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who is governor of california
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<P> Ronald Reagan, who was president of the Screen Actors Guild and later President of the United States, and Arnold Schwarzenegger both came to prominence through acting. Gray Davis, the 37th governor of California, was the second governor in American history to be recalled by voters. The shortest tenure was that of Milton Latham, who served only five days before being elected by the legislature to fill a vacant United States Senate seat <P> Jerry Brown wins fourth term as California governor. California Edmund Jerry Brown won a historic fourth term as governor of California Tuesday, sweeping his Republican opponent Neel Kashkari and vowing to use the energy that's resurrected this political. Brown was one of California's youngest governors when he won his first election in 1974, and then was re-elected for a second term in 1978. The son of former California governor Pat Brown, Jerry Brown's career — including its slumps — kept him in the limelight for most of the next four decades. <P> Contrary to the previous answer, Tom Bradley is not the first governor of California, however he was the first and only African American mayor of Los Angeles (1973-1993). … To date there has been no African American governor of California. The governor of California is elected for four (4) years with a two (2) terms as his/her term limits. He/She takes office the Monday after January 1 after their election … . <P> Edmund G. Jerry Brown, Jr., the son of former Governor Pat Brown (1959-1967), was born in San Francisco on April 7, 1938. He graduated with degrees in Latin and Greek from the University of California, Berkeley in 1961 and received a juris doctorate from Yale in 1964. <P> The current governor is Jerry Brown, a Democrat who was inaugurated January 3, 2011, and who had previously served as governor from 1975 to 1983. In October 2013 Brown surpassed Earl Warren for the longest cumulative period of time served as governor. The Lieutenant Governor of California is separately elected during the same election, not jointly as the running mate of the gubernatorial candidate. California has had a governor and a lieutenant governor of different parties 26 of the past 31 years. <P> He is the longest serving governor in California history. The Governor of California is the chief executive of the California state government, whose responsibilities include making annual State of the State addresses to the California State Legislature, submitting the budget, and ensuring that state laws are enforced. Gray Davis, the 37th governor of California, was the second governor in American history to be recalled by voters. <P> 1 Of the 38 governors who held office, seven of them were actually born in California (six of them after statehood): 2 One (Romualdo Pacheco) was born in Santa Barbara. 3 Four (George Pardee, James Rolph, Pat Brown, and Jerry Brown) were born in San Francisco. 4 One (Hiram Johnson) was born in Sacramento. The Lieutenant Governor of California is separately elected during the same election, not jointly as the running mate of the gubernatorial candidate. California has had a governor and a lieutenant governor of different parties 26 of the past 31 years. <P> Edmund G. Jerry Brown. This website is a tribute to the individuals who have served as chief executive of the State of California from the birth of the state in 1849 to the present. Our state's governors lead the largest state in the union and their political influence reaches beyond the borders of the state. Welcome to the Governors' Gallery! <P> SACRAMENTO-Governor Edmund G. Brown Jr. today joined forces with an unprecedented alliance of heads of state, city and state leaders-convened by the World Bank Group and International Monetary Fund-to urge countries and companies around the globe to put a price on carbon. <P> Confidence votes 20.5K. The current Governor of California is Jerry Brown (D). Brown assumed office as the 39th Governor of California on January 3, 2011. He was previously the 34th governor. His term will expire on January 5, 2015. The governor of California is elected for four (4) years with a two (2) terms as his/her term limits. He/She takes office the Monday after January 1 after their election … .
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Jerry Brown
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what food is magnesium in
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<P> Other legumes rich in magnesium include black beans, kidney beans, white beans, chickpeas, black-eyed peas, and lentils. 1 Avocado Loaded with multivitamins, heart-healthy nutrients, and disease-thwarting chemical compounds, avocados are one of the most nutritious and versatile produce picks around. 1 Other nuts and seeds high in magnesium include almonds, sunflower seeds, Brazil nuts, cashews, pine nuts, flaxseed, and pecans. <P> It's not that these foods are good magnesium sources, just that we eat (or drink) a lot of them. Diets rich in green leafy vegetables, legumes, nuts, and seeds —and to a lesser extent, whole grains —would be the best way for you to limit your risk of having magnesium deficiency. A likely reason for this deficient magnesium intake is the tendency of the average U.S. diet to focus predominantly on heavily processed convenience foods at the expense of the green leafy vegetables, nuts and seeds, and legumes that are among our best food sources of the mineral. <P> Basic Description. Magnesium is a key mineral in human metabolism, and found in small to medium amounts in many of the World's Healthiest Foods. Vegetables (especially green leafy ones), nuts and seeds, and legumes are your best WHFoods sources for magnesium. A likely reason for this deficient magnesium intake is the tendency of the average U.S. diet to focus predominantly on heavily processed convenience foods at the expense of the green leafy vegetables, nuts and seeds, and legumes that are among our best food sources of the mineral. <P> Magnesium is widely distributed in plant and animal foods and in beverages. Green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, legumes, nuts, seeds, and whole grains, are good sources [ 1, 3 ]. In general, foods containing dietary fiber provide magnesium. Magnesium is also added to some breakfast cereals and other fortified foods. Some types of food processing, such as refining grains in ways that remove the nutrient-rich germ and bran, lower magnesium content substantially [ 1 ]. Selected food sources of magnesium are listed in Table 2 <P> Magnesium, an abundant mineral in the body, is naturally present in many foods, added to other food products, available as a dietary supplement, and present in some medicines (such as antacids and laxatives). In general, foods containing dietary fiber provide magnesium. Magnesium is also added to some breakfast cereals and other fortified foods. Some types of food processing, such as refining grains in ways that remove the nutrient-rich germ and bran, lower magnesium content substantially [ 1 ]. <P> Magnesium is found naturally in many foods and is added to some fortified foods. You can get recommended amounts of magnesium by eating a variety of foods, including the following: 1 Legumes, nuts, seeds, whole grains, and green leafy vegetables (such as spinach). 2 Fortified breakfast cereals and other fortified foods. 3 Milk, yogurt, and some other milk products. <P> The sources of magnesium include food, water, and supplements. While clearly a “good” source of magnesium is one that is readily available and easily absorbed, most experts recommend a combination of sources, taking advantage of both dietary magnesium and absorbable magnesium supplements. Traditionally, foods highest in magnesium content are green vegetables, whole grain cereals, nuts and beans, and seafood. According to USDA food charts (see a complete chart of magnesium rich foods), the five foods with the highest magnesium per typical serving are: 1 Halibut. 2 Mackeral. 3 Boiled spinach. 4 Bran breakfast cereal. <P> Try to include as many foods rich in magnesium in your diet as possible, and supplement the shortfall with AlgaeCal, a natural source of magnesium, calcium and many other minerals you need. Below is a list of foods that are a good source of magnesium. List of Magnesium Rich Foods. Magnesium Rich Food Sources. Green vegetables such as spinach are good sources of magnesium because the center of the chlorophyll molecule (which gives green vegetables their color) contains magnesium. Some beans, peas, nuts, seeds, and whole, unrefined grains are also good sources of magnesium. You should note that refined grains are generally low in magnesium. When white flour is processed, the magnesium rich germ and bran are removed
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Green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, legumes, nuts, seeds, and whole grains.
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what is the function of a stroma
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<P> The stroma of a plant is the region outside of the thylakoid space. This serves two functions in the both the light-dependent and light-independent (Calvin cycle) reactions. <P> A stroma is the connective, part of a cell, organ or tissue. The function of a stroma is to hold the cell, organ, or tissue together and help it maintain form. Edit. Share to: Answered. <P> As a result, the H+ ions need to diffuse into the stroma. In order to do this, the ions must travel through an enzyme known as ATP synthase. Once it does, the movement of H+ ions through ATP synthase into the stroma provides energy for ADP to become ATP. The ATP formed is an energy source to power the Calvin cycle. Now, the light-independent (Calvin cycle) reactions occur in <P> Stroma Function. Photosynthesis, the food making process of plants, uses light energy in order to create sugar or starch from water (H 2 O) and carbon dioxide (CO 2). <P> I think you mean 'Stroma'. Stroma can refer to two things in Biology. Stroma is the fluid inside chloroplasts, the site of photosynthesis in all plant cells. It is also, however, the framework (like a skeleton) inside any biological tissue, cell or organ. <P> Stroma Function. Most of the enzymes essential in the process of photosynthesis are normally embedded in the stroma and in the thylakoid membranes. The stroma is the fluid-filled space that is surrounding the grana, and is also involved in the synthesis of organic molecules from water and carbon dioxide. After the thylakoids, the process of producing starch or sugar moves out to the stroma. <P> A stroma is the connective, part of a cell, organ or tissue. The function of a stroma is to hold the cell, organ, or tissue together and help it maintain form. Edit. Share to: Answered.
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A stroma is the connective, part of a cell, organ or tissue. The function of a stroma is to hold the cell, organ, or tissue together and help it maintain form.
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what is thalassemia intermedia quizlet
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<P> Definition. Thalassemia (thal-uh-SEE-me-uh) is an inherited blood disorder characterized by less hemoglobin and fewer red blood cells in your body than normal. Several types of thalassemia exist, including alpha-thalassemia, beta-thalassemia intermedia, Cooley's anemia and Mediterranean anemia. <P> Alpha thalassemia intermedia, or HbH disease, causes hemolysis and severe anemia. Alpha thalassemia major with Hb Bart’s causes nonimmune hydrops fetalis in utero, which is almost always fatal.With multiple blood transfusions and continued absorption of intestinal iron, iron overload develops. <P> The thalassemias are a group of inherited hematologic disorders caused by defects in the synthesis of one or more of the hemoglobin chains. Alpha thalassemia is caused by reduced or absent synthesis of alpha globin chains, and beta thalas-semia is caused by reduced or absent synthesis of beta <P> The diagnosis of thalassemia intermedia is purely clinical and is usually made after a period of observation to determine that the patient is able to maintain a satisfactory hemoglobin (Hb) level for a long time without the need for blood transfusions. <P> Thalassemia is a blood disorder passed down through families (inherited) in which the body makes an abnormal form of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. The disorder results in excessive destruction of red blood cells, which leads to anemia. <P> Alpha thalassemia intermedia, or hemoglobin H disease, causes hemolytic anemia. Alpha thalassemia major with hemoglobin Bart’s usually results in fatal hydrops fetalis. Beta thalassemia major causes hemolytic anemia, poor growth, and skeletal abnormalities during infancy. <P> Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder. People with Thalassemia disease are not able to make enough hemoglobin, which causes severe anemia. Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells and carries oxygen to all parts of the body. When there is not enough hemoglobin in the red blood cells, oxygen cannot get
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Thalassemia (thal-uh-SEE-me-uh) is an inherited blood disorder characterized by less hemoglobin and fewer red blood cells in your body than normal.
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what is a giraffe kingdom
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<P> Taxonomy. The modern day giraffe (Giraffa camelopardalis), an even toed ungulate (the same as cattle, camels, sheep, goats and even hippopotamus – but not horses), is the world’s tallest animal and largest ruminant (animals that partly digest their food and then regurgitate it to chew as ‘cud’). But is there just one ‘giraffe species’ or are there many? It is widely accepted that there are a number of (sub)species of G. camelopardalis though there is increasing evidence to suggest that some of these nine (sub)species may be separate species in their own right. <P> Tallest animal. Giraffes are the tallest living animals in the world, according to the Smithsonian National Zoological Park. A giraffe's neck alone is 6 feet (1.8 meters) long and weighs about 600 lbs. (272 kilograms). The animal's legs are also 6 feet long. In full, females grow up to 14 feet (4.3 m) tall and weigh up to 1,500 lbs. (680 kg), while males grow up to 18 feet (5.5 m) tall and weigh up to 3,000 lbs. <P> Female giraffes become sexually mature around 3 or 4 years old. The gestation or pregnancy period for a female giraffe is about 14 - 15 months. A female giraffe will give birth to a calf that stands about 6 feet tall and weighs approximately 150 lbs. Giraffes use their long necks to reach for leaves high in trees. They only have seven vertebrae in their necks, the same as humans. Not many animals will attack adult giraffes, but young giraffes may be attacked by lions, leopards, hyenas and other predators. Giraffes were at one time believed to be a combination of a camel and a leopard. The species name camelopardalis is derived from this mistake. <P> The giraffe's scattered range extends from Chad in the north to South Africa in the south, and from Niger in the west to Somalia in the east. Giraffes usually inhabit savannas, grasslands, and open woodlands. The giraffe has an extremely elongated neck, which can be up to 2 m (6 ft 7 in) in length, accounting for much of the animal's vertical height. The long neck results from a disproportionate lengthening of the cervical vertebrae, not from the addition of more vertebrae. Each cervical vertebra is over 28 cm (11 in) long. <P> Giraffe Manor in Nairobi, a popular hotel, which also serves as a sanctuary for Rothschild giraffes. The giraffe is a protected species in most of its range. The Biggest Animals Kingdom | Giraffe | Giraffe has its first origin of the name known in the Arabic words Zarafa (زرافہ), probably some African languages. species name is the Latin word for giraffe. Located on both sides of the head, a big giraffe, rolling his eyes to teach him a panoramic view from a great height. Giraffes see in color, and their hearing and smell are also sharp. Prehensile tongue giraffe is about 50 cm (20 inches). The upper lip is a giraffe, a tenacious and is useful when searching for food. <P> Not many animals will attack adult giraffes, but young giraffes will be attacked by lions, leopards, hyenas and other predators. The giraffe was long believed to be a combination of a camel and a leopard. The species name camelopardalis is derived from this mistake. 1 N ot many animals will attack adult giraffes, but young giraffes will be attacked by lions, leopards, hyenas and other predators. 2 T he giraffe was long believed to be a combination of a camel and a leopard. 3 <P> The giraffe's prehensile tongue is about 50 cm (20 in) long. It is purplish-black in colour, perhaps to protect against sunburn, and is useful for grasping foliage, as well as for grooming and cleaning the animal's nose. The upper lip of the giraffe is also prehensile and useful when foraging. The giraffe has an extremely elongated neck, which can be up to 2 m (6 ft 7 in) in length, accounting for much of the animal's vertical height. The long neck results from a disproportionate lengthening of the cervical vertebrae, not from the addition of more vertebrae. Each cervical vertebra is over 28 cm (11 in) long. <P> kingdom: animalia phylum: chordata Class: mammalia Order: Artiodactyla Family: Giraffidae Genus: Giraffa Species: Camelopardalis. 2 people found this useful. Edit. All domestic dogs, including pitbulls, belong to the same subspecies: Kingdom: Animalia Phylum: Chordata Class: Mammalia Order: Carnivors Family: Canidae Genus: Ca … nis Species: C. lupus Subspecies: C. l. familiaris.
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The giraffe is a protected species in most of its range. The Biggest Animals Kingdom | Giraffe | Giraffe has its first origin of the name known in the Arabic words Zarafa (زرافہ), probably some African languages.species name is the Latin word for giraffe.
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what does the name barbara mean
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<P> Barbara is a female given name used in numerous languages. It is the feminine form of the Greek word barbaros (Greek: βαρβαρος) meaning foreign. In Spanish, Portuguese and Italian it means barbarian or barbaric. In Italy Barbara was particularly popular during the 1970s: it is among the top 10 names given to girls born from 1969 to 1977, rising to 2nd place (behind Maria) in 1971. In the same year it was the most common name for girls born in Rome and in Bologna. <P> Barbara is of Latin origin, and it is used mainly in the English, French, German, Hungarian, Italian, Polish, Slavic, and Spanish languages. The name is of the meaning 'foreign woman'. It is derived from barbari meaning ' foreign, stammering people' ; barbaros 'foreign, barbaric' ; barbar 'unintelligible speech'. Barbara is an all-time favorite. Currently it is still somewhat popular as a baby name for girls, though it was in more widespread use in the past. Its usage peaked in 1938 with 3.440% of baby girls being given the name Barbara. Its ranking then was #2. <P> Barbara /bar-bara/ [3 sylls.] as a girls' name is pronounced BAR-bra. It is of Latin origin, and the meaning of Barbara is foreign woman. The adjective was originally applied to anyone who did not speak Greek; it has the same root as barbarian. <P> Meaning & History. Derived from Greek βαρβαρος (barbaros) meaning foreign. According to legend, Saint Barbara was a young woman killed by her father Dioscorus, who was then killed by a bolt of lightning. She is the patron of architects, geologists, stonemasons and artillerymen. Because of her renown, the name came into general use in the Christian world in the Middle Ages. <P> Meaning of Barbara. English name. In English, the name Barbara means-From the Greek barbaros meaning foreign or strange, traveler from a foreign land. Popular in medieval Britain after the 3rd century martyr St Barbara. In Catholic custom St. Barbara is a protectress against fire and lightning.. Other origins for the name Barbara include-English, Latin-American.The name Barbara is most often used as a girl name or female name. English Name Meaning-From the Greek barbaros meaning foreign or strange, traveler from a foreign land. Popular in medieval Britain after the 3rd century martyr St Barbara <P> English Meaning: The name Barbara is an English baby name. In English the meaning of the name Barbara is: From the Greek barbaros meaning foreign or strange, traveler from a foreign land. Popular in medieval Britain after the 3rd century martyr St Barbara. American Meaning: The name Barbara is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Barbara is: From the Greek barbaros meaning foreign or strange, traveler from a foreign land. <P> What does Barbara mean, popularity, numerology and more. The name Barbara is of Latin origin. The meaning of Barbara is foreigner, stranger, traveler from a foreign land. Keep in mind how popular a name is. Your child may feel that they fit in more with a more popular name. On the other hand, they may feel more special if their name is less popular and more uniquely their own. As you see it can go both ways, so just keep this point in mind as you examine the different possibilities.
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From the Greek barbaros meaning foreign or strange, traveler from a foreign land.
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experiment calculating how much sugar is in soda
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<P> 1 Repeat step 6 for bottles with the sugar solutions, and then the sodas. 2 Now it’s time to analyze your data. 3 Using the sugar solutions as guides, calculate how many grams of sugar are in each soda and what the percentage of sugar is for each soda. <P> 1 Wash and dry the hydrometer. 2 Repeat step 6 for bottles with the sugar solutions, and then the sodas. 3 Now it’s time to analyze your data. 4 Using the sugar solutions as guides, calculate how many grams of sugar are in each soda and what the percentage of sugar is for each soda. <P> If the jar weighs 7 ounces, add 7 to the amount of sugar in the can of soda: 7 + 35 = 42. Spoon sugar one teaspoon at a time into the glass jar until the scale reads 42 ounces. Take a good look at how much sugar is in the glass jar. Pour the same amount of water into the measuring cup as there was soda earlier. <P> How much sugar in soda? By Marshall Brain http://youtube.com/watch?v=F10EyGwd57M http://video.google.com/videoplay?docid=-2156528875761294002 In the video, we looked at a can of soda and we measured out how much sugar there is in the can. For example, the can of soda in the video contained 39 grams of sugar. <P> Not every sugar packet is the same size, but almost all of the sugar packets you'll see in the United States contain 4 grams of sugar. And those 4 grams of sugar have 15 calories. That means there's 10 packets of sugar in a can of soda. And at 15 calories per packet, that means that all 150 calories are from the sugar. <P> So how much sugar is there really in that can of Coke or Pepsi you’re drinking? Probably a lot. Watch this science experiment video and see a few different ways you can find out the amount of sugar you’re drinking in your soda or fruit juice. The answers might surprise you, luckily there’s always water as an alternative.
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10 packets
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what does a microdermabrasion facial involve
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<P> Perhaps the best benefit of microdermabrasion is the deep cleaning of pores. After the dead skin is removed from the skin, oils and dirt are literally sucked out. Pores that have been held open by this debris stay large for a while, then shrink down. Microdermabrasion is basically a high-tech facial. It cleans the skin and decreases acne in adults and adolescents. It allows creams and peels to penetrate more effectively. When the skin is pretreated with microdermabrasion, a 35% glycolic acid peel penetrates like a 70% peel. The result is dramatic. <P> Microdermabrasion is a skin care technique that removes uneven outer layer of the skin, vacuuming the dead cells, leaving behind a smoother texture that promotes growth of healthy newer cells. The Microdermabrasion treatment helps to thicken skin collagen. Collagen is a protein in the skin that makes the skin taut and smooth resulting in younger looking complexion. It is abundant in children. With the advancement of age the amount of collagen decreases making skill look dull and uneven. <P> Microdermabrasion Treatment involves using oxide micro crystals that gently sandblasts your skin leaving it renewed, healthy and glowing. It also stimulates collagen production, helping your skin to rejuvenate faster than normal. Microdermabrasion is a mechanical exfoliation treatment that treats the uppermost layer of dead skin cells from face, chest or hands. It is an effective, non-surgical way to treat acne, wrinkles or uneven skin tones by ex-foliating the top layers of skin using a non-surgical and un-invasive treatment. <P> Microdermabrasion uses a minimally abrasive instrument—either microparticles or a diamond-tipped wand—to gently buff the skin, removing the topmost layer. A vacuum then sucks up the exfoliated skin cells. Altogether, the process helps boost collagen production. <P> According to Wikipedia, Microdermabrasion is. …also referred to as mechanical exfoliation or micro-resurfacing, microdermabrasion is a method for facial rejuvenation that uses a mechanical medium for exfoliation along with adjustable suction to remove away the outermost layer of dead skin cells from the epidermis. The tube also vacuums back dead skin cells and used micro crystals. The crystal flow starts as soon as the microderm abrasion wand touches your skin. The doctor slowly moves the wand across your entire face and not just on treated areas, so that you don’t experience inconsistence in skin texture or color. <P> A: Microdermabrasion is an effective, non-surgical way to get rid of fine wrinkles and sunspots by exfoliating the top layers of the skin. No chemicals or laser beams are used, only aluminum oxide micro crystals that gently sandblast your skin, leaving it smooth and fresh. <P> Microdermabsion is a cosmetic procedure performed on the skin where the outer layer of the skin is removed by exfoliation to reveal the inner layers of the skin, leaving the skin looking vibrant and healthy. The Microdermabrasion treatment helps to thicken skin collagen. Collagen is a protein in the skin that makes the skin taut and smooth resulting in younger looking complexion. It is abundant in children. With the advancement of age the amount of collagen decreases making skill look dull and uneven. <P> The skin is first cleansed with special cleansing gel.A Handheld device is then used.Microdermabrasion with diamond tips abrades the dead skin cells, leaving skin clean and smooth. Dermabrasion treatment is a mechanical procedure that uses a power driver handheld device to remove the outer layers of the skin. The Microdermabrasion treatment helps to thicken skin collagen. Collagen is a protein in the skin that makes the skin taut and smooth resulting in younger looking complexion. It is abundant in children. With the advancement of age the amount of collagen decreases making skill look dull and uneven. <P> Microdermabrasion is basically a cosmetic procedure to make the skin radiant while dermabrasion is a surgical procedure to remove deep scars and other imperfections on the skin. The Microdermabrasion treatment helps to thicken skin collagen. Collagen is a protein in the skin that makes the skin taut and smooth resulting in younger looking complexion. It is abundant in children. With the advancement of age the amount of collagen decreases making skill look dull and uneven. <P> Microdermabrasion is a form of mechanical skin exfoliation – it works by using a hand held wand that is tipped with crystals or diamond chips to create a sandblasting effect on the skin. This takes off the top layer (Stratum Corneum) of the skin and its dead skin cells.
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It uses a mechanical medium for exfoliation along with adjustable suction to remove away the outermost layer of dead skin cells from the epidermis.
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what is letter of portability
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<P> One of the most important protections under HIPAA is that it helps those with preexisting conditions get health coverage. In the past, some employers' group health plans limited, or even denied, coverage if a new employee had such a condition before enrolling in the plan. Under HIPAA, that is not allowed. This employee has 8 months of creditable coverage. His earlier 2 years of health coverage are not creditable because he had a break in coverage that was more than the 63 days allowed under the law. His preexisting condition exclusion will last 4 months after he enrolls in the employer's health plan. <P> Portability in insurance means the ability to keep important coverage if you move from one employer to another. Portability can be applied to any kind of insurance offered through employment, including disability, life insurance and health insurance. Portable health insurance has been in effect since the passage of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996. Under this law, someone changing employers and applying for coverage under a new group plan cannot be excluded due to preexisting health conditions. <P> The primary purpose of an Estate Closing Letter is to affirm that the estate tax return is being accepted as filed, and that the estate is not going to be audited by the IRS (and thus it is also known as an “Estate Tax Closing Letter”). An Estate Closing Letter is the formal letter issued by the IRS after a Form 706 Estate Tax Return has been reviewed and accepted by the IRS. (Many states that have a state estate or inheritance tax will have a state-issued estate closing letter as well.). <P> A portable application (portable app), sometimes also called standalone, is a program designed to run on a compatible computer without being installed in a way that modifies the computer's configuration information. <P> In fact, the primary alternatives to receiving an estate closing letter are a notification that the estate is being audited for a potential estate tax assessment, and/or a Statutory Notice of Deficiency (also known as an SND, or a 90-Day Notice) if the IRS has a specific concern about something reported on the Form 706. An Estate Closing Letter is the formal letter issued by the IRS after a Form 706 Estate Tax Return has been reviewed and accepted by the IRS. (Many states that have a state estate or inheritance tax will have a state-issued estate closing letter as well.). <P> Doing so will delay or cancel this transfer. Telecom LETTER OF AUTHORIZATION LOCAL NUMBER PORTABILITY ALL FIELDS ARE REQUIRED The name (business name, your name, spouse’s name, etc.) entered below MUST appear exactly as is does on your current carriers’ billing statement. By signing below, I also authorize Fast Break Tech Telecom or its designated agent to obtain billing information, customer service records, and other network information required to provide me with FBT Telecom service. I understand that I may consult with FBT Telecom as to whether a fee will apply to the change. <P> YES NO 8 people found this helpful. “ John Smith decided to invest a large percentage of his income to ABC Company's 401k because the portability of the plan made it easy for him switch it to another plan if he decided to change jobs. ”. URL to this page: http://www.investorwords.com/3739/portability.html. Copyright © 2015 by WebFinance, Inc. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. Reproduction of all or part of this glossary, in any format, without the written consent of WebFinance, Inc. is prohibited. <P> Definition of PORTABILITY. 1. : the quality or state of being portable. 2. : the transferability of a worker's benefits from one pension fund to another when the worker changes jobs. <P> The code that is written for this software will need to have excellent portability to be compatible with all the current office hardware. 3 people found this helpful. <P> Dear Sir or Madam: This letter is written in regards to the I-485 application for adjustment of status filed on my behalf. I obtained my Employment Authorization Document (EAD) on [Date]. I began employment with another company, [XYZ company], as an [job title] on [date], 10 months after I filed for my I-485 application.
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the ability to keep important coverage if you move from one employer to another.
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what is soy in food
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<P> A. Yes. Soy foods offer many health benefits. Soy is a good source of protein, but unlike many other protein-rich foods, it's low in saturated fats and contains no cholesterol. The fat in soy is predominantly unsaturated, which does not raise blood cholesterol. Most consumers are aware of soyfoods, and many Americans have tried them <P> Soy is a legume and can be found in multiple forms such as soybean, soy flour, soy oil, soy seasoning, and soy protein. Soy is a common “hidden” food additive. This allergy mostly occurs during infancy and is usually outgrown by age 5. Soy allergy is less severe than other allergies but in rare cases it can cause a severe reaction called anaphylaxis. <P> In foods, soy is used as a milk substitute in infant feeding formulas, and as an alternative to cow's milk. Soybeans are eaten boiled or roasted. Soy flour is used as an ingredient in foods, beverages, and condiments. Consuming foods containing soy protein or taking soy protein products is LIKELY SAFE. Taking dietary supplements with soy extracts is POSSIBLY SAFE when used short-term (up to 6 months). Soy can cause some mild side effects such as constipation, bloating, and nausea. <P> SOY Overview Information. Soy comes from soybeans. The beans can be processed into soy protein, which is a powder; soymilk, which is a beverage that may or may not be fortified with extra calcium from the soybeans; or soy fiber, which contains some of the fibrous parts of the bean. Consuming foods containing soy protein or taking soy protein products is LIKELY SAFE. Taking dietary supplements with soy extracts is POSSIBLY SAFE when used short-term (up to 6 months). Soy can cause some mild side effects such as constipation, bloating, and nausea. <P> Story at-a-glance 1 +. Many health “experts” and the media tout unfermented soy products (tofu, soymilk, soy cheese, etc.) as being good for you, but in actuality, the risk of consuming them far outweighs the benefits. 2 Soy has many potent hormones that can wreak havoc with your health. Soybeans are processed (by acid washing) in aluminum tanks, which can leach high levels of aluminum into the final soy product. Soy formula has up to 80 times higher manganese than is found in human breast milk. 1 Soy infant formula puts your baby's health at risk. <P> Soy protein is a protein that is isolated from soybean. It is made from soybean meal that has been dehulled and defatted. Dehulled and defatted soybeans are processed into three kinds of high protein commercial products: soy flour, concentrates, and isolates. <P> Traditional nonfermented food uses of soybeans include soy milk, and from the latter tofu and tofu skin. Fermented foods include soy sauce, fermented bean paste, natto, and tempeh, among others. The oil is used in many industrial applications. Common forms of soy (or soya) include soy meal, soy flour, soy milk, tofu, textured vegetable protein (TVP, which is made into a wide variety of vegetarian foods, some of them intended to imitate meat), tempeh, soy lecithin and soybean oil. <P> 1 Many health “experts” and the media tout unfermented soy products (tofu, soymilk, soy cheese, etc.) as being good for you, but in actuality, the risk of consuming them far outweighs the benefits. 2 Soy has many potent hormones that can wreak havoc with your health. Soybeans are processed (by acid washing) in aluminum tanks, which can leach high levels of aluminum into the final soy product. Soy formula has up to 80 times higher manganese than is found in human breast milk. 1 Soy infant formula puts your baby's health at risk. <P> Soy refers to products such as soy milk, cheese, yogurt, tofu, ice cream, nut butters, and other foods are all made from soybeans. Soy foods have recently become more popular in the United States, although people in Asia have eaten soybeans for hundreds of years. Soy flour. Soy flour is made from ground roasted soybeans. Soy flour can be added to baked goods to add protein. However, soy flour cannot be used in place of all of the flour in a recipe because it doesn’t have gluten, which is a protein needed to help dough rise. <P> Many foods containing soy — such as tofu, soy meat alternatives, soy sauce, soy flour and soybean oil — can be found in supermarkets as well as natural, health and Asian food stores.
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It is a good source of protein. It is include soy meal, soy flour, soy milk, tofu, textured vegetable protein (TVP, which is made into a wide variety of vegetarian foods.
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where did the maya live
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<P> The ancient Mayans lived in what is now known as southern Mexico and northern Central America including Guatemala, Belize, Honduras, Yucatan Yucatán peninsula And El. Salvador their descendants still live there, today and many of them speak The mayan. languages The ancient Mayans lived in what is now known as southern Mexico and northern Central America including Guatemala, Belize, Honduras, Yucatan Yucatán peninsula And El. salvador <P> Best Answer: They still live as far north as the Yucatan Peninsula (Mexico), down through Central America, particularly around Honduras, El Salvador, Belize and Guatemala. Mayans did NOT live in Peru (those were the Incas) and they did NOT live in Mexico City or central Mexico (those were the Aztecs). This is not to say there weren't any individuals living there, but these were major Indian forces that although may have shared some similarities (in our eyes), they had different beliefs. <P> Report Abuse. The ancient Mayans lived in what is now known as southern Mexico and northern Central America including Guatemala, Belize, Honduras, and El Salvador. Their descendants still live there today, and many of them speak the Mayan languages. Over 1,000,000 Mayans live in Chiapas -- mostly in the highlands area. Best Answer: In Classic times, the Maya occupied much the same territory that they do today: All of the Yucatan yucatán, Peninsula, guatemala And, belize plus neighboring: areas the eastern half Of tabasco And, chiapas and the northwest regions Of honduras And El. salvador <P> The Maya people lived (and still live today) in Honduras, El Salvador, Yucatan, Belize, Guatemala and the Campeche area of southern Mexico. The heartland is around Yaxchilan a … nd Tikal in Guatemala. Today there are around three million Mayas speaking 30 dialects which all evolved from Classic Mayan. <P> Maya Indians. The Maya Indians were a group of early people who lived in regions from Central America to Mexico. They were a vast and large group and well civilized. The Maya Indians early culture and forms of learning have fascinated archaeologists, Sociologists, and Anthropologists. <P> “Millions of Maya people live in Central America and throughout the world. The Maya are not a single entity, a single community, or a single ethnic group. They speak many languages including Mayan languages (Yucatec, Quiche, Kekchi and Mopan), Spanish and English. <P> By 1542, the Spahish established a Viceroyalty of Peru. The Maya. The Maya Civilization lived in Central America, including south Mexico, Belize, Guatemala, El Salvador and Honduras between 2500 BCE and 1500 CE. The Classic Maya Civilization 250-900 CE developed a hieroglyphic writing system. <P> The Maya. Today, more than seven million Maya live in their original homelands of Mesoamerica and in countries all over the world. Two thousand years ago, the ancient Maya developed one of the most advanced civilizations in the Americas.
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Southern Mexico and northern Central America
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how to find your inner self
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<P> find your inner self. You will find exclusive services that will renew your mind and body like: kundalini yoga, hatha yoga, holistic massage, reflexology, ayurvedic massage, crystals therapy, shiatsu, temazcal, reiki and facials. <P> If you have never given much thought about your inner self, it is likely you have become defined a lot by your identities. It is common for people to see themselves as a certain role, such as a friend, partner, employee, son/daughter, and so on. Some spend their whole lives building themselves around such <P> Your inner self is who you really are on the inside. To know your inner self is to know your purpose, your values, your visions, your motivations, your goals and your beliefs. Not as what you have been told by others, but what you have discovered for yourself. Knowing your inner self requires a high level of introspection and self-awareness. <P> It can be trying working out the person you really are and what you believe in. For some people, this is as clear as day but for others, it can take years of striving before you feel good in your own skin. This article provides some ideas for beginning that journey to uncovering your inner self. <P> Here's a three step formula to teach you how to find your passion. Discover your inner self and get rich at the same time! http://www.earnmoneyearn.org. 1 City Lights by Freeplay Music, Larry Buksbaun & Scott P. Schreer (iTunes). 2 People & Blogs. 3 Standard YouTube License.
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Know your purpose, your values, your visions, your motivations, your goals and your beliefs. Not as what you have been told by others, but what you have discovered for yourself.
