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what type of volcano is Santorini
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<P> Geological Summary. Renowned Santorini (Thera), with its steep-walled caldera rim draped by whitewashed villages overlooking an active volcanic island in the center of a caldera bay, is one of the scenic highlights of the Aegean. Barton M, Huijsmans J P P, 1986. Post-caldera dacites from the Santorini volcanic complex, Aegean Sea, Greece: an example of the eruption of lavas of near-constant composition over a 2,200 year period. Contr Mineral Petr, 94: 472-495. Druitt T H, Edwards L, Mellors R M, Pyle D M, Sparks R S J, Lanphere M, Davies M, Barreirio B, 1999. Santorini volcano <P> Santorini Volcano is one of the most significant volcanoes in the world history because it is considered responsible for the destruction of the Minoan Crete. Santorini is probably the most extraordinary island in the Aegean Sea. It is actually a Caldera (crater), an ancient rim of a still active volcano. The beautiful white houses are scattered along the cliffside. The modern city is actually only the eastern crescent of the ancient circular island. But this is not the only volcano in Santorini. There are other eruptive centers: Akrotiri volcanoes, Thera volcanoes, Skaros volcano, post-caldera Kamari volcanoes, Megalo Vouno volcanoes, Mikro Profitis Ilias volcano and Therasia volcanoes. <P> Santorini is complex of overlapping shield volcanoes. Basalt and andesite lava flows that make the shield are exposed in the cliff below the town of Phira. Some of t he cliff is thought to be a caldera wall associated with an eruption 21,000 year ago. <P> Volcano of Santorini. The volcano of Santorini is the most famous volcano in Greece. It has the largest caldera (crater) in the world with a height of 300m and a diameter of 11km. The special thing about this caldera is that it is actually sunken and filled with sea water <P> Geographic Setting of Santorini Santorini, one of the Cycladic islands, is a historically active volcano and part of the South Aegean (or Hellenic) volcanic arc in the Aegean Sea, located about 120 km north of Crete. 1.1. <P> The Minoan Volcanic Eruption: Bronze Age 1600 BC. The group of islands known as Santorini is unique. Probably the only volcano with a caldera that reaches into the sea, the last major explosion occurred during the Minoan Bronze Age 3,600 years ago. <P> Santorini (Greek: σαντορίνη, pronounced [sandoˈrini]), classically Thera (English pronunciation /ˈθɪərə/), and officially Thira (Greek: θήρα [ˈθira]), is an island in the southern Aegean Sea, about 200 km (120 mi) southeast of Greece 's mainland. Volcanism on Santorini is due to the Hellenic Trench subduction zone southwest of Crete. The oceanic crust of the northern margin of the African Plate is being subducted under Greece and the Aegean Sea, which is thinned continental crust. <P> The removal of such a large volume of magma caused the volcano to collapse, producing a c aldera. Ash fell over a large area in the eastern Mediterranean and Turkey. The eruption probably caused the end of the Minoan civilization on the island of Crete. Santorini is complex of overlapping shield volcanoes. Basalt and andesite lava flows that make the shield are exposed in the cliff below the town of Phira. Some of t he cliff is thought to be a caldera wall associated with an eruption 21,000 year ago. Articles. The eruption of Santorini in Greece in 1,650 B.C. was one of the largest (VEI=6) in the last 10,000 years. About 7 cubic miles (30 cubic km) of rhyodacite magma was erupted. The plinian column during the initial phase of the eruption was about 23 miles (36 km) high.
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Santorini is complex of overlapping shield volcanoes.
