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what is a stamen
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<P> A stamen is part of the reproductive system of a flower. Stamens are usually referred to as the male parts of the flower, because they generate pollen which is used to fertilize the pistils, commonly known as the female parts, of other flowers. The stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower's reproduction system. There is sometimes nectar at the base of the stamen to act as an incentive for pollinators like bees. Stamens generate the pollen that fertilizes the female parts of flowers and causes allergic reactions in human <P> stamen-the male reproductive organ of a flower. blossom, flower, bloom-reproductive organ of angiosperm plants especially one having showy or colorful parts. anther-the part of the stamen that contains pollen; usually borne on a stalk. the pollen-bearing organ of a flower, consisting of the filament and the anther. stāmen warp, thread, stamen = stā(re) to stand + -men n. suffix]. sta′mened, adj. <P> The stamen is the male reproductive organ of a flower. The organ includes the anther and the filament. Its function is to produce haploid (n) male gametes, these a … re then encapsulated into a pollen granule. Confidence votes 117. The 'stamen' is the male part of a flower and consists of a 'filament' and 'anther' where 'pollen' is produced. The 'pistil' is the female part, which consists of the 'stigma', 'style', and 'ovary' containing 'ovules'. After fertilization the ovules mature into seeds. <P> Answer by Maxyman3000. Confidence votes 117. The 'stamen' is the male part of a flower and consists of a 'filament' and 'anther' where 'pollen' is produced. The 'pistil' is the female part, which consists of the 'stigma', 'style', and 'ovary' containing 'ovules'. After fertilization the ovules mature into seeds. <P> Morphology and terminology [edit]. A stamen typically consists of a stalk called the filament and an anther which contains microsporangia. Most commonly anthers are two-lobed and are attached to the filament either at the base or in the middle portion. The sterile tissue between the lobes is called the connective. The stamen (plural stamina or stamens) is the pollen-producing reproductive organ of a flower. <P> A stamen typically consists of a stalk called the filament and an anther which contains microsporangia. Most commonly anthers are two-lobed and are attached to the filament either at the base or in the middle portion. The stamen (plural stamina or stamens) is the pollen-producing reproductive organ of a flower. <P> stamen. n, pl stamens or stamina (ˈstaemɪnə). ˈstæmɪnə. (1) botany the male reproductive organ of a, flower consisting of a (stalk) filament bearing an anther in which pollen is. [Produced: c17 From: latin the warp in an upright, loom from stāre to]. stand the pollen-bearing organ of a flower, consisting of the filament and the anther. stāmen warp, thread, stamen = stā(re) to stand + -men n. suffix]. sta′mened, adj. <P> stamen. One of the male organs of a flower, consisting typically of a stalk (filament) and a pollen-bearing portion (anther). The male reproductive organ of a flower.The male organ of angiosperm flowers where pollen grains are produced in the anther component of the stamen. These pollen grains are produced by meiosis and provide the building blocks required for reproduction of an angiosperm species
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It is one of the male organs of a flower, consisting typically of a stalk (filament) and a pollen-bearing portion (anther).
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which direction does air flow within a cyclone?
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<P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. The air flow in a cyclone spins in the same direction as the Earth. This is anti-clockwise to the Northern Hemisphere, and clockwise to the Southern Hemisphere. When the air is expelled, it flows from the air sacs back through the lungs on its way out of the body. So the flow of air is still tidal, as in humans, but the air does not stop and turn around in the lungs. <P> Anticyclone refers to a system rotating on the reverse direction so: anti-clockwise direction in the southern hemsiphere and clockwise in the northern hemisphere. Consisting with the term, is simply the flowing of the air. Air flow is usually described as a man controlled concept, not as much as a weather term (it can however), like the … flow of the air in the vehicle's AC, or inside the air duct of the building for example. 1 person found this useful. <P> Air sinks. c. Air flows laterally. d. Air does not move in a cyclone. The air at the center of a cyclone rises. A cyclone is a storm system characterized by a low pressure center and numerous thunderstorms that produce strong winds and flooding rain. A cyclone feeds on heat released when moist air rises, resulting in condensation of water vapor contained in the moist air.en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anticyclone. Question. <P> In a cyclone the central air pressure is lower than that of the surrounding environment, and the flow of circulation is clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. Cyclones are also characterized by low-level convergence and ascending air within the system. In the science of meteorology, however, the term has a different meaning. For meteorologists, a cyclone and its counterpart, an anticyclone is a large-scale system of air circulation in the atmosphere in the zones between the equator and either of the poles. <P> An anticyclone (that is, opposite to a cyclone) is a weather phenomenon defined by the United States National Weather Service 's glossary as a large-scale circulation of winds around a central region of high atmospheric pressure, clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. <P> An anticyclone system has characteristics opposite to that of a cyclone. That is, an anticyclone's central air pressure is higher than that of its surroundings, and the airflow is counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. Anticyclones are usually characterized by low-level divergence and subsiding air. Semipermanent Systems. In the science of meteorology, however, the term has a different meaning. For meteorologists, a cyclone and its counterpart, an anticyclone is a large-scale system of air circulation in the atmosphere in the zones between the equator and either of the poles.
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The air flow in a cyclone spins in the same direction as the Earth.
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lean manufacturing definition of waste
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<P> Lean manufacturing includes a set of principles that lean thinkers use to achieve improvements in productivity, quality, and lead-time by eliminating waste through kaizen. Kaizen is a Japanese word that essentially means change for the better or good change.. <P> Essentially, lean is centered on making obvious what adds value by reducing everything else. Lean manufacturing is a management philosophy derived mostly from the Toyota Production System (TPS) (hence the term Toyotism is also prevalent) and identified as lean only in the 1990s. Toyota's view is that the main method of lean is not the tools, but the reduction of three types of waste: muda (non-value-adding work), muri (overburden), and mura (unevenness), to expose problems systematically and to use the tools where the ideal cannot be achieved. <P> At the heart of lean is the determination of value. Value is defined as an item or feature for which a customer is willing to pay. All other aspects of the manufacturing process are deemed waste. Lean manufacturing is used as a tool to focus resources and energies on producing the value-added features while identifying and eliminating non value added activities. We have one simple goal. <P> Muda (無駄) is a Japanese word meaning futility; uselessness; idleness; superfluity; waste; wastage; wastefulness, and is a key concept in the Toyota Production System (TPS) as one of the three types of deviation from optimal allocation of resources (muda, mura, muri). Muda has been given much greater attention as waste than the other two which means that whilst many Lean practitioners have learned to see muda they fail to see in the same prominence the variation of mura (unevenness) and muri (overburden). <P> Intro-To-Lean Intro-To-Lean Muda (Waste) Taiichi Ohno (1912-1990), the Toyota executive who was the most ferocious foe of waste human history has produced, identified the first seven types of muda in manufacturing system: Storage Transportation Waiting Motion Process Defects Over-production Muda is everywhere. <P> Definition. Doing more with less by employing 'lean thinking.' Lean manufacturing involves never ending efforts to eliminate or reduce ' muda ' (Japanese for waste or any activity that consumes resources without adding value) in design, manufacturing, distribution, and customer service processes. <P> Lean Principles © 2003 Utah Manufacturing Extension Partnership Page 2 of 5 implementing Lean Principles in manufacturing organizations is the elimination or postponement of plans for expansion of warehouse space. • Defects – Production defects and service errors waste resources in four ways. <P> Lean manufacturing or lean production, often simply lean , is a systematic method for the elimination of waste ( Muda ) within a manufacturing system. Toyota's view is that the main method of lean is not the tools, but the reduction of three types of waste: muda (non-value-adding work), muri (overburden), and mura (unevenness), to expose problems systematically and to use the tools where the ideal cannot be achieved. <P> The seven wastes originated in Japan, where waste is known as “muda.. The seven wastes is a tool to further categorize “muda” and was originally developed by Toyota’s Chief Engineer Taiichi Ohno as the core of the Toyota Production System, also known as Lean Manufacturing. <P> The core idea is to maximize customer value while minimizing waste. Simply, lean means creating more value for customers with fewer resources. A lean organization understands customer value and focuses its key processes to continuously increase it. The ultimate goal is to provide perfect value to the customer through a perfect value creation process that has zero waste.
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Often simply lean , is a systematic method for the elimination of waste ( Muda ) within a manufacturing system.oyota's view is that the main method of lean is not the tools, but the reduction of three types of waste: muda (non-value-adding work), muri (overburden), and mura (unevenness), to expose problems systematically and to use the tools where the ideal cannot be achieved.
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clonazepam dosage for sleep
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<P> Your dose of clonazepam will depend on the condition you have and your response to the drug. Your doctor will start you at a low dose and increase your dose until you have a good response. This may take a few weeks. Clonazepam comes in tablets of 0.5, 1, and 2 milligrams (mg). A child’s dose to treat seizures depends on weight. A typical adult dose to treat panic disorder may start at 0.25 mg twice a day. After three days, your doctor may increase the dose to 1 mg a day. You’ll most likely take clonazepam one to three times a day at about the same time. <P> For determining clonazepam dosage for sleep, you would have to visit your doctor for proper diagnosis. Basically, clonazepam belongs to a class of medicines that assist in controlling the chemical function of the brain. <P> The recommended starting clonazepam dose for treating seizures in adults is clonazepam 0.5 mg (or less) three times daily. Your healthcare provider may slowly increase your dose as necessary to control your seizures, up to a maximum of clonazepam 20 mg total per day (split up into three smaller doses per day). Clonazepam Dosing for Panic Disorder. The recommended starting clonazepam dose for treating panic disorder is clonazepam 0.25 mg twice daily. Your healthcare provider may increase your dose if necessary to control your panic disorder symptoms. <P> Panic Disorder. Adults: The initial dose for adults with panic disorder is 0.25 mg bid. An increase to the target dose for most patients of 1 mg/day may be made after 3 days. The recommended dose of 1 mg/day is based on the results from a fixed dose study in which the optimal effect was seen at 1 mg/day. <P> Klonopin Use. Benzodiazepines are typically prescribed for anxiety disorders, with clonazepam (klonopin) usually used as part of the treatment for seizures related to epilepsy. It is used for sleep disturbances because it does cause drowsiness and people have found it to be beneficial for sleep disorders. Klonopin is effective usually within 30-60 minutes after taking the medication. It has a half life of 30-40 hours, longer than many other benzodiazepines. For this reason the effect of the drug may be felt one or two days after taking the medication. <P> While the initial clonazepam dosage is same for both, the clonazepam dosage for anxiety is a bit stronger. This is because the clonazepam dosage for sleep is taken once before bedtime only, while the clonazepam dosage for anxiety is taken twice a day, both of 0.25 mg. Tags: clonazepam dosage, Clonazepam Dosage for Anxiety, clonazepam dosage for sleep, clonazepam dosages, clonazepam dose, Determining Clonazepam Dosage for Sleep, Right Clonazepam Dosage for Sleep, Sleep Related Clonazepam Side Effects. <P> It has been observed that the right clonazepam dosage for sleep is usually the smallest one. It has been estimated that the clonazepam dosage for sleep should be somewhere about 0.25 mg, usually given at the bedtime. The right clonazepam dosage would assist in calming down the brain and leading to proper sleep and rest. You would find that the clonazepam dosage for sleep is somewhat similar to the clonazepam dosage for anxiety. Like clonazepam dosage for sleep, the initial clonazepam dosage for anxiety is 0.25 mg. Tags: clonazepam dosage, Clonazepam Dosage for Anxiety, clonazepam dosage for sleep, clonazepam dosages, clonazepam dose, Determining Clonazepam Dosage for Sleep, Right Clonazepam Dosage for Sleep, Sleep Related Clonazepam Side Effects.
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0.25 mg
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kraftmaid cost per linear foot
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<P> Widely available custom options for cabinets have made linear foot pricing obsolete. Some cabinet prices are advertised as per linear foot while others give an estimate for a 10-by-10-foot kitchen, and others are priced by the individual component. It can be difficult to compare these prices against each other, but understanding what a linear foot means can help. Some large retailers still price prebuilt cabinets by the linear foot, but most cabinets are now priced either by the square foot or by individual components due to the wide range of custom options now widely available. <P> I have a question. Why, when I look at the cabinets at HD/Lowes in the Kraftmaid/Diamond/Thomasville lines do they have pricing on the back of the doors that says between $160.00 and $200.00 per linear ft. for styles I like. The 42 cabinets add extra. The staggared height and depth cabinets add a LOT extra. Light rail alone can cost 1K in even some moderate cabinet lines. The cutlery drawer probably adds about $300. THe trash pullout <P> Average cost is $150-$900 per linear foot. Custom. With the most options available, custom cabinetry is designed, built, and installed to fit your space. A professional kitchen designer will help establish an efficient layout. Exotic woods, ornate details, and period styles will add cost and delivery time but result in a one-of-a-kind kitchen. Average cost is $500-$1,400 per linear foot. Your dealer might not have every unit in stock, but special orders take as little as a week. Stock cabinetry ranges from 6 to 42 inches wide, in 3-inch increments. Average cost is $75-$ <P> I just got the final layout for my cabinets, and it's fantastic. The final cost estimate--not so much. I calculated that I am being proposed nearly $500 a linear foot (yes, that's calculating uppers and lowers separately) for semi-custom cabinets. Anyway, he said they normally charge $1000/linear ft for cabs to the ceiling (which I am doing in the kitchen -10' ceilings) and $800 ft otherwise for uppers/lowers. Still seems way high to me. <P> Now I have a custom cabinet price from the same place. They make their own-and frankly-I don't care for them as much, but because of the savings-that's the way I am going to go. The same kitchen comes to $860. Per LF (or $37000.00). Anyway, he said they normally charge $1000/linear ft for cabs to the ceiling (which I am doing in the kitchen -10' ceilings) and $800 ft otherwise for uppers/lowers. Still seems way high to me. <P> According to Kennedy, most cabinets range from $500 to $1,500 per cabinet box. Based on an estimated 30 cabinets in an average-size kitchen, you can be looking at a cost of about $15,000-$45,000, she says. Discover everything you need to know about cabinets with our free guide! Your dealer might not have every unit in stock, but special orders take as little as a week. Stock cabinetry ranges from 6 to 42 inches wide, in 3-inch increments. Average cost is $75-$400 per linear foot. <P> Cabinets are not bought by linear square foot despite popular opinion. They are bought more or less per box.. So a 36 basic double drawer would be less than a 4 drawer 36 unit. The door panel, finish, moldings, quality of box construction, type of hinge etc drastically change the price. <P> Pricing wise, they're listed in order—stock cabinets are cheapest, at around $60 to $200 per linear foot, semi-custom cabinets will run you around $100 to $650 per linear foot, and custom cabinets usually cost between $500 and $1,200 per linear foot. More: Kitchen Remodeling Ideas, Options and Solutions. <P> Linear Feet. An older method of pricing cabinets is by the linear foot. You can calculate the linear feet of your cabinets by measuring their length. Measure each section of cabinetry from wall to wall, and be sure to include both the upper and lower cabinets. Some large retailers still price prebuilt cabinets by the linear foot, but most cabinets are now priced either by the square foot or by individual components due to the wide range of custom options now widely available. <P> However, most homeowners spend in the $10,000 to $15,000 range for the cabinets and installation. Looked at another way, KraftMaid cabinets are generally priced between $100 and $200 per liner square foot, with some high-end products reaching $300 per linear square foot. Popular upgrades that will add to the total purchase price include glass doors, molding and accents, lighting and built-in storage. KraftMaid Cabinet Average Costs. The kitchen is the most expensive room in the home to remodel. But a quality kitchen update adds significant value to your home. Cabinets alone make up nearly half of the cost of most kitchen remodels.
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$100 to $200
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how much does it cost to build a pond in your backyard
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<P> Ponds come in a variety of shapes, looks, and styles, depending on your budget, space, and preferences. Landscapers can charge anywhere from $3,000 for a small, simple pond, to $10,000–$30,000 for a larger more complex pond. <P> If you opt for the do-it-yourself version, pond kits can range between $450 for a 6 foot x 6 foot pond, and $6,000 for a 34 foot x 34 foot pond. This price includes the bare materials but not the maintenance, which can be quite costly if you’re inexperienced. <P> 1 Taking the figures mentioned above, a pond such as this could cost $32,000 to $64,000 to accomplish. 2 A half of an acre could be half of the costs mentioned above. 3 Overall, in order to safely plan your budget, most will say plan on $8,000 to $15,000 per acre for the entire job. <P> To move or excavate dirt to build or dig a pond, you can expect to pay roughly $2.50 per cubic yard of material dug out of the pond. Figure $1.50 - 3.50 per yard of material depending on the difficulty of excavation and costs specific to local market conditions. <P> 1 According to Aquahabitat.com, a one acre pond that is 10 feet deep will be around 16,133 cubic yards. 2 Taking the figures mentioned above, a pond such as this could cost $32,000 to $64,000 to accomplish. 3 A half of an acre could be half of the costs mentioned above. <P> Pond Cost. The cost to build a backyard pond can vary greatly. The size, style, materials and equipment you select will all impact the final price of your pond. You can expect to pay between $5,000 and $20,000 for a custom pond. <P> A. Garden ponds can be very expensive, but they need not be. A 1000-gallon (3800-liter) garden pond with fish, plants and a waterfall (and not requiring a biological filter) can cost as little as $300 or as much as $5000. It all depends on what you want and how much of it you are willing to do yourself.
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Between $5,000 and $20,000
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what is tribulus terrestris extract
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<P> The experts concluded the herb does not produce large gains in strength or lean muscle mass. Where it comes from: Tribulus terrestris is a flowering plant native to the warm temperate and tropical regions of Europe, southern Asia, Africa and Australia. 1 Tribulus terrestris is often marketed with the claim that it will produce large gains in strength and lean muscle mass in just five to 28 days. 2 Australian researchers investigated that claim and studied 22 male elite rugby league players—some were given tribulus terrestris and others were given placebos. <P> Look for a Tribulus terrestris extract that's standardized to no less than 6% protodioscin and between 40% and 45% total saponins. Again, ideally, the plant from which the supplement is derived will be sourced from Turkey, Macedonia or Bulgaria. <P> 40 Tablets. M1445. $47.50. Tribulus contains an extract of Tribulus terrestris herb (aerial parts-leaves and stems) and contains steroidal saponins, mainly furostanol glycosides (including protodioscin and protogracillin) and small quantities of spirostanol glycosides, sterols and other compounds. <P> Tribulus Terrestris supplement extract, benefit, side effects, testosterone, research studies-Review of supplement dosage, frequency of use, and combining it with other aphrodisiac herbs that enhances sexuality in men and women, by Ray Sahelian, M.D. May 5 2015. Buy Tribulus Terrestris supplement extract, 400 mg per each pill This tropical vine is common in sandy soils throughout India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and other parts of the world. It can be used by both men and women. <P> Tribulus is a plant that produces fruit covered with spines. Rumor has it that tribulus is also known as puncture vine because the spines are so sharp they can flatten bicycle tires. People use the fruit, leaf, and root as medicine for wide-ranging complaints. <P> Benefits of Tribulus Extract. Tribulus extract is a legal and respected dietary supplement. Tribulus extract, also known as Puncture Vine, is a flowering plant that may promote health and enhance the overall functionality of your body. Although Tribulus extract has long been used in Asia and Eastern Europe as a medicine, it is now primarily taken worldwide as a dietary supplement. Iron Magazine reported Tribulus extract provides benefits similar to synthetic anabolic hormones or steroids. When you consume Tribulus extract, your body releases luteinizing hormones. When this occurs, your testicles naturally generate additional testosterone. <P> 1 Developing research suggests a tribulus extract taken by mouth might reduce symptoms of angina. 2 Eczema (atopic dermatitis). 3 Tribulus taken by mouth in combination with 9 other herbs (Zemaphyte) might reduce redness and skin outbreaks in adults and children with a certain type of eczema called nonexudative atopic eczema. Rumor has it that tribulus is also known as puncture vine because the spines are so sharp they can flatten bicycle tires. People use the fruit, leaf, and root as medicine for wide-ranging complaints. <P> by Lisa Freedman. Where it comes from: Tribulus terrestris is a flowering plant native to the warm temperate and tropical regions of Europe, southern Asia, Africa and Australia. 1 Tribulus terrestris is often marketed with the claim that it will produce large gains in strength and lean muscle mass in just five to 28 days. 2 Australian researchers investigated that claim and studied 22 male elite rugby league players—some were given tribulus terrestris and others were given placebos. <P> Tribulus terrestris is an annual plant in the Caltrop Family (Zygophyllaceae) widely distributed around the world, that is adapted to grow in dry climate locations in which few other plants can survive. It is an invasive species in North America. One study found that administration of Tribulus terrestris extract can produce statistically significant increases in levels of testosterone, dihydrotestosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone, and produces effects suggestive of aphrodisiac activity.
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It can produce statistically significant increases in levels of testosterone, dihydrotestosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone, and produces effects suggestive of aphrodisiac activity.
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what is behaviorist approach
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<P> In assuming that human behavior is learned, behaviorists also hold that all behaviors can also be unlearned, and replaced by new behaviors; that is, when a behavior becomes unacceptable, it can be replaced by an acceptable one. A key element to this theory of learning is the rewarded response. <P> Watson (1913) stated that “psychology as a behaviorist views it is a purely objective experimental branch of natural science. Its theoretical goal is … prediction and control” (p. 158). * Behaviorism is primarily concerned with observable behavior, as opposed to internal events like thinking and emotion. <P> Definition of BEHAVIORISM. : a school of psychology that takes the objective evidence of behavior (as measured responses to stimuli) as the only concern of its research and the only basis of its theory without reference to conscious experience — compare introspectionism. — be·hav·ior·is·tic \-ˌhā-vyə-ˈris-tik\ adjective. <P> Behaviorism is primarily concerned with observable and measurable aspects of human behavior. In defining behavior, behaviorist learning theories emphasize changes in behavior that result from stimulus-response associations made by the learner. <P> Home › Perspectives › Behaviorism. Behaviorism (also called the behaviorist approach) was the primary paradigm in psychology between 1920 to 1950 and is based on a number of underlying assumptions regarding methodology and behavioral analysis: * Psychology should be seen as a science. <P> The Behavioral Approach. Human behavior is learned, thus all behavior can be unlearned and newbehaviors learned in its place. Behaviorism is concerned primarily with theobservable and measurable aspects of human behavior. Therefore when behaviorsbecome unacceptable, they can be unlearned. <P> Behaviorism. Behaviorism is a worldview that assumes a learner is essentially passive, responding to environmental stimuli. The learner starts off as a clean slate (i.e. tabula rasa) and behavior is shaped through positive reinforcement or negative reinforcement.
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The primary paradigm in psychology between 1920 to 1950.
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recessive allele definition
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<P> allele, allelomorph - (genetics) either of a pair (or series) of alternative forms of a gene that can occupy the same locus on a particular chromosome and that control the same character; some alleles are dominant over others. <P> A recessive Allele results in expression of the recessive characteristic if there is no dominant allele present. Trait in organism wont appear in the presence of a dominant allele. Please contribute to this project, if you have more information about this term feel free to edit this page. This page was last modified on 11 October 2006, at 03:25.This page has been accessed 66,239 times. <P> Remember, individuals must have two alleles for a gene, so someone could be homozygous dominant (EE), homozygous recessive (ee), or heterozygous (Ee). In this example, the recessive trait is having attached earlobes and is only seen in someone with the genotype ee (homozygous recessive). The unit of heredity of all organisms is called a gene, and it can have many different versions called alleles. Normally, individuals have two alleles for one gene. A dominant allele is usually designated by an uppercase letter and masks the effects of another allele, the recessive allele. <P> A recessive trait is the phenotype that is seen only when a homozygous recessive genotype for the trait of interest is present. This means that an individual must have two recessive alleles for the gene that determines this trait of interest. The unit of heredity of all organisms is called a gene, and it can have many different versions called alleles. Normally, individuals have two alleles for one gene. A dominant allele is usually designated by an uppercase letter and masks the effects of another allele, the recessive allele. <P> recessive. allele, allelomorph - (genetics) either of a pair (or series) of alternative forms of a gene that can occupy the same locus on a particular chromosome and that control the same character; some alleles are dominant over others. <P> You will recall that genes have different forms called alleles. An allele can be recessive or dominant. A recessive allele only shows if the individual has two copies of the recessive allele. For example, the allele for blue eyes is recessive. You need two copies of the allele to have blue eyes. A dominant allele always shows, even if the individual only has one copy of the allele. For example, the allele for brown eyes is dominant <P> When the alleles of a pair are heterozygous, one may be dominant and the other recessive. The dominant allele is expressed and the recessive allele is masked. This is an example of complete dominance. In heterozygous relationships where neither allele is dominant but both are completely expressed, the alleles are considered to be co-dominant. Co-dominance is exemplified in AB blood type inheritance. Definition: An allele is an alternative form of a gene (one member of a pair) that is located at a specific position on a specific chromosome. These DNA codings determine distinct traits that can be passed on from parents to offspring through sexual reproduction. <P> Another way to define a recessive trait is one that is never expressed by the heterozygous genotype. For example, the heterozygous genotype for earlobe type (Ee) produces detached earlobes because the dominant allele (E) hides the effects of the recessive allele (e). The unit of heredity of all organisms is called a gene, and it can have many different versions called alleles. Normally, individuals have two alleles for one gene. A dominant allele is usually designated by an uppercase letter and masks the effects of another allele, the recessive allele. <P> recessive allele, the member of a pair of alleles that lacks the ability to express itself in the presence of a dominant allele at the same locus. It is expressed only in the homozygous state. Compare dominant allele. See also autosomal-recessive inheritance. <P> (general) Going back; receding. (genetics) Of, or pertaining to, a gene (or allele) whose phenotypic expression is masked by a dominant gene (or allele). noun. (1) A recessive allele or trait. (2) An organism whose recessive trait is discernible or expressed. Supplement. In genetics, a recessive gene or allele is one in which the effect is not tangible, or is masked by the effects of the dominant gene. The recessive trait may be expressed when the recessive genes are in homozygous condition or when the dominant gene is not present.
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The member of a pair of alleles that lacks the ability to express itself in the presence of a dominant allele at the same locus.
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how is ascites diagnosed
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<P> Ascites (/əˈsaɪtiːz/ ə-SY-teez, from Greek askites, baglike) is a gastroenterological term for an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The medical condition is also known as peritoneal cavity fluid, peritoneal fluid excess, hydroperitoneum or more archaically as abdominal dropsy. Mild ascites is hard to notice, but severe ascites leads to abdominal distension. Patients with ascites generally will complain of progressive abdominal heaviness and pressure as well as shortness of breath due to mechanical impingement on the diaphragm. <P> Ascites refers to fluid that accumulates within the peritoneal cavity. Although ascites is most commonly observed in patients with cirrhosis and resulting portal hypertension (approximately 85% of cases), 7% to 10% of patients with ascites develop secondary to a malignancy. 1. Malignant ascites can develop through several mechanisms: blocked lymphatic channels as a result of malignancy, direct production of fluid into the peritoneal cavity by highly active cancers, and when “functional” cirrhosis develops in patients with extensive hepatic metastases resulting in portal hypertension. <P> Ascites is the pathologic accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and is a common manifestation of liver failure, being one of the cardinal signs of portal hypertension. <P> 190 Followers. A. The diagnosis of ascites is based on physical examination in conjunction with a detailed medical history to ascertain the possible underlying causes since ascites is often considered a nonspecific symptom for other diseases. <P> Definition and Etiology. Ascites is defined as the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. It is a common clinical finding, with various extraperitoneal and peritoneal causes (Box 1), but it most often results from liver cirrhosis. Ascites is the most common major complication of cirrhosis and is an important landmark in the natural history of chronic liver disease. If observed for 10 years, approximately 60% of patients with cirrhosis develop ascites requiring therapy. <P> If ascites fluid is greater than 500ml, it can be demonstrated on physical examination by bulging flanks and fluid waves performed by the doctor examining the abdomen. Smaller amounts of fluid may be detected by an ultrasound of the abdomen. <P> Ascites can occur with cancer and other conditions. When ascites is due to cancer, or if the fluid in the abdomen contains cancer cells, it is often called malignant ascites or malignant peritoneal effusion. <P> Overview. Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called ascites. Ascites is common in people with cirrhosis and it usually develops when the liver is starting to fail. In general, the development of ascites indicates advanced liver disease and patients should be referred for consideration of liver transplantation. Screening/Diagnosis. Depending on how much fluid is present in the abdomen, ascites may be diagnosed by the doctor on physical examination but is usually confirmed by tests such as ultrasound or CT scan of the abdomen.
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The diagnosis of ascites is based on physical examination in conjunction with a detailed medical history to ascertain the possible underlying causes since ascites is often considered a nonspecific symptom for other diseases.
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where does SARS pathogen originate
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<P> The previously unknown SARS virus generated widespread panic in 2002 and 2003 when the airborne germ caused 774 deaths and more than 8000 cases of illness. But where did this mystery virus come from? Scientists immediately suspected that it had jumped to humans from some other organism. <P> The fact that both sars and most flu viruses originated in southern china is no surprise, says virologist Michael Lai, who believes that the region's social customs of catching and eating wild game expose people to animal viruses. <P> Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a serious form of pneumonia. It is caused by a virus that was first identified in 2003. Infection with the SARS virus causes acute respiratory distress (severe breathing difficulty) and sometimes death. <P> Knowing that human SARS ultimately evolved from a bat virus can help us better understand emerging diseases and find ways to prevent future outbreaks. Certainly, we must limit contact between bats and humans and bats and other animals. <P> Causes. SARS is caused by a member of the coronavirus family of viruses (the same family that can cause the common cold). It is believed the 2003 epidemic started when the virus spread from small mammals in China. When someone with SARS coughs or sneezes, infected droplets spray into the air. <P> SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) originated in animals and made the leap from animal to human infection somewhere in the Guangdong province of China in late 2002. The condition was relatively contained for several months. <P> Causes. SARS is caused by a strain of coronavirus, the same family of viruses that causes the common cold. Until now, these viruses have never been particularly dangerous in humans, although they can cause severe disease in animals.
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Southern China
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disadvantages of family child care
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<P> Unfortunately, some home-based daycare providers may neglect the children in their care. As you evaluate family child care homes, look for safety hazards, such as uncovered electrical outlets, trampolines, uneven flooring, unprotected swimming pools, drapery cords and open stairways. Considerations. Once you have chosen a family child care provider, talk with your child about the day's events daily. Your provider should have an open door policy that permits parents to visit at any time during daycare hours. <P> Family-centered care or Family-centered service has been discussed and promoted most prominently in the context of child health, and especially concerning chronic conditions of childhood. This approach provides an expanded view of how to work with children and families. <P> The National Association for Family Child Care offers an accreditation to ensure that your provider follows all of your state's regulations, including child-to-staff ratios. The opportunity to play with and learn from other children is something both home daycares and centers offer that nanny care can't. <P> The average family, with a working mother and a child 5 years old or younger, spent an average of $171 per week, or 10.1 percent of their monthly income, on child care in 2010, according to ChildAware of America. Considerations. Once you have chosen a family child care provider, talk with your child about the day's events daily. Your provider should have an open door policy that permits parents to visit at any time during daycare hours. <P> Home-based daycare facilities, also called family child care homes, could provide a less expensive alternative for families on a budget. Parents should carefully evaluate such daycare centers before signing an agreement with any provider. Considerations. Once you have chosen a family child care provider, talk with your child about the day's events daily. Your provider should have an open door policy that permits parents to visit at any time during daycare hours. <P> Whether it is better for to go with the home-like environment of a family child care provider or with the school-like environment of a center depends on the quality of the caregivers, program offered, and the specific needs of your family and your child. [2]. Family child care providers and child care centers can both offer poor and high-quality child care, and each type of care has its advantages and disadvantages. Since every family is different, you must decide on which type of care is best for your child. <P> Both center-based child care and Family Child Care Homes offer advantages and disadvantages. Each individual family must make a choice based on individual preference and what is best for your child(ren). 1 Center-based programs usually have a substitute pool so if a teacher is sick or on vacation, a substitute teacher can fill in for the day. 2 Family Child Care Homes usually have fewer children per adult. 3 Family Child Care Homes usually have smaller group sizes <P> During the seminar, I realized the differences between child care centers and family child care (also referred to as home-based daycare) were unclear for a lot of families. [2]. Family child care providers and child care centers can both offer poor and high-quality child care, and each type of care has its advantages and disadvantages. Since every family is different, you must decide on which type of care is best for your child.
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The National Association for Family Child Care offers an accreditation to ensure that your provider follows all of your state's regulations, including child-to-staff ratios. The opportunity to play with and learn from other children is something both home daycares and centers offer that nanny care can't.
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where is duckenfield
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<P> In June 2000 in Leeds Crown Court a Private Prosecution began against David Duckenfield, chief superintendent in charge of policing at Hillsborough on April 15th 1989, and his deputy superintendent Bernard Murray who was in control of the control room at the ground. David Duckenfield is a good, honest man who gives his time to others.This tragedy has ruined many lives it has left its mark on him. Mr Harrison for Mr Murray began his summing by stating that it was: Wrong, wrong and wrong again to seek solace in the prosecution of the man I represent. <P> detailed map of Duckenfield Hall and near places. Welcome to the Duckenfield Hall google satellite map! This place is situated in Saint Thomas, Jamaica, its geographical coordinates are 17° 56' 0 North, 76° 15' 0 West and its original name (with diacritics) is Duckenfield Hall. <P> Plaque to John Golland on the side of the Town Hall. Dukinfield in now part of Tameside but was historically in the county of Cheshire and is covered in Pevsner's Buildings of England in the volume on Cheshire. Dukinfield is separated from Ashton under Lyne, which is in Lancashire, by the river Tame. <P> Mr Duckenfield, of West Parley, Bournemouth, Dorset, was the match commander for the FA Cup semi-final between Liverpool and Nottingham Forest at the Hillsborough stadium in Sheffield on April 15, 1989. Proceedings against former Chief Supt David Duckenfield, 55, were stayed by a judge at Leeds Crown Court after a jury failed to reach verdicts on two specimen charges. Members of the Hillsborough Family Support Group applied yesterday for him to be retried over the deaths of John Anderson, 62, and James Aspinall, 18. <P> In regards to the prosecution being too oppressive on the poor souls of Duckenfield and Murray the defence argued that it was "prompted by a distorted and misrepresented view of the facts (Jimmy McGovern's drama documentary). David Duckenfield is a good, honest man who gives his time to others.This tragedy has ruined many lives it has left its mark on him. Mr Harrison for Mr Murray began his summing by stating that it was: Wrong, wrong and wrong again to seek solace in the prosecution of the man I represent. <P> Image caption Former chief superintendent David Duckenfield was in charge of policing at Hillsborough stadium in 1989. The Hillsborough police match commander has agreed his failure to close a tunnel was the direct cause of the deaths of 96 people. David Duckenfield also accepted he froze during the afternoon of the 1989 football disaster. Mr Duckenfield was giving evidence for a sixth day at the new Hillsborough inquests in Warrington, Cheshire. He was being questioned by Paul Greaney QC on behalf of the Police Federation of England and Wales. Mr Duckenfield, now 70, had earlier denied claims he bottled it and panicked as the disaster unfolded <P> 'Open the gates'. Mr Duckenfield, who had been stationed in the police control box with a bank of TV monitors, said he was shocked at the request from Supt Roger Marshall to open the Leppings Lane gates after police became overwhelmed by the number of fans. <P> More. The town of Duckenfield is located in Hunter River country surrounded by rich pasture and farmlands. It was originally part of the estate of the wealthy landowner and businessman John Eales from 1799 to 1871. You can still view two of the estate’s houses, Berry Park House and Berry House along Duckenfield Road <P> David Duckenfield, PA ‘84. David is a partner at Balsera Communications, a Hispanic focused public affairs firm based in Miami, FL. Prior to joining Balsera Communications, Duckenfield was the director of U.S. Hispanic PR and Marketing for Yahoo! and managed its communications efforts in Latin America.