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what was pepsi called when it first came out
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<P> The first Pepsi-Cola newspaper advertisements appeared in the New Bern Weekly Journal. 1903 - Doc Bradham moves the bottling of Pepsi-Cola from his drugstore into a rented warehouse; he sells 7,968 gallons of syrup in the first year of operation. 1898 - One of Caleb's formulations, known as Brad's Drink, a combination of carbonated water, sugar, vanilla, rare oils and cola nuts, is renamed Pepsi-Cola on August 28, 1898. Pepsi-Cola receives its first logo. <P> In September 2012 Pepsi launched a new product called Pepsi Next which contains 30% less sugar and added Stevia as a zero calorie sweetener. The product was rolled out in Australia and was launched in the US on February 27, 2013. The original trademark application for Pepsi-Cola was filed on September 23, 1902 with registration approved on June 16, 1903. In the application's statement, Caleb Bradham describes the trademark, and indicated that the mark was in continuous use for his business since August 1, 1901. <P> When we think of Pepsi, we envision a red, white and blue circle, waving like a flag. But a version of the iconic logo that we now attribute to the soda didn't exist until over 50 years after the company's conception. Initially dubbed Brad's Drink, Pepsi was created in 1893 by a pharmacist named Caleb Bradham. It was renamed Pepsi-Cola, a title that was trademarked in 1903. Although the brand's name hasn't changed since, its logo has undergone a number of tweaks and major revamps <P> In 1903, Bradham moved the bottling of Pepsi-Cola from his drugstore to a rented warehouse. That year, Bradham sold 7,968 gallons of syrup. The next year, Pepsi was sold in six-ounce bottles, and sales increased to 19,848 gallons. The original trademark application for Pepsi-Cola was filed on September 23, 1902 with registration approved on June 16, 1903. In the application's statement, Caleb Bradham describes the trademark, and indicated that the mark was in continuous use for his business since August 1, 1901. <P> The drink Pepsi was first introduced as Brad's Drink in New Bern, North Carolina, United States, in 1893 by Caleb Bradham, who made it at his drugstore where the drink was sold. It was renamed Pepsi Cola in 1898, named after the digestive enzyme pepsin and kola nuts used in the recipe. The original trademark application for Pepsi-Cola was filed on September 23, 1902 with registration approved on June 16, 1903. In the application's statement, Caleb Bradham describes the trademark, and indicated that the mark was in continuous use for his business since August 1, 1901. <P> The jingle was Nickel Nickel an advertisement for Pepsi Cola that referred to the price of Pepsi and the quantity for that price Nickel Nickel became a hit record and was recorded into fifty-five languages. 1941 - The New York Stock Exchange trades Pepsi's stock for the first time. The first Pepsi-Cola newspaper advertisements appeared in the New Bern Weekly Journal. 1903 - Doc Bradham moves the bottling of Pepsi-Cola from his drugstore into a rented warehouse; he sells 7,968 gallons of syrup in the first year of operation. <P> PepsiCo's Beginnings. PepsiCo, Inc. was established through the merger of Pepsi-Cola and Frito-Lay. Pepsi-Cola was created in the late 1890s by Caleb Bradham, a New Bern, N.C. pharmacist. Frito-Lay, Inc. was formed by the 1961 merger of the Frito Company, founded by Elmer Doolin in 1932, and the H. W. Lay Company, founded by Herman W. Lay, also in 1932 <P> His most popular beverage was something he called Brad's drink made of carbonated water, sugar, vanilla, rare oils, pepsin and cola nuts. One of Caleb's formulations, known as Brad's drink, created in the summer of 1893, was later renamed Pepsi Cola after the pepsin and cola nuts used in the recipe. In 1898, Caleb Bradham wisely bought the trade name Pep Cola for $100 from a competitor from Newark, New Jersey that had gone broke. The new name was trademarked on June 16th, 1903. Bradham's neighbor, an artist designed the first Pepsi logo and ninety-seven shares of stock for Bradham's new company were issued. The first Pepsi-Cola newspaper advertisements appeared in the New Bern Weekly Journal. 1903 - Doc Bradham moves the bottling of Pepsi-Cola from his drugstore into a rented warehouse; he sells 7,968 gallons of syrup in the first year of operation. <P> The business began to grow, and on June 16, 1903, Pepsi-Cola became an official trademark. By 1904, the Pepsi-Cola Syrup sales reached almost 20,000 gallons. As demand for the drink continued to rise, Bradham decided it was time to offer Pepsi-Cola in bottles. By 1910 there were 240 franchises in 24 states and that year the Pepsi-Cola Company held their first Bottler Convention in New Bern. 1898 - One of Caleb's formulations, known as Brad's Drink, a combination of carbonated water, sugar, vanilla, rare oils and cola nuts, is renamed Pepsi-Cola on August 28, 1898. Pepsi-Cola receives its first logo.
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Brad's Drink.
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x-men wolverine daughter
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<P> Wild Thing (Rina Logan) is a fictional character from Marvel Comics, who exists in the MC2 universe, an alternate future to the Marvel Universe. She is the daughter of the X-Men 's Wolverine and the rogue mercenary Elektra. She first appeared in J2 #5 and was created by Tom DeFalco and Ron Lim. An unrelated character named Wild Thing, who fought crime in a future virtual reality world, had her own brief series under the Marvel UK imprint in 1993. <P> Wild Thing (comics). From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. Wild Thing (Rina Logan) is a fictional character from Marvel Comics, who exists in the MC2 universe, an alternate future to the Marvel Universe. She is the daughter of the X-Men 's Wolverine and the rogue mercenary Elektra. She first appeared in J2 #5 and was created by Tom DeFalco and Ron Lim. An unrelated character named Wild Thing, who fought crime in a future virtual reality world, had her own brief series under the Marvel UK imprint in 1993. <P> Cloned from a damaged copy of Wolverine's genome, X-23 was created to be the perfect killing machine. For years, she proved herself a capable assassin working for an organization called the Facility. A series of tragedies eventually lead her to Wolverine and the X-Men. <P> Age: 15. Species: Mutant. Mutation: One Claw in each hand but can extand out to 2' long if she wants, Healing, Once she hits 25 she never ages, Super human senses, and can conrol somone through physical contact(gained from her mother). Mother: It's a surprise. <P> Tribute to the father/daughter relationship between Wolverine and Jubilee. :D. The girl in the video plays Jubilation Lee in the Generation X movie. <P> X-23 (Laura Kinney) is a fictional comic book superheroine appearing books published by Marvel Comics, most commonly in association with the X-Men. She was originally created by writer Craig Kyle for the X-Men: Evolution animated series before debuting in the NYX comic series in 2004.
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Wild Thing (Rina Logan)
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what is difference between university and college
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<P> Many people assume that college refers to a private institution and a university refers to a state-funded school. Other people may think that a university provides a better education than a college. In reality, the difference between a college and a university is much more difficult to define. If you are interested in learning more about the difference between a college, community college and junior college, check out the U.S. Department of Education’s Federal Student Aid. <P> The Difference Between a College and a University. In a global context, the words “college” and “university” can inspire confusion. Different countries use the same words to name different things. What is usually called a “college” in Europe is really more like the two-year institution called a “community college” in the United States. <P> A university is an institution that offers undergraduate and graduate degrees. Universities offer graduate programs leading to a master’s degree or a Ph.D. These institutions also may have a medical or law school for students wishing to pursue professional degrees. If you are interested in learning more about the difference between a college, community college and junior college, check out the U.S. Department of Education’s Federal Student Aid. <P> The difference between a college and university can depend very much on where someone lives. In many cases in the US, colleges refer to schools that offer four-year advanced education only, and an institution which does not typically offer more than a bachelor’s degree. <P> The difference between a college and a university is that a college just offers a collection of degrees in one specific area while a university is a collection of colleges. When you go to a university you are going to be graduating from one of their colleges, such as the business college. 1 The main difference between a college and a university is that the university maintains research requirements for its instructors and that the university is, in essence, a more research-focused institution. 2 A college can offer many majors with which to direct your studies <P> 1 4) Last point, in answer to The difference between a college and a university is that a college just offers a collection of degrees in one specific area, while a university is a collection of colleges: Universities contain colleges and universities offer the degree. 1 The main difference between a college and a university is that the university maintains research requirements for its instructors and that the university is, in essence, a more research-focused institution. 2 A college can offer many majors with which to direct your studies <P> University vs College. The difference between university and college depends on the place where are located. In other words, university and college are higher education institutions that take different meanings depending on where they are located. All of the countries agree on what a university is <P> University vs College. The difference between a college and a university is that generally a college offers set of degrees in one specific area whereas a university has a collection of colleges. Most of the time, universities are well known and they are larger than colleges. The difference between both college and university varies between the USA and the rest of the world. In USA, universities are larger and have many colleges within them. UK-a university can provides degree, colleges usually depends on a fully-fledged university validating its degre
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The difference between a college and a university is that generally a college offers set of degrees in one specific area whereas a university has a collection of colleges.
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metalloids definition
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<P> Definition of Metalloid. this term is no longer commonly used by chemists, however, it refers to elements that exhibit some properties of metals and nonmetals. These elements tend to be semiconductors. Silicon is an extremely important example of these elements. <P> metalloid. Noun. (plural metalloids). ( 1 chemistry) An element, such as silicon or germanium, intermediate in properties between that of a metal and a nonmetal; especially one that exhibits the external characteristics of a metal, but behaves chemically more as a nonmetal. <P> Wiktionary (0.00 / 0 votes) Rate this definition: metalloid (Noun). An element, such as silicon or germanium, intermediate in properties between that of a metal and a nonmetal; especially one that exhibits the external characteristics of a metal, but behaves chemically more as a nonmetal. <P> Elements in the periodic table are grouped as metals, metalloids or semimetals, and nonmetals. The metalloids separate the metals and nonmetals on a periodic table. Also, many periodic table have a stair-step line on the table identifying the element groups. <P> Metalloid Definition: an element with properties intermediate between those of a metal and nonmetal. Metalloids may also be defined according to their location on the Periodic Table. <P> Definition of METALLOID. 1. : an element intermediate in properties between the typical metals and nonmetals. 2. : a nonmetal that can combine with a metal to form an alloy. See metalloid defined for kids. ADVERTISEMENT.
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An element intermediate in properties between the typical metals and nonmetals.
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neutrophil normal ranges
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<P> An abnormal low level of neutrophilis cells is called neutropenia. The number of neutrophils cells in the blood is measured by the absolute neutrophil number count. The neutrophils normal range is considered to be between 2500 and 6000. A number of neutrophils lower than the neutrophils normal range also increases the chances of bacterial infections. <P> The Basophils should remain within the normal range, generally between 0% and 2%. Some clinicians believe that, as in the case of neutrophils, the absolute basophil count is more important than the percentage of basophils and should fall between 0 to 0.3 k/ul. <P> It is derived by multiplying the WBC count times the percent of neutrophils in the differential WBC count. The percent of neutrophils consists of the segmented (fully mature) neutrophils) + the bands (almost mature neutrophils). The normal range for the ANC = 1.5 to 8.0 (1,500 to 8,000/mm3). WBC count: 6,000 cells/mm3 of blood. <P> Absolute neutrophil count: The real number of white blood cells (WBCs) that are neutrophils. The absolute neutrophil count is commonly called the ANC. The ANC is not measured directly. <P> Absolute neutrophil count values can be normal and abnormal. Absolute neutrophil count normal range exceeds from 2,300/mm3 in healthy person but if it is above 1,000/mm3 then it is said to be safe for treating the patient through chemotherapy. The value of absolute neutrophil count below 1,000/mm3 is said to be abnormal as it extremely increases the risk of infections. <P> The normal range of the percentage of neutrophils is between 45% and 70%. More important than the percentage of neutrophils is the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) , which should fall between 1.0 to 8.0 k/ul. <P> Neutrophils Normal Range. Blood tests may include a blood differential test that has the purpose to measure the percentage of each type of white blood cell, including the Neutrophils. This test can also reveal whether there are any immature or abnormal cells.
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Between 2500 and 6000
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contagious period for the flu if i taking tamiflu
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<P> The person who is suffering from flu can spread the infection one day before the beginning of the symptoms and remains contagious for five to six days after the flu symptoms develop. People who have weak immune system and children are known to remain contagious for more than a week. <P> Tamiflu is a prescription medicine used to treat the flu (influenza) in people 2 weeks of age and older who have had flu symptoms for no more than 2 days. Tamiflu can also reduce the chance of getting the flu in people 1 year and older. Tamiflu does not prevent bacterial infections that may happen with the flu. Tamiflu is not a substitute for an annual flu vaccination. Do not take Tamiflu if you are allergic to oseltamivir phosphate or any of the ingredients in Tamiflu. <P> Tamiflu is used to treat people 2 weeks of age and older who have the flu (influenza A and B viruses). Tamiflu is also sometimes used for prevention (prophylaxis) of the flu in people 1 year of age and older, but it is not a substitute for getting the flu vaccine. Q. <P> They are fever, generalized body ache, throat and nose congestion, cough, headache, chills etc. The length of the illness remains for 5 to 6 days after the onset symptoms, during this period and one day prior to the onset of symptoms the patient remains contagious. <P> Flu is the most contagious disease. People suffering from flu can spread the infection even if the person is six feet away through droplet infection. Most experts believe the virus remains active in the droplet when the person suffering from it sneezes or coughs.
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1 year
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what is fertilization
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<P> In Vitro Fertilization is a one assisted reproductive technology (ART) commonly referred to as IVF. IVF is the process of fertilization by manually combining an egg and sperm in a laboratory dish, and then transferring the embryo to the uterus. <P> Simply put, the definition of human fertilization is the union or joining of the egg and the sperm, resulting in a fertilized egg, otherwise known as a zygote. But the process of human fertilization is very complicated and comprised of many steps and components necessary to achieve the ultimate result of human life. <P> Fertilization. Fertilization, which is the union of sperm and egg, occurs deep within the flower after pollination. When a pollen grain lands on the stigma, it generates a tiny tube tipped with sperm. The tube fits into a conduit called a style in the female pistil. <P> Illustration depicting ovulation and fertilization. Human fertilization is the union of a human egg and sperm, usually occurring in the ampulla of the uterine tube. The result of this union is the production of a zygote cell, or fertilized egg, initiating prenatal development. Scientists discovered the dynamics of human fertilization in the nineteenth century. The process of fertilization involves a sperm fusing with an ovum. Fertilization occurs when the nucleus of both a sperm and an egg fuse to form a diploid cell, known as zygote. The successful fusion of gametes forms a new organism. <P> Medical Definition of FERTILIZATION. : an act or process of making fertile: as a: an act or process of fecundation, insemination, or impregnation b: the process of union of two gametes whereby the somatic chromosome number is restored and the development of a new individual is initiated. <P> 10 hilariously insightful foreign words. Fertilization is the process in which an egg and a sperm cell come together to form a zygote, beginning the series of events that can result in pregnancy. In mammals, including in human beings, eggs are released from the female ovary, and sperm from the male penis. <P> Fertilisation (also known as conception, fecundation and syngamy) is the fusion of gametes to initiate the development of a new individual organism. In animals, the process involves the fusion of an ovum with a sperm, which first creates a zygote and then leads to the development of an embryo. Allogamy, which is also known as cross-fertilization, refers to the fertilization of an egg cell from one individual with the male gamete of another. Autogamy which is also known as self-fertilization, occurs in such hermaphroditic organisms as plants and flatworms; therein, two gametes from one individual fuse. <P> Fertilization is the act or process of initiating biological reproduction by insemination or pollination or the union of male and female reproductive cells (gametes) to produce a fertilized reproductive cell (zygote). it means to fertilize plants. the union of the male's sperm with the female's egg. It is also a. Fertilization is the process of the fusion of male and female cell .In fertilization the ovary turns into a fruit and the ovule into seed. 11 people found this useful.
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Fertilization is the act or process of initiating biological reproduction by insemination or pollination or the union of male and female reproductive cells (gametes) to produce a fertilized reproductive cell (zygote).
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when are the coney island fireworks
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<P> Join Coney Island for Friday Night Fireworks. The show starts at 9:30pm every Friday night during the season. Friday Night Fireworks start the last weekend in June and conclude the Friday before Labor Day. Friday Night Fireworks are brought to you by the Alliance for Coney Island. <P> Coney Island puts on an amazing fireworks show for the residents and visitors of Coney Island. The Brooklyn Cyclones Minor League baseball team will host the Williamsport Crosscutters at MCU Park and after the game at approximately 9:45pm, the Fourth of July fireworks show will begin. <P> Answer: You can see free fireworks on the Coney Island boardwalk every Friday in the summer, on some Saturdays, and for a few special events, too (notably, in honor of Independence Day and for the first home game played by the Brooklyn Cyclones.). <P> Every Friday is a reason to celebrate! Join Coney Island for Friday Night Fireworks. The show starts at 9:30pm every Friday night during the season. Friday Night Fireworks start the last weekend in June and conclude the Friday before Labor Day. Friday Night Fireworks are brought to you by the Alliance for Coney Island. <P> Fireworks on the Coney Island Beach Fireworks shoot off at 9:30pm-10:45 every Friday night during the season, starting the last weekend in June and conclude the Friday before Labor Day. Fireworks are also played on the first home game for the Brooklyn Cyclones, and after some other games as well. <P> You can get up close and personal to the Coney Island fireworks, and see them from a view that is unmatched on land. We leave from Sheepshead Bay in Brooklyn every Friday, and take you on a very fun, affordable fireworks cruise. Book your spot on our Coney Island Fireworks Cruises today, and see why we’re are one of the best ways to see the amazing New York City waters. <P> Fireworks illuminate the sky over Lake Como at Coney Island during the 2013 Fire Up The Night competition. (Photo: Thanks to MPR Marketing). Firework teams from England, Brazil and Australia will compete in Fire Up The Night IV, an international fireworks competition, at Coney Island Saturday, Sept. 26.
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9:30pm-10:45 every Friday night.
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what is a celestone injection
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<P> References. Type of medicine: corticosteroid. Generic and brand names: betamethasone sodium phosphate and betamethasone acetate, injection; Celestone Soluspan. This medicine is given by injection (shots) into a muscle, a joint, or a sore on the skin. It is used to reduce inflammation, irritation, and pain <P> Each ml CELESTONE Injection contains 5.3mg betametha-sone sodium phosphate equivalent to 4mg beta-methasone. ACTIONS CELESTONE Injection provide potent anti-inflam-matory, antirheumatic and antiallergic effects in the treatment of corticosteroid-responsive disor-ders. Glucocorticosteroids, such as betametha-sone, cause profound and varied metabolic effects and modify the body’s immune response to diverse stimuli. <P> 1 Review. Betamethasone dipropionate is the generic name of Diprolene and Diprolene AF, used to relieve skin discomfort caused by rashes, itching, and irritation. Betamethasone comes in a topical cream, lotion, and ointment, as well as a solution for injection. It has many uses, depending on the form your doctor prescribes. Although betamethasone topical cream and lotion are used to treat irritation and inflammation of the skin, doctors prescribe the injectable form of betamethasone, Celestone Soluspan, for multiple sclerosis flares and to help mature the lungs of babies born prematurely. <P> What Celestone Chronodose is used for. Celestone Chronodose contains betamethasone as the active ingredient. Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid and belongs to a group of medicines called corticosteroids. Celestone Chronodose is used to treat symptoms associated with inflammatory processes and/or allergic reactions, which may include: 1 swelling. 2 redness. <P> INDICATIONS AND USAGE: CELESTONE Injection is indicated in the manage-ment of various endocrine, rheumatic, collagen, dermatologic, allergic, ophthalmic, gastrointesti-nal, respiratory, hematologic and other diseases known to be responsive to corticosteroid therapy. ACTIONS CELESTONE Injection provide potent anti-inflam-matory, antirheumatic and antiallergic effects in the treatment of corticosteroid-responsive disor-ders. Glucocorticosteroids, such as betametha-sone, cause profound and varied metabolic effects and modify the body’s immune response to diverse stimuli. <P> Treatment by Condition Related to Celestone injection. 1 Inflammation of the Nose due to an Allergy Medications. 2 Bronchitis Medications. 3 Severe Prolonged Asthma Attack Medications. 4 Contact Dermatitis Medications. 5 Blistering Skin Diseases Medications. 6 Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications. <P> BETAMETHASONE (bay ta METH a sone) is a corticosteroid. It helps to reduce swelling, redness, itching, and allergic reactions. It is used to treat asthma, allergies, arthritis, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis. It is also used for other conditions, like blood disorders and diseases of the adrenal glands. <P> DRUG DESCRIPTION. CELESTONE® SOLUSPAN®* Injectable Suspension is a sterile aqueous suspension containing 3 mg per milliliter betamethasone, as betamethasone sodium phosphate, and 3 mg per milliliter betamethasone acetate. Inactive ingredients per mL: 7.1 mg dibasic sodium phosphate; 3.4 mg monobasic sodium phosphate; 0.1 mg edetate disodium; and 0.2 mg benzalkonium chloride as preservative. <P> CONTRAINDICATIONS As with other corticosteroids, Celestone Chronodose Injection is contraindicated in systemic fungal infections and in patients hypersensitive to betamethasone sodium phosphate, betamethasone acetate, other corticosteroids or to any component of this product. A150211 V7 Page 3 PRECAUTIONS Celestone Chronodose Injection should not be administered intravenously. Strict aseptic technique is mandatory. Subcutaneous injection should be avoided. Serious neurologic events, some resulting in death, have been reported with epidural injection of corticosteroids.
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Celestone Injection is indicated in the manage-ment of various endocrine, rheumatic, collagen, dermatologic, allergic, ophthalmic, gastrointesti-nal, respiratory, hematologic and other diseases known to be responsive to corticosteroid therapy.
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what setting do i need my camera on for timelapse of stars
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<P> Step by step: 1 Set your camera on a tripod. 2 Set the camera to M (manual mode). 3 Set focus to manual with focus set to infinity. 4 Set focal length to 16mm or use the 35mm prime. 5 Set aperture to f/3.5 or f/1.8 depending on which lens. 6 Set shutter speed to 20 or 10 depending on lens. 7 Set ISO to 3200. 1 <P> Shooting with a Point-and-Shoot: Time-Settings. Some point-and-shoot cameras have an interval setting buried deep in their menu somewhere, but most don’t, which means that, unless you want to sit there holding your camera however long and manually take the pictures, point-and-shoot cameras might not be your best bet. Alright, so it’s not time-travel. All time-lapse photography is, really, is shooting a bunch of photos of the same thing, spread out over a period of time, and smushing them together into one video that plays back in a shorter amount of time. <P> Explorer of Light Vincent Laforet explains the basics of time lapse photography in this beautiful series. Travel with him from the rugged canyons of Utah to the Las Vegas Strip, and learn how to make your own unique time lapse movies. <P> A cable intervalometer-used to set the exposure length and interval of the images. This is probably the one thing you don't have, but they can be found cheap on the web. Not necessarily needed if your camera has one built in, but I still prefer to have a remote. A computer-used to process the images. Step 1: Materials. There are just a few things you need to get started with shooting star trails and time lapse, most of which you probably have sitting around at home: A DSLR Camera A Stable Tripod for your camera to sit on. It needs to be able to keep the camera perfectly still for long periods of time. <P> Camera Settings. When it comes to choosing settings for you camera, you need to balance a few things. First, you want to let as much light into your camera as possible to get a good exposure for the stars. You do this with a wide open aperture, a slow shutter speed an a high ISO. Two of these things are easier to determine that the last. Set your aperture as wide as it will go. As the earth rotates, the stars appear to move across the sky during the night, but they move so slowly that the only way to really appreciate this phenomenon is through time lapse footage. We'll cover finding a location, choosing your gear, setting up your camera and doing the post-production. <P> If we are thinking only of how the final video will look, we’ll skip the details that make the difference between a good shot and an epic image. 5 .- Basic camera settings. Some people will tell you that auto/priority mode and Jpg files are the best settings to make a “time-lapse”. Just as no one uses those settings when taking some quality photographs, to achieve professional results in time lapse we will use manual exposure and RAW files. 2 .- Don´t forget anything. When you go shooting time-lapse, you can spend several hours standing on a rock in the middle of nowhere, so you have to be well prepared. I wouldn´t want to sound like your mom, but it is worth reminding you that you should take with you enough of water and food. <P> 1 A Camera With Manual Controls – Manual control of your ISO and shutter speed are going to be essential for photographing the stars. 2 A Wide Aperture Lens – You’ll need a lot of light and f/2.8 seems to be the butter zone for astrophotography. 1 Tripod – We’re going to be dealing with exposures in the tens of seconds and I don’t care who you are, you’re going to need something to stabilize your camera. 2 A Camera With Manual Controls – Manual control of your ISO and shutter speed are going to be essential for photographing the stars. <P> Since you’re setting the exposure time (shutter speed) of the camera to 25 seconds, there will be a 5-second delay between pictures. This 5-second delay should be enough time for your camera to write the captured image to the memory card and get ready to capture the next photo. This might have been the perfect setting for the beginning of the time-lapse, but as the sun set the color of the ambient light changed, yet the camera was still fixed on Tungsten. LRTimelapse allows you to set key frames (stars) on your images and then make adjustments to just those key frames inside Adobe Lightroom. <P> Canon 20Da controls and settings with backlight for viewing in the dark. Camera settings These settings are usually set with controls on the top or back of the camera, but depending on the model or manufacturer, may be set in menus. Program Mode-Set to Manual. Autofocus-Turn off, or set to Manual. Shutter Speed-Set to the exposure you want, up to 30 seconds can usually be dialed in directly. For longer than 30 seconds, set to Bulb. On some cameras, Bulb may be a separate exposure mode setting, or it may be accessed on the shutter speed dial past the 30 second setting.
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For basic camera setting auto/priority mode and Jpg files are the best settings to make a “time-lapse”. And to achieve professional results in time lapse we will use manual exposure and RAW files.
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which is best gel to remove scar after operation
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<P> Surgery can sometimes improve the appearance of scars, as it can be used to: 1 change the positioning of the scar. 2 change the width or shape of the scar. 3 release a tight scar that is close to a joint, to improve movement. <P> apply scar cream as soon as the wound has healed. It is normal to be preoccupied with the surgery. As a result the question which scar cream is best to use after surgery may not rise until the moment is there. For optimal results it is best to start with scar treatment at the moment the wound has healed. Enhancing the wound healing process can be very beneficial and reduce the risk on unsightly scarring. <P> 1 These scars are the result of an overly aggressive healing process. 2 They extend beyond the original injury. 3 Over time, a keloid scar may hamper movement. 4 Treatments include surgery to remove the scar, steroid injections, or silicone sheets to flatten the scar. <P> Almost all experts, dermatologists, plastic surgeons, and other medical professionals agree that silicone gel is the best over-the-counter scar treatment to use after surgery. This type of scar cream is not only recommended by plastic surgeons but is also the only clinically proven home remedy. <P> 1 Over time, a keloid scar may hamper movement. 2 Treatments include surgery to remove the scar, steroid injections, or silicone sheets to flatten the scar. 3 Smaller keloids can be treated using cryotherapy (freezing therapy using liquid nitrogen). <P> Cosmetic Procedures: Scars. Skin is a seamless organ, like a fine cloth protecting valuable assets. Imagine a piece of silk. Just one small tear can make a big difference in how it looks. And it's the same with skin. Any burn, injury, or other trauma, such as surgery, can cause a scar. <P> 1 Treatments include surgery to remove the scar, steroid injections, or silicone sheets to flatten the scar. 2 Smaller keloids can be treated using cryotherapy (freezing therapy using liquid nitrogen). 3 You can also prevent keloid formation by using pressure treatment or gel pads with silicone when you are injured. <P> Silicone wound dressings and Silicone gels are best for after surgery scar care. Studies have shown that silicone can help reduce scarring and is commonly used after plastic surgery. Discuss Silicone dressings Silicone gels with your surgeon.
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Silicone gels
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how long does it take to amend a return
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<P> Recently, I filed my 1040X and I used TurboTax Online. I have to say amending tax return with TurboTax is really as easy as 1,2,3. I just logged in my account and click on “Amend Your Tax Return” for 2014 and it will guide you through the process. For me, my case was easy. My son was born on December 2014. <P> How long will it take to process my amended tax return? A Form 1040X-Amended Tax Return can take up to 16 weeks to process once the IRS receives it. It can take up to three (3) weeks from the date you mailed it to show up in our system. Unfortunately, calling us will not help us process your return more quickly. <P> 1 As a rule, you must file your 1040X within three years from the date you filed your return, or two years from the date you paid the tax, whichever is later. 2 How long does it take to get an amended return processed? 3 Normally, amended returns will be processed in 8 to 12 weeks. <P> An Amended return can ONLY be MAILED, not efiled. So if you think you efiled it, you didn't. An amended return will take 8-12 weeks to process and they only mail checks for refunds, no direct deposit. Comments (10). i clicked the amend on turbotax and it says it was accepted. <P> As a reminder, amended returns take up to 16 weeks to process and up to three weeks to show up in our system. Before that time, there is no need to call the IRS unless the tool specifically tells you to do so. Please note: A change made on your federal return may affect your state tax liability.
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16 weeks.
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what is tm in biology
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<P> Tm) of the primers. 1 Initialization step (Only required for DNA polymerases that require heat activation by hot-start PCR. ): 2 This step consists of heating the reaction to a temperature of 94–96 °C (or 98 °C if extremely thermostable polymerases are used), which is held for 1–9 minutes. 1 Digital PCR (dPCR) : used to measure the quantity of a target DNA sequence in a DNA sample. 2 The DNA sample is highly diluted so that after running many PCRs in parallel, some of them do not receive a single molecule of the target DNA. <P> Many of the laboratory techniques of biochemistry and molecular biology that involve DNA polymerase, such as DNA sequencing and the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), require DNA primers. These primers are usually short, chemically synthesized oligonucleotides, with a length of about twenty bases. In eukaryotic primer removal, DNA polymerase δ extends the Okazaki fragment in 5' to 3' direction, and when it encounters the RNA primer from the previous Okazaki fragment, it displaces the 5′ end of the primer into a single-stranded RNA flap, which is removed by nuclease cleavage. <P> BioMath Calculators. The Biomath calculators provide a range of functions essential to molecular biology experiments, including DNA and protein conversions, melting temperature, molarity and dilution calculations. <P> 1 It causes DNA melting of the DNA template by disrupting the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, yielding single-stranded DNA molecules. 2 Annealing step: The reaction temperature is lowered to 50–65 °C for 20–40 seconds allowing annealing of the primers to the single-stranded DNA template. 1 Digital PCR (dPCR) : used to measure the quantity of a target DNA sequence in a DNA sample. 2 The DNA sample is highly diluted so that after running many PCRs in parallel, some of them do not receive a single molecule of the target DNA. <P> In the second step, the temperature is lowered and the two DNA strands become templates for DNA polymerase to selectively amplify the target DNA. The selectivity of PCR results from the use of primers that are complementary to the DNA region targeted for amplification under specific thermal cycling conditions. 1 Digital PCR (dPCR) : used to measure the quantity of a target DNA sequence in a DNA sample. 2 The DNA sample is highly diluted so that after running many PCRs in parallel, some of them do not receive a single molecule of <P> The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technology in molecular biology used to amplify a single copy or a few copies of a piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies of a particular DNA sequence. 1 Digital PCR (dPCR) : used to measure the quantity of a target DNA sequence in a DNA sample. 2 The DNA sample is highly diluted so that after running many PCRs in parallel, some of them do not receive a single molecule of the target DNA. <P> Transverse Myelitis (TM) is a disorder caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. It is characterized by symptoms and signs of neurologic dysfunction in motor and sensory tracts on both sides of the spinal cord. The involvement of motor and sensory control pathways frequently produce altered sensation, weakness and sometimes urinary or bowel dysfunction. There are four classic symptoms of transverse myelitis: 1 weakness in the arms/legs. 2 sensory symptoms such as numbness or tingling. 3 pain and discomfort. 4 bladder dysfunction and/or bowel motility problems <P> The job of Taq polymerase is to move along the strand of DNA and use it as a template for assembling a new stand that is complimentary to the template. This is the chain reaction in the name polymerase chain reaction. PCR is so efficient because it multiplies the DNA exponentially for each of the 25 to 75 cycles. This is the polymerase part of the name polymerase chain reaction. 4. Nucleotides. You'll need to add nucleotides (dNTPs) so the DNA polymerase has building blocks to work with. There are three major steps to PCR and they are repeated over and over again, usually 25 to 75 times. <P> The Importance of T m in Molecular Biology Applications. The melting temperature of an oligonucleotide duplex, or T m, is the temperature at which half of the oligonucleotide molecules are single-stranded and half are double-stranded, i.e., the oligonucleotide is 50% annealed to its exact complement. For more information on the calculations and algorithm used by the OligoAnalyzer tool, refer to the IDT technical report, Calculation of T m for Oligonucleotide Duplexes [2]. References. 1 Owczarzy R, Moreira BG, et al. ( 2 2008) Predicting stability of DNA duplexes in solutions containing magnesium and monovalent cations. <P> Double-Check Published Tm Data. It is important to check the T m of any oligonucleotide sequences used in PCR even when a previously successful primer and probe set is taken directly from a publication. The design of such published sequences may incorporate T m enhancers such as a minor grove binder or LNA bases. For more information on the calculations and algorithm used by the OligoAnalyzer tool, refer to the IDT technical report, Calculation of T m for Oligonucleotide Duplexes [2]. References. 1 Owczarzy R, Moreira BG, et al. ( 2 2008) Predicting stability of DNA duplexes in solutions containing magnesium and monovalent cations.
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It is a disorder caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. It is characterized by symptoms and signs of neurologic dysfunction in motor and sensory tracts on both sides of the spinal cord.
