we’ve found a few worth considering. 4-Star Hotels in Heidelberg. Crowne Plaza Heidelberg. This hotel is just a short walk from the pedestrian-only area of the Old Town. Rooms are quiet and come with a large work area with fax capabilities, coffee maker, and WiFi (at a charge). <P> http://www.marriott.com/hotels/maps/travel/hdbmc-heidelberg-marriott-hotel/?directPageRequest=true Marriott International, Inc. Enjoy river views and superb dining, while staying at the award-winning Heidelberg Marriott Hotel, located in one of Germany's most facinating cities. 49.408861 8.672632. <P> Heidelberg (Germany). Academy of Science with ruins of castle above. On the summit of Jettenb hl (195 m/640 ft), which dominates the eastern portion of the city, is Heidelberg Castle (mainly 14th-17th century), one of the most impressive historic landmarks of Germany. <P> Link to website HeidelbergCement in Germany. HeidelbergCement was founded 1873 in Heidelberg, Germany. Until the 1960s HeidelbergCement was active almost exclusively in its home market of southern Germany. Today, the company employs around 4,000 people throughout Germany. <P> About the University. Located on 110 beautiful acres in northwest Ohio, Heidelberg University combines a challenging liberal-arts curriculum with practical career preparation. <P> Heidelberg-Location. Heidelberg is located in Southeastern Germany along the Neckar river, in the region of Baden Wurttemberg, an hour south of Frankfurt. Heidelberg is part of Germany's Castle Road .. It is a lively University town overlooked by evocative castle ruins.
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It is located in Southeastern Germany along the Neckar river, in the region of Baden Wurttemberg, an hour south of Frankfurt.
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cost of opthamologist visit
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<P> Report Abuse. Depends on which part of the country you're in as it varies wildly with location. Here in northern Ohio, my doctor Opthamologist) ranges according to service, around $75.00 to over $100. for office visit. For something simple (I hope) like removing something from the eye, I would guess to be at the lower end. How much is a exam at the opthamologist... show more I went to the Dr. Today for what I thought was pink eye. I was told I have two foreign bodies on my cornea and that I needed to see the opthamologist tommorow. <P> 1 The cost varies depending upon the clinic and region of the country. 2 Lakewood Family Eye Care clinic, in Lakewood Ranch, Fla., charges $109 for an eye exam for those without insurance. 3 Discount clinics, such as those at WalMart, can charge as little as $50 for an eye exam. 1 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 2 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 3 Some clinics have a separate charge for retraction, a test that determines the patient's prescription. 4 This varies by clinic, ranging from $15 to $40 at the Main Line Eye Specialists. <P> - how much an opthamologist costs. I went to the doctor today for what I thought was pink eye. They said they have two foreign objects in my cornea and I needed to see the eye doctor tomorrow. It depends on which part of the country is because there are significant differences from place to place. Here in northern Ohio, my eye doctor) depends on the services, about $ 75.00 to over $ 100. to visit for the office. For something simple (I hope) the eyes cut, I think that at the lower end. <P> This Site Might Help You. RE: Average cost of an eye doctor visit? My eye doctor seem to keep going up and up and up on his yearly visit charges. Two weeks ago when I went his nurse (she is also a friend of mine) checked my 5 year old daughter's eyes and I now have an appointment for her. But I ended up paying $294 after my insurance paid for my visit and... Source(s): average cost eye doctor visit: https://biturl.im/jafjP. Siobhan · 2 months ago. Two weeks ago when I went his nurse (she is also a friend of mine) checked my 5 year old daughter's eyes and I now have an appointment for her. But I ended up paying $294 after my insurance paid for my visit and 1 years worth of contacts. <P> 1 The national average charge for an eye exam is $114 for those without insurance, according to the Vision Service Plan. 2 The cost varies depending upon the clinic and region of the country. 3 Lakewood Family Eye Care clinic, in Lakewood Ranch, Fla., charges $109 for an eye exam for those without insurance. 1 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 2 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 3 Some clinics have a separate charge for retraction, a test that determines the patient's prescription. 4 This varies by clinic, ranging from $15 to $40 at the Main Line Eye Specialists. <P> 1 Discount clinics, such as those at WalMart, can charge as little as $50 for an eye exam. 2 For patients with vision insurance coverage, the typical copay will apply. 3 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 4 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 1 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 2 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 3 Some clinics have a separate charge for retraction, a test that determines the patient's prescription. 4 This varies by clinic, ranging from $15 to $40 at the Main Line Eye Specialists. <P> Typically, veterinary ophthalmologists in the USA will charge somewhere around $100-150USD for the initial visit and examination, so based on what I know about costs in the UK compared to the USA, you might expect something in the range of 2 to 4 times the cost of an office visit at your regular veterinarian. <P> But I ended up paying $294 after my insurance paid for my visit and 1 years worth of... show more My eye doctor seem to keep going up and up and up on his yearly visit charges. Two weeks ago when I went his nurse (she is also a friend of mine) checked my 5 year old daughter's eyes and I now have an appointment for her. But I ended up paying $294 after my insurance paid for my visit and 1 years worth of contacts.
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$ 75.00 to over $ 100.
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how many chromosomes in a human muscle cell
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<P> There are 46 chromosomes in a normal human body cell, but in a sperm or an ovum (egg) there are 23 (half the number of chromosomes in a body cell. 2 people found this useful. <P> The human body cells each contain a total of 46 chromosomes, which are grouped into 23 pairs, one set from each parent. Each cell receives a chromosome carrying the same traits from both parents, which then forms a pair. There are 22 pairs of normal chromosomes, and 1 pair of sex chromosomes. Millions in the human body. Each cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes that have genetic importance. 22 of these are autosomes and one sex chromosome. The 22 determine traits and sex chromosomes determine the gender-XX develops into female and XY develops into male. <P> There are 46 chromosomes (23 pairs) in a human body cell with the exception of the sex cells. One of each pair is inherited from the mother's egg, the other from the father's sperm. When the sperm and egg unite in fertilization, they create a single cell, or zygote, with 46 chromosomes. Millions in the human body. Each cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes that have genetic importance. 22 of these are autosomes and one sex chromosome. The 22 determine traits and sex chromosomes determine the gender-XX develops into female and XY develops into male. <P> Somatic cells (body cells) are haploid cells. They have 23 pairs of chromosomes. Reproductive cells (gametes) have half the normal number i.e. 23. This is because two gametes (one male and one female) have to fuse hence, restoring the original number of 23 pairs. Millions in the human body. Each cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes that have genetic importance. 22 of these are autosomes and one sex chromosome. The 22 determine traits and sex chromosomes determine the gender-XX develops into female and XY develops into male. <P> Therefore there is a total of 23 pairs of chromosome in a human body cell. However the human gametes formed by meiosis have haploid number of chromosomes i.e. they have only 23 chromosomes instead of 46; so that after fertilization the zygote has 23 pairs of chromosome(23 from the sperm and 23 from the ovum). Millions in the human body. Each cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes that have genetic importance. 22 of these are autosomes and one sex chromosome. The 22 determine traits and sex chromosomes determine the gender-XX develops into female and XY develops into male. <P> Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome. The 22 autosomes are numbered by size. The other two chromosomes, X and Y, are the sex chromosomes. This picture of the human chromosomes lined up in pairs is called a karyotype. In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. <P> But sex cells (sperm or ovum, known as gametes or diploid cells) contain only … 23 chromosomes (unpaired), when they meet (forming a Zygote), the 23 from each male and female gamete form a cell containing 46 chromosomes to make a Haploid cell. Yes, genes are constructed from DNA, and the chromosomes are where the genes are held, in the cell nucleus. Note that the chromsomes are not always visible. Normally the nuc … leus is just an amorphous mass of genetic material. <P> Whether you are a male or female depends on the presence or absence of certain chromosomes. Human cells contain 23 pairs of chromosomes for a total of 46. There are 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are the X chromosome and the Y chromosome. Sex Chromosomes: In human sexual reproduction, two distinct gametes fuse to form a zygote. <P> All act in the same way during cell division. Human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes (22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes), giving a total of 46 per cell. In addition to these, human cells have many hundreds of copies of the mitochondrial genome. Compaction of the duplicated chromosomes during cell division (mitosis or meiosis) results either in a four-arm structure (pictured to the right) if the centromere is located in the middle of the chromosome or a two-arm structure if the centromere is located near one of the ends.