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models of the price is right salary
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<P> Manuela joined THE PRICE IS RIGHT in 2009. Born in Medellin, Medellín, colombia she moved to The United states in. 2006 she was a finalist In The Price Is Right Model search of, 2008 which is when she gained the attention of the’show s. Producers, eventually she was added into the rotation of regular. models Born in Medellin, Medellín, colombia she moved to The United states in. 2006 she was a finalist In The Price Is Right Model search of, 2008 which is when she gained the attention of the’show s. producers <P> One of the audience's favorites is Plinko, in which the contestant has 1 Plinko Chip to use on a Plinko board with 9 spaces (from left to right - $100, $500, $1,000, $0, $10,000, $0, $1,000, $500, $100) 4 small items are introduced, with an incorrect price below it. (the items always have a price between $10 and $99). <P> Rachel Reynolds (born November 4, 1982 in Mandeville, Louisiana) is an American model and actress. She can currently be seen as one of the models on The Price is Right. In 2002, she was one of the finalists in the search to replace Brooke Burke as the host of Wild On! . Rachel joined The Price is Right family at the very end of Season 31 as her first appearances as rotating Barker's Beauty ran from June 6th-18th for a total of 9 episodes. <P> Since the premiere of the CBS prime time series in 2002 and beginning with The Price Is Right $1,000,000 Spectaculars in 2003, there are often situations where four to seven models appear on each episode. The American television game show The Price Is Right has, since its 1972 relaunch, employed a number of models to showcase the prizes and items that are given away on the show. From 1972 to 2007, the group was referred to as Barker's Beauties, in reference to former host Bob Barker <P> Biography. Manuela joined THE PRICE IS RIGHT in 2009. Born in Medellin, Medellín, colombia she moved to The United states in. 2006 she was a finalist In The Price Is Right Model search of, 2008 which is when she gained the attention of the’show s. producers <P> comments. A jury has awarded a former model on The Price is Right more than $7.7 million in punitive damages after determining the show discriminated against her because of her pregnancy. The decision Wednesday came one day after the panel determined producers discriminated against Brandi Cochran. Price Is Right model wins $7.7 million after she claims producers said her miscarriage was 'nature's way of getting rid of a bad baby'. 1 Jury finds Price is Right producers were discriminatory. 2 Brandi Cochran, 41, wins legal fight over her wrongful termination and treatment while she was pregnant. <P> One of the audience's favorites is Plinko, in which the contestant has 1 Plinko Chip to use on a Plinko board with 9 spaces (from left to right - $100, $500, $1,000, $0, $10,000, $0, $1,000, $500, $100) 4 small items are introduced, with an incorrect price below it. (the items always have a price between $10 and $99). ALL Adult Performers, including those who do Gay porn, are paid on a per scene basis. Normally Gay porn will pay in the neighborhood of $$900 to $1,500 per scene. Howev … er, with the decline of the economy these days there are more and more people going into porn. <P> Average The Price Is Right Salaries. The average salary for the price is right jobs is $50,000. Average the price is right salaries can vary greatly due to company, location, industry, experience and benefits. This salary was calculated using the average salary for all jobs with the term the price is right anywhere in the job listing.
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$7.7 million
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how does twain use imagery to show satire in
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<P> Essay topics for The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn. Easy. Select five characters that Twain does not admire in Huck Finn. Give the specific traits that each possesses that makes him or her not an admirable person. Select five characters that Twain does admire. Give the specific traits that each possesses that makes him or her admirable. <P> (Answer #2). Satire is defined as the use of humor and wit with a critical attitude, irony, sarcasm, or ridicule for exposing or denouncing the frailties and faults of mankind’s activities and institutions, such as folly, stupidity, or vice.. Twain's uses satire to ridicule many things in The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn. <P> Drunkenness was another evil that mark Twain intended to satirize in his The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn. The reason is to be found in his early life in Hannibal, for almost all he denounced was part of his own experience. Mark Twain, who was born and had grown up in a slave-holding society, intended not only to reveal slaves conditions, but also to denounce and condemn slavery. A slave was far from being a human being as many passages of Huck Finn show. <P> After his speech, the crowd walks away. There are many examples of satire in The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.. Through satire, Mark Twain shares his beliefs about slavery and human