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what are volcanic
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<P> Photograph courtesy NASA Earth Observatory. Volcanoes are awesome manifestations of the fiery power contained deep within the Earth. These formations are essentially vents on the Earth's surface where molten rock, debris, and gases from the planet's interior are emitted. <P> When pressure builds up, eruptions occur. Gases and rock shoot up through the opening and spill over or fill the air with lava fragments. Eruptions can cause lateral blasts, lava flows, hot ash flows, mudslides, avalanches, falling ash and floods. Volcano eruptions have been known to knock down entire forests. There are more than 1500 active volcanoes on the Earth. We currently know of 80 or more which are under the oceans. Active volcanoes in the U.S. are found mainly in Hawaii, Alaska, California, Oregon and Washington. <P> A volcano is a vent or fissure in Earth's crust through which lava, ash, rock and gases erupt. A volcano is also a mountain formed by the accumulation of these eruptive products. Let's take a look at how volcanoes form: Earth's crust is 40 to 250 miles (64 to 402 kilometers) thick. Airborne fragments of lava, called tephra, are ejected from a single vent. The lava cools rapidly and builds up around the vent, forming a crater at the summit. Cinder cone volcanoes are fairly small, generally only about 300 feet (91 meters) tall and not rising more than 1,200 feet (366 meters). <P> A volcano is a vent or chimney which transfers molten rock known as magma from depth to the Earth's surface. Magma erupting from a volcano is called lava and is the material which builds up the cone surrounding the vent. A volcano is active if it is erupting lava, releasing gas or generates seismic activity. <P> Shield volcano. When magma is very hot and runny, gases can escape and eruptions are gentle with considerable amounts of magma reaching the surface to form lava flows. Shield volcanoes have a broad, flattened dome-like shape created by layers of runny lava flowing over its surface and cooling. Magma erupting from a volcano is called lava and is the material which builds up the cone surrounding the vent. A volcano is active if it is erupting lava, releasing gas or generates seismic activity. <P> Deep inside Earth, between the molten iron core and the thin crust at the surface, there is a solid body of rock called the mantle. When rock from the mantle melts, moves to the surface through the crust, and releases pent-up gases, volcanoes erupt. <P> Volcanoes are formed when magma from within the Earth's upper mantle works its way to the surface. At the surface, it erupts to form lava flows and ash deposits. Over time as the volcano continues to erupt, it will get bigger and bigger. There are more than 1500 active volcanoes on the Earth. We currently know of 80 or more which are under the oceans. Active volcanoes in the U.S. are found mainly in Hawaii, Alaska, California, Oregon and Washington. <P> More than 50 volcanoes in the United States have erupted one or more times in the past 200 years. The most volcanically active regions of the Nation are in Alaska, Hawaii, California, Oregon, and Washington. Volcanoes produce a wide variety of hazards that can kill people and destroy property. <P> Category: Volcanoes grow by intrusion and extrusion. An intrusion is magma that moves up into a volcano without erupting. Like a balloon, this causes the volcano grows on the inside. An extrusion is an eruption of material that causes the volcano to grow on the outside. Volcanoes are constructed this way mainly of two materials: lava and ash. Another kind of volcano is called either a stratovolcano or composite-volcano. Mt. St. Helens, Pinatubo, and Fuji are all stratovolcanoes <P> Volcanic ash is formed during explosive volcanic eruptions, phreatomagmatic eruptions and during transport in pyroclastic density currents. Explosive eruptions occur when magma decompresses as it rises, allowing dissolved volatiles (dominantly water and carbon dioxide) to exsolve into gas bubbles.
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A volcano is a vent or chimney which transfers molten rock known as magma from depth to the Earth's surface,magma erupting from a volcano is called lava and is the material which builds up the cone surrounding the vent.
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what is a blooming
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<P> Current Photos of Plants in the Garden! Photos on this page were taken on September 23, 2015. at the Missouri Botanical Garden. Click on the photos for a larger version. <P> Angel's trumpet (Datura metel 'Purple Ballerina') A leafy annual with flowers that open in the evening and emit a rich, luscious fragrance. Information. Thorny elaeagnus, (Elaeagnus pungens) is a broad-leafed evergreen shrub. In the late fall it produces many bell shaped flowers that are cream colored in small clusters. <P> Learn More About BLOOMING. Thesaurus: All synonyms and antonyms for blooming. Nglish: Translation of blooming for Spanish speakers. Britannica English: Translation of blooming for Arabic speakers. Britannica.com: Encyclopedia article about blooming. <P> bloom·ing. adv. & adj. Chiefly British Slang. Used as an intensive: a blooming hot day; a blooming idiot. <P> Blooming For French Presses. Gently pour a small quantity of hot water onto the coffee grounds (which should be a coarse grind). You should immediately notice a bloom start to form as foam on top of the water. Let the bloom remain for 15-20 seconds, then stir it with your spoon. <P> Gardens & Grounds Gallery. The Walled Garden consists of two lengthy arbors entwined with vines and symmetrical flower beds arranged in patterns. The garden blooms with a progression of colors with daffodils, hyacinths, tulips, lush perennials, and chrysanthemums. Gardens & Grounds. Stroll acres of formal and informal gardens designed by America’s foremost landscape architect, Frederick Law Olmsted. From the beauty of the Italian Garden to the breathtaking trees in America’s first managed forest, Biltmore’s lush landscape is a living tribute to Olmsted’s genius. <P> coating. Process of depositing a thin film of transparent material on the surface of an optical element (e.g. lens, mirror, prism) for the purpose of decreasing or increasing reflection. Reflection from specific wavelengths can be reduced or eliminated by varying the thickness of the film and by multilayer coating. <P> Wiktionary (3.00 / 1 vote) Rate this definition: blooming (Noun). The act by which something blooms. blooming (Noun). The process of making blooms from the ore or from cast iron. blooming (Adverb). Bloody; bleeding; extremely. My train's late again. Freebase. Blooming, Oregon. Blooming is an unincorporated community in Washington County, Oregon, United States near the Tualatin River, about two miles south of Cornelius. Its elevation is 190 feet.
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An unincorporated community in Washington County, Oregon, United States near the Tualatin River, about two miles south of Cornelius.
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what are the two continents turkey is situated in
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<P> The only city located on two continents. Istanbul is the only city in the world located on two continents-Europe and Asia. During its more almost 2,000-year history, it has been the capital of the Roman, Byzantine and Ottoman Empires. Many archeologists and biblical scholars believe Noah’s Ark landed on Agri Dagi (Mount Ararat) in eastern Turkey. <P> Istanbul, the largest city in Turkey and the fifth-largest city in the world by population, is considered European, yet it occupies two different continents. One part of Istanbul lies in Europe and the other part lies in Asia. <P> The reason is that part of its territory is located in the Caucasus mountains which play the role of a boundary between Europe and Asia. However, Georgia is usually regarded as an Asian country. 6. Turkey. Turkey is one of the most popular countries situated on two continents. <P> Bosphorus also divided the city of Istanbul into two continents i-e Asia and Europe. Istanbul is not the only city that is located in two continents, Çanakkale çanakkale also stands With istanbul as a-bi continent. City some amazing facts About: istanbul <P> 1 Istanbul is the only city in the world located on two continents, Europe and Asia. 2 It has been the capital of three great empires – Roman, Byzantine and Ottoman for over 2000 years. 3 Two of the world’s seven wonders are located in Turkey — the Temple of Artemis and the Halicarnassus Mausoleum. <P> Istanbul, Turkey-Where Two Continents Meet By Lori Guretzki Istanbul, situated along the shores of the Bosphorus Strait, is the only city in the world bridging two continents, Europe and Asia; it is as old as civilization itself and as modern as carrying cell phones. <P> Trivia. 1 Istanbul is the only city in the world located on two continents, Europe and Asia. 2 It has been the capital of three great empires – Roman, Byzantine and Ottoman for over 2000 years. 3 Two of the world’s seven wonders are located in Turkey — the Temple of Artemis and the Halicarnassus Mausoleum.
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Istanbul, Turkey-Where Two Continents Meet By Lori Guretzki Istanbul, situated along the shores of the Bosphorus strait, is the only city in the world bridging two continents, Europe and Asia.
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what are the biomes in india
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<P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. Types of biomes found in india. Tropical and Sub-tropical Savanna but you will also Tropical Rainforest along the west coast, and Alpine in the Himalayans. <P> GEOGRAPHY AND MAJOR BIOMES OF INDIA India is the seventh largest country in the world and Asia's second largest nation with an area of 3,287,263 sq.km. encompassing a varied landscape rich in natural resources. India is shielded by the world's highest mountains, the Himalayas, in the north. <P> Answer Biomes are the major communities of the world. they are characterized by distinct vegetation and animals. Climate, temperature and rainfall determine to a large … extent the biomes of the world. Example: Deserts, Forests, Marine, Rainforests, and Tundra Answer Regions that have distinctive climates and organisms and contain many separate but similar ecosystems. <P> What is the biomes of India? already exists. already exists as an alternate of this question. exists and is an alternate of. Fishing Without Nets was created from a short of the same titled that won the Jury Prize in Short Filmmaking at the 2012 Sundance Film Festival. What made you decide to make a full-length version of the film? A biome is a? <P> The country, India, is not a biome. A biome is the characterization of a region based on the life that exists there. The country however does contain biomes such as temperate … grassland, tropical savanna, and tropical rain forest. 1 person found this useful. <P> Biome type is based on vegetation and organisms' adaptations to the en … vironment. There are both land biomes and aquatic biomes. Deserts are one type of biome. The definition of a biome is a naturally occurring large community of fauna and flora that occupies a forest or tundra or other habitat.
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Temperate, grassland, tropical savanna, and tropical rain forest.
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what is an aldehyde
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<P> Aldol Condensation. The aldol condensation is a reaction in which aldehydes and ketones react to form larger molecules. A new carbon-carbon bond is formed. In this generalized reaction the a-carbon of one aldehyde forms a bond with the carbonyl carbon of the other aldehyde. <P> An aldehyde /ˈaeldɨhaɪd/ ˈældɨhaɪd or alkanal is an organic compound containing a formyl. Group the formyl group is a functional, group with the Structure-R, cho consisting of a carbonyl (center a carbon double bonded to) oxygen bonded to hydrogen and An r, group which is any generic alkyl or side. chain The formyl group is a functional group, with the structure R-CHO, consisting of a carbonyl center (a carbon double bonded to oxygen) bonded to hydrogen and an R group, which is any generic alkyl or side chain. The group without R is called the aldehyde group or formyl group. Aldehydes differ from ketones in that the carbonyl is placed at the end of a carbon skeleton rather than between two carbon atoms. Aldehydes are common in organic chemistry. Many fragrances are aldehydes. <P> In aldehydes, the carbonyl group has a hydrogen atom attached to it together with either. a second hydrogen atom. or, more commonly, a hydrocarbon group which might be an alkyl group or one containing a benzene ring. For the purposes of this section, we shall ignore those containing benzene rings. This page explains what aldehydes and ketones are, and looks at the way their bonding affects their reactivity. It also considers their simple physical properties such as solubility and boiling points. Details of the chemical reactions of aldehydes and ketones are described on separate pages. <P> aldehyde. n. 1. (Elements & Compounds) any organic compound containing the group-CHO. Aldehydes are oxidized to carboxylic acids and take part in many addition reactions. 2. (Chemistry) (modifier) consisting of, containing, or concerned with the group-CHO: aldehyde group or radical. <P> According to a general definition of Aldehyde that says: An aldehyde is an organic compound containing a terminal carbonyl group. This functional group, called an aldehyde group, consists of a carbon atom bonded to a hydrogen atom with a single covalent bond and an oxygen atom with a double bond. Thus the chemical formula for an aldehyde functional group is-CH=O, and the general formula for an aldehyde is R-CH=O. The aldehyde group is occasionally called the formyl or methanoyl group. Other classes of organic compounds containing carbonyl groups include ketones and carboxylic acids. wikipedia. <P> Aldehydes () and ketones () are both carbonyl compounds. They are organic compounds in which the carbonyl carbon is connected to C or H atoms on either side. An aldehyde has one or both vacancies of the carbonyl carbon satisfied by a H atom, while a ketone has both its vacancies satisfied by carbon. <P> Definition of ALDEHYDE. : acetaldehyde; broadly: any of a class of highly reactive organic compounds that are analogous to acetaldehyde and characterized by a carbonyl group attached to a hydrogen atom. — al·de·hy·dic \ˌal-də-ˈhī-dik\ adjective. ADVERTISEMENT <P> Aldehyde dehydrogenase is a polymorphic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of aldehydes to carboxylic acids, which leave the liver and are metabolized by the body’s muscle and heart. <P> aldehyde. an organic compound containing the aldehyde functional group (−CHO); that is, one with a carbonyl group (C=O) located at one end of the carbon chain. Aldehydes are formed in meat during the rancidification of fat and in the degradation of alcohols in biological materials. Each aldehyde is characterized by a carbonyl group (─CO─) attached directly to a hydrogen (─CHO) in its formula and can be converted into a corresponding acid by oxidation, as in the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid.
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An aldehyde is an organic compound containing a terminal carbonyl group.
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what is the normal range for a d dimer blood test
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<P> The normal amounts for D-dimer in the blood should be around 0.5 mg/l of blood or 500 ng/ml of blood. A normal D-dimer test result will reveal a negative result, which indicates that thrombosis has not occurred. People whose D-dimer levels are within the normal range will not likely face life-threatening situations that will result from abnormal D-dimer levels. Having normal D-dimer values are indicative that the body’s healing system by means of blood clotting is doing well. <P> This is a blood test to look for a substance called D-dimer. This test is used to rule out a blood clot. D-dimer is a protein fragment from the break down of a blood clot. Blood clots generally begin to slowly break down after they are formed, and this process releases D-dimer into the blood. <P> – by admin 1. D-dimer normal values refer to the normal range of D-dimer in the blood stream. People whose D-dimer levels are within the normal range will not likely face life-threatening situations that will result from abnormal D-dimer levels. Having normal D-dimer values are indicative that the body’s healing system by means of blood clotting is doing well. <P> Results. The d-dimer test measures the amount of a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. The normal values listed here (called a reference range) are just a guide. These ranges vary from lab to lab, and your lab may have a different range for what's normal <P> Less than 1.37 nanomoles per liter (nmol/L). 1 A low or normal d-dimer test result means that there is very little of the substance that's released as a blood clot breaks up. 2 Having very little of this substance means that a blood clotting problem isn't likely. The d-dimer test measures the amount of a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. The normal values listed here (called a reference range) are just a guide. <P> D-dimer normal range. The normal range for D-dimer is approximately 0.5 mg/l of blood or 500 mg/ml of blood. Testing of d-dimer range is usually not done when suspicions of individuals who have symptoms of scattered intra-vascular coagulation have been confirmed and have been diagnosed to be suffering from the condition. A blood test is used to determine the concentration of D-dimer in the blood. Thrombosis is a condition that affects the ability of the blood to form clots and a D-dimer test is done to diagnose the presence of <P> 1 A low or normal d-dimer test result means that there is very little of the substance that's released as a blood clot breaks up. 2 Having very little of this substance means that a blood clotting problem isn't likely. 3 A higher-than-normal d-dimer level might mean that there is a blood-clotting problem. The d-dimer test measures the amount of a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. The normal values listed here (called a reference range) are just a guide. <P> The d-dimer test measures the amount of a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. The normal values listed here (called a reference range) are just a guide. These ranges vary from lab to lab, and your lab may have a different range for what's normal. Test Overview. A d-dimer test is a blood test that measures a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. Doctors order the d-dimer test, along with other lab tests and imaging scans, to help check for blood-clotting problems. A d-dimer test can also be used to check how well a treatment is working. <P> D-Dimer Test. Guide. A d-dimer test is a blood test that measures a substance that is released when a blood clot breaks up. Doctors order the d-dimer test, along with other lab tests and imaging scans, to help check for blood-clotting problems. A d-dimer test can also be used to check how well a treatment is working
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0.5 mg/l of blood or 500 mg/ml of blood.
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what characteristics can be used to distinguish fungi from bacteria
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<P> They generally have cell walls, like plant and fungal cells, but bacterial cell walls are normally made out of peptidoglycan instead of cellulose (as in plants) or chitin (as in fungi), and are not homologous with eukaryotic cell walls. A fungus is generally a parasite, more like a virus. A bacteria is and infectious germ. A parasite lives on and thrives from another entity, like a body. A bactria lives and and thrives on the food carried by cells of another body. <P> Introduction. Microbiology is the study of microorganisms, which are unicellular or multi-cellular organisms. This includes eukaryotes such as fungi, and prokaryotes such as bacteria and certain algae. Viruses, though not strictly classed as living organisms, are also studied. Microbiology is a broad term which includes virology, mycology, parasitology and other branches. <P> Fungi Vs. Plants Fungi have a mutually symbiotic relationship. This means that it is a bacteria working with a plant and they both get benefits. It has developed so that they are classified as one being, even though they are two separate life forms. <P> Fungi absorb their food while animals ingest it, and their cells have cell walls. For these reasons, these organisms are placed in their own kingdom, Fungi. The Fungi are a monophyletic group, meaning all varieties of fungi come from a common ancestor. A fungus is generally a parasite, more like a virus. A bacteria is and infectious germ. A parasite lives on and thrives from another entity, like a body. A bactria lives and and thrives on the food carried by cells of another body. <P> 1 With plants: Fungi have a cell wall and vacuoles. 2 They reproduce by both sexual and asexual means, and like basal plant groups (such as ferns and mosses) produce spores. 3 Similar to mosses and algae, fungi typically have haploid nuclei. Sexual reproduction in basidiomycetes is similar to that of the ascomycetes. Compatible haploid hyphae fuse to produce a dikaryotic mycelium. However, the dikaryotic phase is more extensive in the basidiomycetes, often also present in the vegetatively growing mycelium. <P> Fungi as a group have special external enzymes they use to decompose things. A good deal of bacteria do decompose, but many are primary producers. (Such as cyanobacteria. b. Yes, all bacteria are single-celled, but saying 'most' fungi are not is kind of weird. Fungi are decomposers, but bacteria are not. b. Bacteria are single-celled organisms, but most fungi are not. c. Only fungi have cell walls, but bacteria do not. d. Fungus only grow in moist locations, bacteria do not. <P> Best Answer: FUNGI A fungus (plural fungi) is a eukaryotic organism that digests its food externally and absorbs the nutrient molecules into its cells. Along with bacteria, fungi are the primary decomposers of dead organic matter in most terrestrial ecosystems. A fungus is generally a parasite, more like a virus. A bacteria is and infectious germ. A parasite lives on and thrives from another entity, like a body. A bactria lives and and thrives on the food carried by cells of another body. <P> The Fungi are a group of eukaryotic, non-phototrophic organisms with rigid cell walls. This includes mushrooms, molds and yeasts. Many fungi are saprophytes, getting nutrients by absorbing them from dead, decaying plant material. Still, other fungi are parasitic, stealing resources from a host organism. Many fungi reproduce by releasing spores. <P> Unlike true fungi, the water molds and slime molds do not have cell walls made of chitin. In the 5-kingdom system, they are currently placed in kingdom Protista. Fungi may be single-celled or multicellular. Multicellular fungi are composed of networks of long hollow tubes called hyphae. A fungus is generally a parasite, more like a virus. A bacteria is and infectious germ. A parasite lives on and thrives from another entity, like a body. A bactria lives and and thrives on the food carried by cells of another body.
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A fungus (plural fungi) is a eukaryotic organism that digests its food externally and absorbs the nutrient molecules into its cells.A bacteria is and infectious germ. A parasite lives on and thrives from another entity, like a body.
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cost per square to vinyl side
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<P> 1 In some cases new siding can be mounted over existing siding that will save money and increase insulation properties. 2 Sheathing type insulation installed underneath the plywood siding will cost around $1.00 per sq.ft. 3 Soffit installation in vinyl or aluminum will cost from $4.50 to $6.50 per linear foot. 1 Soffit installation in vinyl or aluminum will cost from $4.50 to $6.50 per linear foot. 2 Vapor barrier sheathing installed underneath siding to reduce moisture entry and improve insulation will cost between $0.25 and $0.65 per sq.ft. 3 depending upon local climate demands. <P> Siding installation cost vary from $190 per square (100 sq. ft.) for 0.40 gauge horizontal vinyl siding and standard installation to $1,860 per square for high quality stone veneer siding and complex work. Siding prices chart and installation expenses. Type of siding materials. <P> $6.16. Get an INSTANT estimate of the cost to Install Vinyl Siding! Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Vinyl Siding Installation project. For a basic 120 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Install Vinyl Siding ranges between $4.52 - $6.16 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1 <P> Vinyl siding is more than a building material, it is a building system that requires different parts including siding panels, soffit, fascia, trim, corners and mounting accessories. Vinyl siding typically costs between $3.00 to $7.00 per square foot, not including installation and other accessories. Vinyl siding prices also vary on where you purchase your vinyl siding from, such as buying directly from a distributor (rare, unless you are a contractor) or through a certified installer. Vinyl siding: 2000 square feet x $5.00 (vinyl siding) = $10000, including vinyl siding installation, labor, and 1/4 insulation foam. Builder's Permit: $150.00. Garbage rental: $175.00. Cost to have the old siding removed: $1,000. <P> Materials and Labor. Contractor costs can be up to $50 per hour, so you may be able to save some money if you do the work yourself. The price for materials varies, but the cost of the siding itself is only a fraction of the overall price tag. For example, vinyl siding can range between $1.67 and 3.74 per square foot. Aluminum siding can cost between $2.40 and $5.00 per square foot. Insulated vinyl siding costs between $2.12 and $5.04 per square foot. Fiber cement siding costs between $2.07 and $5.64 per square foot. In addition to the basic materials you will need a vapor barrier, soffit and facia for the eaves, and corner trim. The average total cost for replacing 1,250 square feet of vinyl siding, including trim like soffit and facia, in 2011 was $11,387, according to Remodeling Magazine. The average cost to replace the same amount of siding with a premium foam-backed vinyl was $13,927. <P> The Price of The Actual Vinyl Siding. Typically, the cost can range from $0.45 to $1.90 per square foot. For a 2,300 square foot home, you will need approximately 3,200 square feet of siding, leading to a cost of $7,575 to $11,575 for material costs. For a typical job, installation will normally cost about $1.60 per square foot. We will attempt to breakdown the costs associated with vinyl, from purchase to installation to maintenance, and compare it with other exterior siding products. Typically, vinyl siding cost ranges from $0.45 to $1.90 per square foot. <P> 1 Range from less than $1/square foot for do-it-yourself panels from a building supply store to $2-$7 or more if installed by a contractor. 2 For an 1,800-square-foot exterior (50' long, 40' wide and 10' tall'), that's $3,600 to $12,600 and up for professionally hung vinyl. 1 Estimates are based on the exterior square feet of your home. 2 For example, if your home was 10' tall, 40' long and 30' wide, it could be a 1,200 square foot home with 10*(40+40+30+30)=1,400 exterior square feet, which could take roughly 14 10'x10' squares of vinyl. <P> Multiply its cost per square of siding by the number of squares required. Add to this total any applicable sales taxes for your location. The average cost of vinyl siding in 2010 is $5.00 per square foot. <P> The expected siding cost is based on a 2,200 square foot home, the national average. Plywood is a reliable siding that emulates real wood, but is vulnerable to fire, insects, warping, and requires a new coat of paint about twice a decade. 1 Plywood siding cost per square foot: $1 to $3. To read more in-depth information about vinyl siding, see our Vinyl siding prices: pros, cons and quotes consumer resource guide. 1 Vinyl siding cost per square foot: $2 to $3. 2 Expected siding cost using vinyl siding: $7,000.
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$3.00 to $7.00 per square foot.
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how to use fix a flat tire sealant
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<P> Sealants coat the inside of the tire and wheel with a messy residue, which a tire shop has to clean out, possibly causing extra expense. They can potentially gum up the tire-pressure monitor sensor (TPMS), if so equipped, risking erroneous readings. However, in our tests, we had no sensor become inoperable. Pressurized-can sealers ($7.50 to $10), such as the ubiquitous Fix-A-Flat, are one-time-use products that have a dispensing tube that screws to a tire’s air-inflation valve. <P> The Advantages of Tire Puncture Sealant. One of the greatest advantages of using a canned tire puncture sealant is convenience. You simply attach the nozzle of the can to the tire valve stem and release the contents of the can into the tire. <P> These sealers can both patch a hole and inflate the tire. Tire-sealant kits ($20 to $80) combine a portable 12-volt air compressor and a replaceable container of sealant. More and more new cars supply this kind of kit in lieu of a spare tire. Despite their roles, these products are not spare tires in a can. Pressurized-can sealers ($7.50 to $10), such as the ubiquitous Fix-A-Flat, are one-time-use products that have a dispensing tube that screws to a tire’s air-inflation valve. <P> Safety When Changing Tires.... 5. Cancel. Sealant to fix a flat tire works temporarily only; the car should be taken to get a replacement tire. Learn to use tire sealant to fix a flat tire from an auto mechanic in this free auto repair video. Part of the Video Series: Tire Repair & Fixing a Flat. 1 Remove Lug Nuts to Fix a Flat Tire. <P> 1 Screw the can of Fix-a-Flat onto the valve stem, you'll hear it start to fill the tire with air. 2 When it stops filling, unscew the can and replace the valve stem cap. 3 Drive the car right away. 4 The sealant in the magic can needs to circulate evenly inside the tire to fill the leaky hole and ride evenly. Get ready to save the day: 1 Pull over to a safe area. 2 Remove the black cap from the valve stem (the nipple that the air comes in through). 3 Put the cap in a safe place, you'll need to put it back on when you're done.*. 4 <P> Remove the valve stem cap from the tire. If the tire still has air in it, use a small screwdriver to press in on the valve core to release all the air pressure from the tire. Use the valve core removal tool to remove the valve core and set it aside for later use. <P> User Rating: Slime Tire Sealant. This stuff works great. I had a lawnmower tire that had a slow leak, it sealed it and that was it. For the others that rated this product keep in mind that Slime does not inflate tires. Slime also will not seal or repair a leak in a valve stem or a puncture in a sidewall of a tire. I was skeptical that Slime Tire Sealant would work for this blown out tire. Unlike Fix-A-Flat that uses a propellant in the can to push the sealant into the tire, Slime used just the pressure of squeezing the bottle by hand. <P> How to Use Fix-a-Flat on a Flat Tire. Warning: There is some evidence that aerosol tire sealers can harm TPMS (Tire Pressure Management Systems). If your car is equipped with tire pressure warnings, please consult the manufacturer before you add a can to your roadside emergency kit. Get ready to save the day: 1 Pull over to a safe area. 2 Remove the black cap from the valve stem (the nipple that the air comes in through). 3 Put the cap in a safe place, you'll need to put it back on when you're done.*. 4 Screw the can of Fix-a-Flat onto the valve stem, you'll hear it start to fill the tire with air. <P> Having a flat tire is one of the major inconveniences of driving. When a spare tire is unavailable or is also in disrepair, you only have a few options. This article will tell you how to fix a flat tire. Read the directions on the can of sealant you have brought. Various manufacturers have slightly different steps and required amounts you should put in. Might want to locate some safety glasses and gloves. 1 If necessary, attempt to locate and pull out the object that has punctured your tire. <P> Brian our technician shows us how to fix a flat tire using the spare tire inflator and sealant kit on a 2015 Chevy Malibu. Ray Chevrolet. Phone: (847) 754-4538. http://www.raychevrolet.com. Ray Chevrolet is your premiere Chevrolet Dealer in the Chicagoland area. Phone: (847) 754-4538. Address: 39 N Route 12. Fox Lake, IL 60020.
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1 Screw the can of Fix-a-Flat onto the valve stem, you'll hear it start to fill the tire with air. 2 When it stops filling, unscew the can and replace the valve stem cap. 3 Drive the car right away.4 The sealant in the magic can needs to circulate evenly inside the tire to fill the leaky hole and ride evenly.
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what are mortal sins
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<P> 1 Its subject must be a grave (or serious) matter. 2 It must be committed with full knowledge, both of the sin and of the gravity of the offense. 3 It must be committed with deliberate and complete consent, enough for it to have been a personal decision to commit the sin. A mortal sin is not necessarily a sin that cannot be repented, unlike an eternal sin. Thus, even after a mortal sin has been committed, there is a chance for repentance. <P> In Roman Catholic moral theology, a sin considered to be more severe or mortal is distinct from a venial sin and must meet all of the following conditions: 1 Its subject must be a grave (or serious) matter. 2 It must be committed with full knowledge, both of the sin and of the gravity of the offense. A mortal sin is not necessarily a sin that cannot be repented, unlike an eternal sin. Thus, even after a mortal sin has been committed, there is a chance for repentance. <P> A List of Mortal and Venial Sins For a sin to be Mortal [Deadly, Fatal to Heaven], it must meet ALL THREE Standards of this Check-Off List, simultaneously. Venial Sins and other Imperfections Venial Sins, (Lesser, Non-Mortal Sins that will not condemn you to Hell), do not have to be Confessed in Confession. It is a good idea to Confess them, since any Venial Sins will require time in Purgatory. This list also includes Imperfections, which are not sins at all. <P> Mortal sins ((Latin) peccata mortalia) in Catholic theology are wrongful acts that condemn a person to Hell after death if unforgiven. These sins are considered mortal because they constitute a rupture in a person's link to God 's saving grace: the person's soul becomes dead, not merely weakened. A mortal sin is not necessarily a sin that cannot be repented, unlike an eternal sin. Thus, even after a mortal sin has been committed, there is a chance for repentance. <P> ... a single act of mortal sin is a bold declaration that you do not accept God's love. Mortal sin destroys charity in the heart of man by a grave violation of God's law; it turns man away from God, who is his ultimate end and his beatitude, by preferring an inferior good to him.... Mortal sin is a radical possibility of human freedom, as is love itself. <P> All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly.”. are sins of serious or grave matter. “Mortal” means death; they are sins that cause death to the soul. Venial sins are less serious sins. Scriptures tells us that there are sins that are deadly and sins that are not deadly in 1 John 5:16-17. “If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin <P> The Catholic Church divides sin into two categories: venial sins, in which guilt is relatively minor, and the more severe mortal sins. According to the Catechism of the Catholic Church, a mortal or deadly sin is believed to destroy the life of grace and charity within a person. Mortal sin, by attacking the vital principle within us – that is, charity – necessitates a new initiative of God's mercy and venial sin. <P> In the pre-Vatican II Catholic catechism, sins were categorized as mortal and venial.. In this definition, a mortal sin was one which would prevent someone from entering heaven unless one confessed it before death... These categories do not exist in the Orthodox Church. Sin is sin. A mortal sin is not necessarily a sin that cannot be repented, unlike an eternal sin. Thus, even after a mortal sin has been committed, there is a chance for repentance. <P> Mortal versus Venial Sin A serious, grave or mortal sin is the knowing and willful violation of God's law in a serious matter, for example, idolatry, adultery, murder, slander. These are all things gravely contrary to the love we owe God and, because of Him, our neighbor. <P> Mortal sins completely sever one’s relationship with God and the sacrament of Penance and Reconciliation (commonly called Confession) is necessary to restore this relationship. Venial sins are less serious sins. Scriptures tells us that there are sins that are deadly and sins that are not deadly in 1 John 5:16-17. “If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly.
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Wrongful acts that condemn a person to Hell after death if unforgivable.
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what is the closest airport to sanbona game reserve
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<P> White Lions on Sanbona Game Reserve. The Reserve lies in South Africa’s “Hinterland” only 3 hours drive from Cape Town, which makes it the closest free roaming Big Five Game Reserve to Cape. 54,000 ha of farmland was restored and restocked with African Wildlife. <P> Directions to Sanbona Wildlife Reserve. Sanbona Wildlife Reserve is situated approximately 3 hours from Cape Town on the renowned Route 62 between Montagu and Barrydale. <P> Airport & Private Airstrip. Eastgate Airport: The reserve is 20km or a 25-minute transfer from this our closest airport. Transfers to Thornybush and Simbambili can be arranged. Daily flights by South African Express Airways link Eastgate Airport to Johannesburg, Sun City and Cape Town. <P> About Sanbona Wildlife Reserve. Only 3 hours from Cape Town, Sanbona boasts 54 000 hectares of undulating mountains and plains, indigenous flora and fauna, rock formations and rock art. This is a destination not to be missed. <P> Big 5 Safari, 2.5 hours from Cape Town. Inverdoorn Game Reserve and Iziba Safari Lodge is located in the Ceres Karoo, just two and a half hours from Cape Town. Stretching across 10 000 hectares, Inverdoorn is the largest private wildlife reserve in the area, providing sanctuary to an abundance of wildlife. <P> The magnificent Sanbona Wildlife Reserve can be reached from Cape Town within a 3 hour drive, the distance is approximately 270 kms from Cape Town. Travel on the N1 from Cape Town in the direction of Paarl; continuing on the N1 travel through the Huguenot Tunnel. A tollgate controls this tunnel. <P> An easy 3 hour drive, approximately 270 kms from Cape Town. On commencement of the journey, travel on the N1 from Cape Town in the direction of Paarl; continuing on the N1 travel through the Huguenot Tunnel. A tollgate controls this tunnel. A tollgate fee is payable at the tunnel.
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Eastgate Airport
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in what kingdoms is chitin found in
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<P> Lignin is a phenolic compound, chemically related to benzene. The cell walls of fungi are diverse among the taxonomic groups, but most contain chitin microfibrils embedded in a polysaccharide matrix and covered with a loose coating of additional molecules combining sugars and peptides (amino acid chains). <P> Chitin is found in the kingdoms Animalia (animals) and Fungi. In the animal kingdom, it is found in arthropods (crustaceans, insects, etc.), mollusks, and fish (scales of certain species of fish, such as carp). It is also found in the cell walls of fungi. 1 Chitin in the Natural World Chitin, by definition, is a tough outer covering found on many organisms in the natural world. 2 Most often perhaps, chitin is associated with the exoskeleton of an insect, whi…. <P> What is chitin? It is a structural polysaccharide found in the exoskeltons of arthropods (insects, crabs, lobsters, shrimp, etc.), mollusks (shelled organisms), beak of cephalopods (squid and … octopus), and in the cell walls of fungi. 1 Chitin in the Natural World Chitin, by definition, is a tough outer covering found on many organisms in the natural world. 2 Most often perhaps, chitin is associated with the exoskeleton of an insect, whi…. <P> (2) A polysaccharide which makes up the cell walls of fungi and exoskeleton of insects. Supplement. Examples of organisms with chitin are the arthropods in their exoskeletons, some arachnids in their hard outer covering, molluscs in their radula, cephalopods in their beaks, and some fungi species in their cell walls. Chitin resembles keratin (protein component in human hair and nails) in structural function. <P> Chitin is to the animal kingdom that cellulose is to the plant kingdom. Chitin is found in shells of crustaceans and in the exoskeleton of insects. Chitin is a polymer of N-acetyl-D-glucosamine with NI, NII-diacetylchitobiose being the repeating unit. Like cellulose, intramolecular hydrogen bonding is important for the structure of chitin. <P> Chitin is found in fungi cell walls. Some diatoms (a type of protazoa) contain chitin in their cell walls along with inorganic glass-like substances. Chitin is found in the cell walls of fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects, the radulae of molluscs, and the beaks and internal shells of cepha … lopods, including squid and octopuses. <P> It is a characteristic component of the cell walls of fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans (e.g., crabs, lobsters and shrimps) and insects, the radulae of molluscs, and the beaks and internal shells of cephalopods, including squid and octopuses. Chitin is a modified polysaccharide that contains nitrogen; it is synthesized from units of N-acetylglucosamine (to be precise, 2-(acetylamino)-2-deoxy-. -glucose). These units form covalent β-1,4 linkages (similar to the linkages between glucose units forming cellulose). <P> Today, fungi that are classified in the Kingdom Mycetae (=true fungi), have a more restrictive set of characteristics: Eukaryotes with cell wall material composed primarily of chitin and derive their nutrition by absorption. 1 In the strict sense organisms classified as fungi have cell walls composed primarily of chitin. 2 However, we will be also be covering fungi that do not have chitin in their cell walls. 3 Fungi have a common nutritional mode: Absorption: The transport of food from their substrate into <P> Another feature of fungi is the presence of chitin in their cell walls. This is a long carbohydrate polymer that also occurs in the exoskeletons of insects, spiders, and other arthropods. The chitin adds rigidity and structural support to the thin cells of the fungus, and makes fresh mushrooms crisp. Fungi: More on Morphology. Like plants and animals, fungi are eukaryotic multicellular organisms. Unlike these other groups, however, fungi are composed of filaments called hyphae; their cells are long and thread-like and connected end-to-end, as you can see in the picture below.