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In humans, each cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
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cost of retainers vs braces
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<P> Most people wear braces for one to three years, depending on what conditions need correcting. The cost of braces can range from $2,000 to $7,000. Removable appliances: Shaped like a mouth guard, removable appliances (sometimes called retainers) are small, custom-fit devices made of plastic and metal. <P> A retainer usually is included in the overall fee for braces. When retainers are recommended to correct a minor overbite without the need for braces, retainer costs may range from $500 to $1,000. This cost incorporates office visits, X-rays and fittings. <P> A dental retainer is a fixed or removable appliance that is prescribed to patients to wear after their braces are removed. A typical orthodontic treatment goes for 6 months to 2 years (sometimes longer) and when it is completed, patients will be measured for the fabrication of the retainers. <P> 1 However, a retainer is usually included in the overall braces fee, so there is no additional charge for the first set of retainers -- and some orthodontists include one or two replacements in their standard braces package. 2 If not included, replacement retainers can cost $70-$250 for one or $140-$500 or more for a set. <P> 1 Vivera clear plastic retainers by Invisalign have an annual fee of $300-$750, for a new set of identical retainers delivered every three months. 2 Vivera retainers can be used by people whose teeth were straightened by conventional braces as well as those who used Invisalign's series of clear plastic aligner trays. <P> The cost of braces varies, but you can expect the cost for conventional metal braces to average $5,000 (or less in rural areas). Some insurance carriers provide partial coverage for orthodontic treatment, so check with your insurance provider for the specifics of what your policy covers. WebMD Medical Reference. <P> 1 Removable Hawley retainers (made of hard acrylic molded to fit the patient's mouth plus a visible wire to hold the teeth in position) can cost $150-$300 or more for one, or $300-$600 or more for a set (upper and lower). <P> 1 If not included, replacement retainers can cost $70-$250 for one or $140-$500 or more for a set. 2 Most dental insurance does not cover replacement retainers. 3 Removable Essix retainers made of vacuum-formed clear plastic typically cost $100-$250 for one or $200-$500
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Replacement retainers can cost $70-$250 for one or $140-$500 or more for a set and the cost for conventional metal braces to average $5,000.
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what kind of monkey is king louie
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<P> The Bandar-log, or Monkey People, are characters from Disney's The Jungle Book. They roam the ruins of an ancient city, and are ruled by King Louie. While Baloo and Bagheera rescue Mowgli, King Louie and his monkeys work to try to get Mowgli back. During the chase, a stone pillar is knocked out of place and the building it supports begins to collapse. Louie holds it up, Baloo tickles him and the monkeys come to help. <P> House of Mouse. The Bandar-log appear in the House of Mouse episode King Larry Swings In with King Louie's twin brother, King Larry, in a song featuring King Larry singing about how he wants to be like Mickey. While Baloo and Bagheera rescue Mowgli, King Louie and his monkeys work to try to get Mowgli back. During the chase, a stone pillar is knocked out of place and the building it supports begins to collapse. Louie holds it up, Baloo tickles him and the monkeys come to help. <P> King Louie is a fictional character in Disney 's 1967 animated musical adaptation of The Jungle Book. He is voiced by Louis Prima in the film. In this company milieu King Louie eventually came into being, given life through the voice and personality of popular performer Louis Prima. Personality was also given to Louie by Milt Kahl, Frank Thomas, and John Lounsbery, three of Disney's Nine Old Men who animated the character. <P> In the book, Mowgli is abducted by a band of nameless and leaderless Bandar-log (monkeys), but the rest of the scene plays out very differently from Disney's version. Bill Peet 's original story for the film did not feature King Louie, but did have a bigger Bandar without a tail, who was perhaps meant to be their king. In this company milieu King Louie eventually came into being, given life through the voice and personality of popular performer Louis Prima. Personality was also given to Louie by Milt Kahl, Frank Thomas, and John Lounsbery, three of Disney's Nine Old Men who animated the character. <P> Q.T., an orangutan who looks very similar to King Louie, is one of the main characters in Dumbo's Circus. Louie's very identical twin brother Larry appeared in an episode of House of Mouse. Christopher Walken will play King Louie in the 2016 Disney live-action film The Jungle Book. In this company milieu King Louie eventually came into being, given life through the voice and personality of popular performer Louis Prima. Personality was also given to Louie by Milt Kahl, Frank Thomas, and John Lounsbery, three of Disney's Nine Old Men who animated the character. <P> Bandar-log (Hindi: बन्दर-लोग) is a term used in Rudyard Kipling 's The Jungle Book to describe the monkeys of the Seeonee jungle. In Hindi, Bandar means monkey (possibly the gray langur) and log means people - Therefore, Bandar-log means monkey people.. The term has also since come to refer to any body of irresponsible chatterers.. The Bandar-log cheer for Mowgli's next victory and King Louie takes care of the rest by summoning Kaa again. As Mowgli and Kitty leave the place and Boone stays to gather some loot since the treasure only brings death, the monkeys continue screeching, chittering, and cheering. <P> Trivia. 1 King Louie is an original character from Disney as orangutans are not native to India (only the islands of Borneo and Sumatra in Indonesia), and King Louie never existed in Rudyard Kipling 's original novel. 2 King Louie was likely named after his late voice actor, jazz singer Louis Prima. King Louie is a rowdy orangutan who was crowned King of the Apes. Unlike most characters in the film, Louie was created solely by the Walt Disney Company, and there was no ape king in the original novel by Rudyaed Kipling, on which the film was based, as mentioned above. <P> Famed Sicilian-American and New Orleans native Louis Prima portrayed King Louie in the film. Louis Prima considered playing King Louie as one of the highlights of his career and felt he had become immortal thanks to Walt Disney and the entire studio. In this company milieu King Louie eventually came into being, given life through the voice and personality of popular performer Louis Prima. Personality was also given to Louie by Milt Kahl, Frank Thomas, and John Lounsbery, three of Disney's Nine Old Men who animated the character. <P> King Louie first appears in Disney's 1967 adaption of The Jungle Book. He somehow learns that a Man-Cub is in the jungle on his way to the Man Village and wishes to stay. Louie sends his monkey minions to capture the boy. They do so with ease allowing Louie to attempt to live his dream. King Louie is a rowdy orangutan who was crowned King of the Apes. Unlike most characters in the film, Louie was created solely by the Walt Disney Company, and there was no ape king in the original novel by Rudyaed Kipling, on which the film was based, as mentioned above.