nature, among many other topics that plagued the country at the time. She owns a slave called Jim, who runs away upon hearing that Miss Watson might sell him to New Orleans. Twain uses satire to show how hypocritical a good Christian woman can be when it comes to owning slaves as property. In the end, Miss Watson feels guilty for trying to sell Jim and gives him his freedom in her will. <P> Satire is used in many works of literature to show foolishness or vice in humans, organizations, or even governments-it uses sarcasm, ridicule, or irony. For example, satire is often used to effect political or social change, or to prevent it. <P> Share. We have known Mark Twain for his celebrated works such as Adventures of Huckleberry Finn and Adventures of Tom Sawyer. But readers of his stories have not necessarily been exposed to his signature satire. Mark Twain's satire earned him accolades. By Simran Khurana <P> In The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, Mark Twain uses satire to mock many different aspects of the modern world. Throughout his trip down the Mississippi, and even prior to leaving St. Petersburg, Huck encounters a variety of people and situations that are designed to scoff at the American people. She owns a slave called Jim, who runs away upon hearing that Miss Watson might sell him to New Orleans. Twain uses satire to show how hypocritical a good Christian woman can be when it comes to owning slaves as property. In the end, Miss Watson feels guilty for trying to sell Jim and gives him his freedom in her will. <P> ‘Adventures of Huckleberry Finn’. “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn” is a book about Huck’s escapades as he helps Jim, a runaway slave, find freedom. Twain uses satire in this book to communicate his ideas about race, slavery, hypocrisy and the social climate. For example, toward the beginning of the book, Huck’s father imprisons and enslaves him. <P> 1 Determine the meaning of selected words from Twain's essay. 2 Recognize elements of satire, and use of irony and exaggeration to achieve humor in Twain's essay. 3 Interpret Twain's use of satire, irony, and exaggeration throughout his essay and their role in the text. 1 Cite specific and relevant evidence from Twain's essay Advice to Youth when responding to text-dependent questions. 2 Determine the meaning of selected words from Twain's essay. 3
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Twain uses satire in this book to communicate his ideas about race, slavery, hypocrisy and the social climate.
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what does per person double occupancy mean
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<P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Wrong section, but it means exactly what it says. If it's $500 per person based on double occupancy, then it's $1000 for the two of you. If you have more than two people, the additional person may be less than $500. If you have only one person, it will be more than $500. <P> double occupancy rate. The rate charged when two people will occupy a room, suite, apartment, etc. For example, a hotel might charge an individual $100 per night for a room (single occupancy) but charge two people only $130 for double occupancy of the same room. <P> Usually, single occupancy is almost double the per person cost of double occupancy: The same room that cost 2 people $100 will cost 1 person $100. The principle is for the hotel to sell the room at a minimum cost, therefore, 2 people stay cheaper than 1. Single occupancy is a rate charge for one person occupaying the room Double occupancy is a rate charge for two or more persons occupaying the room. 15 people found this useful. Edit. <P> Confidence votes 200. Single occupancy = one person. Double occupancy = two people. ------------------------. A hotel room that is $100 per night, based on double occupancy, means the room is $100 per night whether one or two people stay there. Three people staying there would cost more than $100 per night <P> Answered by The Community. Making the world better, one answer at a time. Here is an example: If the price is $50 per person, per night, based on double occupancy, it means that the room is meant for 2 people, and that each person will pay $50, therefore the total cost for the room sleeping 2 people, is $100. Single occupancy is a rate charge for one person occupaying the room Double occupancy is a rate charge for two or more persons occupaying the room. 15 people found this useful. Edit. <P> Note that the term “double-occupancy rate” is the per-person price based on two persons sharing a room; whereas “double-room rate” means the full price of a room which is shared by two persons. If you’re not aware of this slight difference you could easily misjudge how much the room will cost you. Single Supplement. Another important travel tip is about the single supplement. Keep in mind that most prices are based on double occupancy. If you are traveling alone, the single supplement is 25-50% of the quoted per-person price. So if a hotel room is $100 per night, double occupancy, it costs $200 ($100 per person).
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A hotel room that is $100 per night, based on double occupancy, means the room is $100 per night whether one or two people stay there.