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Hunter River country
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how long will water last in your fridge
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<P> Times are based on a refrigerator set at 40 degrees Fahrenheit or colder. Shelf life also depends on the freshness of foods at the time of purchase. 1 Cheese, hard: six months. 2 Butter: 1 to 3 months. 3 Olives and pickles: one month. 4 Fresh eggs (in shell): 3 to 5 weeks. 5 Cheese, soft, unopened: 3 to 4 weeks. <P> So, basically how long should a refrigerator lasts depends on how you use and take care of your fridge. There are many factors that determine the lifetime of the refrigerator. Your quest starts from the moment you decide to purchase a fridge. Always go for a reputed brand. <P> Well, if your fridge or freezer isn’t working for that long, it would most probably last for at least 10-12 years (according to Appliance Magazine). And if you take good care of it, it would surely last long in your household. In order to take care of the refrigerator, we should learn how to clean it. <P> How long should a refrigerator last? This questions is asked so many time, again and again. Most refrigerator keep operational more than 10 years. A survey conducted by the appliance magazine found out that 80% of refrigerators last 8-14 years. <P> Appliances: Expect most popular appliances to last no more than 15 years: refrigerators (six to 15 years), ranges (10 to 15 years), washers and dryers (eight to 12 years) and dishwashers (eight to 10 years), Angie’s List reports. The NAHB estimates the life span of a microwave to be nine years. <P> As with many culinary debates, there's not really a cut-and-dried answer. According to the USDA, you should store butter in its wrapper in the fridge and keep butter out only for 10 to 15 minutes before using, but some cooks will use butter after leaving it out for a week. Because butter is made from pasteurized milk, the chances of contamination are low, says cooking blog The Kitchn. <P> Refrigerator is an indispensable component of your kitchen. You would not be able to remember a single day when you didn’t use your refrigerator. It is also one of those appliances which come in the category of a major purchase due to the high cost factor which means that you buy a refrigerator to last long.
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10-12 years
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where is dna found in the cell
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<P> DNA is a double helix formed by base pairs attached to a sugar-phosphate backbone. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA. Most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA). The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). <P> DNA is found in the cell nucleus, which is often referred to as the cell's control center because it contains all the cell's genetic information. + 12 others found this useful. If it is eukaryotic, (having a nucleus) the DNA is in the nucleus, but if it is prokaryotic, (no nucleus) the DNA floats around in the … cytoplasm. 9 people found this useful. 1 The Five Major Parts of the Brain At its most basic, the brain controls the body. <P> Human Cells. Nucleus. DNA can be found inside the nucleus of every cell, apart from red blood cells. It's tightly wound and spread throughout the 46 chromosomes. One set of 23 chromosomes is inherited from each parent. Inside the chromosomes the DNA exists as genes. Plants and Animals. In plants and animals DNA is also found in the cell nucleus. The DNA of all animals is very similar. The major differences are in the number of chromosomes and genes, and the arrangement of base pairs within these genes. <P> The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people. DNA is a double helix formed by base pairs attached to a sugar-phosphate backbone. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA. <P> The majority of a cell's DNA is located in the nucleus, but a small amount is found in the mitochon … dria, and is referred to as mitochondrial DNA. If it is eukaryotic, (having a nucleus) the DNA is in the nucleus, but if it is prokaryotic, (no nucleus) the DNA floats around in the … cytoplasm. 9 people found this useful. 1 The Five Major Parts of the Brain At its most basic, the brain controls the body. <P> DNA is a genetic material, which transfer the genetic information from one generation to anathor generation, it is found in nucleus of cell. <P> Although most DNA is packaged in chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria also have a small amount of their own DNA. This genetic material is known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA. Mitochondria (illustration) are structures within cells that convert the energy from food into a form that cells can use. Each cell contains hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, which are located in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus (the cytoplasm). DNA is a double helix formed by base pairs attached to a sugar-phosphate backbone. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA. <P> It carries this information from DNA, which is housed inside the cell nucleus, to the ribosomes. These can be found in the cytoplasm and are the 'factories' which make the proteins. Inside the nucleus RNA transcribes the genetic information by producing a complimentary nucleic acid strand-a copy of a DNA sequence. When it reaches the ribosomes the information is translated to produce a protein. RNA Can Also Be Found ... ... in the bacterial genome and also in viruses. There are also RNA viruses where the principal genetic material is RNA, and not DNA. It is usually single-stranded, but double-stranded forms exist too. <P> DNA is found in the nucleus, and mitochondria and chloroplasts, cytoplasm too, but not very frequently.... RNA is found pretty much everywhere-nucleus, nucleolus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, ribosomes, cytoplasm...
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Inside the nucleus of every cell.
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what species are close to extinction
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<P> 10 Species Near Extinction. Many of the planet's most endangered animals are also its remarkable. Here are a few of nature's superstars from Asia, the Americas, the Pacific and elsewhere that may soon be no more. 1 Saving Endangered Species. <P> Conservation efforts rose to prominence in the early 1900s in response to the disappearance of the American bison and passenger pigeon — but early laws often fell short of outlining specific steps in the process of bringing species back from the brink of extinction. Then came the Endangered Species Act in 1973. <P> Closely related to sloths and anteaters, armadillos are a unique species with around 20 different subspecies. One variety, the Giant armadillo, is close to extinction in their wild habitats of South America. <P> Philippine crocodile. This freshwater species is on the verge of extinction due to habitat destruction, hunting and dynamite fishing. Only a handful of these animals survive in the wild presently and aggressive conservation efforts are on to protect them from going extinct. <P> Wildlife continues to bear the brunt of man’s greed as more and more animals are pushed to the verge of extinction by the senseless activities of humans. While a large number of animals have already gone extinct, many more are on the threshold of extinction due to habitat loss, poaching activities and natural causes. Let’s take a look at 35 species of animals that face imminent threat of disappearance from the face of Earth.
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Philippine crocodile, Giant armadillo.
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what is lactose fermentation
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<P> Fermentation in progress: Bubbles of CO2 form a froth on top of the fermentation mixture. Overview of ethanol fermentation. One glucose molecule breaks down into two pyruvate molecules (1). The energy from this exothermic reaction is used to bind inorganic phosphates to ATP and convert NAD+ to NADH. The acetaldehyde is then reduced into ethanol using the energy and hydrogen from NADH; in this process the NADH is oxidized into NAD+ so that the cycle may repeat (3). Fermentation is a metabolic process that converts sugar to acids, gases or alcohol. <P> Fermentation is the anaerobic, energy-yielding breakdown of organic substances via bacteria, yeast or other microorganisms. Milk sugar, better known as lactose, imparts a characteristic sweetness to dairy products. Milk-based products are rich in both lactic acid and the protein casein. Lactose fermentation to lactic acid increases the food acidity; the acid combines with the casein, and the two coagulate and precipitate. The precipitate is then removed from the milk, and the dairy product derived from it is low in — or free of — lactose <P> Lactic acid fermentation is used to convert lactose into lactic acid in yogurt production. It also occurs in animal muscles when the tissue requires energy at a faster rate than oxygen can be supplied. The next equation for lactic acid production from glucose is: By Anne Marie Helmenstine, Ph.D. Answer: Fermentation is a metabolic process in which an organism converts a carbohydrate, such as starch or a sugar, into an alcohol or an acid. For example, yeast perform fermentation to obtain energy by converting sugar into alcohol. Bacteria perform fermentation, converting carbohydrates into lactic acid <P> The differential ingredient is lactose. Fermentation of this sugar results in an acidic pH and causes the pH indicator, neutral red, to turn a bright pinky-red color. Thus organisms capable of lactose fermentation such as Escherichia coli, form bright pinky-red colonies (plate pictured on the left here). <P> Medical Definition of LACTOSE. : a disaccharide sugar C12H22O11 that is present in milk, yields glucose and galactose upon hydrolysis, yields especially lactic acid upon fermentation, and is used chiefly in foods, medicines, and culture media (as for the manufacture of penicillin)—called also milk sugar. Full Definition of LACTOSE. : a disaccharide sugar C12H22O11 that is present in milk and yields glucose and galactose upon hydrolysis and yields especially lactic acid upon fermentation. See lactose defined for English-language learners. See lactose defined for kids. ADVERTISEMENT. <P> With the help of bacteria, lactose fermentation -- the breaking down of the sugar lactose into an acid -- is used to make fermented dairy foods and to test for food poisoning. Lactose fermentation also occurs in your body if you are lactose-intolerant. In Foods. Examples of foods made using lactose fermentation include yogurt, cheese and fermented milk beverages such as kefir. The fermentation process helps limit the spread of unwanted bacteria and other pathogens because it increases the acidity of the food. It also enhances flavors
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Lactose fermentation to lactic acid increases the food acidity; the acid combines with the casein, and the two coagulate and precipitate.
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what are veins
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<P> In the circulatory system, veins (from the Latin vena) are blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart. Most veins carry deoxygenated blood from the tissues back to the heart; exceptions are the pulmonary and umbilical veins, both of which carry oxygenated blood to the heart. In contrast to veins, arteries carry blood away from the heart. Veins are less muscular than arteries and are often closer to the skin. There are valves in most veins to prevent backflow. The arteries are perceived as carrying oxygenated blood to the tissues, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. This is true of the systemic circulation, by far the larger of the two circuits of blood in the body, which transports oxygen from the heart to the tissues of the body. <P> A vein is an elastic blood vessel that transports blood from various regions of the body to the heart. Veins can be categorized into four main types: pulmonary, systemic, superficial, and deep veins. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. Systemic veins return deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body to the right atrium of the heart. Superficial veins are located close to the surface of the skin and are not located near a corresponding artery. Deep veins are located deep within muscle tissue and are typically located near a corresponding artery with the same name (for example coronary arteries and veins). A vein can range in size from 1 millimeter to 1-1.5 centimeters in diameter. The smallest veins in the body are called venules. They receive blood from the arteries via the arterioles and capillaries. <P> Veins are blood vessels which carry deoxygenated (or very low levels of oxygen) blood back to the heart. The exception to this rule is the pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood, from the lungs, back to the heart, ready to be pumped around the rest of the body. <P> Varicose (VAR-i-kos) veins are swollen, twisted veins that you can see just under the surface of the skin. These veins usually occur in the legs, but they also can form in other parts of the body. Varicose veins are a common condition. They usually cause few signs and symptoms. Sometimes varicose veins cause mild to moderate pain, blood clots, skin ulcers (sores), or other problems. Overview. Veins are blood vessels that carry blood from your body's tissues to your heart. Your heart pumps the blood to your lungs to pick up oxygen. The oxygen-rich blood then is pumped to your body through blood vessels called arteries. <P> Varicose veins are veins that have become enlarged and twisted. The term commonly refers to the veins on the leg, although varicose veins can occur elsewhere. Veins have pairs of leaflet valves to prevent blood from flowing backwards (retrograde flow or venous reflux). Varicose veins are distinguished from reticular veins (blue veins) and telangiectasias (spider veins), which also involve valvular insufficiency, by the size and location of the veins. <P> Varicose Veins Overview. Veins are blood vessels that return deoxygenated blood from the outer parts of the body back to the heart and lungs. When veins become abnormally thick, full of twists and turns, or enlarged, they are called varicose vein. This happens most commonly in the veins in the legs and thighs. <P> Varicose (VAR-i-kos) veins are enlarged veins that can be blue, red, or flesh-colored. They often look like cords and appear twisted and bulging. They can be swollen and raised above the surface of the skin. Varicose veins are often found on the thighs, backs of the calves, or the inside of the leg. Most varicose and spider veins appear in the legs due to the pressure of body weight, force of gravity, and task of carrying blood from the bottom of the body up to the heart. Compared with other veins in the body, leg veins have the toughest job of carrying blood back to the heart. They endure the most pressure.
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Blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart.
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how long do you after wait to see a consultant
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<P> If you're desperate, you could ask to be referred privately to a different consultant. (Original post by ------Amy). Weell I found out that the consultant doesn't see private patients.. and the waiting list is actually 10 weeks long. Grr. So it's back to the referral process again for me. TEN WEEKS is a very long time to wait!! Private treatment is usually offered at a different hospital such as BUPA. Ring the consultant's secretary. If he/she knows the number of the consultant's private secretary he/she will be able to give you their number and you'll get the ball rolling quickly. Usually about 3 weeks. <P> Posts: 1,033. IVF under the NHS is now part of the 18 weeks rule. This means that you should wait no longer than 18 weeks from referral from consultant to starting treatment at fertility clinic. Now the rule is that 95% of referrals should fall under 18 weeks, so obviously, this means that up to 5% might fall outside and wait longer. Chanel after gp referral i was seen by fs at hosp after i think 6-8 weeks. Then i had a lap 8wks later then left for 4 months to see if anything happened. It never so now we have been placed on the iui and ivf waiting lists. <P> My consultant said the waiting list was 13 weeks, I have been waiting 6 months now. I have spoken to his secretary several times, each time she is apologetic and tells me waiting lists don't work like that!!! She said that there are a lot of cancer patients to see, so I have to wait. As the waiting list is over 6 months, you can ask for your surgery to be done privately. jody2015 - the Constitution allows you to request to be treated at a private hospital at the NHS's expense. Contact the medical secretary of your Consultant in the first instance. <P> You have the legal right to start your non-emergency NHS consultant-led treatment within a maximum of 18 weeks from referral, unless you choose to wait longer or it is clinically appropriate that you wait longer. As the waiting list is over 6 months, you can ask for your surgery to be done privately. jody2015 - the Constitution allows you to request to be treated at a private hospital at the NHS's expense. Contact the medical secretary of your Consultant in the first instance. <P> The right to treatment within 18 weeks from your referral date does not include maternity services or non-medical consultant-led mental health services. There are also some exceptions where the right to treatment within 18 weeks does not apply. Examples include if: 1 you choose to wait longer. You will be given an outpatient appointment to see the consultant at a hospital, but you won’t have to stay overnight. Waiting times may vary between hospitals. Your choice of hospital may depend on a range of factors, including: 1 your GP's recommendation. 2 how soon you need to start treatment. <P> (Original post by ------Amy) Weell I found out that the consultant doesn't see private patients.. and the waiting list is actually 10 weeks long. Grr. So it's back to the referral process again for me 10 weeks isn't actually that long a waiting list btw. I had to wait 4 weeks to see a private rheumatologist! TEN WEEKS is a very long time to wait!! Private treatment is usually offered at a different hospital such as BUPA. Ring the consultant's secretary. If he/she knows the number of the consultant's private secretary he/she will be able to give you their number and you'll get the ball rolling quickly. Usually about 3 weeks. <P> Well, it depends on the consultant-it can cost around £200 for the initial consultation and £100 for followups thereafter. If you go private and are self-funded, you will be expected to pay for ALL treatment including any scans (at least I think so), where things like MRIs can amount to £1000. TEN WEEKS is a very long time to wait!! Private treatment is usually offered at a different hospital such as BUPA. Ring the consultant's secretary. If he/she knows the number of the consultant's private secretary he/she will be able to give you their number and you'll get the ball rolling quickly. Usually about 3 weeks. <P> Non-emergency treatment. For non-urgent matters, you have the right to start treatment within 18 weeks from the date your GP, dentist or other healthcare professional refers you (unless you want to wait longer or waiting longer is clinically right for you). This will be led by a consultant. You will be given an outpatient appointment to see the consultant at a hospital, but you won’t have to stay overnight. Waiting times may vary between hospitals. Your choice of hospital may depend on a range of factors, including: 1 your GP's recommendation. 2 how soon you need to start treatment. <P> @ soreback75. No, you do not have to wait a further 18 weeks as you have not received any treatment. You need to find out when the hospital received the referral from your GP, that is when your 18 week clock starts. As the waiting list is over 6 months, you can ask for your surgery to be done privately. jody2015 - the Constitution allows you to request to be treated at a private hospital at the NHS's expense. Contact the medical secretary of your Consultant in the first instance.
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No longer than 18 weeks.
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what are starchy foods consist of
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<P> McDougall proposes this as evidence that the foods best suited to human physiology are starches. The diet recommended by McDougall consists of 70 percent starch (rice potatoes, beans etc.), 10 percent fruit and 20 percent vegetables. You will center the food on your plate around starches with the addition of nonstarchy vegetables and fruit to add color and flavor. <P> Starchy foods such as potatoes, bread, cereals, rice and pasta should make up about a third of the food you eat, as shown by the eatwell plate. Where you can, choose wholegrain varieties, or eat potatoes with their skins on for more fibre. Starch is the most common form of carbohydrate in our diet. Starchy foods are a good source of energy and the main source of a range of nutrients in our diet. As well as starch, they contain fibre, calcium, iron and B vitamins. Some people think starchy foods are fattening, but gram for gram they contain fewer than half the calories of fat. <P> Beans and Other Legumes. Beans and other legumes have the distinction of counting as both starchy foods and protein foods. These include lentils, kidney beans, black-eyed peas, chickpeas, black beans, white beans, pinto beans and any other types of dried beans. However, the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommends you fill one-fourth of your plate with these foods at each meal since they provide essential nutrients. Starchy foods, sometimes called complex carbohydrates, include grains, beans and legumes and starchy vegetables. Foods in this group include pasta, breads, popcorn, crackers, tortillas, cereals, rice, oatmeal, barley, millet and other grai <P> Because starches consist of chains of molecules, they are considered complex carbohydrates. Starchy foods such as wheat, legumes, potatoes and some vegetables and fruits help you meet your daily requirements for vitamins and minerals. Legumes of all shapes, sizes and colors are starchy foods. Pinto beans, garbanzo beans, lentils, peas and lima beans are rich in starches. Dried beans also provide protein, fiber, iron, potassium and other essential nutrients. One serving of legumes equals about one-half cup of cooked beans. <P> Starches are omnipresent in many foods, which makes them difficult to avoid. Starches make up a large part of the carbohydrates consumed by Americans. Foods made from starchy vegetables, grains or their flours, such as french fries, baked potatoes, breads, pasta, rice, cookies and cakes, are all high in starches. Some starches can be metabolized as quickly and even quicker than sugar, which means that they can rapidly increase your blood sugar levels after eating. <P> Low-carb diets. Low-carbohydrate (low-carb) diets usually involve cutting out most starchy foods. These diets tend to be high in fat, and eating a high-fat diet (especially saturated fat from foods such as meat, cheese and butter) could increase your risk of heart disease. Starchy foods are a good source of energy and the main source of a range of nutrients in our diet. As well as starch, they contain fibre, calcium, iron and B vitamins. Some people think starchy foods are fattening, but gram for gram they contain fewer than half the calories of fat. <P> AMG – Libertyville, 847-566-5200. This diet is a diet low in sugary and starchy foods. The diet consists of “real” food like meat, fish, cheese, eggs, salads and vegetables, and you will limit the amount of fruit, bread, pasta, dairy, potatoes, rice and beans. <P> Potatoes, corn, parsnips, pumpkin, squash, yams and sweet potatoes are starchy vegetables. One-half cup of corn, 1/4 of a large baked potato, 1 cup of pumpkin or squash constitute a serving of starchy vegetables, according to the American Diabetes Association’s food exchange list. Legumes of all shapes, sizes and colors are starchy foods. Pinto beans, garbanzo beans, lentils, peas and lima beans are rich in starches. Dried beans also provide protein, fiber, iron, potassium and other essential nutrients. One serving of legumes equals about one-half cup of cooked beans. <P> Although potatoes are vegetables, in the UK we mostly eat them as the starchy food part of a meal, and they are a good source of carbohydrate in our diets. Because of this, potatoes don't count towards your five portions of fruit and vegetables a day, but they can play an important role in your diet. Starchy foods are a good source of energy and the main source of a range of nutrients in our diet. As well as starch, they contain fibre, calcium, iron and B vitamins. Some people think starchy foods are fattening, but gram for gram they contain fewer than half the calories of fat.
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Complex carbohydrates
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common symptoms of hepatitis A
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<P> Symptoms. The incubation period of hepatitis A is usually 14–28 days. Symptoms of hepatitis A range from mild to severe, and can include fever, malaise, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, nausea, abdominal discomfort, dark-coloured urine and jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes). Not everyone who is infected will have all of the symptom <P> Definition. Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes irritation and swelling of the liver. Hepatitis A is the most common strain amongst the several types of hepatitis infections. It is easily spread by close contact with someone who is infected <P> 1 In other infected individuals symptoms of hepatitis A may include flu-like symptoms such as tiredness, stomach discomfort, fever, decreased appetite, and diarrhea; light-colored stools; more specific symptoms include dark yellow urine, and jaundice (white of eyes and skin become yellowish). Hepatitis A is a virus, or infection, that causes liver disease and inflammation of the liver. Viruses can cause sickness. For example, the flu is caused by a virus. People can pass viruses to each other. Inflammation is swelling that occurs when tissues of the body become injured or infected. <P> 1 Hepatitis A is a viral liver disease that can cause mild to severe illness. 2 The hepatitis A virus is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water or through direct contact with an infectious person. 3 Almost everyone recovers fully from hepatitis A, but very small proportions die from fulminant hepatitis. Symptoms of hepatitis A range from mild to severe, and can include fever, malaise, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, nausea, abdominal discomfort, dark-coloured urine and jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes). <P> Most people with hepatitis A usually have: 1 Extreme tiredness. 2 Loss of appetite. 3 Muscle aches and pains. 4 Nausea and vomiting. 5 Low-grade fever. <P> Symptoms. Hepatitis A signs and symptoms, which typically don't appear until you've had the virus for a few weeks, may include: 1 Fatigue. 2 Nausea and vomiting. 3 Abdominal pain or discomfort, especially in the area of your liver on your right side beneath your lower ribs. 4 Clay-colored bowel movements. 5 Loss of appetite. If you have hepatitis A, you may have a mild illness that lasts a few weeks or a severe illness that lasts several months. Not everyone with hepatitis A develops signs or symptoms. <P> Hepatitis A (formerly known as infectious hepatitis) is an acute infectious disease of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). Many cases have few or no symptoms, especially in the young. The time between infection and symptoms, in those who develop them, is between two and six weeks. Early symptoms of hepatitis A infection can be mistaken for influenza, but some sufferers, especially children, exhibit no symptoms at all. Symptoms typically appear 2 to 6 weeks (the incubation period) after the initial infection. 90% of children do not have symptoms. <P> Hepatitis A Overview. Hepatitis is a general term that means inflammation (irritation and swelling) of the liver. Inflammation of the liver can result from infection, exposure to alcohol, certain medications, chemicals, poisons, or from a disorder of the immune system. <P> Causes. The hepatitis A virus, which causes the infection, usually is spread when a person ingests even tiny amounts of contaminated fecal matter. The hepatitis A virus infects liver cells and causes inflammation. The inflammation can impair liver function and cause other signs and symptoms of hepatitis A. Hepatitis A virus can be transmitted several ways, such as: 1 Eating food handled by someone with the virus who doesn't thoroughly wash his or her hands after using the toilet. 2 Drinking contaminated water.
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1 Fatigue. 2 Nausea and vomiting. 3 Abdominal pain or discomfort, especially in the area of your liver on your right side beneath your lower ribs.4 Clay-colored bowel movements. 5 Loss of appetite.
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clandestine meaning for mason
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<P> “A “cowan” is a man with unlawful Masonic knowledge; an “intruder” is one with neither knowledge not secrets, who makes himself otherwise obnoxious; a “clandestine” is one who has been initiated by unlawful means, an “irregular” is one who has been initiated by a Lodge working without authorization.”. In other words, Lodge formed without a Warrant from the Grand Master (we now say Grand Lodge) is “clandestine,” and so a “clandestine Masons” is one made in a Lodge without a Warrant.”. Even this definition will not wholly serve; many old Lodges began and worked for a while without a Warrant yet were never Clandestine. <P> Pike decreed that only Masons of the highest degrees could be told the hidden meanings of Masonic symbols and goals thus deceiving lower initiates as to the real purpose of Masonry. . They repeat the deceptive claim that Masonry is not a secret society but a society with secrets. The. was explained in 1959 by Rev. E. Cahill in Freemasonry and the Anti-Christian Movement: Most of the Masonic symbolism, in its original and proper meaning, refers primarily to the Solar and Phallic worship. . .This fact is testified to by the great authorities of Anglo-American Freemasonry Pike, Mackey, Thomas Webb Smith, William Preston, Hutcheson, etc. <P> An “irregular” Mason is sometimes, unfortunately, confused with a “clandestine” Mason; “Unfortunately,” because some men are “irregularly” made Masons even today-usually in all innocence. In other words, Lodge formed without a Warrant from the Grand Master (we now say Grand Lodge) is “clandestine,” and so a “clandestine Masons” is one made in a Lodge without a Warrant.”. Even this definition will not wholly serve; many old Lodges began and worked for a while without a Warrant yet were never Clandestine. <P> CLANDESTINE. In Anglo Saxon helan meant something hidden, or secret, a meaning preserved in conceal; hell, the hidden place, is from the same word. CLANDESTINE LODGE. A body of Freemasons or of those improperly claiming to be Freemasons, uniting in a Lodge without the consent of a Grand Lodge, or, although originally legally constituted, continuing to work after its Charter has been revoked, is styled a Clandestine Lodge. <P> CLANDESTINE FREEMASON. One made in or affiliated with a clandestine Lodge. With clandestine Lodges or Freemasons, regular Freemasons are forbidden to associate or converse on Masonic subjects. CLANDESTINE LODGE. A body of Freemasons or of those improperly claiming to be Freemasons, uniting in a Lodge without the consent of a Grand Lodge, or, although originally legally constituted, continuing to work after its Charter has been revoked, is styled a C <P> The basic, local organisational unit of Freemasonry is the lodge. The lodges are usually supervised and governed at the regional level (usually coterminous with either a state, province, or national border) by a Grand Lodge or Grand Orient. Freemasonry describes itself as a beautiful system of morality, veiled in allegory and illustrated by symbols. The symbolism is mainly, but not exclusively, drawn from the manual tools of stonemasons-the square and compasses, the level and plumb rule, the trowel, among others. <P> Navigation: Home | Contact. SHORT TALK BULLETIN-Vol.XIII December, 1935 No.12 CLANDESTINE by: Unknown Every Master Mason knows that he must not visit a clandestine Lodge, not talk Masonically with a clandestinely made Mason, but not all Master Masons can define clandestinism. In other words, Lodge formed without a Warrant from the Grand Master (we now say Grand Lodge) is “clandestine,” and so a “clandestine Masons” is one made in a Lodge without a Warrant.”. Even this definition will not wholly serve; many old Lodges began and worked for a while without a Warrant yet were never Clandestine. <P> www.masonicdictionary.com. CLANDESTINE (See also Regular) In Anglo Saxon helan meant something hidden, or secret, a meaning preserved in conceal; hell, the hidden place, is from the same word. Helan descended' from the Latin celare, hide; and on this was built the Latin clandestinus, secret, hidden, furtive. CLANDESTINE LODGE. A body of Freemasons or of those improperly claiming to be Freemasons, uniting in a Lodge without the consent of a Grand Lodge, or, although originally legally constituted, continuing to work after its Charter has been revoked, is styled a Clandestine Lodge. <P> Freemasonry is a fraternal organisation that traces its origins to the local fraternities of stonemasons, which from the end of the fourteenth century regulated the qualifications of stonemasons and their interaction with authorities and clients. Masons are members of the organization. The degrees of freemasonry retain the three grades of medieval craft guilds, those of Apprentice, Journeyman or fellow (now called Fellowcraft), and Master Mason. Freemasonry describes itself as a beautiful system of morality, veiled in allegory and illustrated by symbols. The symbolism is mainly, but not exclusively, drawn from the manual tools of stonemasons-the square and compasses, the level and plumb rule, the trowel, among others.
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Clandestine is one who has been initiated by unlawful means
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what does pf mean in fantasy football
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<P> Lets take a look at the Points For (PF) and Points Against (PA) because that is what matters in Fantasy Football, the amount of points your team scores vs the amount of points your opponent scores. My PF is currently 294 after four weeks. <P> PF stands for points for(how many points scored for the season by that team) PA stands for points against(how many points that team has allowed). betterthenmost · 9 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> Points For, the cumulative number of points scored by a team for the season. PA, is Points Against, the cumulative number of points scored against a team for the season. …. + 43 others found this useful. <P> PF means Points For. PA means Points Against. So if you are looking at a team after week 1 who won 35-14, PF would = 35, and PA would = 14. <P> Best Answer: Points For and Points Against. They add up all the points the team scored throughout the season under the Points For. They add up all the points scored against the team throughout the season under Points Against. PF and PA are used as tiebreakers in case two teams vying for a playoff spot have the same record. Source(s):
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The Points For (PF) and Points Against (PA) because that is what matters in Fantasy Football, the amount of points your team scores vs the amount of points your opponent scores.
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what is chemical peeling of face
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<P> Chemical Facial Peels. updated. A chemical peel is a treatment in which an acid solution is used to remove the damaged outer layers of the skin. In performing chemical peels, physicians apply alpha hydroxy acids (AHA), trichloroacetic acid (TCA), or phenol to the skin. Typically administered as a facial peel, a chemical peel enhances and smoothes the texture of the skin. It is an effective treatment for facial blemishes, wrinkles, and uneven skin pigmentation. They exfoliate the outer layers of dead skin, revealing a new skin layer with improved tone, texture, and color. Your cosmetic dermatologist will use a specific formula for your chemical peel based on the characteristics of your skin and your desired result. Light chemical peels are used to treat fine wrinkling, areas of dryness, uneven pigmentation, and acne. <P> Chemical Peels. Chemical peel, also known a chemexfoliation or derma-peeling, is a technique that uses a chemical solution to improve and smooth the texture of the facial skin by removing its damaged outer layers. <P> A chemical peel is a body treatment technique used to improve and smooth the texture of the skin, often facial skin, using a chemical solution that causes the dead skin to slough off and eventually peel off. The regenerated skin is usually smoother and less wrinkled than the old skin. This is the mildest of the peel formulas and produces light peels for treatment of fine wrinkles, areas of dryness, uneven pigmentation and acne. Alpha hydroxy acids can also be mixed with a facial wash or cream in lesser concentrations as part of a daily skin-care regimen to improve the skin's texture. <P> A chemical peel uses a chemical solution to smooth the texture of your skin by removing the damaged outer layers. Although chemical peels are used mostly on the face, they can also be used to improve the skin on your neck and hands. A chemical peel is one of the least invasive ways to improve the appearance of your skin. Sun exposure, acne, or just getting older can leave your skin tone uneven, wrinkled, spotted or scarred. A chemical peel can help improve: 1 Acne or acne scars. 2 Age and liver spots. 3 Fine lines and wrinkles. 4 Freckles. <P> 1 Deep peels penetrate several layers of skin and cause a second-degree burn of the skin. 2 They are used only on the face. 3 A chemical called phenol is usually used for a deep peel. 4 Deep peels may not be used on darker skin types, because they tend to bleach the skin (hypopigmentation). Recovery time after a chemical peel depends on what kind of peel was done and how deep it was. With all types of peels, proper care of the skin after the peel is very important to speed healing, help results last longer, prevent infection, and avoid color changes in the treated area caused by sun exposure. <P> A chemical peel is a technique used to improve the appearance of the skin on the face, neck or hands. A chemical solution is applied to the skin that causes it to exfoliate and eventually peel off. The new, regenerated skin is usually smoother and less wrinkled than the old skin. The new skin is also temporarily more sensitive to the sun. Superficial or lunchtime peel: Alpha-hydroxy acid or another mild acid is used to penetrate only the outer layer of skin to gently exfoliate it. The treatment is used to improve the appearance of mild skin discoloration and rough skin as well as to refresh the face, neck, chest or hands. <P> 1 Superficial peels are the mildest type of chemical peel and can be used on all skin types. 2 Superficial peels usually use liquid containing a mild (dilute) acid, most often glycolic acid. 3 Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) is sometimes used. Recovery time after a chemical peel depends on what kind of peel was done and how deep it was. With all types of peels, proper care of the skin after the peel is very important to speed healing, help results last longer, prevent infection, and avoid color changes in the treated area caused by sun exposure. <P> Chemical Peels and Your Skin. Chemical peels can improve the skin 's appearance. In this treatment, a chemical solution is applied to the skin, which makes it blister and eventually peel off. The new skin is usually smoother and less wrinkled than the old skin. Chemical peels can be done on the face, neck, or hands. <P> A facial peel is a cosmetic, chemical treatment that can be performed at by or with a dermatologist to help lessen the appearance of blemishes, freckles, age spots, light scarring, and any number of other skin irregularities on the face. <P> In a chemical peel, a chemical solution is applied to the skin and allowed to soak in. Over the next 1 to 14 days, depending on how deeply the chemical penetrated the skin, the skin peels off. This procedure destroys parts of the skin in a controlled way so that new skin can grow in its place. Recovery time after a chemical peel depends on what kind of peel was done and how deep it was. With all types of peels, proper care of the skin after the peel is very important to speed healing, help results last longer, prevent infection, and avoid color changes in the treated area caused by sun exposure.
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A chemical peel uses a chemical solution to smooth the texture of your skin by removing the damaged outer layers.
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what is a stepwell
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<P> carvings decorate the entire Raniki Vav stepwell, Patan, Gujarat. Most of the sculpture is in devotion to Vishnu in form of his Avatars (Krishna, Rama, et al) that represent their return to the world. Directly over the well is a carving of Vishnu reclining on a cobra… View image. <P> Birkha Bawari, View of a stepwell at Jodhpur. Stepwells, also called kalyani or pushkarani (Kannada :), bawdi (Hindi: बावड़ी) or baoli (Hindi: बावली), barav (Marathi: बारव), vaav (Gujarati: વાવ) are wells or ponds in which the water may be reached by descending a set of steps. In Gujarati and Marwari language, they are usually called vav or vaav. All forms of the stepwell are examples of the many types of storage and irrigation tanks that were developed in India, mainly to cope with seasonal fluctuations in water availability. <P> The Deepest Step Well in the World. Chand Baori is a famous stepwell situated in the village Abhaneri near Jaipur in Indian state of Rajasthan. This step well is located opposite Harshat Mata Temple and is one of the deepest and largest step wells in India. <P> Recommended For Your 2001 Honda Truck CR-V 4WD. We're sorry, but there are no results in this parts category for 2001 Honda Truck CR-V 4WD. Please select another vehicle or click on the Parts tab at the top of the page to see the available parts for this vehicle. <P> Chand Baori. The Chand Baori is a stepwell built over a thousand years ago in the Abhaneri village of Rajasthan. It is one of the largest stepwells in the world and also one of the most beautiful ones. Located in the eastern part of the province of Rajasthan, it was built by King Chanda somewhere in the 9th century. The Chand Baori is not an easy landmark to find, thus it is one of the hidden secrets of India! <P> Individual Leader. We help individuals to strengthen leadership excellence and increase vitality and confidence by exploring ways gut feelings, prevailing moods, and physicality can implicate creative thinking, problem solving, and decision making. <P> Hunting for ancient stepwells. Finding stuff, even with a map in India, is tough, she says, of the difficulty of locating the ones that haven't been researched. I usually ask drivers to ask locals because my Hindi is terrible. India's hidden stepwells – Victoria Lautman takes tips from drivers, villagers, and pores over old maps to find India's ancient and abandoned stepwells. In the following images, she discusses her journeys and the stepwells she has stumbled upon. <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. Adalaj Stepwell (Gujarati: અડાલજની વાવ, Hindi: अडालज बावड़ी or Hindi: अडालज बावली , Marathi: अडालज बारव) is a unique Hindu 'water building' in the village of Adalaj, close to Ahmedabad town in Gandhinagar district in the Indian state of Gujarat. <P> See the Chand Baori or stepwell in India. Visiting Rajasthan, India is like stepping back in time. Besides the stunning palaces and forts, you also have gorgeous landmarks like Chand Baori. It is known as the oldest step well in the area and it is classified as one of the biggest in the entire world.