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Rowdy orangutan
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nyc equinox membership cost
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<P> What you'll pay up front: Around $500 to $550 for single-gym access, or $770 for multiple gyms. Breaking it down: The above cost includes the prorated amount for January, the full month of February, and an initiation fee: $200 for single-gym, $400 for multiple. The 80th and Broadway location; Photo: NYSC Marathon. ↑ New York Sports Club. What you'll pay monthly: Generally, $65 to $80 per month, depending on whether you're getting a core membership with access to one gym or a passport membership with access to all Sports Club locations, including those in other cities. <P> 1 At some Equinox clubs, Tier 4 training costs at least $100 for each session. 2 Data at Racked NY shows that the startup cost at Equinox is $200 for a single club and $300 for all access. 3 The site adds that monthly rates vary by location and may cost $160 to $175 for one location or $195 to $250 for global access. 1 When necessary, a member may apply for a freeze of their membership once per contractual year for up to 3 months. 2 This means that you will be able to stop going to the gym and stop paying the monthly fee without having to sign back up and pay another initiation fee. 3 Equinox is primarily a gym for health and fitness. <P> ↑ Planet Fitness. What you'll pay monthly: $10 for access to one gym or $19.99 for all locations, plus tax. What you'll pay up front: Between $10 and $20, plus tax. Breaking it down: Depending on your membership plan and home gym, you'll pay between nothing and a $10 startup fee through at least January 30th. The 80th and Broadway location; Photo: NYSC Marathon. ↑ New York Sports Club. What you'll pay monthly: Generally, $65 to $80 per month, depending on whether you're getting a core membership with access to one gym or a passport membership with access to all Sports Club locations, including those in other cities. <P> Equinox Fitness is a fitness center with several locations around the United States including New York, Boston, Chicago and other cities around the country. Apart from the main Equinox fitness center, the company also has two other brands, namely Blink Fitness and PURE Yoga. Membership Fees. The membership fees for Equinox varies and will depend on several factors including your location, membership type and if there are any special offers available at the time of your application. On the average the monthly membership is $120 to $165, and the signup fee can be $0 if there’s a promo or up to $600. Those who sign up for Equinox will have access to numerous group exercise classes such as dance, kickboxing, sculpt, spinning and yoga among others <P> 1 For access to multiple Equinox Fitness clubs across the country, the monthly rate is $195 and the initiation fee is $200. 2 An article at Marketwatch.com states that membership prices at Equinox starts at around $1,000 annually while training fees start at $100 per session. 1 When necessary, a member may apply for a freeze of their membership once per contractual year for up to 3 months. 2 This means that you will be able to stop going to the gym and stop paying the monthly fee without having to sign back up and pay another initiation fee. 3 Equinox is primarily a gym for health and fitness. <P> 1 Data at Racked NY shows that the startup cost at Equinox is $200 for a single club and $300 for all access. 2 The site adds that monthly rates vary by location and may cost $160 to $175 for one location or $195 to $250 for global access. 3 Equinox has different membership options. 1 When necessary, a member may apply for a freeze of their membership once per contractual year for up to 3 months. 2 This means that you will be able to stop going to the gym and stop paying the monthly fee without having to sign back up and pay another initiation fee. 3 Equinox is primarily a gym for health and fitness. <P> 1 For example, signing up to access the Equinox Wall St. location only requires a monthly rate of $160 and an initiation fee of $100. 2 For access to multiple Equinox Fitness clubs across the country, the monthly rate is $195 and the initiation fee is $200. 1 When necessary, a member may apply for a freeze of their membership once per contractual year for up to 3 months. 2 This means that you will be able to stop going to the gym and stop paying the monthly fee without having to sign back up and pay another initiation fee. 3 Equinox is primarily a gym for health and fitness. <P> What you'll pay up front: Roughly between $120 and $220. Breaking it down: With a core membership, skip the initiation fee right now and just pay the initial processing fee of $50 for an up-front total around $120. The 80th and Broadway location; Photo: NYSC Marathon. ↑ New York Sports Club. What you'll pay monthly: Generally, $65 to $80 per month, depending on whether you're getting a core membership with access to one gym or a passport membership with access to all Sports Club locations, including those in other cities.
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The site adds that monthly rates vary by location and may cost $160 to $175 for one location or $195 to $250 for global access.
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typhoid is transmitted through
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<P> Typhoid fever is a serious disease spread by contaminated food and water. Symptoms of typhoid include lasting high fevers, weakness, stomach pains, headache, and loss of appetite. Some patients have constipation, and some have a rash. <P> Typhoid Information. General Information. ***************************. Typhoid is a bacterial disease transmitted through contaminated food and water. The risk of Typhoid is thought to be in the region of 1/3,000 to 1/5,000 for the International Traveller to the tropics – especially for those visiting parts of India. <P> Typhoid Fever is transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food or water and it is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. Typhoid Fever is an acute illness infecting about 21.5 million people worldwide. Typhoid Fever can be fatal in up to 10% of reported cases. <P> Fecal-oral transmission route. The bacteria that cause typhoid fever spread through contaminated food or water and occasionally through direct contact with someone who is infected. In developing nations, where typhoid fever is endemic, most cases result from contaminated drinking water and poor sanitation. Typhoid fever is caused by virulent bacteria called Salmonella typhi (S. typhi). Although they're related, S. typhi and the bacteria responsible for salmonellosis, another serious intestinal infection, aren't the same. <P> Typhoid fever is a severe infection caused by a bacterium, Salmonella typhi. S. typhi is in the same family of bacteria as the type spread by chicken and eggs, commonly known as salmonella poisoning or food poisoning. Typhoid fever is passed from person to person through poor hygiene, such as incomplete or no hand washing after using the toilet. Persons who are carriers of the disease and who handle food can be the source of epidemic spread of typhoid. <P> Typhoid fever. Typhoid fever is a bacterial disease, caused by Salmonella typhi. It is transmitted through the ingestion of food or drink contaminated by the faeces or urine of infected people. Symptoms usually develop 1–3 weeks after exposure, and may be mild or severe. <P> •. Typhoid is a serious disease is caused by the bacteria Salmonella Typhi. It is transmitted through the ingestion of food or drink, which has been contaminated by the feces of an infected person. •. Typhoid can cause a high fever, weakness, headache, loss of appetite, stomach pains, and a rash of flat, rose-colored spots. <P> Typhoid fever is contracted by drinking or eating the bacteria in contaminated food or water. People with acute illness can contaminate the surrounding water supply through stool, which contains a high concentration of the bacteria. Contamination of the water supply can, in turn, taint the food supply. <P> a bacterial infection usually caused by Salmonella typhi, transmitted by contaminated milk, water, or food. It is characterized by headache, delirium, cough, watery diarrhea, rash, and a high fever. The incubation period may be as long as 60 days. Typhoid fever is passed from person to person through poor hygiene, such as incomplete or no hand washing after using the toilet. Persons who are carriers of the disease and who handle food can be the source of epidemic spread of typhoid. <P> The cause of typhoid fever is an infection with the bacteria Salmonella typhi. These bacteria are primarily transmitted through contaminated food or water.
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It is transmitted through the ingestion of food or drink, which has been contaminated by the feces of an infected person.
