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how expensive would a dental plan be if u have bad teeth	<P> Cavities: Many people seek out oral surgeons for their filling procedures because they can get deeper into the tooth and can sometimes be more effective. Cost: $75 to $250. Porcelain crowns: Porcelain crowns are often very expensive to have done. They are placed over sick or dying teeth. <P> If you are considering implants, talk to your dentist to see if they are right for you. In general, dental implants are not covered by dental insurance at this time. Coverage under your medical plan may be possible, depending on the insurance plan and/or cause of tooth loss. <P> It spreads infection through your body and could affect your heart. Joan, North Carolina, US Good/bad teeth are very regional in the U.S. I live in the middle of America where the cost of living is very reasonable as is the cost of dental care. I was quoted $7000 to get the same work done in New York vs $700 here. Actually they wanted to do 1 or 2 unnecessary root canals. <P> You will need to have a clean bill of health for your mouth before you can join most schemes. You may need to have a full course of treatment (pay-as-you-go) to achieve this. Some plans may include insurance cover for accidental damage and dental emergencies. Dental insurance (this can cover both NHS and private costs). <P> Preventative care is the key to maintaining oral health – brush twice a day, floss once a day, and get regular dental cleanings and check-ups. Sadly, many people struggle to fit dental care into their budgets. If you’ve been putting off seeing your dentist – or getting essential treatment – due to the high cost of care, you need a dental savings plan. To explore your money-saving options, click here or give us a call at 1-800-238-5449.	$75 to $250
what is scabies disease	<P> Scabies is a contagious, itchy skin disease caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei, a microscopic mite that burrows under the skin. Scabies is characterized by intense itching caused by a skin reaction to the mites. <P> The most common symptoms of scabies, itching and a skin rash, are caused by sensitization (a type of “allergic” reaction) to the proteins and feces of the parasite. Severe itching (pruritus), especially at night, is the earliest and most common symptom of scabies. <P> Scabies is an itchy skin condition caused by a tiny burrowing mite called Sarcoptes scabiei. The presence of the mite leads to intense itching in the area of its burrows. The urge to scratch may be especially strong at night. <P> Scabies is a contagious skin disease caused by mite. It attacks men, women and children and spreads by direct contact or sharing of clothes. The mites enter the skin and deposit eggs which on maturing produces itchy rash on the skin. Itching at night, rashes in fingers and sores on the skin are the symptoms of scabies. <P> 1 Scabies is an itchy, highly contagious skin disease caused by an infestation by the itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei. 2 Direct skin-to-skin contact is the mode of transmission. 3 A severe and relentless itch is the predominant symptom of scabies. <P> Scabies facts. 1 Scabies is an itchy, highly contagious skin disease caused by an infestation by the itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei. 2 Direct skin-to-skin contact is the mode of transmission. <P> Disease. When a person is infested with scabies mites the first time, symptoms usually do not appear for up to two months (2-6 weeks) after being infested; however, an infested person still can spread scabies during this time even though he/she does not have symptoms.	Scabies is a contagious, itchy skin disease caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei, a microscopic mite that burrows under the skin.
what does acyclovir treat	<P> Acyclovir is used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, shingles, herpes virus infections of the genitals (sex organs), the skin, the brain, and mucous membranes (lips and mouth), and widespread herpes virus infections in newborns. Acyclovir is also used to prevent recurrent genital herpes infections. Although acyclovir will not cure herpes, it does help relieve the pain and discomfort and helps the sores (if any) heal faster. Acyclovir may also be used for other virus infections as determined by your doctor. However, it does not work in treating certain virus infections, such as the common cold. Acyclovir is available only with your doctor's prescription <P> USES: Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by certain types of viruses. It treats cold sores around the mouth (caused by herpes simplex), shingles (caused by herpes zoster), and chickenpox. This medication is also used to treat outbreaks of genital herpes. In people with frequent outbreaks, acyclovir is used to help reduce the number of future episodes. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug <P> Uses. Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by certain types of viruses. It treats cold sores around the mouth (caused by herpes simplex), shingles (caused by herpes zoster), and chickenpox. This medication is also used to treat outbreaks of genital herpes. In people with frequent outbreaks, acyclovir is used to help reduce the number of future episodes. <P> INDICATIONS. Herpes Zoster Infections: ZOVIRAX (acyclovir) is indicated for the acute treatment of herpes zoster (shingles). Genital Herpes: ZOVIRAX (acyclovir) is indicated for the treatment of initial episodes and the management of recurrent episodes of genital herpes. Chickenpox: ZOVIRAX (acyclovir) is indicated for the tr eatment of chickenpox (varicella). <P> A. View Sources. Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by certain types of viruses. It treats cold sores around the mouth (caused by herpes simplex), shingles (caused by herpes zoster), and chickenpox. This medication is also used to treat outbreaks of genital herpes. In people with frequent outbreaks, acyclovir is used to help reduce the number of future episodes. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug. <P> It treats cold sores around the mouth (caused by herpes simplex), shingles (caused by herpes zoster), and chickenpox .This medication is also used to treat outbreaks of genital herpes. In people with frequent outbreaks, acyclovir is used to help reduce the number of future episodes.Acyclovir is an antiviral drug. <P> Acyclovir is the generic name for Zovirax, a prescription medication used to treat certain virus infections. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved acyclovir to treat viral infections from the varicella virus that causes chicken pox and shingles, as well as infections from the virus that causes genital herpes. Acyclovir is one of the oldest drugs used to treat herpes simplex viruses and remains the first line of treatment for these infections. However, research shows that acyclovir is not as effective as it used to be. <P> A: Acyclovir (Zovirax) http://www.everydayhealth.com/drugs/acyclovir is a medication used to treat viral infections. The most common side effects associated with the oral form of Acyclovir are diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, headache, and feeling tired (malaise). Acyclovir cream and ointment can cause skin irritation. Acyclovir is one of the oldest drugs used to treat herpes simplex viruses and remains the first line of treatment for these infections. However, research shows that acyclovir is not as effective as it used to be. <P> A: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is an antiviral medication that can be used in the treatment of the herpes virus, including genital herpes, cold sores, and shingles. Acyclovir can also be used to help with the chicken pox virus. Acyclovir is one of the oldest drugs used to treat herpes simplex viruses and remains the first line of treatment for these infections. However, research shows that acyclovir is not as effective as it used to be.	It is used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, shingles, herpes virus infections of the genitals (sex organs), the skin, the brain, and mucous membranes (lips and mouth), and widespread herpes virus infections in newborns.
what does the countercurrent mechanism in the nephron do	<P> Henle's Loop. The portion of the nephron called the 'Henle's loop' is shown in the right half of the illustration. It consists of a descending limb that has a down arrow in it and an ascending limb with an up arrow in it. The ascending limb has a thick and a thin segment. Counter-Current Mechanisms. The mechanisms shown here are traditionally called the 'counter-current multiplier' and the 'counter-current exchanger'. The first takes place in the region of the nephron called Henle's loop; the second occurs in a region of the peritubular capillary bed called the 'vasa recta'. <P> 1. The Loop of Henle establishes medullary hyperosmolarity The ascending limb of the loop of Henle transports solutes (NaCl) out of the tubule lumen with little or no water, generating an hyperosmotic medullary interstitium and delivering an hyposmotic tubule fluid to the distal tubule. 4. Mechanism of hyperosmotic reabsorption in the TAL. There is apical Na-K-2Cl reabsorptive cotransport with K recycling through apical K-channels, and basolateral transport of Na via the Na-K-ATPase and of Cl via Cl-channels, in the water impermeable epithelium of the TAL. <P> Loop of Henle -- This segment of the nephron plays a major role in the countercurrent exchange/multiplier system of water conservation. It has the ability to concentrate solutes, increase osmotic pressure, and conserve or excrete water. It also serves as a sight of Na, K, and Cl conservation. <P> Increased sodium and chloride ion concentrations in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla is the result of countercurrent mechanisms. <P> 1 loop of Henle = U shaped loop that dips into the renal medulla = countercurrent multiplier mechanism occurs here. 2 Descending limb = water reabsorption by osmosis (permeable to water, but not to solute). 3 Bottom of U = most concentrated. 4 Ascending limb = salt reabsorption (permeable to salt, but not water). 1 Nephron = functional unit of kidney = glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct (shared by many nephron). 2 glomerulus = ball of fenestrated capillaries. 3 Bowman's capsule = Cup/Capsule that surrounds the glomerulus. <P> Best Answer: In the kidney, the loop of Henle is the portion of the nephron that leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. The loop has a hairpin bend in the renal medulla. The main function of this structure is to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. To do this, it uses a countercurrent multiplier mechanism in the medulla. It is named after its discoverer, F. G. J. Henle. COUNTERCURRENT SYSTEM and the LOOP OF HENLE 1. <P> A countercurrent multiplication loop is a system where fluid flows in a loop so that the entrance and exit are at similar low concentration of a dissolved substance but at the far end of the loop there is a high concentration of that substance. The exchange of heat in this diagram (1) is an example of countercurrent exchange. In this example the cold water requires the birds circulatory system to recycle heat and minimize heat loss through the skin. <P> 1. Process (same text as syllabus notes, but points listed separately). a. The active reabsorption of Na+ and Cl-in the ascending thick limb of juxtamedullary nephrons combined with the thick limb impermeability to water results in an increased osmolality in the renal medulla. b.	Exchange/multiplier system of water conservation. It has the ability to concentrate solutes, increase osmotic pressure, and conserve or excrete water.
what is jasper stone	<P> About Jasper-History and Introduction. Jasper is one of the many gemstone varieties of quartz available today. It is an opaque and impure variety of silicon dioxide (SiO2). The name 'jasper' is derived from the Greek word for 'spotted stone', referring to its typical multicolored, striped, spotted or flamed appearance. Jasper can form in virtually any color. Jasper is a variety of quartz with a chemical composition composed primarily of silicon dioxide. Up to 20% percent of fine dense jasper can be composed of foreign materials, typically hematite, pyrolusite, clay or calcite. <P> Thank you! Answer: The meaning of jasper stone is in the essence of its energy. Jasper is a very nourishing, warm and protective stone no matter what colour you find the jasper in-be it yellow, green, blue, purple or the deep earthy red. Jasper often has stripes or bands that amplify the healing and earthy energy of this stone. You can also find many feng shui home decor cures in jasper, from Buddha to elephants, turtles and more. Jasper has a special place in many feng shui cures because it is one of the main stones for period 8 feng shui. <P> Jasper, an aggregate of microquartz and/or chalcedony and other mineral phases, is an opaque, impure variety of silica, usually red, yellow, brown or green in color; and rarely blue. It can be highly polished and is used for vases, seals, and snuff boxes. The specific gravity of jasper is typically 2.5 to 2.9. Along with heliotrope (bloodstone) , jasper (green with red spots) is one of the traditional birthstones for March. <P> The common red color is due to iron(III) inclusions. The mineral aggregate breaks with a smooth surface and is used for ornamentation or as a gemstone. It can be highly polished and is used for vases, seals, and snuff boxes. The specific gravity of jasper is typically 2.5 to 2.9. Along with heliotrope (bloodstone) , jasper (green with red spots) is one of the traditional birthstones for March. <P> The Gemstone Jasper. Jasper is an opaque variety of Chalcedony, and is usually associated with brown, yellow, or reddish colors, but may be used to describe other opaque colors of Chalcedony such as dark or mottled green, orange, and black. Jasper is almost always multicolored, with unique color patterns and habits <P> 1 Black Jasper, or Basanite, is a flinty form, one of the rarer Jaspers. 2 It empowers supreme physical and mental efforts, and is highly shielding against curses, threats, and danger in high risk occupations. 3 In polished form, it is an excellent scrying stone for discerning what is hidden. Jasper is a dense, opaque, microcrystalline variety of Quartz. Fibrous and grainy varieties of Quartz are often grouped together and referred to as Chalcedony, though Jasper’s microcrystals are laid out in large, sugar-like grains rather than the fibrous layers of Chalcedony or Agate. <P> Jasper is an opaque, impure variety of silica, usually red, yellow, brown, green or blue in color. The color stems from the mineral content of the original sediments or ash. Patterns arise during the consolidation process forming flow and depositional patterns. Jasper can be highly polished. The name jasper means spotted or speckled stone. Jasper is known to have been a favorite gem in the ancient world; its name can be traced back in Hebrew, Assyrian, Persian, Greek and Latin. The classification and naming of jasper presents an enormous challenge. <P> Jasper Facts, Information and Description. Jasper is one of the birth stones listed for the Sun Sign of Virgo. It is also the Mystical birthstone for the month of October. See the birthstone tables for additional references to this stone. Jasper is an opaque and fine grained variety of Chalcedony <P> 1 Agate Jasper-Opaque multicolored Jasper, or Jasper with banding; may also refer to a single stone with a combination of both Agate and Jasper. 2 Biggs Jasper-Jasper from Biggs Junction, Oregon, with varying light and dark color brown bands and pretty formations. Jasper is an opaque variety of Chalcedony, and is usually associated with brown, yellow, or reddish colors, but may be used to describe other opaque colors of Chalcedony such as dark or mottled green, orange, and black.	It is a very nourishing, warm and protective stone.The meaning of jasper stone is in the essence of its energy.