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In the kingdoms Animalia (animals) and Fungi. In the animal kingdom, it is found in arthropods (crustaceans, insects, etc.), mollusks, and fish (scales of certain species of fish, such as carp). It is also found in the cell walls of fungi.
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who is joel sartore
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<P> Joel Sartore. Photographer. Fellow. Photograph by Joel Sartore. Photograph courtesy Joel Sartore. Joel Sartore is a photographer, speaker, author, teacher, conservationist, National Geographic fellow, and a regular contributor to National Geographic magazine. His hallmarks are a sense of humor and a Midwestern work ethic. <P> Camera Department | Miscellaneous Crew. Joel Sartore was born in Ponca City, Oklahoma, USA. He is known for his work on At Close Range with National Geographic (2007), Racing Extinction (2015) and Water: Our Thirsty World (2010). He is married to Kathy. See full bio ». <P> About Joel. Joel Sartore is a photographer, speaker, author, teacher, conservationist, National Geographic Fellow, and a regular contributor to National Geographic Magazine. His hallmarks are a sense of humor and a Midwestern work ethic. Joel and his work have been the subjects of several national broadcasts including National Geographic’s Explorer, the NBC Nightly News, NPR’s Weekend Edition and an hour-long PBS documentary, At Close Range. He is also a contributor on the CBS Sunday Morning Show with Charles Osgood. <P> A life-long Nebraskan, Joel Sartore brings a sense of humor and a mid-western work ethic to all of his National Geographic assignments. And there are times when he needs both of these qualities. He grew up in Ralston, Nebraska, a small town just outside Omaha. <P> Joel Sartore has produced more than 30 stories from around the world as a freelance photographer for NATIONAL GEOGRAPHIC magazine. He is an author, speaker and teacher who captivates audiences with his funny and inspiring adventures. Founder of the PHOTO ARK, his images show a world worth saving. <P> Joel Sartore. Photograph by Joel Sartore. Photograph courtesy Joel Sartore. Joel Sartore is a photographer, speaker, author, teacher, conservationist, National Geographic fellow, and a regular contributor to National Geographic magazine. His hallmarks are a sense of humor and a Midwestern work ethic <P> Mini Bio (1). Joel Sartore was born in Ponca City, Oklahoma, USA. He is known for his work on At Close Range with National Geographic (2007), Racing Extinction (2015) and Water: Our Thirsty World (2010). He is married to Kathy. <P> Joel Sartore. Joel Sartore brings a sense of humor to his National Geographic assignments. Over 20 years of experience have allowed him to cover everything from the remote Amazon rain forest to beer-drinking, mountain-racing firefighters in the United Kingdom. <P> Joel Sartore. Joel Sartore is a photographer, speaker, author, teacher, conservationist, National Geographic Fellow, and a regular contributor to National Geographic Magazine. His hallmarks are a sense of humor and a Midwestern work ethic. Joel and his work have been the subjects of several national broadcasts including National Geographic’s Explorer, the NBC Nightly News, NPR’s Weekend Edition and an hour-long PBS documentary, At Close Range. He is also a contributor on the CBS Sunday Morning Show with Charles Osgood.
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Is a photographer, speaker, author, teacher, conservationist, National Geographic Fellow, and a regular contributor to National Geographic Magazine
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how far is rhodes from lindos beach
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<P> Location. Holidays in Rhodes. Lindos Princess Beach Hotel is located in an ideal area for beach holidays in Rhodes near the famous and historic village of Lindos which is just 7 km away from this all-inclusive resort and offers a fantastic opportunity for shopping, swimming and sightseeing. It is also 1 km away from the village of Lardos. Furthermore, our beach hotel is 50 km from the airport, which can be reached by bus, car or taxi, and 55 km from the port of Rhodes, 55 km from Rhodes with its old town built in medieval times and a UNESCO global cultural heritage site together with plenty of other sights. <P> It is situated at a distance of 60 kilometers southern to the town of Rhodes, at the eastern coast of the island, only a few kilometers far from Lindos and some 70 kilometers southern to the International Airport of Rhodes. <P> Vlicha Beach. Vlicha (or Vlycha) beach is situated approximately 3km north of Lindos and is a very long stretch of beach with a mix of sand and shingle. There are some popular 4 and 5 star hotels and luxury villas near the beach making this a perfect spot for a holiday retreat <P> Lindos Beach The beach of Lindos is found, just below the acropolis, at a distance of a few hundred meters far from the settlement and some 50 kilometers southern to the town of Rhodes. Being that close to Lindos, a wide range of accommodation, shopping and amusement facilities are offered to the tourist. Ladiko Beach The beach of Ladiko is situated at the eastern coast of the island within a small cove, just after the Anthony Quinn beach, at a distance of some 15 kilometers far from the town of Rhodes. It is an excellent beach, 700 meters long and 30 meters wide. more about Ladiko Beach... <P> Faliraki Beach The sandy beach of Faliraki is situated at the eastern coast of Rhodes, at a distance of some 12-16 kilometers far from the town of Rhodes ant the South. It is a more than 5 kilometers long beach, in front of the homonymous tourist resort. more about Faliraki Beach... Ladiko Beach The beach of Ladiko is situated at the eastern coast of the island within a small cove, just after the Anthony Quinn beach, at a distance of some 15 kilometers far from the town of Rhodes. It is an excellent beach, 700 meters long and 30 meters wide. more about Ladiko Beach... <P> Vlicha Beach The sandy beach in Vlycha Bay is situated at a distance of some 3 kilometers far from Lindos at the Northwest and some 47 kilometers southern to the town of Rhodes. As Vlycha is very close to Lindos, you have at your disposal all the facilities available in the settlement. Ladiko Beach The beach of Ladiko is situated at the eastern coast of the island within a small cove, just after the Anthony Quinn beach, at a distance of some 15 kilometers far from the town of Rhodes. It is an excellent beach, 700 meters long and 30 meters wide. more about Ladiko Beach... <P> Taxis are almost always Mercedes and almost always go too fast. BUSES-There is a regular bus service between Rhodes Town and the south of the island. It takes about 1 hour twenty minutes to get to Rhodes from Lindos (calling at many villages and towns on the way). There is a timetable in the Main square. You have to go to the bus stops at the main car-park, above the village, to catch a bus to Pefkos or Rhodes. The most common form of transport in Lindos is The Donkey! Working from the Donkey Station near the Main Square the Donkeys take tourists to and from the Acropolis. They also meet the Rhodes boat excursions to carry tourists up the hill from the Pallas Beach. <P> 60-80 minuten. In the morning there runs a bus every half hour from Rhodes to Lindos. In the afternoon, the frequency is somewhat lower with 1 bus per hour. Along the route, the bus makes several stops at beach resorts. The center of Lindos is pedestrianized. Buses (including tour buses of the cruise lines) have to park at Kranas Square. This is about 20 minutes walk from the city center at the foot of the hill. The first part of the road is downhill.
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50 kilometers
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how to do you cure diabetes
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<P> If you have type 1 diabetes, you have to take daily insulin shots. If you have type 2 diabetes you have more of a choice. More than any other disease, people with diabetes have to take responsibility for their own care. You have it in your power to keep blood sugar levels from going too low or too high. When blood sugar levels drop too low you can become nervous, shaky, and confused—if you don't pass out entirely. <P> Doing the diabetes cure protocol you will be able to measure how well your blood sugar is doing to the point you can throw away ALL your drugs finally and… forever. Junk Food Problem – generations of miseducated people have no knowledge about what real food is. Of course you do all the other protocols in the Cure Manual and all type 2 diabetes should be corrected in 1 month. Learn these new health habits, stay away from grains, bad fats, polluted processed products and you will be cured of diabetes PERMANENTLY. This is where the truth leads to curing diabete <P> About 48 percent use oral medicine, and 40 percent use insulin, sometimes together with oral medicine. Testing is the basic strategy. The key to controlling diabetes for all of these types is blood testing. This means using a blood glucose meter to check how much sugar is in your blood. More than any other disease, people with diabetes have to take responsibility for their own care. You have it in your power to keep blood sugar levels from going too low or too high. When blood sugar levels drop too low you can become nervous, shaky, and confused—if you don't pass out entirely. <P> Type 2. Diabetes is a problem with your body that causes blood glucose (sugar) levels to rise higher than normal. This is also called hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes. If you have type 2 diabetes your body does not use insulin properly. This is called insulin resistance. At first, your pancreas makes extra insulin to make up for it. But, over time it isn't able to keep up and can't make enough insulin to keep your blood glucose at normal levels. <P> I’ll let you answer that question…. For a guaranteed way to reverse, cure or control type 2 diabetes, you need to check out my Master Your Diabetes Program. In Master Your Diabetes, you’ll learn how to get your blood sugar perfect, even if it’s in the 400’s. Click here to master your diabetes now…. Imagine this. You haven’t been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes yet. The morning of your physical exam with your physician, you decide to check your blood sugar just for fun. Maybe you had a blood glucose meter hanging around somewhere for a family member. You test your blood sugar and to your surprise it’s 212. <P> Diabetes Cure. A cure for diabetes is proving elusive. Cures for both type 1 diabetes and type 2 diabetes have not yet been discovered, but progress is being made to prospectively cure type 1 diabetes in this generation. As studies continue, the root causes and mechanism behind both forms of the disease are becoming more clearly understood all the time. <P> How to cure diabetes without medicine is relatively easy if you are vigilant about the management of your diabetes. It is important to make sure that you do not take it upon yourself to give up your medication without the consultation of your doctor first. <P> With all the research on diabetes and advances in diabetes treatments, it's tempting to think someone has surely found a diabetes cure by now. But the reality is that there is no cure for diabetes -- neither type 1 diabetes nor type 2 diabetes. Even though there's no diabetes cure, diabetes can be treated and controlled, and some people may go into remission. To manage diabetes effectively, you need to do the following: Manage your blood sugar levels.
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To manage diabetes effectively, you need to do the following: Manage your blood sugar levels.
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pretentious definition
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<P> The adjective PRETENTIOUS has 3 senses: 1. making claim to or creating an appearance of (often undeserved) importance or distinction. 2. intended to attract notice and impress others. 3. of a display that is tawdry or vulgar. Familiarity information: PRETENTIOUS used as an adjective is uncommon. <P> Learner's definition of PRETENTIOUS. [more pretentious; most pretentious] disapproving. : having or showing the unpleasant quality of people who want to be regarded as more impressive, successful, or important than they really are. He's a pretentious snob. <P> 1. Claiming that or behaving as if one is important or deserving of merit when such is not the case: a pretentious socialite. 2. Showing or betraying an attitude of superiority: made pretentious remarks about his education. 3. Marked by an extravagant or presumptuous outward show; ostentatious: a pretentious house. <P> pretentious. adjective. 1 Claiming that or behaving as if one is important or deserving of merit when such is not the case: a pretentious socialite. 2 Showing or betraying an attitude of superiority: made pretentious remarks about his education. 3 Marked by an extravagant or presumptuous outward show; ostentatious: a pretentious house. <P> 1 Claiming that or behaving as if one is important or deserving of merit when such is not the case: a pretentious socialite. 2 Showing or betraying an attitude of superiority: made pretentious remarks about his education. 3 Marked by an extravagant or presumptuous outward show; ostentatious: a pretentious house. <P> LINK / CITE ADD TO WORD LIST. adjective. The definition of pretentious is someone or something that claims to be very important or grand. An example of pretentious is someone saying they deserve a table in a crowded restaurant because of who they are.
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Claiming that or behaving as if one is important or deserving of merit.
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how much does it cost to pull a tooth in ireland
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<P> 1 A simple tooth extraction costs around $75 to $150. 2 But if it involves surgery for an impacted tooth or other complicated condition, the cost may run from $150 to $700. 3 An extraction of a tooth that has fully erupted from the gum but does not necessarily require surgery costs around $75 to $400. <P> 1 Surgical extraction of a tooth can cost $150-$650 or more, depending on the type of anesthesia used (IV sedation typically costs $250-$500 more than local anesthesia), the local cost of living, whether the appointment is on an emergency basis and the type of extraction. <P> Choose from 347 Wisdom Tooth Extraction Clinics in Ireland and compare prices, patient reviews, and availability. Find the Best Price for Wisdom Tooth Extraction in Ireland. Compare how much Wisdom Tooth Extraction cost at all 347 clinics and save money on your treatment. <P> A tooth extraction ranged in price from 40- 60 in Dublin, to 35- 50 in the rest of the Republic and only 18- 38 in the North. Prices for a single porcelain crown offered the biggest savings in Northern Ireland (158- 290) compared with the cost in Dublin (425- 600) and the rest of the country (400- 500). <P> 1 Pulling a tooth that has some bony covering may run between $300 to $600 or even more. 2 Simple pulling of wisdom tooth, or third molars, costs between $75 and $200 per tooth, while an erupted wisdom tooth may cost between $225 and $600 for each impacted tooth. <P> 1 Simple pulling of wisdom tooth, or third molars, costs between $75 and $200 per tooth, while an erupted wisdom tooth may cost between $225 and $600 for each impacted tooth. 2 Extracting four impacted wisdom teeth in one appointment will cost around $1,000 to $3,000. <P> Cost of wisdom teeth removal-Extraction. As of 2015, our cost range from $200 to $400 per tooth for surgical wisdom teeth removal. This includes the cost of local anesthesia and follow visits. On average, the patient can expect to spend about $1,200 for four
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A tooth extraction ranged in price from 40- 60 in Dublin, to 35- 50 in the rest of the Republic and only 18- 38 in the North.
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what eye structure is transparent
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<P> The outer covering of the eyeball consists of a relatively tough, white layer called the sclera (or white of the eye). Near the front of the eye, in the area protected by the eyelids, the sclera is covered by a thin, transparent membrane (conjunctiva), which runs to the edge of the cornea. The conjunctiva also covers the moist back surface of the eyelids and eyeballs. The cornea serves as a protective covering for the front of the eye and also helps focus light on the retina at the back of the eye. After passing through the cornea, light travels through the pupil (the black dot in the middl <P> It protects the cornea against damage by friction (tears from the tear glands help this process by lubricating the surface of the conjunctiva) Cornea Is the transparent, curved front of the eye which helps to converge the light rays which enter the eye Sclera Is an opaque, fibrous, protective outer structure. It protects the cornea against damage by friction (tears from the tear glands help this process by lubricating the surface of the conjunctiva) Lens Is the transparent, curved front of the eye which helps to converge the light rays which enter the eye Retina Is a transparent, jelly-like mass located behind the lens. <P> Both the anterior and the posterior chambers contain aqueous fluid. The cornea and the crystalline lens have no blood supply, so this clear aqueous fluid provides nutrients and removes any waste deposits from the transparent structures in the front of the eye. Sclera. The eye consists of three layers of tissue which make up the wall of the eye. The sclera is the outermost layer of tissue, also called the white of the eye. This layer is a very stable fibrous membrane that continues to retain the shape of the eye and provides protection. <P> EYE STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION Eye is like a camera. The external object is seen like the camera takes the picture of any object. Light enters the eye through a small hole called the pupil and is focused on the retina, which is like a camera film. Eye also has a focusing lens, which focuses images from different distances on the retina. The colored ring of the eye, the iris, controls the amount of light entering the eye. It closes when light is bright and opens when light is dim. A tough white sheet called sclera covers the outside of the eye. Front of this sheet (sclera) is transparent in order to allow the light to enter the eye, the cornea. Ciliary muscles in ciliary body control the focusing of lens automatically. Choroid forms the vascular layer of the eye supplying nutrition to the eye structures <P> For other uses, see Cornea (disambiguation) . The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. The cornea, with the anterior chamber and lens, refracts light, with the cornea accounting for approximately two-thirds of the eye's total optical power. In humans, the refractive power of the cornea is approximately 43 dioptres. While the cornea contributes most of the eye's focusing power, its focus is fixed. <P> Structure of the eye. The cornea is a transparent structure found in the very front of the eye that helps to focus incoming light. Situated behind the pupil is a colorless, transparent structure called the crystalline lens. A clear fluid called the aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris <P> The Cornea. The cornea is a transparent dome-shaped tissue that forms the front part of your eye. It functions as a window and allows light to enter your eye. It also begins the process of focusing light rays that allow you to see words and images clearly. <P> Cornea. The cornea and sclera form the outer fibrous layer of the eye. The cornea is a clear transparent tissue, which is located forward of the eyeball. Light rays pass through this limpid tissue, and on through the crystalline lens to reach the retina. The cornea is convex in shape and for this reason directs or bends light rays so that they can be focused on the retina. Sclera. The eye consists of three layers of tissue which make up the wall of the eye. The sclera is the outermost layer of tissue, also called the white of the eye. This layer is a very stable fibrous membrane that continues to retain the shape of the eye and provides protection.
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The cornea or crystalline lens.
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substitution mutations definition
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<P> Examples of base-pair substitutions: purine substituted with a different purine (A → G) or a pyrimidine for a different pyrimidine (C → T). This type of substitution mutation is transition. Another kind is transversion, which is less common. In transversion, purine is substituted with pyrimidine or a pyrimidine with a purine. See also: point mutation. Please contribute to this project, if you have more information about this term feel free to edit this page. This page was last modified on 16 October 2008, at 00:53.This page has been accessed 109,894 times. <P> A substitution is a mutation that exchanges one base for another (i.e., a change in a single chemical letter such as switching an A to a G). Such a substitution could: 1 change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and cause a small change in the protein produced. 2 For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a substitution in the beta-hemoglobin gene, which alters a single amino acid in the protein produced. <P> Substitution. A substitution is a mutation that exchanges one base for another (i.e., a change in a single chemical letter such as switching an A to a G). Such a substitution could: 1 change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and cause a small change in the protein produced. 1 change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and cause a small change in the protein produced. 2 For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a substitution in the beta-hemoglobin gene, which alters a single amino acid <P> A point mutation, or single base modification, is a type of mutation that causes a single nucleotide base change, insertion, or deletion of the genetic material, DNA or RNA. The term frameshift mutation indicates the addition or deletion of a base pair. <P> 1 For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a substitution in the beta-hemoglobin gene, which alters a single amino acid in the protein produced. 2 change a codon to one that encodes the same amino acid and causes no change in the protein produced. 3 These are called silent mutations. Such a substitution could: 1 change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and cause a small change in the protein produced. 2 <P> Substitution mutation. Definition. A type of point mutation in which a single nucleotide is substituted with (or exchanged for) a different nucleotide that may result in an altered sequence of amino acid during translation, which may render the newly synthesized protein ineffective. Supplement. In transversion, purine is substituted with pyrimidine or a pyrimidine with a purine. See also: point mutation. Please contribute to this project, if you have more information about this term feel free to edit this page. This page was last modified on 16 October 2008, at 00:53.This page has been accessed 109,894 times. <P> 1 change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and cause a small change in the protein produced. 2 For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a substitution in the beta-hemoglobin gene, which alters a single amino acid in the protein produced. Such a substitution could: 1 <P> Substitution is a type of mutation where one base pair is replaced by a different base pair. The term also refers to the replacement of one amino acid in a protein with a different amino acid. Definition from: Talking Glossary of Genetic Terms from the National Human Genome Research Institute. In genetics, a type of mutation due to replacement of one nucleotide in a DNA sequence by another nucleotide or replacement of one amino acid in a protein by another amino acid. Definition from: Human Genome Project Information at the U.S. Department of Energy. <P> Definition of POINT MUTATION. : a gene mutation involving the substitution, addition, or deletion of a single nucleotide base. ADVERTISEMENT. noun. : a gene mutation involving the substitution, addition, or deletion of a single nucleotide base. ADVERTISEMENT
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A type of point mutation in which a single nucleotide is substituted with (or exchanged for) a different nucleotide that may result in an altered sequence of amino acid during translation, which may render the newly synthesized protein ineffective.
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what causes downloads to stop
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<P> Collapse this image Expand this image. 1 Close all Internet Explorer windows. 2 Start Internet Explorer. 3 A dialog box appears that contains the This add-on can cause Internet Explorer to stop responding or crash warning. 4 Select the Always open Internet Explorer without this add-on option, and then click OK. <P> For users who commonly encounter intermittent connectivity issues or download failure, a download manager may help. Download managers are a third-party application that can monitor, and if needed, resume a download from where it stopped previously. <P> 1 Close all Internet Explorer windows. 2 Start Internet Explorer. 3 A dialog box appears that contains the This add-on can cause Internet Explorer to stop responding or crash warning. 4 Select the Always open Internet Explorer without this add-on option, and then click OK. <P> Usually, these issues result in high latency or lag, which in turn cause your download to fail. When this occurs, it is problematic in that your Internet cache may think the download was completed, thus making the browser not want to resume. <P> Why does my download stop before it is finished? When a user experiences an issue while downloading files, it is usually a problem with the connection to their Internet service. Consequently, the best solution is to contact your ISP for further information. However, there are a few situations where the issues can be cleared up on the user's end. <P> This will cause the video to pause or buffer until enough of it can download for you to view. All you can really do, if this is causing your video to slow down, is wait until a time when requests to the content provider have slowed down and try to play the video again. <P> To resolve this issue you need to determine what is causing Windows Explorer to stop working, try the troubleshooting steps below to help determine the issue. Outdated or corrupt video drivers can cause Windows Explorer to stop working. Downloading and installing the latest video driver can solve many of these issues. You can do this from using Windows Update or by visiting your system manufacturer’s website or by contacting them directly.
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When a user experiences an issue while downloading files, it is usually a problem with the connection to their Internet service.
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who is grover in the lightning thief
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<P> Grover, the satyr and protector helped Percy a lot. He finds Percy at Yancy Academy, escorts him to Camp Half Blood, accompanies him on the quest to retrieve the bolt and so o … n. During the quest, Grover saves Percy's and Annabeth's life many times. Percy calls Grover his best friend. <P> Grover is played by Brandon T. Jackson in the movies Percy Jackson & the Olympians: The Lightning Thief and Percy Jackson: Sea of Monsters the film adaptations of the first and second books in the series, The Lightning Thief and The Sea of Monsters. <P> Grover Underwood is a fictional character in Rick Riordan 's Percy Jackson and the Olympians series. He is a satyr, a mythological Greek being that is half goat and half human. He has the upper body of a human and the legs and horns of a goat. He uses fake feet when he wants to look like a human. <P> Character Analysis. The G-man. Percy's best and only friend in the world. Grover has stuck by Percy throughout sixth grade and has kept watch over him. Percy meets Grover at Yancy Academy and spends much of the time protecting him: Grover was an easy target. He was scrawny. He cried when he got frustrated. <P> Main article: Percy Jackson and the Olympians: The Lightning Thief (video game) Grover is one of the main characters in the video game for The Lightning Thief. He has no resistance or vulnerability to any types of moves. <P> In the film, The Lightning Thief, Grover is played by Brandon T. Jackson. Aside from his ethnicity being changed from Caucasian to African American, Grover's personality is also changed from being somewhat timid and self-doubting, to being confident and smooth. <P> The Lightning Thief, written by Rick Riordan, is the first book in the Percy Jackson and the Olympians series. The book was adapted into a motion picture and a graphic novel in 2010. <P> The G-man. Percy's best and only friend in the world. Grover has stuck by Percy throughout sixth grade and has kept watch over him. Percy meets Grover at Yancy Academy and spends much of the time protecting him: Grover was an easy target. He was scrawny.
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Brandon T. Jackson
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what is ABS body
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<P> Measuring your body fat percentage is a useful tool to track your progress on your journey to get six-pack abs. Most people who've tried to achieve a 6-pack realized that abdominal exercises don’t burn fat off your stomach. Abs are made in the kitchen, not just in the gym. Recommendations for 6-pack Abs. The problem with trying to pin down one specific body fat number as THE body fat level for seeing 6-pack abs (or being ripped and contest-ready) is that everyone stores their body fat differently and two people with the same percentage will look different. <P> You'll probably have to hit the very lean category for six pack abs. However, the bottom line is that there's no perfect body fat percentage where you're assured of seeing your abs. Besides, body fat is one of those numbers that gets fudged and exaggerated all the time. Well, I know a guy who looks absolutely chiseled in his abs at 11% body fat, but other guys don't look really cut in the abs until they get down to 6-8% body fat. Bodybuilders usually aren’t ready for competition until they get below 6%. <P> http://nicktumminello.com/ - Coach Nick Tumminello, Baltimore Personal Trainer, shows you how to perform the Body Saw Abs workout. The Body Saw is a great abs exercise to get six pack abs and build core stability. <P> This is my boyfriend at 10% body fat, but a lot of his competing friends have to get down to 6-8% body fat before they achieve the same cut and defined 6-pack abs. Most Bodybuilders aren't ready for competition until they get under 6%. Recommendations for 6-pack Abs. The problem with trying to pin down one specific body fat number as THE body fat level for seeing 6-pack abs (or being ripped and contest-ready) is that everyone stores their body fat differently and two people with the same percentage will look different. <P> Measuring your body fat percentage is a valuable tool to chart your progress on your quest to get six pack abs. Hopefully most people realize by now that abdominal exercises don't burn fat off your stomach. Abs are made in the kitchen, not just in the gym. When the realization hits you that you must reduce your body fat percentage to see your abs, one of the biggest questions that pops into your mind is, how low do I have to get my body fat percentage to see my abs?. It's a tough question and the answer may be different for men than women. <P> · just now. Report Abuse. The human abdomen (from the Latin word meaning belly) is the part of the body between the pelvis and the thorax. ... In case you're wanting to work this muscle out (abs), check out this program my buddy Mike Geary created. <P> Shredded abs are possibly the ultimate goal, or the holy grail for gym-going guys across the land. For women, too, a lean, ripped stomach is something many strive for. To get visible abs, your body fat needs to be low. How low depends on a number of factors though and what's low enough for you might not be right for the next person. While everyone is different, there is something to be said for looking at a standard guide when determining what levels of body fat you need to see your abs. According to trainer and nutritionist Tom Venuto, you'll need to get very lean <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Abs is short for abdomen muscles, or stomach muscles. They are strengthened through sit-ups. Abdominal muscles The abdominal muscles are located between the ribs and the pelvis on the front of the body. The four abdominal muscle groups combine to completely cover the internal organs. The abdominal muscles support the trunk, allow movement, and hold organs in place by regulating internal abdominal pressure. For example, the right external oblique contracts to turn the body to the left. Internal oblique muscles – these flank the rectus abdominus, and are located just inside the hip-bones. They operate in the opposite way to the external oblique muscles. <P> Measuring your body fat percentage is a valuable tool to chart your progress on your quest to get six pack abs. Hopefully most people realize by now that abdominal exercises don’t burn fat off your stomach. Abs are made in the kitchen, not just in the gym. Well, I know a guy who looks absolutely chiseled in his abs at 11% body fat, but other guys don't look really cut in the abs until they get down to 6-8% body fat. Bodybuilders usually aren’t ready for competition until they get below 6%.
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Abs is short for abdomen muscles, or stomach muscles. They are strengthened through sit-ups. Abdominal muscles The abdominal muscles are located between the ribs and the pelvis on the front of the body.
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what is it engineering salary
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<P> Average Engineer Salaries. The average salary for engineer jobs is $66,000. Average engineer salaries can vary greatly due to company, location, industry, experience and benefits. This salary was calculated using the average salary for all jobs with the term engineer anywhere in the job listing. <P> The annual salary for someone with the job title Engineer I may vary depending on a number of factors including industry, company size, location, years of experience and level of education. May require a bachelor's degree in engineering and 0-2 years of experience in the field or in a related area. Has knowledge of commonly-used concepts, practices, and procedures within a particular field. Relies on instructions and pre-established guidelines to perform the functions of the job. <P> Job Description for Systems Engineer, IT. Read More... A systems engineer (IT) is in charge of creating computer systems for clients and a system to debug systems with glitches or problems. Systems engineers (IT) also are in charge of creating the most efficient program for each client; in some cases, they will work on robotic machinery and computer chips. <P> Salary Outlook. According to the BLS, mechanical engineers earned a median salary of $82,100 in 2013. The best-paid earned about $123,340, while the lowest-paid earned less than $52,550. Industries that pay well include oil and gas extraction as well as information services. With an average salary of $85,930 in 2013, mechanical engineers are filling their coffers at a higher rate than a number of other technology jobs. Computer programmers, by comparison, make $80,930. The gap is wider for computer support specialists, who earn an average annual salary of $64,160. Still, some technology jobs, like information security analysts ($91,210) and IT managers ($132,570), earn more than mechanical engineer <P> In the 2012 Engineering Income and Salary Survey, conducted by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) and the American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), we look at the state of salaries and the job market in the field of engineering. Over 12,000 engineers from the U.S. responded to the online salary survey between April 1, 2011 and March 31, 2012, providing insights into salaries and job market. <P> For example the median expected annual pay for a typical Engineer I in the United States is $61,948, so 50% of the people who perform the job of Engineer I in the United States are expected to make less than $61,948. Source: HR Reported data as of October 2015. 1 Salary. 2 Salary + Bonus. May require a bachelor's degree in engineering and 0-2 years of experience in the field or in a related area. Has knowledge of commonly-used concepts, practices, and procedures within a particular field. Relies on instructions and pre-established guidelines to perform the functions of the job. <P> Well there are a wide range of jobs in the Engineering category and their pay varies greatly. If you know the pay grade of the job you are searching for you can narrow down this list to only view Engineering jobs that pay less than $30K, $30K-$50K, $50K-$80K, $80K-$100K, or more than $100K. If you are unsure how much your Engineering job pays you can choose to either browse all Engineering salaries below or you can search all Engineering salaries. Other related categories you may wish to browse are IT -- All jobs and Construction and Installation jobs. jobs in. industry. <P> A Mechanical Engineer earns an average salary of $66,437 per year. Most people move on to other jobs if they have more than 20 years' experience in this career. Experience has a moderate effect on income for this job. <P> Related job categories: IT -- All, Construction and Installation. Browse Engineering jobs by salary range: , $30K-$50K, $50K-$80K, $80K-$100K, or. Search by: Keyword Category. Search. Jobs by Salary Ranges: Click a salary category to find jobs in your target salary range. If you are unsure how much your Engineering job pays you can choose to either browse all Engineering salaries below or you can search all Engineering salaries. Other related categories you may wish to browse are IT -- All jobs and Construction and Installation jobs. jobs in. industry.
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Average $66,000
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what is the salary for radiology technician
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<P> The mean annual radiology technician salary is $56,450. The mean salary is calculated by adding all the wages within the occupation and divid that value by the total number of employees. Lowest 10% of this occupation makes less than $37,060 and the top 10% makes over $77,160. <P> Radiologic Technologist Salary in 2013. A. ccording to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), a majority of radiology technologists work in hospitals (about 61 percent as of 2010) and may work nights, weekends, or for emergencies. Level of education and geographic location will influence the salary ranges of most technologists. <P> Radiology Technician Salary. (United States). Average Radiology Technicians in the United States make around $19.40 per hour. Pay ranges from $13.22 per hour on the low end to $27.59 on the high end. Experience level and the particular city each impact pay for this group, with the former having the largest influence. <P> $34,750. The median annual wage for radiologic technologists was $54,620 in May 2012. The median wage is the wage at which half the workers in an occupation earned more than that amount and half earned less. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $37,060, and the highest 10 percent earned more than $77,160. The median annual wage for MRI technologists was $65,360 in May 2012. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $46,400, and the highest 10 percent earned more than $89,130. Most radiologic and MRI technologists work full time. <P> Salary. The current median annual wage for radiologic technologists as of May 2013 is $55,200, according to the US Bureau of Labor Statistics. Salaries range from $37,570 to $78,440, with hospitals and diagnostic laboratories generally paying higher levels of compensation than physicians’ offices. <P> According the the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the mean annual radiology technologist salary is $56,760. The lowest 10 percent of reported incomes was averaged at $37,570 while the top 10 percent of earners took home an estimated $78,440. <P> According to the American Society of Radiologic Technologists, the average beginning salary for a radiology tech is just under $37,000. The salary range for radiology techs is $30,000 to $90,000, with 5% of techs earning less than or more than the range. <P> With an average salary of $56,760 in 2013, radiologic technologists earned more than clinical laboratory technicians ($40,240) but slightly less than respiratory therapists ($57,880), and roughly $10K less than diagnostic medical sonographers ($67,170). Salary Outlook. Radiologic technologists earned a median salary of $55,200 in 2013. The highest-paid earned $78,440, while the lowest-paid earned $37,570.
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The mean annual radiology technologist salary is $56,760.