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why do you do a temporal artery biopsy
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<P> If a temporal artery biopsy shows no signs of inflammation but your symptoms strongly suggest giant cell arteritis, you and your doctor will discuss the risks and benefits of treatment and of no treatment. You and your doctor will decide whether or not you will proceed with treatment. If you are taking high-dose corticosteroids, the biopsy result may not be accurate. In this case, any biopsy testing must be performed as soon as possible, preferably within 2 to 5 days. Biopsies done more than about a week after the start of high-dose corticosteroids may be falsely normal (false-negative). <P> Temporal artery biopsy. A temporal artery biopsy is most commonly used to test for giant cell arteritis. During the procedure, the skin on the side of your head is numbed with a local anaesthetic. An incision is made close to the hairline in front of your ear, and a small sample of your temporal artery is removed. Blood tests. If your GP suspects you may have giant cell arteritis, they'll refer you for blood tests to help assess the levels of inflammation inside your body. Two blood tests that you may have are erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP). <P> An Overview of Temporal Artery Biopsy. A temporal artery biopsy is a procedure in which a small piece of tissue is removed from your temporal artery and then studied under a microscope to check for signs of inflammation and damage. On the day of the biopsy, you will change into a hospital gown and may be taken to a special room where the procedure will be done. Your healthcare provider will locate your temporal artery. He or she will then use a small needle to deliver medicine that will numb the skin near the biopsy site. <P> If you have symptoms of giant cell arteritis (GCA) and your doctor believes you may have it, he or she may order a temporal artery biopsy to make sure. If you are taking high-dose corticosteroids, the biopsy result may not be accurate. In this case, any biopsy testing must be performed as soon as possible, preferably within 2 to 5 days. Biopsies done more than about a week after the start of high-dose corticosteroids may be falsely normal (false-negative). <P> Headache Home. A temporal artery biopsy is a procedure in which a small piece of tissue is removed from your temporal artery and then studied under a microscope to check for signs of inflammation and damage. On the day of the biopsy, you will change into a hospital gown and may be taken to a special room where the procedure will be done. Your healthcare provider will locate your temporal artery. He or she will then use a small needle to deliver medicine that will numb the skin near the biopsy site. <P> INTRODUCTION. Temporal artery biopsy is the primary modality for establishing a diagnosis of giant cell (temporal) arteritis. Giant cell arteritis is a chronic vasculitis affecting medium and large diameter arteries, predominantly in older individuals [ 1,2 ]. Temporal artery biopsy, which identifies the characteristic histopathology, remains the primary modality to diagnose giant cell (temporal) arteritis [ 6,7 ]. <P> (Giant Cell Arteritis). Temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis, is an inflammatory condition that affects the medium to large arteries in the body. It is a systemic condition, which means that any medium to large artery in any part of the body can be affected. This includes the eye, brain and heart. Temporal artery biopsy: This is performed under local anesthesia and can take up to 40 minutes. It involves shaving hair from your temple and then making a 1 to 2 inch incision. A small piece of your superficial temporal artery is removed and sent to the laboratory for histopathological analysis.
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To test for giant cell arteritis.
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what are composite volcanoes made of quizlet
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<P> T he essential feature of a composite volcano is a conduit system through which magma from a reservoir deep in the Earth's crust rises to the surface. The volcano is built up by the accumulation of material erupted through the conduit and increases in size as lava, cinders, ash, etc., are added to its slopes. Schematic representation of the internal structue of a typical composite volcano. S ome of the Earth's grandest mountains are composite volcanoes--sometimes called stratovolcanoes. They are typically steep-sided, symmetrical cones of large dimension built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, blocks, and bombs and may rise as much as 8,000 feet above their bases. <P> Composite volcanoes are constructed from multiple eruptions, sometimes recurring over hundreds of thousands of years, sometimes over a few hundred. Andesite magma, the most common but not the only magma type forming composite cones, produces lava more brittle than basaltic lava because of its higher viscosity. <P> Some of the most conspicuous and beautiful mountains in the world are composite volcanoes, including Mount Fuji in Japan, Mount Cotopaxi in Ecuador, Mount Shasta in California, Mount Hood in Oregon, and Mount St. Helens and Mount Rainier in Washington. Volcanic domes commonly occur within the craters or on the flanks of large composite volcanoes. The nearly circular Novarupta Dome that formed during the 1912 eruption of Katmai Volcano, Alaska, measures 800 feet across and 200 feet high. <P> Composite volcanoes, also called strato volcanoes, are formed by alternating layers of lava and rock fragments. This is the reason they are called composite. Strato-volcanoe … s often form impressive, snow-capped peaks which are often exceeding 2500m in height, 1000sq.km in surface, and 400km3 in volume. They are formed when an oceanic plate goes under another oceanic plate. Causing it to go under to the mantle. Which causes it to burn making the magma turn into lava. Once the lava hardens it then forms a Composite Volcano. <P> St. Augustine volcano, Alaska. Composite volcanoes are built by multiple eruptions, sometimes recurring over hundreds of thousands of years, sometimes over a few hundred. Andesite magma, the most common but not the only magma type, tends to form composite cones. <P> A strong amount of lava flows from the central vent of the volcano to the summit where it disperses in all directions, evenly sloping into a flat, dome shape. (Travels long distances) very runny Lava. <P> A composite volcano is built up from alternate layers of ash and lava. It has steep sides because when it erupts it lava is thick and viscous (andesitic) meaning that it does … not travel great distances and stays on the side of the volcano. An example is Mount Vesuvius (which destroyed Pompeii). They are formed when an oceanic plate goes under another oceanic plate. Causing it to go under to the mantle. Which causes it to burn making the magma turn into lava. Once the lava hardens it then forms a Composite Volcano. <P> Composite Volcanoes. http://www.winona.edu/geology/MRW/Archean.htm. Composite volcanoes, also known as stratovolcanoes, make up some of the most known volcanoes that we have here on earth. A composite volcano is made up of many layers of hardened lava and volcano ash from eruptions that have already taken place. Shield volcanoes are very large in size; the picture above shows an example of one which is the largest volcano on earth, Mauna Lau. They are formed by lava flows of low-viscosity, so over time and flow after flow, it is what makes the mountain grow. <P> The volcanoes form on the continental side of a subduction zone. The melting oceanic crust forms pools of molten rock in a magma chamber. The magma, molten rock, in the magma chamber is lighter than the volcano rocks that surround it. The magma works its way to the summit where it erupts as tephra or in thick lava flows. Lava eruptions on stratovolcanoes. <P> Composite Volcano. A composite volcano forms in subduction zones when a crustal plate is forced into the mantle and begins to melt. Andesite, dacite and rhyolite lavas are the primary types of lava that form these volcanoes. Eruptions on the volcanoes often alternate between tephra and lava flows. Subduction zone volcanoes. Geologists often use the term stratovolcanoes to describe the mountains that form in subduction zones. The melting oceanic crust forms pools of molten rock in a magma chamber. The magma, molten rock, in the magma chamber is lighter than the volcano rocks that surround it. The magma works its way to the summit where it erupts as tephra or in thick lava flows. Lava eruptions on stratovolcanoes.
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A composite volcano forms in subduction zones when a crustal plate is forced into the mantle and begins to melt.