stamped concrete sidewalk cost	<P> Cost of Concrete Sidewalks. 1 The minimum cost of concrete is approximately $70 per cubic yard. 2 The maximum cost of concrete is approximately $80 per cubic yard. 3 The square footage covered by a cubic yard of concrete varies based on the depth of the feature to be poured. <P> The highest grade of a stamped concrete walkway costs double or higher than the price per square foot of a basic grade of stamped concrete walkway. This best quality of stamped concrete includes features such as hand-painted stains, unique shapes, stenciled designs, saw-cut designs and borders. <P> Walkway Cost. The cost of a concrete walkway can vary widely depending on its size and finish. Most U.S. homeowners pay between $6 and $12 per square foot for a new walkway. Prices can go beyond this if significant grading is required or a complex decorative finish is requested. Basic: $6-10 per square foot. <P> The Costs. The minimum price of a basic stamped concrete walkway is $6 per square foot. The maximum cost for a basic stamped concrete walkway is $10 <P> Subbase materials may be needed to level the surface on which a sidewalk will be poured, and pricing can range from $10 to $15 per cubic yard. Reinforcement materials that help to limit cracking of concrete range from $0.10 to $0.20 per square foot. <P> Mid-grade stamped concrete costs about 25 percent more per square foot than basic stamped concrete and consists of added features such as one stamped pattern, two or more colors, and a decorative border or engraving. <P> The cost of a concrete walkway can vary widely depending on its size and finish. Most U.S. homeowners pay between $6 and $12 per square foot for a new walkway. Prices can go beyond this if significant grading is required or a complex decorative finish is requested. Basic: $6-10 per square foot.	$6 per square foot
what causes narcolepsy	<P> Narcolepsy may have several causes. Most people with narcolepsy have low levels of the neurotransmitter hypocretin, which promotes wakefulness. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that neurons produce to communicate with each other and to regulate biological processes. <P> Most people who have narcolepsy have low levels of hypocretin. This is a chemical in the brain that helps promote wakefulness. What causes low hypocretin levels isn't well understood. Researchers think that certain factors may work together to cause a lack of hypocretin. These factors may include: 1 Heredity. <P> Narcolepsy is a chronic brain disorder that involves poor control of sleep-wake cycles. People with narcolepsy experience periods of extreme daytime sleepiness and sudden, irresistible bouts of sleep that can strike at any time. These “sleep attacks” usually last a few seconds to several minutes. <P> The exact cause of narcolepsy is unknown. There may be many causes. Most people with narcolepsy have low levels of the chemical hypocretin (hi-poe-KREE-tin). Hypocretin is an important neurochemical in your brain that helps regulate wakefulness and REM sleep. <P> Narcolepsy is a neurological disorder that affects the control of sleep and wakefulness. People with narcolepsy experience excessive daytime sleepiness and intermittent, uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the daytime. These sudden sleep attacks may occur during any type of activity at any time of the day. <P> Causes. The exact cause of narcolepsy is unknown. There may be many causes. Most people with narcolepsy have low levels of the chemical hypocretin (hi-poe-KREE-tin). Hypocretin is an important neurochemical in your brain that helps regulate wakefulness and REM sleep.	Low levels of the neurotransmitter hypocretin, which promotes wakefulness.
what does an eeg test for	<P> An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that detects electrical activity in your brain using small, flat metal discs (electrodes) attached to your scalp. Your brain cells communicate via electrical impulses and are active all the time, even when you're asleep. This activity shows up as wavy lines on an EEG recording. <P> Overview. An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test used to evaluate the electrical activity in the brain. Brain cells communicate with each other through electrical impulses, and an EEG can be used to help detect problems associated with this activity. An EEG is used to detect problems in the electrical activity of the brain that may be associated with certain brain disorders. The measurements given by an EEG are used to confirm, rule out, or provide information about disorders such as: 1 seizure disorders, including epilepsy. 2 head injur <P> Results. An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that measures and records the electrical activity of your brain. Special sensors (electrodes) are attached to your head and hooked by wires to a computer. EEG test results are ready on the same or the next day. There are several types of brain waves: <P> An electroencephalogram detects abnormalities in the brain waves or electrical activity of the brain. During the procedure, electrodes consisting of small metal discs with thin wires are pasted on the scalp. The electrodes detect tiny electrical charges that result from the activity of the brain cells. <P> Guide. An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that measures and records the electrical activity of your brain. Special sensors (electrodes) are attached to your head and hooked by wires to a computer. Before the day of the electroencephalogram (EEG) test, tell your doctor if you are taking any medicines. Your doctor may ask you to stop taking certain medicines (such as sedatives and tranquilizers, muscle relaxants, sleeping aids, or medicines used to treat seizures) before the test. <P> Electrical impulses in the brain are evaluated using an EEG. The test measures this electrical activity through several electrodes placed on your scalp. An electrode is a conductor through which an electric current can pass safely. An EEG is used to detect problems in the electrical activity of the brain that may be associated with certain brain disorders. The measurements given by an EEG are used to confirm, rule out, or provide information about disorders such as: 1 seizure disorders, including epilepsy. 2 head injur <P> EEG Introduction. An EEG, or electroencephalogram, is a test that can help diagnose epilepsy. During an EEG, the electrical signals of the brain are recorded. This electrical activity is detected by electrodes, or sensors, placed on the patient's scalp and transmitted to a polygraph that records the activity. <P> An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a noninvasive test that records electrical patterns in your brain. The test is used to help diagnose conditions such as seizures, epilepsy, head injuries, dizziness, headaches, brain tumors and sleeping problems.	It detects electrical activity in your brain using small, flat metal discs (electrodes) attached to your scalp.
import pdf to ipad from pc	<P> If you are using Manually Manage Music or Videos, disable the option in the Syncing Summary tab. To sync a PDF from your computer to iBooks on your iPhone, iPad, or iPod touch: 1 Select your iOS device. ( 2 Learn how to sync your data with iTunes 3 .). Click the Books tab. 4 Select Sync Books. 5 If iTunes is set to sync only selected books, select the checkbox next to the PDF you want to sync. 6 Click Sync <P> 1 Plug iPad into computer via the USB cable. 2 The software will recognize your iPad and shows the icon of it at the upper right corner. 3 After adding the PDF files into library, you need to click the icon of your iPad, and choose “Books” in the summary panel. 4 Then check “Sync from” and choose the PDF files in the window. 1 After adding the PDF files into library, you need to click the icon of your iPad, and choose “Books” in the summary panel. 2 Then check “Sync from” and choose the PDF files in the window. 3 iTunes will start syncing the PDF files into your iPad. 4 After that, you will find the PDF files in the iBooks app on your iPad <P> If the iPad users have installed iBooks on their iPad, they are able to buy books in iTunes Store, and then read the books with iBooks app on iPad. The iPad users are also able to transfer PDF files to iPad with iTunes, and the tutorial is as follows. 1 Plug iPad into computer via the USB cable. 2 The software will recognize your iPad and shows the icon of it at the upper right corner. 1 After adding the PDF files into library, you need to click the icon of your iPad, and choose “Books” in the summary panel. 2 Then check “Sync from” and choose the PDF files in the window. 3 iTunes will start syncing the PDF files into your iPad. 4 After that, you will find the PDF files in the iBooks app on your iPad <P> In your Mac (or PC I guess) drop your PDF files to your iTunes library. Then connect your iPad to your Mac and choose it in iTunes. On the top menu choose Books then Sync Books. Select the PDF you want to sync and then click on sync lower button ... Vuola´ the PDF files are now in your iBook PDF section in you iPad ... Level 1 (0 points). Now I understood this right, this is how to transfer PDF files to your iPad or iPhone from your iMac with Maverick: 1. On your iMac open iBooks and drop your PDF files. 2. Connect your iPad / iPhone to your iMac and open iTunes. 3. Select on iTunes your iPad / iPhone. 4. On the the menu choose Books. 5. Check Sync Books (all or selected as you wish). 6 <P> Level 10 (114,685 points). Other ways of PDFs onto your iPad are via the file sharing section at the bottom of the iPad's apps tab in your computer's iTunes (assuming that your PDF app supports file sharing). Some apps also support transfer via your wifi network from your computer to iPad. <P> Add PDF to iTunes. Step 2. Transfer PDF files to iPad Air/Mini via iTunes. Now it’s time to transfer the PDF to iPad through iTunes sync. Connect your iPad Air/mini with your computer through the USB cable. Select your iPad under the “Devices” section in iTunes. Click on the “Books” tab near the top of the screen. You can import the PDF files from computers to iPad Air, iPad mini, iPad 3 and other models. Check out this guide if you want to download a PDF from website to your iPad. Continue reading if you need to add PDF files from your PC / Mac to iPad Air, iPad mini, iPad 3 and other iPhone models. Download PDF Version. <P> First, open iTunes on your PC and navigate to the Books section. Click on the “PDFs” tab and drag drop any PDF file from your PC to the open iTunes window. Connect the iPad or iPhone and click on the device button once it appears in iTunes. Click the “Books” tab and make sure “Sync books” is checked. Start CopyTrans Apps and connect the iPad or iPhone to your PC. Once the iPad apps populate the left-hand side of the program window, select the PDF reading app. From the right-hand side, click on the “Add documents” button. A new window opens allowing you to browse for the PDF files you want to add to the iPad. <P> To sync a PDF from your computer to iBooks on your iPhone, iPad, or iPod touch: 1 Select your iOS device. 2 Click the Books tab. 3 Select Sync Books. 4 If iTunes is set to sync only selected books, select the checkbox next to the PDF you want to sync. 5 Click Sync. To sync a PDF from your computer to iBooks on your iPhone, iPad, or iPod touch: 1 Select your iOS device. ( 2 Learn how to sync your data with iTunes 3 .). Click the Books tab. 4	1 Select your iOS device. ( 2 Learn how to sync your data with iTunes 3 .). Click the Books tab.4 Select Sync Books. 5 If iTunes is set to sync only selected books, select the checkbox next to the PDF you want to sync. 6 Click Sync.
felony how long on record	<P> Report Abuse. It stays on your record forever. Most employers only so back 7 to 10 years in their initial check, but it always stays with you. Learn a trade or apply at McDonalds, because life with a felony sucks. No matter what the charge is. <P> Even with an expungement, it is not necessarily the case that the record would be sealed. In short, a criminal conviction will most likely stay on your record forever. If you have a criminal record, it might be worth speaking with an attorney about possible expungement just in case your situation is the rare exception. <P> www.flikr.com cdogstar. A person who has committed a felony will have a record that will stay with them for an extended period of time. A felony conviction, however, does not necessarily mean a life of hopelessness and inability to carry on. On most applications, they will ask you whether you have been convicted of a felony within a certain period of time. You have the right to answer whatever you wish, but keep in mind that they may run a criminal background check, and they will find your record. <P> 1 After 10 years, the courts and DMV cannot use that DUI against you. 2 A felony DUI is on your record for 10 years. 3 The ten year time period begins on your arrest date. WARNING-presently a DUI conviction will be on your record for 10 years starting from your arrest date. However, there are efforts in the California legislature to make a DUI stay on your record for a lifetime and to be used against you for your whole life. <P> A felony charge will stay on your record for life. The only way to remove a felony from your record is through a strict process called expungement (more on expungement below). Felonies aren't doled out lightly. When someone is convicted of a felony, the crime is deemed serious enough (and the trial thorough enough) that all felonies stay on your record permanently. This means landlords, employers, banks, and law enforcement can see any felony you've ever been convicted of. <P> Unless a person gets a pardon from the governor, a felony stays on their record forever in Wisconsin. If a person commits a felony as a minor, they may be able to have the … record sealed at a later date, but the record will always exist. Answered. In Criminal Law. In some instances, … depending on the outcome on the felony, the record may be sealed from public view even for adults. Even a sealed adult record, however, may be used for lawful governmental purposes. <P> 1 A misdemeanor DUI is on your criminal record and California DMV record for 10 years. 2 After 10 years, the courts and DMV cannot use that DUI against you. 3 A felony DUI is on your record for 10 years. WARNING-presently a DUI conviction will be on your record for 10 years starting from your arrest date. However, there are efforts in the California legislature to make a DUI stay on your record for a lifetime and to be used against you for your whole life. <P> Being convicted of a felony is a long process that requires arraignments, pre-trial conferences, motion hearings, and a trial. Felonies aren't doled out lightly. When someone is convicted of a felony, the crime is deemed serious enough (and the trial thorough enough) that all felonies stay on your record permanently. This means landlords, employers, banks, and law enforcement can see any felony you've ever been convicted of. <P> Unless a person gets a pardon from the governor, a felony stays on their record forever in Wisconsin. If a person commits a felony as a minor, they may be able to have the … record sealed at a later date, but the record will always exist. Answered. In some instances, … depending on the outcome on the felony, the record may be sealed from public view even for adults. Even a sealed adult record, however, may be used for lawful governmental purposes.	10 years
what goes well with sloppy joes	<P> Directions. Heat a large skillet over medium high heat. Add oil and meat to the pan. Spread the meat around the pan and begin to break it up. Combine brown sugar and steak seasoning. Add sugar and spice mixture to the skillet and combine. When the meat has browned, add onion and red peppers to the skillet. Reduce heat to medium and cook onions, peppers, red wine vinegar and Worcestershire sauce with meat for 5 minutes. Add tomato sauce and paste to pan. Stir to combine. Reduce heat to simmer and cook Sloppy Joe mixture 5 minutes longer <P> what to serve with Manwich (sloppy joe's). what can I serve with Manwich, need a side and a dessert ideas... thank you for your help. This is my first post. hoping someone can help..thank you...... <P> Food Network invites you to try this Sloppy Joes recipe. ... Stir in ground beef and cook, breaking up meat with side of spoon, until meat is no longer pink, about 5 minutes. ... Spenser's Sloppy Joes Recipe: Patrick and Gina Neely: Food ... Food Network invites you to try this Spenser's Sloppy Joes recipe from Patrick and Gina Neely. Trusted Results with Good side dishes with sloppy joes. Sloppy Turkey Joes Recipe: Rachael Ray: Food Network. Food Network invites you to try this Sloppy Turkey Joes recipe from Rachael Ray. <P> Directions. In a large skillet, heat oil over medium-high heat. Add onion, bell pepper, celery, and garlic; season with salt and pepper. Cook, stirring frequently, until vegetables are softened, 5 to 7 minutes. Add ground beef to skillet. Cook, breaking up meat with a wooden spoon, until it is no longer pink, 6 to 8 minutes. Stir tomato sauce, ketchup, and Worcestershire sauce into beef mixture in skillet. Simmer until thickened, stirring occasionally, 6 to 8 minutes. Season the mixture with more salt and pepper, as desired. <P> 1 Heat skillet over medium-high heat; cook and stir beef, onion, green bell pepper, carrots, and garlic until beef is browned, about 10 minutes. 2 Drain off liquids. 3 Stir in mustard, ketchup, and brown sugar and mix thoroughly. Cook. Ready In. 1 Heat skillet over medium-high heat; cook and stir beef, onion, green bell pepper, carrots, and garlic until beef is browned, about 10 minutes. 2 Drain off liquids. 3 Stir in mustard, ketchup, and brown sugar and mix thoroughly. 4 Reduce heat to low and simmer until sauce has thickened, about 30 minutes. <P> 1 In a large skillet, cook the beef, celery and onion over medium heat until meat is no longer pink; drain. 2 Stir in the flour, brown sugar, mustard and ketchup. 3 Bring to a boil. 4 Reduce heat; simmer, uncovered, for 10 minutes, stirring occasionally. 5 Serve on buns with cheese. Directions. 1 In a large skillet, cook the beef, celery and onion over medium heat until meat is no longer pink; drain. 2 Stir in the flour, brown sugar, mustard and ketchup. 3 Bring to a boil. <P> 1 In a medium skillet over medium heat, brown the ground beef, onion, and green pepper; drain off liquids. 2 Stir in the garlic powder, mustard, ketchup, and brown sugar; mix thoroughly. 3 Reduce heat, and simmer for 30 minutes. 4 Season with salt and pepper. Directions. Prep. Cook. Ready In. 1 In a medium skillet over medium heat, brown the ground beef, onion, and green pepper; drain off liquids. 2 Stir in the garlic powder, mustard, ketchup, and brown sugar; mix thoroughly. 3 Reduce heat, and simmer for 30 minutes. 4 Season with salt and pepper.	1 In a medium skillet over medium heat, brown the ground beef, onion, and green pepper; drain off liquids. 2 Stir in the garlic powder, mustard, ketchup, and brown sugar; mix thoroughly.3 Reduce heat, and simmer for 30 minutes. 4 Season with salt and pepper.