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Wells or ponds in which the water may be reached by descending a set of steps.
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what is average salary for entry level fast food worker
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<P> Average Entry Level Salaries. The average salary for entry level jobs is $43,000. Average entry level salaries can vary greatly due to company, location, industry, experience and benefits. This salary was calculated using the average salary for all jobs with the term entry level anywhere in the job listing <P> The median wage is the wage at which half the workers in an occupation earned more than that amount and half earned less. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $7.92 per hour, and the top 10 percent earned more than $13.84 per hour. <P> Fast Food Worker Salary. (United States). An average Fast Food Worker in the United States can expect to take home roughly $7.91 per hour. Earnings sit near $7.18 per hour on the lower side but can approach $9.25 on the higher side. The company is the main element affecting pay for this group — experience level and location are driving factors as well. Women Fast Food Workers who took the survey just slightly outnumber men. Fast Food Workers will find the worst pay at Hardee's, where the median salary crawls in at $16K. Furthermore, compensation is curbed at $19K, leaving little room for growth. Employees at Burger King Corporation, McDonald's Restaurants Ltd., and McDonald's Corporation can also expect below-average earnings of $16K <P> The Restaurant and Food Services job titles listed on this page pay salaries that fall between Entry Level income level. These are considered to be Entry Level income jobs in the Restaurant and Food Services category. If you are not concerned with what category a job falls in you may wish to browse all jobs by salary range. Jobs by Salary Ranges: Click a salary category to find jobs in your target salary range. 1 Six Figure Income jobs ($100,000+). 2 High Income jobs ($80,000 - $100,000). 3 Upper Middle Income jobs ($50,000 - $80,000). 4 Middle Income jobs ($30,000 - $50,000). 5 Entry Level Income jobs ($10,000 - $30,000). <P> According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), meeting, convention and event planners of all experience levels made an average salary of $50,190 in May 2013 (www.bls.gov). Salaries ranged from $26,480 or less for the bottom 10% of workers to $79,550 or more for the top 10% of workers. Another factor that will determine your salary is your location. According to the BLS, metro areas where meeting, convention and event planners reported high average salaries in May 2013 included the Nassau-Suffolk, NY, metro area ($75,710) and the San Francisco-San Mateo-Redwood City, CA, metro area ($62,810). <P> Entry-Level Fast Food Worker Salary. (United States). The average Entry-Level Fast Food Worker earns approximately $7.86 per hour. The particular firm is the biggest factor affecting pay for this group, followed by geography. Medical benefits are awarded to close to one-eighth, and less than five percent earn dental coverage. <P> The median wage is the wage at which half the workers in an occupation earned more than that amount and half earned less. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $7.76 per hour, and the top 10 percent earned more than $11.63 per hour. Employment of combined food preparation and serving workers, which includes fast-food workers, is projected to grow 14 percent from 2012 to 2022, about as fast as the average for all occupations. <P> For example the median expected annual pay for a typical Fast Food Cook in the United States is $18,958 so 50% of the people who perform the job of Fast Food Cook in the United States are expected to make less than $18,958. Source: HR Reported data as of October 2015. Median $18,958. 1 Salary. The annual salary for someone with the job title Fast Food Cook may vary depending on a number of factors including industry, company size, location, years of experience and level of education.
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$7.86 per hour.
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how many miles is it from chicago to connecticut
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<P> The total driving distance from Chicago, IL to Connecticut is 883 miles or 1 421 kilometers. Your trip begins in Chicago, Illinois. It ends in the state of Connecticut. <P> It is 892 miles from Chicago, IL to Hartford, CT. It will take you approximately 14-and-a-half hours to drive. For directions, mapping and timing, see the Related Link. <P> Driving distance from New Haven, CT to Chicago, IL. The total driving distance from New Haven, CT to Chicago, IL is 864 miles or 1 390 kilometers. Your trip begins in New Haven, Connecticut. It ends in Chicago, Illinois. <P> Distance from Chicago, IL to Hartford, CT. There are miles from Chicago to Hartford and miles by car. Chicago and Hartford are far apart (by car). This is the best Chicago, IL-Hartford, CT route. <P> The total driving distance from New Haven, CT to Chicago, IL is 864 miles or 1 390 kilometers. Your trip begins in New Haven, Connecticut. It ends in Chicago, Illinois. <P> The driving distance between Chicago, IL and Hartford, CT is approximately 895 miles. The driving time would be approximately 14 hours 30 minutes if you were to travel non-sto … p in good driving conditions.
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Around 864 miles
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how long for citalopram to get out of your system
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<P> Report Abuse. Usually medication can take up to 24 hours to be out of your system but I'm not sure exactly how long it can be for anti depressents-your GP is the best person to advise. Might be worth asking them to drop you down to a smaller dose (say 10mg) and see how you get on. <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. Celexa has a 36 hour half life...meaning it will take 36 hours for 50% of the drug to leave your system and another 36 hours for it to be fully out of your system. Read more at the Related Link. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Citalopram is a longer acting drug. It will take approximately three days for it to clear out of your system to below a significant amount, but within about one and a half days the amount will be significantly reduced. <P> Thank you for your question. The half-life of Celexa is about 35 hours, meaning that it takes 35 hours for 50% of the drug in your body to be eliminated. Then in the next 35 hours, half of the remaning drug will be eliminated, and so on until there's nothing left. <P> Report Abuse. I have only taken one 10mg dose of citalopram, and I felt dreadful. could not sleep or eat and anxiety increased. i shall not be taking any more, have bought valerian and will stick to them. i would also like to know how long a single 10mg dose stays in the body. Thank you. <P> Around two weeks to a month. It all depends on how regularly you smoke, your metabolism/body type, and whether or not you drink vinegar or cranberry juice. If you were to smok … e marijuana every day for a month, it would take approximately one month for the THC to get out of your system.
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36 Hours
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where is coulterville ca
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<P> Coulterville, CA shared Stage Stop Gun Shop-Atwater's photo. <P> realtor.com displays home listings from more than 900 Multiple Listing Services (MLS) across the U.S., most updated every 15 minutes. A home may be listed by the same Brokerage for sale in multiple MLS systems with varying levels of detail. This means a single home can have one or more listings on realtor.com® . <P> Coulterville, CA added 3 new photos to the album: Fall Events — in Coulterville, California. <P> Hotel Jeffery is located in Coulterville, California on the newly designated historic hwy 132 which is the shortest, safest and most scenic route to Yosemite from the bay area. Located in the gold country of northern California, the hotel is approximately 28 miles from Yosemite National Park. <P> realtor.com displays home listings from more than 900 Multiple Listing Services (MLS) across the U.S., most updated every 15 minutes. A home may be listed by the same Brokerage for sale in multiple MLS systems with varying levels of detail. <P> REMAINS: Many original buildings. Located on highway 49 south of Sonora, Coulterville was named after George Coulter, one of the first whites to come to the gold camp already populated by Chinese and Mexicans. The Chinese first appeared in 1850, creating a small settlement at the north end of what was to be Coulterville.
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Located on highway 49 south of Sonora
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what do fertilisers contain
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<P> The first number represents the percentage of nitrogen in the product; the second number, P 2 O 5; the third, K 2 O. Fertilizers do not actually contain P 2 O 5 or K 2 O, but the system is a conventional shorthand for the amount of the phosphorus (P) or potassium (K) in a fertilizer. A fertilizer or fertiliser (in British English) is any material of natural or synthetic origin (other than liming materials) that is applied to soils or to plant tissues (usually leaves) to supply one or more plant nutrients essential to the growth of plants. <P> To calculate the pounds of nitrogen in a 50-lb bag of 10-10-10 fertilizer, multiply 50 by 0.10. Do the same for calculating the amounts of phosphate and potash. A 50-lb bag of 10-10-10 contains a total of 15 lbs of nutrients: 5 lbs nitrogen, 5 lbs phosphate and 5 lbs potash. All fertilizer labels have three bold numbers. The first number is the amount of nitrogen (N), the second number is the amount of phosphate (P 2 O 5) and the third number is the amount of potash (K 2 O). <P> Confidence votes 7.8K. Most fertilizers contain Nitrogen [N], Phosporus [P], and Potassiuk [K]. Some fertilizers are customized for specific plants and therefore have other compounds needed by those special plants. <P> However, organic and inorganic fertilizers do so via different materials. Organic fertilizers contain only plant-or animal-based materials that are either a byproduct or end product of naturally occurring processes, such as manures, leaves, and compost. Inorganic fertilizer, also referred to as synthetic fertilizer, is manufactured artificially and contains minerals or synthetic chemic <P> Fertilisers make crops grow faster and bigger so that crop yields are increased. They're minerals, which must first dissolve in water so that plants can absorb them through their roots. Fertilisers provide plants with the essential chemical elements needed for growth particularly nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. The proportions of these elements in a fertiliser are often shown as N:P:K = 15:30:15 <P> Fertilisers contain minerals such as nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus, which help plants to grow. Fertilisers increase crop yields but cause the problem of 'eutrophication' when they're washed by rainwater into rivers and lakes. Most chemical fertilisers are made by the reaction of an acid with an alkali. They're minerals, which must first dissolve in water so that plants can absorb them through their roots. Fertilisers provide plants with the essential chemical elements needed for growth particularly nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. <P> these make sugar! - err... plants make sugar via photosynthesis, which is when the plant converts CO2 (carbon dioxide) and water with su … nlight, to glucose. As for what do fertilisers contain, have a look at the ingredients part on the bag next time. Fertilizers contains heaps of nitrogen, ammonia and phosphorus as well as other chemicals, which are very nutritious for plants and promote growth. 1 person found this useful. <P> Inorganic fertilizers usually contain only a few nutrients – generally nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and some sulfur, either singly or in combination, explained Penhallegon. These nutrients are in a concentrated form readily available to plants. – Fertilizers provide one or more of the chemical elements necessary for plant growth and development. Organic fertilizers such as manures, compost or bone meal are derived directly from plant or animal sources. <P> In the case of nitrogen, the recycling of nitrogen from dead to living plants is often the only source of nitrogen in the soil. To make plants grow faster, what you need to do is supply the elements that the plants need in readily available forms. That is the goal of fertilizer. Most fertilizers supply just nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium because the other chemicals are needed in much lower quantities and are generally available in most soils. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium availability is the big limit to growth. The most important are: 1 Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen-Available from air and water and therefore in plentiful supply. 2 Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium (a.k.a. potash) - The three macronutrients and the three elements you find in most packaged fertilizers. 3 Sulfur, calcium, and magnesium-Secondary nutrients. <P> Complete fertilizer is a term used to identify fertilizers that contains nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium. In the national home garden trade, most fertilizers are complete. However, in Colorado the majority of gardens do not need phosphorus or potassium.
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Minerals such as nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus.
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what is tostadas de tinga
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<P> Take the tostada, smear it with sour cream generously, scoop on the tinga chicken mixture, top with cilantro and a sprinkle of cheese. Purists will reach for the Cotija from the Mexican cheesy section. I used feta because the flavors are similar, especially up against the powerful chipotle. Its primary flavor component is chipotle chili which is quickly becoming a very popular ingredient north of the Mexican border. Tinga is a great dish made of a yummy chipotle sauce, sauteed sautéed onions and shredded, chicken all piled up on a crispy. Tostada’it s basically The mexican version of A bbq beef. sandwich <P> Ingredients : Directions: In small saucepan, cook the tomatoes in 1-1/2 cups of water; let cool slightly. Pour tomatoes and the cooking water into a blender cup and puree with the chipotle chilies; set aside. In a large skillet, heat 2 tablespoons of vegetable oil over medium-high heat. Add the onions and saute for 2 minutes. Carefully pour the puree into the skillet; season with salt. Stir in the shredded chicken. Shredded chicken Tinga is traditionally served on tostada shells, but it also makes a very tasty filling for burritos and/or tacos. I like to serve a tablespoon of T inga on top of round tortilla chips as an appetizer for a party or as a botana (snack) for a futbol game. <P> A great appetizer at all times and a most popular treat in Mexico's Cinco de Mayo celebrations. Tinga is made with shredded chicken and onions simmered in a thick chipotle sauce served on crunchy tostadas (toasts.) It can be prepared with shredded beef or pork instead. Add about 1/4 can of the enchilada sauce and 1/2 cup cheese to the meat; stir. Heat another frying pan (cast iron and nonstick are both good) over medium high heat and spray with cooking spray. Place a tortilla in the pan briefly, then turn to briefly heat the other side. Slide tortilla into 9x13 baking pan. <P> Tinga is a great dish made of a yummy chipotle sauce, sauteed sautéed onions and shredded, chicken all piled up on a crispy. Tostada’it s basically The mexican version of A bbq beef. Sandwich i use whatever Chicken i have on. hand Its primary flavor component is chipotle chili which is quickly becoming a very popular ingredient north of the Mexican border. Tinga is a great dish made of a yummy chipotle sauce, sauteed sautéed onions and shredded, chicken all piled up on a crispy. Tostada’it s basically The mexican version of A bbq beef. sandwich <P> For the tinga: In a large heavy saute pan, cook the chorizo over medium heat until fully cooked, about 6 minutes. Add the onions and saute until translucent and fragrant, about 3 minutes. Add the garlic and saute for 1 minute. Add the tomatoes and cook for 1 minute. Add the tomatillos and cook for 1 minute. For the chicken: Place the chicken, peppercorns, salt, garlic, bay leaf and onion in a large heavy saucepan with 6 cups of water. Bring to a boil over high heat, and then reduce to a simmer over medium-low heat for 20 minutes. Turn the heat off and remove the chicken from the liquid. Reserve the broth for later use. <P> Tinga is a Mexican dish made with shredded beef in a sauce made of red and green tomatoes, chipotle chili and onion strips. It originated in Puebla, Mexico. <P> Taste, and add more salt if desired. This makes about 2 cups of tinga de pollo. 4. To serve the tostadas, slather a thin layer of crema on each tortilla. (For more amped-up chipotle flavor, mix a little of the adobo sauce in the crema.) Add a few spoonfuls of tinga, the slices of white onion and two slivers of avocado. Top with crumbled cotija cheese. Servings: 12 tostadas. Note: In Mexico City, you can find chipotles in a spicy-sweet piloncillo adobo, which is what I used here. If you're using a different variety, start with one teaspoon and work your way up. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Tinga is a basically a stewed pork dish, cooked with a chipotle sauce and most commonly served on tostadas--most common form of tinga. It's a meat dish that is slowly cooked in a spicy chile sauce and then served in a traditional food wrap such as a tostada, a tortilla or a taco shell. RE: What is the history of a mexican dish called Tinga? (tostadas de tinga)? I know that it comes from D.F., and that it is very popular in Puebla, but i need more information. I've searched all over the internet, but have only found recipes. I need the history. <P> The tinga de pollo, or chicken in a chiptle-tomato sauce, is enhanced by… (Kirk McKoy / Los Angeles…). Total time: 1 hour, 15 minutes, plus cooling time. Servings: 12 tostadas. Note: In Mexico City, you can find chipotles in a spicy-sweet piloncillo adobo, which is what I used here. If you're using a different variety, start with one teaspoon and work your way up. Before serving, soak the thin white onion slices in cold water at least 15 minutes
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A great dish made of a yummy chipotle sauce, sauteed sautéed onions and shredded, chicken all piled up on a crispy.
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abbreviation of jeddah
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<P> As of 2005, Jeddah had 849 public and private schools for male students and another 1,179 public and private schools for female students. The medium of instruction in both public and private schools is typically Arabic, with emphasis on English as a second language. King Fahd's Fountain was built in the 1980s, can be seen from a great distance and, at 312 metres (1,024 ft), is the highest water jet in the world according to the Guinness World Records. The fountain was donated to the City of Jeddah by the late King Fahd bin Abdul Aziz, after whom it was named. <P> Jeddah's multi-ethnic citizenry has influenced Jeddah's traditional cuisine. As in other Saudi cities, the Nejdi dish Kabsa is popular among the people of Jeddah, often made with chicken instead of lamb meat. The Yemeni dish Mandi is also popular as a lunch meal. King Fahd's Fountain was built in the 1980s, can be seen from a great distance and, at 312 metres (1,024 ft), is the highest water jet in the world according to the Guinness World Records. The fountain was donated to the City of Jeddah by the late King Fahd bin Abdul Aziz, after whom it was named. <P> Historically, Jeddah has been well known for its legendary money changers. The largest of said money changers at the time (the late Sheikh Salem Bin Mahfouz) eventually founded Saudi Arabia's first bank, the National Commercial Bank (NCB). King Fahd's Fountain was built in the 1980s, can be seen from a great distance and, at 312 metres (1,024 ft), is the highest water jet in the world according to the Guinness World Records. The fountain was donated to the City of Jeddah by the late King Fahd bin Abdul Aziz, after whom it was named. <P> Basketball portal. The International Basketball Federation, more commonly known as FIBA, FIBA World, or FIBA International (/ˈfiːbə/ FEE-bə), from its French name Federation Fédération internationale De-basket, ball is an association of national organizations which governs international competition in. basketball <P> Jeddah. Jeddah is the holiday city of Saudi Arabia Jeddah, is a city in the Tihamah region on the coast of the Red Sea and is the major urban center of western Saudi Arabia. Jeddah is the principal gateway to Mecca, Islam's holiest city, which able-bodied Muslims are required to visit at least once in their lifetime. It is also a gateway to Medina, the second holiest place in Islam. <P> 1 AcronymFinder.com 22 Oct. 2015 http://www.acronymfinder.com/Jeddah%2c-Saudi-Arabia-_-Jeddah-International-(Airport-Code)-(JED).html. 2 Chicago style: Acronym Finder. 1 Retrieved October 22 2015 from http://www.acronymfinder.com/Jeddah%2c-Saudi-Arabia-_-Jeddah-International-(Airport-Code)-(JED).html. 2 APA style: JED. (n.d.) Acronym Finder. <P> It is the largest city in Makkah Province, the largest sea port on the Red Sea, and the second largest city in Saudi Arabia after the capital city, Riyadh. With a population currently at 3.2 million, Jeddah is an important commercial hub in Saudi Arabia. Jeddah is the principal gateway to Mecca, Islam's holiest city, which able-bodied Muslims are required to visit at least once in their lifetime. It is also a gateway to Medina, the second holiest place in Islam. <P> 1 Acronym Finder. 2015. 2 AcronymFinder.com 22 Oct. 2015 http://www.acronymfinder.com/Jeddah%2c-Saudi-Arabia-_-Jeddah-International-(Airport-Code)-(JED).html. 3 Chicago style: Acronym Finder. 1 Retrieved October 22 2015 from http://www.acronymfinder.com/Jeddah%2c-Saudi-Arabia-_-Jeddah-International-(Airport-Code)-(JED).html. 2 APA style: JED. (n.d.) Acronym Finder. <P> Cost, Insurance and Freight (CIF) is a trade term requiring the seller to arrange for the carriage of goods by sea to a port of destination, and provide the buyer with the documents necessary to obtain the goods from the carrier. Next Up. Carriage and Insurance Paid (CIP) is also similar to CIF in that the seller is responsible for providing insurance coverage for the goods while in transit for 110% of their value. However, CIP applies to all modes of transport, while CIF can only be used for non-containerized sea freight.
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Jeddah is the holiday city of Saudi Arabia Jeddah.
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what does glucose serum mean in a blood test
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<P> The serum glucose blood test measures the amount of glucose in the blood sample obtained from the patient. There are two types of serum glucose testing. One is the fasting serum glucose test in which the patient should not have eaten for at least 6-8 hours before the test, and the other test can be performed randomly at any given time. <P> Normal levels should be below 99 mg/dL. Pre-diabetes is diagnosed when levels are between 100 to 125 mg/dL. Diabetes is confirmed if your fasting blood glucose levels are 126 mg/dL or above on repeated tests. Random or nonfasting blood glucose levels of above 200 mg/dL could mean you have diabetes, as well. Glucose Levels. A fasting blood glucose test is usually the first step to determining if you have high blood glucose levels, according to the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases. It is most reliable when done in the morning, after you have fasted for at least eight hours. <P> If you have a high blood glucose test result, talk to your doctor, and learn what the next steps should be. In some cases, high blood glucose levels may occur only temporarily. Otherwise, however, the most common explanation for elevated blood glucose is diabetes. Diabetes, including gestational diabetes associated with pregnancy, is a prevalent cause of high blood glucose test results. High blood glucose levels can also indicate thyroid disease or pancreatic inflammation. <P> The blood glucose test may be used to: 1 Detect high blood glucose (hyperglycemia) and low blood glucose (hypoglycemia). 2 Screen for diabetes in people who are at risk before signs and symptoms are apparent; in some cases, there may be no early signs or symptoms of diabetes. 1 Fasting glucose (fasting blood glucose, FBG) – this test measures the level of glucose in the blood after fasting for at least 8 hours. 2 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) – for this test, the person has a fasting glucose test done (see above), then drinks a 75-gram glucose drink. <P> If the result is abnormal, it is typically followed up with a fasting blood glucose test or a GTT. Glucose blood tests are also used to screen pregnant women for gestational diabetes between their 24th and 28th week of pregnancy. 1 Fasting glucose (fasting blood glucose, FBG) – this test measures the level of glucose in the blood after fasting for at least 8 hours. 2 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) – for this test, the person has a fasting glucose test done (see above), then drinks a 75-gram glucose drink. <P> The blood sugar concentration or blood glucose level is the amount of glucose (sugar) present in the blood of a human or animal. The body naturally tightly regulates blood glucose levels as a part of metabolic homeostasis. <P> Save. A glucose serum test determines the amount of sugar in your blood. A low glucose serum level can be a sign of a condition called hypoglycemia. 1 What Causes Low Creatinine Levels? 2 Blood Sugar Levels & What They Mean <P> If you forget to fast prior to a fasting blood glucose test, high glucose levels may be caused by the normal rise in blood sugar that occurs after eating. If you are given a blood glucose test after eating, be sure to alert your physician, who may suggest a follow-up test to ensure proper testing conditions. Diabetes, including gestational diabetes associated with pregnancy, is a prevalent cause of high blood glucose test results. High blood glucose levels can also indicate thyroid disease or pancreatic inflammation. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: High glucose serum is referring to the glucose in the blood. Several things can cause a high glucose serum, including things you eat as well as stress. Glucose = sugar, serum = blood. High glucose serum is high blood sugar. Most of the time, high blood sugar is caused by diabetes. <P> Serum glucose, or blood glucose, is a measurement of the glucose levels in the bloodstream at any given time. High blood glucose readings have a number of potential underlying causes. EndocrineWeb notes methods for testing blood glucose that include the fasting blood glucose test—which measures glucose levels after 10 to 16 hours without food or drink—and the oral glucose tolerance test, which follows a fasting glucose procedure with a measured response to the ingestion of a high-sugar liquid.
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It determines the amount of sugar in your blood.
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how did the treaty of versailles become unfair to germany
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<P> Hang the Kaiser! Popular British newspaper slogan during the negotiation of the Treaty of Versailles. On 28 June 1919, the peace treaty that ended World War I was signed by Germany and the Allies at the Palace of Versailles near Paris. Allied interests were represented by the ‘Big Three’: British Prime Minister David Lloyd George, French Premier George Clemenceau and US President Woodrow Wilson. <P> Natalie Barnicott 10 A Was the Treaty of Versailles unfair to Germany? I personal think that the Treaty of Versailles was unfair to Germany in a variety of different ranges these include, the War Guilt Clause, Reparations, Disarmament, Territory losses and the fact that they had no say in the peace settlement. Generally though I believe that the Treaty of Versailles was totally unfair on Germany and I think that perhaps if they had of come up with a more fairer Treaty then the problems that arose in the future due to this Treaty would have been prevented. <P> I think that the Treaty of Versailles was fair because Germany caused the war. Great Britain and france had every right to blame Germany and make them pay reparations. Britain and France probably did the right thing demanding all those things from Germany. ReplyDelete. March 14, 2011 at 4:31 PM. I think the treaty of versailles was fair because Germany started the war and should betaking blame for it. because of the war they damaged many countries thus they should pay the countries back for what they did to them. <P> The main reasons why the Germans hated the Treaty of Versailles was because they thought it was unfair. Germany had not taken part in the Conference. The terms were imposed upon Germany when Germany disagreed, the Allies threatened to go to war again. Worst of all, huge areas of Germany were given to countries like Poland, and Germany was not allowed to unite with Austria. The Germans thought this was unfair, because other nations were given self-determination but many Germans LOST the right to be part of Germany. <P> Treaty of Versailles Unfair to Germany. I do not think the Treaty of Versailles was fair to Germany. They were not invited to Versailles to help create the treaty, they were just forced to sign it. Even though they did not agree with it, they had to sign it because the Allies were threatening invasion. <P> It ended the state of war between Germany and the Allied Powers. It was signed on 28 June 1919, exactly five years after the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand. The other Central Powers on the German side of World War I were dealt with in separate treaties. The defeated nations of Germany, Austria, and Hungary were excluded from the negotiations. Russia was also excluded because it had negotiated a separate peace (the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk) with Germany in 1918. The terms of this treaty awarded Germany a large proportion of Russia's land and resources. <P> The Treaty of Versailles was not fair to Germany. I believe that the Treaty of Versailles was not fair to Germany. The creation of the treaty did not allow Germany to have any part in its creation, ensuring that all countries get to make decisions for them. I do not think the Treaty of Versailles was fair to Germany. They were not invited to Versailles to help create the treaty, they were just forced to sign it. Even though they did not agree with it, they had to sign it because the Allies were threatening invasion. <P> 1 Germany thought the Treaty of Versailles (28 th June 1919) was unfair because it was a diktat. 2 The Big Three had not negotiated with Germany at Paris from January June 1919. 3 Germany was given only three weeks to comment on the vast amounts of peace clauses. 4 Her objections were largely ignored. 1 Germany though the Treaty was unfair because it was not based fully on Wilsons Fourteen Points. 2 On the 5 th November, 1918, Germany had accepted the Fourteen Points as the basis for peace and an armistice began at 11 oclock on the 11 th November 1918. <P> The Treaty of Versailles. On one hand the Treaty of Versailles was not fair to Germany, but on the other hand it was. Germany was said to be responsible for the cause of the war. If Germany was responsible for the starting of the war then Germany deserved something bad in return. I do not think the Treaty of Versailles was fair to Germany. They were not invited to Versailles to help create the treaty, they were just forced to sign it. Even though they did not agree with it, they had to sign it because the Allies were threatening invasion. <P> The Treaty of Versailles also forbade Anschluss with Austria. This seemed unfair to the Germans, because everywhere else in Europe, the Treaties of 1919 20 gave peoples self-determination, but they divided Germany, and put 12 % of its population into other countries. Worst of all, huge areas of Germany were given to countries like Poland, and Germany was not allowed to unite with Austria. The Germans thought this was unfair, because other nations were given self-determination but many Germans LOST the right to be part of Germany.
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The main reasons why the Germans hated the Treaty of Versailles was because they thought it was unfair. Germany had not taken part in the Conference.
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cost of installing a roof gutter
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<P> Given all the various options on aluminum gutters, they will cost you roughly $750 – $2,300 for a 150 foot project, depending on the size of gutter, gauge and attachment method you choose for your home. Steel Gutters and Downspout Costs: $16-$25 per linear foot. However, they are heavier and more complicated to install, usually requiring soldering, so they are not the best choice for DIY projects. Material costs for steel gutters would run you $2,400-$3,800 for 150 feet of gutter and downspouts. <P> 1 (Sprawling single-story homes have more roof edges and therefore more feet of rain gutters than more-compact two-or three-story houses.). 2 Expect to pay around $3-$5 a lineal foot to have someone install vinyl (PVC) gutters, or about $360-$600 for 120 feet and $750-$1,250 for 250 feet. 1 Having aluminum gutters installed averages about $4-$9 a foot plus downspouts at $5-$8 each, or $500-$1,200 for 120 feet and $1,050-$2,40 <P> 1 Galvanized steel gutters are about $4-$8 installed, for a total cost around $500-$1,000 for 120 feet and $1,000-$2,000 for 250 feet. 2 Steel runs $8-$10 a foot, or $960-$1,200 for 120 feet and $2,000-$2,500 for 240 feet. 1 Having aluminum gutters installed averages about $4-$9 a foot plus downspouts at $5-$8 each, or $500-$1,200 for 120 feet and $1,050-$2,4 <P> Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Gutter Installation project. For a basic 60 linear feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Install Gutters ranges between $5.49 - $9.13 per linear foot. To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased <P> Moreover, gutter installation costs are not cheap. According to our gutter installation cost estimator, the average price to install gutters is $827. As always, one way to eliminate much of this cost to install the gutters yourself. It’s a fairly involved project, but one many homeowners can accomplish. <P> 1 Expect to pay around $3-$5 a lineal foot to have someone install vinyl (PVC) gutters, or about $360-$600 for 120 feet and $750-$1,250 for 250 feet. 2 Vinyl gutters are a fairly simple do-it-yourself project; material alone run about $50-$100 for 120 feet and $90-$180 for 250 feet. 1 Having aluminum gutters installed averages about $4-$9 a foot plus downspouts at $5-$8 each, or $500-$1,200 for 120 feet and $1,050-$2,40 <P> 1 Cost: A 2,000 square foot home will cost from $17,000 to $84,000 to roof in slate. 2 If 3,000 square feet or more, cost can range from $27,000 to $120,000, depending on the site location and the complexity of the job. 1 Cost: A DIY asphalt roof installation on a standard ranch-style house costs from $680 to $3,700, depending on the size of the roof and the quality of the materials. 2 Professional installation can cost between $1,700 and $8,400. 3 Wood Shake -- This is a gorgeous but high-maintenance option. <P> According to HomeInspectorLocator.com the average price to install galvanized or aluminum gutters is approximately $4 to $9 per linear foot. There are also vinyl gutters which are much easier to install, and which run at roughly $3 to $5 per linear foot. <P> According to our gutter installation cost estimator, the average price to install gutters is $827. When budgeting overall costs to install gutters, it is important to first have your contractor (or you) map out lengths and the location of downspouts, so you know how much to purchase. They can be customized to fit any roof and come in a wide array of colors to match your roof or home’s siding. According to our aluminum gutter material estimator, the average cost per linear foot ranges from $4.13 to $5.47. Vinyl: Vinyl gutters are the easiest and cheapest gutters to install (especially for DIYers).
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Galvanised or aluminum gutters is approximately $4 to $9 per linear foot. There are also vinyl gutters which are much easier to install, and which run at roughly $3 to $5 per linear foot.
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when is a pregnancy full term
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<P> A pregnancy is full term only in the narrower two-week window that starts at 39 weeks, under new definitions published in the journal Obstetrics & Gynecology and endorsed by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine. • Full term: Between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, six days. • Late term: Between 41 weeks and 41 weeks, six days. • Post term: 42 weeks and beyond. The definitions were developed at a workshop in 2012 that included representatives from the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development and other medical groups. <P> Generations of mothers-to-be have heard that babies born any time between 37 and 42 weeks of pregnancy were at term — neither too early nor too late. But that is now officially outdated wisdom, two leading medical groups said Tuesday. • Full term: Between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, six days. • Late term: Between 41 weeks and 41 weeks, six days. • Post term: 42 weeks and beyond. The definitions were developed at a workshop in 2012 that included representatives from the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development and other medical groups. <P> Exactly what it means for a pregnancy to have reached full term is changing, doctors say. Two leading groups of doctors announced today the label term pregnancy — which traditionally refers to a pregnancy between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation — should be discouraged. Instead, doctors should use four separate names when discussing this time period: early term, full term, late term and post-term. <P> They say a full-term pregnancy is between 39 weeks and 40 weeks and six days. An ‘early term’ or premature baby would be born between 37 weeks and 38 weeks and six days. A late term pregnancy reaches the 41st week and by 42 weeks the baby is ‘post term’ or in other words, long overdue. <P> In light of recent research showing that each week of gestation affects newborn health, a leading doctors' group is redefining when a pregnancy is considered term.. Previously, a pregnancy was considered full term any time between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation. On average, a single-fetus pregnancy lasts 40 weeks from the date of the woman's last menstrual period. Fewer moms having C-sections before 39 weeks. Under the new definitions, the period between 37 weeks and 38 weeks, six days of gestation is considered early term.. Thirty-nine weeks to 40 weeks, six days is considered full term; between 41 weeks 0 days and 41 weeks, six days is late term; and 42 weeks and beyond is considered postterm.. <P> 'Full-term' pregnancy gets a new, narrower definition. Generations of mothers-to-be have heard that babies born any time between 37 and 42 weeks of pregnancy were at term – meaning they were neither too early nor too late. But that is now officially outdated wisdom, two leading medical groups said Tuesday. • Full term: Between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, six days. • Late term: Between 41 weeks and 41 weeks, six days. • Post term: 42 weeks and beyond. The definitions were developed at a workshop in 2012 that included representatives from the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development and other medical groups. <P> Previously it was thought that infant mortality risk was similar for babies born between 37 and 41 weeks. But the new study shows that this risk is increased when babies are born between 37 and 39 weeks of gestation, and that this risk decreases with each additional week of pregnancy. Reviewed by Laura J. Martin, MD. May 23, 2011 -- Babies born between 39 and 41 weeks of pregnancy fare better than infants born during weeks 37 or 38, a study shows. A term birth is considered 37 to 41 weeks, but the new study suggests it is more of a continuum. The findings appear in Obstetrics & Gynecology. <P> Term pregnancy is 37 weeks to 41 weeks, with early term being 37 and 38 weeks, full term 39 and 40 weeks, and late term 41 weeks. <P> Your due date is the date that your provider thinks you will have your baby. ACOG and SMFM now define a full-term pregnancy as a pregnancy that lasts between 39 weeks, 0 days and 40 weeks 6 days. Babies born full term have the best chance of being healthy, compared with babies born earlier or later. The definitions are: 1 Early term: Your baby is born between 37 weeks, 0 days and 38 weeks, 6 days.
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39 and 40 weeks, and late term 41 weeks.