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art therapy definition
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<P> Art therapy, sometimes called creative arts therapy or expressive arts therapy, encourages people to express and understand emotions through artistic expression and through the creative process. Art therapy is often one part of a psychiatric inpatient or outpatient treatment program, and can take place in individual or group therapy sessions. Group art therapy sessions often take place in hospital, clinic, shelter, and community program settings. <P> “Art as therapy” embodies the idea that art making is, in and of itself, therapeutic and that the creative process is a growth-producing experience. However, art as therapy is a pretty close match to many other non-therapy approaches, mainly in the realm of art teaching. 1) Art therapy is an interpersonal experience in which a therapist facilitates, guides, witnesses and responds to an individual’s art process and art expressions, based on best practices and current and emerging research. <P> Expressive art therapy is the use of creative arts as a form of therapy and is a fantastic field that has proven to work wonders in many people’s lives. It can help someone express themselves, explore their emotions, manage addictions, and improve their self-esteem. Art therapists are professionals trained in both art and therapy. They are knowledgeable about human development, psychological theories, clinical practice, spiritual, multicultural and artistic traditions, and the healing potential of art. <P> In the past, art therapy has been defined as a “mental health profession*,” but that does not continue to make good sense when research is trending in favor of art therapy in allied health and integrative (mind-body) medicine arenas. For me this dichotomy has always been a distraction from discovering art therapy’s real potential as a health-enhancing practice. And frankly this continuum of practice has not been able to convincingly establish a profession called art therapist because it confounds a unified vision for the field. <P> These are: 1) art as therapy; and 2) art psychotherapy. These two concepts are ubiquitous in art therapy literature and have become well-worn mantras describing the profession and guiding the way art therapists define themselves for the past 40 years in the US and despite the influence of the field of counseling. 1) Art therapy is an interpersonal experience in which a therapist facilitates, guides, witnesses and responds to an individual’s art process and art expressions, based on best practices and current and emerging research. <P> Definition: Art therapy is a form of expressive therapy that uses the creative process of making art to improve a person’s physical, mental, and emotional well-being. Art therapists are professionals trained in both art and therapy. They are knowledgeable about human development, psychological theories, clinical practice, spiritual, multicultural and artistic traditions, and the healing potential of art. <P> ...a form of psychotherapy that uses art media as its primary mode of communication. It is practised by qualified, registered Art Therapists who work with children, young people, adults and the elderly. Clients who can use art therapy may have a wide range of difficulties, disabilities or diagnoses. It may focus on the creative art-making process itself as therapy or on the analysis of expression gained through an exchange of patient/therapist interaction. The psychoanalytic approach was one of the earliest forms of art psychotherapy. <P> Art therapy is a creative method of expression used as a therapeutic technique. Arts therapy originated in the fields of Art and Psychotherapy and may vary in definition. It may focus on the creative art-making process itself as therapy or on the analysis of expression gained through an exchange of patient/therapist interaction. The psychoanalytic approach was one of the earliest forms of art psychotherapy. <P> From The New Medicine. And from the AATA, the definition of the profession:
Art therapy is the therapeutic use of art making, within a professional relationship, by people who experience illness, trauma or challenges in living, and by people who seek personal development. It can be used for counseling by therapists, healing, treatment, rehabilitation, psychotherapy, and in the broad sense of the term, art therapy can be used to massage one’s inner-self in a way that may provide the individual with a deeper understanding of him or herself. <P> And from the AATA, the definition of the profession: Art therapy is the therapeutic use of art making, within a professional relationship, by people who experience illness, trauma or challenges in living, and by people who seek personal development. Art therapists are professionals trained in both art and therapy. They are knowledgeable about human development, psychological theories, clinical practice, spiritual, multicultural and artistic traditions, and the healing potential of art.
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Art therapy is a form of expressive therapy that uses the creative process of making art to improve a person’s physical, mental, and emotional well-being.
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what is gluten and where is it found
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<P> Gluten is a plant protein found in cereal grains, particularly in wheat. So fruits, vegetables and animal foods such as dairy products, meat, poultry and fish in their natural state are all gluten-free as long as you don’t add anything like breading or sauces to them. <P> A gluten-free diet is a diet that excludes the protein gluten. Gluten is found in grains such as wheat, barley, rye, and a cross between wheat and rye called triticale. A gluten-free diet is primarily used to treat celiac disease. Gluten causes inflammation in the small intestines of people with <P> Gluten is found in wheat, rye, barley and any foods made with these grains. Avoiding wheat can be especially hard because this means you should avoid all wheat-based flours and ingredients. These include but are not limited to: 1 White Flour. 2 Whole Wheat Flour. 3 Durum Wheat. 4 Graham Flour. 5 Triticale. 6 Kamut. <P> Gluten is a general name for the proteins found in wheat (durum, emmer, spelt, farina, farro, KAMUT® khorasan wheat and einkorn), rye, barley and triticale. Gluten helps foods maintain their shape, acting as a glue that holds food together. <P> The gluten proteins are found in the mature seed of these cereal grasses, which is what we refer to as the grain. Close relatives of wheat, such as spelt, triticale, kamut, farro, and einkorn, also contain gluten and must be avoided on a gluten-free diet. <P> Since gluten is a storage protein found in cereal grass seeds, it's not found in the young, green grasses that sprout from these seeds. For this reason, wheatgrass and barley grass are technically gluten-free.
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A diet that excludes the protein gluten and is found in grains such as wheat, barley, rye, and a cross between wheat and rye called triticale.
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how do you find circumference of a circle
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<P> If a circle has a diameter of 4, its circumference is 3.14*4=12.56 If you know the radius, the diameter is twice as large. Calculating the Circumference of a Circle. The circumference of a circle is the distance around the outside of the circle. It could be called the perimeter of the circle. How to find the circumference of a circle: The circumference of a circle can be found by multiplying pi (π = 3.14) by the dia <P> 1. Write down the formula for finding the circumference of a circle using the diameter. The formula is simply this: C = πd. In this equation, C represents the circumference of the circle, and d represents its diameter. That is to say, you can find the circumference of a circle just by multiplying the diameter by pi. Plugging π into your calculator will give you its numerical value, which is a closer approximation of 3.14. <P> The circumference (C) of a circle is its perimeter, or the distance around it. The area (A) of a circle is how much space the circle takes up. Both can be calculated using the radius or diameter of the circle and the value of pi. <P> To calculate the circumference of the circle we have to multiply 2 times the value of Pi times the value of the radius, 4. Therefore the circumference of this circle is 25.12. Now you know how to calculate the circumference of a circle using either the radius or the diameter. <P> The number is the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. The value of is approximately 3.14159265358979323846...The diameter of a circle is twice the radius. Given the diameter or radius of a circle, we can find the circumference. <P> How to find the circumference of a circle: 1 The circumference of a circle can be found by multiplying pi (π = 3.14) by the diameter of the circle. 2 If a circle has a diameter of 4, its circumference is 3.14*4=12.56. 3 If you know the radius, the diameter is twice as large.