where is martinsville speedway	<P> Martinsville to install tire barriers: After a full track evaluation by NASCAR and International Speedway Corporation (ISC), Martinsville Speedway will add to its existing barrier system in advance of the STP 500 weekend March 27-29. My Martinsville program will reward Martinsville Speedway's most loyal fans: Martinsville Speedway has announced a new fan-loyalty program that rewards ticket renewal customers with exclusive benefits and allows them to show off their pride in being one of Martinsville Speedway's most loyal fans. <P> Martinsville Speedway is an International Speedway Corporation-owned NASCAR stock car racing track located in Henry County, in Ridgeway, Virginia, just to the south of Martinsville. It is also the only race track that has been on the NASCAR circuit from its beginning in 1948. Along with this, Martinsville is the only NASCAR oval track on the entire NASCAR track circuit to have asphalt surfaces on the straightaways, then concrete to cover the turns. <P> ITL No Title No Image. Founded in 1947 by the late H. Clay Earles, Martinsville Speedway is only track which has hosted NASCAR Sprint Cup Series races every year since the division’s inception in 1949. At .526 miles in length, Martinsville Speedway is the shortest track on the Sprint Cup circuit. D H M S. Founded in 1947 by the late H. Clay Earles, Martinsville Speedway is only track which has hosted NASCAR Sprint Cup Series races every year since the division’s inception in 1949. <P> H. Clay Earles built Martinsville Speedway in 1947 as a dirt track before the formation of NASCAR. The first race was run on September 7, 1947 and Robert Red Bryon won $500 out of a $2,000 purse. The track hosted the sixth race in the NASCAR series (Strictly Stock) that eventually became the Sprint Cup Series. D H M S. Founded in 1947 by the late H. Clay Earles, Martinsville Speedway is only track which has hosted NASCAR Sprint Cup Series races every year since the division’s inception in 1949. At .526 miles in length, Martinsville Speedway is the shortest track on the Sprint Cup circuit <P> At slightly more than half a mile, Martinsville Speedway is the shortest track on the NASCAR Sprint Cup Circuit, but it's one of the biggest when it comes to action. It has 800-foot straights, turns banked at only 12 degrees and has been called two drag strips with a turnaround on each end.. <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. Martinsville Speedway is an International Speedway Corporation-owned NASCAR stock car racing track located in Henry County, in Ridgeway, Virginia, just to the south of Martinsville. At 0.526 miles (0.847 km) in length, it is the shortest track in the NASCAR Sprint Cup Series. It is also the only race track that has been on the NASCAR circuit from its beginning in 1948. Along with this, Martinsville is the only NASCAR oval track on the entire NASCAR track circuit to have asphalt surfaces on the straightaways, then concrete to cover the turns. <P> Martinsville, VA 24148. Since the very beginning, Martinsville Speedway has been the biggest little track in racing. But to get to the beginning of this track’s history, you have to back a very long way. There was a Martinsville Speedway before there was NASCAR, in fact. On Sept. 7, 1947, H. Clay Earles opened his .526-mile dirt track for modified stock cars.	In Henry County, in Ridgeway, Virginia, just to the south of Martinsville.
how early can autism be noticed	<P> Diagnosing autism spectrum disorder (ASD) can be difficult, since there is no medical test, like a blood test, to diagnose the disorders. Doctors look at the child’s behavior and development to make a diagnosis. ASD can sometimes be detected at 18 months or younger. <P> Symptoms during childhood. Symptoms of autism are usually noticed first by parents and other caregivers sometime during the child's first 3 years. Although autism is present at birth (congenital), signs of the disorder can be difficult to identify or diagnose during infancy. <P> A Parent's Guide to the First Signs and Next Steps and president and founder of First Signs, an organization dedicated to educating parents and professionals about the early warning signs of autism and other developmental disorders. As a parent of a child with autism, Wiseman believes in the power of early intervention. If your baby is showing any of these signs, parents should ask their physician for an immediate evaluation: 1 No big smiles or other warm, joyful expressions by six months or thereafter. 2 No back-and-forth sharing of sounds, smiles, or other facial expressions by nine months or thereafter. 3 No babbling by 12 months. <P> One of the most important things you can do as a parent or caregiver is to learn the early signs of autism and become familiar with the typical developmental milestones that your child should be reaching. The following red flags may indicate your child is at risk for an autism spectrum disorder. Autism Speaks' multi-year Ad Council public service advertising campaign stresses the importance of recognizing the early signs of autism and seeking early intervention services. Recent research confirms that appropriate screening can determine whether a child is at risk for autism as young as one year. <P> Currently, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends screening all toddlers for autism at ages 18 and 24 months. Still, a growing number of researchers believe that screening can and should start even earlier for infants known to be at high risk for autism. The brown-eyed boy in the video is 13 months old. He wears overalls and a blue-striped shirt and sits on his mother’s lap. On the table in front of them is a green washcloth. <P> It can be challenging to diagnose autism early on, but there are certain symptoms to look out for. In particular, there are symptoms you should look for at home, and diagnostic tools that your doctor can use to determine whether or not your child has autism. Scroll down to Step 1 for more information. Autism is a developmental disorder with a wide range of symptoms. Many of these symptoms are shown through communication and language difficulties. <P> Contact your doctor if you have recognized some symptoms of autism. If you have noticed signs like those listed in the previous method, make an appointment with a doctor who specifically deals with developmental issues in children. Autism is a developmental disorder with a wide range of symptoms. Many of these symptoms are shown through communication and language difficulties. <P> Study: Signs of autism may show up as early as first month. The first signs of autism may be visible as early as the first month of a child's life, according to a study published Wednesday in the scientific journal Nature. These are the earliest signs of autism ever observed, says lead study author Warren Jones. 02:11 PM ET. The first signs of autism may be visible as early as the first month of a child's life, according to a study published Wednesday in the scientific journal Nature. <P> June 2, 2006 -- Autism in children can be detected as early as age 14 months, a new study shows. Autism is rarely diagnosed before a child is 3 years old. Cutting that time in half means less precious time lost in getting autistic children the treatment they urgently need -- when it's likely to do the most good.	3 years
simple explanation of homeostasis process	<P> WALTER CANNON devised the term homeostasis in 1930 while referring to how the body maintains its temperature, among other key variables. Homeostasis, from the Greek words for same and steady, refers to any process that living things use to actively maintain fairly stable conditions necessary for survival. <P> Homeostasis or homoeostasis (homeo- + -stasis) is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain stable and relatively constant. Examples of homeostasis include the regulation of temperature and the balance between acidity and alkalinity (pH). It is a process that maintains the stability of the human body's internal environment in response to changes in external conditions. <P> Homeostasis is the human body keeping a constant internal temperature. The definition of homeostasis is the ability or tendency to maintain internal stability in an organism to compensate for environmental changes. An example of homeostasis is the human body keeping an average temperature of 98.6 degrees <P> homeostasis. the tendency of biological systems to maintain relatively constant conditions in the internal environment while continuously interacting with and adjusting to changes originating within or outside the system. See also balance and equilibrium. adj., adj homeostat´ic. <P> Lesson Transcript. Instructor: Natalia Caporale. Homeostasis can be defined as a property of an organism or system that helps it maintain its parameters within a normal range of values. It is key to life, and failures in homeostasis can lead to diseases like hypertension and diabetes. For example, our concentration of salts and glucose (sugar) is constant; our body temperature is usually around 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit); the amount of blood in our bodies is about 5 liters, the osmolarity (number of solutes) of our blood remains about 300mOsm. <P> The ability of the body to regulate itself and maintain a comparatively stable internal environment despite outside conditions, traumatic actions, food supply or other ongoing events embodies the “wisdom of the body” that physiologist Walter Bradford Cannon referred to when he described its ability to reach homeostasis. <P> (2) The ability of the body or a cell to seek and maintain a condition of equilibrium or stability within its internal environment when dealing with external changes. (3) homeostasis is the maintanance of the constant internal environment which include the function of kidney,liver,skin... Supplement. In humans, homeostasis happens when the body regulates body temperature in an effort to maintain an internal temperature around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. <P> By Regina Bailey. Definition: Homeostasis is the ability to maintain a constant internal environment in response to environmental changes. It is a unifying principle of biology. The nervous and endocrine systems control homeostasis in the body through feedback mechanisms involving various organs and organ systems. <P> homeostasis. the tendency of biological systems to maintain relatively constant conditions in the internal environment while continuously interacting with and adjusting to changes originating within or outside the system. See also balance and equilibrium. adj., adj homeostat´ic. <P> These conditions remain more or less constant despite changes such as pH or temperature in the outside environment In practice, it comes down to providing a stable environment for the cells of the body 2 The living processes in the cells depend on the activity of enzymes.	It is a process that maintains the stability of the human body's internal environment in response to changes in external conditions.
oven cook meat temperature	<P> 1 Place the meat in the oven and cook for 20 to 30 minutes at the high temperature. 2 Then lower the temperature to between 275°F and 325°F and roast until done (see doneness guidelines below). 1 An electronic meat thermometer can be programmed to beep when the meat hits the target temperature. 2 Beef and lamb are medium rare when the internal temperature of the roast has reached 135°F; medium is 140°-145°F. Pork should be cooked to 145°F. 3 Veal is usually served medium (145°-150°F) or medium-well (155°F). <P> Plan your day ... not need your oven for anything else. ... to roast the beef in the A.M. ... stand at room temperature for 1 hour ... medium rare/medium when done. Place a good-sized ... in 350 degree oven for 3 hours. ... cool to room temperature before slicing. The ... on the bias. Beef brisket should be ... <P> Start at 2:00 p.m. Preheat oven to 375 degrees. ... in oven and cook 1 hour. Turn ... 300 degrees. The temperatures given are for sea level cooking. For high ... way, the roast beef will be a ... and perfect every time. 6 <P> The oven temperature used to cook a beef roast is usually set somewhere between 300 degrees and 450 degrees Fahrenheit. The recommended cooking temperature for your roast is usually determined by the type of beef cut that you plan to roast. Remove the meat from the oven when it reaches 5° to 10°F below the desired doneness; the temperature will continue to rise as the meat stands. Remember, use the roast cook times in this chart as a guide only. <P> Preheat the oven to 350 degrees F. Make a dry rub by combining chili powder, salt, garlic and onion powders, black pepper, sugar, dry mustard, and bay leaf. Season the raw brisket on both sides with the rub. Place in a roasting pan and roast, uncovered, for 1 hour. Add beef stock and enough water to yield about 1/2 inch of liquid in the roasting pan. Lower oven to 300 degrees F, cover pan tightly and continue cooking for 3 hours, or until fork-tender. Trim the fat and slice meat thinly across the grain. Top with juice from the pan. <P> Note: Start with meat at refrigerated temperature. Remove the meat from the oven when it reaches 5° to 10°F below the desired doneness; the temperature will continue to rise as the meat stands. Remember, use the roast cook times in this chart as a guide only. <P> RecipeTips. The proper beef cooking times and the correct beef cooking temperatures are extremely important. The optimum flavor and tenderness of various cuts of beef can be consistently achieved when care is taken to follow the recommended time and temperature guidelines for cooking beef. Fork Tender. Oven Bag Instructions: Preheat the oven to 325 ° F. Add 1 tablespoon flour to the oven bag and distribute evenly on the inside of the bag prior to inserting the beef. Remove the meat from the oven when the meat thermometer reaches the temperature listed or when the meat is fork tender. <P> Low-temperature cooking is a cooking technique using temperatures of 45 to 85 °C (113 to 185 °F) for a prolonged time to cook food. Low-temperature cooking methods include sous vide cooking, slow cooking using a slow cooker, cooking in a normal oven which has a minimal setting of 70 °C (158 °F), and using a combi steamer providing exact temperature control. <P> 1 If you are using a meat thermometer (analog or digital), insert the probe into the center of the roast, being careful not to hit bone. 2 Place the meat in the oven and cook for 20 to 30 minutes at the high temperature. 1 An electronic meat thermometer can be programmed to beep when the meat hits the target temperature. 2 Beef and lamb are medium rare when the internal temperature of the roast has reached 135°F; medium is 140°-145°F. Pork should be cooked to 145°F. 3 Veal is usually served medium (145°-150°F) or medium-well (155°F). <P> The proper beef roast cook times and the correct beef cooking oven temperatures are extremely important. The optimum flavor and tenderness of various beef roasts can be consistently achieved when care is taken to follow the recommended time and temperature guidelines for cooking beef roasts. Remove the meat from the oven when it reaches 5° to 10°F below the desired doneness; the temperature will continue to rise as the meat stands. Remember, use the roast cook times in this chart as a guide only.	Between 275°F and 325°F.