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how long does it take for a bird egg to hatch
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<P> Share to: It takes 28 days for duck eggs to hatch.....and it takes 21 days for baby chicks to hatch and you can only put 12 eggs under neath a chicken.. Turkey eggs usually take 21 to 28 days to hatch depending on what they are incubated in like an incubator or by a hen. It also depends on how fertile it is and how it is cared … for. It usually takes closer to 28 days. + 158 others found this useful <P> Birds built a nest and laid eggs in my grill. I left them alone, but I think the birds abandoned the nest. I want to cook on my grill, but I want to give the little guys a chance too. How long does it usually take bird eggs to hatch. Don't know what kind of bird this is, but they're tiny eggs. It could take up to a month for them to hatch and then weeks to months (again depending) for them to leave the nest. Keep a watch on the nest from a distance and see if mother comes to sit on them, especially at night. She should be there most of the time but might be startled away by proximity of people. <P> So, how long does it take for fertilized chicken eggs to hatch? The answer to that is 21 days exactly, although you need to bear in mind that this can vary, depending on a number of circumstances. If on the other hand you use an incubator in order to hatch fertilized chicken eggs, they can sometimes hatch a day or two early, or they can also hatch out a few days late. Things like humidity and temperature play a significant role. <P> How long does it take for a chicken egg to hatch? With optimum conditions such as temperature and humidity a chicken egg takes 21 days to hatch. From when it was layed, about 20-28 days,depending on the breed. From th … e time when the egg first cracked, about one day. Turkey eggs usually take 21 to 28 days to hatch depending on what they are incubated in like an incubator or by a hen. It also depends on how fertile it is and how it is cared … for. It usually takes closer to 28 days. + 158 others found this useful <P> Best Answer: Hi, it depends on the bird breed. Some eggs like robins take 10 to 14 days. Some eggs like the ostrich take up to four weeks etc. But it's going to be hard to hatch the egg you've found as you don't know what breed it is; therefore you don't know what temperature is needed to hatch it. But good luck anyway :-). <P> It takes about12-14 days (a week and 5 days- 2 weeks) for robin bird eggs to hatch :). Depends on the bird. Chicken: 21 days Duck: 28 days Geese: roughly a month Peafowl: 28 days Blue Jay: 18 days Robin: 12-14 days. <P> Whereas fertilized chicken eggs usually take exactly 21 days to hatch, most duck eggs take 28 days, apart from Muscovy ducks. As a general rule of thumb, the eggs of Muscovy ducks take 35 days, but once again, it can vary slightly depending on conditions. If on the other hand you use an incubator in order to hatch fertilized chicken eggs, they can sometimes hatch a day or two early, or they can also hatch out a few days late. Things like humidity and temperature play a significant role. <P> Do you know how long the egg has been left out to the elements? Even if you were successful in getting an egg to hatch, the survival chances of the young nestling would be minimal at best. Feeding a nestling would require a commitment of 16 hours a day 7 days a week for 2 weeks on average. Dietary needs of baby birds vary with species. Not all birds eat worms. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: It varies by species..but most passerines (perching birds) take approximately 2 weeks to hatch their eggs, and usually another 2 weeks before the young leave the nest. It could take up to a month for them to hatch and then weeks to months (again depending) for them to leave the nest. Keep a watch on the nest from a distance and see if mother comes to sit on them, especially at night. She should be there most of the time but might be startled away by proximity of people.
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12-14 days
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how to grow petunia indoor
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<P> When grown outdoors, petunias only need watering about once a week. Indoors, these plants need more frequent watering. Check the surface of the soil once a day and water your plants with room-temperature water if the soil feels dry. Give the surface soil time to dry completely before you water your petunias again. Soil. Petunias grow well in almost any type of soil as long as the medium has good drainage. Make sure your petunia's container has a sufficient number of drainage holes to allow the excess water to escape. You could add a little peat moss to the soil to help your indoor plants better retain nutrients and moisture. <P> How to Grow Petunias Indoors. Select a container that has sufficient holes for draining. Choose grandiflora, multiflora or milliflora petunia varieties over groundcover brands. Fill container two-thirds full with a 50-50 mix of potting soil and compost. Water as necessary. Petunias like soil that is moist to slightly dry. Deadhead by removing spent blooms as necessary to promote new buds and encourage continuous blooming. Feed once a month with a balanced liquid fertilizer (8-8-8 or 10-10-10). <P> Indoor Petunia Varieties. Of the many petunia varieties, some are more suitable for growing indoors than others. Multiflora petunias are compact varieties that bear 1 1/2- to 3-inch flowers. Milliflora petunias are miniature plants covered with 1- to 1 1/2-inch flowers. Soil. Petunias grow well in almost any type of soil as long as the medium has good drainage. Make sure your petunia's container has a sufficient number of drainage holes to allow the excess water to escape. You could add a little peat moss to the soil to help your indoor plants better retain nutrients and moisture. <P> Transplant your petunias once the sprouts have leaves. Leaves can take several weeks to develop. Indoors, plant several plants together, several inches a part in one large container, if desired. Keep plants in an area of the home that receives about six hours of sunlight. However, since petunias are annuals, this will need to be done each year, which can add up financially over the years. You can plant seeds that are much less expensive and then transplant the petunias to the outdoors when they're ready. Or you can continue to grow them indoors. <P> Place petunia plants in the container on the soil and water lightly prior to filling container with soil. Cover the base of the petunia plants with remaining soil, slightly packing to ensure the root system is not exposed to air. Place in a spot where the petunias can receive at least five hours of sunlight a day. Direct, full sun is best. Water as necessary. Water as necessary. Petunias like soil that is moist to slightly dry. Deadhead by removing spent blooms as necessary to promote new buds and encourage continuous blooming. Feed once a month with a balanced liquid fertilizer (8-8-8 or 10-10-10). <P> Planting petunias is easiest when they are purchased as a mature plant that is ready plant outdoors or to be kept indoors. However, since petunias are annuals, this will need to be done each year, which can add up financially over the years. You can plant seeds that are much less expensive and then transplant the petunias to the outdoors when they're ready. Or you can continue to grow them indoors. Start this process in March or April <P> 1 You can grow petunias from seeds, but it is easier to grow them from transplants. 2 If you are going to grow from seeds, start them indoors 10 to 12 weeks before you want to set them outside. 3 Petunia seeds are very small and needs lots of light in order to germinate. 4 Remember to water them. 1 If you are going to grow from seeds, start them indoors 10 to 12 weeks before you want to set them outside. 2 Petunia seeds are very small and needs lots of light in order to germinate. 3 Remember to water them. 4 When the plants have three leaves, you can plant them outside. <P> Sow your Wave petunia seed into a moistened germination media or potting soil. Petunias benefit from light for best germination, therefore do not cover the seeds. Place the tray in a warm and bright location. Fluorescent lights are suitable for a light source, both for germination and for growing on.
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Place petunia plants in the container on the soil and water lightly prior to filling container with soil. Cover the base of the petunia plants with remaining soil, slightly packing to ensure the root system is not exposed to air. Place in a spot where the petunias can receive at least five hours of sunlight a day.Direct, full sun is best. Water as necessary.Petunias like soil that is moist to slightly dry. Deadhead by removing spent blooms as necessary to promote new buds and encourage continuous blooming. Feed once a month with a balanced liquid fertilizer (8-8-8 or 10-10-10).
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what is pancreatic
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<P> The pancreas is a gland organ that is located in the abdomen. It is part of the digestive system and produces important enzymes and hormones that help break down foods. <P> The pancreas contains exocrine and endocrine glands that create pancreatic juices, hormones, and insulin. Pancreatic juices, or enzymes, made by the exocrine glands are released into the intestines by way of a series of ducts in order to help digest fat, proteins, and carbohydrates. Over 95% of the pancreas is made up of exocrine glands and ducts. <P> Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas. The pancreas is a large gland behind the stomach and close to the duodenum—the first part of the small intestine. The pancreas secretes digestive juices, or enzymes, into the duodenum through a tube called the pancreatic duct. <P> The pancreas is a large gland behind the stomach and next to the small intestine. The pancreas does two main things: 1 It releases powerful digestive enzymes into the small intestine to aid the digestion of food. 2 It releases the hormones insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream. 3 These hormones help the body control how it uses food for energy. <P> Pancreatic cancer is a disease in which malignant (cancerous) cells form in the tissues of the pancreas. The pancreas is a gland located behind the stomach and in front of the spine. The pancreas produces digestive juices and hormones that regulate blood sugar. <P> Enzymes, or digestive juices, produced by the pancreas are secreted into the small intestine to further break down food after it has left the stomach. The gland also produces the hormone insulin and secretes it into the bloodstream in order to regulate the body's glucose or sugar level. <P> There are two kinds of cells in the pancreas. Exocrine pancreas cells make enzymes that are released into the small intestine to help the body digest food. Neuroendocrine pancreas cells (such as islet cells) make several hormones, including insulin and glucagon, that help control sugar levels in the blood. Most pancreatic cancers form in exocrine cells.
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Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas.
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what is ltd company
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<P> Every company has a constitution in the form of articles (or, for older companies, memorandum and articles). A company must have both directors and members. (Members are shareholders unless the company is limited by guarantee). The key feature of a limited company is that it offers limited liability to its members. The company (as a separate legal entity) is liable for its debts and the members and directors are not personally liable (unless they have acted wrongly in some way). <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. In a limited company, the liability of members or subscribers of the company is limited to what they have invested or guaranteed to the company. Limited companies may be limited by shares or by guarantee. The former may be further divided into public companies and private companies. Who may become a member of a private limited company is restricted by law and by the company's rules. Main article: Private company limited by shares. Has shareholders with limited liability and its shares may not be offered to the general public. Shareholders of private companies limited by shares are often bound to offer the shares to their fellow shareholders prior to selling them to a third party. <P> DEFINITION of 'Ltd. An abbreviation of limited, Ltd. is a suffix that follows the name of a company, indicating that it's a private limited company-a kind of incorporation available under British and Irish, and some Commonwealth countries laws. In a limited company, the shareholders' liability is limited to the capital they'd originally invested. If such company becomes insolvent, the shareholders personal assets remain protected. Shares in a private limited company are not offered to the general public (distinguishing it from a public limited company-plc.). <P> In many countries a limited company business entity is a corporation in which the shareholders' financial liability is limited by shares.. It is often regarded as an attractive option for business owners-and is especially popular among those who own smaller companies. Typically, a Pvt Ltd must have at least two shareholders, and the maximum number of share holders is also limited (usually to around 50 individuals). One major benefit to this private business structure is that the company's disclosure requirements are less stringent than those for a public company. <P> Ltd. is the abbreviation for limited. The term is designed to advise that the shareholders or owners of this type of enterprise is limited. Specifically, the shareholders or owners have limited responsibility for the debts and obligations of the business enterprise, according to InvestorWords.com. Geography. The abbreviation ltd. associated with a business enterprise is commonly used in different European countries as well as in Canada, according to InvestorWords.com. Ltd. is also used from time to time with companies in the United States. <P> Ltd. Ltd. is short for limited, or a limited company. This structure is used mostly in European countries and Canada. In a limited company, directors and shareholders have limited liability for the company's debt, as long as the business operates within the law. <P> Limited company. A business structure used in Europe and Canada, in which shareholder responsibility for company debt is limited, usually to the amount he/she has invested in the company. In some cases, the liability of shareholders is limited to specific pre-determined amounts (which are stated in a memorandum). Abbreviated Ltd or plc <P> A Limited Company is a business structure where members or shareholders have their liability limited to the contributions which they have made or invested in the company. Forming a Limited company has many advantages for owners and is easy to incorporate. The Limited Company limited by shares is the most commonly registered Ltd Company. Presently in the United Kingdom there are 3 types of Limited Companies being offered: 1 Private Limited Companies (Ltd). 2 Companies limited by guarantee (Ltd). 3 Public limited Companies (PLC).
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An abbreviation of limited, Ltd. is a suffix that follows the name of a company, indicating that it's a private limited company-a kind of incorporation available under British and Irish, and some Commonwealth countries laws.
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what is a quarter horse
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<P> The American Quarter Horse is the most popular breed in the United States today, and the American Quarter Horse Association is the largest breed registry in the world, with almost 3 million American Quarter Horses currently registered. The Thoroughbred race horse Three Bars, alive in the early years of the AQHA, is recognized by the American Quarter Horse Hall of Fame as one of the significant foundation sires for the Quarter Horse breed. <P> Full Definition of QUARTER HORSE. : any of a breed of compact muscular saddle horses developed in the United States and characterized by great endurance and by high speed for short distances. See quarter horse defined for English-language learners. See quarter horse defined for kids <P> A quarter horse is a specific breed of horse that’s perhaps best known for its speed over short distances and its short, stocky build. This sort of breed is originally American, and the American Quarter Horse Association (AQHA) remains the world’s largest registry, though today the horses are bred all around the world. Characteristics include limited white markings on the face and below the knees, heavy muscling, and a gentle nature. <P> The principle development of the Quarter Horse was in the southwestern part of the United States in Texas, Oklahoma, New Mexico, eastern Colorado, and Kansas. Some breed historians have maintained that it is the oldest breed of horses in the United States and that the true beginning of the Quarter Horse was in the Carolinas and Virginia. Nye 1 has suggested that the Chickasaws secured from the Indians were the true beginning of the Quarter Horse. <P> The Quarter Horse is truly an American Breed. As early as the 1600's the colonists on the eastern seaboard began breeding thoroughbreds from England with horses on the North American continent, such as the Chickasaw horse, which were descendants of the horses brought over by the Spanish Conquistadors. <P> What is a Quarter Horse and.......Where are the other 3/4? The Quarter Horse is most definitely a full-sized horse. He is named for his ability to run a quarter of a mile faster than any other horse in the world. The Quarter Horse is also known for his heavily-muscled physique, as well as his even disposition, athletic ability and versatility. <P> The Quarter Pony is a breed of pony that is similar to the American Quarter Horse. It stands up to 14.2 hands (58 inches, 147 cm) high and was developed from American Quarter Horse foundation bloodstock. <P> The American Quarter Horse is well known both as a race horse and for its performance in rodeos, horse shows and as a working ranch horse. The Thoroughbred race horse Three Bars, alive in the early years of the AQHA, is recognized by the American Quarter Horse Hall of Fame as one of the significant foundation sires for the Quarter Horse breed. <P> The American Quarter Horse is an American breed of horse that excels at sprinting short distances. Its name came from its ability to outdistance other horse breeds in races of a quarter mile or less; some individuals have been clocked at speeds up to 55 mph (88.5 km/h). The Thoroughbred race horse Three Bars, alive in the early years of the AQHA, is recognized by the American Quarter Horse Hall of Fame as one of the significant foundation sires for the Quarter Horse breed. <P> The Quarter Horse is truly an American breed of horse. It was created to compete in quarter racing, one of the earliest forms of horse racing in America. The founding stallion was a Thoroughbred named Janus, imported to America in 1756. He was a famous sire of great racers in Colonial America.
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Quarter Horse is an American breed of horse that excels at sprinting short distances.
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how to increase space in pants waist size
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<P> ______________________________________________________________. Okay here is an easier way but it will only work for you if you plan on wearing your shirts on the outside of your jeans and not tucked in. I have done this for my adult son who's waist line likes to fluctuate. First go to the fabric store and buy some of the 3 wide elastic that they sell to make belts. <P> For men with a broad frame, wearing pants at the waist gives a slimming effect. Understandably, every man is not a size 32″ waist throughout his life, but some will manage to button the same old waistband wherever 32 inches still exist on his profile. It pays to find right waist length, even if that means being fitted for a new pair of pants. <P> If you want to increase your waist size, the simplest way would be to eat unhealthy foods and gain fat. In terms of health and fitness though, that's not ideal. <P> 1 Seat: Measure across the back of the jeans at the widest point of the seat, usually about 7 1/2 inches (20 centimeters) below the waistline. 2 You may need to adjust slightly based on the size of the jeans. 3 Double this measurement. 1 Double this measurement. 2 Seat: Measure across the back of the jeans at the widest point of the seat, usually about 7 1/2 inches (20 centimeters) below the waistline. 3 You may need to adjust slightly based on the size of the jeans. 4 <P> 1 In other words, a pair of jeans with a 35 inch waist may be marked a 33 or 34 to make the wearer feel better about his or her jean size. 2 Some Jeans shrink when you wash them and stretch after you've had them on for a while. 1 Double this measurement. 2 Seat: Measure across the back of the jeans at the widest point of the seat, usually about 7 1/2 inches (20 centimeters) below the waistline. 3 You may need to adjust slightly based on the size of the jeans. 4 Double this measurement <P> 1 To use a size chart, find your measurements on the chart, then read across to the left to determine which size you need. 2 For example, using the first chart suggested above, if we had about a 31 inch waist, a 43 inch hip, and a 25 inch thigh measurement, we'd be about right for a size 14 pair of jeans. 1 Double this measurement. 2 Seat: Measure across the back of the jeans at the widest point of the seat, usually about 7 1/2 inches (20 centimeters) below the waistline. 3 You may need to adjust slightly based on the size of the jeans. 4 Double this measurement <P> We show you how to do a waist increase alteration on a bodice pattern, on a bottom pattern (like a skirt) and, last but not least, for the waistband. Now you’ll no longer have to waffle between which size to choose. Hello ,I’m making a wrap skirt Mcalls 5430 my waist is 37 hips 40 you said before to follow the hip measurement and increase the waist or should i use pattern size 20 = 34 waist and don’t touch the hips, this is for a A skirt. Thanks. <P> 2. Measure your actual waist. You may want to measure your actual waist, but also the waist of your pants to get an accurate size. To measure your waist, wear underwear or similar clothing that is well fitting. Make your measurement at your natural waist. This is at the thinnest portion of your body, between your ribs and your belly button
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If you want to increase your waist size, the simplest way would be to eat unhealthy foods and gain fat.
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what is a moka spoon
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<P> Serving Spoon. The Serving Spoon goes together with the Serving Fork. The Serving Spoon is bigger than the Tablespoon and is designed for serving different side dishes. The large cup allows it to hold a larger amount of food. <P> Fruit Spoons are smaller than Table Spoons and are designed, together with Fruit Knives and Fruit Forks, for use with fruit dishes and appetizers. 3V Venosta offers many different models of Fruit Spoons, each featuring by its own unique design. Moka Spoon (or Moka Teaspoon). <P> This type of spoon is larger than the Moka Spoon and is designed for stirring tea, American-style or European-style coffee, cappuccinos, herb tea, ginseng coffee and any other drink served in larger-sized coffee cups. The Tea or Coffee Spoon forms part of the teaspoon line produced by 3V Venosta. <P> List Of Spoons. A spoon is a utensil used to eat things such as soup, ice cream, cereal & pudding. Here, in this post I tried my best to put all the list of spoons and its usages at one place. All the pictures courtesy and the information is borrowed and pasted from google search and yahoo search. <P> Moka Spoons or Moka Teaspoons, whichever name you prefer, is a small spoon designed for stirring Italian-style Espresso coffee prepared with a Moka machine, the Neapolitan coffee maker or coffee-shop machine. Its small size serves for small coffee cups and glasses. <P> Baby Spoons (or Baby Teaspoons) are small-sized spoons. This type of spoon is larger than the Moka Spoon and the Tea or Coffee Spoon, and is designed for use at breakfast time, for yogurt or any other drinks or foods that require a slightly larger spoon cup. <P> Making a moka coffee: 1 Fill the base chamber with cold water up to the level of the valve. 2 Insert the filter. 3 Completely fill the filter with ground coffee, but don’t pack it down. 4 Make sure the filter and rubber gasket are in place. 5 Screw the two chambers tightly together. 6 Place the moka pot on the stove.
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A small spoon designed for stirring Italian-style Espresso coffee prepared with a Moka machine, the Neapolitan coffee maker or coffee-shop machine.
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how the female reproductive system works with other systems
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<P> To understand how reproductive hazards can affect a woman's reproductive health and her ability to have healthy children, it is helpful to understand how the female reproductive system works. The main reproductive tissues in women are the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes. <P> Introduction to the Reproductive System. The major function of the reproductive system is to ensure survival of the species. Other systems in the body, such as the endocrine and urinary systems, work continuously to maintain homeostasis for survival of the individual. <P> The Reproductive System and Interrelationships with the Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems. Though reproductive system interactions with other body systems are relatively meager, one—that with the endocrine system— stands out and will receive the bulk of our attention. <P> The female reproductive system includes the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, vulva, mammary glands and breasts. These organs are involved in the production and transportation of gametes and the production of sex hormones. <P> The major function of the reproductive system is to ensure survival of the species. Other systems in the body, such as the endocrine and urinary systems, work continuously to maintain homeostasis for survival of the individual. <P> The female reproductive system interacts with many other systems in the body. The most common is the endocrine system. The reproductive system relies on the endocrine system to produce hormones such as progesterone and estrogen, that help with the blood lining of the uterus and prepare the uterus for pregnancy. Another system would have to be the nervous system. <P> The main external structures of the female reproductive system include: 1 Labia majora: The labia majora enclose and protect the other external reproductive organs. 2 Literally translated as large lips, the labia majora are relatively large and fleshy, and are comparable to the scrotum in males. <P> How the Female Reproductive System Works. The main function of the female reproductive system is to produce eggs, also called ova (plural for ovum), which are the female sex cells.
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The most common is the endocrine system. The reproductive system relies on the endocrine system to produce hormones such as progesterone and estrogen, that help with the blood lining of the uterus and prepare the uterus for pregnancy.
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what does a credit score consist of
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<P> A credit score is primarily based on credit report information, typically from the three major credit bureaus, namely Experian, Transunion and Equifax. There are different variants of calculating credit scores. <P> Why is my credit score lower than my Aunt Mary’s score, while I have paid everything on time for the past 6 months, and she can barely remember to read her mail, let alone pay her bills. What follows is a guideline to explain how different credit activity is weighted differently when your credit score is calculated. <P> A consumer's credit history consists of information such as: number and types of credit accounts, how long each account has been open, amounts owed, amount of available credit used, whether bills are paid on time, and number of recent credit inquiries. <P> Your FICO Scores only look at information in your credit report. Your credit score is calculated from your credit report. However, lenders look at many things when making a credit decision such as your income, how long you have worked at your present job and the kind of credit you are requesting. <P> Answers. Best Answer: A credit score is a numerical expression based on a statistical analysis of a person's credit files, to represent the creditworthiness of that person, which is the likelihood that the person will pay his or her debts in a timely manner. <P> 1 These are your credit accounts. 2 Lenders report on each account you have established with them. 3 They report the type of account (bankcard, auto loan, mortgage, etc), the date you opened the account, your credit limit or loan amount, the account balance and your payment history. <P> 35% Payment History: A lender will want to review a potential client’s payment history to see if previous accounts have been paid on time. The score will review payment information on: 1 Credit card accounts. 2 Public record items such as bankruptcy, foreclosures, liens, etc. 3 Details of late payments 30, 60, 90, how recent was it and the frequency of it. 4 A good track record will increase your score. <P> A credit score is primarily based on credit report information, typically sourced from credit bureaus / credit reference agencies. Lenders, such as banks and credit card companies, use credit scores to evaluate the potential risk posed by lending money to consumers and to mitigate losses due to bad debt.
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Number and types of credit accounts, how long each account has been open, amounts owed, amount of available credit used, whether bills are paid on time, and number of recent credit inquiries.
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figurative language def
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<P> of words, language, etc. : used with a meaning that is different from the basic meaning and that expresses an idea in an interesting way by using language that usually describes something else: not literal. : showing people and things in a way that resembles how they really look: not abstract. <P> Definition: Figurative language is a word or phrase that departs from everyday literal language for the sake of comparison, emphasis, clarity, or freshness. Metaphor and simile are the two most commonly used figures of speech, but things like hyperbole, synecdoche, puns, and personification are also figures of speech. <P> Learner's definition of FIGURATIVE. 1. of words, language, etc. : used with a meaning that is different from the basic meaning and that expresses an idea in an interesting way by using language that usually describes something else: not literal. <P> The definition of figurative language is when you describe something by comparing it with something else. There are few different ways to use figurative language. See below for more information and examples of figurative language and how to use it. Remove these ads. <P> Figurative Language Examples. The definition of figurative language is when you describe something by comparing it with something else. There are few different ways to use figurative language. See below for more information and examples of figurative language and how to use it. Remove these ads.
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Word or phrase that departs from everyday literal language for the sake of comparison, emphasis, clarity, or freshness.
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how often do sheep have babies
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<P> Ideally a ewe will have twins. The first couple of years they usually have just one and as they get older have just one. Some ewes will have triplets but are often unable to rear them all without help. We had a ewe last year that had five but sadly they all died. <P> Thus, for some producers, it is commonplace to breed well-grown ewe lambs when they are 7 to 9 months of age. Other producers wait until their ewes are 18 months old before breeding them to lamb as 2 year olds. Different breeds of sheep reach puberty (sexually maturity) at different ages. <P> The weight of newborn lambs varies by breed, sex of lamb, litter number, and ewe nutrition. The lambs from medium to small breeds are similar in size to human babies, usually between 5 and 12 pounds, with an average of 8 to 10 pounds. <P> Confidence votes 56. Ideally a ewe will have twins. The first couple of years they usually have just one and as they get older have just one. Some ewes will have triplets but are often unable to rear them all without help. We had a ewe last year that had five but sadly they all died. <P> Twin births (two babies) is most common in well-managed flocks and with many breeds of sheep. First-time moms, especially yearlings, are more likely to have single births, though twins are not uncommon in some breeds. Ewes produce their largest litters of lambs when they are between the ages of 3 and 6. <P> Rams. A healthy, mature ram can probably mate 100 (or more) ewes during a breeding season, though a ratio of 1 mature ram to 35 to 50 ewes is more common to make sure lambing is not too spread out. Seven to 8 month old ram lambs that have achieved approximately 50 percent of their mature size can be used for breeding. <P> Every year 15% to 25% of the mothering sheep will be heartlessly culled if they have low fertility or lameness. The entire reproductive lives of sheep is manipulated and controlled in order to achieve the highest number of lambs, as it is the babies’ meat and wool that fetches the highest price at market.
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The first couple of years they usually have just one and as they get older have just one. Some ewes will have triplets but are often unable to rear them all without help. We had a ewe last year that had five.
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why did they build the berlin wall
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<P> The Berlin Wall is commonly thought of as a wall between East and West Berlin. In fact, East Germany wanted to cut off all access that East Germans had to West Berlin. Therefore, they had to cordon off all of <P> Travelling to West Germany became difficult after closing the border between East and West Germany in 1952. The Wall was erected in 1961 because more than 2.6 million East Germans escaped to West Berlin or West Germany from 1949 to 1961 (total population of East Germany was about 17 million!). <P> The Berlin Wall was both the physical division between West Berlin and East Germany from 1961 to 1989 and the symbolic boundary between democracy and Communism during the Cold War. Dates: August 13, 1961 -- November 9, 1989. Also Known As: Berliner Mauer (in German). <P> The Soviet Union did not build the Berlin Wall, it was built by and on the order of the government of the German Democratic Republic ('DDR', called 'East Germany' by the Engli … sh-Language press). <P> The Berlin Wall was built by the communist government of East Berlin 1961. The wall separated East Berlin and West Berlin. It was built in order to prevent people from fleeing East Berlin. <P> In response, the Communist East German authorities built a wall that totally encircled West Berlin. It was thrown up overnight, on 13 August 1961. <P> Travelling to West Germany became difficult after closing the border between East and West Germany in 1952. The Wall was erected in 1961 because more than 2.6 million East Germans escaped to West Berlin or West Germany from 1949 to 1961 (total population of East Germany was about 17 million!). The life in the West was much better than in the East after 1948. <P> Constructed by the German Democratic Republic (GDR, East Germany), starting on 13 August 1961, the wall completely cut off (by land) West Berlin from surrounding East Germany and from East Berlin until it was opened in November 1989. <P> However, the sectorial borders between East and West Berlin were not closed. Many East German citizen went to East Berlin and from there to West Berlin. Once arrived in West Berlin they stayed there or were fled out to West Germany.
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It was built in order to prevent people from fleeing East Berlin.
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what kind of pasta is ziti
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<P> Ziti is the pasta itself. Like spaghetti, manicotti & linguine. Each is its own specific shape and size of pasta. Bow Tie pasta which Allie M refers to is farfalle and is far too delicate to hold up in baking. Spread remaining pasta over ricotta, and top with remaining sauce and cheese mixture. Bake in middle of oven for 30 to 35 minutes, or until golden. Let stand 10 minutes before serving. Source(s): http://allrecipes.com/Recipe/Baked-Ziti-... <P> 1 Add ziti pasta, and cook until al dente, about 8 minutes; drain. 2 In a large skillet, brown onion and ground beef over medium heat. 3 Add spaghetti sauce, and simmer 15 minutes. 4 Preheat the oven to 350 degrees F (175 degrees C). Cook. Ready In. 1 Bring a large pot of lightly salted water to a boil. 2 Add ziti pasta, and cook until al dente, about 8 minutes; drain. 3 In a large skillet, brown onion and ground beef over medium heat. 4 Add spaghetti sauce, and simmer 15 minutes. 5 <P> 1 Bring a large pot of lightly salted water to a boil. 2 Add ziti pasta, and cook until al dente, about 8 minutes; drain. 3 In a large skillet, brown onion and ground beef over medium heat. 4 Add spaghetti sauce, and simmer 15 minutes. Cook. Ready In. 1 Bring a large pot of lightly salted water to a boil. 2 Add ziti pasta, and cook until al dente, about 8 minutes; drain. 3 In a large skillet, brown onion and ground beef over medium heat. 4 Add spaghetti sauce, and simmer 15 minutes. 5 Preheat the oven to 350 degrees F (175 degrees C). <P> Ziti is a type of Italian pasta that is shaped like a tube with grooves along the outside, and is typically used for the dish baked ziti, that uses ricotta cheese, tomato sa … uce, mozarella cheese, and some other Italian ingredients. Answers Publisher. 49,340 Contributions. Answered Most Recently. Ziti pasta is a thick long tube (about 18 inches) that is broken into pieces before cooking. Most commercial ziti that you buy today is already broken into 2-inch segments. The name ziti gets its name from the word zita which means a young woman who is about to become a bride, or little girl.. <P> Directions. Preheat oven to 450 degrees. Bring a large pot of salted water to a boil. Cook pasta until al dente, according to package instructions; drain and reserve. In a small bowl, combine ricotta, egg, 1/4 cup Parmesan, and half the mozzarella; season with salt and pepper. In the bottom of a shallow 2-quart casserole dish, spread half the tomato sauce. Top with ziti, then ricotta mixture and remaining sauce. Sprinkle with remaining 1/2 cup Parmesan and remaining mozzarella. Place casserole on a rimmed baking sheet, and bake until top is browned and sauce is bubbling, 20 to 25 minutes. <P> Email. Print. A type of pasta that is shaped like thin tubular pieces of pasta that are approximately 1/4-inch in diameter and available in long or cut lengths. If ziti is unavailable, other types of tubular pasta, such as penne, mostaccioli or rigatoni may be substituted <P> Baked ziti is a baked casserole dish made with ziti macaroni and sauce characteristic of Italian-American cuisine it is similar to Pasta al forno. In many recipes, the ziti are first cooked separately while a tomato and cheese sauce is prepared, which may include meat, sausage, mushrooms, peppers, onions, and more. Baked ziti has been characterized as a dish that has remained a standby for generations in Italian-American homes and restaurants. <P> Meanwhile, in a large bowl, combine 3/4 cup spaghetti sauce, cottage cheese, 1 cup mozzarella cheese, egg, parsley, oregano, garlic powder and pepper. Drain pasta; stir into cheese mixture. In a greased 8-in. square baking dish, spread 1/4 cup of spaghetti sauce. Spread remaining pasta over ricotta, and top with remaining sauce and cheese mixture. Bake in middle of oven for 30 to 35 minutes, or until golden. Let stand 10 minutes before serving. Source(s): http://allrecipes.com/Recipe/Baked-Ziti-...
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A type of pasta that is shaped like thin tubular pieces of pasta.
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how much interest can an attorney charge on fees
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<P> · In addition to the above fees, if you and your attorney settle your case for an amount above $2 million, or if you win at trial and your recovery is above $2 million, the fee is 20 percent of the recovery above $2 million. · In addition to the above fee, if you and your attorney settle your case for an amount between $1 million and $2 million, or if you win at trial and your recovery is between $1 and $2 million, the fee is 30 percent of the recovery between $1 million and <P> C. Wolfram, , § 9.2.2, at 506-7 (1986) (Most states now permit lawyers to make credit arrangements for the payment of fees, such as through client use of credit cards. By the same token, a fee contract can provide for a stipulated rate of legal interest on amounts due.). [2]. <P> 1 Hourly Rate: The lawyer will charge you for each hour (or portion of an hour) that the lawyer works on your case. 2 Thus, for example, if the lawyer's fee is $100 per hour and the lawyer works 5 hours, the fee will be $500. 3 This is the most typical fee arrangement. <P> For Social Security disability lawyers, the fee is limited to 25% of the past-due benefits you are awarded, up to a maximum of $6,000. Note that the attorney will be paid only out of your past-due benefits, or backpay.. If no back-dated benefits are awarded, the attorney will not receive a fee. (For more information, see our article on disability backpay .). The maximum the disability attorney can charge is 25% of your backpay for his or her services, up to a maximum of $6,000. For example, if your back-dated benefits are calculated to be $10,000, your attorney will be paid $2,500 and you will receive $7,500. <P> Late Fees and Interest Charges. It's not uncommon to see provisions for late fees and interest charges in contracts. Typically a provision for a late fee may add 5% of the payment after a grace period of 10 to 20 days. Also, an interest charge of 18% or 1.5% per month is often found in contracts. In New York the legal rate is 9% [ not to be confused with the highest legal rate you can charge an individual on a loan, which is 16%]. For those of you who want to add late fees and higher interest rates on late payments we can easily make those modifications to the standard alarm contract forms. <P> Believe it or not, rates may vary anywhere from $50 an hour to a $1,000 an hour or more. In rural areas and small towns, lawyers tend to charge less, and fees in the range of $100 to $200 an hour for an experienced attorney are probably the norm. In major metropolitan areas, the norm is probably closer to $200 to $400 an hour. Lawyers with expertise in specialized areas may charge much more. In addition, you can expect to be charged at an hourly rate for paralegals and other support staff. <P> It's not uncommon to see provisions for late fees and interest charges in contracts. Typically a provision for a late fee may add 5% of the payment after a grace period of 10 to 20 days. In New York the legal rate is 9% [ not to be confused with the highest legal rate you can charge an individual on a loan, which is 16%]. For those of you who want to add late fees and higher interest rates on late payments we can easily make those modifications to the standard alarm contract forms. <P> An attorney who charges a client interest at an annual rate of more than 8 percent will besubject to lawyer discipline for failure to comply with any truth-in-lending requirements or disclosures.Opinion 16 does not prohibit an attorney from charging interest on fees. <P> If the contract does not provide for an interest rate you will still get your state's legal interest rate. In New York the legal rate is 9% [ not to be confused with the highest legal rate you can charge an individual on a loan, which is 16%]. For those of you who want to add late fees and higher interest rates on late payments we can easily make those modifications to the standard alarm contract forms.