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what should radon levels be
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<P> A safe level of radon gas is no radon gas. Radon gas is a carcinogen which causes lung cancer. The US EPA has put it plainly, stating, Any radon exposure has some risk of causing lung cancer. The lower the radon level in your home, the lower your family's risk of lung cancer.. <P> Your home should be tested after a mitigation system has been installed to insure that radon levels have been reduced. This test should be conducted no sooner than 24 hours nor later than 30 days following completion and activation of the mitigation system(s). <P> According to the EPA, the average indoor radon level is about 1.3 picocuries per liter (pCi/L). People should take action to lower radon levels in the home if the level is 4.0 pCi/L or higher. The EPA estimates that nearly 1 out of every 15 homes in the United States has elevated radon levels. Outdoors, radon generally disperses and does not reach high levels. <P> You have tested your home for radon and confirmed that you have elevated radon levels — 4 picocuries per liter (pCi/L) or higher. The EPA recommends that you take action to reduce your home's radon levels if your radon test result is 4 pCi/L or higher. High radon levels can be reduced through mitigation. CLICK HERE to order a test kit. 1 Select a licensed or certified radon mitigation contractor to reduce the radon levels. <P> Radon gas is a naturally-occurring byproduct of the radioactive decay of Uranium in the soil. Depending on your geographic location, the radon levels of the air you breathe outside of your home may be as high as 0.75 pCi/L. <P> Test for radon in each of the lowest structural areas of the home. If your house has one or more foundation types, a test should be placed in or above each area. For example, if a home has a basement, test in the basement if anyone spends at least 7 hours a week in the basement. <P> One out of 15 (6%) homes nationally may have elevated indoor radon levels that should be lower. The percentage of elevated homes in your state may be much higher. The only way to know a house is elevated is to test. <P> Red areas (zone 1) in the map can be expected to encounter radon levels over the 4 pCi/L recommended level. Orange areas (zone 2) typically have between 2 and 4 pCi/L and should be tested.
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The radon levels of the air you breathe outside of your home may be as high as 0.75 pCi/L.
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what are picture file extensions
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<P> Choosing the right file format to save your images in is of vital importance. There are three image formats in constant use on the net — GIF, JPG and PNG. Each is suited to a specific type of image, and matching your image to the correct format should result in a small, fast-loading graphic. <P> Files that contain the .image file extension are most commonly associated with bitmap image sources that are used on a Unix-based operating system. These images are referenced by the operating system when a user opens the associated application. <P> The most common image file formats, the most important for cameras, printing, scanning, and internet use, are JPG, TIF, PNG, and GIF. 1 JPG is the most used image file format. 2 Digital cameras and web pages normally use JPG files-because JPG heroically compresses the data to be very much smaller in the file. <P> There are many file extensions for image files, but the most popular are .JPG (or .JPEG), .GIF, .PNG and .TIF. In addition to these file types, many digital cameras save in a format known as .RAW, or a brand-specific format. You may need to install a special driver to open or view these files. <P> Audio File Types and Formats. .GIF (Graphic Interchange Format) files use a maximum of 256 colors, and are best for displaying noncontinuous-tone images or those with large areas of flat colors, such as navigation bars, buttons, icons, logos, or other images with uniform colors and tones. <P> File extensions used for bitmap images and raster graphics files. Bitmap, raster graphics file formats are generally photo or picture images consisting of pixels in a grid. Each pixel in the image contains information about the color to be displayed. Bitmap images have a fixed resolution and cannot be resized without losing image quality. <P> Image file formats are standardized means of organizing and storing digital images. Image files are composed of digital data in one of these formats that can be rasterized for use on a computer display or printer. An image file format may store data in uncompressed, compressed, or vector formats. <P> (796 file extension database entries). File extensions used for bitmap images and raster graphics files. List of common bitmap images. Bitmap, raster graphics file formats are generally photo or picture images consisting of pixels in a grid. Each pixel in the image contains information about the color to be displayed. Bitmap images have a fixed resolution and cannot be resized without losing image quality.
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JPG, TIF, PNG, and GIF
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what is PUFA metabolism
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<P> PUFA oils have an absolutely devastating effect on the body’s metabolism. That’s because PUFA’s directly interfere with the functioning of the thyroid gland, and also how well the thyroid hormones are able to be utilized, or metabolized, by the body. <P> Synthesis of Omega-3 and -6 Fatty Acids. Most of the omega-6 PUFAs consumed in the diet are from vegetable oils such as soybean oil, corn oil, borage oil, and acai berry and consist of linoleic acid. Linoleic acid is converted to arachidonic acid through the steps outlined in the Eicosanoid Synthesis page. <P> Omega-3 and Omega-6. There are two main types of PUFA’s — omega-3 and omega 6 polyunsaturated fatty acids. Omega-3 essential fatty acids are found in fatty fish, shellfish, liver, and in some seeds like flax. They’re good for us in moderate amounts. Mmm…rapeseeds. <P> Much, much more prevalent however, are PUFA’s in the form of omega-6 polyunsaturated fatty acids. Omega-6 PUFA occurs naturally in small quantities in natural foods like seeds, nuts, legumes, and also in properly-raised animal products. <P> Abstract. Omega-6 (n-6) polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) (e.g., arachidonic acid (AA)) and omega-3 (n-3) PUFA (e.g., eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)) are precursors to potent lipid mediator signalling molecules, termed “eicosanoids,” which have important roles in the regulation of inflammation. <P> n-6:n-3 PUFA ratio is involved in regulating lipid metabolism and inflammation in pigs. <P> Figure 1: Metabolism of n-6 and n-3 PUFA. The metabolism of PUFA is a complex process involving several enzymes of desaturation, elongation, and β -oxidation. Shown here is the pathway of both n-6 and n-3 PUFA metabolism to more unsaturated, long-chain members of each family.
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Metabolism of n-6 and n-3 PUFA. The metabolism of PUFA is a complex process involving several enzymes of desaturation, elongation, and β -oxidation.
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commercial fish species that are at risk of overfishing
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<P> Overfishing occurs when commercial and/or non-commercial fishing depletes the fish population at a rate that makes it difficult, if not impossible, for the remaining fish to continue to breed, replenish, and sustain the population. 1. Overfishing is not a new phenomenon. <P> Overfishing occurs when fish and other marine species are caught at a rate faster than they can reproduce. We now know without a doubt that the fish in the ocean are a finite resource. <P> Overview. Overfishing occurs when more fish are caught than the population can replace through natural reproduction. Gathering as many fish as possible may seem like a profitable practice, but overfishing has serious consequences. <P> The natural ocean ecosystem is disrupted; ultimately threatening many non-fished marine species as their natural food supply is removed. Sea lions, fur seals, and otters, as well as many types of bird are examples of other species that have been placed at risk as a result of overfishing. <P> Tuna is prized in Japan for sushi and sushami as Japanese are the biggest consumers of the tuna fish. Also Japanese food is being seen as a healthy option so their food is becoming popular worldwide. Tuna is at risk and Japanese fishing methods are questioned as they frequently catch and kill other species by accident. <P> Ocean overfishing is simply the taking of wildlife from the sea at rates too high for fished species to replace themselves. The earliest overfishing occurred in the early 1800s when humans, seeking blubber for lamp oil, decimated the whale population. <P> Bluefin tuna swim in a holding pen in Australia. A conservation group has named three fish species that it says are at risk of extinction. The fish are threatened because of overfishing to meet the world’s growing demand for food. <P> More than 85 percent of the world's fisheries have been pushed to or beyond their biological limits and are in need of strict management plans to restore them. Several important commercial fish populations (such as Atlantic bluefin tuna) have declined to the point where their survival as a species is threatened.
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Bluefin tuna
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what is tile roofing
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<P> Alternatively, tile can sometimes refer to similar units made from lightweight materials such as perlite, wood, and mineral wool, typically used for wall and ceiling applications. In another sense, a tile is a construction tile or similar object, such as rectangular counters used in playing games (see tile-based game). The word is derived from the French word tuile, which is, in turn, from the Latin word tegula, meaning a roof tile composed of fired clay. Tiles are often used to form wall and floor coverings, and can range from simple square tiles to complex mosaics. <P> A tile is a manufactured piece of hard-wearing material such as ceramic, stone, metal, or even glass, generally used for covering roofs, floors, walls, showers, or other objects such as tabletops. The word is derived from the French word tuile, which is, in turn, from the Latin word tegula, meaning a roof tile composed of fired clay. Tiles are often used to form wall and floor coverings, and can range from simple square tiles to complex mosaics. <P> There are many considerations of a tile roof or a shingle roof system. It is highly suggested to research which roof is better for your home and the climate that you live in. When comparing tile roofs and shingle roofs, the first noticeable difference is the price. Tile is more expensive than shingles, usually at least double the price. However, the life expectancy of tile ends up being about double that of shingles, so it works out to be about even in that regard. Some say that tile roofs can last for as long as 50 years, whereas shingles last about 20 years. Either way, with some maintenance, you are getting a lot of life for your roof, regardless of whether you choose shingles or tile. <P> Installation methods depend on the nature of the tile being installed; that is, whether it is two piece, one piece, interlocking or flat. Example of a clay tile roof. Concrete tiles are made of portland cement, sand and water in varying proportions. The material is mixed and extruded on molds under high pressure. The exposed surface of a tile may be finished with cementitious material colored with synthetic oxide additives. <P> A tile roof is a roof with an uppermost layer made from tiles. Terra cotta tiles such as pantiles which are designed to overlap to create a ridge and gutter design are a classic choice of material for tile roofing, although there are a variety of alternatives on the market. Tile is a very durable, long-lasting roofing material. A tile roof can last up to 100 years, and sometimes even longer, in special cases. In addition to terra cotta tile, it is also possible to find slate or stone tiles, ceramic tiles, and tiles made from concrete. Both molded tiles and tile shingles are available <P> Tile roofing is beautiful, but not waterproof. Tile roofing is a watershed and a decorative roof covering. The actual waterproofing is provided by the underlayment, or felt paper installed underneath the tile. Some felt is organic, but all deteriorate over time, especially in the Arizona sun. <P> A roof is a roof is a roof….wrong. There really are superior roofing materials available. If you are trying to decide what kind of material to use on your roof here are some facts about the differences between using tile and using shingles for a new roof. Some say that tile roofs can last for as long as 50 years, whereas shingles last about 20 years. Either way, with some maintenance, you are getting a lot of life for your roof, regardless of whether you choose shingles or tile. <P> Shopping for a tile roof: 1 Tile roofs are heavy. 2 If you're switching to tile from a lighter-weight roofing material, you'll need to have the building inspected by a building engineer and the roof supports possibly reinforced or replaced, easily adding $1,000-$10,000 or more to the cost. 1 Whether clay or concrete, roofing tiles can be rounded, like the classic half-barrel shape, or flat. 2 Tiles are not recommended for a roof with less than an 18-degree slope. 3 Because a tile roof lasts a long time, everything underneath the tile needs to also be high quality and long-lasting. <P> The Tile Roofing Institute is your resource for tile. Learn why tile roofs are better for your home, better for the environment and better for your business. For homeowners, learn how to maintain your tile roof, find a trained contractor, and why to choose
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A a watershed and a decorative roof covering and it is provided by the underlayment, or felt paper installed underneath the tile.
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meaning of the name cole
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<P> Cole is a variant of the name Colby (English). Cole is also a variant (English) of the name Colin (English, Scottish, and French). Cole is also a short form (English) of the name Colman (English and Irish). Cole is also a variant of the name Colter (English). Cole is also a variant of the name Colton (English). Cole is also a short form (English) of the name Nicholas (English and French). Cole has 19 variants. Variants include Coal, Coale, Col, Colea, Colee, Coleigh, Colet, Coli, Colie, Colsan, Colsen, Colsin, Colson, Colsun, Colsyn, Coly, Kohl, and Kole. The diminutive form Coley is another English variant <P> Meaning of Cole. Irish name. In Irish, the name Cole means-warrior. Other origins for the name Cole include-Irish, English.The name Cole is most often used as a boy name or male name. Irish Name Meaning-warrior. <P> Cole -- a short name that embodies a lot of richness and depth -- has long been associated with the great songwriter Cole Porter. Currently, Cole, which has been on a roll since the mid-90s, is holding on to its steady popularity, now at Number 116. It's also a Top 60 name in Scotland. <P> Greek Meaning: The name Cole is a Greek baby name. In Greek the meaning of the name Cole is: People's victory. American Meaning: The name Cole is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Cole is: People's victory. English Meaning: The name Cole is an English baby name. In English the meaning of the name Cole is: Of a triumphant people; young boy <P> Cole /cole/ [1 syll.] as a boys' name (also used less commonly as girls' name Cole) is pronounced kohl. It is of Middle English and Old French origin, and the meaning of Cole is swarthy, coal-black, charcoal. Surname derived from a medieval given name. Also used as a short form of Nicholas and names beginning with Cole-. As a given name, it is linked with the songwriter-composer Cole Porter (20th century). Outlaw Cole Younger <P> Etymology & Historical Origin-Cole. The name Cole comes from an English, Irish and occasionally Scottish surname which itself originated as a personal name. There are two schools of thought on how the name was given in the first place. The primary belief is that the name Cole comes from a Middle English nickname “Cola” (meaning swarthy, coal-black). <P> Cole /koʊl/ is a surname of English origin, and is much less frequently a given name. It is of Middle English origin, and its meaning is swarthy, coal-black, charcoal. The Cole family originated in Cornwall, South West England. The first recorded spelling of the family name is shown to be that of Randolphi Cole, appearing in the Winton Rolls of Hampshire in 1148. It is also an Americanized spelling of the German name 'Kohl', and of the Scottish and Irish name 'McCool' <P> Origin of the name Cole: Transferred use of the surname derived from the Old English col (coal). It originated as a nickname for someone who was coal-black, swarthy, or darkly-complexioned. From A World of Baby Names by Teresa Norman.
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People's victory
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how long for ryegrass to germinate
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<P> Annual ryegrass (Lolium multiflorum) and perennial ryegrass (Lolium perenne) seeds germinate in five to 10 days. Rough bluegrass (Poa trivialis) seeds take seven to 10 days. Tall fescue (Lolium arundinaceum) seeds germinate in seven to 12 days. Hard fescue (Festuca longifolia) and red fescue (Festuca rubra) seeds take seven to 14 days. Plant 7 to 9 pounds of annual ryegrass seed or 6 to 9 pounds of perennial ryegrass per 1,000 square feet in the fall. Cool Season Long Germination. Colonial bentgrass (Agrostis tenuis) and creeping bentgrass (Agrostis stolonifera) seeds take 10 to 14 days to germinate. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) seeds take 14 to 30 days. <P> Buffalograss (Stenotaphrum secundatum) seeds take 14 to 30 days to germinate. Plant 1 pound of Bermudagrass seeds per 1,000 square feet in late spring or early summer. For the same area, plant 1 1/2 to 2 pounds of buffalo grass in spring or fall. Cool Season Long Germination. Colonial bentgrass (Agrostis tenuis) and creeping bentgrass (Agrostis stolonifera) seeds take 10 to 14 days to germinate. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) seeds take 14 to 30 days. <P> When seeding your lawn you need to be aware of which type of rye you are going to use. The cheapest rye grass seed are the single variety annual types. This type of seed is sold in your nursery or big box for around $20 per 50 lb bag. The annual type works fine but it does not germinate as well as the perennial types. Because of this you will need to seed at a higher rate. <P> When you plant grass seeds, it is important to match the grass species to your local climate and plant the seeds at the correct time and rate. To get a rough idea how long for your lawn to get established, add 30 to 45 days to the germination time. Cool Season Long Germination. Colonial bentgrass (Agrostis tenuis) and creeping bentgrass (Agrostis stolonifera) seeds take 10 to 14 days to germinate. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) seeds take 14 to 30 days. <P> Perennial ryegrass seeds have a very quick germination rate, so if the temperatures are right and the water and seed-soil contact are there, the seeds should germinate within 5 to 10 days. After the seeds have germinated, you can begin watering as deeply and infrequently as possible. <P> Water the area three days in a row prior to seeding. Pour ryegrass seed in a seeder. Broadcast annual ryeseed at a rate of 5 to 10 lbs. every 1,000 feet. Perennial ryegrass should be spread at 3 1/2 to 5 lbs. every 1,000 feet. Push the seeds back and forth across the lawn to get an even spread. Cover the ryegrass with 1/8 inch of compost <P> Establishment. Apply 10 pounds of annual ryegrass seed per 1,000 square feet, and 5 to 15 pounds of perennial ryegrass per 1,000 square feet. Use the higher rate if thicker stands of green grass are desired. Sow half the seed in one direction and the other half in a direction perpendicular to the first. <P> Italian ryegrass (Lolium multiflorum) is said to germinate rapidly, usually from 5 to 14 days in good weather and soil conditions, after the time of dormancy: For more details see chapter REGENERATION PROCESSES http://www.fs.fed.us/database/feis/plant... Lolium rigidum, annual ryegrass germination time also depends on temperature, light quality and hydration status, time is from 5 to 14 days on average too. Source(s): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perennial_r... http://www.ryegrasses.com/seeding/index.... mejxu · 7 years ago.
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5 to 10 days
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lamellipodia are formed by
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<P> Abstract. Filopodia and lamellipodia are dynamic membrane protrusions of the cell edge. Their activity is largely responsible for the forward progression of the anterior edge of migrating cells. Both lamellipodia and filopodia generate pushing force using the same molecular strategy, coordinated polymerization of multiple interconnected actin filaments. Acting as a cohort, actin filaments can achieve necessary stiffness to produce large forces. <P> Actin polymerization-driven protrusion of the leading edge is a key element of cell motility. The important actin nucleators formins and the Arp2/3 complex are believed to have nonoverlapping functions in inducing actin filament bundles in filopodia and dendritic networks in lamellipodia, respectively. The concept of functional separation of Arp2/3 complex and formins during leading-edge protrusion to generate dendritic networks in lamellipodia and parallel bundles in filopodia, respectively, is challenged by the observation that filopodia may arise by reorganization of the lamellipodial network [ 10, 19, 20 ]. <P> We next asked whether mDia2 roles in lamellipodia and filopodia are related. Kinetic analysis of filopodia initiation showed that virtually all δGBD-mDia2–induced filopodia formed from δGBD-mDia2–positive lamellipodia (Figure 8; Video S5). The concept of functional separation of Arp2/3 complex and formins during leading-edge protrusion to generate dendritic networks in lamellipodia and parallel bundles in filopodia, respectively, is challenged by the observation that filopodia may arise by reorganization of the lamellipodial network [ 10, 19, 20 ]. <P> A lamellipodium separated from the main part of a cell by scratching across the cell with a pipette tip can continue to crawl freely about on its own. Lamellipodia are a characteristic feature at the front, leading edge, of motile cells. Arp2/3 complexes are present at microfilament-microfilament junctions in lamellipodia, and help create the actin meshwork. Arp 2/3 can only join onto previously existing microfilaments, but once bound it creates a site for the extension of new microfilaments, which creates branching (Weed, et al., 2000). <P> Abstract. Lamellipodia formation necessary for cell invasion is regulated by Rac1. We report here that lamellipodia formation and three-dimensional invasion were significantly promoted by HGF and serum, respectively, in invasive human breast cancer cells. Further clarification of the mechanisms by which PI3K activation induces the release of IQGAP1 and kinesin heavy chain from Rac1 and serum promotes three-dimensional cell invasion should lead to an increased understanding of the regulation of lamellipodia formation and cell invasion. <P> To understand the mechanism of lamellipodia-to-filopodia transition, we performed correlative EM for cells with known live history (Figure 8 B– 8 J; Video S7 – S9). Figure 8 shows two examples of filopodia formed during live imaging. The concept of functional separation of Arp2/3 complex and formins during leading-edge protrusion to generate dendritic networks in lamellipodia and parallel bundles in filopodia, respectively, is challenged by the observation that filopodia may arise by reorganization of the lamellipodial network [ 10, 19, 20 ]. <P> The lamellipodium (plural lamellipodia) (from Latin Lamina - thin sheet, pod - foot) is a cytoskeletal protein actin projection on the leading edge of the cell. It contains a quasi-two-dimensional actin mesh; the whole structure propels the cell across a substrate (Alberts, et al., 2002). Within the lamellipodia are ribs of actin called microspikes, which, when they spread beyond the lamellipodium frontier, are called filopodia (Small, et al., 2002). Arp2/3 complexes are present at microfilament-microfilament junctions in lamellipodia, and help create the actin meshwork. Arp 2/3 can only join onto previously existing microfilaments, but once bound it creates a site for the extension of new microfilaments, which creates branching (Weed, et al., 2000). <P> Quantitation of changes in cell shape using computerized image analysis demonstrated that PDGF doubled the total projected area of lamellipodia formed by each cell within 5 min of addition and increased it by almost 10-fold at 30 min (Fig. 3 ⇓ A). To determine relative changes in lamellipodia length in different regions of the cell, corners were defined as parts of the square perimeter within 6 μm from the intersection of the two sides; sides were defined as the 18 μm interval between these corner regions. <P> Second, we discovered a novel mechanism of lamellipodia-to-filopodia transformation during bridge formation. Two previous models of filopodia formation were formulated for filopodia emerging from the free leading edge of migrating cells (Yang and Svitkina, 2011). Our data reveal a mechanism of cell–cell junction formation in endothelial cells using lamellipodia as the initial protrusive contact, subsequently transforming into filopodia-like bridges connected through adherens junctions. <P> Lamellipodia formation and movement ceased after tension generation was suppressed using the more specific ROCK inhibitor Y27632 or by chelating intracellular calcium using BAPTA-AM (not shown). Thus, cytoskeleton-based tractional forces appear to play a key role in control of lamellipodia extension. To determine relative changes in lamellipodia length in different regions of the cell, corners were defined as parts of the square perimeter within 6 μm from the intersection of the two sides; sides were defined as the 18 μm interval between these corner regions.
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Each cell within 5 min of addition and increased it by almost 10-fold at 30 min.
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which of the following best describes the cerebral cortex
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<P> The cerebrum is another name for the cerebral cortex which is the part of the brain dedicated to higher activities such as complex movement (like speech), planning actio … ns, and processing vision. 22 people found this useful. <P> Share. The cerebral cortex is the layer of the brain often referred to as gray matter. The cortex (thin layer of tissue) is gray because nerves in this area lack the insulation that makes most other parts of the brain appear to be white. The cortex covers the outer portion (1.5mm to 5mm) of the cerebrum and cerebellum. The portion of the cortex that covers the cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex. <P> Th … e surface of the cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex, composing of 6 layers of neurons (nerve cells), which is above white pathways. There are also ridges called gyri (singular: gyrus) and valleys called sulci (singular: sulcus). <P> The cerebral cortex is the layer of the brain often referred to as gray matter. The cortex (thin layer of tissue) is gray because nerves in this area lack the insulation that makes most other parts of the brain appear to be white. The cortex covers the outer portion (1.5mm to 5mm) of the cerebrum and cerebellum. The portion of the cortex that covers the cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex. <P> Search for an answer or ask Weegy (Free). Original conversation. User: which of the following best describes the cerebrumUser: a shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called aUser: which of the following generalization does not describe the cerebral cortexWeegy: Post the choices please.
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The cerebral cortex is the layer of the brain often referred to as gray matter.
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what genre is matilda by roald dahl
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<P> Synopsis. Roald Dahl's Matilda won the Children's Book Award shortly after it was published in 1988, and it has continued to delight audiences ever since. At first, Matilda was a wicked girl who eventually used her powers to help her teacher solve her financial problems-by fixing a horse race. In the end, though, it became the magical story now known to children the world over. In 1996 a film version of Matilda was released. <P> Matilda. Roald Dahl's Matilda won the Children's Book Award shortly after it was published in 1988, and it has continued to delight audiences ever since. At first, Matilda was a wicked girl who eventually used her powers to help her teacher solve her financial problems-by fixing a horse race. In the end, though, it became the magical story now known to children the world over. In 1996 a film version of Matilda was released. <P> At school, Matilda befriends her teacher, Miss Jennifer Honey, who is astonished by Matilda's intellectual abilities. She tries to move her into a higher class, but is refused by her headmistress Miss Agatha Trunchbull. The novel was made into the film Matilda in 1996. It was directed by Danny DeVito and starred Mara Wilson as Matilda. Although the film was not a box office success, it received critical acclaim at the time of its release, and holds a fresh rating of 90% on Rotten Tomatoes. <P> About This Book. The Trunchbull is no match for Matilda! Matilda is a sweet, exceptional young girl, but her parents think she's just a nuisance. She expects school to be different but there she has to face Miss Trunchbull, a kid-hating terror of a headmistress. Roald Dahl. Roald Dahl, one of the greatest story-tellers of all time, started writing after nearly dying in a plane crash in World War II. His first children's novel, James and the Giant Peach, was followed by an unbroken string of hugely successful, best-selling titles. <P> Protagonist Matilda is a young girl of unusual precocity, but often ill-treated by her father or neglected by her mother. In retaliation, she pulls pranks such as gluing her father's hat to his head, hiding a friend's parrot in the chimney to simulate a burglar or ghost, and secretly bleaching her father's hair. The novel was made into the film Matilda in 1996. It was directed by Danny DeVito and starred Mara Wilson as Matilda. Although the film was not a box office success, it received critical acclaim at the time of its release, and holds a fresh rating of 90% on Rotten Tomatoes. <P> In honour of Roald Dahl, Gibraltar Post issued a set of four stamps in 2010 featuring Quentin Blake 's original illustrations for four of the children's books written by Dahl during his long career; The BFG, The Twits, Charlie and the Chocolate Factory and Matilda. Roald Dahl died on 23 November 1990, at the age of 74 of a blood disease, myelodysplastic syndrome, in Oxford, and was buried in the cemetery at St Peter and St Paul's Church in Great Missenden, Buckinghamshire, England. <P> Matilda is a genius: by age four she has read all the books in the children's section of her local library, and moved on to Dickens, Austen, and Hemingway. She can also do advanced math in her head and has a sophisticated understanding of the world. Matilda is an excellent book by the famous author, Roald Dahl, who also wrote Charlie and the Chocolate Factory, James and the Giant Peach and The Twits. Matilda is on the Premiers reading challenge and its ID is 252 <P> Matilda Wormwood is only five years old, but she is a genius. Unfortunately her parents are too stupid to even notice. Worse, her horrible headmistress Miss Trunchbull is a bully who makes life difficult for Matilda's teacher, Miss Honey, and her friends. At first, Matilda was a wicked girl who eventually used her powers to help her teacher solve her financial problems-by fixing a horse race. In the end, though, it became the magical story now known to children the world over. In 1996 a film version of Matilda was released. <P> Matilda is a children's novel by British author Roald Dahl. It was published in 1988 by Jonathan Cape in London, with 232 pages and illustrations by the notable illustrator Quentin Blake. The novel was made into the film Matilda in 1996. It was directed by Danny DeVito and starred Mara Wilson as Matilda. Although the film was not a box office success, it received critical acclaim at the time of its release, and holds a fresh rating of 90% on Rotten Tomatoes.
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children's novel
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how long does it take to get a background check back for a job
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<P> As background checks differ from company-to-company, the time frame may differ at all points in time. Generally, one can receive a complete background check report within 1-3 business day(s) though if it includes a complete criminal records check, it may take 3-7 week days. This is because educational institutions, courts and government agencies usually take enough time to get back with required details. <P> I am sure I passed it as I have no crime etc and the job does not have a thorough long background check like a bank or government job and it is not a very high up job, but I wanna make sure. The background check probably consists of crime check, employer references, drug test, education check (I doubt credit check). <P> Advertisements. I was hired by a company pending a background check. I filled out everything on Monday night, the 2nd. On the morning of Tuesday the 3rd I was told that it was submitted and that they would get back to me once the results are in. Now it's Friday morning 10:30 AM. Originally Posted by fortwashingtonkid. I was hired by a company pending a background check. I filled out everything on Monday night, the 2nd. On the morning of Tuesday the 3rd I was told that it was submitted and that they would get back to me once the results are in. Now it's Friday morning 10:30 AM. <P> Common reasons for delay. According to A Matter of Fact, the most common reason for delay in completing background checks is when employers do not fill out background check request forms accurately and completely, and when they fail to get the authorization and release forms signed by the job applicant. Most employers, particularly small-and medium-sized companies, outsource background checks to consumer reporting agencies. These agencies are generally very fast, but the time it takes the check to come back to the employer depends on a number of factors. <P> If the new job is contigent on something (such as a background check), don't give notice until it's done, because if something does turn up and they decide not to hire you because of it, you could find yourself either with no job, or begging for your old job back. Offers involving 12-18 month background checks do occur. If you pass the interviews and then they start one of those background checks, you might even take another job while waiting for that background check to complete. <P> A common question is How long does a background check take?. In most cases employment background check reports are complete in one to three business days from the time we receive the order. Patience when doing employment background checks can significantly reduce the risk of a bad hire! The idea of an instant background check sounds great. However, a quality background takes some effort and time. It takes time to identify, locate, and contact the correct court, employer, school, or licensing agency. <P> How long does it take to do a background check. The time it takes to complete background checks is dependent on a lot of factors and usually varies from one company to another. For most positions, the norm seems to be around 24 to 36 hours. Any candidate employee worth his salt would know that passing a pre-employment background check is the make-or-break deal when it comes to getting a job. This is the part where the company screens out unfavorables, or candidates who might compromise other employees’ safety or the company’s overall image. <P> Average time. Most background checks can be completed between three days to one week. According to the University of Berkeley, FBI checks usually take around 30 days. Although some instant background checks are available, these rely on databases that can be incomplete or inaccurate. Most employers, particularly small-and medium-sized companies, outsource background checks to consumer reporting agencies. These agencies are generally very fast, but the time it takes the check to come back to the employer depends on a number of factors.
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Generally 1-3 business day(s), for criminal record check it may take 3-7 week days.
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how to treat an infected hair follicle at home
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<P> Points to Consider. Infected Hair Follicle or Folliculitis is a very common condition that could affect the areas of our skin which has hair growth on it. Usually, this condition clears by itself after 7 to 10 days. <P> Ingrown hairs may be removed with sterilized tweezers. Oral antibiotics may be required to treat an infected hair follicle. Using a sharp razor can help prevent hair follicles from becoming infected. Infected hair follicles can usually be dealt with by using a razor. Topical antibiotics can be used to treat infected hair follicles. Clean skin helps prevent hair follicles from getting infected. <P> When the follicles are injured, they are more likely to become infected. You are more likely to get folliculitis if you: 1 Use a hot tub, whirlpool, or swimming pool that is not properly treated with chlorine. 2 Wear tight clothes. 3 Use or work with substances that can irritate or block the follicles. <P> Folliculitis is a condition where the hair follicles or hair roots get infected. Under such conditions, the hair follicles get inflamed, the skin around the hair follicles becomes red and white-headed pimples appear on the surface. Such conditions can occur in any part of the body. In severe cases, folliculitis can cause scars and/or even permanent hair loss. Folliculitis home remedy or remedies range from treating the infected hair follicles with a topical antiseptic, hot compressors, topical antibiotic or ointment to antifungal medications. Discover a list of home remedies for folliculitis in the list below <P> The medical term for an infected hair follicle is folliculitis, which is often associated with shaving. According to MayoClinic.com, folliculitis develops when bacteria enters one or more hair follicles. Folliculitis first develops as a red bump around the hair follicle. If left untreated, the infection can worsen, causing inflammation, pain and weeping. Treating the infected hair follicles requires lifestyle changes and products to resolve the infection, reduce the inflammation and calm the skin <P> Infected hair follicle – Pictures, Treatment, Symptoms, Causes. Infected hair follicle on head, pictures, symptoms, causes, treatment, folliculitis pictures, images. How To Get Rid Of Dark Pores On The Legs – Multicultural Beauty. The hair follicle opening becomes clogged and blocked with oil and dead skin cells. One thing you can do is to stop shaving. <P> Infected Hair Follicle Home Remedy. Home remedy for Folliculitis is usually effective in the initial stages of the disorder. This is especially true in case of mild Folliculitis. According to the University Of Maryland Medical Center, the infected region should be washed with soap and water. There are many treatments for infected hair follicle that can provide relief to a Folliculitis patient. These can effectively diagnose and control the causes as well as symptoms of hair follicle infection. <P> Folliculitis is an infection of the hair follicles in the skin. It is a common problem that is not usually serious. Tiny pus-filled spots (pustules) develop at the base of a hair, often in crops. Mild cases often resolve without treatment. Sometimes, antibiotic creams or tablets are needed. Folliculitis means an inflammation or infection of the hair follicles of the skin. Most of the skin is covered with tiny hairs which grow out of hair follicles. In folliculitis, many hair follicles in one area of the skin are affected. The affected hair follicles swell into small pus-filled pimples. <P> Treatment of Infected Hair Follicle. Treatment of folliculitis or infected hair follicles depends on the severity of infection (symptoms) and location of the infection. If folliculitis is mild and symptoms are not severe, usually no treatment is required.
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Using a sharp razor can help prevent hair follicles from becoming infected. Infected hair follicles can usually be dealt with by using a razor.Topical antibiotics can be used to treat infected hair follicles.Clean skin helps prevent hair follicles from getting infected.
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what is the purpose of moral rights to copyright laws
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<P> By Nicholas Wells. In the world of intellectual property—specifically copyright—moral rights are a special set of rights that are owned by the author or creator of a work by virtue of their role as the author or creator. Lawyer-assisted, $ 295 fixed-fee copyright applications. The economic rights let someone sell access to a creative work, or otherwise exploit it for profit. The moral rights let someone control how a creative work is used in non-economic ways. There are two major moral rights under the U.S. Copyright Act. <P> The Visual Artists Rights Act of 1990 is the clearest application of moral rights in U.S. law. VARA provides moral rights protections to visual creative works such as photographs, paintings, drawings and sculpture. The works must be of recognized stature and exist as a single copy or in limited production. The category of moral rights is not as well-defined in law as intellectual property rights. Moral rights restrict uses of an author's work that would adversely affect the reputation of a living author. <P> Different Types of Rights. Most national copyright laws recognize two different types of rights within copyright: Moral rights and economic rights. Moral rights refer to the idea that a copyrighted work is an expression of the personality and humanity of its author or creator. Copyright is a form of Intellectual Property, along with trademarks and patents in all countries, and other creations (such as trade secrets, sui generis database rights, rights of publicity and the like) that may vary from country to country. <P> Both international and U.S. copyright laws, however, also provide for “moral rights”. The purpose of economic rights are to provide some money – payment for rights in copyright – to the author/copyright owner. The purpose of moral rights is to protect the personality or reputation of an author (and not necessarily the owner) of a copyright-protected work. VARA gives visual artists the right to claim authorship in their work, and to prevent the use of their name in association with a work. In addition, artists are granted the right to prevent the intentional distortion, mutilation or other objectionable modification of their works. <P> Moral Rights in Works of Visual Art in the U.S. When we refer to copyright law in the U.S., we are generally referring to the economic rights in copyright such as reproduction and public performance. VARA gives visual artists the right to claim authorship in their work, and to prevent the use of their name in association with a work. In addition, artists are granted the right to prevent the intentional distortion, mutilation or other objectionable modification of their works. <P> The author of a work has moral rights in relation to that work, even if the author is not the owner of the copyright in the work. Performers in a live or recorded performance are considered to be authors of their performances and have moral rights in relation to the performance. There is, however, no moral rights infringement if: 1 the author has consented to the action or omission that would otherwise infringe moral rights; or. 2 the defence of reasonableness or an exception applies. <P> Copyright laws also protect the moral rights of the author. The category of moral rights is not as well-defined in law as intellectual property rights. Moral rights restrict uses of an author's work that would adversely affect the reputation of a living author. <P> Copyright is a form of intellectual property, applicable to certain forms of creative work. Under US copyright law, legal protection attaches only to fixed representations in a tangible medium. Copyright is a legal right created by the law of a country that grants the creator of an original work exclusive rights for its use and distribution. This is usually only for a limited time. The exclusive rights are not absolute but limited by limitations and exceptions to copyright law, including fair use <P> The law chiefly defines the rights of authors known as intellectual property rights -- that is, the creative work is the property of the author, and others cannot use it without the author's permission. Copyright law also includes a category of rights known as moral rights, which protect the reputation of the author. The category of moral rights is not as well-defined in law as intellectual property rights. Moral rights restrict uses of an author's work that would adversely affect the reputation of a living author.