what is couchbase	<P> Couchbase Overview. Couchbase Server is a NoSQL document database optimized for interactive web applications. With its flexible JSON data model, Couchbase Server makes it easy to modify your applications without being constrained by a fixed database schema. <P> Couchbase Server is a NoSQL document database optimized for interactive web applications. With its flexible JSON data model, Couchbase Server makes it easy to modify your applications without being constrained. Categories : <P> Introduction. Couchbase Server is a NoSQL document database for interactive web applications. It has a flexible data model, is easily scalable, provides consistent high performance and is “always-on,” meaning it can serve application data 24 hours, 7 days a week. <P> Couchbase Server provides on-the-wire client protocol compatibility with memcached, but is designed to add disk persistence, data replication, live cluster reconfiguration, rebalancing and multitenancy with data partitioning. <P> (Redirected from Couchbase). Couchbase Server, originally known as Membase, is an open-source, distributed (shared-nothing architecture) NoSQL document-oriented database that is optimized for interactive applications. <P> Couchbase Server is an open-source, distributed (shared-nothing architecture) NoSQL document-oriented database and key-value store that is optimized for interactive applications. Licensing information is covered towards the end of this guide.	Couchbase Server is a NoSQL document database optimized for interactive web applications.
what happens when you delete a friend request on facebook	<P> A menu will pop up, and at the bottom will be an option to Cancel Friend Request.. Click it to retract the friend request. You will be asked to confirm if you really want to cancel. 1 If you see the Add Friend button instead of Friend Request Sent, the person has deleted your friend request. <P> You can see all of your pending requests by using the Activity Log. You can access the Log by going to your profile page and clicking the Activity Log button to the right of your name. 1 In the left menu of the Activity Log click More, underneath Photos, Likes, and Comments. 2 Click Friends in the expanded list. Click it to retract the friend request. You will be asked to confirm if you really want to cancel. 1 If you see the Add Friend button instead of Friend Request Sent, the person has deleted your <P> 2. Visit the person's profile. In order to cancel the request, you will need to visit their profile. Click their name in the log to open their page, or search for it in the Facebook search bar. 3. Hover the mouse over the Friend Request Sent button. Click it to retract the friend request. You will be asked to confirm if you really want to cancel. 1 If you see the Add Friend button instead of Friend Request Sent, the person has deleted your <P> No. The friend request will be removed from your list of friends to confirm, and the person who sent it won't be notified. More info. Get help for mobile apps and browsers. <P> First, click on the friend requests button. You’ll see here pending requests sent to you and suggestions that Facebook makes called “People You May Know.”. Scroll to the bottom of this list and click “See All” to show all your Facebook friend requests. Here on the resulting page, we see we’ve 10 pending friend requests that we can either confirm or delete. You can add your friend request to a specific list (Close Friends, Acquaintances, etc.) or suggest friends to your new, future friend. Simply select “Cancel Request” to delete it, and you’re done. Now go through the rest of your old sent requests and do the same thing for each want you want to cancel. <P> When you receive a friend request on Facebook, you can decline it and delete it from your Requests List by selecting “Delete Request.” Facebook users are not notified when you decline their requests in this way, and they will be able to send you another friend request in the future. <P> To suggest a friend to someone: 1 Click Friends at the top of your friend's profile. 2 Click Suggest Friends. 3 To find a particular friend, you can type their name in the field or scroll through your complete friends list. 4 Click Suggest Friend next to a friend's name to send a suggestion. You can add friends by importing your contacts. You can also add friends from their profiles: 1 Enter your friend's name or email in the search bar at the top of any Facebook page. 2 Select their name to go to their profile. 3 Click the Add Friend butt <P> 1 Click Friends at the top of your friend's profile. 2 Click Suggest Friends. 3 To find a particular friend, you can type their name in the field or scroll through your complete friends list. 4 You can click the All Friends dropdown to sort your friends by network or friend list. You can add friends by importing your contacts. You can also add friends from their profiles: 1 Enter your friend's name or email in the search bar at the top of any Facebook page. 2 Select their name to go to their profile. 3 Click the Add Friend button <P> Bar future requests. When you deny a friend request on Facebook, you'll be sent a prompt asking you if you know this person outside Facebook itself. Tips. 1 Don't explain. 2 If someone with whom you don't want to be Facebook Friends sends you a Friend request, just delete it. 3 If you don't know them well enough to Friend them, you don't know them well enough to explain in a way they will accept.	Facebook users are not notified when you decline their requests in this way, and they will be able to send you another friend request in the future.
where is the blarney stone from dublin	<P> The Blarney Stone. The Blarney Stone (Irish: Cloch na Blarnan) is a block of Carboniferous limestone built into the battlements of Blarney Castle, Blarney, about 8 kilometres (5 mi) from Cork, Ireland. The castle is a popular tourist site in Ireland, attracting visitors from all over the world to kiss the stone and tour the castle and its gardens. The word blarney has come to mean clever, flattering, or coaxing talk. <P> Kiss the Blarney Stone @ Castle Blarney. After travelling through County Tipperary, your tour bus will reach the charming village of Blarney by late morning-at this stage almost half of the day’s driving is done! (Distance from Dublin to Blarney Castle is only 250km. People travel from around the globe to experience the Blarney Castle near Cork. They climb the fairytale medieval battlements to kiss the Blarney Stone and thereby acquire the “ gift of the gab !” – seven years of charming eloquent speech! You will have the opportunity to do the same on this Blarney Castle Tour <P> OVERVIEW: We depart from Dublin, driving through the midlands down to Blarney, in the beautiful County of Cork. Visit the most famous castle in all of Ireland!! The world famous Blarney Castle. Lie back and kiss the magical Blarney Stone and see the exciting battlements. Get the gift of the gab for 7 years!! Also visit the Titanic town of Cobh in 1 brilliant day trip from Dublin. <P> - Tour stops every 1.5 hours. You will have 1.5 hours at Blarney Castle, 2 hours in Cork and 1 hour in the Rock of Cashel. - Departure from the Rock of Cashel is around 17:00. Tour ends at the Dublin Tourism information office by 19:00 at the latest. Cancellation Policy. <P> The Blarney Stone Kissing the Blarney stone The world famous Blarney Stone is situated high up in the battlements of the castle. Follow one of the several long, stone spiral staircases up to the top and enjoy the spectacular views of the lush green Irish countryside, Blarney House and The Village of Blarney. <P> We arrive at Blarney Castle! This is for most people the highlight of the tour, Blarney Castle known the world over for its famous Blarney Stone. Kiss the stone and receive the “gift of the gab”. Blarney castle isn't all about the Stone, the Blarney manor its self is worth exploring as are its fantastic grounds and woodland walks. <P> Arrive into Cork Kent Station, we transfer to our Railtours Ireland tour coach through Cork City to Blarney Village and historic Blarney Castle, built in 1446 by Dermot Mc Carthy. You will have time to kiss the famous stone, which is said to bestow the gift of eternal eloquence on those lucky enough to do so. <P> This tour Includes admission to Blarney Castle and Gardens worth 12 euro! Visit the most famous castle in all of Ireland-Blarney Castle. Lay back and kiss the magical Blarney Stone and receive the gift of eloquent speech for 7 years. Also visit Cobh, the last departure port for RMS Titanic in April 1912. Enjoy a stroll in Cobh and visit St Coleman's Cathedral, overlooking Cork Harbour. Depart Dublin. We depart Dublin, driving through the midlands down to Blarney, in the beautiful County Cork. We will pass through the Golden Vale, the most fertile lands in all of Europe with green fields as far as the eye can see. <P> Arrive into Cork Kent Station, we transfer to our Railtours Ireland tour coach through Cork City to Blarney Village and historic Blarney Castle, built in 1446 by Dermot Mc Carthy. You will have time to kiss the famous stone, which is said to bestow the gift of eternal eloquence on those lucky enough to do so.	The Blarney Stone (Irish: Cloch na Blarnan) is a block of Carboniferous limestone built into the battlements of Blarney Castle, Blarney, about 8 kilometres (5 mi) from Cork, Ireland.
how much electricity does a portable heater draw	<P> Report Abuse. Most space heaters use the same amount of electricity as a hair dryer. They are usually around 1000 to 1850 watts. As for an increase in you electric bill, yes, you will see an increase, after all, you are using electric. Best Answer: In general, space heaters run from 1000-1500W. Running one for 8 hours will cost you 8-12 kWH, which is the unit of measure your electric company uses. The charge per kWH varies widely from place to place. You can get your rate from your most recent bill. Multiply the rate by the usage to figure your cost <P> Space heaters are typically not an efficient means of heating, especially compared to a central heat pump, geothermal heating, or solar energy. Small electric heaters can use about 3,000 watts (about 10,000 BTU/hr) and larger ones may use over 11,000 watts (about 40,000 BTU/hr). Fuel powered portable heaters are often less expensive to run, using about 2,300 watts (7,848 BTU/hr) to 4,100 watts (13,990 BTU/hr). Electricity is one of the most expensive energies to use to heat an area, costing about twice as much as natural gas to produce the same amount of heat. It is important to note that portable heaters are rated for specific room sizes. If a small heater is used in a large room, it will use a great deal of energy without providing enough heat. A large heater in a small space will use excessive energy and provide too much heat. <P> Cost. Electric companies charge consumers by the kilowatt-hour, and rates vary from company to company and can depend on how much electricity you use and the season. For example, the Pacific Gas & Electric Company base rate is from $0.08 to $0.13 for base usage and from $0.27 to $0.34 for heavy usage. Multiply your applicable rate by the number of kilowatt-hours the heater consumes to find out how much it costs to operate. For example, for a consumer who pays the base rate in winter, PG&E charges about three dollars for the electricity to run a 1500-watt heater for 24 hours. That's about $90 for a month of continuous use. <P> Electricity usage of a Space Heater. Space heaters are portable electric devices used for heating up a single room or an area of the house. Convection space heaters heat up a room by heating up the air, most common convection space heaters will use around 1500 watts. Click calculate to find the energy consumption of a space heater using 1500 Watts for 5 hours a day @ $0.10 per a kWh. Cost Per Hour: <P> how much electricity does a space heater draw? what is a ballpark range for wattage and what can I expect my monthly increase in my electric bill to be if one runs for 8 hours each night? Best Answer: In general, space heaters run from 1000-1500W. Running one for 8 hours will cost you 8-12 kWH, which is the unit of measure your electric company uses. The charge per kWH varies widely from place to place. You can get your rate from your most recent bill. Multiply the rate by the usage to figure your cost. <P> Cost of electricity. Example: If you have a 1000 watt heater that operates 1 hour a month and costs $1.00 per kilowatt for electricity, then it will cost $1.00 to operate the heater for the month. more simply put-from my own experience a helluva lot!! A little more explanationYou pay for electricity by the kilowatt-hour. <P> A typical portable space heater will generally use 1,500 watts on the high setting. This 1,500 watt heater running for 5 hours a day during a 30-day month will cost $22.50 at a rate of $0.10 per kilowatt hour. Check your local rates to determine actual cost per kilowatt hour. Portable space heaters are small, electric resistance heating units. Regardless of the shape, size or type of electric heating element found in an electric space heater, virtually all power drawn is converted into heat. The cost of operating an electric heater depends on how much heat the unit is delivering. <P> On average an infrared heater costs about $50-$400. Depending on the strength of the model and how much heat is produced depends on how much it costs to operate. Electric models usually feature a low watt energy draw so they cost only pennies to run. If you use an outdoor propane or natural gas heater your cost will depend on the current cost of gas products.	1,500 watt heater running for 5 hours a day during a 30-day month will cost $22.50 at a rate of $0.10 per kilowatt hour.