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Multiply 2 times the value of Pi times the value of the radius
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moral intensity definition
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<P> An Investigation of the Components of Moral Intensity Bev Marshall Philip Dewe ABSTRACT. While there is considerable interest in the topic of business ethics, much of the research moves towards measuring components with a view to predicting ethical behaviour. This result is investigated further in the discussion. Another important result is that the components of moral intensity as theorised by Jones (1991) did not emerge in the rationale of the respondents. <P> US Sentencing Commission Guidelines for Organizations. Definition. First the offense is given an offense level (generally between 6 and 38). Each offense level has a base fine associated with it ranging from $5,000 to $72.5 million Next a judge gives the company a culpability score. <P> What is Moral Intensity. 1. The construct that captures the extent of an issue related to moral imperative in a situation (Jones, 1991). This construct will determine whether the issue faced by individuals in an organization includes the moral dilemma. <P> Moral Intensity Moral intensity relates to the issue itself and to every unique situation Shaub (1997). Consequently Jones (1991, p372) described moral intensity as being “a construct that captures the extent of issue-related moral imperative in a situation”. From the web site, Lev Lafeyette : Moral intensity is the degree that people see an issue as an ethical one. Influences on moral intensity include magnitude of consequences, social consequence, concentration of effect, temporal immediacy and proximity. The magnitude of consequences is the anticipated level of impact of the outcome of a given action <P> Show more usage examples... It was not a moral issue, but an ethical issue and required a lot of thought and planning to figure out a solution. 9 people found this helpful. You should always make sure you break down any ethical issue and be on the right side of the disagreement. 11 people found this helpful. When considering this problem, lawyers may do well to ignore the letter of the law and realize that it is, at its heart, an ethical issue <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. ethical issue intensity can be define as perceive relevance or importance of an ethical issue. it reflects the ethical sensitivity of the individual or group triggering the ethical decision process. It is not an ethical issue. The real issue is the federal governments point of view and each of the 50 States that form the United States of America. Is it ethical for the Fed … eral Government to decide everything for the individual citizen.
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Moral intensity is the degree that people see an issue as an ethical one.
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where is kartchner caverns
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<P> the arizona state parks department opened kartchner caverns state park s big room in 2003 the public has marveled at the throne and rotunda rooms in the upper portion of the cave says state parks director ken travous <P> kartchner caverns state park is a stunning limestone cavern system in southeastern arizona the park is celebrating its 10th anniversary starting in the fall of 2009 watch this incredible footage and visit azstateparks com to learn more about the caverns and the park <P> undiscovered until 1974 and kept a secret until the late 1980 s kartchner caverns went through years of challenges before becoming a state park and opening to the public in 1999 the beautiful caverns are carved out of limestone and filled with spectacular formations called speleothems <P> let chili s do the cooking while we support friends of kartchner caverns at th e same time with each flyer presented link to printable below on october 5th chili s will donate 15 % of the event day sales back to this great organization <P> inside the upper caverns of kartchner two main galleries the size of football fields are a kaleidoscope of color with 100 foot high ceilings dripping with multi hued stalactites and floors jutting up with matching stalagmites <P> see more don t miss international astronomy day on october 17 2015 at kartchner caverns state park arizona astronomy day is a world wide event observed each spring and fall and the huachuca astronomy club of southeastern arizona will celebrate astronomy day on october 17 2015 at kartchner caverns state park the public is invited to come enjoy this family friendly educational event <P> kartchner caverns is a stunning limestone cavern system in southeastern arizona discovered in 1974 by two amateur cavers from tucson it is host to world class cave formations considered to be the best of their kind in the world
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Southeastern arizona
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what does gamine style mean
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<P> How to Dress in a Gamine Style. The gamine style is sweet, childlike, gentle, innocent and adorably charming. Gamine is originally a French word that means waif or playful child. But since the time of Audrey Hepburn (the original gamine), it has been used to describe a slim, boyish, doe eyed girl with mischievous and innocent childlike appeal. In this article, you'll discover some ways to adapt the gamine style to your own needs. <P> Gamine Hairstyles. Gamine hairstyles are sleek and chic styles that are quickly emerging as a very popular choice among many women. The Gamine Haircut. This style originally emerged in the sixties and seventies as a style fitted for small framed individuals with sharp features. <P> In 1997 the publisher HarperCollins drew up a list of 101 words – one a year – that defined the years 1896 to 1997. Gamine was chosen for 1899, being described by Philip Howard in The Times as follows: An elfish young woman. Audrey Hepburn in Roman Holiday was the archetypal, unforgettable, adorable gamine. It was used in English from about the mid-19th century (for example, by William Makepeace Thackeray in 1840 in one of his Parisian sketches), but in the 20th century, came to be applied in its more modern sense. <P> Beano, TSM. If you haven’t heard of PSY or his internet sensation ‘Gangnam Style,’ you obviously have not been in-tune with anything related to pop-culture (not that that is a bad thing). According to an interview PSY did with NPR, Gangnam is a territory in Seoul, Korea. I describe it as noble at the daytime and going crazy at the night time. I compare ladies to the territory. So — noble at the daytime, going crazy at the night time — and the lyric says I am the right guy for the lady who is like that. <P> A gamine is a slim, often boyish, elegant, wide-eyed young woman who is, or is perceived to be, mischievous, teasing or sexually appealing. The word gamine is a French word, the feminine form of gamin, originally meaning urchin, waif or playful, naughty child. It was used in English from about the mid-19th century (for example, by William Makepeace Thackeray in 1840 in one of his Parisian sketches), but in the 20th century, came to be applied in its more modern sense. <P> Gamine has been used particularly of such women in the performing arts or world of fashion. In that context, the closest English word – of Anglo-Norman origin – is probably waif (although gamine is often seen as conveying an additional sense of style and chic). It was used in English from about the mid-19th century (for example, by William Makepeace Thackeray in 1840 in one of his Parisian sketches), but in the 20th century, came to be applied in its more modern sense. <P> Soft Gamine vs. Ingenue. One of the notable things about Kibbe’s system is that it lacks the Ingenue category. If you look at the quiz, A answers are Dramatic, B are Natural, C is Classic, E is Romantic, and mixed A and E is Gamine. But he does not mention Ingenue, nor what the D category means, at all. <P> Understand that a gamine is an innocent and childlike person. AS a gamine, you might want to keep it quite simple, yet quite romantic. However, this doesn't mean you can't make your outfits more boyish if you prefer to, because, after all, a gamine is a 'street urchin' and a 'girl of impish appeal'. But since the time of Audrey Hepburn (the original gamine), it has been used to describe a slim, boyish, doe eyed girl with mischievous and innocent childlike appeal. In this article, you'll discover some ways to adapt the gamine style to your own needs. <P> One of the notable things about Kibbe’s system is that it lacks the Ingenue category. If you look at the quiz, A answers are Dramatic, B are Natural, C is Classic, E is Romantic, and mixed A and E is Gamine. But he does not mention Ingenue, nor what the D category means, at all. The D answers correlate to the Ingenue answers for systems that do have this category. I think it’s important here to clarify the major difference between Soft Gamine and Ingenue, and that is the amount of yin. In McJimsey ‘s interpretation, the Ingenue is the polar opposite of Dramatic.
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Urchin, waif or playful, naughty child.