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Maximum of $6,000
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How to Solve Quotient Problems
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<P> The difference quotient for the function is: The difference quotient for the function is: The difference quotient for the function is: Some practice problems for you; find the difference quotient for each function showing all relevant steps in an organized manner (see examples). Answers (as opposed to complete solutions). <P> Finding the Quotient in a Division Problem: Explanation and Examples. Finding the quotient in a division problem is a skill that most students learn in elementary school. It's an important operation that serves as a building block for more complicated math problems. Keep reading for examples of how to find the quotient! <P> In a division equation, quotient is the answer derived after dividing the dividend by the divisor. To continue with our sample word problem, all we need to do to find the quotient of the division word problem, is to divide <P> In the examples below, we calculate and simplify the difference quotients of different functions. f(x) = 2x + 5. f(x) = 2x + x - 2. f(x) = sin x. Let f be a function whose graph is shown below. Find the difference quotient of function f defined by. 1 We first need to calculate f(x + h). <P> When you solve a division problem, your goal is to find the quotient, which is the solution to the problem. <P> The partial quotients method in math uses long division to help solve a problem. Do the partial quotients method in math problems with help from a mathematics educator in this free video clip. Expert: Jimmy Chang. Bio: Jimmy Chang has been a mathematics educator for 12 years. Filmmaker: Christopher Rokosz.
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The partial quotients method in math uses long division to help solve a problem. Do the partial quotients method in math problems.
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why did many southern states believed slavery was necessary timeline
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<P> In the centuries since, the history of the Southern United States has recorded a large number of important events, including the American Revolution, the American Civil War, the ending of slavery, and the American Civil Rights Movement. European history in the region began in the very earliest days of the exploration and colonization of North America. Spain, France, and England eventually explored and claimed parts of what is now the Southern United States, and the cultural influences of each can still be seen in the region today. <P> After the American Revolution, many northern states outlawed slavery. By 1840 most slaves who lived north of the Mason-Dixon Line were set free. Many people in the north felt that slavery should be illegal in all the United States. These people were called abolitionists because they wanted to abolish slavery. During the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln gave the Emancipation Proclamation which declared that the slaves in the South were free. Although, this did not free all the slaves immediately, it set the precedence for all slaves to b <P> Some slave states, however, remained in the Union. Missouri, Kentucky, Maryland, and Delaware did not secede and soon became known as the Border States. West Virginia, which was made up of fifty counties loyal to the North, broke off from Virginia in 1863 and joined the Union. These states were extremely important to the North. Some slave states did not secede. These Border States-Missouri, Kentucky, Maryland, Delaware, and later, West Virginia-decided to remain in the Union, prodded perhaps by Lincoln's rhetoric and actions. <P> Both in Brazil and in the United States—the countries with the two largest slave populations in the Western Hemisphere—the end of slavery found the regions in which slaves had been concentrated poorer than other regions of these same countries. The United States was polarized over the issue of slavery, represented by the slave and free states divided by the Mason–Dixon line, which separated free Pennsylvania from slave Maryland and Delaware. <P> The first slaves in the American colonies arrived on a Dutch ship in Jamestown, Virginia in 1619. Over the next 200 years, around 600,000 more slaves were brought to the American colonies, most of them to work the tobacco and cotton fields. During the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln gave the Emancipation Proclamation which declared that the slaves in the South were free. Although, this did not free all the slaves immediately, it set the precedence for all slaves to be set free. <P> Slavery in the United States was the legal institution of human chattel slavery that existed in the United States of America in the 18th and 19th centuries after it gained independence and before the end of the American Civil War. The United States was polarized over the issue of slavery, represented by the slave and free states divided by the Mason–Dixon line, which separated free Pennsylvania from slave Maryland and Delaware. <P> Defenders of slavery argued that the sudden end to the slave economy would have had a profound and killing economic impact in the South where reliance on slave labor was the foundation of their economy. The cotton economy would collapse. The tobacco crop would dry in the fields. Some slaveholders believed that African Americans were biologically inferior to their masters. During the 1800s, this arguement was taken quite seriously, even in scientific circles. Defenders of slavery argued that slavery had existed throughout history and was the natural state of mankind. <P> Why the South believed in Slavery It evolved from a lack of labor. In the early days of the American Colonies there was insufficient manpower to supply the needed amount of labor for the available work. The first answer was Indentured Servitude. <P> The United States became divided between slave states in the north and free states to the south. When new states were added, one of the major issues was whether the new state would legalize slavery or not. When Missouri wanted to become a state, many people were upset because it was a slave state. During the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln gave the Emancipation Proclamation which declared that the slaves in the South were free. Although, this did not free all the slaves immediately, it set the precedence for all slaves to be set free. <P> After the Revolutionary War, abolitionist laws and sentiment gradually spread in the Northern states; in addition, as most of these states had a higher proportion of free labor, they abolished slavery by the end of the 18th century, some with gradual systems that did not free the last slave until the late 1820s. The United States was polarized over the issue of slavery, represented by the slave and free states divided by the Mason–Dixon line, which separated free Pennsylvania from slave Maryland and Delaware.
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During the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln gave the Emancipation Proclamation which declared that the slaves in the South were free.
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if government took tax refund last year can you get it back later
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<P> Keep in mind, it does not matter whether the money you owe is for federal or state taxes. If you’re behind on your state tax bill, the state government can either seize your state refund, or apply to the IRS to seize money from your federal refund. 2. <P> No. If you owe back taxes, the government will automatically take out what you owed last year from what you get refunded this year. <P> If you get a $1000 tax refund for the previous year it’s really only worth about $985! By letting the government hold your money you’ve lost $15 in spending power! That doesn’t seem like a good deal. <P> Claim a refund. You risk losing your refund if you don't file your return. If you are due a refund for withholding or estimated taxes, you must file your return to claim it within 3 years of the return due date. The same rule applies to a right to claim tax credits such as the Earned Income Credit. <P> Back Taxes. If you owe back taxes, the IRS can take your current tax refund to offset what you owe. Until you clear up the matter, your tax refund is subject to seizure. The IRS does allow payment plans and settlements. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: If the loan is funded by the government they will take your entire refund check until the debt is paid off. For example, if you owe $10,000 & your returns are only $2,000 a year you won't see a tax return for the next five years. What I would do is contact who the loan is through & request that they do not take your tax return. Speak to them & work out some kind of agreement. Tell them you will send them $100 a month. <P> The government has a legal right to that money, and can take it. If you want to make sure you get the refund you are entitled to, you need to make sure you are up to date in paying what you owe to the government. Matt Robinson 2015-06-24T21:16:18+00:00 March 15th, 2012 | Tax Filings, Tax Tips | 1 Comment.
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If the loan is funded by the government they will take your entire refund check until the debt is paid off.
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where is the sonoran desert located
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<P> The Desert Environment The Sonoran Desert is one of the largest and hottest deserts in North America and it covers an area of 311,000 sq. kms (120,000 sq. miles). It is situated in south western USA in the states of Arizona and California, and in Mexico in the states of Sonora, Sinaloa and Baja California. <P> The Sonoran Desert is located in the United States, specifically the southwestern portion of Arizona and southeastern portion of California, as well as, Mexico, covering most of Baja California and the western half of the state of Sonora, Mexico. <P> Sonoran Desert Map. The Sonoran desert is one of the largest and hottest deserts in North America. It is about 120,000 square miles in size. Despite the harsh conditions the thriving city of Phoenix is located in this desert. Phoenix has a population of over 4 million and is one of the fastest growing cities in the US. The desert is actually losing ground to the urban sprawl around Phoenix. <P> north America The North American continent. The Sonoran Desert is located in the United States, specifically the southwestern portion of Arizona and southeastern portion of Ca … lifornia, as well as, Mexico, covering most of Baja California and the western half of the state of Sonora, Mexico. 10 people found this useful. Much of the Sonoran Desert lies in Mexico, partly in the state of Sonora, where the desert gets its name. The … rest of the Sonoran desert lies in the states of Baja California Norte and Baja California Sur in Mexico and Arizona and California in the U.S. 2. <P> The Sonoran Desert is located in two states, Arizona and California, and two countries, Mexico and United States. The rivers that flow through the desert are the Colorado River and the Gila River. The Salton Sea, the Gulf of California and the Pacific Ocean are bodies of water next to the Sonoran desert. The Sonoran Desert's location is at latitude 25° to 33° North and longitude 105° to 118° West. The key to the Sonoran Desert's climate is the amount of rainfall which falls. More rain falls on the Sonoran Desert than any other desert. <P> The Sonoran Desert is a North American desert which covers large parts of the Southwestern United States in Arizona and California, and of Northwestern Mexico in Sonora, Baja California and Baja California Sur. It is the hottest desert in Mexico, with an area of 260,000 square kilometers (100,000 sq mi). The western portion of the United States–Mexico border passes through the Sonoran Desert. In phytogeography, the Sonoran Desert is within the Sonoran Floristic Province of the Madrean Region in southwestern North America, part of the Holarctic Kingdom of the northern Western Hemisphere. <P> The Sonoran Desert is located in North America and covers the southwestern parts of the state of Arizona, southeastern parts of the state of California in the United States and the state of Sonora in Mexico. The Sonoran Desert's location is at latitude 25° to 33° North and longitude 105° to 118° West. The key to the Sonoran Desert's climate is the amount of rainfall which falls. More rain falls on the Sonoran Desert than any other desert. <P> 1. The Sonoran Desert is a big place-over 100,000 square miles! Much of the Sonoran Desert lies in Mexico, partly in the state of Sonora, where the desert gets its name. The rest of the Sonoran desert lies in the states of Baja California Norte and Baja California Sur in Mexico and Arizona and California in the U.S. 2. <P> Location Map Location and Setting The Sonoran Desert ecoregion is situated in parts of Arizona, California, and a northern portion of Mexico, which is not included in the assessment. for more information. Location Map.
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The Sonoran Desert is a North American desert which covers large parts of the Southwestern United States in Arizona and California, and of Northwestern Mexico in Sonora, Baja California and Baja California Sur.
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coat color in rabbits is represented by a gene
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<P> Other rabbits such as ermine, squirrel, chocolate chinchilla and lilac ermine also have the c chd gene as the dominant color gene. The next gene is the sable gene represented by c chl, which stands for “chinchilla-light.” Smoke pearl and sable point are examples of rabbits with the chl <P> Here's how dominant/recessive inheritance in rabbits works relative to rabbit coat color genetics. 1 Inside every cell in the rabbit is DNA-the blueprint that dictates how the animal looks, acts and functions. 2 Genes contain the DNA. 3 They come in pairs. 4 The genes always contain two copies for fur color. <P> 1 c - (albino) - red-eyed white. 2 A red-eyed-white (REW) rabbit has no color at all. 3 BUT: don’t forget that under the white coat, the rabbit still carries plenty of coding for color. 4 The two copies of the ‘c’ gene simply eliminates the expression of those genes. <P> (Remember-only two colors: black and yellow.). Here's an example of rabbit coat color genes turning off the expression of the color black (or chocolate) in a Netherland Dwarf rabbit. Amazingly, this orange rabbit is an agouti, with the black (or chocolate) pigment removed. <P> Let’s start by thinking about which types of colors are produced when the different color genes are expressed. The dominant color gene is the “Full Color” gene represented by the capital “C.” Some full color rabbits are black, orange, chestnut, black tortoiseshell, lilac, and blue. The next gene, in order of dominance, is the chinchilla gene, which is represented by the letters chd (or sometimes Cchd or c chd). <P> A genotype refers to the full set of underlying rabbit coat color genetic codes-the full set of paired letters describing the rabbit's genes. The genotype in the example above is AABBCCDDEE. Heterozygous (hetero = different) refers to a rabbit who carries two different gene copies at a particular locus.
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The c chd
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lyme disease and dogs how common is
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<P> Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus. Usually, the tick must be attached for 36 to 48 hours before the bacteria can spread. Lyme disease, also known as Lyme borreliosis, is an infectious disease caused by bacteria of the Borrelia type. The most common sign of infection is an expanding area of redness, known as erythema migrans, that begins at the site of a tick bite about a week after it has occurred. <P> The symptoms of Lyme disease in dogs differ from those in people, and usually occur much later after the tick bite. Clinical illness in dogs usually occurs 2 to 5 months after a bite from an infected tick. Cats can develop Lyme disease, but it occurs rarely in them, even in endemic areas. The tick-borne spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease. It often causes symptoms of lameness and fever. It is very treatable with antibiotics. There are vaccines available for dogs. <P> Lyme disease is caused by a bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi and is spread by ticks. Ticks become infected with the bacteria by feeding on infected mice and other small animals. When an infected tick bites other animals, it can transmit the bacteria to these animals. Lyme disease is transmitted by the deer tick (blacklegged tick) and a small group of other closely related ticks. The deer tick is small and may bite animals and people without being detected. Lyme disease affects a variety of species, including dogs, cats, and people <P> Lyme disease is one of the most common tick-transmitted diseases in the world but only causes symptoms in 5-10% of affected dogs. It is caused by a spirochete (bacteria) species of the Borrelia burgdorferi group. <P> Lyme disease is the most common disease spread by ticks in the Northern Hemisphere. It is estimated to affect 300,000 people a year in the United States and 65,000 people a year in Europe. Infections are most common in the spring and early summer. Lyme disease, also known as Lyme borreliosis, is an infectious disease caused by bacteria of the Borrelia type. The most common sign of infection is an expanding area of redness, known as erythema migrans, that begins at the site of a tick bite about a week after it has occurred. <P> Lyme disease is a tick-borne disease affecting both dogs and humans. Named after Lyme, Connecticut, where the disease was reported in epidemic proportions in the mid-1970s, the disease was first discovered in the United States in humans in 1975 and in dogs in 1984. <P> Canine Lyme disease is one of the most common diseases transmitted by ticks. It can be very debilitated if left untreated. Dogs develop this condition whenever a tick bites them and passes along the Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria. However, the tick can’t pass the bacteria immediately. <P> Lyme disease, named for a town in Connecticut where it was first properly discovered in the mid-1970s, is easier to spot and more dangerous in humans than it is in dogs. Lyme disease in dogs is far less common, but it can be a problem, particularly in areas with high tick concentrations. In America, problem areas for Lyme disease include New England, the upper Midwest, and the West Coast. Symptoms of Lyme disease. When they do show up, signs of Lyme disease in dogs may include a number of symptoms held in common with other diseases and disorders, so proper diagnosis is key. The symptoms of Lyme disease in dogs include pain and swelling in the joints. <P> Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi. A spirochete is a type of bacterium. Lyme disease is transmitted to dogs through the bite of a tick. Once in the blood stream, the Lyme disease organism is carried to many parts of the body and is likely to localize in joints.
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Lyme disease is one of the most common tick-transmitted diseases in the world but only causes symptoms in 5-10% of affected dogs. It is caused by a spirochete (bacteria) species of the Borrelia burgdorferi group.
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what is IPEX syndrome
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<P> IPEX syndrome: Introduction. IPEX syndrome: A rare condition involving autoimmune problems which can variably manifest as enteropathy (diarrhea), hemolytic anemia, and endocrine gland diseases such as diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease. Resistance to viral infections is poor. <P> 1 IPEX syndrome: A rare condition involving autoimmune problems which can variably manifest as enteropathy (diarrhea), hemolytic anemia, and endocrine gland diseases such as diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease. 2 Resistance to viral infections is poor. <P> IPEX (immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome) is a rare disease linked to the dysfunction of the transcription factor FOXP3, widely considered to be the master regulator of the regulatory T cell lineage. It leads to the dysfunction of regulatory T-cells and the subsequent autoimmunity. <P> Almost all individuals with IPEX syndrome develop a disorder of the intestines called enteropathy. Enteropathy occurs when certain cells in the intestines are destroyed by a person's immune system. It causes severe diarrhea, which is usually the first symptom of IPEX syndrome. <P> Immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked (IPEX) syndrome is characterized by the development of multiple autoimmune disorders in affected individuals. Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system malfunctions and attacks the body's own tissues and organs.
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IPEX (immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome) is a rare disease linked to the dysfunction of the transcription factor FOXP3.
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what are phytochemicals
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<P> Phytochemicals are compounds that are produced by plants (phyto means plant). They are found in fruits, vegetables, grains, beans, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are believed to protect cells from damage that could lead to cancer. <P> The term phytochemicals is a broad name for a wide variety of compounds produced by plants. They’re found in fruits, vegetables, beans, grains, and other plants. Each phytochemical comes from a variety of different plant sources and has different proposed effects on, and benefits for, the body. Some researchers estimate there are up to 4,000 phytochemicals! <P> Some foods, such as whole grains, vegetables, beans, fruits and herbs, contain many phytochemicals. The easiest way to get more phytochemicals is to eat more fruit (blueberries, cranberries, cherries, apple,...) and vegetables (cauliflower, cabbage, carrots, broccoli,...). <P> Phytochemicals are found in plant foods (fruits, vegetables, beans, grains). By maintaining a balanced eating pattern that includes different forms and colors of fruits and vegetables, you’ll provide your body with a wide variety of all beneficial compounds, including phytochemicals! <P> Save as Favorite. Phytochemicals are compounds that are produced by plants (phyto means plant). They are found in fruits, vegetables, grains, beans, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are believed to protect cells from damage that could lead to cancer. <P> Plant foods contain thousands of natural chemicals. These are called phytonutrients or phytochemicals.Phyto refers to the Greek word for plant. These chemicals help protect plants from germs, fungi, bugs, and other threats. Fruits and vegetables contain phytonutrients.
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Phytochemicals are compounds that are produced by plants
(phyto means plant)
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indicators of telling a horse's age
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<P> 5. If you don't know your horse's date of birth, one way tell its age is by its teeth. Telling a horse's age by looking at its teeth is not exact, but it will tell you the approximate age. Horses' teeth grow and change almost all its life--until the tooth itself stops growing. Learn how to tell a horse's age by its teeth by the shape, angle and length. If you own a mature horse, it's wise to watch it for signs of aging, so you'll know when to start treating it as a senior citizen. Not all horses age at the same rate, and not all will require the exact same care. <P> Horses in the wild must age well or they fall prey to wild animals. Also, they are chased and ostracized by their own herd. There are some tell tale signs that can be noted as a horse ages. Of course, the age of a horse can be closely approximated by looking at its Teeth. The horse's belly starts to sag as the ligamenture starts to give. Also the horse's eyes begin to sink into the orbits a bit. The hair color changes. A horse year is equal to 6 1/2 human years for the first 3 years of the horse's life. At the horse age of three the equivalent changes and is approximately 5 years to man. From 4 the horse year equivalency changes to 2 1/2 years. <P> Above: Photo of a Galvayne's groove in a 14 year old horse. When using teeth to try to determine the age of a horse older than 10 years, the Galvayne's groove is one of the indicators many horsemen will use. 1 First appears at the gum line in horses about 10 years of age. 2 Each year, the groove will extend a little farther down the tooth. 3 It is expected to be about halfway down the tooth at 15 years of age, and all the way down (visible from top to bottom) at 2 <P> 1 The age of the horse can be determined with some accuracy by looking at its teeth. 2 As the horse grows and ages the changes that take place can help you tell how old it is. 3 As the horse grows older determining its age becomes more difficult. An age old, yet nearly forgotten art, is how to tell a horse's age by its teeth. Simply study the pictures below, memorize the special characteristics of each stage. Then go practice on horses that someone knows the age of. See how close you can come to the real age of the horse. 1 When the horse has grown all its permanent teeth it is said to have a full mouth. 2 The age of the horse can be determined with some accuracy by looking at its teeth. 3 As the horse grows and ages the changes that take place can help you tell how old it is <P> The art of determining the age of horses by inspection of the teeth is an old one. It can be developed to a considerable degree of accuracy in determining the age of young horses. The probability of error increases as age advances and becomes a guess after the horse reaches 10 to 14 years of age. <P> How to age a horse, how to tell the age of a horse or pony. To tell a horses age or to age a horse as it is called, we look at its teeth. Because a horses lifestyle means it is almost continually grazing its teeth naturally grow continually and are worn down. Because of this the horses teeth gradually change throughout his life which allows us to tell its age. Ageing a horse by looking at his teeth is very accurate up to the age of eight and after that it is only the approximate age. The adult horse has 40 teeth, which consists of 24 molars, twelve incisors and male horses have four tusks. Sometimes the horse may also have four wolf teeth <P> Figure 7b. A more subtle indicator that can assist with aging the horse over 10 years of age is the Galvayne’s Groove (Figure 9). This is a groove that appears near the gum line of the corner incisor. It begins at center of the outer surface of the tooth in a 10 year old. Incisors Horses under 5 years of age go through some very typical dental changes. With foals a good rule of thumb to remember is that their milk teeth, or deciduous teeth, erupt, or come in, following a simple timetable of 8 days, 8 weeks and 8 months. Here is how it works. <P> A change in the texture of the manure may indicate that something is wrong with the horse. Further, changes in color or amount of manure may be signs that the horse is not well. A horseperson can use several other indicators to tell if a horse is not well. The horse’s eyes may become dull or the lining of the eyes and nostrils may become pale.
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We look at its teeth.Because a horses lifestyle means it is almost continually grazing its teeth naturally grow continually and are worn down. Because of this the horses teeth gradually change throughout his life which allows us to tell its age.
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how to take efavirenz
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<P> Precautions. Before taking efavirenz/emtricitabine/tenofovir, tell your doctor or pharmacist if you are allergic to any of the ingredients; or if you have any other allergies. This product may contain inactive ingredients, which can cause allergic reactions or other problems. Talk to your pharmacist for more details. Do not take this medication with other products that contain emtricitabine or tenofovir. Do not take this medication with another efavirenz product unless specifically directed by your doctor. Also, lamivudine is similar to emtricitabine and should not be taken with this medication. <P> Be the first to review this Drug. Efavirenz is an antiviral medication that prevents human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) cells from multiplying in your body. Efavirenz is used to treat HIV, which causes the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Efavirenz is not a cure for HIV or AIDS. Efavirenz may also be used for purposes not listed in this medication guide. Do not take efavirenz together with Atripla (combination efavirenz, emtricitabine, and tenofovir), unless your doctor tells you to. Some medicines can cause unwanted or dangerous effects when used with efavirenz. Your doctor may need to change your treatment plan if you use any of the following drugs: 1 midazolam, pimozide, St. John's wort; or. 2 ergot medicine--dihydroergotamine, ergotamine, ergonovine, methylergonovine. <P> Efavirenz can cause side effects such as mood or behavior changes. These symptoms may improve the longer you take the medication. Taking efavirenz at bedtime may also lessen these effects. Contact your doctor if you have more serious symptoms such as severe depression or thoughts of hurting yourself. Visit your doctor regularly. This medication can cause you to have a false positive drug-screening test. If you provide a urine sample for drug-screening, tell the laboratory staff that you are taking efavirenz. Store at room temperature away from moisture and heat. <P> See Side Effects section. Because this combination product has fixed doses of efavirenz, emtricitabine, and tenofovir, you should only use it if your doctor has determined that the doses of all 3 medications in this product are right for you. Do not take this medication with other products that contain emtricitabine or tenofovir. Do not take this medication with another efavirenz product unless specifically directed by your doctor. Also, lamivudine is similar to emtricitabine and should not be taken with this medication. <P> You should not use this medication if you are allergic to efavirenz, if you have moderate to severe liver problems, or if you are using any of the following drugs: 1 cisapride (Propulsid); 2 midazolam (Versed) or triazolam (Halcion); Visit your doctor regularly. This medication can cause you to have a false positive drug-screening test. If you provide a urine sample for drug-screening, tell the laboratory staff that you are taking efavirenz. Store at room temperature away from moisture and heat. <P> Before taking efavirenz/emtricitabine/tenofovir, tell your doctor or pharmacist if you are allergic to any of the ingredients; or if you have any other allergies. This product may contain inactive ingredients, which can cause allergic reactions or other problems. Do not take this medication with other products that contain emtricitabine or tenofovir. Do not take this medication with another efavirenz product unless specifically directed by your doctor. Also, lamivudine is similar to emtricitabine and should not be taken with this medication. <P> Before taking efavirenz, tell your doctor or pharmacist if you are allergic to it; or if you have any other allergies. This product may contain inactive ingredients, which can cause allergic reactions or other problems. Talk to your pharmacist for more details. Take this medication by mouth on an empty stomach, without food, usually once daily at bedtime or as directed by your doctor. Taking efavirenz with food increases the blood level of this medication, which may increase your risk of certain side effects. See Side Effects section. <P> Each tablet includes 600 milligrams (mg) of efavirenz, 200 mg of emtricitabine, and 300 mg of tenofovir. Atripla should be taken on an empty stomach at bedtime; this helps reduce side effects. If you miss your dose, you can take Atripla up to 12 hours late. Otherwise, take your next dose at the regular time. Atripla is a tablet that contains three antiretroviral drugs (ARVs) used to fight HIV: efavirenz (Sustiva), emtricitabine (Emtriva) , and tenofovir (Viread) . Atripla is manufactured by Gilead and Bristol-Myers Squibb. It is the first tablet that includes a complete antiretroviral regimen. <P> To make sure you can safely take efavirenz, tell your doctor if you have any of these other conditions: 1 liver disease (including hepatitis B or C); 2 high cholesterol or triglycerides; or. 3 if you have ever taken delavirdine (Rescriptor) or nevirapine (Viramune) and they were not effective in treating your condition. Visit your doctor regularly. This medication can cause you to have a false positive drug-screening test. If you provide a urine sample for drug-screening, tell the laboratory staff that you are taking efavirenz. Store at room temperature away from moisture and heat. <P> If you are pregnant, your name may be listed on a pregnancy registry. This is to track the outcome of the pregnancy and to evaluate any effects of efavirenz on the baby. Women with HIV or AIDS should not breast-feed a baby. Visit your doctor regularly. This medication can cause you to have a false positive drug-screening test. If you provide a urine sample for drug-screening, tell the laboratory staff that you are taking efavirenz. Store at room temperature away from moisture and heat.
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Taking efavirenz at bedtime may also lessen these effects.
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the meaning of the name alejandra
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<P> Below is a graphed comparison of the popularity of the girl name Alejandra and affiliated names. Popular related forms of Alejandra (#446 last year) are Alexandra (#92 last year) , Alexandria (#211) , Alessandra (#299) , Sandra (#800) , Alexander, Alejandrina and Alexandrea. Forms like Alexandrena are uncommon. Alejandra /ale-jan-dra/ [4 sylls.] as a girls' name. Alejandra's root is Greek, and Alejandra means man's defender. Alejandra is an alternate spelling of Alexandra (Greek): Latinate feminine variation of Alexander. Alejandres is a common last name <P> Spanish Meaning: The name Alejandra is a Spanish baby name. In Spanish the meaning of the name Alejandra is: Defender of mankind. Feminine of Alexander. American Meaning: The name Alejandra is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Alejandra is: Defender of mankind. Feminine of Alexander. <P> Feminine form of ALEXANDER. In Greek mythology this was a Mycenaean epithet of the goddess Hera, and an alternate name of Cassandra. It was borne by several early Christian saints, and also by the wife of Nicholas II, the last czar of Russia. <P> Alexandra /al-ex-an-dra/ [4 sylls.] as a girls' name is pronounced al-eks-AHN-dra. It is of Greek origin, and the meaning of Alexandra is man's defender. Latinate feminine form of Alexander. Seldom used in the English-speaking world before the 20th century. Became very popular in Britain after the Prince of Wales (later Edward VII) married the Danish Princess Alexandra in 1863. <P> Alejandra is a very prominent first name for females (#797 out of 4276, Top 19%) and a slightly less prominent last name for all people (#138741 out of 150436, Top 92%). (2000 U.S. Census). Presented below is the baby name popularity of Alejandra for girls. Alejandra was first listed in 1970-1979 and reached its top rank of #147 in the U.S. in the year 1993, and is presently at #446. (Top 1000 Birth Names Records, 2014). Alejandra /ale-jan-dra/ [4 sylls.] as a girls' name. Alejandra's root is Greek, and Alejandra means man's defender. Alejandra is an alternate spelling of Alexandra (Greek): Latinate feminine variation of Alexander. Alejandres is a common last name <P> Alejandra, the Spanish form of this popular and multivaried name, has fans both in and outside the Latino community. Still, it has lost ground since its peak in the 1990s. <P> Etymology & Historical Origin-Alejandra. Alejandra is the Spanish feminine form for the Greek male name Alexander. Or more specifically, it’s the Spanish equivalent to Alexandra. Alexander is the Latin form of the Greek name “Alexandros”. The name’s meaning is interpreted from the Greek “alexein” which means “to defend” plus “andros” which translates to “man, warrior” in a relationship or possessive form. Hence the meaning: ‘defender of men or mankind’ <P> Alejandra in Nautical Flags. Spanish names consist of one or more given names followed by TWO family names. Generally the first surname is the father's first surname and the second is the mother's first surname but this traditional order no longer required. Composite names are considered single unit first names and not first and second names. Parents give names that just appeal to them, honor relatives or saints, or are of traditional Spanish origin. Many Spanish given names honor the Virgin Mary. Girls are frequently given the name Maria or Maria followed by a suffix name and boys are sometimes given the name Maria as a middle name. Girls with Marian composite names may use the suffix portion of their name as their main informal name
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Defender of mankind.
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equal rights amendment definition quizlet
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<P> The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was a proposed amendment to the United States Constitution designed to guarantee equal rights for women. The ERA was originally written by Alice Paul and Crystal Eastman. In 1923, it was introduced in the Congress for the first time. Oregon-Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the state of Oregon or by any political subdivision in this state on account of sex. <P> The legal analysis for this strategy is outlined in The Equal Rights Amendment: Why the ERA Remains Legally Viable and Properly Before the States, an article by Allison Held, Sheryl Herndon, and Danielle Stager in the Spring 1997 issue of William & Mary Journal of Women and the Law. Alice Paul rewrote the ERA in 1943 to what is now called the Alice Paul Amendment, reflecting the 15th and the 19th Amendments: Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex.. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment is not yet in the U.S. Constitution. The ERA, affirming the equal application of the Constitution to all persons regardless of their sex, was written in 1923 by Alice Paul, suffragist leader and founder of the National Woman's Party. Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article. <P> 1 Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. 2 Section 2. 3 The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article. 4 Section 3. Alice Paul rewrote the ERA in 1943 to what is now called the Alice Paul Amendment, reflecting the 15th and the 19th Amendments: Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex.. <P> The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was the most highly publicized and debated constitutional amendment before the United States for most of the 1970s and early 1980s. First submitted by Congress to the states for ratification on March 22, 1972, it failed to be ratified by its final deadline of June 30, 1982. If ratified, the ERA would have become the Twenty-Seventh Amendment to the Constitution. The proposed addition would have read, Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.. The ERA was written by alice paul, of the National Woman's Party, and was first introduced in Congress in 1923 <P> Equal Rights Amendment. A constitutional amendment originally introduced in Congress in 1923 and passed by Congress in 1972, stating that equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex.. <P> Equal Rights Amendment (ERA). proposed amendment to the U.S. constitution passed by Congress and submitted to the states for ratification in 1971; outlawing discrimination based on gender, it was at first seen as a great victory by women's-rights groups. <P> National Council of Women's Organizations. 1 Section 1. Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex. 2 Section 2. 3 The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article. Alice Paul rewrote the ERA in 1943 to what is now called the Alice Paul Amendment, reflecting the 15th and the 19th Amendments: Equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex..
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A constitutional amendment originally introduced in Congress in 1923 and passed by Congress in 1972, stating that equality of rights under the law shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex.
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what is the average cost to remove a tree
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<P> 1 Pine Tree Removal: The average price to remove a pine tree is around $200 if the tree is 40 feet tall, but 80-foot pine trees will cost about $1,500. 2 Oak Tree Removal: Since it reaches up to a height of 60 feet, the average cost to remove an oak tree is approximately $200 to $1,000. Oak trees can run up to $1,000 to remove, whereas small palm or pine trees can cost as little as $150. More exact prices are below: 1 Palm Tree Removal: The average cost to remove a palm tree is approximately $150 to $450 if their height is 30 feet. <P> The average price to remove a pine tree is around $200 if the tree is 40 feet tall, but the 80-foot pine trees will cost about $1,500 because of the work and potential danger involved. Depending on the breed of pine tree you have, there could be additional work involved with removing the branches and cones. The average cost to remove a palm tree is approximately $150 to $450 to remove if their height is 30 feet. If they're 80 feet tall or more, you might spend $1,100 to $1,500 to have the tree professionally felled. <P> Tree removal cost: 1 On average, professional tree removing is going to cost anywhere from $250 to as much as $15,000 a tree. 2 A typical job at house is going to cost anywhere from $600 to $3,500. 3 A smaller tree that is no bigger than 25 feet is going to generally range around $100 – $400. <P> By learning about the costs and prices associated with removing a tree stump, you will avoid unpleasant surprises. Learn more about stump removal prices with our cost guide below. The average cost to remove a tree stump ranges from $60 to $350 per stump, depending on various factors like size. The average removal cost breaks down to approximately $2 to $3 per diameter of the stump. If you do it yourself, it may only cost you about $75 to $150. <P> Trees that are 25 feet to 75 feet tall can range from $200 to $1,000 to remove. Remember, the complexity of the job determines if the cost is higher or lower. Trees that are over 75 feet in height can cost upwards of $1500 each, depending on the complexity of the tree. Costs to remove a standing or leaning tree. There are different prices for different trees that need to be removed. Small trees that are less than 25 feet in height, depending on the complexity, can cost a property owner anywhere from $150 to $500 per tree. <P> The cost of tree removal varies according to a tree's location, height, width, number of branches and proximity to utility lines or other obstacles, according to Atlanta-Tree.com. Typical costs: <P> Tree limb removal costs vary, but it is usually between $50 and $75. Additional services that may be added on for an extra fee include: 1 Stump Removal – Stump removal is almost never included in the price of removing a tree. 2 Unless you pay extra for this service, you will be typically be left with a stump. 1 The diameter of the stump helps determine the cost of removing it. 2 You can expect to pay between $60 and $350 per stump. 3 A rotting stump should be cheaper to remove than a healthy, solid stump. 4 Learn more with our Tree Stump Removal Cost Guide. <P> To remove a tree that is 45 feet tall, consumers can expect to pay around $450. Large trees are between 50 and 90 feet in height and two to four feet thick. These trees will cost around $10 per foot. To remove a 90-foot tree, consumers will pay at least $900. The larger the tree, the more difficult it will be to remove. Many removal services put trees into three simple categories: small, medium and large. A small tree is one that is 25 feet or shorter and between three and 12 inches thick. To remove a small tree, customers will pay around $8 per foot. <P> Pine Tree Removal: ~$200-$1500. There are many species of pine tree out there, but generally, the average height of a pine tree is between 40 and 60 feet. Some varieties soar up to 80 feet though. As you already know, the total amount that you’ll pay to have a tree removed depends on how large it is. 1 The diameter of the stump helps determine the cost of removing it. 2 You can expect to pay between $60 and $350 per stump. 3 A rotting stump should be cheaper to remove than a healthy, solid stump. 4 Learn more with our Tree Stump Removal Cost Guide. <P> The average national tree removal cost is $650, though homeowners can spend anywhere between $75 and $1,500 on the expenditure. Trees can beautify a yard or a whole neighborhood, but from time to time and for various reasons they might need to be cut down. The average cost to remove a palm tree is approximately $150 to $450 to remove if their height is 30 feet. If they're 80 feet tall or more, you might spend $1,100 to $1,500 to have the tree professionally felled.