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what does controlling for a variable mean
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<P> I liked this article, and it nicely demonstrates the concept of “controlling for other variables” (IQ, career, income, age, etc) in order to best isolate the true relationship between just the 2 variables in question. It also should be noted that controling for other variables does only make sense when the explanatory variables are moderately correlated (collinearity). In the aforementioned example, the Product-Moment correlation between exposure and covariate is 0.50, i.e. 2. <P> A control variable is the one that stays the same. A controlled variable is a variable that is kept the same between the control group and experimental group, so that only the … experimental (independent) variable is allowed to change. + 41 others found this useful. What are kept constant to ensure that it is only the Independent Variable causing an effect on the Dependent Variable. 2 people found this useful. Edit. Share to: 1 A Look at JavaScript Variable Types Similar to other programming languages, JavaScript variables are containers used to hold values and expressions. <P> In statistics, controlling for a variable is the attempt to reduce the effect of confounding variables on an observational study. It means that when looking at the effect of one variable, all other variable predictors are held constant. <P> The control variable strongly influences experimental results, and it is held constant during the experiment in order to test the relative relationship of the dependent and independent variables. The control variable itself is not of primary interest to the experimenter. This is in order to see comparable experimental results in the remaining variables. If we choose to make Pressure the control variable and don't allow it to change throughout the course of the experiment, we can quickly establish the relationship between Temperature and Volume by changing the value for one or the other. <P> A controlled variable is a variable in an experiment that is kept the same throughout all the trails. A manipulated variable the exact opposite. This variable changes t … hroughout each trail of the experiment. There should usually be only one manipulated variable in an experiment. What are kept constant to ensure that it is only the Independent Variable causing an effect on the Dependent Variable. 2 people found this useful. Edit. Share to: 1 A Look at JavaScript Variable Types Similar to other programming languages, JavaScript variables are containers used to hold values and expressions. <P> A variable in an experiment which is held constant in order to assess the relationship between two other variables, is the control variable. This is in order to see comparable experimental results in the remaining variables. If we choose to make Pressure the control variable and don't allow it to change throughout the course of the experiment, we can quickly establish the relationship between Temperature and Volume by changing the value for one or the other. <P> By Ashley Crossman. Definition: A control variable is a variable that is held constant in a research analysis. The use of control variables is generally done to answer four basic kinds of questions: 1. Is an observed relationship between two variables just a statistical accident? 2 <P> A variable that is held constant in order to assess or clarify the relationship between two other variables. Control variable should not be confused with controlled variable, which is an alternative term for independent variable. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Control variable is something is an experiment that doesn't change. It is not what is being tested. It is used to validate results. For example, you want to test if plants grow better in red of blue light. You need to give each plant the same amount of water at the same time and need to keep the temperature constant. You change the color of light. Your control variables are: amount of water, time of water, and temperature because they are always the same.
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A controlled variable is a variable that is kept the same between the control group and experimental group, so that only the … experimental (independent) variable is allowed to change.