how long does it take for grass seeds to germinate	<P> Concerning how long does grass seed take to grow, if the conditions are good and the variety of grass used is of the type that grows fast, within a week’s time the result may be a lush green patch in the lawn. While it may not be properly grown yet the visible result may take about two to three weeks. If the seed is sown during the time of year when it is wet the grass is most likely to germinate faster. As discussed earlier about how long does grass seed take to grow, the two seasons which are most suitable for sowing of grass seeds is spring and fall. <P> The normal duration at which the seed of the grass germinates is between 6 to 10 days after the seed has been planted. However it can also take from minimum 4 days to maximum forty days. The climate condition during which the seed is sown is also very essential for the seeds to germinate faster and to grow. If the seed is sown during the time of year when it is wet the grass is most likely to germinate faster. As discussed earlier about how long does grass seed take to grow, the two seasons which are most suitable for sowing of grass seeds is spring and fall. <P> Replanting New Grass Seed. Grass is a fast growing plant, but the exact rate at which it grows depends upon the type of grass used and the growing conditions. Germination. Grass seeds usually germinate between seven and ten days after they have been sown, although it can take between three and thirty days. Growth. A fast growing variety of grass sown under good growing conditions will produce a green covering in about a week, although it will not yet be properly establish <P> Cool-season grasses tend to germinate quickly, usually between three and 14 days. Perennial rye grass (Lolium perenne), which thrives in U.S. Department of Agriculture plant hardiness zones 3 through 8, can germinate in as few as five days, although it can take up to 10 days, for example. Grass seed often begins to germinate in less than a month, which means you should start to see tiny green shoots in the areas you seeded. Establishment of those shoots into a lush, full lawn can take well into the growing season, but it should begin to resemble the lawn you want after you mow it the first time. <P> Annual ryegrass (Lolium multiflorum) and perennial ryegrass (Lolium perenne) seeds germinate in five to 10 days. Rough bluegrass (Poa trivialis) seeds take seven to 10 days. Tall fescue (Lolium arundinaceum) seeds germinate in seven to 12 days. Hard fescue (Festuca longifolia) and red fescue (Festuca rubra) seeds take seven to 14 days. Plant 7 to 9 pounds of annual ryegrass seed or 6 to 9 pounds of perennial ryegrass per 1,000 square feet in the fall. Cool Season Long Germination. Colonial bentgrass (Agrostis tenuis) and creeping bentgrass (Agrostis stolonifera) seeds take 10 to 14 days to germinate. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) seeds take 14 to 30 days. <P> How long does it take for grass seed to germinate? (See also How long does it take for seed to grow). Depending on the conditions, you can expect to see some grass seed mixtures germinate quite quickly. If conditions at the time of sowing are perfect, you may see germination is as little as 2-4 days. On average though, germination will take between 7-14 days <P> Buffalograss (Stenotaphrum secundatum) seeds take 14 to 30 days to germinate. Plant 1 pound of Bermudagrass seeds per 1,000 square feet in late spring or early summer. For the same area, plant 1 1/2 to 2 pounds of buffalo grass in spring or fall. Cool Season Long Germination. Colonial bentgrass (Agrostis tenuis) and creeping bentgrass (Agrostis stolonifera) seeds take 10 to 14 days to germinate. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) seeds take 14 to 30 days. <P> 1 GERMINATION: Under ideal conditions, hulled seeds can germinate within 3 to 7 days. 2 IF conditions are NOT ideal, it is quite normal for Bermuda seeds to take 14 to 21 days for germination to occur. <P> The germination time for grass seed ranges from 5 to 30 days depending on the variety. It can be even longer than this in cooler temperatures. This is how long it will take to actually see the grass growing. Until this point, the seed, or the soil and mulch in contact with the seed, must stay moist. <P> How long does it take for seed to grow. Different seed mixtures establish at different speeds. As a general rule, hardwearing mixtures usually contain ryegrass and red fescue, two species that establish quite quickly-they can germinate in as little as 3-4 days, but 7-10 days is more average.	5 to 30 days
what is isopropyl myristate	<P> Isopropyl myristate is the ester of isopropanol and myristic acid. Isopropyl myristate is used in cosmetic and topical medicinal preparations where good absorption through the skin is desired. <P> Isopropyl Myristate is a synthetic oil used as an emollient, thickening agent, or lubricant in beauty products. Composed of of Isopropyl Alcohol (a propane derivative) and Myristic Acid (a naturally-occurring fatty acid), Isopropyl Myristate is a popular cosmetic and pharmaceutical ingredient. Nonetheless, it should be used with caution by people with normal to oily skin since it is comedogenic and may trigger acne inflammation. Recommended Products with Isopropyl Myristate: Retrospect Feet, Knees & Elbows ($38 in the shop); Medik8 Firewall ($145 in the shop); Hyalogic Episilk Lip Balm ($6.95 in the shop). <P> For example, Isopropyl Myristate is derived from Myristic Acid and isopropyl alcohol, and Butyl Myristate is derived from Myristic Acid and butyl alcohol. Safety Information: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) permits fatty acids, including Myristic Acid to be directly added to food. Myristic Acid is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms. In cosmetics and personal care products, Myristic Acid functions as an opacifying agent and a surfactant a€“ â cleansing. agent <P> Uses [edit]. Isopropyl myristate is used in cosmetic and topical medicinal preparations where good absorption through the skin is desired. It is also used as a pesticide-free treatment against head lice which works by dissolving the wax that covers the exoskeleton of head lice, killing them by dehydration <P> Isopropyl myristate is perfectly safe as a cosmetic ingredient and there are no issues with it as far as end users are concerned. It has been attacked by scaremongers either from ignorance or more likely from a cynical desire to sell inferior products at high prices. “What I can say is that I have had plenty of isopropyl myristate on my. skin over the years and it has never given me a single blackhead.”. Hm, this is kind of against the title of your page “Information based on scientific facts”…. <P> Medical Definition of ISOPROPYL MYRISTATE. : an ester C17H34O2 of isopropyl alcohol and myristic acid that is used as an emollient to promote absorption through the skin. What made you want to look up isopropyl myristate? <P> In cosmetics and personal care products, Myristic Acid functions as an opacifying agent and a surfactant a€“ â cleansing. Agent among the salts and esters Of Myristic acid that may be used in cosmetics and personal care, Products Isopropyl myristate is most likely to be. used Myristic Acid is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms. In cosmetics and personal care products, Myristic Acid functions as an opacifying agent and a surfactant a€“ â cleansing. agent <P> It is most often used an an additive in aftershaves, shampoos, bath oils, antiperspirants, deodorants, oral hygiene products, and various creams and lotions. A unique characteristic of Isopropyl Myristate is its ability to reduce the greasy feel caused by the high oil content of other ingredients in a product. This synthetic oil is often added to beauty products to give them a slicker, sheer feel rather than an oily one. Nonetheless, it should be used with caution by people with normal to oily skin since it is comedogenic and may trigger acne inflammation. Recommended Products with Isopropyl Myristate: Retrospect Feet, Knees & Elbows ($38 in the shop); Medik8 Firewall ($145 in the shop); Hyalogic Episilk Lip Balm ($6.95 in the shop). <P> About ISOPROPYL MYRISTATE: Isopropyl Myristate is composed of of isopropyl alcohol and myristic acid, a common, naturally occurring fatty acid. This ingredient may be derived from animals. From PETA's Caring Consumer: Organic acid in most animal and vegetable fats. In butter acids. Used in shampoos, creams, cosmetics. In food flavorings. Derivatives: Isopropyl Myristate, Myristal Ether Sulfate, Myristyls, Oleyl Myristate. This ingredient may be derived from animals. From PETA's Caring Consumer: Organic acid in most animal and vegetable fats. In butter acids. Used in shampoos, creams, cosmetics. In food flavorings. Derivatives: Isopropyl Myristate, Myristal Ether Sulfate, Myristyls, Oleyl Myr ... <P> Isopropyl myristate was used as oil phase in the preparation of formulations 1. It was also used as oil/water-type tacrolimus (FK506) solvent 2.	It is the ester of isopropanol and myristic acid. Isopropyl myristate is used in cosmetic and topical medicinal preparations where good absorption through the skin is desired.
what is aangamik dmg	<P> Dimethylglycine is a derivative of the amino acid glycine with the structural formula (CH 3) 2 NCH 2 COOH. It can be found in beans and liver. It can be formed from trimethylglycine upon the loss of one of its methyl groups. <P> 1 DMG (N,N-Dimethylglycine) is a metabolic enhancer that can provide increased benefits when supplemented even if there isn’t a deficiency. 2 DMG helps the process of metabolism (breaking down or building up of compounds in the body) work better and more efficient. 3 DMG is a completely safe hypoallergenic nutrient. <P> FoodScience of Vermont Aangamik DMG is used by athletes to quicken recovery time after strenuous exercise. DMG is also used by young and old alike to support circulation and glucose metabolism. Each tablet contains 250 mg of N, N-Dimethylglycine (DMG). <P> Vitamin B-15 Supplements-Aangamik DMG. Aangamik DMG (dimethylglycine), or vitamin B-15, is a natural compound known for supporting circulatory health, cardiovascular function and the immune system. DMG also promotes muscle health, endurance and recovery through its effect on lactic acid. 23 items. Aangamik DMG (dimethylglycine), or vitamin B-15, is a natural compound known for supporting circulatory health, cardiovascular function and the immune system. <P> Dimethylglycine (DMG) is a nutrient which is found in the cells of both plants and animals. The human body produces DMG in very small amounts. Supplementing the diet with higher levels of DMG greatly improves the nutritional environment of the cell. SKU: 0300380.030. A dietary supplement to support immune system, circulatory, cardiovascular, and neurological functions; muscle recovery and endurance.. <P> Dimethylglycine (DMG) is a nutrient which is found in the cells of both plants and animals. The human body produces DMG in very small amounts. Supplementing the diet with higher levels of DMG greatly improves the nutritional environment of the cell. <P> Aangamik dmg is an adaptogen that can be used to maintain good health and benefit performance and productivity. As a metabolic enhancer, DMG supports the body in times of stress, throughout the aging process, and during immune system challenges. The statements and products referred to throughout this site have not been evaluated by the FDA. They are not intended to diagnose, treat, cure or prevent any disease. <P> A dietary supplement to support immune system, circulatory, cardiovascular, and neurological functions; muscle recovery and endurance. Dimethylglycine (DMG) is a nutrient that is found in the cells of both plants and animals. The human body produces DMG in very small amounts.	Aangamik dmg is an adaptogen that can be used to maintain good health and benefit performance and productivity. As a metabolic enhancer, DMG supports the body in times of stress, throughout the aging process, and during immune system challenges.
wages taxes for pharmacists	<P> In fact, the Bureau of Labor Statistics projects 14.5 percent employment growth for pharmacists by 2022, with the field adding 41,400 new jobs. Solid employment growth and a high median salary help make pharmacist a top contender on this year’s list of Best Jobs. Salary. The median annual salary for a pharmacist was $119,280, or $57.35 per hour, in 2013. The best-paid 10 percent made $147,350, while the lowest-paid made $89,000. The best-compensated pharmacists are employed by merchandise stores. <P> Salary Outlook. The median annual salary for a pharmacist was $119,280, or $57.35 per hour, in 2013. The best-paid 10 percent made $147,350, while the lowest-paid made $89,000. The best-compensated pharmacists are employed by merchandise stores <P> State Income tax can be as high as 9% at higher bracket. But the property tax in my area is 2.75%. Yeah...for a single income earning pharmacist household with a $300,000 to $400,000 house, it's a wash... but higher income earning household with a modest house will significantly benefit. So, making a lot of money + living in a modest house in states with no income tax is mo better. <P> Read more on salaries and benefits here. The median annual salary for a pharmacist was $119,280, or $57.35 per hour, in 2013. The best-paid 10 percent made $147,350, while the lowest-paid made $89,000. The best-compensated pharmacists are employed by merchandise stores <P> My pharmacist told me that she has a 31% tax that is crazy. I'm wondering, is it better to extend your loan repayment period so that you won't have a lot of taxes taken out or just deal with the tax because I really want to pay off my loans as soon as possible but that percentage is a bit high for me. Yeah...for a single income earning pharmacist household with a $300,000 to $400,000 house, it's a wash... but higher income earning household with a modest house will significantly benefit. So, making a lot of money + living in a modest house in states with no income tax is mo better. <P> The U. S. Department of Labor Occupational Employment Statistics reports that approximately 268,000 pharmacists were employed in the United States as of May 2010. The average pharmacy salary was a mean hourly wage of $52.59 an hour and a mean annual wage of $111,000. Ten percent earned $82,000 a year, 25 percent earned $88,000 annually. Seventy five percent of the pharmacists earned $125,000 yearly and 90 percent earned $138,000. <P> Pharmacists have one of the highest average salaries of any of our Best Health Care Jobs, earning $116,500 in 2013. They make more, on average, than physical therapists ($82,180) and registered nurses ($68,910). The median annual salary for a pharmacist was $119,280, or $57.35 per hour, in 2013. The best-paid 10 percent made $147,350, while the lowest-paid made $89,000. The best-compensated pharmacists are employed by merchandise stores <P> At a pharmacists wages you can't ask for more than +/- $1,000.00. That means next year you will either have up to a $1,000.00 refund or owe $1,000.00. You do not want a $5,000.00 refund or tax bill. Your effective tax rate will depend on what your state and local taxes are where you live. Yeah...for a single income earning pharmacist household with a $300,000 to $400,000 house, it's a wash... but higher income earning household with a modest house will significantly benefit. So, making a lot of money + living in a modest house in states with no income tax is mo better. <P> On average, Pharmacists in the United States earn six-figure salaries ($108K) annually, making for a very well-paid profession. Overall cash earnings for Pharmacists stretch from $84K on the lower end to $133K near the top, and the heftiest packages can encompass around $10K from bonuses and $10K from profit sharing. Experience and pay tend to be weakly linked for Pharmacists — those with more experience do not necessarily bring in higher earnings. Even the relatively untried can take home bulky six-figure salaries; employees who have worked for fewer than five years report earning $108K on average.	$300,000 to $400,000
what are the different types of cranes	<P> Various Types Of Cranes. A crane is a tower or derrick that is equipped with cables and pulleys that are used to lift and lower material. They are commonly used in the construction industry and in the manufacturing of heavy equipment. Cranes for construction are normally temporary. <P> 1 Tower Crane. 2 Different types of cranes exist depending on the particular job that needs to be completed. 3 One of the most commonly seen cranes seen in cities is a tower crane. 4 Tower cranes were initially developed in Europe and are now popular all over the world. <P> Different Types of Cranes. The types of cranes used in construction are generally temporary structures and will be either fixed to the ground or mounted on a vehicle. The operator can control the crane from inside a cab that moves with the crane, by radio controls or by a push button pendant control station. <P> NSA461 120928 \| Page 2 of 7 Types of Cranes Sidelift Crane A side lifter crane is a road-going truck or semi-trailer, able to hoist and transport ISO standard containers. Container lift is done with parallel crane-like hoists, which can lift a container from the ground or from a railway vehicle. <P> 1 Different types of cranes exist depending on the particular job that needs to be completed. 2 One of the most commonly seen cranes seen in cities is a tower crane. 3 Tower cranes were initially developed in Europe and are now popular all over the world. 4 A tower crane is used in the construction of tall buildings. <P> NSA461 120928 \| Page 1 of 7 Types of Cranes Mounted Crane A crane mounted on a truck carrier provides the mobility for this type of crane. Generally, these cranes are able to travel on highways, eliminating the need for special equipment to transport the crane. <P> 1 Other types of mobile cranes used in construction are floating cranes. 2 Floating cranes are usually used in waterway construction such as bridges, ports, and dams. <P> When it comes to types of cranes, there is a wide variety of brands, sizes, weights, and lifting capacity to suit any lifting needed anywhere in the world. What we find is that most cranes are engineered to have a working life of between 20-25 years, if there is regular maintenance and upkeep done.	Tower crane, Floating cranes, Side lifter crane
what type of blood test is a cbc with differential/platelet	<P> 1 White blood cell types (WBC differential). 2 The major types of white blood cells are neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. 3 Immature neutrophils, called band neutrophils, are also part of this test. 4 Each type of cell plays a different role in protecting the body. 1 Platelet (thrombocyte) count. 2 Platelets (thrombocytes) are the smallest type of blood cell. 3 They are important in blood clotting. 4 When bleeding occurs, the platelets swell, clump together, and form a sticky plug that helps stop the bleeding. <P> CBC With Differential / Platelet. CBC is a Complete Blood Count Test. The Differential measures the different percentage of each type of different white blood cell in your blood. Platelet refers to the measurement of how many blood cells you have in your blood. CBC is a Complete Blood Count Test. The Differential measures the different percentage of each type of different white blood cell in your blood <P> The white blood cell differential is often used as part of a complete blood count (CBC) as a general health check. It may be used to help diagnose the cause of a high or low white blood cell (WBC) count, as determined with a CBC. <P> CBC (COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT) WITH DIFF The CBC, also known as a Complete Blood Count, is a test that provides information about certain cells in the blood. It is a very common and important test that is frequently ordered by a physician to check a patient’s general health status. <P> A complete blood count (CBC) is a blood test used to evaluate your overall health and detect a wide range of disorders, including anemia, infection and leukemia. A complete blood count test measures several components and features of your blood, including: 1 Red blood cells, which carry oxygen. Definition. A complete blood count (CBC) is a blood test used to evaluate your overall health and detect a wide range of disorders, including anemia, infection and leukemia. A complete blood count test measures several components and features of your blood, including: 1 Red blood cells, which carry oxygen. 2 White blood cells, which fight infection. <P> Details. A complete blood count (CBC) gives important information about the numbers and kinds of cells in the blood, especially red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. A CBC helps your health professional check any symptoms, such as fatigue, weakness, or bruising, that you may have. Test Results. A complete blood count (CBC) gives important information about the numbers and kinds of cells in the blood, especially red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. <P> Quantity: * Whole number only. A complete blood count (CBC) is a laboratory test that measures several basic parameters of human blood including the red blood cell counts (erythrocytes), white blood cell counts (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes). A CBC with differential is often ordered to determine a patients general health status <P> 1 White blood cell (WBC) count is a count of the total number of white blood cells in a person's sample of blood. 2 White blood cell differential may or may not be included as part of the panel of tests. 3 It identifies and counts the number of the various types of white blood cells present. 1 The platelet count is the number of platelets in a person's sample of blood. 2 Mean platelet volume (MPV) may be reported with a CBC. 3 It is a calculation of the average size of platelets. 4 Platelet distribution width (PDW) may also	Red blood cell counts (erythrocytes), white blood cell counts (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes).