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To protect the personality or reputation of an author (and not necessarily the owner) of a copyright-protected work.
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what type of rhyme scheme and meter does a ballad have
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<P> Meter. Meter is the rhythm of a ballad. It describes where the emphasis is placed--what words are emphasized, and what words aren't. Almost all ballads have verses consisting of four or six lines, and use one of two basic Meters: 4-3-4-3 or 4-4-4-4. Here's an example of the 4-3-4-3 meter. Try speaking the verse out loud: <P> Form A poem that follows a certain pattern-rhyme scheme or meter-or has a certain topic/focus, or all of the above. Haiku, limericks, sonnets, and sestinas are all forms of poetry that use conventional arrangements of meter and rhyme patterns. Flyting a type of poetry that has a rhyme scheme and a meter and that heaps abuse on a person, similar to a lampoon; from the Old English and Old Norwegian folk contests in which two contenders heaped verbal abuse on each other. <P> A/B/C/B Rhyme Scheme. Another common rhyme scheme for ballads is a pattern where only the second and fourth lines of each stanza rhyme. Samuel Taylor Coleridge's The Rime of the Ancient Mariner follows this structure: It is an ancient mariner (a) And he stoppeth one of three. <P> Rhyme Scheme. A rhyme scheme is a consistent pattern of rhymes throughout a poem. The scheme used in ballad meter is one where the second and fourth lines rhyme. The pattern can be represented as: A-B-C-B, where each B represents a rhyming line. <P> is a type of poem with a ryme. Rhyme scheme is the regular pattern of rhyming words in a poem or stanza. Letters are assigned to the last word of each line of a poem to help d … ecipher a poem's rhyme scheme. <P> a ballad is a poem which includes a story, chorus, rhythm, shape and rhyme. The definition of story is an account of a real or imaginary event/the plot or succession of inci … dents of a novel, poem, drama. In a ballad you have to have a story this includes characters and what the ballad is about. <P> 1 For this type of poem, you can pick your own rhyme scheme. 2 Most commonly, though, there are four groups or stanzas, of three lines with an AAB rhyme scheme where the first two lines rhyme and the third line is different. 3 Something that makes a ballad a unique type of poem is that they have choruses. 1 Something that makes a ballad a unique type of poem is that they have choruses. 2 Typically, the third line of each stanza is the chorus, so you need to make sure that line is something that is relevant throughout the entire story, because it will be repeated many times. <P> An important feature of any ballad in print is its meter. “Ballad measure,” sometimes called “ballad stanza” or “ballad meter,” can be strictly defined as four-line stanzas usually rhyming abcb with the first and third lines carrying four accented syllables and the second and fourth carrying three. <P> A rhyme scheme is the pattern of rhymes at the end of each line of a poem or song. It is usually referred to by using letters to indicate which lines rhyme; lines designated with the same letter all rhyme with each other. Rhyme scheme is as integral to the structure of a text as rhythm, meter and length of phrase. Yet the way this happens seems more ambiguous than the way rhythm shapes a text, for example
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A rhyme scheme is a consistent pattern of rhymes throughout a poem. The scheme used in ballad meter is one where the second and fourth lines rhyme. The pattern can be represented as: A-B-C-B, where each B represents a rhyming line.The scheme used in ballad meter is one where the second and fourth lines rhyme.
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occupational illness definition
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<P> Occupational safety and health (OSH) also commonly referred to as occupational health and safety (OHS) or workplace health and safety (WHS) is an area concerned with the safety, health and welfare of people engaged in work or employment. <P> Occupational Safety and Health Definitions. An injury or illness is considered by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration to be work-related if an event or exposure in the work environment either caused or contributed to the resulting condition or significantly aggravated a pre-existing condition. Nature of injury or illness names the principal physical characteristic of a disabling condition, such as sprain/strain, cut/laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Part of body affected is directly linked to the nature of injury or illness cited, for example, back sprain, finger cut, or wrist and <P> occupational disease. n. an illness resulting from long-term employment in a particular type of work, such as black lung disease among miners, or cancer among asbestos installers. Occupational Disease. A disease resulting from exposure during employment to conditions or substances that are detrimental to health (such as black lung disease contracted by miners). <P> Occupational Illness Law & Legal Definition. An occupational illness (or disease) is defined by Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA) as, any abnormal condition or disorder, other than one resulting from an occupational injury, caused by exposure to factors associated with employment.. The law requires companies using hazardous materials to maintain Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS). The MSDS lists a particular product's ingredients, any known health hazards, precautions for safe handling, and permitted exposure limits. <P> occupational disease, a disease that results from a particular type of employment, usually from the effects of long-term exposure to specific substances or continuous or repetitive physical acts. occupational disease, n a disease that results from a particular employment, usually from the effects of long-term exposure to specific substances or from the continuous or repetitive physical acts. 1 Facebook. 2 Twitter. <P> Occupational Disease Law & Legal Definition. Occupational disease is any ailment that occurs as a result of work or any occupational activity. An occupational disease is identified when it is shown that it is more prevalent in a given body of workers than in the general population, or any other worker populations. <P> An “occupational disease” is any disease contracted primarily as a result of an exposure to risk factors arising from work activity. “Work-related diseases” have multiple causes, where factors in the work environment may play a role, together with other risk factors, in the development of such diseases. <P> It is an aspect of occupational safety and health. An occupational disease is typically identified when it is shown that it is more prevalent in a given body of workers than in the general population, or in other worker populations. Therefore the term work-related diseases is utilized to describe diseases of occupational origin. This term however would then include both compensable and non-compensable diseases that have occupational origins.
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it is an injury or illness considered by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration to be work-related if an event or exposure in the work environment either caused or contributed to the resulting condition or significantly aggravated a pre-existing condition.
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why was the malleus maleficarum written
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<P> The Malleus Maleficarum (The Hammer of the Witches) is a witch-hunting manual written in 1486 by Heinrich Kramer, an Inquisitor of the Catholic Church, and first published in Germany, where it is known as Der Hexenhammer, in 1487. The chief crimes witches are accused of in the Malleus Maleficarum are the working of evil magic and making a Deal with the Devil in order to obtain this power. Women are, of course, more susceptible to The Devil due to their more carnal nature. <P> translated by Montague Summers [1928]. This is the best known (i.e., the most infamous) of the witch-hunt manuals. Written in Latin, the Malleus was first submitted to the University of Cologne on May 9th, 1487. The title is translated as The Hammer of Witches. Written by James Sprenger and Henry Kramer (of which little is known), the Malleus remained in use for three hundred years. It had tremendous influence in the witch trials in England and on the continent. <P> The Malleus Maleficarum (Hammer of Witches) is a detailed and accurate guide to how the Inquisition ran a Witch trial. Written by two respected inquisitors and enthusiastically endorsed by the Pope, the Malleus lay on the bench of every Witch hunter in Europe. Its detailed descriptions of sabbats and covens spread the fear of Witches throughout Europe, dramatically increasing the number of Witch trials. Not!!! <P> It was written in 1486 by Heinrich Kramer and Jacob Sprenger, and was first published in Germany in 1487. Its main purpose was to challenge all arguments against the existence of witchcraft and to instruct magistrates on how to identify, interrogate and convict witches. The papal bull, which appeared at the beginning of the book, could rightly be said to be misleading, because it addresses Kramer’s and Sprenger’s authorities as Inquisitors in certain lands, not the creation of the Malleus Maleficarum. The Catholic Encyclopedia states “Innocent’s Bull enacted nothing new. <P> The Malleus Maleficarum drew on earlier sources such as Johannes Nider 's treatise Formicarius, written 1435/37. The book became the handbook for secular courts throughout Renaissance Europe, but was not used by the Inquisition, which even cautioned against relying on the work. Jacob Sprenger is also often attributed as an author, but some scholars now believe that he became associated with the Malleus Maleficarum largely as a result of Kramer's wish to lend his book as much official authority as possible. <P> For the song by AFI, see Black Sails in the Sunset. The Malleus Maleficarum (commonly rendered into English as Hammer of [the] Witches; Der Hexenhammer in German) is a treatise on the prosecution of witches, written in 1486 by Heinrich Kramer, a German Catholic clergyman. The book was first published in Speyer, Germany, in 1487. Jacob Sprenger is also often attributed as an author, but some scholars now believe that he became associated with the Malleus Maleficarum largely as a result of Kramer's wish to lend his book as much official authority as possible. <P> The Malleus Maleficarum often makes reference to the Bible and Aristotelian thought, and it is heavily influenced by the philosophical tenets of Neo-Platonism. It also mentions astrology and astronomy, which had recently been reintroduced to the West by the ancient works of Pythagoras. Jacob Sprenger is also often attributed as an author, but some scholars now believe that he became associated with the Malleus Maleficarum largely as a result of Kramer's wish to lend his book as much official authority as possible. <P> Thus has it been said that The Malleus Maleficarum is one of the most blood-soaked works in human history, in that its very existence reinforced and validated Catholic beliefs which led to the prosecution, torture, and murder, of tens of thousands of innocent people. At the height of its popularity, The Malleus Maleficarum was surpassed in public notoriety only by The Bible. Its effects were even felt in the New World, where the last gasp of the Inquisition was felt in the English settlements in America (most notably in Salem, Massachusetts during the Salem Witch Trials). <P> The Malleus Maleficarum, written in 1486 - 1487 in Latin, is also known as The Hammer of Witches, a translation of the title. Its writing is credited to two German Dominican monks, Heinrich Kramer and Jacob Sprenger. The two were also theology professors. Background to the Malleus Maleficarum. During the 9th through 13th centuries, the church had established and enforced penalties for witchcraft. Originally, these were based on the church's assertion that witchcraft was a superstition and thus belief in witchcraft was not in accord with the church's theology. <P> from MalleusMaleficvarum Website. recovered through WayBackMachine Website. The Malleus Maleficarum (The Witch Hammer), first published in 1486, is arguably one of the most infamous books ever written, due primarily to its position and regard during the Middle Ages. At the height of its popularity, The Malleus Maleficarum was surpassed in public notoriety only by The Bible. Its effects were even felt in the New World, where the last gasp of the Inquisition was felt in the English settlements in America (most notably in Salem, Massachusetts during the Salem Witch Trials).
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Chief crimes witches are accused of in the Malleus Maleficarum are the working of evil magic and making a Deal with the Devil in order to obtain this power.
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when did ancient greece civilization begin
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<P> Report Abuse. Ancient Greek civilization began around 1600 BC, at Mycenae and in Crete. It ended with the annexation of Greece by Rome in 146 BC. It was at its height around 431 BC, when the Peloponnesian War between Sparta and Athens began. <P> The term ancient Greece refers to the periods of Greek history in Classical Antiquity, lasting ca. 750 BC[1] (the archaic period) to 146 BC (the Roman conquest). It is generally considered to be the seminal culture which provided the foundation of Western Civilization. <P> Ancient Greece, lasting ca. 750 BC[1] (the archaic period) to 146 BC (the Roman conquest). wrong,Ancient Greek Civilization starts from the Minoic Era,around 3.000 bc and then continues through Roman and Byzantine Empire,then revied during the Reinaince. <P> Ancient Greece was a civilization belonging to a period of Greek history that lasted from the Archaic period of the 8th to 6th centuries BC to the end of antiquity (c. 600 AD). <P> Where Western civilisation began. Ancient Greece is called 'the birthplace of Western civilisation'. About 2500 years ago, the Greeks created a way of life that other people admired and copied. The Romans copied Greek art and Greek gods, for example. <P> The term Ancient, or Archaic, Greece refers to the time three centuries before the classical age, between 800 B.C. and 500 B.C.—a relatively sophisticated period in world history. Archaic Greece saw advances in art, poetry and technology, but most of all it was the age in which the polis, or city-state, was invented.
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Around 1600 BC.
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what is colic horses
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<P> Colic is the number one medical cause of death in horses. Technically, colic refers to pain in a horse’s abdomen, although colic episodes typically reflect conditions of the horse’s colon. <P> Equine colic is a relatively common disorder of the digestive system. Although the term colic, in the true definition of the word, simply means “abdominal pain,” the term in horses refers to a condition of severe abdominal discomfort characterized by pawing, rolling, and sometimes the inability to defecate. <P> My Horse University. Colic: Causes and Symptoms. Colic is defined as any abdominal pain although horse owners typically refer to colic as problems with the gastro-intestinal tract. The causes of colic are numerous, but generally they are related to the anatomy and the microflora of the horse's gastro <P> Colic in horses is defined as abdominal pain, but it is a clinical sign rather than a diagnosis. The term colic can encompass all forms of gastrointestinal conditions which cause pain as well as other causes of abdominal pain not involving the gastrointestinal tract. <P> All colics begin with mild pain and subtle symptoms. If the horse is lucky, it will be a mild colic and resolve on its own or with moderate treatment from a veterinarian. However, the first clinical signs might be an early stage of a life-threatening colic that will eventually require extensive treatment or surgery. <P> Colic indicates a painful problem in a horse's abdomen. Horses are naturally prone to colic and many types of colic cannot be prevented. However, there are some relatively simple steps that can be taken to reduce the risk of colic in your horse. <P> Colic remains a major cause of sickness and death in horses. Approximately 10 percent of all horses suffer at least one bout of colic during their lifetimes. And a little more than 6 percent of those die, nearly twice as many horses as are affected by other diseases or injuries. Here, we’ll focus on what to do while you’re waiting for the veterinarian to arrive. <P> In reality, colic is often a direct result of diet, and is often preventable. Some types of colic in horses include: 1 Idiopathic. 2 No root cause determined. ( 3 over 80% of all colics). 4 Impaction. 5 The result of an accumulation in a horse’s colon of sand, dirt, feed, or other indigestible material. <P> First of all, do not allow the horse to eat. In severe colic, the horse will not want to eat, but in a mild colic or during periods of low pain, the horse might attempt to eat. Although interest in feed is a good sign, it could make the colic more severe or interfere with oral treatments.
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It means “abdominal pain”.
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how to define the length height and width for surface area of a triangular prism
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<P> Calculations for a rectangular prism: 1. Given the length, width and height find the volume, surface area and diagonal of a rectangular prism. 1 h, l and w are known; find V, S and d. 2 V = lwh. 3 S = 2(lw + lh + wh). 4 d = √(l 2 + w 2 + h 2). 3. Given the volume, length and width find the height, surface area, and diagonal of a rectangular prism. 1 V, l and w are known; find h, S and d. 2 h = V / lw. 3 S = 2(lw + lh + wh). <P> Again, the basic formula is V = Ah, or volume equals the area of the base times the height. However, the formula for the area of a triangle is A = 1/2 ab, where a is the distance from 1 of the triangle's vertices to its opposite side, and b is the length of that side (its base). By substituting this into the equation for A, the formula for the volume of a triangular prism is V = 1/2 abh. 1 You may be more familiar with the triangle area formula as A = 1/2 bh, where b is the base of the triangle, and h refers to its height. 5. Divide the volume by the product of the length and width (area) of the base. This is 64 divided by 16, or 4 units. (Height is also a distance measure.). 1 The volume could also have been divided by first the length (64 divided by 8, making 8) and then by the width (8 divided by 2), again making 4 units. <P> 2. Given the surface area, length and width find the height, volume and diagonal of a rectangular prism. 1 S, l and w are known; find h, V and d. 2 h = (S - 2lw) / (2l + 2w). 3 V = lwh. 4 d = √(l 2 + w 2 + h 2). 3. Given the volume, length and width find the height, surface area, and diagonal of a rectangular prism. 1 V, l and w are known; find h, S and d. 2 h = V / lw. 3 S = 2(lw + lh + wh). <P> H = Volume/Area of base. Where, Area of base = length of base x width of base. For example: Find the height of a rectangular prism with volume = 70 cm and length and width of base equal to 7 and 5 cm respectively. Solution: Volume of prism = 70 cm. Area of base = length of base x width of base. <P> In this case, our rectangle has a width and it has a length, like so -- and we have three. Simplify that up a little bit and we end up with base times height plus three rectanlges. And that is how you find the volume and surface area of an isoceles triangular prism. Thanks for watching! In this case, the area of the base is going to be a triangle, and the formula for the area of a triangle is one half base times height. In this case, the base is going to be the distance from here to here -- we will call that the width -- and the height will be the distance from here to here. <P> Surface Area. Rectangular Prism The surface area S.A. of a rectangular prism with base l, width w, and height h is the sum of the areas of its faces. S.A. = 2lh + 2lw + 2hw Practice Problem 1 Find the surface area of the rectangular prism shown to the right <P> The length of each side is 8inches and the width of each side is 6 inches. What is the surface area of the prism?Solution:164 in 2 Example B A triangular prism has a triangular end with a base of 8 feet and a height of 6 feet. What is the surface area of the prism?Solution: 228 ft 2 Example C A triangular prism has a triangular end with a base of 12 inches and a height of 9 inches. The length of each side is14 inches and the width of each side is 9 inches. <P> The length of each side is 10 feetand the width of each side is 6 feet. What is the surface area of the prism?Solution: 228 ft 2 Example C A triangular prism has a triangular end with a base of 12 inches and a height of 9 inches. The length of each side is14 inches and the width of each side is 9 inches.
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S.A. = 2lh + 2lw + 2hw
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actor who played count dooku
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<P> Remembering the iconic actor who played one of Star Wars ' greatest villains. Legendary actor Sir Christopher Lee, who played the evil Sith Lord Count Dooku in Attack of the Clones (2002) and Revenge of the Sith (2005), died on Sunday in London at age 93. <P> Christopher Lee, the British actor who mastered horror and Dracula roles before his turns as a Bond villain and the wizard Saruman in the Lord of the Rings trilogy, died June 7, a London borough spokesman said. He was 93. <P> Sir Christopher Frank Carandini Lee, CBE, CStJ (May 27, 1922 – June 7, 2015) was the actor who played Count Dooku /Darth Tyranus in Star Wars: Episode II Attack of the Clones and Star Wars: Episode III Revenge of the Sith, and performed the same character's voice in the Star Wars: The Clone Wars film. <P> Michael Donovan. Count Dooku, one of the villains in the Star Wars prequel trilogy and much like the Star Wars prequel trilogy itself has given fans mixed feelings. In the movies he was played by famous screen actor Christopher Lee however this is for the voice actors whom have played Dooku. <P> 290. 0. Christopher Lee, the actor who made a career out of playing villains, has passed away at the age of 93. To an older generation he's known best for playing Count Dracula from the 50s and 70s, as well as Scaramanga in the James Bond film The Man With the Golden Gun. <P> 15 photos: Legendary actor Christopher Lee. Christopher Lee, the British actor who mastered horror roles before his turns as a James Bond villain and the wizard Saruman in The Lord of the Rings trilogy, died Sunday, June 7, a London borough spokesman said. The actor was 93.
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Sir Christopher Lee.
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how much for an eye test
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<P> 1 The cost varies depending upon the clinic and region of the country. 2 Lakewood Family Eye Care clinic, in Lakewood Ranch, Fla., charges $109 for an eye exam for those without insurance. 3 Discount clinics, such as those at WalMart, can charge as little as $50 for an eye exam. 1 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 2 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 3 Some clinics have a separate charge for retraction, a test that determines the patient's prescription. 4 This varies by clinic, ranging from $15 to $40 at the Main Line Eye Specialists <P> Generally, eye exam costs can range from less than $50 (usually at a retail store or optical chain) to $100 or more (usually at a medical clinic or private eye doctor's office). Also, eye exams for contact lenses nearly always cost more than routine eye exams to update your eyeglasses prescription. When comparing how much an eye exam costs, be sure you are comparing apples to apples.. A comprehensive eye exam should include at least the following: The cost of an eye exam can vary significantly, based on where you get your exam and other factors, including: 1 Whether the exam is performed by an optometrist or an ophthalmologist. 2 The tests that are included in the exam. 3 Whether the exam includes a contact lens fitting or other contact lens-related services. <P> Standard eye test costs at high street opticians. To give you an idea of how much the offers above will save you, here's a round-up of prices at some of the leading high street opticians : This is a rundown of all the current free eye test deals, incl Tesco's ongoing free offer. Remember if you're under 16 (or up to 19 and in full-time education) or over 60, you're already entitled to free eye-tests on the NHS. And if you live in Scotland, EVERYONE gets free eye tests. <P> could add years to your sight. The process of an eye test is very simple and thorough. We recommend you have your eyes checked by a specialist at least every 2 years, or more frequently if recommended by your optician. The eye examination not only provides an accurate assessment of your ability to see, but also gauges the general health of your eyes. Once your eye test has been completed, your results will be handed over to an associate to help you choose the right glasses. At Vision Express we have a wide range of frames and lenses to choose from, suiting many different style and budgets. We will help you choose the correct frame and lenses for your prescription <P> Book your eye test appointment today. In just three easy steps you can book an eye test and help your vision last a lifetime: 1 Find your local Vision Express store by entering your postcode. 2 Tell us which dates and times would be most convenient for you, at the store of your choice <P> 1 The national average charge for an eye exam is $114 for those without insurance, according to the Vision Service Plan. 2 The cost varies depending upon the clinic and region of the country. 3 Lakewood Family Eye Care clinic, in Lakewood Ranch, Fla., charges $109 for an eye exam for those without insurance. 1 For some, the vision plan covers the full cost of a regular annual eye exam. 2 Other plans charge a copay of $5 to $35. 3 Some clinics have a separate charge for retraction, a test that determines the patient's prescription. 4 This varies by clinic, ranging from $15 to $40 at the Main Line Eye Specialists
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Generally, eye exam costs can range from less than $50 to $100 or more.
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how much does it cost to add on a screen room
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<P> Shopping for a sunroom: 1 Building an addition isn't the only cost; furniture and other decorating touches such as curtains or artwork can add $250-$1,000 to a simple screened porch and $1,000-$10,000 for interior-quality decor (to match the rest of the home) in a three-or four-season sunroom. <P> 1 Nationwide, average regional prices range from $66,046 -$83,463 to custom-build a 200-square-foot four-season sunroom addition from the ground up, with a slab foundation, post-and-beam framing, insulation, glass windows with screens, window shades, a ceiling fan and a tile floor, according to Remodeling Magazine. <P> However, homewyse.com states the cost to add a screened in porch in 2013 runs about $4.74-$6.83 per square foot, a cost that takes into consideration the average price of materials and hourly labor wages. <P> 1 The total cost for a screened-in porch on a existing deck will be between $1,157 and $1,374 or an average cost of $6.33 per square feet. <P> Really expensive Sun Rooms might add some value (stick-built type) but then again, perhaps less than 50 cents of the construction cost-perhaps less. So you spend $50,000 putting a pretty amazing Sun Room on your home, and it increases the value of your home only incrementally-perhaps $25,000. <P> 1 The total cost for a basic 200-square-foot screened-in porch will range from $766 to $1,025 or an average cost of $4.48 per square feet. 2 The cost of materials for a top-of-the-line screened-in porch on an existing deck runs between $860 and $1,070 with an installation cost between $297 and $304. <P> 1 Building an addition isn't the only cost; furniture and other decorating touches such as curtains or artwork can add $250-$1,000 to a simple screened porch and $1,000-$10,000 for interior-quality decor (to match the rest of the home) in a three-or four-season sunroom. <P> The cost of an addition varies widely depending on the type of room and where you live. But just to give you a sense of how much it might cost, CostHelper.com estimates that adding a bathroom or bedroom could run from $25,000 to $50,000. A bedroom could easily cost just as much. <P> 1 The cost of materials for a basic 200-square-foot screened-in porch on an existing deck in most urban areas should run between $470 and $680 with an installation cost between $296 and $345. <P> Or, if you are building a screen porch, the salesman may suggest building a Sun Room instead, on the premise that you will get more use out of it and that the incremental cost is not that great, and it will add value to your home.
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$250 to $1000
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mystical spirituality definition
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<P> Spirituality may refer to almost any kind of meaningful activity, personal growth, or blissful experience. Traditionally, spirituality refers to a process of re-formation of the personality but there is no single, agreed-upon definition of spirituality. Jihad is a religious duty of Muslims. In Arabic, the word jihād translates as a noun meaning struggle. There are two commonly accepted meanings of jihad: an inner spiritual struggle and an outer physical struggle. <P> The term ‘mysticism,’ comes from the Greek μυω, meaning “to conceal.” In the Hellenistic world, ‘mystical’ referred to “secret” religious rituals. In early Christianity the term came to refer to “hidden” allegorical interpretations of Scriptures and to hidden presences, such as that of Jesus at the Eucharist. An example of apophatic mysticism is in the classical Tao text, Tao Te Ching, attributed to Lao Tsu (6 th century B.C.E.), which begins with the words, “Even the finest teaching is not the Tao itself. Even the finest name is insufficient to define it. <P> T hat which is spiritual is sacred and the concept of sacred is interchangeable with the concept of holy-a word derived from an Old English word meaning, whole and perfect in goodness. A religious person may be spiritual, but a spiritual person is not necessarily religious. <P> What is real spirituality but the art of union with Reality? Mysticism is a particularly focused part of spirituality; the mystic is a person who aims at and believes in the attainment of such union. Mysticism, and spirituality in general, seems to rise during times of intense change and stress. Add the sufficiency of current shadows and the breakdown of all certainties, and we have the ingredients for the current universal pursuit of spiritual realities. <P> The privatisation of mysticism – that is, the increasing tendency to locate the mystical in the psychological realm of personal experiences – serves to exclude it from political issues as social justice. In the widest sense, mysticism is every guidance to the immediate awareness of what is not reached by either perception or conception, or generally by any knowledge. The mystic is opposed to the philosopher by the fact that he begins from within, whereas the philosopher begins from without. <P> Mysticism is a constellation of distinctive practices, discourses, texts, institutions, traditions, and experiences aimed at human transformation, variously defined in different traditions.. The term mysticism has Ancient Greek origins with various historically determined meanings. In the widest sense, mysticism is every guidance to the immediate awareness of what is not reached by either perception or conception, or generally by any knowledge. The mystic is opposed to the philosopher by the fact that he begins from within, whereas the philosopher begins from without. <P> In modern times, mysticism has acquired a limited definition, with broad applications, as meaning the aim at the union with the Absolute, the Infinite, or God. This limited definition has been applied to a wide range of religious traditions and practices, valuing mystical experience as a key element of mysticism. In the widest sense, mysticism is every guidance to the immediate awareness of what is not reached by either perception or conception, or generally by any knowledge. The mystic is opposed to the philosopher by the fact that he begins from within, whereas the philosopher begins from without. <P> Noun. 1. mysticism-a religion based on mystical communion with an ultimate reality. religious mysticism. faith, religion, religious belief-a strong belief in a supernatural power or powers that control human destiny; he lost his faith but not his morality. 1. the principles, doctrines, and practices of mysticism. 2. the interpretation of mysteries, as the Eleusinian. — mystagogue, n. — mystagogic, mystagogical, adj. mystagogue. a teacher of mystical doctrines. omphalopsychism. the practice of staring at one’s navel to induce a mystical trance. Also called omphaloskepsis. <P> Spirituality has been defined in numerous ways, including a belief in a power operating in the universe that is greater than oneself, a sense of interconnectedness with all living creatures, and an awareness of the purpose and meaning of life and the development of personal, values. <P> mystical. adjective mys·ti·cal \ˈmis-ti-kəl\. Tweet. : having a spiritual meaning that is difficult to see or understand. : of or relating to mystics or mysticism: resulting from prayer or deep thought.
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Mysticism has acquired a limited definition, with broad applications, as meaning the aim at the union with the Absolute, the Infinite, or God.This limited definition has been applied to a wide range of religious traditions and practices, valuing mystical experience as a key element of mysticism.
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what is nmr
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<P> Nuclear Magnetic Resonance was first experimentally observed in late 1945, nearly simultaneously by the research groups of Felix Bloch, at Stanford University and Edward Purcell at Harvard University. The first NMR spectra were first published in the same issue of Physical Review in January of 1946. <P> Uses of NMR spectroscopy. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is an analytical chemistry technique used in quality control and reserach for determining the content and purity of a sample as well as its molecular structure. For example, NMR can quantitatively analyze mixtures containing known compounds. <P> Over the past fifty years nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, commonly referred to as nmr, has become the preeminent technique for determining the structure of organic compounds. <P> The basis of NMR. The principle behind NMR is that many nuclei have spin and all nuclei are electrically charged. If an external magnetic field is applied, an energy transfer is possible between the base energy to a higher energy level (generally a single energy gap). <P> Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) is a physical phenomenon in which nuclei in a magnetic field absorb and re-emit electromagnetic radiation. <P> This page describes what a proton NMR spectrum is and how it tells you useful things about the hydrogen atoms in organic molecules. The background to NMR spectroscopy Nuclear magnetic resonance is concerned with the magnetic properties of certain nuclei. <P> This page describes what a C-13 NMR spectrum is and how it tells you useful things about the carbon atoms in organic molecules. The background to C-13 NMR spectroscopy Nuclear magnetic resonance is concerned with the magnetic properties of certain nuclei. <P> Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, most commonly known as NMR spectroscopy, is a research technique that exploits the magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei. It determines the physical and chemical properties of atoms or the molecules in which they are contained.
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Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is an analytical chemistry technique used in quality control and reserach for determining the content and purity of a sample as well as its molecular structure.
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gutters estimate cost
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<P> 1 Expect to pay around $3-$5 a lineal foot to have someone install vinyl (PVC) gutters, or about $360-$600 for 120 feet and $750-$1,250 for 250 feet. 2 Vinyl gutters are a fairly simple do-it-yourself project; material alone run about $50-$100 for 120 feet and $90-$180 for 250 feet. 1 Copper gutters are low maintenance and do not rust; they tend to be a custom project at a $15-$25 a foot or $1,800-$3,000 for 120 feet and $3,750-$6,250 for 250 feet. 2 Copper develops a patina as it ages. <P> According to HomeInspectorLocator.com the average price to install galvanized or aluminum gutters is approximately $4 to $9 per linear foot. There are also vinyl gutters which are much easier to install, and which run at roughly $3 to $5 per linear foot. <P> The downside is the added cost. Paying someone for their services will add to the bottom line. The estimate for a contractor to replace a gutter and downspout section that measures 50 feet is about $509 for an experienced contractor. Note that this estimate does include materials in addition to labor, so it's the sum total for the 50-foot section. So, you should expect to pay roughly $5.18 per square foot. <P> Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Gutter Installation project. For a basic 60 linear feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Install Gutters ranges between $5.49 - $9.13 per linear foot. To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased <P> 1 Galvanized steel gutters are about $4-$8 installed, for a total cost around $500-$1,000 for 120 feet and $1,000-$2,000 for 250 feet. 2 Steel runs $8-$10 a foot, or $960-$1,200 for 120 feet and $2,000-$2,500 for 240 feet. 1 Copper gutters are low maintenance and do not rust; they tend to be a custom project at a $15-$25 a foot or $1,800-$3,000 for 120 feet and $3,750-$6,250 for 250 feet. 2 Copper develops a patina as it ages. <P> Material costs for steel gutters would run you $2,400-$3,800 for 150 feet of gutter and downspouts. Copper Gutters and Downspouts Costs: $30-$40 per linear foot. The main reason you would choose copper gutters is for aesthetic purposes. Given all the various options on aluminum gutters, they will cost you roughly $750 – $2,300 for a 150 foot project, depending on the size of gutter, gauge and attachment method you choose for your home. <P> Related articles: Gutters, Roof Repair, Window Cleaning. 1 Cleaning the gutters on a single-story 1,500-square foot house with about 160 linear feet of gutter will run $70-$200. 2 Cost for a single-story 2,000-square foot home with around 180 linear feet of gutter is about $90-$225. 1 Cleaning the gutters on a single-story 1,500-square foot house with about 160 linear feet of gutter will run $70-$200. 2 Cost for a single-story 2,000-square foot home with around 180 linear feet of gutter is about $90-$225. 3 A two-story 2,500-square foot home with 200 linear feet of gutter runs $100-$250. <P> 1 Hauling away old gutters and downspouts can add $40-$100 to the total cost; check to see if this is included in a project estimate. 1 Copper gutters are low maintenance and do not rust; they tend to be a custom project at a $15-$25 a foot or $1,800-$3,000 for 120 feet and $3,750-$6,250 for 250 feet. 2 Copper develops a patina as it ages. <P> 1 Having aluminum gutters installed averages about $4-$9 a foot plus downspouts at $5-$8 each, or $500-$1,200 for 120 feet and $1,050-$2,400 for 250 feet. 1 Copper gutters are low maintenance and do not rust; they tend to be a custom project at a $15-$25 a foot or $1,800-$3,000 for 120 feet and $3,750-$6,250 for 250 feet. 2 Copper develops a patina as it ages.
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For steel gutters total cost around $500-$1,000 for 120 feet and $1,000-$2,000 for 250 feet.
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what is a sacrum
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<P> Sacrum. The sacrum is the name of the bone located at the base of the spine that consists of five fused vertebrae. These vertebrae are unfused in children, but by the early to mid twenties, they will be fused together. <P> The sacral region (sacrum) is at the bottom of the spine and lies between the fifth segment of the lumbar spine (L5) and the coccyx (tailbone). 1 See: Lumbar Spine Anatomy and Pain. <P> The sacrum is a large wedge shaped vertebra at the inferior end of the spine. It forms the solid base of the spinal column where it intersects with the hip bones to form the pelvis. <P> The sacrum is a very strong bone that supports the weight of the upper body as it is spread across the pelvis and into the legs. <P> Sometimes referred to as the sacral spine, the sacrum is a bone found that the base of the spinal column. Composed of five different vertebrae that are fused to form a triangular or wedge shape, the sacral bone is also sometimes known as the cross bone. <P> In tetrapod anatomy, the sacrum (/ˈsaekrəm/ ˈsækrəm /or/ ; ˈseɪkrəm: plural sacra or; Sacrums latin os) sacrum is a, large triangular bone at the base of the spine and at the, upper back part of the pelvic, cavity where it is inserted like a wedge between the two hip. bones <P> The sacrum is a shield-shaped bony structure that is located at the base of the lumbar vertebrae and that is connected to the pelvis. The sacrum forms the posterior pelvic wall and strengthens and stabilizes
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The sacrum is a large wedge shaped vertebra at the inferior end of the spine.