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labor cost to install laminate floor
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<P> $1.50 per square foot for the tile multiplied by 250 square feet, which equals $375. Add in 10% and the total for flooring materials comes to $412.50. For labor, $2 times 250 square feet equals $500. No need to add 10% here. Add in the removal and haul away for the carpeting and the total labor cost is $650. The total flooring installation price will be the sum of $412.50 for the materials plus $650 for the labor therefore the estimated cost is $1,062.50 (plus applicable taxes) <P> $1.50 per square foot for the tile multiplied by 250 square feet, which equals $375. Add in 10% and the total for flooring materials comes to $412.50. For labor, $3 times 250 square feet equals $750. No need to add 10% here. Add in the removal and haul away for the carpeting and the total labor cost is $900. The total flooring installation price will be the sum of $412.50 for the materials plus $900 for the labor therefore the estimated cost is $1,312.50 (plus applicable taxes). If you don’t wish to do this all yourself, feel free to scroll up and try out our flooring installation calculator for yourself. <P> A la carte Residential Flooring Installation Services Menu All prices below are for labor costs only and do not include the cost of any materials. Installation: Glued Down Engineered Wood Flooring $2.25 sq. ft. Installation: Floating Laminate/Wood Flooring $1.50 sq. ft. A glued down engineered wood plank floor will cost around $2.75 to $3.25 per square foot for installation once everything is considered. A floating laminate floor will run about $2.00 to $2.50 per square foot. Moving furniture, old flooring removal, sub-floor prep, and moldings are a few factors to consider <P> Home Depot charges $1.85 per square foot to remove laminate floors. It really depends on the quality of the people and the quality of the work they do. Location, location, loc … ation. I would guess you should be able to get it done for anywhere from 50 cents per square foot up to 1 dollar a square foot for removal. <P> Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Laminate Flooring Installation project. For a basic 120 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Install Laminate Flooring ranges between $5.67 - $7.70 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased. Cost to Install Laminate Flooring-Notes and General Information. Homewyse cost estimates are ballpark ranges for basic work performed in normal, serviceable conditions. The estimates should only be used for preliminary planning. Homewyse estimates are NOT substitutes for firm quotes from qualified vendors. <P> 1 Low-cost laminate starts around 90 cents-$2 for thinner flooring (6-7mm). 2 With some additional costs for underlayment and matching baseboards/trim, it can run $450-$950 for basic laminate materials for a 20x20-square-foot living room. 1 (It can be more for a custom-designed installation with an elaborate pattern, and small projects may have a minimum charge of $200-$500 .) For a 400-square-foot living room, labor and materials can run $1,250-$3,000 with basic laminate and $2,100-$5,000 with better quality products. <P> 1 Installation of the new flooring-The average price on a square foot of laminate flooring, installed, is between $7 and $11. 2 This assumes that the owner or the installer is also including the costs for the mandatory foam underlay and any adhesives or glues required for its installation. <P> 1 With some additional costs for underlayment and matching baseboards/trim, it can run $450-$950 for basic laminate materials for a 20x20-square-foot living room. 2 Laminate prices are based in large part on how realistic-looking the flooring is; inexpensive laminate may look artificial. 1 (It can be more for a custom-designed installation with an elaborate pattern, and small projects may have a minimum charge of $200-$500 .) For a 400-square-foot living room, labor and materials can run $1,250-$3,000 with basic laminate and $2,100-$5,000 with better quality products. <P> We recently had a 1145 sq ft laminate floor installed. The total labor cost was $1100.00. We had 3 licensed contractors bid it out. They ranged from $1100.00 to $1500.00. We went with the lower one as he could do it immediately.
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Labor cost to install laminate floor is $5.67 - $7.70 per square foot.
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what is a chino