what is phytosanitary certificate	<P> Phytosanitary certificate document is the origin of the shipment and confirms inspection in the country of origin by a member of that country's national plant protection organization. This helps ensure that the shipment of commodities is free of injurious plant pests and diseases. \n Phytosanitary certificate is governed under the International Plant Protection Convention, a multilateral treaty acknowledged by the World Trade Organization as the source for international standards for phytosanitary measures affecting trade. <P> (July 2012). Phytosanitary certification is used to attest that consignments meet phytosanitary import requirements and is undertaken by an NPPO (National Plant Protection Organization). A public officer who is authorized by the National Plant Protection organization (NPPO) and accredited for the signing of phytosanitary certificates, who 1)possesses the required education, experience, and training; and 2) has written confirmation of having successfully passed an approved examination. <P> The USDA APHIS PPQ issues Phytosanitary Certificates for export via the PCIT Phytosanitary Certificate Issuance and Tracking System. This is a program that tracks the inspection of agricultural products and certifies compliance with statutory and regulatory plant health standards of importing countries. A public officer who is authorized by the National Plant Protection organization (NPPO) and accredited for the signing of phytosanitary certificates, who 1)possesses the required education, experience, and training; and 2) has written confirmation of having successfully passed an approved examination. <P> Phytosanitary certificate document is the origin of the shipment and confirms inspection in the country of origin by a member of that country's national plant protection organi} DUPipeline_QISnippet_FirstGoodLong_Snippet_v1: {},{-1\|-1\|1\|. \n Phytosanitary certificate is governed under the International Plant Protection Convention, a multilateral treaty acknowledged by the World Trade Organization as the source for international standards for phytosanitary measures affecting trade. <P> 1.1 Purpose of phytosanitary certificates. Phytosanitary certificates are issued to indicate that consignments of plants, plant products or other regulated articles meet specified phytosanitary import requirements and are in conformity with the certifying statement of the appropriate model certificate. Model certificates provide a standard wording and format that should be followed for the preparation of official phytosanitary certificates. This is necessary to ensure the validity of the documents, that they are easily recognized, and that essential information is reported. <P> A Phytosanitary Certificate is an official document issued by the plant protection organization of the exporting country to the plant protection organization of the importing country. <P> 1.2 Mode of issue. The phytosanitary certificate is an original document, or under specific circumstances is a certified copy issued by the NPPO, that accompanies the consignment and is presented to the relevant officials upon arrival in the importing country. Model certificates provide a standard wording and format that should be followed for the preparation of official phytosanitary certificates. This is necessary to ensure the validity of the documents, that they are easily recognized, and that essential information is reported. <P> Phytosanitary Certificate is a certificate that certifies plant and plant products are free from regulated pests, and conforms with other phytosanitary requirements as specified from the importing country. Approximately 10 Minutes in completing the form. <P> A phytosanitary certificate for export is usually issued by the NPPO of the country where the plants, plant products or regulated articles were grown or processed (1). A public officer who is authorized by the National Plant Protection organization (NPPO) and accredited for the signing of phytosanitary certificates, who 1)possesses the required education, experience, and training; and 2) has written confirmation of having successfully passed an approved examination.	An official document issued by the plant protection organization of the exporting country to the plant protection organization of the importing country.
what does jrt mean	<P> The name Russell is a French baby name. In French the meaning of the name Russell is: Reddish. English Meaning: The name Russell is an English baby name. In English the meaning of the name Russell is: Form of Rufus: Red-haired. The name Russell is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Russell is: Red haired. Anglo-Saxon Meaning: The name Russell is an Anglo-Saxon baby name. In Anglo-Saxon the meaning of the name Russell is: Fox. <P> Next. I have a 4 year old Jack Russell and she is just plain mean, on occasion she'll be nice, but she becomes very possessive of a ball or treat and is even worse at night! we have no idea what to do..... Follow. 7 answers 7. Report Abuse <P> The term Jack Russell is commonly misapplied to other small white terriers. The Jack Russell is a broad type, with a size range of 10–15 inches. The Parson Russell is limited only to a middle range with a standard size of 12–14 inches, while the Russell terrier is smaller at 8–12 inches. The Jack Russell is an energetic breed that relies on a high level of exercise and stimulation and is relatively free from serious health complaints. Originating from dogs bred and used by Reverend John Russell in the early 19th century, it has similar origins to the modern Fox terrier. <P> The Jack Russell Terrier is a small terrier that has its origins in fox hunting; it is principally white-bodied and smooth, rough or broken-coated. It is commonly confused with the Parson Russell terrier (see the American Kennel Club) and the Russell terrier, which is a shorter-legged, stockier variety. The Jack Russell is an energetic breed that relies on a high level of exercise and stimulation and is relatively free from serious health complaints. Originating from dogs bred and used by Reverend John Russell in the early 19th century, it has similar origins to the modern Fox terrier. <P> Developed in England some 200 years ago to hunt foxes, the Jack Russell Terrier, also known as the Parson Russell Terrier, is a lively, independent, and clever little dog. He's charming and affectionate, but he's also a handful to train and manage. <P> Latin Meaning: The name Russell is a Latin baby name. In Latin the meaning of the name Russell is: Red haired. American Meaning: The name Russell is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Russell is: Red haired. Anglo-Saxon Meaning: The name Russell is an Anglo-Saxon baby name. In Anglo-Saxon the meaning of the name Russell is: Fox. <P> Jack Russell Terrier. The Jack Russell terrier is a small terrier that has its origins in fox hunting; it is principally white-bodied and smooth, rough or broken-coated. It is commonly confused with the Parson Russell terrier and the Russell terrier, which is a shorter-legged, stockier variety. The Jack Russell is an energetic breed that relies on a high level of exercise and stimulation and is relatively free from serious health complaints. Originating from dogs bred and used by Reverend John Russell in the early 19th century, it has similar origins to the modern Fox terrier. <P> JRT is an implementation of the Pascal programming language. It was available in the early 1980s on the CP/M operating system. At the end of the 1970s, the most popular Pascal implementation for microcomputers was UCSD Pascal, which many people considered overpriced at hundreds of dollars. The original basis for UCSD Pascal was the p-machine compiler from ETH Zurich the originators of Pascal. JRT was a Pascal interpreter, that compiled down to its own pseudo-code totally separate from UCSD Pascal p-code. It was written by Jim Russell Tyson who had the idea that if he dropped the price he'd sell more copie	Jack Russell Terrier
dollar cost averaging explained	<P> BREAKING DOWN 'Dollar-Cost Averaging-DCA'. Eventually, the average cost per share of the security will become smaller and smaller. Dollar-cost averaging lessens the risk of investing a large amount in a single investment at the wrong time. For example, you decide to purchase $100 worth of XYZ each month for three months. DEFINITION of 'Dollar-Cost Averaging-DCA'. The technique of buying a fixed dollar amount of a particular investment on a regular schedule, regardless of the share price. More shares are purchased when prices are low, and fewer shares are bought when prices are high <P> Dollar-cost averaging is simply a method of purchasing shares of a mutual fund on a monthly basis. The same dollar amount is used each month to purchase fund shares month in and month out for typically a long period of time, such as from one to ten years. A regular purchase of shares of stock or other securities will typically require the investor to decide the number of shares to be purchased and then place an actual trade, while dollar-cost averaging is the investing equivalent of “auto pilot”. See also the 7 Questions to Ask When Buying a Mutual Funds. <P> There's a neat little investment trick designed to limit your risk if you want to put a big chunk of money into a single stock. It's called dollar cost averaging. Here's an explainer. <P> The usual disclaimer applies. 2 EXPLAINING THE RIDDLE OF DOLLAR COST AVERAGING Dollar cost averaging (DCA) is the practice of building up investments gradually over time in equal dollar amounts, rather than investing the desired total in one lump sum. However, there is a much more general issue here: the average purchase cost for DCA investors gives greater weight to periods when the price is relatively low, so price fluctuations will always mean that DCA investors buy at less than the average price, regardless of the particular path taken by prices. <P> March 27, 2006 \| Comments (0). Dollar-cost averaging can be a good way to protect yourself from a volatile market. It's the practice of accumulating shares in a stock over time by investing a certain dollar amount regularly, through up and down periods. And if you're dollar-cost averaging by the book, you shouldn't be second-guessing the market, deciding to skip an installment because the stock is up or down. It's meant to be a methodical system. Take some time to learn more about Drips. Learn more in these articles, too: <P> The Appeal of Dollar-Cost Averaging. Dollar-cost averaging is popular with investors for two reasons. In addition to the long-term convenience described above, it also usually lowers the average overall cost of the shares that are purchased and thereby improves the rate of return for investors. A regular purchase of shares of stock or other securities will typically require the investor to decide the number of shares to be purchased and then place an actual trade, while dollar-cost averaging is the investing equivalent of “auto pilot”. See also the 7 Questions to Ask When Buying a Mutual Funds. <P> Electronic copy available at: http://ssrn.com/abstract=1473046 1 EXPLAINING THE RIDDLE OF DOLLAR COST AVERAGING Abstract: Dollar cost averaging (DCA) remains a very popular investment strategy, even though previous academic research has long shown that in normal circumstances it is mean-variance inefficient. The usual disclaimer applies. Electronic copy available at: http://ssrn.com/abstract=1473046 2 EXPLAINING THE RIDDLE OF DOLLAR COST AVERAGING Dollar cost averaging (DCA) is the practice of building up investments gradually over time in equal dollar amounts, rather than investing the desired total in one lump sum.	Dollar-cost averaging is simply a method of purchasing shares of a mutual fund on a monthly basis. The same dollar amount is used each month to purchase fund shares month in and month out for typically a long period of time, such as from one to ten years.
what phylum does radiolaria belong to	<P> Kingdom: Animalia Phylum: Chor … data Class: Mammalia Infra-class: Eutheria Order: Artiodactyla Suborder: Ruminantia Infraorder: Pecora Family: Cervidae. <P> Introduction. Radiolaria are holoplanktonic protozoa and form part of the zooplankton, they are non-motile (except when flagella-bearing reproductive swarmers are produced) but contain buoyancy enhancing structures; they may be solitary or colonial. <P> Animal Kingdom. The Animal Kingdom is split into several Phyla. Each Phylum group contains organisms that have things in common. Below is a list of some animal Phyla: Chordate Phylum: All the animals which have a backbone. Includes: Fish, Reptiles, Birds, Amphibians, and Mammals. <P> The word phylum (plural: phyla) is a category used to classify marine organisms. In this article, you can learn the definition of phylum, how it is used, and examples of phyla used to categorize marine life. <P> All humans, including those that edit at wiki.Answers.com belong to the species Homo sapiens, of the family Hominidae, of the class Mammalia, of the phylum Chordata. 3 people found this useful. Edit. Share to: 1 The Five Major Parts of the Brain At its most basic, the brain controls the body. <P> Phylum Sarcomastigophora Amoebas and their relatives, including foraminifera and radiolaria, belong to the subphylum Sarcodina. Foraminifera and radiolaria have skeletons that readily fossilize, which make them an important part of many micropaleontological samples. <P> Because Radiolaria are heterotrophic they are not limited to the photic zone and have been found at water depths as great as 4000m. However, because many living Radiolaria contain symbiotic photosynthesising algae they must spend at least daylight hours within the photic zone. <P> I will list the entire classification structure below for the red stag deer, just in case you need it. Kingdom: Animalia Phylum: Chor … data Class: Mammalia Infra-class: Eutheria Order: Artiodactyla Suborder: Ruminantia Infraorder: Pecora Family: Cervidae. 4 people found this useful.	Sarcomastigophora Amoebas.