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how important was the naacp to the civil rights movement
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<P> By the 1960s during the civil rights movements the NAACP had thousands of people involved in this organization for racial equality, and even included Rosa Parks and Martin Luther King as just a few of the members of this group. NAACP Convention, 1929 (this picutre was taken at a meeting when W.E.B. In 1908 the NAACP was formed to help create equality throughout the black and white communities, and still exists for the same purpose. It is the oldest civil rights organization and had the most impact during the civil rights movement. <P> The NAACP have played a very important part in the civil rights movement. The initials stand for the National Association for the Advancement of Coloured People. Brief early history 1909 to 1945. The NAACP was founded in 1909 by a group of multi-racial activists. It was originally called the National Negro Committee. Also in 1964, the NAACP, along with CORE and SNCC, established 30 Freedom Schools throughout Mississippi. These taught about the history of civil rights and African Americans. These schools were staffed by volunteers. Over 80 of these volunteers were beaten up and in June, 1964, three were murdered by the KKK. <P> NAACP: 100 Years of History. Founded Feb. 12. 1909, the NAACP is the nation's oldest, largest and most widely recognized grassroots-based civil rights organization. Growth. With a strong emphasis on local organizing, by 1913 the NAACP had established branch offices in such cities as Boston, Massachusetts; Baltimore, Maryland; Kansas City, Missouri; Washington, D.C.; Detroit, Michigan; and St. Louis, Missouri. <P> Throughout the south many African Americans were still denied the right to register and vote. The Civil Rights Movement of the 1950s and 1960s echoed the NAACP's goals, but leaders such as Martin Luther King Jr., of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference, felt that direct action was needed to obtain them. Growth. With a strong emphasis on local organizing, by 1913 the NAACP had established branch offices in such cities as Boston, Massachusetts; Baltimore, Maryland; Kansas City, Missouri; Washington, D.C.; Detroit, Michigan; and St. Louis, Missouri. <P> By the mid-1960s, the NAACP had regained some of its preeminence in the Civil Rights Movement by pressing for civil rights legislation. The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom took place on August 28, 1963. That fall President John F. Kennedy sent a civil rights bill to Congress before he was assassinated. 1 Borders of Equality: The NAACP and the Baltimore Civil Rights Struggle, 1914-1970. 2 Jackson, MS: University Press of Mississippi, 2013. 3 St. James, Warren D. The National Association for the Advancement of Colored People: A Case Study in Pressure Groups. <P> Though other civil rights groups emerged in the 1950s and 1960s, the NAACP retained a prominent role within the movement, co-organizing the 1963 March on Washington, and successfully lobbying for legislation that resulted in the 1964 Civil Rights Act and 1965 Voting Act. Founded in 1909, the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) today has approximately 425,000 members. In 1916, a new field secretary, James Weldon Johnson, began expanding the organization’s membership in the South. <P> Introduction. Founded in 1909, the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) was one of the earliest and most influential civil rights organization in the United States. During its early years, the NAACP focused on legal strategies designed to confront the critical civil rights issues of the day. Founded in 1909, the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) today has approximately 425,000 members. In 1916, a new field secretary, James Weldon Johnson, began expanding the organization’s membership in the South. <P> The National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) is the oldest and most recognized civil rights organization in the United States. The boycott became a springboard for the efforts of organizations such as the NAACP, Southern Christian Leadership Conference (SCLC)and Urban League to develop a national civil rights movement. <P> The Children's Crusade was important to the civil rights movement of 1963 because the children realized blacks should have the same rights as whites. When Rev. Dr. Martin Luth … er King, Jr. asked who would join him in standing up and demonstrating with him on the streets everyone but the children remained seated. Rosa Parks was important to the Civil Rights movement because she stood up for her rights unlike others who were scared. She sat in the front of the bus and refused to get up, … she was then arrested. Rosa Parks made a big difference for African Americans today.
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The NAACP have played a very important part in the civil rights movement.The NAACP was founded in 1909 by a group of multi-racial activists.It was originally called the National Negro Committee.These taught about the history of civil rights and African Americans.
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what is family locator
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<P> Peace of Mind. Life360 is available on the iPhone, Android and the Windows Phone. With hectic schedules and long to do lists, managing the day to day for your family can feel like a full time job. <P> Family Locator app keeps your family secure & connected. See the location of all family members on the map and stay in touch with instant messages. In case your kid gets lost, tapping an SOS button will immediately send you its exact GPS location. With Family Locator your family can share location safely using the one thing we always carry around – the Smartphone. It keeps you in touch and lets you see where everybody is in real-time. Show more Show less. With Family Locator your kid can Check-in to let you know he/she got to school safely. <P> Family Locator for Android. The Android Locator App not only lets you know where all of your registered family members are, but can also help locate your phone if you lose your Android device. Stay in touch with everyone in your family network with quick communication and even receive alerts when family members reach specified locations. Our iPhone Family Locator App keeps you in sync with everyone in your family network. Constant communication keeps your mind at ease by knowing your family members are safe when they reach their next location. Get the Life360 Family Locator iPhone App. <P> The Family Locator app is available on select mobile devices. Open the app store (e.g., Google Play™, BlackBerry World™, etc.) on your device and search for Verizon Family Locator. If the app appears in the search results, your device is compatible and you can download the app. Note: The Family Locator service must be added to your account with at least one family member set up as an administrator and one as a participant. Currently, Family Locator is unavailable for prepaid and business accounts. <P> Description. Keep your kids safe and let your entire family be in touch. Family Locator is the family tracker, children safety & emergency alerts app awarded by the largest parent-testing community Parent Tested Parent Approved. We are unable to find iTunes on your computer. To download the free app Family Locator-GPS Phone tracker by Sygic a. s., get iTunes now. <P> AT&T FamilyMap provides peace of mind by being able to conveniently locate a family member from your wireless phone or PC and know that your family's information is secure and private. AT&T FamilyMap has a Web browser application that allows you to locate your family members from any computer. Simply enter www.att.com/familymap into your mobile browser and sign in with the same phone number and password you use to access AT&T FamilyMap from your phone. <P> Family Locator for iPhone. The Family Locator iPhone App interface helps you quickly locate family members on a map. Open the secure FamilyChannel™ and you can chat with everyone at once. Our iPhone Family Locator App keeps you in sync with everyone in your family network. Constant communication keeps your mind at ease by knowing your family members are safe when they reach their next location. Get the Life360 Family Locator iPhone App. <P> - Sprint Family Locator SIGNAL is a free companion app for Sprint Family Locator. Put SIGNAL on your kid's phone and you'll get more accurate results fro... #9. some zoemob family locator free features - The ZoeMob Family Locator is a very accurate service to monitor your family using GPS tracking technology. A safe way to track the location of your kid... #11. <P> Yes, you can remove Family Locator from your account online: 1 Go to the Verizon Family Safeguards & Controls page in My Verizon. 2 Scroll to the Family Locator section and click View Details & Edit. 3 Click Add or Remove Members. Note: The Family Locator service must be added to your account with at least one family member set up as an administrator and one as a participant. Currently, Family Locator is unavailable for prepaid and business accounts. <P> However, you'll get more detailed results with phones that are fully compatible with Family Locator and the Family Locator app. To determine if your phone is compatible with the Family Locator app, open the app store on your phone and search for Verizon Family Locator. If the app appears in the search results, your phone is compatible. Note: The Family Locator service must be added to your account with at least one family member set up as an administrator and one as a participant. Currently, Family Locator is unavailable for prepaid and business accounts.
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It helps you quickly locate family members on a map and keeps you in sync with everyone in your family network.
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what does swiping right mean on tinder
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<P> Enter Tinder. You know the drill. Swipe left, swipe right. His first photo is him with his shirt off, and he’s not doing something active. Swipe left. It’s a mirror selfie. Swipe left. Go back to MySpace. You have to click through his profile to actually figure out which one he is <P> A Tinder profile is made up only of your first name, age, photos (of your choice) and any pages you've 'liked' on Facebook. Tinder then finds you potential matches near you (you can narrow it down by searching by age and distance) and if they take your fancy, you swipe right to 'like' them. If not, go left to 'pass'. <P> More likes than nopes. Men apparently see much more that they like on Tinder than women do. On the popular dating app, which has users swipe right to indicate they “like” a potential match and swipe left to say “nope,” men are almost three times as likely to swipe right than women are, the New York Times reports. <P> The thing about Tinder is that they don’t know which way you’ve swiped, or even if you’ve seen their pictures. If you swipe right on their profile and they swipe right on your profile the two of you ‘match’ and only then can you start sending messages to each other. <P> If you have swiped right and the other person swiped right on your profile as well, congratulations, you have just gotten yourself your first Tinder match. Now you can move to messaging that person and get to know them or decide on contacting outside of Tinder.
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If you swipe right on others tinder profile and they swipe right on your tinder profile then two of you ‘match’ and only then can you start sending messages to each other on tinder.
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who was actor called cookie
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<P> Frank Oz. Frank Oz (born Frank Richard Oznowicz; born May 25, 1944) is an English-born American director, puppeteer, actor, and filmmaker. His career began as a puppeteer, where he performed the Muppet characters of Miss Piggy and Fozzie Bear in The Muppet Show, and Cookie Monster, Bert, and Grover in Sesame Street. He is also known for being the puppeteer and voice of Yoda in the Star Wars films <P> It was during the first season that Cookie Monster got his name and began using the growly vernacular (e.g., Me eat cookie!) that would become part of his character. His signature song, C Is For Cookie , was first aired during the 1971–72 season, and became one of the best-known songs from Sesame Street. The book Jim Henson's Designs and Doodles explains Cookie Monster's origin as follows: In 1966, Henson drew three monsters that ate cookies and appeared in a General Foods commercial that featured three crunchy snack foods: Wheels, Crowns and Flutes. <P> Early Life. Wally Amos, famed entrepreneur and founder of the Famous Amos chocolate chip cookie brand, was born Wallace Amos Jr. on July 1, 1936, in Tallahassee, Florida. Following his parents' separation in 1948, Amos was sent to New York City to live with his Aunt Della, who often baked homemade chocolate chip and pecan cookies. <P> In a 2007 appearance on Martha Stewart 's TV program, Cookie Monster explained his new philosophy that Cookies are a sometimes food.. On February 10, 2008, NPR host Elizabeth Blair interviewed Cookie Monster for the All Things Considered segment In Character. The book Jim Henson's Designs and Doodles explains Cookie Monster's origin as follows: In 1966, Henson drew three monsters that ate cookies and appeared in a General Foods commercial that featured three crunchy snack foods: Wheels, Crowns and Flutes. <P> Since Sesame Street' s format changes in the 2002-2003 season, Cookie Monster has hosted a regular segment called Letter of the Day . In each episode he is presented with a cookie, upon which is written the letter of the day, in icing (and later, actual foam letters). In a 2004 Sesame Street episode, Cookie Monster revealed in song that before he started eating cookies (and became Cookie Monster), he was called Sid. In an interview with NPR, Cookie Monster explained he eats everything, demonstrating by eating his headset and a plate of broccoli <P> Edd Byrnes (born July 30, 1933) is an American actor best known for his starring role in the television series 77 Sunset Strip. In 1974, Byrnes hosted the pilots of Wheel of Fortune. As a tribute to his enduring celebrity and his iconic Kookie character, Edd Byrnes has ranked #5 in TV Guide's list of TV's 25 Greatest Teen Idols (23 January 2005 issue). <P> Judi West was born on December 15, 1942 in the USA. She is an actress, known for The Fortune Cookie (1966), A Man Called Gannon (1968) and Fantabulous Inc. (1967). She was previously married to John Rubinstein. See full bio ». <P> Oz is known for his work as a puppeteer, performing with Jim Henson 's Muppets. His characters have included Miss Piggy, Fozzie Bear, Animal, and Sam Eagle on The Muppet Show, and Grover, Cookie Monster and Bert on Sesame Street. His career began as a puppeteer, where he performed the Muppet characters of Miss Piggy and Fozzie Bear in The Muppet Show, and Cookie Monster, Bert, and Grover i <P> He took the cookie and from then on he was Cookie Monster. Cookie Monster, still unnamed, made his Sesame Street debut in the first episode, interfering with Kermit the Frog 's famous W lecture by eating a model W bit by bit. He turns it into an N, a V, and finally an I, to Kermit's frustration. The book Jim Henson's Designs and Doodles explains Cookie Monster's origin as follows: In 1966, Henson drew three monsters that ate cookies and appeared in a General Foods commercial that featured three crunchy snack foods: Wheels, Crowns and Flutes.
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Edd Byrnes.
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what does fluid mean?
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<P> Wiktionary (0.00 / 0 votes) Rate this definition: fluid (Noun). Any substance which can flow with relative ease, tends to assume the shape of its container, and obeys Bernoulli's principle; a liquid, gas or plasma. fluid (Adjective). Of, or relating to fluid. <P> Because I am a Woman. This blog is about sex-positivity, sex-ed, feminism, reproductive justice, birth justice, intersectionality, and activism. Because I am a Woman features articles, news, opinion pieces, digital media, and original information posts on all of the topics and more. <P> fluid. n. 1. (General Physics) a substance, such as a liquid or gas, that can flow, has no fixed shape, and offers little resistance to an external stress. adj. 2. (General Physics) capable of flowing and easily changing shape. n. A continuous, amorphous substance whose molecules move freely past one another and that has the tendency to assume the shape of its container; a liquid or gas. adj. 1. Of, relating to, or characteristic of a fluid. <P> Medical Definition of FLUID. : having particles that easily move and change their relative position without a separation of the mass and that easily yield to pressure: capable of flowing. Dictionary: Definition of fluid. Thesaurus: All synonyms and antonyms for fluid. Spanish Central: Spanish translation of fluid. <P> Pleural fluid analysis may be ordered when a doctor suspects that a person has a condition or disease that is causing pleuritis and/or pleural effusion. It may be ordered when someone has some combination of the following signs and symptoms 1 : Chest pain that worsens with deep breathing. 2 Coughing. <P> This colloquial usage of the term is also common in medicine and in nutrition (take plenty of fluids). Liquids form a free surface (that is, a surface not created by the container) while gases do not. The distinction between solids and fluid is not entirely obvious. The distinction is made by evaluating the viscosity of the substance. <P> Gender fluid people may also identify as multigender, non-binary and/or transgender. Genderfluid pride flag created by JJ Poole. Gender fluid people who feel that their strength of identification changes over time, or that they are sometimes agender, may identify as gender flux. Gender Fluid. 108 pages on this wiki. Gender fluid is a gender identity which refers to a gender which varies over time. A gender fluid person may at any time identify as male, female, neutrois, or any other non-binary identity, or some combination of identities. <P> flu·id. n. A continuous, amorphous substance whose molecules move freely past one another and that has the tendency to assume the shape of its container; a liquid or gas. adj. 1. Of, relating to, or characteristic of a fluid. 2 <P> fluid-smooth and unconstrained in movement; a long, smooth stride; the fluid motion of a cat; the liquid grace of a ballerina. fluent, smooth, liquid. graceful-characterized by beauty of movement, style, form, or execution. n. A continuous, amorphous substance whose molecules move freely past one another and that has the tendency to assume the shape of its container; a liquid or gas. adj. 1. Of, relating to, or characteristic of a fluid.
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A continuous, amorphous substance whose molecules move freely past one another and that has the tendency to assume the shape of its container.
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golden gate bridge height
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<P> Length, Width, Height, Weight. Total length of Bridge including approaches from abutment to abutment is 1.7 miles (8,981 ft or 2,737 m). Total length of Bridge including approaches from abutment to abutment, plus the distance to the Toll Plaza, is 9,150 ft (2,788 m). Length of suspension span including main span and side spans is 1.2 miles (6,450 ft or 1,966 m). Weight of Bridge, excluding anchorages and approaches, and including the suspended structure, main towers, piers and fenders, bottom lateral system and orthotropic redecking (1986) is 419,800 tons (380,800,000 kg *). <P> The Golden Gate Bridge's clearance above high water averages 220 feet (67 m) while its towers, at 746 feet (227 m) above the water, were the world's tallest on a suspension bridge until 1998 when bridges in Denmark and Japan were completed. The Golden Gate Bridge is the top most used suicide site/ suicide bridge in the world, after the Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge (see List of suicide sites). The deck is about 245 feet (75 m) above the water. After a fall of four seconds, jumpers hit the water at around 75 mph or about 120 km/h. <P> From http://goldengatebridge.org/research/fac... Clearance above mean higher high water: 220 ft = 67 m However, it's not that easy. (1) The depth of the bay varies due to tidal forces. So the height of the water from the roadway varies by the hour. (2) Because the Golden Gate Bridge is a suspension bridge, the roadway is suspended from the two towers, higher in the middle and lower at each end. <P> The Golden Gate Strait is the entrance to the San Francisco Bay from the Pacific Ocean. The strait is approximately three-miles long by one-mile wide with currents ranging fro … m 4.5 to 7.5 knots. Total length of Bridge including approaches from abutment to abutment: 1.7 miles = 8,981 ft = 2,737 m. Total length of Bridge including approaches from abutment to abutment, plus the distance to the Toll Plaza: 9,150 ft = 2,788 m. Length of suspension span including main span and side spans: 1.2 miles = 6,450 ft = 1,966 m <P> The Golden Gate Bridge has two main towers that support the two main cables. The height of a tower above water is 746 ft (227 m). The height of a tower above roadway is 500 ft (152 m). Tower base dimension (each leg) is 33 ft x 54 ft (10 m x 16 m). Weight of Bridge, excluding anchorages and approaches, and including the suspended structure, main towers, piers and fenders, bottom lateral system and orthotropic redecking (1986) is 419,800 tons (380,800,000 kg *). <P> The Golden Gate Strait is the entrance to the San Francisco Bay from the Pacific Ocean. The strait is approximately three-miles long by one-mile wide with currents ranging fro … m 4.5 to 7.5 knots. It is generally accepted that the strait was named Chrysopylae, or Golden Gate, by John C. Fremont, Captain, topographical Engineers of the U.S. Army circa 1846. The Golden Gate Bridge got it's name from the narrow strait of water that connects the San Francisco Bay to the Pacific Ocean. This strait was named the Golden Gate by John … C Fremont frèmont on 1, july. 1846 9 people found this. useful <P> The Golden Gate Bridge. The Golden Gate Bridge is a suspension bridge spanning the opening into the San Francisco Bay from the Pacific Ocean. It connects the city of San Francisco on the northern tip of the San Francisco Peninsula to Marin County as part of US Highway 101 and California State Highway 1. The Golden Gate Bridge also had the world's tallest suspension towers at the time of construction, and retained that record until more recently. In 1957, Michigan 's Mackinac Bridge surpassed the Golden Gate Bridge's length to become the world's longest two-tower suspension bridge in total length between anchorages. <P> The Frommers travel guide considers the Golden Gate Bridge possibly the most beautiful, certainly the most photographed, bridge in the world. It opened in 1937 and was, until 1964, the longest suspension bridge main span in the world, at 4,200 feet (1,300 m). The Golden Gate Bridge is the top most used suicide site/ suicide bridge in the world, after the Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge (see List of suicide sites). The deck is about 245 feet (75 m) above the water. After a fall of four seconds, jumpers hit the water at around 75 mph or about 120 km/h. <P> The Golden Gate Bridge is a suspension bridge spanning the Golden Gate strait, the 1 mile (1.6 km) wide, 3 mile (5 km) long channel between San Francisco Bay and the Pacific Ocean. The Golden Gate Bridge is the top most used suicide site/ suicide bridge in the world, after the Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge (see List of suicide sites). The deck is about 245 feet (75 m) above the water. After a fall of four seconds, jumpers hit the water at around 75 mph or about 120 km/h.
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746 ft (227 m)
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cost of mohs surgery
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<P> the average cost of mohs micrographic surgery was $ 1243 versus $ 1167 for excision with permanent section margin control $ 1400 for excision in the office with frozen section margin control and $ 1973 for excision with frozen section margin control in an ambulatory surgical facility <P> the average cost of mohs micrographic surgery was $ 1243 versus $ 1167 for excision with permanent section margin control $ 1400 for excision in the office with frozen section margin control and $ 1973 for excision with frozen section margin control in an ambulatory surgical facility <P> estimated cost the average cost for mohs surgery is between $ 1000 to $ 2000 depending on the size of the tumor the number of tissue layers required to be removed for tumor treatment and subsequent wound management <P> mohs surgery may be recommended based on the type and location of the skin cancer as well as other factors if your dermatologist does not perform this technique he or she will be able to refer you to a mohs surgeon in your area <P> typically the more layers you need to have removed the more it is going to cost in a post on the website realself com a manhattan dermatologist shared that mohs surgery may cost around $ 1000 <P> when preparing to have your skin cancer removed by mohs micrographic surgery the cost can be an important thing to think about health insurance can be quite tricky and it is very important to be aware of the potential cost of your medical procedure mohs surgery is in fact considered a medical procedure says dr adam mamelak board certified dermatologist and fellowship trained mohs surgery in austin texas <P> mohs like any surgical procedure will result in additional procedure charges above the routine office visit fees these surgical fees may range from $ 1000 $ 3000 depending on the area number of mohs levels and the type of closure or repair required the greater the number of levels required the higher the cost
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$ 1000 to $ 2000 (depending on the size of the tumor the number of tissue layers required to be removed for tumor treatment and subsequent wound management)
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why is heritage day celebrated
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<P> On September 24, 1995, the Republic of South Africa celebrated its first Heritage Day. The day was declared a national holiday by the first democratically elected government of South Africa, which was elected on April 27, 1994. <P> Heritage Day is an important day for ALL South African’s. It is a day that celebrates all cultures, colours and creeds of all South African’s. Attached is a picture of some of our beautiful staff, from our Durban North branch, in their traditional dress. <P> Heritage Day is one of the newly created South African public holidays. It is a day in which all are encouraged to celebrate their cultural traditions in the wider context of the great diversity of cultures, beliefs, and traditions that make up the nation of South Africa. In KwaZulu, the 24th of September was formerly known as Shaka Day, in commemoration of the legendary Zulu king <P> September 21, 2012 at 11:51 am. Heritage Day is an important public holiday in South Africa as it recognises different aspects of South African culture and encourages South Africans across the spectrum to celebrate their cultural heritage, the diversity of their beliefs and different traditions. Heritage Day is a national holiday where all South Africans celebrate their cultural heritage and embrace their diverse traditions and values that contribute to our “rainbow nation”. <P> ...when South Africans celebrate the diverse cultural heritage that makes up a rainbow nation. It is the day to celebrate the contribution of all South Africans to the building of South Africa(sic) — Lowry 21:1995. Heritage Day is a South African public holiday celebrated on 24 September. On this day, South Africans across the spectrum are encouraged to celebrate their culture and the diversity of their beliefs and traditions, in the wider context of a nation that belongs to all its people. South Africans celebrate Heritage Day by remembering the cultural heritage of the many cultures that make up the population of South Africa. Various events are staged throughout the country to commemorate this day. <P> Last update on. . Happy Heritage Day to all South Africans! For those who don’t know, Heritage Day is celebrated every year on the 24th September and everyone in the country is encouraged to celebrate his or her own cultural traditions. <P> Heritage Day is celebrated in Alberta on the first Monday of August. Although it is not a statutory holiday, it may used as an optional holiday to celebrate Canadian heritage in the province. Heritage Day is celebrated in Alberta on the first Monday of August each year. Although it is not a statutory holiday, many Canadians in Alberta use this day as an optional holiday to celebrate the province’s heritage. The Rocky Mountain Bighorn sheep is a symbol that is associated with Alberta <P> Heritage Day, also known by most of us as National Braai Day, is a fairly new public holiday that was. first celebrated in our country on 24 September 1995. Previously, this date was traditionally celebrated by the Zulu people as Shaka Day, to honour the. legendary King Shaka Zulu.
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It is celebrated by remembering the cultural heritage.
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what force do dams experience
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<P> Sure. It's not that hard. Let's say that there is a small dam in your area that is not used to produce electricity. Maybe the dam is used to provide water to irrigate farmlands or maybe it was built to make a lake for recreation. As we explained above, you need to know two things: 1 How far the water falls. <P> Self weight of the dam is the only largest force which stabilizes the structure. The total weight of the dam is supposed to act through the centre of gravity of the dam section in vertically downward direction. Naturally when specific weight of the material of construction is high, restoring force will be more. <P> GeForce ShadowPlay™ is the easiest way to capture your favourite gaming moments. It's also the quickest way to broadcast your game on Twitch. ShadowPlay runs in the background, so you can record or broadcast at any time. <P> (i) Upstream face of the dam is vertical and there is no water on the downstream side of the dam (figure 1). Figure 1. The total pressure is in horizontal direction and acts on the upstream face at a height from the bottom. <P> In the design of a dam, the first step is the determination of various forces which acts on the structure and study their nature. Depending upon the situation, the dam is subjected to the following forces: 1. Water pressure. 2. Earthquake forces. 3. Silt pressure. 4. Wave pressure. 5. Ice pressure. 6. <P> Hydropower plants capture the energy of falling water to generate electricity. A turbine converts the kinetic energy of falling water into mechanical energy. Then a generator converts the mechanical energy from the turbine into electr <P> Hoover Dam generates, on average, about 4 billion kilowatt-hours of hydroelectric power each year for use in Nevada, Arizona, and California-enough to serve 1.3 million people. From 1939 to 1949, Hoover Powerplant was the world's largest hydroelectric installation; today, it is still one of the country's largest. <P> The main purpose of most dams is to create a permanent reservoir of water for use at a later time. The dam must be watertight (ie impermeable or impervious to water) so that water does not leak out of the dam and escape downstream.
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1. Water pressure. 2. Earthquake forces. 3. Silt pressure. 4. Wave pressure. 5. Ice pressure.
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what is bursitis
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<P> Bursitis is the inflammation of one or more bursae (small sacs) of synovial fluid in the body. They are lined with a synovial membrane that secretes a lubricating synovial fluid. There are more than 150 bursae in the human body. <P> A bursa is a small, fluid-filled sac that acts as a cushion between a bone and other moving parts: muscles, tendons, or skin. Bursae are found throughout the body. Bursitis occurs when a bursa becomes inflamed (redness and increased fluid in the bursa). A tendon is a flexible band of fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones. Tendinitis is inflammation of a tendon. Tendons transmit the pull of the muscle to the bone to cause movement <P> The bursa is a sac filled with lubricating fluid, located between tissues such as bone, muscle, tendons, and skin, that decreases rubbing, friction, and irritation. The most common symptom of bursitis is pain. The pain may build up gradually or be sudden and severe, especially if calcium deposits are present. Severe loss of motion in the shoulder -- called adhesive capsulitis or frozen shoulder -- can also result from the immobility and pain associated with shoulder bursitis. <P> Introduction. Bursitis is inflammation and swelling of a bursa. A bursa is a fluid-filled sac which forms under the skin, usually over the joints, and acts as a cushion between the tendons and bones. The main symptoms of bursitis are pain, swelling and tenderness in the affected area. <P> A bursa is a small, fluid-filled sac that acts as a cushion between a bone and other moving parts: muscles, tendons, or skin. Bursae are found throughout the body. Bursitis occurs when a bursa becomes inflamed (redness and increased fluid in the bursa). A tendon is a flexible band of fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones. Tendinitis is inflammation of a tendon. Tendons transmit the pull of the muscle to the bone to cause movement. They are found throughout the body, including the hands, wrists, elbows, shoulders, hips, knees, ankles, and feet. <P> Bursitis is the painful inflammation of the bursa, a padlike sac found in areas subject to friction. Bursae cushion the movement between the bones, tendons and muscles near the joints. <P> Bursitis happens when the bursa is inflamed. The burse acts as a cushion between bones, tendons, joints and muscles-bursae are fluid-filled sacs (the plural of bursa is bursae). People with bursitis will feel pain at the site of inflammation. The medical word bursa comes from the Latin bursa, meaning a purse, which is what a bursa resembles. <P> 1 Bursitis, or inflammation of a bursa, is usually not infectious, but the bursa can become infected. 2 Treatment of noninfectious bursitis includes rest, ice, and medications for inflammation and pain. 3 Infectious bursitis (uncommon) is treated with antibiotics, aspiration, and surgery. Hip bursitis facts. 1 A bursa is a fluid-filled sac that functions as a gliding surface to reduce friction between moving tissues of the body. 2 There are two major bursae of the hip. 3 <P> Knee bursae. Bursitis (bur-SY-tis) is a painful condition that affects the small, fluid-filled sacs — called bursae (bur-SEE) — that cushion the bones, tendons and muscles near your joints. Bursitis occurs when bursae become inflamed. The most common locations for bursitis are in the shoulder, elbow and hip.
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It is the inflammation of one or more bursae (small sacs) of synovial fluid in the body.
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what is UV spectroscopy
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<P> Split and merge into it. Answer by Artifaxiom. Confidence votes 174. Ultraviolet (UV) spectroscopy is a method of determining which wavelengths (colours) of visible light a sample absorbs or emits. There are three main types of UV spectroscopy: transmittance, absorbance, and emission. Transmittance and absorbance spectroscopy are opposites of one another. <P> UV-VISIBLE SPECTROSCOPY MENU Electromagnetic radiation. . . A simple introduction to the electromagnetic spectrum, and the place of ultra-violet and visible light in it. A double beam absorption spectrometer. . . Explains how a UV-visible absorption spectrum is obtained using a double-beam spectrometer Bonding theory for UV-visible absorption spectra. . . <P> Analysis of white light by dispersing it with a prism is an example of spectroscopy. Spectroscopy /spɛkˈtrɒskəpi/ is the study of the interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation. Historically, spectroscopy originated through the study of visible light dispersed according to its wavelength, by a prism. Spectroscopy and spectrography are terms used to refer to the measurement of radiation intensity as a function of wavelength and are often used to describe experimental spectroscopic methods. Spectral measurement devices are referred to as spectrometers, spectrophotometers, spectrographs or spectral analyzers <P> Spectroscopy /spɛkˈtrɒskəpi/ is the study of the interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation. Spectroscopy and spectrography are terms used to refer to the measurement of radiation intensity as a function of wavelength and are often used to describe experimental spectroscopic methods. Spectral measurement devices are referred to as spectrometers, spectrophotometers, spectrographs or spectral analyzers <P> Ultraviolet-Visible spectroscopy or Ultraviolet-Visible spectrophotometry (UV/VIS) involves the spectroscopy of photons (spectrophotometry). It uses light in the visible and adjacent near ultraviolet (UV) and near infrared (NIR) ranges. In this region of energy space molecules undergo electronic transitions. <P> 1 Ultraviolet and visible (UV-Vis) absorption spectroscopy is the measurement of the attenuation of a beam of light after it passes through a sample or after reflection from a sample surface. 2 Absorption measurements can be at a single wavelength or over an extended spectral range. 3 4. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 1 3. 2 Ultraviolet and visible (UV-Vis) absorption spectroscopy is the measurement of the attenuation of a beam of light after it passes through a sample or after reflection from a sample surface. 3 Absorption measurements can be at a single wavelength or over an extended spectral range. 4 4. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. <P> Follow. Ultraviolet and visible (UV-Vis) absorption spectroscopy is the measurement of the attenuation of a beam of light after it passes through a sample or after reflection from a sample surface. Absorption measurements can be at a single wavelength or over an extended spectral range. 1 3. 2 Ultraviolet and visible (UV-Vis) absorption spectroscopy is the measurement of the attenuation of a beam of light after it passes through a sample or after reflection from a sample surface. 3 Absorption measurements can be at a single wavelength or over an extended spectral range. 4 4. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. <P> The instrument used in ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy is called a UV/V is spectrophotometer. It measures the intensity of light passing through a sample (I), and compares it to the intensity of light before it passes through the sample (I o). Main Image: Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy or ultraviolet-visible spectrophotometry (UV-Vis or UV/Vis) refers to absorption spectroscopy or reflectance spectroscopy in the ultraviolet-visible spectral region. Absorption spectroscopy refers to spectroscopic techniques that measure the absorption of radiation.
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A method of determining which wavelengths (colours) of visible light a sample absorbs or emits.
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what is cetol
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<P> Cetol SRD is a translucent exterior stain specially formulated to provide a water repellent finish for many demanding areas of the home. Cetol SRD is an easy to use effective coating for all outdoor wooden surfaces. Cetol 23 RE offers a greater degree of protection from the harmful effects of ultraviolet light in areas of high elevation or intense sunlight. The secret is an unprecedented use of two UV-absorbing materials, widely dispersed and permanently fixed into the surface film. <P> Sikkens Cetol Marine is the original durable satin, translucent protective wood finish for use above the waterline on interior and exterior woods. Sikkens Cetol Marine is formulated with a special alkyd resin and high quality synthetic UV-absorbing pigments to shield wood from damaging UV rays. When dry, the finish has an attractive dark amber appearance on wood. Other Cetol Marine products: Cetol Marine Light, Cetol Marine Gloss, and Cetol Marine Natural Teak. <P> CETOL 1. Cetol 1 is a premium, translucnet exterior wood basecoat to be used with Cetol 23 Plus. Its superior aklyd formulation offers excellent penetration and adhesion to vertical wood surfaces. Premium translucent exterior wood basecoat to be used with Cetol 23 Plus. Can also be used alone or with other products. <P> Sikkens Cetol Marine Natural Teak is a durable satin, translucent protective wood finish for use above the waterline on interior and exterior woods. Cetol Marine Natural Teak provides a flexible breathable finish along with weather protection for teak and other hard woods. Go for Two! Cetol Marine Natural Teak is formulated with the same ease of application and maintenance that all Cetol Marine products are known for but with Next Wave UV-absorbing technology, which is a formulation of specialty resins and advanced UV absorbers that provide greater protection, durability and longevity. <P> Cetol 1 RE is a translucent exterior wood finish that separates wood from the elements with a durable surface barrier, which repels water, while allowing excess moisture to escape. It penetrates deep into the wood sealing and protecting it. Cetol 23 RE offers a greater degree of protection from the harmful effects of ultraviolet light in areas of high elevation or intense sunlight. The secret is an unprecedented use of two UV-absorbing materials, widely dispersed and permanently fixed into the surface film. <P> CETOL 6σ tolerance analysis software provides product development teams with the insight required to confidently release designs to manufacturing. Precise calculation of surface sensitivities exposes the critical-to-quality dimensions in the assembly. CETOL 6σ Dimensional Tolerance Calculations & Reporting: Standardized reporting for multiple industries depending on variation analysis with accuracy.
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A one-coat, translucent exterior wood finish created for use on a wide variety of surfaces.
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common name for candida albicans
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<P> Most cases of yeast infection in the United States are caused by Candida albicans. Yeast is the term for a fungus that exists as a single-celled organism rather than as hyphae. There are about 500 species of yeasts in 60 genera, or about 1000 species of yeasts or yeast-like organisms. <P> Candida albicans is a diploid fungus that grows both as yeast and filamentous cells and a causal agent of opportunistic oral and genital infections in humans, and candidal onychomycosis, an infection of the nail plate. An unusual feature of the Candida genus is that in many of its species (including C. albicans and C. tropicalis, but not, for instance, C. glabrata) the CUG codon, which normally specifies leucine, specifies serine in these species. <P> Candida Albicans is an opportunistic fungus (or form of yeast) that is the cause of many undesirable symptoms ranging from fatigue and weight gain, to joint pain and gas. The Candida Albicans yeast is a part of the gut flora, a group of microorganisms that live in your mouth and intestine. When the Candida Albicans population starts getting out of control it weakens the intestinal wall, penetrating through into the bloodstream and releasing its toxic byproducts throughout the body. Almost everyone has Candida Albicans in their gut, and a significant proportion of us may have Candidiasis, or an overgrowth of Candida. Candida Albicans starts to cause trouble when there is some change in your body that allows it to overgrow. <P> C. albicans is commensal and a constituent of the normal gut flora comprising microorganisms that live in the human mouth and gastrointestinal tract. Overgrowth of the fungus results in candidiasis (candidosis). Candidiasis is often observed in immunocompromised individuals, including HIV-infected patients. An unusual feature of the Candida genus is that in many of its species (including C. albicans and C. tropicalis, but not, for instance, C. glabrata) the CUG codon, which normally specifies leucine, specifies serine in these species. <P> Candida Albicans. Candida Albicans is the formal name for the fungus or yeast that is responsible for yeast infections. Normally it lives in symbiosis in the human body along with a variety of other healthy bacteria. It has a variety of names and is also known as thrush, athletes feet, vaginal yeast infection, Candida, Candida yeast, yeast syndrome or yeast infection. When it enters the blood stream is then called systemic Candida or Candidiasis. The overgrowth of Candida Albicans is rampant in our society due to two main factors <P> About Candidiasis. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts that belong to the genus Candida. There are over 20 species of Candida yeasts that can cause infection in humans, the most common of which is Candida albicans. Candida yeasts normally live on the skin and mucous membranes without causing infection; however, overgrowth of these organisms can cause symptoms to develop. Candidiasis in the vagina is commonly referred to as a yeast infection.. Invasive candidiasis occurs when Candida species enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body. Click the links below for more information on the different types of Candida infections. <P> The most common species is Candida albicans, also referred to scientifically as C. albicans. (Sometimes the period is left off, as in “c albicans”, and Internet users occasionally mistype the name, so sometimes is appears as “C. albican”.) The next most common pathogenic Candida species is Candida glabrata. The scientific name is normally shown in italics, and will appear as “ C. albicans ”, or “ C. glabrata ”. The term for a systemic Candida infection, most commonly from Candida albicans, but from other species of Candida as well, is Candidiasis (kan-da-deye’-a-sis). <P> Photomicrograph of the fungus Candida albicans. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts that belong to the genus Candida. There are over 20 species of Candida yeasts that can cause infection in humans, the most common of which is Candida albicans. Candida yeasts normally live on the skin and mucous membranes without causing infection; however, overgrowth of these organisms can cause symptoms to develop. Candidiasis in the vagina is commonly referred to as a “ yeast infection .” invasive candidiasis occurs when Candida species enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body.