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what is the consultants role
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<P> Making sure that you bear in mind that your role, as the consultant, is to identify, analyze and solve your clients’ problems, whatever they may be, and consistently doing so, will help to build your individual reputation. Always ask yourself what contribution you are making to your clients business. Or perhaps, an organization in the midst of a corporate reshuffle is in need of direction, in order to streamline processes, devise systems, or reallocate staff. Often, these types of situation would call for the use of a consultant who specializes in a specific field. <P> 2012 BCBEC AGM2 www.cwilson.com 2 The Role of the Consultant, cont’d I. General Comments a) The role of the consultant is oftenunderestimatedb) A better understanding of the role of theconsultant on construction projects benefitsall parties, including the consultant 3 The Role of the Consultant, cont’d II. 2012 BCBEC AGM5 www.cwilson.com 8 The Role of the Consultant, cont’d The Industry Standards 1. Architect-Bylaw 30.3, cont’d • An architect shall limit professional practice to areas of personalcompetence or shall engage others (including staff) who arecompetent in supplementary areas. <P> The consultant's primary role is to assist your organization with certain areas of your inclusiveness work. While the consultant may act as an educator, a catalyst for deeper change, a resource, or a facilitator, the leadership of the process remains within your organization. An integrating facilitator works with you throughout your process, helping to provide continuity between trainings. 4. Evaluation: The consultant creates an evaluation plan to measure the efficacy of trainings and progress of your inclusiveness initiative. <P> A consultant is usually an expert or a professional in a specific field and has a wide knowledge of the subject matter. 1 Internal consultant-someone who operates within an organization but is available to be consulted on areas of specialism by other departments or individuals (acting as clients); or. <P> In business consulting, a consultant works hand-in-hand with the client in coming up with a good picture of how the current business processes are, what are the future state requirements and what steps are needed to do the gap analysis between current and future state and provide the best alternatives to close that gap. So the role of consultants, while working on RFPs, is to estimate how much manpower would be needed, the scope and timelines of the project and they work on RFPs to address specific areas related to their work. <P> The overall impact of a consultant is that clients have access to deeper levels of expertise than would be feasible for them to retain in-house, and may purchase only as much service from the outside consultant as desired. 1 Internal consultant-someone who operates within an organization but is available to be consulted on areas of specialism by other departments or individuals (acting as clients); or. <P> Posted in Consulting Industry. Understanding the roles and responsibilities of consultants working for McKinsey, PWC, Monitor and other top tier consulting firms will let you know if this career is proper for you. Read this post and get an overview of what this position entails. <P> Role of a business consultant. To understand business consulting, it is imperative to understand the role of a business consultant. Put in simple words, a consultant’s role is to identify, analyze and solve client’s problems. Consultants are expected to work in a dynamic environment juggling with critical business problems. They bring their knowledge, skill set and their domain competence developed over the years to help solve client’s problems. So the role of consultants, while working on RFPs, is to estimate how much manpower would be needed, the scope and timelines of the project and they work on RFPs to address specific areas related to their work. <P> This is achieved through various avenues. The Consultant’s Contribution. Consulting assignments, whatever their nature, invariably begin with a problem! The consultant’s client realizes that there is a need, that they lack the specific skills or staff to address in house. That is where the business consultants job begins, and is an indication of what their contribution should be – skills, experience and knowledge. Or perhaps, an organization in the midst of a corporate reshuffle is in need of direction, in order to streamline processes, devise systems, or reallocate staff. Often, these types of situation would call for the use of a consultant who specializes in a specific field. <P> A strategy consultant’s role is to provide companies with advice on their goals and future direction so that they can plan effective strategies for growth. Strategic consultants participate in initial meetings with the company's management team to establish the requirements of the consultancy project, prepare a proposal, and carry out research, analysis and assessment of growth scenarios and options.
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The consultant's primary role is to assist your organization with certain areas of your inclusiveness work.
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formula for finding the surface area of a cylinder
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<P> The entire formula for the surface area of a cylinder is 2 π r2 + 2 π r h. Surface Area of Cylinders. To find the surface area of a cylinder add the surface area of each end plus the surface area of the side. Each end is a circle so the surface area of each end is π * r 2, where r is the radius of the end. There are two ends so their combinded surface area is 2 π * r 2. <P> So, the formula for the lateral surface area of a cylinder is L. S. A. = 2 π rh. Example 1: Find the lateral surface area of a cylinder with a base radius of 3 inches and a height of 9 inches. L. S. A. = 2 π (3)(9) = 54 π inches 2. ≈ 169.64 inches 2. The general formula for the total surface area of a cylinder is T. S. A. = 2 π rh + 2 π r 2. Example 2: Find the total surface area of a cylinder with a base radius of 5 inches and a height of 7 inches. T. S. A. = 2 π (5)(7) + 2 π (5) 2 = 70 π + 50 π. <P> The surface area of our cylinder is the outside area. The formula for the surface area of a cylinder is 2 times pi times the radius times the height plus 2 times pi times the radius squared. To use this formula, we plug in our radius measurement and height measurement. We then evaluate to find our answer. <P> Our formula to find the surface area of our cylinder is 2 times pi times the radius times the height plus 2 times pi times the radius squared. This formula is actually the combination of two calculations. We first calculate the surface area of the curved part and then we add the two surface areas of our circles.
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T. S. A. = 2 π rh + 2 π r 2.
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what is metabolizable energy
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<P> capable of being converted by metabolism. metabolizable energy (ME). said of a feed or ration, the net energy available to an animal after the utilization of some energy in the processes of digestion and absorption and the loss of some of the material as being undigested or indigestible. <P> 2015. Effects of chemical, physical, or enzymatic treatments on concentration of digestible and metabolizable energy and on apparent total tract digestibility of energy, organic matter, and detergent fiber in distillers dried grains with solubles fed to growing pigs. J. Anim. Sci. Effects of chemical, physical, or enzymatic treatments on concentration of digestible and metabolizable energy and on ATTD of energy, organic matter, and detergent fiber in distillers dried grains with solubles fed to growing pigs. Rojas, O. J. and H. H. Stein. 2015. <P> Metabolizable Energy is what is left after accounting for energy in feces, urine and gasses. It is still not all available for the animal to use. GROSS ENERGY Feces DIGESTIBLE ENERGY Urine & Gas METABOLIZABLE ENERGY Heat increment NET ENERGY Maintenance Gain Reproduction Milk Production digestibility digestibility * *. Net Energy Is what is left after accounting for losses to feces, urine & gasses and heat increment. Heat increment is energy lost in fermentation and in metabolic processes. Net Energy is <P> ), metabolizable energy (. ) and net energy (. ). In pigs, after the different levels of energy utilization, less than 60% of the ingested. can be used by the animal (Figure 1). In poultry, it is not possible to measure. due to the impossibility to separate faeces and urine. <P> |. Email Article. Understanding metabolizable energy (ME) is essential in determining the nutritional quality of your pet's food and comparing pet foods. ME is defined as the amount of energy available from pet food once the energy lost in the feces, urine, and combustible gases has been subtracted. The energy bar has a much higher ME, because it contains concentrated calories for energy. Similar to an energy bar, pet foods with higher ME numbers provide your pet's body with more concentrated calories for more energy. With a higher ME, your pet's body will receive more energy from a smaller amount of food. <P> 1 Corn gluten meal contained the greatest concentration of digestible and metabolizable energy of the ingredients tested. 2 None of the other food industry co-products contained more digestible or metabolizable energy in kcal/kg than corn or DDGS. Table 1. Concentrations of digestible and metabolizable energy, and apparent total tract digestibility (ATTD) of energy in corn, hominy feed, bakery meal, dried distillers grains with solubles (DDGS), corn gluten meal, corn gluten feed, and corn germ meal, as-fed basis. Diet. Item. Corn. Hominy feed. Bakery meal. <P> Metabolizable Energy in Poultry Nutrition I. R. Sibbald Modern commercial poultry produc-tion, like other industrial enterprises, de-mands control of cost inputs. The major cost is feed, the input of which is deter-mined by biological, managerial, and ec-onomic constraints. <P> Understanding metabolizable energy (ME) is essential in determining the nutritional quality of your pet's food and comparing pet foods. The energy bar has a much higher ME, because it contains concentrated calories for energy. Similar to an energy bar, pet foods with higher ME numbers provide your pet's body with more concentrated calories for more energy. With a higher ME, your pet's body will receive more energy from a smaller amount of food. <P> 0. Metabolizable energy (ME) is defined as the amount of energy available from pet food once the energy lost in the feces, urine, and combustible gases has been subtracted. Essentially, ME is the energy left for your pet's body to use once all digestion is complete.