normal blood pressure measurement	<P> Ideally, we should all have a blood pressure below 120 over 80 (120/80). This is the ideal blood pressure for people wishing to have good health. At this level, we have a much lower risk of heart disease or stroke. If your blood pressure is optimal, this is great news. If your blood pressure is above 120/80mmHg, you will need to lower it. Most adults in the UK have blood pressure readings in the range from 120 over 80 (120/80) to 140 over 90 (140/90). If your blood pressure is within this range, you should be taking steps to bring it down or to stop it rising any further. Our five top tips will show you how <P> Blood pressure (BP) is the pressure exerted by circulating blood upon the walls of blood vessels. When used without further specification, blood pressure usually refers to the arterial pressure in the systemic circulation. It is usually measured at a person's upper arm. Blood pressure is usually expressed in terms of the systolic (maximum) pressure over diastolic (minimum) pressure and is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). <P> The bottom number, called the diastolic pressure, is the measurement as the heart relaxes between beats. Normal blood pressure is a systolic pressure of less than 120 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and a diastolic pressure of less than 80 mm Hg, or 120/80 mm Hg, according to the American Heart Association (AHA). Having a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg is considered high blood pressure or hypertension. A blood pressure level between normal and hypertension, is called prehypertension, meaning it is higher than normal, but not high enough to be considered hypertension. <P> To get an accurate blood pressure measurement, your doctor should evaluate your readings based on the average of two or more blood pressure readings at three or more office visits. Here's a look at the four blood pressure categories and what they mean for you. If your readings fall into two different categories, your correct blood pressure category is the higher category. For example, if your blood pressure reading is 125/95 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), you have stage 1 hypertension. <P> Blood Pressure Measurement Quiz Multiple Choice (circle the correct answer) 1. Normal blood pressure in adults (age 18 or older) is a. 115/75 b. Below 120/80 mm Hg c. Below 160/90 mm Hg d. Depends on your age 2. <P> In the routine outpatient setting, blood pressure is measured indirectly. Thus, it is important that proper techniques be used in order to produce consistent and reliable readings. In adults, a normal blood pressure is less than 120 mm Hg for systolic and less than 80 mm Hg for diastolic blood pressure. Higher levels are classified as prehypertensive: a systolic blood pressure between 120 and 139 mm Hg and a diastolic. . . . Dr. Conlin reports receiving lecture fees from Merck. <P> The systolic blood pressure number is always said first, and then the diastolic blood pressure number is given. For example, your blood pressure may be read as 120 over 80 or written as 120/80. Blood pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). <P> The second number, called diastolic blood pressure, measures the pressure in your blood vessels when your heart rests between beats. If the measurement reads 120 systolic and 80 diastolic, you would say 120 over 80 or write 120/80 mmHg.. The chart below shows normal, at-risk, and high blood pressure levels. A blood pressure less than 120/80 mmHg is normal. A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or more is too high. People with levels in between 120/80 and 140/90 have a condition called prehypertension, which means they are at high risk for high blood pressure. <P> Normal Blood Pressure. Normal blood pressure for adults is defined as a systolic pressure below 120 mmHg and a diastolic pressure below 80 mmHg. It is normal for blood pressures to change when you sleep, wake up, or are excited or nervous. When you are active, it is normal for your blood pressure to increase.	Normal blood pressure is a systolic pressure of less than 120 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and a diastolic pressure of less than 80 mm Hg, or 120/80 mm Hg.
forensic computer analyst salary	<P> Salary Ranges. Annual pay for forensic science analysts ranged from $32,760 for the lowest-paid 10 percent to more than $84,000 for the top 10 percent, according to the BLS. Salaries also vary by the type of agency employing an analyst. Most forensic analysts worked for state and local law enforcement agencies. This salary exceeds the average earned by other scientific technicians, according to the bureau. Annual pay for forensic science analysts ranged from $32,760 for the lowest-paid 10 percent to more than $84,000 for the top 10 percent, according to the BLS. Salaries also vary by the type of agency employing an analyst. <P> Trainee forensic computer analysts can earn around £20,000 a year. Salaries for analysts with 12 months' experience can be between £25,000 and £35,000 a year. With four to five years' experience, this can rise to between £40,000 and £60,000 a year. Figures are intended as a guideline only. Starting salary. £20,000 + per year. Forensic computer analysts investigate computer-based crime (cyber crime). If you have an enquiring mind, can interpret data and want a career in IT, this specialist role could be ideal for you. <P> According to PayScale.com, most computer forensic analysts earned between $40,304 and $110,949 as of December 2014. The BLS notes that all private investigators and detectives earned a median annual salary of $46,250 in 2013. <P> Graduates with a computer forensics, computer science or accounting degree can become forensic computer analysts at law enforcement agencies, private practices or information technology companies. Read on to learn more about the average starting salaries for these workers at all experience levels. Salary by Experience. According to the website PayScale.com, the tenth to 90th percentile salary range for all forensic computer analysts was $40,101-$109,426 as of March 2014. Most entry-level workers with less than one year of experience earned between $38,606 and $93,308 per year in the same period. Salaries increase with additional experience. The job sector that you select can influence your starting salary as a forensic computer analyst <P> Salary. The salary for computer forensic analysts can vary depending on where you work and your level of experience. According to PayScale.com, most computer forensics analysts earned salaries between $40,000 and $117,000, which included bonuses, in July 2015. <P> The average salary for computer forensic professionals, according to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, is $36, 640 per year. According to SimplyHired.com, the average annual salary in the U.S. for a digital forensics professional was $61,000 as of July 2009. <P> Computer Forensics Salary. The median salary for computer forensic examiners was around $75,660 in 2012, according to the BLS. Those in the lowest 10 percent earned as little as $43,190, while those in the highest 10 percent earned as much as $119,940 annually. <P> A Forensic Computer Analyst earns an average salary of $69,112 per year. People in this job generally don't have more than 20 years' experience. Experience has a moderate effect on income for this job. Read More... Forensic computer analysts are responsible for analyzing computer-based information for forensic evidence. These individuals process large amounts of data to find specific items on behalf of their organization.	According to PayScale.com, most computer forensics analysts earned salaries between $40,000 and $117,000, which included bonuses, in July 2015.
how to write a personal response on a book	<P> Sorry, something has gone wrong. Best Answer: To write a personal response about a book is to write a papper or even a paragraph (paper highly suggested) about how you feel about the book. Do you like it hate why, write sentences about the book to support your answers. <P> How to Write a Reading Response Journal Choose a reading that interests you. It may be from this class, another class, or your own personal reading. It may be a newspaper article, a magazine article, an advertisement, a web page, a book, poem, etc. You may respond to its content and how well or poorly it was written. <P> A personal response essay emphasizes your opinion about a piece of literature, movie, article, speech or other types of media. While your response is the focus, you also need to support that opinion with elements from the original source. Writing the essay helps you analyze and connect with the original source material. <P> When writing a personal response essay you should always try and broaden the scope of your work, meaning whatever it is you’re writing about, you should try and draw it out into the world and apply it to your own life, within the boundaries of personal response essay format. <P> Best Answer: The best thing on writing a book response is how the book made you feel. Did you enjoy it-most people in your class will include things about the characters, the genre, the setting so if you add a little personal thoughts and feelings to it then you know for sure your response wont be the same. <P> What does. Personal means your own private feelings about someone or something. A response is a way of telling something to someone. It can be a spoken response, or a written response. So, a personal response is telling how you feel <P> Explore Your Reaction. A personal response is not a recap or summary of the story. While you might reference key elements of the piece, the paper you write focuses on the interpretations, reactions and feelings provoked in you by the work.	To write a personal response about a book is to write a papper or even a paragraph (paper highly suggested) about how you feel about the book.
what terminal is customs at lax	<P> While LAX is the busiest airport in the Greater Los Angeles Area, other airports, including Bob Hope Airport, John Wayne Airport, Long Beach Airport, and LA/Ontario International Airport, also serve the region. It is also notable for being one of few U.S. airports with four parallel runways. It is most often referred to by its IATA airport code LAX, with the letters pronounced individually. LAX is located in southwestern Los Angeles along the Pacific Ocean in the neighborhood of Westchester, 16 miles (26 km) from Downtown Los Angeles. <P> There are 9 operating airline terminals At LAX Airport, Terminals 1 to 8 and Tom Bradley International Terminal. LAX Airport Terminals Map. Sydney to LA, arrival is at Terminal B which I realise is also the Tom Bradley terminal on the map. And then taking off at Terminal 3 for LA to New York. <P> The Terminal 2 project follows on the acclaimed renovation of Tom Bradley International Terminal (TBIT), which debuted to the public in 2013 and is the centerpiece of LAX’s multibillion-dollar modernization program. TBIT features 58 premier dining and luxury retail shops, world-class amenities and cutting-edge design. Westfield is steadily transforming the LAX traveler experience through luxury retail, sophisticated and casual dining, and world-class design at Terminals 1, 2, 3, 6 and Tom Bradley International Terminal. <P> LAX Airport Terminal 5. Airlines that operate from LAX Airport Terminal 5. LAX Airport Terminal 5 Map. There are currently no posts in this category. <P> Terminal 5 at LAX Airport serves Delta Airlines only-with gates 50B -59. The Departures Level offers a food court with 4 restaurants, and 5 other food & drink ouotlets, a DFS duty-free shop, 5 other shops; ICE Currency exchange & nursing room. Total completion is scheduled for 2016. Terminal 3 at LAX Airport serves Allegiant, Bizair, Frontier, JetBlue, Spirit, Virgin America & Virgin Australia (departures) - with gates 30 right after security check and gates 31A through 38 surrounding the gate area. <P> Terminals 4, 5, 6 & 7 are connected by a tunnel reached by escalators at their baggage claim level. Terminals 8 & 1 are on opposite sides of their respective garages; you can either use the LAX bus A running from T8 to T1 (one stop) or walk between the two parking structures to the other side. Total completion is scheduled for 2016. Terminal 3 at LAX Airport serves Allegiant, Bizair, Frontier, JetBlue, Spirit, Virgin America & Virgin Australia (departures) - with gates 30 right after security check and gates 31A through 38 surrounding the gate area. <P> New passport scanners may have you flying through. Much the way some supermarket shoppers go through self-service checkout lines, foreign travelers arriving at Los Angeles International Airport on Wednesday began passing through automated kiosks that scanned their passports and customs information. The kiosks, which cost $36,000 each, process passport information and items purchased abroad that would have to be declared to customs officials on written forms filled out by passengers. It's very nice, Manteca resident Pam Shelton said Wednesday as she arrived at LAX from Australia. <P> Al Seib / Los Angeles Times. Passengers at the Tom Bradley International Terminal at LAX use the new automated passport-control kiosks that can read passports and customs declarations to expedite entry. (Al Seib / Los Angeles Times). The kiosks, which cost $36,000 each, process passport information and items purchased abroad that would have to be declared to customs officials on written forms filled out by passengers. It's very nice, Manteca resident Pam Shelton said Wednesday as she arrived at LAX from Australia. <P> We have book a International flight from San Francisco via Sky West to LAX terminal 1, and connecting flight within 2 hours to International Terminal ,on Korean Airlines to Seoul Korea. Sydney to LA, arrival is at Terminal B which I realise is also the Tom Bradley terminal on the map. And then taking off at Terminal 3 for LA to New York. <P> Terminal 6 at LAX Airport serves Alaska, Copa Panama; Great Lakes, United (United Premier, First & Business class only) and US Airways-with gates 60-69B. The Departures Level houses 4 food drink outlets, Hudson News & DFS Duty-free and ICE currency exchange. Total completion is scheduled for 2016. Terminal 3 at LAX Airport serves Allegiant, Bizair, Frontier, JetBlue, Spirit, Virgin America & Virgin Australia (departures) - with gates 30 right after security check and gates 31A through 38 surrounding the gate area.	The Tom Bradley International
how much do dog day care attendants make	<P> 1 Dog daycare often costs at the higher end of that range -- as much as 30 percent more expensive -- in large cities and on the east and west coasts. 2 But, it also is more available in those locations. <P> Dog Daycare Cost. 1 For a half-day -- usually five hours of playtime, where the owner chooses a convenient time slot -- dog daycare typically costs between $6 and $25. <P> The median annual wage for flight attendants was $37,240 in May 2012. The median wage is the wage at which half the workers in an occupation earned more than that amount and half earned less. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $27,240, and the top 10 percent earned more than $66,460. <P> 1 For a half-day -- usually five hours of playtime, where the owner chooses a convenient time slot -- dog daycare typically costs between $6 and $25. 2 For a full day -- usually from about 7 a.m. to 6 p.m. -- dog daycare typically costs between $12 and $38. <P> 1 For a monthly package, dog daycare typically costs between $240 and $550. 2 Dog daycare often costs at the higher end of that range -- as much as 30 percent more expensive -- in large cities and on the east and west coasts. <P> Kennel attendants usually feed and water the dogs, clean cages, and make sure the dogs get plenty of exercise, reports the U.S. Department of Labor. Consider hiring a veterinarian as part of your staff to care for the dogs in the event of emergencies or injuries. <P> The median annual wage for nonfarm animal caretakers was $19,690 in May 2012. The median wage is the wage at which half the workers in an occupation earned more than that amount and half earned less. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $16,490, and the top 10 percent earned more than $32,500. The median annual wage for animal trainers was $25,27 <P> In-home, or private daycare operators offer your dog a home environment, and more human-to-dog contact. Staffed Commercial Dog Daycares. A fully-staffed facility offers much for social dog. Often the number of dogs on a day at these places can be from ten to twenty dogs, all ready to make friends. <P> If you earned $35,000 as a daycare owner in Pierre, S.D., you'd need to make $48,433 in Boston to maintain your living standard, according to CNN Money's Cost of Living calculator. In Washington, D.C., you'd need to make $49,564 for the same reason, or approximately 42 percent more.	$6 and $25
define inbound marketing	<P> Inbound saves you and makes you more money. 1 HubSpot reported in last year’s State of Inbound Marketing that inbound marketing can save companies 61 percent on each lead. 2 The average cost per outbound lead is $346, compared to $135 per inbound lead. <P> What Is Outbound Marketing? Social media -- Web 2.0 -- has added an array of new tools and practices businesses can use to reach their target consumers. Benefits of Outbound Marketing. The primary benefit of outbound marketing is that consumers are familiar with it. The medium doesn't get in the way of the message, as it can with inbound marketing, which is delivered via technologies that many consumers still struggle to understand and to trust. <P> Create and maintain a successful website. 3. Generate more website traffic by crafting high quality pieces of content: Inbound marketing, a phrase coined by HubSpot’s Brian Halligan, is said to be the most effective marketing method for doing business online. <P> white paper. n. 1. (Government, Politics & Diplomacy) (often capitals) an official government report in any of a number of countries, including Britain, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada, which sets out the government's policy on a matter that is or will come before Parliament. <P> Key Differences. With inbound telemarketing, a customer calls in to the cell center. For example, a customer reads an advertisement for a new product and calls an inbound telemarketer to request more information. With outbound telemarketing, call centers call potential customers directly. <P> vs. Insightera. Inbound marketing is a strategy that focuses on attracting customers, or leads, via company-created Internet content, thereby having potential customers come to the company rather than marketers vying for their attention. <P> A New Definition for Inbound Marketing. By Eric Wittlake 17 Comments. Inbound marketing is a hot topic in B2B marketing. However, as more B2B marketers grab the inbound marketing flag, many will miss the two keys to making inbound marketing effective: 1 Be found through the recommendation of others. 2 Delight those that find you <P> White Paper. GMC. A term of art which, in the context of Fitness to Practice proceedings of the General Medical Council (UK), usually refers to Sir Liam Donaldson’s White Paper entitled “Trust, Assurance, Safety” concerning the regulation of all healthcare professionals. Medspeak-UK. It is the final stage before the Government introduces its proposals to Parliament in the form of a Bill. A White Paper is sometimes produced following the consultation process, which is undertaken after Government issues a Green Paper. <P> Please enable JavaScript to utilize the functionality of the site. The Inbound Methodology The best way to turn strangers into customers and promoters of your business. The proven methodology for the digital age Since 2006, inbound marketing has been the most effective marketing method for doing business online.	Inbound marketing is a hot topic in B2B marketing.