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Yeast infection
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salary of a cardiothoracic surgeon per month
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<P> Cardiothoracic Surgeon Salary. The median annual cardiothoracic surgeon salary in the United States is a hefty $412,000. This equates to about $198 per hour. This is well in the range of the middle 50% of surgeons, which is between $332,000 and $514,000. The hourly rates for these ranges can be between $164 and $247 respectively. Cardiothoracic surgeons working in the lower 10th percentile make around $259,000 or less annually, or $124 per hour or less. <P> Average cardiothoracic surgeon salary. The average expected wage and annual salary for a cardiothoracic surgeon in the United States is around $80 per hour and $166,400 per annum. <P> In fact, an average yearly salary earned by the cardiothoracic surgeons ranges from between $122,833 – $553,736 per year, while the average hourly wage ranges from between $ 59.09 to $110.84 per hour. Cardiothoracic surgeon salary is very variable, but definitely one of the highest. The average expected wage and annual salary for a cardiothoracic surgeon in the United States is around $80 per hour and $166,400 per annum. <P> A similar survey from the Medical Group Management Association reports average salaries for cardiac surgeons and specialties, both overall and in hospital employment. The study showed pediatric cardiovascular surgeons out-earning their adult-practice peers, with an average salary of $762,846 per year. Adult cardiovascular surgeons averaged $560,659 per year. Among hospital-employed physicians, the figures were slightly different. Pediatric cardiovascular surgeons earned less, at an average of $681,408 per year. However, adult-practice surgeons reported slightly higher average incomes, at $567,171 per year. Related Reading: Expected Salary Range for a Cardiovascular Surgeon. <P> Cardiothoracic surgeon salary in USA. An average starting hourly wage for a cardiothoracic surgeon in the United States is around $59.01 per hour which gradually increases to around $90 per hour overtime. Many of them earn from between $117,685 – $511,671 per year. The average expected wage and annual salary for a cardiothoracic surgeon in the United States is around $80 per hour and $166,400 per annum. <P> Cardiothoracic Surgeon Salary. (United States). The average pay for a Cardiothoracic Surgeon is $376,631 per year. Pay for this job rises steadily for more experienced workers, but goes down noticeably for employees with more than 20 years' experience. $153,654 - $559,400. (Median) <P> Mean Annual Cardiothoracic Surgeon Salary. The average annual cardiothoracic surgeon salary is $417,500. The lowest 10% of cardiothoracic surgeon salaries are less than $262,000. The top 10% of cardiothoracic surgeon salaries reach more than $613,170. Cardiothoracic surgeon job outlook, being quite specialized, is expected to grow in the coming years, at least on par with the expected 18% of all physicians and surgeons. <P> For example the median expected annual pay for a typical Surgeon-Cardiothoracic in the United States is $425,819 so 50% of the people who perform the job of Surgeon-Cardiothoracic in the United States are expected to make less than $425,819. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: The median salary for a typical cardiothoracic surgeon in the United States is $416,876.00 per year. This was as of April 7, 2007. This averages out to about $37,739.00 per month. There are a lot of things to take in consideration though such as experience, where you are located, among other things
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$122,833 – $553,736 per year.
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what does neostigmine treat
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<P> Descriptions. Neostigmine injection is used to treat a muscle disease called myasthenia gravis. Neostigmine injection is also used to prevent or treat certain kidney or intestinal problems. This medicine is also given after surgery to help reverse the effects of certain types of medicines that have been used to relax the muscles. This medicine is available only with your doctor's prescription. <P> Neostigmine is used to improve muscle strength in patients with a certain muscle disease (myasthenia gravis). It works by preventing the breakdown of a certain natural substance (acetylcholine) in your body. Acetylcholine is needed for normal muscle function. <P> neostigmine. an anticholinesterase used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis and glaucoma and as an antidote for nondepolarizing muscle relaxants, such as tubocurarine. <P> NEOSTIGMINE (nee oh STIG meen) can help with muscle strength. It is used to treat myasthenia gravis. This drug also comes in other forms, including Injectable Solution. This drug can cause serious side effects. See which side effects you should report to your doctor right away. <P> 1 NEOSTIGMINE (nee oh STIG meen) can help with muscle strength. It is used to treat myasthenia gravis. 2 This drug also comes in other forms, including Injectable Solution 3 This drug can cause serious side effects. See which side effects you should report to your doctor right away. <P> Oral tablet. 1 NEOSTIGMINE (nee oh STIG meen) can help with muscle strength. It is used to treat myasthenia gravis. 2 This drug also comes in other forms, including Injectable Solution 3 This drug can cause serious side effects. See which side effects you should report to your doctor right away. <P> Neostigmine is used to treat the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Neostigmine may also be used for purposes not listed in this medication guide. Get emergency medical help if you have any of these signs of an allergic reaction: hives; difficulty breathing; swelling of your face, lips, tongue, or throat.
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Symptoms of myasthenia gravis
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what is an energy audit
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<P> An energy audit is an inspection, survey and analysis of energy flows for energy conservation in a building, process or system to reduce the amount of energy input into the system without negatively affecting the output(s). While the overall concept is similar to a home or residential energy audit, industrial energy audits require a different skillset. Weatherproofing and insulating a house are the main focus of residential energy audits. <P> You’d be surprised at how many people are unable to answer that question! Home energy audits are detailed home examinations that determine: 1 Where and how energy is being lost in a home. 2 Which systems in the home are operating inefficiently. and Pay Less in Energy Bills. A home energy audit or rating will show you where and how your home is losing energy, and provide you with cost-effective solutions to the problems. <P> A general energy audit is also known as an energy assessment, standard energy audit or detailed energy audit. It expands on the home energy survey by collecting more detailed information regarding the home’s energy usage, as well as a more thorough financial analysis of its energy costs. and Pay Less in Energy Bills. A home energy audit or rating will show you where and how your home is losing energy, and provide you with cost-effective solutions to the problems. <P> Some local energy programs offer you a rebate towards the cost of your energy audit, sometimes offering as much as $250 of the total cost. These programs are great because they use only professionally trained energy auditors that offer an in-depth energy assessment and meet certain certification criteria. Free Energy Audits. Free energy audits are commonly offered by a local utility company, or through a local energy program funded by the government. These are usually ‘walk through’ energy audits that offer standard, general recommendations for energy improvement, typically aimed at lowering energy bills. <P> The purpose of an energy audit (sometimes called an “energy assessment” or “energy study”) is to determine where, when, why and how energy is used in a facil-ity, and to identify opportunities to improve efficiency. <P> Home Energy Audits. A home energy checkup helps owners determine where their house is losing energy and money-and how such problems can be corrected to make the home more energy efficient. A professional technician -- often called an energy auditor -- can give your home a checkup. Items shown here include checking for leaks, examining insulation, inspecting the furnace and ductwork, performing a blower door test and using an infrared camera. Learn more about a professional home energy audit. A home energy audit, also known as a home energy assessment, is the first step to assess how much energy your home consumes and to evaluate what measures you can take to make your home more energy efficient. An assessment will show you problems that may, when corrected, save you significant amounts of money over time <P> A home energy audit is often used to identify cost effective ways to improve the comfort and efficiency of buildings. In addition, homes may qualify for energy efficiency grants from central government. While the overall concept is similar to a home or residential energy audit, industrial energy audits require a different skillset. Weatherproofing and insulating a house are the main focus of residential energy audits. <P> An energy audit is a process of identifying all energy uses in the home or business to determine the amounts of energy used and the costs. The findings of the energy audit can be used to determine ways to reduce energy use through conservation and energy efficiency improvements. DIY Home Energy Audits: There are several online, do-it-yourself home energy audit tools that you can use to gain an understanding of your energy use patterns and costs. Based on these audits, you can change your inputs to see potential savings. <P> Home energy audits are detailed examinations of a home to determine: 1 Where and how energy is being lost. 2 Those systems in the home that are operating inefficiently. 3 The types of cost-effective measures that can be put in place to make the home more comfortable, affordable and energy efficient.
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An energy audit is an inspection, survey and analysis of energy flows for energy conservation in a building, process or system to reduce the amount of energy input into the system without negatively affecting the output(s).
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ecological importance of eastern ghats ranges
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<P> The Eastern Ghats or Pūrva Ghaṭ, also known as Mahendra Pravata, are a discontinuous range of mountains along India 's eastern coast. North of the Palar River in Andhra Pradesh, the central portion of the Eastern Ghats consist of two parallel ranges running approximately north-south. The lower Velikonda Range lies to the east and the higher Palikonda-Lankamalla-Nallamalla Ranges lie to the west. <P> The eastern region of the Western Ghats which lie in the rain shadow, receive far less rainfall averaging about 1,000 mm (40 in) bringing the average rainfall figure to 2,500 mm (150 in). Data from rainfall figures reveal that there is no relationship between the total amount of rain received and the spread of the area. There are about 50 major dams along the length of the Western Ghats with the earliest project up in 1900 near Khopoli in Maharashtra. Most notable of these projects are the Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra, the Parambikulam Dam in Kerala, and the Linganmakki Dam in Karnataka. <P> The Bilgiri Hills connects the Eastern and the Western Ghats by forming a ecological, forested corridor, running from the east of the Western Ghats up to River Kaveri. The forest region also serves as an important route for the elephants. The southern part of the Eastern Ghats is the Karanthamalai and Sirumalai Hills located in the south of Tamil Nadu. The central region of the Eastern Ghats comprise of 2 parallel ranges, namely the lower Velikonda Range in the east, and the higher Palikonda-Lankamalla-Nallamalla Ranges in the west. <P> The Eastern Ghats thus bear an ecological significance as well, like the Western Ghats. Flora and Fauna of the Eastern Ghats. The diverse environmental niches and ecological situation offers a great habitat for a rich and varied flora and fauna. The ranges house many Asiatic elephants. Apart from that, you can also find Leopards, Gaurs, Nilgiri Tahr, Sambar, and tigers etc. The southern part of the Eastern Ghats is the Karanthamalai and Sirumalai Hills located in the south of Tamil Nadu. The central region of the Eastern Ghats comprise of 2 parallel ranges, namely the lower Velikonda Range in the east, and the higher Palikonda-Lankamalla-Nallamalla Ranges in the west. <P> The mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal. The Deccan Plateau lies to the west of the range, between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. The coastal plains, including the Coromandel Coast region, lie between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. The Eastern Ghats are not as high as the Western Ghats. North of the Palar River in Andhra Pradesh, the central portion of the Eastern Ghats consist of two parallel ranges running approximately north-south. The lower Velikonda Range lies to the east and the higher Palikonda-Lankamalla-Nallamalla Ranges lie to the west. <P> The Western Ghats has to be made an ecologically sensitive zone. It is as important as the ecological system of the Himalayas for protection of the environment and climate of the country. There are about 50 major dams along the length of the Western Ghats with the earliest project up in 1900 near Khopoli in Maharashtra. Most notable of these projects are the Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra, the Parambikulam Dam in Kerala, and the Linganmakki Dam in Karnataka. <P> Much older than the Western Ghats, the Eastern Ghats are located at a height lower than the former. The ranges are situated within 76° 50′ and 86 ° 30 E longitudes and 11° 30′ and 22° N latitude. Extremely fertile, the Eastern Ghats sprawls over an approximate area of 75,000 square km. The southern part of the Eastern Ghats is the Karanthamalai and Sirumalai Hills located in the south of Tamil Nadu. The central region of the Eastern Ghats comprise of 2 parallel ranges, namely the lower Velikonda Range in the east, and the higher Palikonda-Lankamalla-Nallamalla Ranges in the west. <P> BIODIVERSITY. The Biodiversity or the Biological diversity refers to the different genera and species of organisms present in an area. The degree of species diversity varies from one ecosystem to the other. India is a very rich country in terms of the rich flora and fauna present in the natural ecosystems. The Western Ghats form an important habitat for the ferns and fern-allies and hence, they are one of the important biodiversity centers rich in pteridophytic diversity. About 300 species of pteridophytes are figured to be present in the Western Ghats.
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The diverse environmental niches and ecological situation offers a great habitat for a rich and varied flora and fauna.
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relationship between thyroid releasing hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone
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<P> 1 The hormones of the pituitary gland help regulate the functions of other endocrine glands. 2 The pituitary gland has two parts—the anterior lobe and posterior lobe—that have two very separate functions. 3 The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production. The pituitary gland is often dubbed the “master gland” because its hormones control other parts of the endocrine system, namely the thyroid gland, adrenal glands, ovaries, and testes. <P> The hormones of the pituitary gland send signals to other endocrine glands to stimulate or inhibit their own hormone production. For example, the anterior pituitary lobe will release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) to stimulate cortisol production in the adrenal glands when you’re stressed. The pituitary gland is often dubbed the “master gland” because its hormones control other parts of the endocrine system, namely the thyroid gland, adrenal glands, ovaries, and testes. <P> Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates TSH from the pituitary, which stimulates thyroid hormone release. As blood concentrations of thyroid hormones increase, they inhibit both TSH and TRH, leading to shutdown of thyroid epithelial cells. The thyroid gland is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis, and control of thyroid hormone secretion is exerted by classical negative feedback, as depicted in the diagram. <P> Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), also called thyrotropin-releasing factor (TRF), thyroliberin or protirelin, is a tropic, tripeptidal hormone, produced by the hypothalamus, that stimulates the release of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and prolactin from the anterior pituitary. TRH is produced by the hypothalamus in medial neurons of the paraventricular nucleus. At the beginning, it is synthesized as a 242-amino acid precursor polypeptide that contains 6 copies of the sequence-Gln-His-Pro-Gly-, flanked by Lys-Arg or Arg-Arg sequences. <P> The hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid axis (HPT axis for short, aka thyroid homeostasis or thyrotropic feedback control) is part of the neuroendocrine system responsible for the regulation of metabolism. As its name suggests, it depends upon the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the thyroid gland. The hypothalamus senses low circulating levels of thyroid hormone (Triiodothyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)) and responds by releasing thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). The TRH stimulates the pituitary to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The TSH, in turn, stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormone until levels in the blood return to normal. Thyroid hormone exerts negative feedback control over the hypothalamus as well as anterior pituitary, thus controlling the release of both TRH from hypothalamus and TSH from anterior pituitary gland <P> As an example, thyroid-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus binds to receptors on anterior pituitary cells called thyrotrophs, stimulating them to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone or TSH. The anterior pituitary hormones enter the systemic circulation and bind to their receptors on other target organs. In the case of TSH, the target organ is the thyroid gland. <P> The hypothalamus releases thyrotropin releasing hormone (TrH), which travels via a venous plexus to the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland and stimulates release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then induces production of thyroxine (T4) by the thyroid. Based on the functional interrelationship of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid, TSH should be elevated if the thyroid gland is not producing adequate thyroid hormone, and suppressed if it is producing too much (Figure 1). <P> The hypothalamus, in the base of the brain, produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). TRH stimulates the pituitary gland to produce TSH. Somatostatin is also produced by the hypothalamus, and has an opposite effect on the pituitary production of TSH, decreasing or inhibiting its release. From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (also known as thyrotropin, TSH, or hTSH for human TSH) is a pituitary hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T 4), and then triiodothyronine (T 3) which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body.
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The hypothalamus releases thyrotropin releasing hormone (TrH), which travels via a venous plexus to the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland and stimulates release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).
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what is an rga connection
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<P> A VGA cable is a lead used for transmitting video signals, and it is most commonly used to link computers with monitors. Some high definition televisions use this type of cable as well. VGA stands for video graphics array, and it was a graphics standard used by IBM in its early PCs sold in the 1980s. Today, all PCs support VGA, but most of them use a more advanced system depending on the actual monitor used. In most cases, the term VGA refers to the type of cable used to carry the display signals, regardless of the actual graphics system being used. It’s characterized by 15 pins on the plug in three rows of five. The plug also has two screws, one either side of the pins, that secure it into place in the socket. <P> Inside is no longer accessible from outside the RGA network. In order to access Inside, please follow the appropriate Secure Connect to first log into the RGA network, then continue to navigate as needed. <P> A Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is a three-row 15-pin DE-15 connector. The 15-pin VGA connector is found on many video cards, computer monitors, and high definition television sets. On laptop computers or other small devices, a mini-VGA port is sometimes used in place of the full-sized VGA connector. <P> 1 Plug the power cable into the back of the monitor, then connect the opposite end into a power outlet or power source. 2 Monitors do not receive power through the video signal cable, but instead need their own power connection. 3 Compare the back of your computer to the back of your monitor. 1: Compare: Physical Connections. 1 <P> Underwriting Connection – Portal for those teamed with RGA offering exclusive access to our underwriters, actuaries, and industry experts. Log in to RGA’s Underwriting Connection to find the most current information, as well as: <P> 14 REA Setup Utility Chapter 3 RGA Ethernet Adapter Status Meaning Ready for Setup REA is in IP setup mode and waiting to be configured.Available REA is ready to use with the RGA software.Out of Subnet The IP address and the subnet mask are not on thesame network as your computer. 18 REA Setup Utility Chapter 3 RGA Ethernet Adapter Configuration Test When an REA with ‘Available’ status is selected in REASetupUtility, the ‘Test’ buttonwill be active. This button tests the Ethernet connection between the PC and the selectedREA and between the PC and the RGA which is connected to the REA.1. <P> Best Answer: I don't know what RGA is, but you are trying to connect to component video. I'm just going to say these are not what you want to use. I would try a 15-pin VGA cable instead. · just now. Report Abuse. You must use a VGA to VGA to connect your laptop to your TV. you will then need a mini rca audio cable for sound, If you connect with a HDMI cable, assuming your laptop is capable that will suffice. <P> 4 RGA Ethernet Adapter Unpacking Checklist • Open the box and inspect all components of the RGA Ethernet Adapter (REA).• Report any damage to Stanford Research Systems immediately.• Compare the contents of the shipping boxes against your original order and thechecklist below. 18 REA Setup Utility Chapter 3 RGA Ethernet Adapter Configuration Test When an REA with ‘Available’ status is selected in REASetupUtility, the ‘Test’ buttonwill be active. This button tests the Ethernet connection between the PC and the selectedREA and between the PC and the RGA which is connected to the REA.1. <P> An RCA connector, sometimes called a phono connector or cinch connector, is a type of electrical connector commonly used to carry audio and video signals. The name phono plug is sometimes confused with a phone plug which may refer to a quarter-inch phone plug - Tip/Sleeve (TS) or Tip/Ring/Sleeve (TRS) connector-or to a 4P4C connector used for a telephone (which is often, though incorrectly, called RJ9, RJ10, or RJ22). <P> In order to access RGA Connect, please follow the appropriate Secure Connect to first log into the RGA network, then continue to navigate as needed.
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An RCA connector, sometimes called a phono connector or cinch connector, is a type of electrical connector commonly used to carry audio and video signals.
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average cost per year to own a chicken
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<P> 1 On average, a whole chicken that is not organic will cost $0.75 to $1.50 per pound. 2 An organic whole chicken, on the other hand, can cost upwards of $2.50 to $5 per pound. 3 The average chicken is going to cost $10 to $25 as a whole. 1 Again, it is going to depend on the weight. 2 According to users on Mothering.com, they paid anywhere from $3.50 to $5 per pound for a free-range chicken. 3 For example, on this SouthernSavers.com post, the author stated that the prices on whole chickens ranged from $2.49 to $4.69 <P> The approximate costs to raise 3 hens would be: 1 Chickens: $3 - $30 per chicken depending on age, breed etc. 2 Coop: Free (recycled materials) to $2,000 & up (new & fancy). 3 Feed approximately $15.00 per month. 4 Miscellaneous $10.00 per month. If you decide to raise your own chicks you can expect to pay $3.00 and $5.00 per chick (day-old) for popular breeds and for rare breeds you can expect to pay up to $50.00 or more per chick. Older chicks and mature chickens' prices vary greatly between breeds, age of the chickens etc. <P> Five farms processed chickens on farm. An average of 2.4 family members processed birds on these farms with 2 to 7 employees also working on processing. The average cost to process a chicken on farm was $1.17. Off-farm processing costs ranged from $1 to $4 per bird. If the unusually high $4 charge is excluded, the average cost to process a bird off farm was $1.41. <P> Wood shavings cost around $6.00 (.276 cubic meter loose and .092 cubic meters compressed). Straw will cost you between $3.00 and $12.00 per bale, depending on availability, quality and size of order. Sawdust pellets will cost around $4.00 per 40 lbs bag. How much a chicken will eat is near impossible to say. Certain breeds, Leghorns for example, are not big eaters. If you decide to raise your own chicks you can expect to pay $3.00 and $5.00 per chick (day-old) for popular breeds and for rare breeds you can expect to pay up to $50.00 or more per chick. Older chicks and mature chickens' prices vary greatly between breeds, age of the chickens etc. <P> Each adult chicken will eat approximately 1/4 pound of feed per day. A bag of purchased layer feed is 50 pounds and costs me approximately $35 (you may be able to get it cheaper where you live). That is about 17.5 cents a day per chicken. The average multi-purpose hen will lay approximately 260 eggs per year at peak performance. It works out to $63.88 spent per chicken per year with a return of approximately 21.66 dozen eggs if you purchase all their food from a store. How much does it really cost to feed chickens in return for eggs, is it really worth it or should I just buy them from the store or a neighbors. My first thought is that it's a no brainer. I know eggs from free range hens are much healthier than anything store bought and I love having chickens around. <P> Grower and all flock feed for older chickens will cost around $17.00 per 50 lbs bag and layer pellets between $15.00 and $30.00 per 50 lbs bag, depending again on brand and whether you buy organic/regular. Scratch grains cost around $10.00 per 50 lbs bag, between depending on availability and quality. If you decide to raise your own chicks you can expect to pay $3.00 and $5.00 per chick (day-old) for popular breeds and for rare breeds you can expect to pay up to $50.00 or more per chick. Older chicks and mature chickens' prices vary greatly between breeds, age of the chickens etc. <P> I was wondering how much money do chickens cost per year. For food hay and vet checks. My family doesn't know how much money it will take for this stuff. Also, include the cost of a chicken coop, waterer and a fence because we are planing to have free range chickens during the day. Answer: I am going to answer your question from the most economical way of starting out with chickens. First, lets get the vet issue out of the way. Feed: The amount of feed your chickens will eat will depend on the breed(s) you choose. Also, I noticed you said you would be free ranging during the day. I to free range my birds, I have 12 birds(several different breeds) and they go through a 50 pound bag of feed every 4 to 5 weeks. <P> 1 An organic whole chicken, on the other hand, can cost upwards of $2.50 to $5 per pound. 2 The average chicken is going to cost $10 to $25 as a whole. 3 Again, it is going to depend on the weight. 1 Again, it is going to depend on the weight. 2 According to users on Mothering.com, they paid anywhere from $3.50 to $5 per pound for a free-range chicken. 3 For example, on this SouthernSavers.com post, the author stated that the prices on whole chickens ranged from $2.49 to $4.69 <P> What Chickens Cost. Since the beginning of this adventure, I've tracked feed and building costs, along with sales to friends and associates, but not actual egg production. Here's what it looks like to date (from 15 chicks in May of 2011 to 17 producing hens - 13 of which are 20 months old and 4 are about 7 months...
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$10 to $25
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what is the maximum amount of carbohydrates per day
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<P> The Institute of Medicine recommends getting between 45 and 65 percent of your total daily calories from carbohydrates. There are 4 calories per gram of carbohydrate, so this equates to between 225 and 325 grams of carbohydrate per day on a 2,000 calorie diet. <P> What to Limit. Carbohydrates. Your goal should be to limit your carb intake to between 45 and 65 percent of total calories per day. In other words, if you are consuming 2200 calories per day, no more than 1430 of that should come from c <P> The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that carbohydrates make up 45 to 65 percent of your total daily calories. So, if you get 2,000 calories a day, between 900 and 1,300 calories should be from carbohydrates. That translates to between 225 and 325 grams of carbohydrates a day. <P> Percent of Calories. According to the Institute of Medicine, children and adults should consume 45 to 65 percent of their calorie intake as carbohydrates, and at least 130 grams of carbs per day. <P> Determine the number of grams of carbs you need each day by calculating 45 to 65 percent of your total calorie intake, and dividing by 4. For example, if you eat a 2,000-calorie diet, shoot for 225 to 325 grams of carbs per day; and if you eat 2,500 calories a day, aim for 281 to 406 grams of carbs. <P> This means women following 1,200-calorie weight loss diets need about 135 to 195 grams of carbs each day, women consuming 1,600-calorie diets need 180 to 260 grams, women following 2,000-calorie diets need 225 to 325 grams and women consuming 2,400 calories per day require 270 to 390 grams of carbohydrates each day. <P> Grams of Carbs. Determine the number of grams of carbs you need each day by calculating 45 to 65 percent of your total calorie intake, and dividing by 4. For example, if you eat a 2,000-calorie diet, shoot for 225 to 325 grams of carbs per day; and if you eat 2,500 calories a day, aim for 281 to 406 grams of carbs.
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If you eat a 2,000-calorie diet, shoot for 225 to 325 grams of carbs per day and if you eat 2,500 calories a day, aim for 281 to 406 grams of carbs.
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name meaning of chloe
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<P> Notes: Chloe is a name with Greek origins. The meaning of the name Chloe is verdant and blooming. The most common alternative spelling is Khloe. Other spellings include Cloe, Chloey, Chloie, Kloey, ad Kloe. <P> It ranked 10881 in popular baby names for boys with 6 occurrences. View the Chloe Name Popularity Page to see how the popularity trend for Chloe has changed since 1880, or to compare the popularity of Chloe to other names. Variants of the name Chloe include Chloie, Khloe. The names Kloe, Kloey are all forms of Chloe. Chloe falls into the Greek myth name category. <P> Etymology & Historical Origin-Chloe. The English borrowed Chloe from the French Chloe. Chloé both forms are ultimately derived from The “greek” khloē “khlóē (meaning) small young green shoot of”. A plant the name is related To “the” greek “khloros-meaning” greenish yellow in reference to the color of, a small. young shoot <P> Incoming search terms: acrostic meaning of the word chloe, chloe meaning bible, mean acrostic poem chloe, meaning of every letter in chloe, Meaning of name Chloe. Meaning of CHLOE name, name definition, origin of CHLOE name, Popularity of name, analysis, gender of CHLOE, Acrostic Poem, other details; Advertisement. <P> Meaning: The Greek name Chloe means-blooming, verdant. Mythology: another name for Demeter, the goddess of agriculture. Rating: Variants: <P> Meaning of Chloe. Greek name. In Greek, the name Chloe means-verdant and blooming.The name Chloe originated as an Greek name. The name Chloe is most often used as a girl name or female name. Greek Name Meaning-verdant and blooming. Origin-Greece. <P> Chloe /chloe/ [2 sylls.] as a girls' name is pronounced KHLOH-ee. It is of Greek origin, and the meaning of Chloe is green shoot. From Khloe, originally used in the classical period to symbolize the fertility goddess Demeter in blooming and verdant glory. May be connected with Chloris. Chloe is a very popular first name for women (#1137 out of 4276, Top 27%) but a rare surname for all people. (2000 U.S. Census). Shown below is the baby name popularity of Chloe for girls. Chloe reached its top position of #9 in the U.S. in the year 2010, and is presently at #18. <P> Look up Chloe in Wiktionary, the free dictionary. Chloe (also Chloe, Chloë, Cloe, Chloee, Chlöe, Chloe, Chloé, Clowy, Kloe, Khloe khloe Khloë) khloe khloé kloe kloé or kloe kloë is, a first or given Name For girls especially popular. in the united kingdom since about 1990 <P> Popularity. See worldwide popularity rankings of Chloe as a baby name (outside USA). As a baby girl name, Chloe is currently a popular baby name, with a recent overall USA popularity ranking of 24 out of 1000 (source: 2000s U.S. Census) .
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Green shoot.
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how long does it take to get a license for massage therapy
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<P> Legal minimum hours for obtaining a massage therapy license vary by state, and these minimums range from 330 to 1,000 hours. Depending on how your program is structured, you can obtain your license in a matter of weeks, or it might take you up to two years. Always check with your state’s health board to find out the number of hours you need to complete in order to become licensed. In the U.S., most states require massage therapists to be licensed before they can legally practice. The majority of states require both a certain number of hours of education and a passing grade on the entry-level licensing exam known as the MBLEx. <P> Answers. Best Answer: You have to find out what is required in your state to become a massage therapist and then decide on how much education you personally need to be successful as the programs will often be much more training than is actually required just so you can get grants and loans. Then you need to have enough saved to start your own business which is usually 6 months to a year of savings to live on or a part time job that you can live on substantially while you build your practice. Source(s): http://www.thebodyworker.com/massage_sta... Jono · 7 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> Massage Therapist Licensing. 1 How long will it take for me to become licensed? 2 Can I obtain a temporary license? 3 Can I work as a massage therapist while waiting for my license? 4 Can I find out if my application will be approved before I submit it and pay the non-refundable fee? 5 What can I do to speed up the application process? 6 If licensure is 7 ... Is If you have not provided a valid e-mail address, then you may check the board web site using the Check a Massage Therapist License feature. Use the following link or find the option on the Board home page. Select Personal information (or the personal info tab). <P> Massage License Requirements by State. Find out what it takes to get your massage therapist license or massage therapy certification in your state. Massage therapy licensing requirements vary from state to state. This means that if you move, you may need to update your education or contact the licensing board to keep your massage license current. Make sure that your massage license will transfer you wherever you go <P> You can take full time or part time classes so it depends on which one you opt for also most states require you to have practice hours from 500 to 600 before you can take the certification exam. so http://www.massageregister.com/massage-faqs/education/how-long-does-massage-therapy-school-take. I am an integrative healthcare professional, massage therapist, and health sciences educator that loves everything that has to do with the human body, nature, and especially natural health. Once you have your graduation certificate from a massage therapy school there is no time limit for getting your license. Most people get their license soon after they graduate. If they need to take the NCETM, NCETMB, or MBLEx, it may take a bit longer <P> The time it takes you to become a massage therapist is determined by you and not just the state and school requirements you must meet. You time can be altered by a variety of other factors. One of those is the type of massage you choose to specialize in. Some schools will require you take more massage school hours in order to learn specific types of massage therapies. The amount of classes you take at a given time can also effect the how long it will take you to complete massage therapy school. If you are able to attend school on a full time schedule then you will graduate much faster then if you are only able to attend part time. Most of these states set guidelines for the amount of hours of massage therapy education which are required to become licensed. The average for these states ranges between 500 and 600 hours. Each state has requirements for how many of those hours are divided between classroom time and hands on training experienc
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It takes between 500 and 600 hours.
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where is taklimakan desert located
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<P> katrinaeugene. The Taklamakan Desert, also known as Taklimakan and Teklimakan, is a desert in northwest China, in the southwest portion of the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. It is bounded by the Kunlun Mountains to the south, and the desert Pamir Mountains and Tian Shan (ancient Mount Imeon) to the west and north. <P> Trade Route/Silk Road: One of the world's largest deserts, the Taklamakan, is located in the northwest region of modern China, in Xinjiang Uighur Autonomous Region. There are oases located on two routes around the desert that served as important trading spots on the Silk Road. <P> The Taklamakan Desert, also known as Taklimakan and Teklimakan, is a desert in southwest Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region, northwest China. <P> Taklamakan Desert. The Taklamakan Desert (also Taklimakan) is a desert of Central Asia, in the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region of the People's Republic of China. It is known as one of the largest sandy deserts in the world. It covers an area of 270,000 km2 of the Tarim Basin, 1,000 km long and 400 km wide. <P> acquired October 27, 2001 download Google Earth file (KML). The Taklimakan Desert in northwest China is a vast region of sand desert sitting in a depression between two high, rugged mountain ranges.
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Southwest Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region, northwest China
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what does a baby fahaka puffer eat
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<P> The Fahaka Puffer has not been bred commercially in captivity, but there are reports of successful breeding by hobbyists. The difficulty with breeding these fish is that they will normally kill each other on sight and when they do breed it is normally at 50 feet or deeper in nature. <P> THEY WILL NOT EAT FLAKES AND PELLETS. They eat frozen blood Worms and live mini pond snails. They need the snails once a month as their beaks may overgrow but these puffers are so tiny they don't have problem's like the bigger puffers with their beaks. They are true fresh water and should not be in brackish water. <P> I bought 3 baby puffer fish and they don't seem to be eating pellets, flakes or bloodworms. Do they have a special diet??? Also, are all puffers aggresive? They were in the "community" section of the fish store... <P> Do not eat your pet puffer. In consequence of their peculiar body plan, puffers do not swim as do most fish by curving and flexing the body. Most slow swimming is performed by the pectoral fins, with steering and stability provided by the dorsal, anal, and caudal fins. <P> How Often Do You Feed Your Puffer? in the Puffers forums, part of the Freshwater Fish Forums category. Hello, I have a new Figure 8 Puffer. It's just a baby (about 1 1 inches long). <P> All puffers have a sharp beak in their mouths and the Fahaka Puffer will use it to remove pieces from just about any living thing that is in the tank with them. They are a type of carnivore called a molluscivore, meaning they eat all sorts of benthic organisms like oysters, mussels, scallops, clams, and krill. <P> The Fahaka puffer is not an easy species to breed at all, mainly due to its aggressive temperament. However reports of breeding successes in large aquaria do exist. Ideally a separate breeding aquarium should be used, but the fish may also spawn when kept in a small group in a very large tank.
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They eat oysters, mussels, scallops, clams, and krill.