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Metabolizable energy (ME) is defined as the amount of energy available from pet food once the energy lost in the feces, urine, and combustible gases has been subtracted.
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what does metamucil do to stool
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<P> In a constipated stool it will hold that water in (your stool enters the colon as a liquid as you dump a bunch of water into your food as you digest it) so it is less likely to become hard and dry and hard to pass. It is more of a stool normalizer than just a laxative. My story of beating IBS: My Story with IBS. It seemed to help prevent constipation, but it didn't really improve my regularity necessarily. But yesterday, I decided to take about 3 teaspoons with 8 ounces of water, and today, for the first time in like a couple of months, I finally had a complete bowel movement. <P> Yes,colored metamucil can change the color of your stool. You don't digest the coloring agent present in metamucil and it goes through, changing the color of your stool. It is very common for people to have color change of their stool when they take flavored/colored metamucil. It will get back to normal,once you stop taking it. Hope this helped. <P> metamucil. Metamucil is a fiber supplement made from psyllium. It is designed to add bulk to the stool and so help waste travel smoothly through the digestive tract. It may be marketed as a bulk laxative because it adds bulk to the stool. Psyllium, the main ingredient in Metamucil, is a soluble plant fiber. If you are gluten intolerant then it is worth noting that the Metamucil powder and capsules are gluten-free, but Metamucil wafers contain gluten (one of the ingredients is wheat flour). This went on for five days of me sticking with the Metamucil. At one point I considered going to hospital because the pain caused by gas was so severe! Finally in desperation I took a stimulant laxative-actually, one didn't do it. I had to take a second one the next day, and then the problem was finally resolved. <P> Yes,it is very common to have reddish colored stools when you take the metamucil of orange flavor. If you are having orange/red/pink colored stool after taking metamucil,it is normal.It is because of the coloring agent present in the metamucil which goes undigested & comes out as it is with the stool. It is very common for people to have color change of their stool when they take flavored/colored metamucil. It will get back to normal,once you stop taking it. Hope this helped. <P> It forms a gel in your gut. Look at what metamucil does in a cup of water. It gels up and swells. It will absorb water into a gel so it helps constipation because it will soften and help hard stools slide along. It helps diarrhea because it absorbs the excess water thickening it adding bulk to the stool. It seemed to help prevent constipation, but it didn't really improve my regularity necessarily. But yesterday, I decided to take about 3 teaspoons with 8 ounces of water, and today, for the first time in like a couple of months, I finally had a complete bowel movement. <P> Photo Credit KathyKafka/iStock/Getty Images. Metamucil is a fiber supplement that helps relieve constipation and keeps you regular. It makes increasing your fiber intake easier, since it comes in a variety of forms, including chewable wafers, powder, capsules and others. Avoid having loose stools after taking your Metamucil supplement by gradually increasing your intake each day. Since Metamucil conveniently comes in powder forms, you can easily control the amount of fiber you consume. Add a small amount, such as 1/2 tsp., and see how you feel. <P> This medication is used to treat constipation. It increases the bulk in your stool, an effect that helps to cause movement of the intestines. It also works by increasing the amount of water in the stool, making the stool softer and easier to pass. Psyllium, one type of bulk-forming laxative, has also been used along with a proper diet to treat high cholesterol. How to use Metamucil. Take this medication by mouth as directed by your doctor. If you are self-treating, follow all directions on the product package. If you are uncertain about any of the information, ask your doctor or pharmacist.
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It is a fiber supplement that helps relieve constipation and keeps you regular. It makes increasing your fiber intake easier, since it comes in a variety of forms, including chewable wafers, powder, capsules and others.void having loose stools after taking your Metamucil supplement by gradually increasing your intake each day.
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where sharjah is located
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<P> Where is Sharjah, United Arab Emirates Located? Sharjah is a city/town with a large population in the country of United Arab Emirates which is located in the continent/region of Asia. Cities, towns and places near Sharjah include Al Sharjah, Ash 'Mariqah, Ash Shariqah and Ash Shariqa. The closest major cities include Dubai, Abu Dhabi, Doha and Sirjan. <P> Galina, Russia. Ewan Hotel is located 3 miles from central Sharjah and close to both Dubai and Sharjah airports. It is a short walk to the beach front. There is free parking. All rooms and suites at Ewan Hotel are well furnished and air conditioned. Most rooms have views of the Arabian Gulf. <P> Sharjah is the third largest city (after Dubai and Abu Dhabi) in the United Arab Emirates. The palace of the ruler of the Emirate of Sharjah (Sultan bin Mohamed Al-Qasimi) is located about 20 kilometres (12 mi) southeast of the city. Sharjah is bordered by the cities of Dubai and Ajmān and is about 170 km (110 mi) away from the capital city Abu Dhabi. <P> Confidence votes 698. Sharjah is the oldest city of the United Arab Emirates.It is located besides Dubai followed by Umm al Quwain then /Ras Al Khaimah, as you move Northwards up the coast towards Oman. Answer by R. Kayed. Confidence votes 698. Sharjah is the oldest city of the United Arab Emirates.It is located besides Dubai followed by Umm al Quwain then /Ras Al Khaimah, as you move Northwards up the coast towards Oman. Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that comprise the United Arab Emirates. <P> Hotel’s home in Sharjah, United Arab Emirates near 2 international airports. The Sharjah International Airport is only 15 kilometers from this hotel’s location in Sharjah, United Arab Emirates, while Dubai International Airport is only 18 kilometers away. Public transport: This Radisson Blu resort is located 15 kilometers from the Sharjah International Airport (SHJ) and 18 kilometers from Dubai International Airport (DXB). Both airports offer rental cars, and taxis are also readily available. <P> 1 Crystal Plaza Hotel is located in the heart of Sharjah, United Arab Emirates (UAE), less than a kilometer from Mega Mall Sharjah. 2 This three-star property takes pride in its contemporary amenities and friendly services. Sharjah is the third largest of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and is the only one to have land on both the Persian Gulf Coast and the Gulf of Oman. Sharjah is also next to Dubai and is effectively its suburb, with commuter traffic creating rush hour traffic jams. <P> Sharjah (/ˈʃɑrdʒə/ ; Arabic: الشارقة aš-Šāriqah) is the third largest and third most populous city in the United Arab Emirates, forming part of the Dubai-Sharjah-Ajman metropolitan area. It is located along the northern coast of the Persian Gulf on the Arabian Peninsula. Sharjah is bordered by the cities of Dubai and Ajmān and is about 170 km (110 mi) away from the capital city Abu Dhabi.
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It is located along the northern coast of the Persian Gulf on the Arabian Peninsula harjah is bordered by the cities of Dubai and Ajmān and is about 170 km (110 mi) away from the capital city Abu Dhabi.
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