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<P> Chino cloth was first developed in China during the mid 19th century as a part of uniforms for both British and French soldiers. It really took off in the United States during the Spanish-American War when it was once again used as a part of uniforms for the soldiers. Veterans of the Spanish-American war would return wearing their chino military pants and civilians took notice as well. <P> With respect to the California State Legislature, Chino is in the 20th Senate District, represented by Democrat Connie Leyva, and in the 52nd Assembly District, represented by Democrat Freddie Rodriguez. Chino is located at 34°1′4″N 117°41′24″W / 34.01778°N 117.69000°W / 34.01778; -117.69000 (34.017765, -117.689990). According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 29.7 square miles (77 km 2). <P> Definition of CHINO. 1. : a usually khaki cotton or synthetic-fiber twill of the type used for military uniforms. 2. plural: an article of clothing made of chino. See chino defined for kids. <P> Chino. A pretty small, typical, suburban city in the San Bernardino County that's often mistaken for Chino Hills. Where hoodrats are bffs with preps and wannabe skaters run around. Many unintelligent people think the place is ghetto because of the way it was portrayted in the O.C. <P> Chino is a city in San Bernardino County, California, United States. It is located in the western end of the Riverside-San Bernardino Area and it is easily accessible via the Chino Valley (71) and Pomona (60) freeways. Chino is located at 34°1′4″N 117°41′24″W / 34.01778°N 117.69000°W / 34.01778; -117.69000 (34.017765, -117.689990). According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 29.7 square miles (77 km 2). <P> A pair of trousers made from chino cloth, generally referred to as chinos. Chino cloth (/ˌtʃiːnoʊ/ CHEE-noh) is a twill fabric, originally made of 100% cotton. The most common items made from it, trousers, are widely called chinos. Today it is also found in cotton-synthetic blends. Developed in the mid-19th century for British and French military uniforms, it has since migrated into civilian wear. The British and then American armies started wearing it as standard during the latter half of the 1800s. The pure-cotton fabric is widely used for trousers, referred to as chinos. The original khaki (light brown) is the traditional and most popular color, but chinos are made in many shades. <P> Top 10 amazing movie makeup transformations. Chino is a Spanish word translating as China or Chinese.. The term, which is synonymous with khakis when used to describe pants, migrated to the English language, when pants made of strong cotton fabric were used as part of military uniforms in both the UK and the US. Chino pants are definitely *not* synonymous with 'khakis.' Chino pants are made of twill cotton (originally from China) and of better quality (thicker) than khakis. Think of chinos as business class khakis. <P> 1 Chino is the name of a small town in southern San Bernardino County, California. 2 This area is the inspiration for areas such as Paleto Bay and Bolingbroke Penitentiary. The Chino is a large 2 door coupe coupé of late'1960 s, design very similar to The virgo released in the PREVIOUS. Dlc its overall, design especially in the side, profile appears to be derived primarily from a 1965 Lincoln continental with some features from the (related same) designer 1965 Chrysler imperial. models <P> Chino and its surroundings have long been a center of agriculture and dairy farming, serving the considerable demands for milk products in Southern California and much of the southwestern United States. Chino is located at 34°1′4″N 117°41′24″W / 34.01778°N 117.69000°W / 34.01778; -117.69000 (34.017765, -117.689990). According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 29.7 square miles (77 km 2).
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A usually khaki cotton or synthetic-fiber twill of the type used for military uniforms.
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what does mmddccyy mean
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<P> English term or phrase: MM/DD/CCYY. I'm translating a California birth certificate into Spanish for use in Spain. It has a number of boxes with dates (dates of birth for child and parents and dates various signatures were obtained). The first one of the date boxes directs to use the format MM/DD/CCYY. So I translated that as MES/DIA/ANO and proceeded to use that format in all of the date boxes. But I think Spaniards would misinterpret the dates since they use the DAY/MONTH/YEAR format. I'm not happy with either, so I wonder if it would be too much of a license to specify the format (MM/DD/CCYY) in each of the boxes and keep the original format. I really don't know what to do. Thank you much. <P> Their means belonging to them.. The homophone of there/their/they're There refers to some place. Their is the possessive pronoun of them or themselves. … They're is a contraction or shortening of 'they are'. The homophone of there/their/they're There refers to some place. Their is the possessive pronoun of them or themselves. They're is a contraction or shortening of 'they are'. . Their means belonging to people or things previously mentioned or easily identified (Your parents do not look similar, except for their noses). <P> 1 Chicago style: Acronym Finder. 2 S.v. 3 MMDDCCYY.. 4 Retrieved September 30 2015 from http://www.acronymfinder.com/Month%2c-Day%2c-Century%2c-Year-(e.g.-June-3%2c-2000-%3d-06032000)-(MMDDCCYY).html. 5 APA style: MMDDCCYY. (n.d.) Acronym Finder. 