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$75 and $1,500
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can you put a peak on flat mobile home
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<P> Originally Posted by dwj469 I have a question regarding putting a peaked roof over a flat roof on a mobile home. The owneer of the park requires all flat roof mobile homes to have a peaked roof put on within a certain time period. They do not want a floating roof with the 4x4's going down to the ground. <P> I have a question regarding putting a peaked roof over a flat roof on a mobile home. The owneer of the park requires all flat roof mobile homes to have a peaked roof put on within a certain time period. They do not want a floating roof with the 4x4's going down to the ground. <P> Thanks for the replies. The roof is basically flat at present. Is there no way to put some kind of rafter system mounted on the outside perimeter of the mobile home and fasten the metal roof to it. This is just a seasonal trailer that we use in the summer. <P> This family has discovered that putting a new mobile home roof and insulation in place on their old mobile home pays off in more ways than one. It's estimated that the typical mobile home gives up between 15% and 22% of its heat through the ceiling. <P> Report Abuse. Go to a Truss Builder in your area, or you can probably find one thru Home Depot or Lowe's. All they would need is the length of your trailer and what pitch you want the roof to be, to determine how many trusses you will need. ((The pitch is how many inches the roof goes UP in one foot length.
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Yes, within a certain time period
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where can i take itil test
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<P> Directions for ITIL Foundation v3 Exam at PROMETRIC. Follow this simple guide to answer the most common question. How do I prepare and take my ITIL Foundation exam at a Prometric Test Centre. Read about the Downloadable Self Study course and then be ready to follow these easy steps towards arranging your own ITIL v3 Foundation Exam, at Prometric. You will next see a screen of text on EXIN exam policies at Prometric <P> 1 Also valid for taking ITIL Foundation exam in person at a local testing center. 2 Take the ITIL Foundation exam from any country, regardless of location. 3 ITIL Foundation exam is fully accredited and proctored. 4 $249.00 (USD) - Purchase valid for single online. The ITIL Foundation exam covers material from all five ITIL core volumes. 1 There are 40 total multiple choice questions which make up the ITIL Foundation exam. 2 Individuals have 1 hour to complete the exam. 3 The exam is closed book and requires a passing score of 65% or greater. <P> If you choose to take the online ITIL Foundation exam, you may take your exam 7 days a week, between the hours of 8AM to 7PM (MST GMT-7 / UTC-7). There is no restriction on countries when you register for an ITIL exam. If you choose to take the exam in person, you can check here for a list of testing facilities in your country: CSME Testing Facilities Or you may elect to take the exam from your personal computer using a CSME online proctor (included in price). <P> Taking your ITIL Foundation Exam Online. Ideal for those test takers who do not live near an accredited ITIL Foundation testing center or who have schedules which make it difficult to take the ITIL Foundation exam in person. The online method is proctored by CSME, and can be taken from any computer with a webcam. The ITIL Foundation exam covers material from all five ITIL core volumes. 1 There are 40 total multiple choice questions which make up the ITIL Foundation exam. 2 Individuals have 1 hour to complete the exam. 3 The exam is closed book and requires a passing score of 65% or greater. <P> This page explains the benefits of online exams and explains how they operate in detail. If you have already purchased your exam voucher you can request it using our online exam form, and then go on to schedule your exam. If you have not purchased an exam, contact your training provider for information. In order to take a web based exam you will require at least a 640 X 480 pixel web cam with microphone. All web based exams are remotely proctored via your web cam. <P> You will need to determine which organization's ITIL exam you'll want to take (EXIN or ISEB, among others); in addition to where you'll be taking it. You will then visit the testing center and take the ITIL exam via a monitored desktop computer. Other folks may decide that a multi-day course is the way to go for their ITIL Foundation certificate. Some courses will offer an in-class ITIL exam with a live proctor. Those of you who take an in-person course may also opt to take the Prometric exam as well. <P> Also valid for in-person exams. 1 Take the fully accredited ITIL Foundation exam, directly from your computer. 2 Also valid for taking ITIL Foundation exam in person at a local testing center. 3 Take the ITIL Foundation exam from any country, regardless of location. 4 ITIL Foundation exam is fully accredited and proctored. The ITIL Foundation exam covers material from all five ITIL core volumes. 1 There are 40 total multiple choice questions which make up the ITIL Foundation exam. 2 Individuals have 1 hour to complete the exam. 3 The exam is closed book and requires a passing score of 65% or greater. <P> Yes. When you register for your ITIL exam through ITIL Prime, you can elect to take the exam from one of thousands of CSME test centers. Once you register, you will be provided with instructions on how to take the exam online or at a test center. There is no restriction on countries when you register for an ITIL exam. If you choose to take the exam in person, you can check here for a list of testing facilities in your country: CSME Testing Facilities Or you may elect to take the exam from your personal computer using a CSME online proctor (included in price).
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Take the exam from one of thousands of CSME test centers.
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average temperature of anchorage alaska
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<P> Days of Warm Weather in Anchorage. The temperature in Anchorage creeps above 69 degrees Fahrenheit an average of just 12 days a year and normally doesn't get above 80 degrees. Anchorage's spells of 70-degree weather typically occur from May to August. Warm weather during winter is scarce. For most of winter Anchorage's temperature remains below freezing all day long. The thermometer there drops to 0 degrees Fahrenheit or colder an average of 20 days a year. Daytime highs of less than 33 degrees can also occur during October, November, March and April <P> 17. Climate data for anchorage intl, Longitude: -150.028, Latitude: 61.169. Average weather Anchorage, AK - 99502 - 1981-2010 normals. Jan: January, Feb: February, Mar: March, Apr: April, May: May, Jun: June, Jul: July, Aug: August, Sep: September, Oct: October, Nov: November, Dec: December. <P> Anchorage in the winter, with an average of 26 degrees showing on the mercury offers an array of alpine skiing, dog sledding and Skijoring, a fast growing sport that involves cross-country skiing while being towed by a dog, along with the famous Iditarod sled dog race and the 2000 mile Irondog snowmobile race. The average monthly temperature and rainfall information for Anchorage Alaska is another of the helpfull topics covered for help in planning your vacation to Alaska. This information is to help in planning your vacation to Anchorage Alaska. <P> Anchorage AK average temperature information for planning your vacation to Alaska. Find the best time to visit Anchorage Alaska to experience the vacation your looking for. Average temperatures are enhanced with record high temperatures and record low temperatures for Anchorage Alaska. The average monthly temperature and rainfall information for Anchorage Alaska is another of the helpfull topics covered for help in planning your vacation to Alaska. This information is to help in planning your vacation to <P> 1 Anchorage, Alaska has a snow dry, cool summer climate with at least one month colder than -3 C. This climate is usually at the highest elevations near locations that are warm temperate with dry, hot summers (K ppen-Geiger classification: Dsc). 1 Anchorage, Alaska, Usa is at 61 9'N, 149 59'W, 44 m (144 ft). <P> How Often Anchorage Has Cold Temperatures. For most of winter Anchorage's temperature remains below freezing all day long. The thermometer there drops to 0 degrees Fahrenheit or colder an average of 20 days a year. Daytime highs of less than 33 degrees can also occur during October, November, March and April <P> Average daytime summer temperatures range from approximately 55 to 78 degrees Fahrenheit (13 to 26 degrees Celsius); average daytime winter temperatures are about 5 to 30 degrees (-15 to -1 degrees Celsius). Anchorage has a frost-free growing season that averages slightly over 100 days. Average January low and high temperatures at Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport (PANC) are 11 °F/23 °F (-11 °C/-5 °C) with an average winter snowfall of 75.5 inches (192 cm). The weather on any given day and indeed for entire seasons can be very unpredictable. Summers are typically mild (although cool compared to the contiguous US and even interior Alaska), though it can rain frequently. Average July low and high temperatures are 52 °F/66 °F (11 °C/19 °C) and the hottest reading ever recorded was 86 °F (30 °C) on June 25, 1953. <P> Be sure to visit the “ Alaska Wildlife Conservation Center ”, Girdwood. The average monthly temperature and rainfall information for Anchorage Alaska is another of the helpfull topics covered for help in planning your vacation to Alaska. This information is to help in planning your vacation to Anchorage Alaska.
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26 degrees
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what is sub vlan
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<P> VLAN 1 is also known as the default VLAN. Because it is the default, the other types of VLANs, the native VLAN, the management VLAN and the user VLANs, are all automatically members of VLAN 1. [1] All Ethernet interfaces on Catalyst switches default to VLAN 1. <P> • Between VLANs and subnets one to one relationship exists, that means one subnet can be assigned to one VLAN. Although it’s possible, trying to assign more than one subnet for a VLAN is not a good network design planning. • VLAN boundary marks the end of a logical subnet. VLAN is a logical group of networks created regardless of their physical location which helps to create smaller broadcast domains within WS-C2960-24TT-L switch. For these VLANs, different ports can be assigned. Without VLANs, a switch considers all interfaces to a switch are in one broadcast domain. <P> In telecommunications and computer networking, a subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. <P> A virtual LAN (VLAN) is any broadcast domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer network at the data link layer (OSI layer 2). LAN is an abbreviation of local area network. To subdivide a network into virtual LANs, one configures a network switch or router. Simpler network devices can only partition per physical port (if at all), in which case each VLAN is connected with a dedicated network cable (and VLAN connectivity is limited by the number of hardware ports available). <P> VLANs: When we create the sub interfaces on the routers, we tell the router which VLAN to associate with that sub interface, on the same line as the encapsulate command (example below we are using vlan 10 and vlan 20 on subinterface .1 and .2). What is a sub-interface in a router, why it is created and what is its requirement?In case if we need to communicate between two sub-interfaces in two routers do we need to add vlans also on routers? <P> dot1q vlan. To assign a VLAN ID to a subinterface (or to modify the VLAN ID that is currently assigned to a subinterface), use the dot1q vlan command in subinterface configuration mode. To remove the VLAN ID assigned to a subinterface, use the no form of this command <P> Re: Sub-Interface. By begining with the creation of only one subinterface on a physical interface, I think that it's a kind of anticipation for a future growth of the network. If we want to create (attach) another network to the router, it will be an easy task. What is a sub-interface in a router, why it is created and what is its requirement?In case if we need to communicate between two sub-interfaces in two routers do we need to add vlans also on routers? <P> VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical local area network (or LAN) that extends beyond a single traditional LAN to a group of LAN segments, given specific configurations. Since a VLAN is a logical entity, its creation and configuration is done completely in software. 1 VLAN Translation Mode – VLAN translation mode is used when the frame tagging method is changed in the network path or if the frame traverses from a VLAN group to a traditional or native interface that is not configured in a VLAN.
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A virtual LAN (VLAN) is any broadcast domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer network at the data link layer (OSI layer 2).
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names of sea caves
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<P> Exploring the sea caves of Na Pali Coast is the highlight of our raft tours, and is included in all tours (conditions permitting). The sea caves along the Na Pali Coast are formed from the harsh wave action of the Pacific Ocean slamming into the porous lava. At 1,155 feet in length, the Waiahuakua Sea Cave is second on the list in rank for the world’s longest sea caves. This dark and spooky sea cave has a separate entrance and exit, and is thus referred to as the Double-Door Cave. <P> Areas known for large concentrations of sea caves include the Pacific coast states of the USA (Alaska, Washington, Oregon, and California, and especially, California's Channel Islands); the Na Pali coast of Kauai; the Greek Isles; the British Isles, and many other places with cliffs of good solid rock to host the caves. Regions where sea caves form are often associated with arches and sea stacks. Often these are remnants from collapses of sea caves, and in some cases may line up along what had been a fault line in a rock unit that has been carved by the sea into isolated stacks of rock. <P> Probably the world's two most famous sea caves are the Blue Grotto on the Italian island of Capri (left), and Fingal's Cave on the British island of Staffa (formed in columnar basalt). Regions where sea caves form are often associated with arches and sea stacks. Often these are remnants from collapses of sea caves, and in some cases may line up along what had been a fault line in a rock unit that has been carved by the sea into isolated stacks of rock. <P> While many of these caves are found in the craggy coastlines of Europe, some of the largest sea caves in the world — such as California's Painted Cave and Oregon's Sea Lion Cave — can be found on the rocky Pacific coast of the United States. <P> The primary process involved is erosion. Sea caves are found throughout the world, actively forming along present coastlines and as relict sea caves on former coastlines. Some of the largest wave-cut caves in the world are found on the coast of Norway, but are now 100 feet or more above present sea level. Some of the best-known sea caves are European. Fingal's Cave, on the Scottish island of Staffa, is a spacious cave some 70 m long, formed in columnar basalt. <P> Most sea caves are small in relation to other types. A compilation of sea-cave surveys as of July 2014 (Long sea caves of the world) shows 2 over 1000 meters, 6 over 400 meters, nine over 300 meters, 25 over 200 meters, and 108 over 100 meters in length. Some of the best-known sea caves are European. Fingal's Cave, on the Scottish island of Staffa, is a spacious cave some 70 m long, formed in columnar basalt. <P> Numerous sea caves have been surveyed in England, Scotland, and in France, particularly on the Normandy coast. Until 2013, the largest known sea caves were found along the west coast of the United States, the Hawaiian islands, and the Shetland Islands. Some of the best-known sea caves are European. Fingal's Cave, on the Scottish island of Staffa, is a spacious cave some 70 m long, formed in columnar basalt. <P> Sea Caves. Sea caves are also known as Littoral caves. They are formed by the action of waves pounding against the land and removing material over time. Sea caves are relatively small, with only a few over 300 meters in length. Because this type of cave is generally found facing the open sea, just getting to them can be an adventure in itself! Many of these caves can only be approached and explored by kayak or small boat. Others drain out at low tide and can be explored on foot. Sea caves are obviously located in coastal areas. Examples are the sea caves of Santa Cruz Island in California and the Na Pali Coast on the island of Kauai, Hawaii. <P> Painted Cave, a large sea cave, Santa Cruz Island, California. Sea caves are found along coasts around the world. A special case is littoral caves, which are formed by wave action in zones of weakness in sea cliffs. Often these weaknesses are faults, but they may also be dykes or bedding-plane contacts. Some wave-cut caves are now above sea level because of later uplift. Elsewhere, in places such as Thailand's Phang Nga Bay, solutional caves have been flooded by the sea and are now subject to littoral erosion. Sea caves are generally around 5 to 50 metres (16 to 164 ft) in length, but may exceed 300 metres (980 ft).
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Fingal's Cave, California's Painted Cave, Oregon's Sea Lion Cave, Blue Grotto and Waiahuakua Sea Cave.
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ovo-vegetarians definition
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<P> Many vegetarians also do not eat products that contain gelatin or other animal-based products. Lacto-vegetarians consume dairy products, but not eggs; ovo-vegetarians eat eggs, but not dairy products; and lacto-ovo-vegetarians eat eggs as well as dairy products. There is also pescetarianism, a vegetarian-like diet that avoids meat and poultry but does include fish. <P> Ovo vegetarianism /ˈoʊvoʊ/ is a type of vegetarianism which allows for the consumption of eggs but not dairy products, in contrast with lacto vegetarianism. Those who practice ovo vegetarianism are called ovo-vegetarians or eggetarians. Ovo comes from the Latin word for egg. <P> lacto-ovo-vegetarian. a vegetarian who consumes dairy products and eggs but does not eat animal flesh. [lak′tō ōv′ō vej′əter′ē·ən]. a person whose diet consists primarily of foods of vegetable origin but also includes some animal products, such as eggs (ovo), milk, and cheese (lacto), but no meat, fish, or poultry. Also called ovo-lacto-vegetarian. <P> The word itself can be used as either a noun, as in That person is a vegetarian , or an adjective used to describe the diet, or way of eating, as in, That person follows a vegetarian diet.. Lacto-vegetarian is sometimes used to describe a vegetarian who does not eat eggs, but does eat dairy products. Many Hindu vegetarians are lacto-vegetarians who avoid eggs for religious reasons while continuing to eat dairy. Ovo-vegetarian refers to people who do not eat meat or dairy products but do eat eggs. Some people are ovo-vegetarians because they are lactose-intolerant. See also: 1 Types of vegetarians. <P> Ovo-lacto vegetarianism. An ovo-lacto vegetarian (or lacto-ovo vegetarian) is a vegetarian who does not eat any meat, fish, or poultry. A typical ovo-lacto vegetarian diet includes fruits, vegetables, grains, legumes, nuts, seeds, dairy, and egg products. <P> Definition: Ovo-vegetarian refers to people who do not eat meat or dairy products but do eat eggs. Many people are ovo-vegetarians because they are lactose-intolerant. The prefix ovo comes from the Latin word for egg. <P> 1 Lacto-ovo-vegetarians eat both dairy products and eggs; this is the most common type of vegetarian diet. 2 Lacto-vegetarians eat dairy products but avoid eggs. 3 Vegans do not eat dairy products, eggs, or any other products which are derived from animals. There are different types of vegetarian: 1 <P> The simplest definition of vegetarianism is a diet free of meat, fish, and fowl flesh. But eating habits of vegetarians cover a wide spectrum. At one end are lacto-ovo vegetarians, who avoid animal flesh but eat eggs and milk products. At the other end are vegans, who forgo eating (and often wearing) all animal-based products, including honey. <P> There are varieties of the diet as well: an ovo-vegetarian diet includes eggs but not dairy products, a lacto-vegetarian diet includes dairy products but not eggs, and an ovo-lacto vegetarian diet includes both eggs and dairy products. A vegan diet excludes all animal products, including eggs, dairy, beeswax and honey. Lacto-ovo vegetarians that include dairy products can still obtain calcium from dairy sources like milk, yogurt, and cheese. Non-dairy milks that are fortified with calcium, such as soymilk and almond milk can also contribute a significant amount of calcium in the diet.
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Ovo-vegetarian refers to people who do not eat meat or dairy products but do eat eggs.
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foods that are harmful to humans with type o positive blood
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<P> 1 Legumes: legumes and foods that inhibit the thyroid hormone can be very damaging to those with an O positive blood type. 2 People with this blood type tend to have a low level of thyroid hormone in their system and frequently suffer from thyroid trouble. <P> Blood Types and the Population. O positive is the most common blood type. Not all ethnic groups have the same mix of these blood types. Hispanic people, for example, have a relatively high number of O’s, while Asian people have a relatively high number of B’s. <P> Nearly all types of grains are considered bad for people with type O blood on the Blood Type diet. You're advised to avoid all forms of wheat, corn, oats, bulgur, pumpernickel and semolina, as well as any products containing these as ingredients. <P> Since most people are unaware of their blood types, let alone what foods are evolutionarily inappropriate for them to eat, it is reasonable to assume that on most days most people eat the wrong foods for their blood type (e.g., Type O eating wheat, Type A eating meat, etc.). <P> 1 Grains and dairy: people with this blood type do not digest grains and dairy products well. 2 Their metabolism is often slow to digest these foods, which can lead to discomfort. 3 High levels of grain can also spike the body's insulin rate, which will further slow your metabolism. <P> People with type B positive blood shouldn't eat ketchup. Not all blood types are the same. There are four types of blood, A, B, AB and O, and the presence or absence of certain antigens is what determines your blood type, according to the American Red Cross. Based on these differences, Dr. Peter D’Adamo created the Blood Type Diet, which is often called the Eat Right For Your Type Diet. <P> A person's blood type is based on the antigens found in the blood. These antigens, A and B are found on the surface of the blood cells and are uses as markers in the body. Type O blood does not have A or B antigens on the red blood cells, but contains both types in the plasma. <P> Since most people are unaware of their blood types (let alone what foods are evolutionarily inappropriate for them to eat), it is reasonable to assume that on most days most people eat the wrong foods for their blood type (e.g., Type O's eating wheat, Type A's eating meat, etc.).
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Wheat, corn, oats, bulgur, pumpernickel and semolina
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how do you get warts
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<P> When skin warts appear, it can seem as if the harmless growths came out of nowhere. But common warts are actually an infection in the top layer of skin, caused by viruses in the human papillomavirus, or HPV, family. <P> Warts are small lumps that often develop on the skin of the hands and feet. Warts vary in appearance and may develop singly or in clusters. Some are more likely to affect particular areas of the body. For example, verrucas are warts that usually develop on the soles of the feet. <P> Avoid touching warts as much as possible. Warts are small growths on the body, and are caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV), and can spread to other parts of your body. 1 It's also possible to spread the HPV virus to others through cuts, open sores, or sexual activities. <P> Causes. Plantar warts are caused by an infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV) in the outer layer of skin on the soles of your feet. More than 100 types of HPV exist, but only a few cause warts on your feet. Other types of HPV are more likely to cause warts on other areas of your skin or on mucous membranes. <P> A wart is typically a small growth that appears on a person's hands or feet and looks like a solid blister or a small cauliflower. They may also appear on other parts of the body. Warts have a rough texture and are caused by viruses, particularly one of several kinds of HPV (human papillomavirus). The virus causes keratin, which is a hard protein on the top layer of the skin, to grow too fast. Warts are not the same as moles. <P> Warts occur when the virus comes in contact with your skin and causes an infection. Warts are more likely to develop on broken skin, such as picked hangnails or areas nicked by shaving, because the virus is able to enter the top layer of skin through scratches or cuts. <P> Warts are caused by an infection with the human papilloma virus (HPV) . The virus causes an excess amount of keratin, a hard protein, to develop in the top skin layer (epidermis). The extra keratin produces the rough, hard texture of a wart. <P> It typically occurs on humans' hands or feet but often in other locations. Warts are caused by a viral infection, specifically by one of the many types of human papillomavirus (HPV). There are as many as 10 varieties of warts, the most common considered to be mostly harmless.
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Warts are more likely to develop on broken skin, such as picked hangnails or areas nicked by shaving, because the virus is able to enter the top layer of skin through scratches or cuts.
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definition of manna in the bible
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<P> Definition of MANNA for Kids. 1. : food which according to the Bible was supplied by a miracle to the Israelites in the wilderness. <P> Dictionaries-Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology-Manna. The miraculous bread of heaven (Psalm 78:24) that God provided for the Israelites while he led them through the Red Sea on dry ground and into the Wilderness of Sin (Exod. 16). <P> According to the book of Exodus, manna is white, like Coriander seed, (although modern-day coriander seed is yellow/brown). In the Hebrew Bible, manna is described twice: once in Exodus 16:1-36 with the full narrative surrounding it, and once again in Numbers 11:1-9 as a part of a separate narrative. In the description in the Book of Exodus, manna is described as being a fine, flake-like thing like the frost on the ground. <P> 1. In the Bible, the food miraculously provided for the Israelites in the wilderness during their flight from Egypt. 2. Spiritual nourishment of divine origin. 3. Something of value that a person receives unexpectedly: viewed the bonus as manna from heaven. 4. <P> Full Definition of MANNA. 1. a: food miraculously supplied to the Israelites in their journey through the wilderness b: divinely supplied spiritual nourishment c: a usually sudden and unexpected source of gratification, pleasure, or gain. <P> By the manna is signified spiritual good, that is, the good of the man of the spiritual church, which is the good of truth (AC 8458).
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Divinely supplied spiritual nourishment
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what is alias
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<P> When messages are sent to the alias, they automatically go to your real email address. You can have up to a total of five (5) aliases. An alias can be paired with only one email address at a time. Your alias won’t change–just where your email is delivered. The best part of this is, if you’re using an alias and you change your email address, you won’t have to notify any of your correspondents, change your letterhead, or change your business cards! <P> Alias is a short and more popular phrase for alias dictus. The abbreviation a.k.a., also known as, is frequently used in connection with the description of a person sought by law enforcement officers to disclose the names that the person has been known to use. ALIAS, practice. This word is prefixed to the name of a second writ of the same kind issued in the same cause; as, when a summons has been issued and it is returned by the sheriff, nil, and another is issued, this is called an alias summons. <P> alias. ALIAS, practice. This word is prefixed to the name of a second writ of the same kind issued in the same cause; as, when a summons has been issued and it is returned by the sheriff, nil, and another is issued, this is called an alias summons. The term is used to all kinds of writs, as alias fi. fa., alias vend <P> To create an alias. In SQL Server Configuration Manager, expand SQL Server Native Client Configuration, right-click Aliases, and then click New Alias. In the Alias Name box, type the name of the alias. Client applications use this name when they connect. In the Server box, type the name or IP address of a server. For a named instance append the instance name. In the Protocol box, select the protocol used for this alias. <P> Note that you can’t customize the first part of a domain alias address (the part before the @ sign). In the example above, maria @alias.com can’t have the address maria.lopez @alias.com. 1 You can add up to 20 domain aliases. 2 You must own the domain name you add as a domain alias, and verify your ownership. 1 You must own the domain name you add as a domain alias, and verify your ownership. 2 You can only add a domain alias to your account's primary domain. 3 You can't add a domain name that's associated with another Google account. 4 You must first remove the domain from the other account. <P> p. An alias can be created with the same name as the core name of a command (i.e., a command without any options or arguments). In such case, it is the alias that is called (i.e., activated) first when the name is used, rather than the command with the same name. <P> An alias is an alternate name that can be used to make a connection. The alias encapsulates the required elements of a connection string, and exposes them with a name chosen by the user. Aliases can be used with any client application. In the Alias Name box, type the name of the alias. Client applications use this name when they connect. In the Server box, type the name or IP address of a server. For a named instance append the instance name. In the Protocol box, select the protocol used for this alias. <P> In Mac OS X, an alias is a pointer file that allows you to quickly open the files, folders, servers, or applications used most often. When you double-click an alias, the operating system finds the file it references and opens it. An alias can be distinguished by its icon, which has an arrow in the bottom left corner. You have several options for creating an alias: 1 Drag and drop: Click the item you wish to alias and hold down the mouse button. 2 Then, while holding down the Command and Option keys, drag the item to where you want the alias to appear. 3 Instead of moving the original item, this will create an alias at the new location. <P> 1) In some computer operating system s and programming languages, an alias is an alternative and usually easier-to-understand or more significant name for a defined data object. The data object can be defined once and later a programmer can define one or more equivalent aliases that will also refer to the data object. In general, as a noun, an alias (pronounced AY-lee-uhs) is an alternate name for someone or something.
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An alternate name for someone or something.
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what is the of mountain everest
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<P> Mount Everest is located on the border between Tibet and Nepal in the Himalayan Mountains in Asia. Everest is situated on the Tibetan Plateau known as Qing Zang Gaoyuan; the summit is directly between Tibet/China and Nepal. <P> Reaching 29,029 feet (8,848 meters) above sea level, Mount Everest is the highest mountain on Earth. Located in the Mahalangur section of the Himalayas, the mountain's summit straddles the border separating China and Nepal. The mountain's height was first determined in 1856. <P> Mount Everest, also known in Nepal as Sagarmāthā and in Tibet as Chomolungma, is Earth 's highest mountain. It is located in the Mahalangur mountain range in Nepal. Its peak is 8,848 metres (29,029 ft) above sea level. It is not the furthest summit from the centre of the Earth. <P> With a peak elevation of 29,035 feet (8850 meters), the top of Mount Everest is the world's highest point above sea level. As the world's highest mountain, climbing to the top of Mount Everest has been a goal of many mountain climbers for many decades. Mount Everest is located on the border of Nepal and Tibet, China. <P> At 29,035 feet (8,850 meters) above sea level, Mount Everest is the tallest and most prominent mountain in the world based on measurement to sea level. Asia's Himalayas -- the tallest mountain range in the world -- span across six countries: China, Nepal, India, Pakistan, Bhutan, and Afghanistan.
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It is the highest mountain on Earth.
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what is xylitol or erythritol
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<P> Erythritol is a sugar alcohol and because it is not fully absorbed like other sugar alcohols, such as xylitol, sorbitol, etc., it therefore produces digestive disorders for many people = gas, bloating, loose bowels. Erythritol is a concentrated granular fructose which contains an extremely high level of fructose = 99%. Used as a natural sweetener, erythritol is about 60 – 80% as sweet as sucrose (sugar). It is used primarily in chewing gum, baked goods and beverages and occurs naturally in pears, soy sauce, wine, sake, watermelon and grapes. In fact, erythritol has even been found to exist naturally in human tissues and body fluids. <P> Xylitol vs. Erythritol. When it comes to polyols (commonly referred to as sugar alcohols), erythritol is quite different than xylitol. Here are a few ways the two sweeteners compare. <P> XYLITOL vs ERYTHRITOL. Xylitol and Erythritol are alcohol sugars. They are used as natural sweeteners for patients who are maintaining their blood glucose levels and for those who just want to use artificial sweeteners. They are commercially sold in the markets and found under different brand names <P> Erythritol ((2R,3S)-butane-1,2,3,4-tetraol) is a sugar alcohol (or polyol) that has been approved for use as a food additive in the United States and throughout much of the world. It was discovered in 1848 by British chemist John Stenhouse. It occurs naturally in some fruit and fermented foods. In the body, most erythritol is absorbed into the bloodstream in the small intestine, and then for the most part excreted unchanged in the urine. About 10% enters the colon. <P> Erythritol is a naturally-derived sugar substitute, produced by a fermentation process, that looks and tastes very much like sugar, yet has almost no calories. It comes in granulated and powdered forms. Erythritol has been used in Japan since 1990 in candies, chocolate, yogurt, fillings, jellies, jams, beverages, and as a sugar substitute. Erythritol is classified as a sugar alcohol. Sugar alcohols, also called polyols, are sugar substitutes that are either extracted from plants or manufactured from starches. One of the more common sugar alcohol sweeteners is Xylitol. Sugar alcohols also occur naturally in plants. Erythritol is found naturally in small amounts in grapes, melons, mushrooms, and fermented foods such as wine, beer, cheese, and soy sauce <P> Erythritol is not your average sugar alcohol. Used as a natural sweetener, erythritol is about 60 – 80% as sweet as sucrose (sugar). It is used primarily in chewing gum, baked goods and beverages and occurs naturally in pears, soy sauce, wine, sake, watermelon and grapes. In fact, erythritol has even been found to exist naturally in human tissues and body fluids. <P> Erythritol is known as a sugar alcohol. It occurs naturally in some fruits and fermented foods, but the kind you see added to low-sugar and sugar-free items is man-made. The fermentation of wheat or cornstarch creates a crystalline product that can then be added to foods, much like sugar. <P> Erythritol and xylitol are sugar alcohols, with alcohol referring to a chemical structure. Sugar alcohols are modified forms of sugar and not technically an actual sugar, which is why foods containing erythritol and xylitol can be labeled sugar free.. Photo Credit bdspn/iStock/Getty Images. Stevia, erythritol and xylitol are all naturally found in plants and used as low-calorie or calorie-free sweeteners. But beyond these similarities, each one has unique characteristics, from differing levels of sweetness to a few unexpected benefits. <P> Erythritol, on the other hand, is a sugar alcohol made from sugar with a fermenting agent added. It is naturally found in fruits such as cantaloupe as well as in grapes. It is also a natural byproduct of the fermentation of bacteria in our digestive system. It is zero on the glycemic scale. Xylitol and Erythritol are alcohol sugars. They are used as natural sweeteners for patients who are maintaining their blood glucose levels and for those who just want to use artificial sweeteners.
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It is a sugar alcohol (or polyol) that has been approved for use as a food additive in the United States and throughout much of the world.
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move files from phone to sd card android
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<P> Yes you can move all your files from internal memory to SD CARD. To move all application you can install App SD. To move all messages you can install SMS BackUP Pro. To transfer file you can use a file manager application and cut paste all the multimedia files to SD card. Thanks. HI there, In order to move all the apps installed in the internal memory of your device, you need to install an app called APP TO SD. This app allows you to transfer the apps from internal memory to SD CARD. Also, it pokes you whenever an app installs in internal memory of your device. <P> 4. Select an App. Tap on the app that you want to move to SD card. Look for a button that says Move to SD Card. Tap it to move the app. If the button is greyed out, the app does not support moving to the SD card. If the button is missing your version of Android and your phone do not support moving apps to the SD card. 1 Remember, an app has to be specifically designed to allow being moved to an SD card in order for this option to be available. <P> Tap on that to switch from phone to Memory Card and vice versa. To move all your pics from Phone to SD, connect your phone to computer via USB make sure you have KIES installed on the computer before doing this. One the computer recognizes your phone click on Open Devices to view folder contents. You should have two storage options available. Phone & Card. <P> September 21, 2013 5:15:04 PM. You can move files between your SD card, phone storage, and computer several ways. The easiest way is to be connected to a computer and just drag and drop files as needed. I prefer wireless ability to do this and use Airdroid which uses your home WiFi to transfer files. Its not as fast but its very convenient. <P> You can basically move everything from your internal phone memory to SD card in Android. First, you need to locate the data location where everything including photos, videos are stored in your phone. Normally, photos in Android phone are stored automatically in (unless specified otherwise by the user). SD card is the best place to save your photos. Once you move pictures from gallery to SD card, you can easily transfer them, travel with them and share them with others. In Samsung Galaxy S5 or any other Android phone, you can move pictures to SD card very easily. <P> Moving apps onto a memory card frees up space on your phone’s internal storage and can speed up operation of the device. If your Android 4.4 phone has an SD slot with a card in it, use the phone’s native Application Manager program to transfer apps out of internal memory and onto the card. If you view an app’s App Info screen and the Move to SD Card button is grayed out, the app cannot be moved. If you change your mind or decide to remove or upgrade your SD card, transfer apps back into the phone’s internal memory to avoid having to download them again. <P> Some core apps can’t be transferred to an SD card. If you view an app’s App Info screen and the Move to SD Card button is grayed out, the app cannot be moved. If you change your mind or decide to remove or upgrade your SD card, transfer apps back into the phone’s internal memory to avoid having to download them again. <P> Since we want to move files from the phone onto the memory card we want to select Device storage. Once Device storage is opened a list of all the files on your phones internal storage will appear. This is where you want to search/browse for files that you want to move from your phone to your SD card. One of the first things that you will need to do is find the files on your phone that you want to transfer to your SD card. This is actually really easy to do once you know where to start looking. Here is how to locate the picture and video files in the phones original default storage location. <P> Moving Applications to the SD Card. Tap the “Settings” icon in your app drawer or on the home screen to launch the Settings application. Scroll down and select “Application Manager” under the Applications heading. Tap the name of the app you want to move. Tap the “Move to SD Card” button on the app's App Info screen. If you view an app’s App Info screen and the Move to SD Card button is grayed out, the app cannot be moved. If you change your mind or decide to remove or upgrade your SD card, transfer apps back into the phone’s internal memory to avoid having to download them again.