why does the human heel have a spur	<P> The heel bone is the largest of the 26 major bones in the human foot. But while it is a large, strong bone, it is often injured, and this pain can be quite disabling at times. Heel pain can occur in the front, back, sides or bottom of the heel. Arch Pain/Plantar Fasciitis One of those often-painful soft tissue that attaches to heel spurs at the bottom of the foot is called plantar fascia. Fascia, located throughout the body, is a fibrous connective tissue similar to a ligament. You can see fascia when you handle meat. <P> Heel spurs occur when calcium deposits build up on the underside of the heel bone, a process that usually occurs over a period of many months. Heel spurs are often caused by strains on foot muscles and ligaments, stretching of the plantar fascia, and repeated tearing of the membrane that covers the heel bone. On an X-ray, a heel spur can extend forward by as much as a half-inch. Without visible X-ray evidence, the condition is sometimes known as heel spur syndrome.. Although heel spurs are often painless, they can cause heel pain. <P> Definition. The heel bone is the largest bone in the foot and absorbs the most amount of shock and pressure. A heel spur develops as an abnormal growth of the heel bone. Calcium deposits form when the plantar fascia pulls away from the heel area, causing a bony protrusion, or heel spur to develop <P> Heel Pain. The heel bone is the largest of the 26 bones in the human foot. But while it is a large, strong bone, it is often injured, and this pain can be quite disabling at times. Heel pain can occur in the front, back, sides or bottom of the heel. <P> Heel spurs. A heel spur is an extra growth on the bone of the heel that can build up over a long period. Heel spurs are more common among people who experience heel pain, though the spur doesn’t actually cause any pain. A heel spur, also known as a calcaneal spur, may stick out by as much as 1.25cm (half an inch). <P> Heel Pain. The heel bone is the largest of the 26 bones in the human foot, which also has 33 joints and a network of more than 100 tendons, muscles, and ligaments. Like all bones, it is subject to outside influences that can affect its integrity and its ability to keep us on our feet. Heel Spurs: A bony growth on the underside of the heel bone. The spur, visible by X-ray, appears as a protrusion that can extend forward as much as half an inch. When there is no indication of bone enlargement, the condition is sometimes referred to as heel spur syndrome.. <P> For example, the long ligament on the bottom of the foot (plantar fascia) can become stressed or tight and pull on the heel, causing the ligament to become inflamed (plantar fasciitis). As the bone tries to mend itself, a bone spur can form on the bottom of the heel (known as a heel spur ). Pressure at the back of the heel from frequently wearing shoes that are too tight can cause a bone spur on the back of the heel. Most people think of something sharp when they think of a spur, but a bone spur is just extra bone. It's usually smooth, but it can cause wear and tear or pain if it presses or rubs on other bones or soft tissues such as ligaments, tendons, or nerves in the body. <P> A heel spur is a calcium deposit causing a bony protrusion on the underside of the heel bone. On an X-ray, a heel spur can extend forward by as much as a half-inch. Without visible X-ray evidence, the condition is sometimes known as heel spur syndrome.. Although heel spurs are often painless, they can cause heel pain. They are frequently associated with plantar fasciitis, a painful inflammation of the fibrous band of connective tissue (plantar fascia) that runs along the bottom of the foot and connects the heel bone to the ball of the foot	Pressure at the back of the heel from frequently wearing shoes that are too tight can cause a bone spur on the back of the heel.
how long does it take to bake chicken legs	<P> A whole fryer or broiler chicken will take about 2 hours to cook in the oven at 350 degrees. Season your chicken as desired and place in a roaster pan. Cover it tightly and bake for 1 hour and 45 minutes. Remove the cover and finish baking for 15 more minutes. <P> Baking your Chicken Legs... Preheat the oven to 400°F. Bake the chicken, uncovered, for 35 to 40 minutes or until the chicken is no longer pink inside. You can bake the chicken legs in a 375°F. oven, if desired. Increase the baking time to 45 to 50 minutes. <P> Bake the chicken, uncovered, for 35 to 40 minutes or until the chicken is no longer pink inside. You can bake the chicken legs in a 375°F. oven, if desired. Increase the baking time to 45 to 50 minutes. <P> Bake chicken legs and thighs for 45 minutes at 350 degrees. Wings will take about 25 to 30 minutes. Chicken legs, thighs, and wings cook faster than the larger bone-in breasts. Chicken thigh and leg quarters will take longer if cooked as one piece--about 1 hour. Check doneness with a meat thermometer. <P> Baking the Chicken: Preheat the oven to 400°F. Bake the chicken, uncovered, for 35 to 40 minutes or until the chicken is no longer pink inside. You can bake the chicken legs in a 375°F. oven, if desired. Increase the baking time to 45 to 50 minutes.	About 1 hour at 400°F
what domains and kingdoms are prokaryotes in	<P> Taxonomy is the science of naming living things. Domains and kingdoms are categories used to group organisms that are structurally and genetically similar. Domains. Bacteria. These single-celled organisms are known as prokaryotes. Example: Streptococcus (the bacteria that causes strep throat). <P> All species of large complex organisms are eukaryotes, including animals, plants and fungi, although most species of eukaryote are protist microorganisms. Domain Eukaryota is taxonomically devided into seven kingdoms. Cell division in eukaryotes is different from prokaryotes that lack a nucleus. Eukaryota is one of the three domains of life contianing organisms whose cells contain complex structures enclosed within complex membranes call endomembranes. These organisms are called Eukaryotes and are either singular-or multiple-celled. <P> Under this system, organisms are classified into three domains and six kingdoms. The domains are Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya. The kingdoms are Archaebacteria (ancient bacteria), Eubacteria (true bacteria), Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. The Archaea and Bacteria domains contain prokaryotic organisms. These are organisms that do not have a membrane bound nucleus. <P> These remarkable organisms are now placed in the domain Archaea. Other prokaryotes, including eubacteria and cyanobacteria, are placed in the domain Bacteria. All the kingdoms of eukaryotes, including Protista (Protoctista), Fungi, Plantae and Animalia, are placed in the domain Eukarya. The large molecular differences between the majority of prokaryotes in the kingdom Monera and the archaebacteria warrants a separation based on categories above the level of kingdom. <P> 2. Organisms can be classified into one of three domains based on differences in the sequences of nucleotides in the cell's ribosomal RNAs (rRNA), the cell's membrane lipid structure, and its sensitivity to antibiotics. 3. The three domains are the Archaea, the Bacteria, and the Eukarya. 4. Prokaryotic organisms belong either to the domain Archaea or the domain Bacteria; organisms with eukaryotic cells belong to the domain Eukarya. 5. Microorganism transfer genes to other microorganisms through horizontal gene transfer-the transfer of DNA to an organism that is not its offspring. <P> The six kingdoms of living things are divided into two major groups, Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. There are two prokaryote kingdoms and four eukaryote kingdoms. There are huge fundamental differences between the ways these two groups go about living. Here is just the briefest of distinctions. Eukaryotes have a separate membrane bound nucleus, numerous mitochondria and other organelles such as the Golgi Body within each of their cells. These areas are separated off from the main mass of the cell's cytoplasm by their own membrane in order to allow them to be more specialised. <P> Eukaryotes are organisms, including humans, whose cells have a well defined membrane-bound nucleus (containing chromosomal DNA) and organelles. The division between prokaryotes and eukaryotes reflects the existence of two very different levels of cellular organization. Another difference is that ribosomes in prokaryotes are smaller than in eukaryotes. However, two organelles found in many eukaryotic cells, mitochondria and chloroplasts, contain ribosomes similar in size and makeup to those found in prokaryotes. <P> Eukaryotic cells are typically much larger than those of prokaryotes. They have a variety of internal membrane-bound structures, called organelles, and a cytoskeleton composed of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments, which play an important role in defining the cell's organization and shape. Eukaryotes belong to the taxon Eukarya or Eukaryota. The defining feature that sets eukaryotic cells apart from prokaryotic cells (Bacteria and Archaea) is that they have membrane-bound organelles, especially the nucleus, which contains the genetic material, and is enclosed by the nuclear envelope. <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. A phylogenetic tree based on rRNA data, showing the separation of bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes. The three-domain system is a biological classification introduced by Carl Woese et al. in 1977 that divides cellular life forms into archaea, bacteria, and eukaryote domains. To reflect these primary lines of descent, he treated each as a domain, divided into several different kingdoms. Woese initially used the term kingdom to refer to the three primary phylogenic groupings, and this nomenclature was widely used until the term domains was adopted in 1990. <P> The word prokaryote comes from the Greek πρό- (pro -) before and καρυόν (karyon) nut or kernel . Prokaryotes can be divided into two domains, Archaea and Bacteria, with the remainder of species, called eukaryotes, in the third domain Eukaryota. Another difference is that ribosomes in prokaryotes are smaller than in eukaryotes. However, two organelles found in many eukaryotic cells, mitochondria and chloroplasts, contain ribosomes similar in size and makeup to those found in prokaryotes.	The domains are Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.The kingdoms are Archaebacteria,Eubacteria,Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
what is a french bulldog	<P> Origin: England and France. Description: The French Bulldog is a small companion dog with perky batlike ears and a stocky body. It has a short coat and laid back personality, and spends most of its time playing or lazing around the house. <P> The French Bulldog is a small breed of domestic dog. Frenchies were the result in the 1800s of a cross between bulldog ancestors imported from England and local ratters in Paris, France. In the UK, they moved up to become the fourth most popular registered dog by 2014. The modern French Bulldog breed descends directly from the dogs of the Molossians, an ancient Greek tribe. The dogs were spread throughout the ancient world by Phoenician traders. British Molossian dogs were developed into the Mastiff <P> The French Bulldog’s motto is “Love the one you’re with.” He is small, with distinctive “bat ears,” and comes in a variety of colors. The Frenchie is adaptable to any home environment, as long as it has air conditioning. A reputable breeder will be honest and open about health problems in the breed and the incidence with which they occur in her lines. The French Bulldog is prone to certain health problems. Here’s a brief rundown on what you should know. These small, flat-faced dogs are prone to a couple of conditions. <P> French Bulldogs are short and close to the ground, with a compact body. They have erect, round-tipped ears that sit high on the head, and round, dark colored eyes. The head is square, and the nose and muzzle are very short. The lips droop down past the chin, so they look like they are frowning all of the time. The French Bulldog is categorized as a brachycephalic breed, which refers to the short muzzle and “smashed” face. These dogs are more prone to breathing problems because of this, and they will snort and sneeze frequently. The skin is loose over the body and there are wrinkles present on the forehead and down the back. <P> The French Bulldog is sometimes called 'Frog dog' or a 'Clown dog.' Frog dog is in reference to the way they sit with hind legs spread out. Clown dog is because they are known to be fun loving vivacious 'clowns of the dog world.' Most French Bulldogs enjoy water. The modern French Bulldog breed descends directly from the dogs of the Molossians, an ancient Greek tribe. The dogs were spread throughout the ancient world by Phoenician traders. British Molossian dogs were developed into the Mastiff <P> ORIGIN AND HISTORY. To say that the French Bulldog is a purely French breed is a bit of a misnomer. Bulldogs were at the height of their popularity in England the 1860s, and small varieties of that breed were especially popular in the lace-making region of the English midlands. <P> The French Bulldog has a moderately fine, brilliant coat which is short and smooth. It can be fawn, white, or brindle, with a variety of markings which can result in a surprising diversity of appearances. The French Bulldog s skin is soft and loose, especially at the head and shoulders, forming wrinkles. The French Bulldog has a shoulder height of up to 30 cm (12 in) and weighs 9-13 kg (19-28 lbs). It has a wide head, round ears, and distinctive pointed bat ears with an attentive expression. French Bulldogs have short legs and tails, rounded chests, and compact, muscular bodies.	a small breed of domestic dog. Frenchies were the result in the 1800s of a cross between bulldog ancestors imported from England and local ratters in Paris, France.
define plaintiff	<P> The person who initiates a lawsuit by filing a complaint is called the plaintiff. When the document that initiates a lawsuit is called a petition rather than a complaint, the initiating person is usually referred to as the petitioner rather than the plaintiff. Google+. © 2015 lectlaw.com-All rights reserved. <P> Plaintiff. The person, corporation, or other legal entity that initiates a lawsuit seeking damages, enforcement of a contract, or a court determination of rights. In certain states and for some types of lawsuits, the term petitioner is used instead of plaintiff. <P> Plaintiff Law & Legal Definition. A plaintiff is the person who initiates a court action by filing a complaint with the clerk of the court against the defendant(s) demanding damages, performance and/or court determination of rights. A plaintiff is sometimes called a petitioner. <P> plaintiff. n. the party who initiates a lawsuit by filing a complaint with the clerk of the court against the defendant(s) demanding damages, performance and/or court determination of rights. (See: complaint, defendant, petitioner).	The person who initiates a court action by filing a complaint with the clerk of the court.