1 MLA style: MMDDCCYY.. 2 Acronym Finder. 2015. 3 AcronymFinder.com 30 Sep. 2015 <P> DDMMYYYY indicates the data item contains date information where DD represents the day, MM represents the month and YYYY represents the century and year. For example, 5 July 2006 would be entered 05072006. This is the same as DDMMCCYY. <P> Citations. 1 MLA style: MMDDCCYY.. 2 Acronym Finder. 2015. 3 AcronymFinder.com 30 Sep. 2015 http://www.acronymfinder.com/Month%2c-Day%2c-Century%2c-Year-(e.g.-June-3%2c-2000-%3d-06032000)-(MMDDCCYY).html. 4 Chicago style: Acronym Finder. 1 <P> From what I understand, it is the same thing as YYYY format. The problem with cc is that it is asking for current century, which is 21st, but what was actually meant was first two numbers of current century (I.E. 20 in 2008) Due to this discrepancy, the current version on applications or requests is supposed to read: YYYY, NOT CCYY, because it is very confusing; technically speaking asking for the current century and the year would actually make 2108 (We aren't quite there yet; so just stick with 1980. <P> As examples of Wikipedia editors confused by the ambiguity of the YYYY-MM-DD style, who have input what appear to be dates in the YYYY-DD-MM style (I am assuming of course that they were not dyslexic), we have [1] , [2] , [3] , [4] , [5] , and [6] . 1 In the absence of the majority of readers knowing that, the format is ambiguous, as it could be read (and input by editors) as either MM-DD or the reverse. 2 Supporting that notion is a quick google skim which yields the following references to YYYY-DD-MM: [7] , [8] , [9] , [10] , [11] , [12] , [13] , and [14] . <P> Best Answer: mm is the two-digit month; dd is the two-digit day of the month; cc is the two-digit century, and yy is the two-digit year of the current century. Source(s): Me-a person who did a LOT of Y2K programming! dances with unicorns · 9 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> mm/dd/ccyy dia/día/mes Ano: Año Explanation! Hi xalime i would go/for/dia, día mes ano año simply because this is The. Format used in spanish if you, Use the Other form i think spanish. readers would get confused I'm not happy with either, so I wonder if it would be too much of a license to specify the format (MM/DD/CCYY) in each of the boxes and keep the original format. I really don't know what to do. Thank you much. <P> Their is the possessive pronoun of them or themselves. … They're is a contraction or shortening of 'they are'. The homophone of there/their/they're There refers to some place. Their is the possessive pronoun of them or themselves. They're is a contraction or shortening of 'they are'. . Their means belonging to people or things previously mentioned or easily identified (Your parents do not look similar, except for their noses).
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It has a number of boxes with dates (dates of birth for child and parents and dates various signatures were obtained). The first one of the date boxes directs to use the format MM/DD/CCYY.So I translated that as MES/DIA/ANO and proceeded to use that format in all of the date boxes. But I think Spaniards would misinterpret the dates since they use the DAY/MONTH/YEAR format.'m not happy with either, so I wonder if it would be too much of a license to specify the format (MM/DD/CCYY) in each of the boxes and keep the original format
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what type of cartilage forms the other eight laryngeal cartilages
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<P> Thyroid cartilage. The thyroid cartilage is the largest of the laryngeal cartilages. It is formed by a right and a left lamina that are separated posteriorly and joined together at an acute angle in the anterior midline, forming the laryngeal prominence, commonly known as the Adam’s apple. The larynx is composed of 3 large, unpaired cartilages (cricoid, thyroid, epiglottis); 3 pairs of smaller cartilages (arytenoids, corniculate, cuneiform); and a number of intrinsic muscles (see the images below). <P> There are 6 cartilages, three unpaired and three paired, that support the mammalian larynx and form its skeleton. Unpaired cartilages: 1 Thyroid cartilage: This forms the Adam's apple. 2 It is usually larger in males than in females. 3 The thyrohyoid membrane is a ligament associated with the thyroid cartilage that connects the thyroid cartilage with the hyoid bone. <P> Cartilage: The three types of cartilage. There are three types of cartilage: 1 Hyaline-most common, found in the ribs, nose, larynx, trachea. 2 Is a precursor of bone. 3 Fibro-is found in invertebral discs, joint capsules, ligaments. 4 Elastic-is found in the external ear, epiglottis and larynx. 1 <P> The inferior border of the thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the cricothyroid membrane in the midline and the cricothyroid muscles on either side. The superior horn along with the entire superior edge of the thyroid cartilage is attached to the hyoid bone by the thyrohyoid membrane. The larynx is composed of 3 large, unpaired cartilages (cricoid, thyroid, epiglottis); 3 pairs of smaller cartilages (arytenoids, corniculate, cuneiform); and a number of intrinsic muscles (see the images below). <P> There are three types of cartilage: 1 Hyaline-most common, found in the ribs, nose, larynx, trachea. 