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Yes you can move all your files from internal memory to SD CARD. To move all application you can install App SD. To move all messages you can install SMS BackUP Pro. To transfer file you can use a file manager application and cut paste all the multimedia files to SD card.
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what is an albatross bird
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<P> Albatross is a type of sea bird. There are 21 species of albatross that live mainly in the south hemisphere. They inhabit Antarctica, Australia, South Africa and South America. Rare species of albatross live in the northern hemisphere and inhabit Alaska, Hawaii and California. Albatross spends almost entire life on the ocean. <P> The Albatross is one of the largest Birds in the skies as the wingspan of the male Wandering Albatross can easily reach 3.5 meters or more in length, meaning that it has the largest wingspan of any Bird. <P> Albatrosses, of the biological family Diomedeidae, are large seabirds allied to the procellariids, storm petrels and diving petrels in the order Procellariiformes (the tubenoses). <P> Size relative to a 6-ft (2-m) man: An albatross aloft can be a spectacular sight. These feathered giants have the longest wingspan of any bird—up to 11 feet (3.4 meters)! The wandering albatross is the biggest of some two dozen different species. <P> Albatross Classification and Evolution The Albatross is a large species of sea-bird found throughout the southern Pacific and even into the colder Antarctic regions. <P> Albatrosses have been described as the most legendary of all birds. An albatross is a central emblem in The Rime of the Ancient Mariner by Samuel Taylor Coleridge; a captive albatross is also a metaphor for the poete poète maudit in a poem Of Charles. baudelaire <P> An Albatross is one of the giant bird species belonging to the biological family Diomedeidae. It is a large seabird highly efficient in the air covering great distances with less exertion.
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The Albatross is a large species of sea-bird found throughout the southern Pacific and even into the colder Antarctic regions.
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source definition geography
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<P> Geography (from Greek γεωγραφία, geographia, lit. earth description) is a field study of the lands, the features, the inhabitants, and the phenomena of Earth. A literal translation would be to describe or picture or write about the earth. The first person to use the word geography was Eratosthenes (276–194 BC). Geographers study the spatial and the temporal distribution of phenomena, processes, and features as well as the interaction of humans and their environment. Because space and place affect a variety of topics, such as economics, health, climate, plants and animals; geography is highly interdisciplinary. <P> Full Definition of GEOGRAPHY. 1. : a science that deals with the description, distribution, and interaction of the diverse physical, biological, and cultural features of the earth's surface. 2. : the geographic features of an area. 3. : a treatise on geography. 4. Definition of GEOGRAPHY for Kids. 1. : a science that deals with the location of living and nonliving things on earth and the way they affect one another. 2. <P> The Missouri River's source is named by some USGS and other federal and state agency sources, following Lewis and Clark's naming convention, as the confluence of the Madison and Jefferson rivers, rather than the source of its longest tributary (the Jefferson). Sometimes the source of the most remote tributary may be in an area that is more marsh-like, in which the uppermost or most remote section of the marsh would be the true source. For example, the source of the River Tees is marshland. The furthest stream is also often called the headstream. <P> In this context, a controlled source is in the employment or under the control of the intelligence activity and knows that the information is to be used for intelligence purposes. 1. A person or thing from which something comes into being or is derived or obtained: alternative sources of energy; the source of funding for the project. <P> source. n. 1. A person or thing from which something comes into being or is derived or obtained: alternative sources of energy; the source of funding for the project. 2. The point of origin of a stream or river <P> The source or headwaters of a river or stream is the furthest place in that river or stream from its estuary or confluence with another river, as measured along the course of the river. Sometimes the source of the most remote tributary may be in an area that is more marsh-like, in which the uppermost or most remote section of the marsh would be the true source. For example, the source of the River Tees is marshland. The furthest stream is also often called the headstream. <P> This most common definition of a river source specifically uses the most distant point (along watercourses from the river mouth) in the drainage basin from which water runs year-around (perennially), or, alternatively, as the furthest point from which water could possibly flow (ephemerally). Sometimes the source of the most remote tributary may be in an area that is more marsh-like, in which the uppermost or most remote section of the marsh would be the true source. For example, the source of the River Tees is marshland. The furthest stream is also often called the headstream. <P> ITS Tutorial School is aiming to provide a content rich portal that will be of aid to both educators and students worldwide. All terms in this dictionary have been rewritten from a wide variety of sources with the emphasis being on precise definitions and explanations that students can use in their study. The resource has been developed in response to my own frustration at there not being any comprehensive Geography dictionaries or glossaries on the web that are free open-access. I believe that restricted/subscription access to dictionary web pages is wrong. <P> The United States Geological Survey (USGS) states that a river's length may be considered to be the distance from the mouth to the most distant headwater source (irrespective of stream name), or from the mouth to the headwaters of the stream commonly identified as the source stream. Sometimes the source of the most remote tributary may be in an area that is more marsh-like, in which the uppermost or most remote section of the marsh would be the true source. For example, the source of the River Tees is marshland. The furthest stream is also often called the headstream.
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It is a field study of the lands, the features, the inhabitants, and the phenomena of Earth.
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how long to cook whole chicken in convection oven
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<P> 1 Place the chicken in the oven and roast at 400°F for 20 minutes, then lower the temperature to 375°F and continue to roast for an additional 12 minutes per pound longer. 2 Considering my chicken was 5 lbs. <P> 7. Put the chicken in the convection oven and roast it at 400°F for about 20 minutes, then reduce the oven temperature to 375°F. Continue roasting for about 11 minutes per pound (chicken’s weight multiplied by 11). 8. Before removing the chicken from the oven check the internal temperature using a cooking thermometer. <P> In a convection oven with a whole chicken cut up, took about 45 minutes to reach 170 degrees temperature. ... Cooks.com-Recipes-Oven Baked Chicken Wings. Enter your email to signup for the Cooks.com Recipe Newsletter. ... Preheat oven to 375 degrees. <P> Roast Chicken Benefits. Whole chickens, especially larger chickens, can take several hours to cook, and a convection oven can significantly reduce the cooking time needed. In general, convection ovens reduce cooking times by as much as 20 to 30 percent if the cooking temperature remains the same. <P> Trusted Results with How to roast whole chicken convection oven. Cooks.com-Recipes-Oven Roasted Whole Garlic. This is the essential guide to cooking with chicken --enticing to look at and extremely ... 100 of 483 for oven roasted whole garlic. Result Page: Previous 4 ... <P> 1 Drizzle with the lemon juice. 2 Place the chicken in the oven and roast at 400°F for 20 minutes, then lower the temperature to 375°F and continue to roast for an additional 12 minutes per pound longer. <P> Roasting and Doneness. Preheat the convection oven to 425 degrees Fahrenheit. The high temperature will ensure fast cooking and crisp, browned skin. Convection roast an unstuffed chicken at this temperature for 10 minutes per pound.
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20 minutes
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dependent personality disorder examples
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<P> Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive psychological dependence on another person or people to meet emotional or physical needs. Persons with a dependent personality have low self-esteem and feel inadequate and helpless. <P> Dependent Personality Disorder (also known as DPD or asthenic personality disorder) is characterized by a long-standing need to be cared for-and fear of being abandoned by-important individuals. Symptoms of Dependent Personality Disorder: Symptoms are similar to those of other personality disorders and may include: 1 Unstable relationships. 2 Trouble making/keeping friends. 3 Unstable mood and/or angry outbursts. <P> People with DPD become emotionally dependent on other people and spend great effort trying to please others. People with DPD tend to display needy, passive, and clinging behavior, and have a fear of separation. Other common characteristics of this personality disorder include: 1 Inability to make decisions, even everyday decisions like what to wear, without the advice and reassurance of others. A diagnosis of DPD must be distinguished from borderline personality disorder, as the two share common symptoms. In borderline personality disorder, the person responds to fears of abandonment with feelings of rage and emptiness. <P> Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive fear that leads to “clinging behavior” and usually manifests itself by early adulthood. It includes a majority of the following symptoms: 1 Has difficulty making everyday decisions without an excessive amount of advice and reassurance from others. Like most personality disorders, dependent personality disorder typically will decrease in intensity with age, with many people experiencing few of the most extreme symptoms by the time they are in the 40s or 50s. <P> Dependent personality disorder is characterized by pervasive passive reliance on other people to make one's major and minor life decisions, great fear of abandonment, feelings of helplessness and incompetence, passive compliance with the wishes of elders and others, and a weak response to the demands of daily life. Like all personality disorders, Dependent Personality Disorder is a deeply ingrained and enduring behaviour pattern, manifesting as an inflexible response to a broad range of personal and social situations. <P> The difference between a 'dependent personality' and a 'dependent personality disorder' is somewhat subjective, which makes diagnosis sensitive to cultural influences such as gender role expectations. Includes: asthenic, inadequate, passive, and self-defeating personality (disorder). Dependent personality disorder (DPD), formerly known as asthenic personality disorder, is a personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive psychological dependence on other people. <P> Individuals with Dependent Personality Disorder are often characterized by pessimism and self-doubt, tend to belittle their abilities and assets, and may constantly refer to themselves as “stupid.” They take criticism and disapproval as proof of their worthlessness and lose faith in themselves. Like most personality disorders, dependent personality disorder typically will decrease in intensity with age, with many people experiencing few of the most extreme symptoms by the time they are in the 40s or 50s. <P> Personality disorders such as dependent personality disorder are typically diagnosed by a trained mental health professional, such as a psychologist or psychiatrist. Family physicians and general practitioners are generally not trained or well-equipped to make this type of psychological diagnosis. Like most personality disorders, dependent personality disorder typically will decrease in intensity with age, with many people experiencing few of the most extreme symptoms by the time they are in the 40s or 50s. <P> Dependent personality disorder (DPD) is an anxious personality disorder characterized by the inability to be alone. People with dependent personality disorder rely on other people for comfort, reassurance, advice, and support. Although people who don’t have the condition sometimes have these feelings, people with DPD cannot function unless they get reassurance from others. Signs of dependent personality disorder include: 1 submissive behavior. 2 relying on friends or family for decision making. 3 needing reassurance repeatedly. 4 being hurt easily by disapproval. 5 feeling isolated and nervous when alone. 6 fear of rejection. 7 sensitivity to criticism.
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1 submissive behavior. 2 relying on friends or family for decision making. 3 needing reassurance repeatedly. 4 being hurt easily by disapproval. 5 feeling isolated and nervous when alone. 6 fear of rejection. 7 sensitivity to criticism.
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what is javanese gamelan
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<P> The Balinese gamelan is superficially the same as the Javanese but, in fact, the ensembles are different and the music pronouncedly so. The Balinese gamelan underwent a revolution early in this century when a new form of playing and dancing called kebyar evolved. <P> Javanese gamelan is music indigenous to Java, an island of Indonesia. There are many other types of gamelan, such as Balinese gamelan and anklung gamelan from other cultures <P> Most of the instruments of a Javanese gamelan ensemble are metal percussion made of brass, iron, or bronze (bronze instruments generally have the best sound). A typical ensemble also has drums, wooden bar percussion instruments, plucked string instruments, bowed string instruments, and bamboo flutes. <P> Skip navigation. Javanese gamelan is music indigenous to Java, an island of Indonesia. There are many other types of gamelan, such as Balinese gamelan and anklung gamelan from other cultures of Indonesia. I have played Javanese gamelan for over four years in a course, Music 361, at the University of Wisconsin-Madison. <P> Gamelan. Gamelan is a traditional javanese musical ensemble that highlight metallophones, xylophone, drums and gongs. The term ‘Gamelan’ refers to the instrument or tool, which is a unified whole that is realized and sounded together. <P> Javanese gamelan does not stress virtuosic displays of musical talent. See pictures of the instruments. A set of gamelan is a whole entity, one cannot play instruments of different sets together (because of tuning variations) and one cannot simply play one instrument and get a sense of Javanese gamelan music. <P> Gamelan (/ˈɡaeməlaen/) ˈɡæməlæn is the traditional ensemble music Of java And bali In, indonesia made up predominantly of percussive. Instruments the most common instruments used are metallophones played by mallets and a set of-hand played drums called kendhang which register the. beat
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Gamelan is a traditional javanese musical ensemble that highlight metallophones, xylophone, drums and gongs.
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pre cook chicken before grilling
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<P> Step 5: The chicken has to be pre-cooked by pre-baking. The ideal temperature for baking it is 360 degrees in the oven until partially cooked. This will seal in flavors and will ensure that the chicken has been cooked before it goes to the grill. Others do boiling. <P> I never pre-cook my chicken ahead of time before putting them on the grill. I always put my chicken directly on the grill and then putting the barbecue sauce on the chicken for the last 7 to 10 minutes. My chicken always tastes nice and moist. Perfect flavor and nice and tender. I have had too many times of going to other people's cook outs and the BBQ chicken legs or thighs were dried out. I have been pre-cooking mine either in boiling water with garlic or in the oven at 300 degrees with the BBQ sauce on them. <P> Prepare the grill by preheating for fifteen minutes. Place the chicken pieces on the grill and cook for ten to fifteen minutes (depending on the size of the chicken cuts). Turn the pieces and cook further until you get the crispness you desire. <P> MDT. Summary. Pre-zapping grilled foods makes sense-precook chicken in the microwave before grilling and you accomplish two things: The chicken will be ready to eat in about half the time, and you can be reasonably sure that it will be cooked inside when it's browned (or burned) on the outside. <P> · just now. Report Abuse. My favorite way to quickly grill moist chicken is to par-boil for 15-20 minutes (depending on whether they are legs or breasts. . .) This can be done the night before, but they will cook quicker if you set them out 15 minutes before cooking, so they warm up slightly. Cook it completely, then use the grill to heat the chicken and give it that yummy char and smokey flavor on the outside. Nobody gets food poisoning. Many people poach/boil chicken before grilling it rather than baking it. Consider trying that technique. <P> (Visit lighting a charcoal grill!). 1 Wait till the grill is of a medium heat. 2 Smear a little oil or cooking and spray on the grill grid. 3 Place the chicken pieces on. 4 Keep flipping regularly to prevent them from burning. 5 Grill for a good 40 minutes, then smear over your favourite BBQ sauce. Oven pre-cooking is a tastier option but it's still not the best! Grilling Chicken - Without pre-cooking!. This involves putting raw chicken straight onto the grill, definately the tastier option but the most difficult to get right. Here are my tips and techniques so you won't go wrong. <P> A tastier option involves marinating your chicken, baking it in the oven and then grilling it. Place your chicken in the oven and pre-cook until golden brown, then place on the grill it to caramelize the outside. How to Grill Chicken pieces: Bake in the oven at 180 degrees for 45 minutes. Grill for 10 - 15 minutes on a medium heat grill. Whole chicken: Bake in the oven at 180 degrees for 90 minutes. Oven pre-cooking is a tastier option but it's still not the best! Grilling Chicken - Without pre-cooking!. This involves putting raw chicken straight onto the grill, definately the tastier option but the most difficult to get right. Here are my tips and techniques so you won't go wrong. <P> Cook your chicken on the grill on medium-low to medium heat for 5 to 10 minutes, flipping it at least once. To avoid scorching the skin, spray the grill with oil or cooking spray before you light it. Cook the chicken until it reaches an internal temperature of 165 F. <P> DH loves grilled chicken thighs. I usually marinate them, no pre-cooking. We grill with a charcoal grill and the thighs usually take about 35-40 minutes total, depending on the size. We put them over the hot coals to sear each side (about 5 minutes per side generally).
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Place your chicken in the oven and pre-cook until golden brown, then place on the grill it to caramelize the outside.How to Grill Chicken pieces: Bake in the oven at 180 degrees for 45 minutes.
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what is in a blood clot
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<P> Not to be confused with Embolism. A thrombus, or colloquially a blood clot, is the final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis. There are two components to a thrombus: aggregated platelets that form a platelet plug, and a mesh of cross-linked fibrin protein. <P> Blood Clots. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured. Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in your plasma (the liquid part of blood) work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury. An abnormal clot that forms in a vein may restrict the return of blood to the heart and can result in pain and swelling as the blood gathers behind the clot. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a major vein of the leg or, less commonly, in the arms, pelvis, or other large veins in the body. <P> Deep vein thrombosis (throm-BO-sis), or DVT, is a blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. Blood clots occur when blood thickens and clumps together. Most deep vein blood clots occur in the lower leg or thigh. They also can occur in other parts of the body. A blood clot in a deep vein can break off and travel through the bloodstream. The loose clot is called an embolus (EM-bo-lus). It can travel to an artery in the lungs and block blood flow. This condition is called pulmonary embolism (PULL-mun-ary EM-bo-lizm), or PE. PE is a very serious condition <P> Blood clot facts. 1 A blood clot is a mass formed by platelets and fibrin in the blood to stop bleeding. 2 There are a variety of risk factors and illness that can lead to blood clot formation. 3 Causes of blood clots may include: 4 certain heart conditions, 5 pregnancy, 6 prolonged immobility, 7 smoking, 8 certain medications, 9 surgery, and. 1 A blood clot is a mass formed by platelets and fibrin in the blood to stop bleeding. 2 There are a variety of risk factors and illness that can lead to blood clot formation. 3 Causes of blood clots may include: 4 certain heart conditions, 5 pregnancy, 6 prolonged immobility, <P> A blood clot that forms in an artery or an arterial thrombus is a very dangerous clot that can obstruct the flow of blood to major organs and cause complications such as stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA or mini-stroke), heart attack, or peripheral arterial disease. Blood clotting or coagulation is a normal but complex bodily process that is designed to prevent bleeding in response to an injury or cut. However, sometimes blood clots form in critical locations such as the heart, lung or brain and can cause serious complications if they are not treated in time. <P> However, a blood clot that forms inside a blood vessel (artery or vein) or in the heart is called a thrombus and is a serious medical condition. Blood clots can form in the superficial veins just below your skin, or they can form in the deeper, large veins (deep vein thrombosis). A blood clot that travels to the brain can cause a stroke. A blood clot that forms within the arteries of the heart can cause a heart attack. Your risk of developing blood clots can be minimized by making certain lifestyle changes and following your doctor’s treatment plan. <P> A blood clot, also known as a thrombus, is the result of several blood cells lumping together with fibrin. Blood clots, which form when blood cells stick together, can obstruct blood flow leading to a serious medical emergency. Going on long airplane flights may lead to blood clots. Blood clots are not a normal condition, but they occur when blood coagulates or hardens. They typically form after the body is injured to prevent excessive bleeding. Also called a thrombus, it is made when blood cells lump together with fibrin, a stretchy, thread-like protein.
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A blood clot is a mass formed by platelets and fibrin in the blood to stop bleeding.
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how can you tell when a customer is dishonest
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<P> 1 Credit card companies want customers to try to work out the dispute with you first. 2 If you can prove in writing that the goods did arrive, or you made every attempt to satisfy your customer’s problem, you have a better case. 3 If you serve the customer by telephone, type up an email message summarizing the conversation. 1 In case of a Trick #1 dispute, you can prove the goods were received. 2 You’ll also want to require returns be shipped in the same manner back to you should your customer desire a refund. 3 This way, you can prove to a credit card company that the goods never came back should customer pull Trick #2. <P> Before you start considering your options about how to deal with your coworker, it's important for you to understand your workplace's policies. Some companies have detailed instructions on how to handle problems in the work environment. You shouldn't ignore any behavior that could lead to bigger problems, but if it's just a matter of hearing one fish story after another, removing yourself from the conversation may be your best option. But if you can't ignore or avoid the dishonest coworker, you may have to decide upon a course of action. <P> “There are only two kinds of men in this world: Honest men and dishonest men. ...Any man who says the world owes him a living is dishonest. The same God that made you and me made this earth. And He planned it so that it would yield every single thing that the people on it need. But He was careful to plan it so that it would only yield up its wealth in exchange for the labor of man. <P> 1 Hang on to customer support tickets and email correspondence. 2 Credit card companies want customers to try to work out the dispute with you first. 3 If you can prove in writing that the goods did arrive, or you made every attempt to satisfy your customer’s problem, you have a better case. 1 In case of a Trick #1 dispute, you can prove the goods were received. 2 You’ll also want to require returns be shipped in the same manner back to you should your customer desire a refund. 3 This way, you can prove to a credit card company that the goods never came back should customer pull Trick #2. <P> Confront the employee. Tell him you know about the dishonest behavior and that you will not accept it. In minor cases of dishonesty, such as taking small amounts of office supplies home from work, confrontation alone may stop the behavior. Poor economic times can also lead employees to lie to get ahead, says O.C. Ferrell et al. in Ethical Business.. Dishonest behavior in the workplace can pose a serious threat to a company; you should not tolerate even minor transgressions. <P> 1 If you are not sure of the condition of your car and/or its market value, you may want to take it to a few dealerships. 2 Tell them that you are thinking of trading in your car and see what they offer you for it. 3 This amount may be a more accurate estimate of your car’s market value. Number 5: Financing Fraud – Lying about credit scores. Another common scam used by dishonest dealers is to trick customers into believing that you have bad credit. They may tell you that your credit score is too low and you don’t qualify for a low interest rate. <P> But they will give them a quote to find out why, usually somewhere between $400 to $600. They may or may not tell their customers that the transmission will be removed and disassembled to give them their quote. Once they have your car torn apart, they can charge you whatever they want. <P> Satisfied customer. First of all, it will help to satisfy the customer, so you will get repeat business or referrals. In fact, in some cases, effectively dealing with a customer complaint can lead to a more loyal customer than others who may not complain or have problems. Unfortunately, there are dishonest customers who will make false claims to get some bonus. Some people will use a product or piece of clothing and then return it, saying they weren't satisfied. High-end women's clothing stores often will have expensive gowns returned after some important event. <P> 1 If a customer pulls Trick #3 or #4, your return policy should state that you will happily provide refunds upon return of the merchandise. 2 Because shipping product as soon as possible is good customer service, you should remind customers upon order confirmation about your cancellation policies and time limits. 1 In case of a Trick #1 dispute, you can prove the goods were received. 2 You’ll also want to require returns be shipped in the same manner back to you should your customer desire a refund. 3 This way, you can prove to a credit card company that the goods never came back should customer pull Trick #2. <P> Dishonest customers. Unfortunately, there are dishonest customers who will make false claims to get some bonus. Some people will use a product or piece of clothing and then return it, saying they weren't satisfied. High-end women's clothing stores often will have expensive gowns returned after some important event.
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Who will make false claims to get some bonus.
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what is Peripheral system
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<P> The nervous system consists of two main parts: the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system: 1 The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of the nerve fibers that branch off from the spinal cord and extend to all parts of the body, including the neck and arms, torso, legs, skeletal muscles and internal organs. <P> There are two types of cells in the peripheral nervous system. These cells carry information to (sensory nervous cells) and from (motor nervous cells) the central nervous system (CNS). Motor nervous system cells carry information from the CNS to organs, muscles, and glands. The motor nervous system is divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscle as well as external sensory organs such as the skin. <P> Peripheral nervous system: The portion of the nervous system that is outside the brain and spinal cord. Abbreviated PNS. The nerves in the PNS connect the central nervous system (CNS) to sensory organs, such as the eye and ear, and to other organs of the body, muscles, blood vessels, and glands. The peripheral nerves include the 12 cranial nerves, the spinal nerves and roots, and the autonomic nerves <P> The peripheral nervous system is divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system; some textbooks also include sensory systems. The cranial nerves are part of the PNS with the exception of cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, along with the retina. The second cranial nerve is not a true peripheral nerve but a tract of the diencephalon. Cranial nerve ganglia originate in the CNS. However, the remaining twelve cranial nerve axons extend beyond the brain and are therefore considered part of the PNS. <P> The peripheral nervous system refers to parts of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord. It includes the cranial nerves, spinal nerves and their roots and branches, peripheral nerves, and neuromuscular junctions. In the peripheral nervous system, bundles of nerve fibers or axons conduct information to and from the central nervous system. The autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous system concerned with the innervation of involuntary structures, such as the heart, smooth muscle, and glands within the body. <P> The main function of the PNS is to connect the central nervous system (CNS) to the limbs and organs, essentially serving as a communication relay going back and forth between the brain and the extremities. The second cranial nerve is not a true peripheral nerve but a tract of the diencephalon. Cranial nerve ganglia originate in the CNS. However, the remaining twelve cranial nerve axons extend beyond the brain and are therefore considered part of the PNS. <P> The brain sends messages through the spinal cord and nerves of the peripheral nervous system to control the movement of the muscles and the function of internal organs. The basic working unit of the nervous system is a cell called a neuron. The human brain contains about 100 billion neurons. The peripheral nervous system is made up of the nerve fibers that branch off from the spinal cord and extend to all parts of the body, including the neck and arms, torso, legs, skeletal muscles and <P> 1 The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord. 2 The peripheral nervous system is made up of the nerve fibers that branch off from the spinal cord and extend to all parts of the body, including the neck and arms, torso, legs, skeletal muscles and internal organs. <P> “Peripheral nerve” is a term used synonymously to describe the peripheral nervous system. The peripheral nervous system is a network of 43 pairs of motor and sensory nerves that connect the brain and spinal cord (the central nervous system) to the entire human body. These nerves control the functions of sensation, movement and motor coordination <P> Some differences between the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the central nervous system (CNS): 1 In the CNS, collections of neurons are called nuclei. 2 In the PNS, collections of neurons are called ganglia. 3 In the CNS, collections of axons are called tracts. 4 In the PNS, collections of axons are called nerves.
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The portion of the nervous system that is outside the brain and spinal cord. Abbreviated PNS. The nerves in the PNS connect the central nervous system (CNS) to sensory organs, such as the eye and ear, and to other organs of the body, muscles, blood vessels, and glands.
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what group of muscles must relax during the patellar reflex
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<P> The stretch reflex is caused by a stretch in the muscle spindle. When the stretch impulse is received a rapid sequence of events follows. The motor neuron is activated and the stretched muscles, and its supporting muscles, are contracted while its antagonist muscles are inhibited. The stretch reflex is very important in posture. It helps maintain proper posturing because a slight lean to either side causes a stretch in the spinal, hip and leg muscles to the other side, which is quickly countered by the stretch reflex. This is a constant process of adjusting and maintaining. <P> Another example of the stretch reflex is the knee-jerk test performed by physicians. When the patellar tendon is tapped with a small hammer, or other device, it causes a slight stretch in the tendon, and consequently the quadriceps muscles. The result is a quick, although mild, contraction of the quadriceps muscles, resulting in a small kicking motion. The stretch reflex is very important in posture. It helps maintain proper posturing because a slight lean to either side causes a stretch in the spinal, hip and leg muscles to the other side, which is quickly countered by the stretch reflex. This is a constant process of adjusting and maintaining. <P> The stretch reflex (myotatic reflex) is a muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. It is a monosynaptic reflex which provides automatic regulation of skeletal muscle length. When a muscle lengthens, the muscle spindle is stretched and its nerve activity increases. A secondary set of neurons also causes the opposing muscle to relax. The reflex functions to maintain the muscle at a constant length. Gamma motoneurons regulate how sensitive the stretch reflex is by tightening or relaxing the fibers within the spindle. <P> Stretch reflexes are initiated by tapping a tendon, which stretches the muscle the tendon is attached to (the Quadriceps femoris muscle). This stimulates the muscle spindles and causes reflex contraction of the stretched muscle or muscles, which resists further stretching. <P> Deep Tendon Reflexes. Check the deep tendon reflexes using impulses from a reflex hammer to stretch the muscle and tendon. The limbs should be in a relaxed and symmetric position, since these factors can influence reflex amplitude. <P> Striking the patellar ligament with a reflex hammer just below the patella stretches the muscle spindle in the quadriceps muscle. This produces a signal which travels back to the spinal cord and synapses (without interneurons) at the level of L4 in the spinal cord, completely independent of higher centres. The patellar reflex is a clinical and classic example of the monosynaptic reflex arc. There is no interneuron in the pathway leading to contraction of the quadriceps muscle. Instead the bipolar sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron in the spinal cord. <P> Thus, when a muscle spindle is stretched and the stretch reflex is activated, the opposing muscle group must be inhibited to prevent it from working against the resulting contraction of the homonymous muscle (Figure 2.2). This inhibition is accomplished by an inhibitory interneuron in the spinal cord. Just as in the stretch reflex, the autogenic inhibition reflex must coordinate the activity of the extensor and flexor muscle groups (Figure 2.4). The Ib afferent fiber bifurcates <P> The patellar reflex or knee-jerk is a deep tendon reflex and is a myotatic reflex. The patellar reflex is a clinical and classic example of the monosynaptic reflex arc. There is no interneuron in the pathway leading to contraction of the quadriceps muscle. Instead the bipolar sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron in the spinal cord. <P> When the physician taps the patellar tendon with a hammer, this action causes the knee extensor muscle to stretch abruptly. This stretch activates the myotatic reflex, causing an extension of the lower leg. (Because the physician taps the tendon, this reflex is also referred to as the deep tendon reflex. Just as in the stretch reflex, the autogenic inhibition reflex must coordinate the activity of the extensor and flexor muscle groups (Figure 2.4). The Ib afferent fiber bifurcates in the spinal cord.
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Quadriceps muscle.
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what is tma in aki
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<P> P-TMA is considered a secondary form of TMA. It accounts for 8%–18% of all cases of TMA (24, 26, 40, 41). In the French aHUS registry, one of five women presented with aHUS at the time of pregnancy (24). Other causes include postabortum (first trimester) or puerperal sepsis, ante-or postpartum hemorrhage, intrauterine death, acute fatty liver, and thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA). The main causes of P-AKI are shown in Figure 1 according to their predominant timing of occurrence during pregnancy. <P> Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (or haemolytic-uraemic syndrome), abbreviated HUS, is a disease characterized by hemolytic anemia (anemia caused by destruction of red blood cells), acute kidney failure (uremia), and a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia). It predominantly, but not exclusively, affects children. HUS develops about 5–10 days after onset of diarrhea, with decreased urine output (oliguria), blood in the urine (hematuria), kidney failure, thrombocytopenia (low levels of platelets) and destruction of red blood cells (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia). Hypertension is common. <P> Bacterial toxins are the primary cause of one category of thrombotic microangiopathy known as HUS or hemolytic uremic syndrome. HUS can be divided into two main categories: Shiga-toxin-associated HUS (STx-HUS), which normally presents with diarrhea, and atypical HUS. Generally, renal complications are particularly predominant with Shiga-toxin-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome (STx-HUS) and atypical HUS, whereas neurologic complications are more likely with TTP. Individuals with milder forms of TTP may have recurrent symptomatic episodes, including seizures and vision loss. <P> NS: CNI-TMA is an idiosyncratic reaction that can cause both AKI and CKD, and occurs any time post transplantation. TA-TMA happens typically six months to one year after patient receive a HSCT. While CNI-TMA is an idiosyncratic reaction, TA-TMA is the result of many other factors. Lactate dehydrogenase levels are in much higher range in TA-TMA compared to CNI-TMA. <P> In all, the incidence of P-AKI has probably decreased, but its fetal and maternal morbidity remain unacceptably high, even in developed countries. Pregnancy hypertensive complications, notably HELLP syndrome, are the leading cause of P-AKI. P-TMA is a clinically challenging cause of P-AKI. Other causes include postabortum (first trimester) or puerperal sepsis, ante-or postpartum hemorrhage, intrauterine death, acute fatty liver, and thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA). The main causes of P-AKI are shown in Figure 1 according to their predominant timing of occurrence during pregnancy. <P> Other conditions with TMA include atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome, disseminated intravascular coagulation, scleroderma renal crisis, malignant hypertension, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, and drug toxicities, e.g. calcineurin inhibitor toxicity. Generally, renal complications are particularly predominant with Shiga-toxin-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome (STx-HUS) and atypical HUS, whereas neurologic complications are more likely with TTP. Individuals with milder forms of TTP may have recurrent symptomatic episodes, including seizures and vision loss. <P> The findings in this study suggests TMA as a plausible causative pathology of AKI in hump-nosed viper envenoming, probably due to continuous glomerular ischaemia secondary to thrombosis in the microvasculature leading to patchy cortical necrosis with delayed or partial recovery of renal functions. So far, there is no clear understanding of the mechanism of acute kidney injury in hump-nosed viper bite and a few studies have shown extensive damage to renal glomeruli (Ariaratnam et al., 2008; Kularatne and Ratnatunga, 1999). <P> Thrombotic microangiopathy, abbreviated TMA, is a pathology that results in thrombosis in capillaries and arterioles, due to an endothelial injury. It may be seen in association with thrombocytopenia, anemia, purpura and renal failure. Generally, renal complications are particularly predominant with Shiga-toxin-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome (STx-HUS) and atypical HUS, whereas neurologic complications are more likely with TTP. Individuals with milder forms of TTP may have recurrent symptomatic episodes, including seizures and vision loss. <P> Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) exposes the kidney to a multitude of injuries, including acute kidney injury (AKI), hypertension, glomerular disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). A common pathology noted in most of these patients is a renal-limited thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA). TA-TMA happens typically six months to one year after patient receive a HSCT. While CNI-TMA is an idiosyncratic reaction, TA-TMA is the result of many other factors. Lactate dehydrogenase levels are in much higher range in TA-TMA compared to CNI-TMA. <P> However, the incidence of P-AKI is declining even in developing countries (5, 6). In a recent survey of P-AKI in an Indian nephrology center, the prevalence of P-AKI among all cases of AKI decreased from 15% in the 1980s to 10% in the 1990s. Other causes include postabortum (first trimester) or puerperal sepsis, ante-or postpartum hemorrhage, intrauterine death, acute fatty liver, and thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA). The main causes of P-AKI are shown in Figure 1 according to their predominant timing of occurrence during pregnancy.
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It happens typically six months to one year after patient receive a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT).
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