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how does ebay work for sellers
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<P> Notification. Once a buyer pays for an item through PayPal, you'll receive notification at the primary e-mail listed on your PayPal account. If the buyer is paying with an e-check, PayPal may inform you that the payment is pending. It is best to wait until payment clears before shipping items. <P> To sell or bid on items, you need a registered account with eBay. Registration is free and requires your name and email address, along with a password. Once registered, you have the option of connecting a PayPal account for fast payments. Some sellers only accept payment through PayPal. New Seller Payments. If you are a new eBay seller, expect a hold on PayPal payments. PayPal may hold the funds received from the buyer anywhere from 3 to 21 days after the buyer receives the item. <P> EBay is an online auction site allowing users to buy and sell items. Almost any item can be sold on eBay, whether it is new or used. Sellers set the terms of the auction, including the shipment options, payment methods and return policy. New Seller Payments. If you are a new eBay seller, expect a hold on PayPal payments. PayPal may hold the funds received from the buyer anywhere from 3 to 21 days after the buyer receives the item. <P> Receive payment: Before you ship your item, make sure the buyer has paid you, and that the payment has been accepted and credited to your account. If you listed in a category that lets you accept checks, make sure the check has cleared the bank. Ship the item to the buyer safely and on time: Pack your item as securely as possible. Package your item carefully. Make sure the shipment information is correct and includes your return address. You can create your shipping label and packing slip on eBay. Manage your listing. When you have your listing up and running, you can check to see if anyone's bid on or bought it by going to the Sell section of My eBay. You can also revise your listing. It's good customer service to answer any questions you receive from potential buyers about your item. <P> Learn about the fees for selling on eBay Motors. Fees for eBay Stores For a monthly subscription fee, you get an online Store and qualify for additional free listings and lower listing fees. Fees for Classified Ads Find out what it costs to place an ad for an item, service, or property. Fees for Real Estate. Paying your fees. Paying your seller fees Find out how to pay your fees and when payments are due. Looking at your seller account activity See your current balance, along with any fees, credits, or payments applied to your account. Reviewing your invoice Understand your invoice and find out how to get more detail. <P> Listings. Sellers create listings for the items they want to sell. Anyone with an eBay account can sell items on the site. You do need to confirm your address and telephone number and set up an automatic payment method for fees before selling. The “Sell” link at the top of each eBay page takes the user to the listing creation template. New Seller Payments. If you are a new eBay seller, expect a hold on PayPal payments. PayPal may hold the funds received from the buyer anywhere from 3 to 21 days after the buyer receives the item. <P> eBay-Seller fees & invoices. The basic cost of selling an item is the insertion fee plus the final value fee, plus fees for any optional features and services you may use. Learn more about how fees are calculated, the cost of listing and selling an item, and our standard selling fees. Paying your fees. Paying your seller fees Find out how to pay your fees and when payments are due. Looking at your seller account activity See your current balance, along with any fees, credits, or payments applied to your account. Reviewing your invoice Understand your invoice and find out how to get more detail. <P> For Sellers. Here's how bidding works on the site, from the seller's perspective. Any seller must first open an account with the site to be able to sell items. A PayPal account will also be necessary to make reception of payments possible. <P> Wrap up with your buyer. Whether you're starting a business or just want to make some extra cash, selling on eBay is a fun way to do it. You can set up a seller account in advance, or when you list your first item. To create a listing, just click Sell at the top of most eBay pages. Once you've got your listing up and running, you can check it to see how bidding is going. You do this from the Sell section of My eBay, which comes up when you sign into your eBay account. <P> How Does eBay Work. If you are clueless about how the online auction giant, eBay works, this article will be a revelation. Read to know all about it, from the buyer's and seller's perspective. Here's how bidding works on the site, from the seller's perspective. Any seller must first open an account with the site to be able to sell items. A PayPal account will also be necessary to make reception of payments possible.
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First of all any seller must first open an account with the site to be able to sell items. A PayPal account will also be necessary to make reception of payments possible and Any seller must first open an account with the site to be able to sell items.
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how many lymphs in colon
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<P> 1 Cancer has spread to one organ that is not near the colon, such as the liver, lung, or ovary, or to a distant lymph node. 2 Stage IVB: Cancer may have spread through the colon wall and may have spread to nearby organs or lymph nodes. <P> Lymph Nodes and Colon Cancer. (Ivanhoe Newswire) -- The number of lymph nodes evaluated for colon cancer has risen significantly over the past two decades. However, according to a study in the September 14 issue of JAMA, this improvement is not associated with an increase in node-positive cancers. <P> Stage describes the extent of cancer in the body. For colorectal cancer, the stage is based on how far the cancer has grown into the wall of the intestine, if it has reached nearby structures, and if it has spread to the lymph nodes or distant organs. The stage of a cancer is one of the most important factors in determining prognosis and treatment options. <P> Regional Lymph Nodes. There are between 100 and 150 lymph nodes in the mesentery of the colon. Regional lymph nodes are the nodes along the colon, plus the nodes along the major arteries that supply blood to that particular colon segment. <P> Overall, a positive association between increased survival and increased number of lymph nodes removed was reported by 16 of the 17 studies examined for patients with stage II colon cancer and in 4 of 6 of the studies that included patients with stage III colon cancer. <P> JeffreyFarmaMD (Physician-Surgery-Colon and Rectal (Verified)) - 01 / 23 / 2013. There are numerous lymph nodes that are located in the mesentery going to the colon or rectum. The mesentery is a fatty anatomic structure that has both lymph nodes and blood vessels supplying the colon and rectum.
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Between 100 to 150 lymphs
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how long chicken legs in oven
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<P> For the marinade, put all of the marinade ingredients into a large bowl and stir to combine. Add the chicken and allow to marinate while you preheat the oven to 200C/180C Fan/Gas 6. Put the chicken drumsticks on a roasting tray and roast for 20-30 minutes, or until the skin is golden and the chicken is cooked through. (To check, pierce the drumstick at its thickest part, next to the bone. <P> 2 tsp. black pepper. 1 cup BBQ sauce of choice. Heat oven to 400 degrees. Rinse and pat dry the chicken (make sure it is completely thawed) and place it in a large roasting pan or a rimmed baking sheet. Drizzle the chicken with olive oil and season it generously with salt and pepper. Place the pan in the oven and bake for 25 minutes. Reduce the heat to 375. Remove from oven and brush both sides one more time. Place in oven for an extra 7 to 10 minutes until the bbq sauce caramelizes and the chicken registers 170 degrees on a meat thermometer placed close to the bone. You can also slice the chicken, close to the bone, and if it is pink cook it for longer. <P> 1 Pour the oil into a 9x13 inch baking dish. 2 Add the chicken to the dish and sprinkle with paprika to taste. 3 Bake in the preheated oven for 30 minutes, then turn pieces over and bake for another 30 minutes. 4 Remove from oven and drain on paper towels. <P> Pre-heat oven to Convection Roast 400 degrees. Meanwhile, cover a pan with foil, and spray with a thin layer of canola spray. Place the chicken legs on the foil until the oven is preheated-about 15 minutes. When ready, put the pan in the oven and set your timer for 20 minutes. When time is up, change your heat to 325 degrees, then set timer for 10 minutes. When time is up, remove pan from oven and let sit for 10 minutes before eating <P> Baking the Chicken: Preheat the oven to 400°F. Bake the chicken, uncovered, for 35 to 40 minutes or until the chicken is no longer pink inside. You can bake the chicken legs in a 375°F. oven, if desired. Increase the baking time to 45 to 50 minutes. Tip: An accurate way to check chicken doneness is to insert an instant-read thermometer into the thigh, avoiding the bone. It should read 180°F when the chicken is done. <P> Directions. 1 Put some olive oil in the bottom of a 9X13 pan (just enough to put the drumsticks on). 2 Add drumsticks (space enough apart so they aren't touching each other). 3 Sprinkle generously with pepper and garlic powder. 4 Bake at 375 for half an hour. 5 Bake another half an hour (or until cooked til 160 degrees)). Directions. 1 Put some olive oil in the bottom of a 9X13 pan (just enough to put the drumsticks on). 2 Add drumsticks (space enough apart so they aren't touching each other). 3 Sprinkle generously with pepper and garlic powder. 4 Sprinkle lightly with salt. 5 <P> Once all of the chicken legs are coated and on the baking sheet, take a pastry brush and give them one last coating of the butter mixture. Place them into the oven for 30 to 35 minutes, basting a couple of times during roasting. Preheat the oven to 450 degrees F. Line baking sheets with foil. Melt the butter in a saucepan. Add the lemon juice, salt, black pepper, cayenne and garlic, and stir. Set aside. Rinse and pat the chicken legs dry. With metal tongs, dip them one by one into the butter mixture and place on the prepared baking sheets. <P> Bake the chicken. Put the chicken in the oven and set a timer for 30 minutes. Check the chicken after 30 minutes. It should be ready when the skin is crispy and golden brown, or when the internal temperature has reached 180 degrees. Use a meat thermometer to check the temperature. Baking, or roasting, chicken legs results in juicy, flavorful meat and crispy skin. Preparing them is as simple as tossing the legs with your favorite flavor combinations and popping them in the oven at a fairly high heat. Read on for three ways to make chicken legs: honey baked, spicy hot, and rosemary garlic. <P> Put a sheet tray in the oven to preheat. Wash and trim the chicken legs of any excess fat. Mix the garlic, rosemary and panko together in a shallow rimmed dish and season well with salt and pepper. Alternately, crush the garlic and rosemary with some olive oil and salt in a mortar and pestle. Roast until the chicken legs are golden and crispy, about 35 to 40 minutes Remove the chicken from the oven to a serving platter.
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35 to 40 minutes
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how much money do you get a week if you are a singer
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<P> It all depends on the type of accountant you are. For Chartered Accountants (CA's) you earn anything ranging from $50,000-$200,000 a year, averaging out to about $961.53 to $ … 3,846.15 a week. <P> And a Forensic Accountant (FA's) earn about $40,000-$200,000 a year, about $762.23-$3,846.15 a week. A CA is the best job because you can work for yourself, or for a company, you can participate in public practice, where as CGA's and CMA's are forced to practice under others. <P> Singers can make anything from nothing to millions-depending on how good they are, what connections they have to the music industry, how popular they are, etc. An average singer making a living as a singer might make 30-50 thousand dollars a year. That really depends on how successful you get. First starting out, you might make no money. <P> Confidence votes 52.6K. Singers can make anything from nothing to millions-depending on how good they are, what connections they have to the music industry, how popular they are, etc. An average singer making a living as a singer might make 30-50 thousand dollars a year. That really depends on how successful you get. First starting out, you might make no money. <P> For a Certified General Accountant (CGA's) you can earn anything ranging from $40,000-$100,000 a year, about $762.23-$1923.08 a week. A Certified Management Accountant (CMA's) you can earn anything from $35,000-$150,000 a year, averageing about $673.08-$2,884.62 a week. <P> How much money is made, on a per album basis, depends on album sales, contract terms, whether the artist is also receiving royalties for having composed songs on the album. A 13-song album could net as much as $1.17 per for the artist but the record label will always get the lion's share, roughly 62%. <P> Generally $500 to $1,500 for each performance as a headliner and you do 20-40 in a year. They then charge you back for all expenses and the first album charge back can be anywhere from $500,000 to $1,000,000 and you get basically 50 cents per unit sold so you have to sell 1,000,000 units just to break even. <P> Generally $500 to $1,500 for each performance as a headliner and you do 20-40 in a year. They then charge you back for all expenses and the first album charge back can be anywhere from $500,000 to $1,000,000 and you get basically 50 cents per unit sold so you have to sell 1,000,000 units just to break even. <P> I have worked as a cruise ship singer before, and as a production singer you can make anywhere from $650/wk at the lowest end, to $800/wk average, all the way up to $1,5 … 00/wk if you are lucky enough to land the best luxury liners.
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Production singer $650/wk at the lowest end, to $800/wk average, all the way up to $1,500/wk.
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why were women not allowed on kabuki stage
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<P> Report Abuse. They were convinced women were 'lesser' beings than men, and they considered theatre an art. Thus, women weren't allowed to play. Just like they weren't supposed to have a personality, or any influence either. It was a man's world, and the only thing women were good for was get and raise children. Why were women not allowed to perform on the public stage in Elizabethan times? I'm learning about Shakespeare and I can't find any reason for women not being allowed on the stage. <P> No women take part in traditional kabuki. Women were banned at an early stage of kabuki's development because an important side business of the onna (women's) kabuki troupes was prostitution, and men assumed the female roles. The art of female impersonation (onnagata) was developed into a theatrical role requiring years of training. Unlike noh drama, which is solemn and ritualized, kabuki is designed to entertain an audience with dramatic, often spectacular, effects. A kabuki play opens to the rapid clapping of wooden clappers as the traditional stage curtain, in black, green, and persimmon vertical stripes, is drawn open. <P> Kabuki (̕) is a traditional Japanese form of theater with roots tracing back to the Edo Period. It is recognized as one of Japan's three major classical theaters along with noh and bunraku, and has been named as a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage. If you come across people from the audience shouting out names at the actors on stage, do not mistake this for an act of disrespect: all kabuki actors have a yago (hereditary stage name), which is closely associated to the theater troupe which he is from. <P> Report Abuse. Acting was considered an immodest occupation, and not fit for women. Actors were not highly regarded in the Elizabethan period, which is why theatres in London for instance had to be built in southwark, south of the Thames, outside of the city. if a women preformed on stage she was considerd a whore.um their is a movie called stage beauty with clair danes in it..which she goes on to be the first female to play a female and not be seen as a whore. <P> In 1954, East Side Theater was made, and Kabuki stage relied on TV. In 1965, Kabuki was seen as an important cultural heritage. After World War II, the Japanese came to see that Kabuki as an important part of their culture. Kabuki was started by a woman, Izumo no Okuni, who performed in the dry river bed in Kyoto in 1603. It was very popular, especially because many of the stories and dance moves were about sex. Many of the women performers were probably prostitutes. <P> The one person who was aware that women were allowed on the stage in Spain claimed that actors were all disreputable, which is simply not true; the most successful actors were very well connected, being included even in court functions. That questioner wrote, I remember reading that there was a law in Spain that said they could. But I don't know if that only covered Spain.. The answer is that it depends upon the country, but in England, women were not allowed on the stage until 1660. Of course, you wouldn't know that from reading the Yahoo! answer.. In fact, the best that anyone did was to know as much as the questioner did <P> Kabuki (歌舞伎) is a classical Japanese dance-drama. Kabuki theatre is known for the stylization of its drama and for the elaborate make-up worn by some of its performers. The individual kanji, from left to right, mean sing (歌), dance (舞), and skill (伎). Kabuki is therefore sometimes translated as the art of singing and dancing. Since the word kabuki is believed to derive from the verb kabuku, meaning to lean or to be out of the ordinary, kabuki can be interpreted as avant-garde or bizarre theatre. The expression kabukimono (歌舞伎者) referred originally to those who were bizarrely dressed and swaggered on a street. <P> No. Women were only allowed on stage after 1660, following the downfall of Cromwell's puritanical government. The first recorded female actor in England was Margaret Hughes, who played Desdemona in Thomas Killigrew's production of Othello. <P> Charles reign did however see the first appearance of professional female players on the stage in England-but they were not English. Charles's Queen, Henrietta Maria, was a Frenchwoman and it was her influence that brought a French company, complete with actresses, to perform in London at the Blackfriars Theatre. Not only were women to continue to be banned from the stage, now theatrical performance in its entirety was to be banned, and all of the theatres were closed down. Paradoxically, this ban on theatre in all its forms would lead to the door finally being opened for English women to appear on the stage.
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Because an important side business of the onna (women's) kabuki troupes was prostitution, and men assumed the female roles.The art of female impersonation (onnagata) was developed into a theatrical role requiring years of training.
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how long do you have to work somewhere to file unemployment?
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<P> Generally, you have up to 26 weeks of eligibility depending on how much you have earned in your base period. If you return to work of if you have deductible income for any week, you may draw more or less than 26 weeks. <P> For example, if you apply for unemployment in March 2012, the base period would be October 1, 2010 though September 30, 2011 (in that example, since the last complete calendar quarter was October 1, 2011 through December 31, 2011, the base period is the four quarters preceding that one). <P> You can collect the equivalent of 26 weeks of total unemployment benefits on a claim. A claim is in effect for a one-year period. Within that claim year, maximum benefits would be 26 times your Weekly Benefit Rate. Using the previous example, with a Weekly Benefit Rate of $152, you would be entitled to collect $3,952. <P> Q. How long will I have had to work to be monetarily eligible for benefits? You must have wages in at least two quarters of your qualifying period (base period). The base period is the first four quarters (12 months) of the last five completed quarters from the date your claim is filed. <P> While unemployment benefits may cover up to 50% of your earned wages, most states also have established a cap on how much you can receive. Meaning, if 50% of your wages is an amount over the maximum benefits, then you will not receive 50%. <P> 1 b. 2 You must have earned at least $7,000 in total wages in at least two quarters of the base period, with wages in one quarter equal to $5,987.50 or more (2013). 3 Once you have determined your earnings for your base period, you can find out how much unemployment you will receive by checking this chart. <P> AND. The total wages paid to you in your base period must be one and one-half times your high quarter wages. We use no more than $9,240 of your high quarter earnings to determine if you qualify. You must have earned at least half that amount ($4,620) in the other base period quarters. <P> 1 Your earnings during the entire base period must be at least one-and-a-half times your wages in the highest paid quarter of the base period. 2 For example, if you earned $5,000 during your highest paid quarter, your total earnings for the base period year must be at least $7,500. <P> 1 OR. 2 b. 3 You must have earned at least $7,000 in total wages in at least two quarters of the base period, with wages in one quarter equal to $5,987.50 or more (2013). 4 Once you have determined your earnings for your base period, you can find out how much unemployment you will receive by checking this chart.
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26 weeks
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how long do dachshunds sleep
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<P> 8 to 9 hours. Basically, enough uninterrupted sleep so that you don't feel jet lag at the end of the week and want to sleep until noon over the weekend. adults should … sleep 7-9 hours. children should sleep 10-12 hours. My doctor has told me that tweens need 9 hours of sleep a night! A Sleep Doctor should tell you to sleep 10 hours of sleep not 9 hours. <P> The amount of time spent napping varies from dog to dog and depends on the dog's age and personality. Counting little naps and longer snoozes, most puppies sleep from 18 to 20 hours a day. As your puppy ages, he will sleep less. Adult dogs sleep about fourteen hours a day. The various breeds of dogs also seem to have different sleep requirements. Some very large breeds of dogs, like Newfoundlands, Saint Bernards, and mastiffs, often spend a great deal of their lives sleeping – perhaps up to sixteen or even eighteen hours a day even as adults. <P> Newborns will sleep 20 hours a day or more, toddlers age 1 to 3 need about 12 hours of sleep per 24 hours, … more when they are in a growth spurt. Young school age kids ages 5 to 12 need 8 to 10 hours, but at that age it really depends on the child. My doctor has told me that tweens need 9 hours of sleep a night! A Sleep Doctor should tell you to sleep 10 hours of sleep not 9 hours. <P> The amount of sleep, however, varies within very wide limits from individual to individual. Normally, seven to eight hours of sleep every night is adequate for most people. So … me, however, do well with four to five hours because their sleep is deeper and more refreshing. My doctor has told me that tweens need 9 hours of sleep a night! A Sleep Doctor should tell you to sleep 10 hours of sleep not 9 hours. <P> I've got a new dachshund puppy. She's about 5-6 months old and she sleeps almost all day. Is it normal for her to sleep so much? She sleeps from 10pm-7am every night and she takes several 1-2 hour naps during the day. But she is active for about 5-6 hours during the day where she is very hyper. <P> There's no doubt about it: dogs sure know how to sleep. The amount of time spent napping varies from dog to dog and depends on the dog's age and personality. Counting little naps and longer snoozes, most dogs sleep about fourteen hours a day. Dogs sleep more than us, but they wake more frequently than we do. How much and when they sleep depends on the level of activity in their environment. A dog living as a pet in the home is likely to sleep more than a dog that works for a living, like a search and rescue dog or a dog working on a farm. <P> 1 For instance, dogs that are 2 months old and under should only be kept in a crate for up to an hour, while 2-3 month old dogs can start moving up to 1 to 3 hours. 2 By the time your puppy is about 4 months, she should be able to stay in the crate for up to 4 hours. 1 Very young dogs should not be kept in the crate for even 4 hours. 2 <P> How to Take Care of a Dachshund. Three Methods: Protecting Your Dachshund’s Back Training Your Dachshund Grooming Your Dachshund. The dachshund (pronounced DAK-sund) is a breed of dog with shorter legs and a longer back than most. Originating from Germany, the dachshund was originally a hunting dog.
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8 to 9 hours.
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when was davidstow creamery built
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<P> 14.3%. Dairy Crest produces and markets the UK’s leading cheese brand, Cathedral City, as well as the premium Davidstow cheddar brand. The short supply chain starts with milk from around 400 dairy farms in Cornwall and Devon. This is made into cheese at our Davidstow creamery in Cornwall. The cheese is then matured for on average 11 months at our purpose-built Nuneaton facility before being cut packed and distributed to customers. We also operate a highly flexible packing site in Frome, Somerset. The whey produced as a by-product of cheese making is also processed at Davidstow. <P> At 294 metres (970’) it is the highest airfield in Britain. This made the airfield very susceptible to hill fog, sea mists and low cloud, all of which are not a good thing if you happen to be flying aircraft. It was estimated in 1943 that for 80% of the time, weather conditions at Davidstow were unsuitable for flying. <P> The source of the Inny is very close to the Davidstow Cheese factory, from a spring in the field opposite Pendragon House. 1 Cross the stile onto the road (beware of traffic). 2 Carefully cross the road, turn right and follow the road then a pavement until you reach granite steps on the left leading up to the church. <P> 12.1%. 14.9%. Dairy Crest produces and markets Cathedral City, the UK’s leading cheese brand, as well as the premium Davidstow cheddar brand. Milk from around 400 farmers in Cornwall and Devon is made into cheddar cheese at our Davidstow creamery in Cornwall. The cheese is then matured for an average of 11 months at our purpose built Nuneaton facility before being cut, packed and distributed to customers. <P> “Dairy Crest is very proud of the dairy business it has built and we are delighted that it will be combined with Mueller Müller Wiseman’ dairies equally-well established. Operation this proposed sale is a great opportunity for our two, companies our, farmers our, staff our customers and”. consumers
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The cheese is then matured for an average of 11 months at our purpose built Nuneaton facility before being cut, packed and distributed to customers.
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what is tempering
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<P> Definition: Tempering refers to a process of heating and cooling chocolate to prepare it for dipping and enrobing. The tempering process ensures that the cocoa butter in chocolate hardens in a uniform crystal structure. Chocolate that is tempered has a smooth texture, a glossy shine and a pleasant “snap” when bitten or broken. <P> Digital Vision/Getty Images. Definition: Tempering is a heat treatment process that improves the ductility and toughness of metals. In steel, martensite phase is formed when excess carbon is trapped in the austenitic lath and quickly cooled (usually by water quenching). <P> Tempering is a heat treatment technique applied to ferrous alloys, such as steel or cast iron, to achieve greater toughness by decreasing the hardness of the alloy. The reduction in hardness is usually accompanied by an increase in ductility, thereby decreasing the brittleness of the metal. <P> The quick tempering method is to melt two-thirds of the chocolate to be tempered to a temperature of 115°F then add the remaining one-third (finely chopped) chocolate to the melted mixture, stirring until the mixture has reached 89°F and is smooth. <P> In precipitation-hardening alloys, such as aluminum superalloys, tempering causes evenly distributed alloying elements from the solution annealed product to react internally, creating intermetallic phases known as precipitates.
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A heat treatment technique applied to ferrous alloys, such as steel or cast iron, to achieve greater toughness by decreasing the hardness of the alloy.
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how do you take pictures from computer and put on sd card
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<P> 5. Turn off camera and disconnect. Or ... You can also use a Card Reader to transfer your files from your memory card to your computer. To use a card reader follow these instructions: 1. Make sure your camera is off and remove your camera's memory card. 2. Plug your memory card into your card reader. 3. Plug your card reader into an available USB port on <P> 3) Double-click on the SD card drive and navigate to the folder with the pictures. 4) Select the pictures that you want to copy. 5) Copy them using the keyboard shortcut (ctrl-c or use the menu. 6) Open the folder you want them in on the computer. 7) Paste them in that folder (ctrl-v or use the menu). <P> Open the folder that contains the pictures you want to transfer to the PC, if the pictures are not stored in the root folder of the card. Step 6. Select the pictures. Press and hold Ctrl, and then click several pictures to select multiple items, or press Ctrl-A to select all pictures in the folder. <P> Step 1. Insert the memory stick into an SD port on your computer or a memory card reader that's connected to the PC. Click the Windows orb and select Computer in the right pane of the Start menu. Double-click the SD memory stick in the Devices with Removable Storage section and then minimize the folder that opens. <P> If your computer has a an SD crad reader, when you insert a card into it, it's just like a disk drive. You can copy files from *that* disk drive to your real disk drive just as you would from any other disk drive--copy and paste, drag and drop, etc. If you don't know how to do those things, write back for more info. <P> display the directory of the card and you can copy/paste or. drag/drop the photos of your choice to a folder on your hard. drive. Just right click a selected group of photos and choose...Copy... then navigate to the folder you want them in and right click the. folder and choose Paste.
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1. Make sure your camera is off and remove your camera's memory card. 2. Plug your memory card into your card reader. 3. Plug your card reader into an available USB port on your computer.3) Double-click on the SD card drive and navigate to the folder with the pictures. 4) Select the pictures that you want to copy. 5) Copy them using the keyboard shortcut 6) Open the folder you want them in on the computer. 7) Paste them in that folder.
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crystals in urine in neutered cats
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<P> These crystals, which are like very fine sand, irritate the bladder. In male cats, the crystals may plug the urethra (the tube that carries urine from the bladder, through the penis, to the outside of the body). This is a life-threatening condition, since the cat would be unable to urinate. In the past, crystals and stones made of struvite were more common in cats. As a result, diets were developed to minimize the risk of forming struvite. These diets were low in magnesium and cats eating them produced an acidic (low pH) urine. <P> Stones may actually form anywhere in the entire urinary tract. The urinary stones in cats can be found in the kidneys, ureters (tiny tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder), bladder, or urethra (the tube from the bladder to the outside of the animal). They can also obstruct the outflow of urine. In the past, crystals and stones made of struvite were more common in cats. As a result, diets were developed to minimize the risk of forming struvite. These diets were low in magnesium and cats eating them produced an acidic (low pH) urine. <P> Crystals in Neutered Male Cats. Straining in the litter box could mean your furry friend has a urinary obstruction. Male kitties, neutered or not, can suffer from crystals in their urine, though crystals occur more frequently in fixed ones. Crystals in the urine are dangerous to cats, causing infection and inability to urinate. They require veterinary care and diagnosis to properly treat <P> Proper diet will acidify the urine. However, if your cat's crystals are not struvite, acidification may actually make recurrence more likely. Therefore, if at all possible, the crystals in the urine should be analyzed for their composition. This is the most important step in preventing future problems. 2. <P> So has a vet has seen your cat? Crystals can cause a blockage in male cats, they will not be able to pass urine. It can come on quickly and be life threatening. As far as dry cat food, intact males need to be on a low magnesium diet, read the labels, it will usually say urinary tract formula. Iams makes one, so does Purina, 9 Lives and Science Diet. <P> Bacterial infections are the most common cause of cystitis in dogs and humans, but most cats with cystitis do not have bacteria in their urine. Neutering of male cats has been proposed as a potential cause, but this has been disproved as an initiating factor. However, if your cat's crystals are not struvite, acidification may actually make recurrence more likely. Therefore, if at all possible, the crystals in the urine should be analyzed for their composition. This is the most important step in preventing future problems. 2. <P> Bladder stones are rock-like deposits of minerals, crystals and organic material that are found in a cat ’s bladder. They can remain small in size or grow to be several millimeters in diameter, and may rub against the bladder walls, causing inflammation. Bladder stones can also lead to blockage of the urethra and can interfere with a cat’s ability to urinate. There are several types of minerals that form stones under different conditions in a cat’s urinary tract. <P> 1. The most common type of crystals present in the urine are called struvite. These are dissolvable in acidic urine. Therefore, acidification of your cat's urine can be a significant means of prevention. It has been shown that environmental stress can produce the opposite of acidic (alkaline) urine. However, if your cat's crystals are not struvite, acidification may actually make recurrence more likely. Therefore, if at all possible, the crystals in the urine should be analyzed for their composition. This is the most important step in preventing future problems. 2. <P> --------------------. I just lost my 16 year old male neutered cat to cancer. He had crystals twice in his lifetime and flushing him out by the vet took care of it. He was neutered as a kitten and it is true, as others have pointed out, that a lot of males have a very small bladder, which he did. As you have already read in my previous posts that my kitty osi passed away due to formation of crystals in his bladder earlier this mo. What i would like to know is how to prevent this in the future. Apparently this is a problem to male cats that are neutered. I would like to in the future adopt another male cat.
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Straining in the litter box could mean your furry friend has a urinary obstruction. Male kitties, neutered or not, can suffer from crystals in their urine, though crystals occur more frequently in fixed ones.Crystals in the urine are dangerous to cats, causing infection and inability to urinate. They require veterinary care and diagnosis to properly treat.
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what is a digital mucous cyst
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<P> There are two types of digital mucous cysts: one type is associated with degenerative changes in the distal interphalangeal joint, and the second type is independent of the joint and arises from metabolic derangement of fibroblasts that produce large quantities of hyaluronic acid. There are two types of digital mucous cysts. 1, 4, 9 One type is associated with degenerative changes in the distal interphalangeal joint and looks similar to ganglia and synovial cysts. <P> A digital myxoid cyst (sometimes called a mucous cyst) is an entirely benign swelling that occurs on the fingers or, sometimes, the toes. Digital myxoid cysts are not catching and not a sign of infection. Furthermore, they are not cancerous and will not develop into skin cancer. <P> Digital mucous cysts are solitary, clear, or flesh-colored nodules that develop on the dorsal digits between the distal interphalangeal joint and the proximal nail fold. There are two types of digital mucous cysts. 1, 4, 9 One type is associated with degenerative changes in the distal interphalangeal joint and looks similar to ganglia and synovial cysts. <P> Digital Mucous Cysts. These small fluid filled cysts appear at the base of the fingernail or on the end joint of the finger. Caused by joint synovitis or arthritis, this fluid is an eruption of extra fluid in the joint. Learn how IBJI can help with arthritis treatment and the conditions associated with it. <P> A digital mucous cyst refers to a small benign cyst that is located towards the ends of the fingers or under the nail bed. These cysts involve the distal joints of the fingers and can sometimes involve the toes. Digital mucous cysts are a fairly common condition and form a part of a group of conditions called ganglia. There does not appear to be a clear cause for digital mucous cysts. It is believed that they occur due to connective tissue degeneration along with osteoarthritis of the joints in the hand. Some tumors are also believed to cause this condition. <P> Background. Digital mucous cysts (DMCs) are benign ganglion cysts of the digits, typically located at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints or in the proximal nail fold. They usually occur on the hands, although they have also been noted on the toes. Age. Digital mucous cysts usually occur in the fifth to seventh decades, yet they may be seen as early as the teenage years or among the elderly population. The mean age of onset is 60 years. One report describes a case in association with cutaneous mucinosis of infancy. <P> A digital mucous cyst is a common, benign lesion that presents as a firm nodule on the fingers or toes. The lesions are usually not painful and are found near the distal joints. <P> Digital mucous cyst is a ganglion cyst that arises from the end finger knuckle (the distal interphalangeal joint) or nail matrix, and appears on the back of the fingertip 1. Etymology (from Greek): digitus = finger; mucous refers to a thick substance in the cyst; cyst = enclosed pouch 6.
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A digital mucous cyst refers to a small benign cyst that is located towards the ends of the fingers or under the nail bed.
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what are eicosanoids
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<P> Eicosanoids are an extremely complex group of organic molecules that have a number of functions in the body. Derived from fatty acids, they are signaling molecules, with a short half-life, that control a number of different pathways. <P> A. Eicosanoids are a family of powerful, hormone-like compounds produced in the body from Essential Fatty Acids... Eicosanoids are compounds that include prostaglandins, prostacyclins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes, which are responsible for many of the beneficial effects of the good fats. However, some eicosanoids, such as those derived from Arachidonic Acid, are potentially harmful if excessive amounts build up in the body. <P> The networks of controls that depend upon eicosanoids are among the most complex in the human body. Eicosanoids are derived from either omega-3 (ω-3) or omega-6 (ω-6) fatty acids. In general, the ω-6 eicosanoids are pro-inflammatory; ω-3s are much less so. The amounts and balance of these fats in a person's diet will affect the body's eicosanoid-controlled functions, with effects on cardiovascular disease, triglycerides, blood pressure, and arthritis. Eicosanoid biosynthesis begins when a cell is activated by mechanical trauma, cytokines, growth factors or other stimuli. (The stimulus may even be an eicosanoid from a neighboring cell; the pathways are complex.) This triggers the release of a phospholipase at the cell membrane. <P> Eicosanoids are sorta like hormones, in that they act like little messengers telling your body what to do and how to do it. Unlike hormones, though, there is no organ in your body that secretes them. They’re actually released when you eat certain types of foods. <P> Eicosanoids are often thought of as local hormones. They have a variety of effects on your body. In this lesson, you will learn about the functions of three important eicosanoids: prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes. Eicosanoids work like hormones, but they do not like to travel. Eicosanoids go by the nickname 'local hormones' because they act on cells close to their site of production. Eicosanoids also rapidly break down, so they are not able to travel very far. <P> What Are Eicosanoids? Eicosanoids are super hormones because they affect the synthesis of virtually every other hormone in one s body. Eicosanoids are the body s cellular check and balance system. Eicosanoids are controlled by dietary fat and insulin. In other words, eicosanoids can be controlled if one is consuming the correct amount of Omega-6 and Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) and controlling a good hormonal balance between insulin and glucagon. Eicosanoids come from the Greek word eicosa which means twenty. <P> Most eicosanoids are produced from arachidonic acid, which is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that you get from eating foods like animal fats. They have many effects on your body, including inflammation, fever promotion, blood pressure regulation, and blood clotting. Eicosanoids work like hormones, but they do not like to travel. Eicosanoids go by the nickname 'local hormones' because they act on cells close to their site of production. Eicosanoids also rapidly break down, so they are not able to travel very far. <P> Medical Definition of EICOSANOID. : any of a class of compounds (as the prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes) derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids (as arachidonic acid) and involved in cellular activity. Britannica.com: Encyclopedia article about eicosanoid. Definition of EICOSANOID. : any of a class of compounds (as the prostaglandins) derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids (as arachidonic acid) and involved in cellular activity. ADVERTISEMENT. <P> There are multiple subfamilies of eicosanoids, including the prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes, as well as the lipoxins and eoxins, and others. For each, there are two or three separate series, derived from either an ω-3 or an ω-6 EFA. Eicosanoid biosynthesis begins when a cell is activated by mechanical trauma, cytokines, growth factors or other stimuli. (The stimulus may even be an eicosanoid from a neighboring cell; the pathways are complex.) This triggers the release of a phospholipase at the cell membrane. <P> Eicosanoids. The essential fatty acids omega-3 and omega-6 are transformed in the body into hormones called eicosanoids, e.g. prostaglandin is an eicosanoid. They all have 20 carbon atoms, and the name comes from the Greek word eikos which means 20. There are also other things that determine the balance between good and bad eicosanoids, such as the hormones insulin and glucagon. A diet consisting of a high amount of carbohydrates-especially fast carbohydrates-creates too much insulin in the body. This means that there will be an over-production of bad e
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They are an extremely complex group of organic molecules that have a number of functions in the body.
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