2 Fibro-is found in invertebral discs, joint capsules, ligaments. 3 Elastic-is found in the external ear, epiglottis and larynx. 1 Hyaline-most common, found in the ribs, nose, larynx, trachea. 2 Is a precursor of bone. 3 Fibro-is found in invertebral discs, joint capsules, ligaments. 4 <P> A tough, elastic, fibrous connective tissue found in various parts of the body, such as the joints, outer ear, and larynx. A major constituent of the embryonic and young verte … brate skeleton, it is converted largely to bone with maturation. A: Cartilage is a very flexible connective tissue. It's in your ears and your nose, as well as many other parts of your body. I think that it's a protection thing between the two bones in your leg. So that your bones don't grind. 1 The other is meniscus cartilage, which is a shock absorber for your…. 2 Treatments for Cartilage Loss Most arthritis patients are familiar with joint and articular cartilage. 3 These types of cartilage can also be found in both the nasal septum and the trachea. <P> semilunar cartilage one of the two interarticular cartilages of the knee joint. temporary cartilage cartilage that is normally destined to be replaced by bone. thyroid cartilage the shield-shaped cartilage of the larynx, underlying the laryngeal prominence on the surface of the neck.
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1 Hyaline-most common, found in the ribs, nose, larynx, trachea. 2 Is a precursor of bone. 3 Fibro-is found in invertebral discs, joint capsules, ligaments.4 Elastic-is found in the external ear.
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define nurture
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<P> The nature vs. nurture debate is the scientific, cultural, and philosophical debate about whether human culture, behavior, and personality are caused primarily by nature or nurture. <P> Definition: The nature vs. nurture debate is a longstanding controversy about the effects of biology and social systems on individuals and behavior. The “nature” side of the debate argues that people are shaped primarily by genetics and biology. <P> nurture. n. 1. the act or process of promoting the development, etc, of a child. 2. something that nourishes. 3. (Biology) biology the environmental factors that partly determine the structure of an organism. <P> 2 nurture. verb. : to help (something or someone) to grow, develop, or succeed. : to take care of (someone or something that is growing or developing) by providing food, protection, a place to live, etc. <P> The nature-nurture debate is concerned with the relative contribution that both influences make to human behavior. <P> verb. Nurture is this mother caring for her child. Nurture is this mother caring for her child. Nurture is someone or something that provides support or nourishment. 1 An example of nurture is a parent raising a child. 2 An example of nurture is a senior employee teaching a new employee the details of the job.
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Nurture is someone or something that provides support or nourishment.
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what is cre
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<P> It is a family of bacteria usually found in hospitals and other health care facilities that has evolved a huge resistance to antibiotics. CRE can be so deadly, because few antibiotics work against its different variations. That's what the name carbapenem-resistant means -- carbapenem is a class of antibiotics often used as a last resort against a bad bacterial infection. But they are no match for CRE, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention said. <P> CRE are bacteria that are resistant to most antibiotics. Enterobacteriaceae is a family of bacteria. Many of these bacteria live in our environment (in soil or water). Some of them can get into our bodies and make us sick. Most of the Enterobacteriaceae can be treated with antibiotics. However, because antibiotics have been overused, many of the Enterobacteriaceae have become resistant to most of the available antibiotics. The carbapenem antibiotics were developed to treat bacteria that had become resistant to most other <P> Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) Infection. CRE infections are most commonly seen in people with exposure to healthcare settings like hospitals and long-term care facilities, such as skilled nursing facilities, and long-term acute care hospitals. In healthcare settings, CRE infections occur among sick patients who are receiving treatment for other conditions. Some CRE bacteria have become resistant to almost all available antibiotics and can be deadly—one report cites they can contribute to death in up to 50% of patients who become infected. <P> CRE refers to a family of drug-resistant bacteria. They've evolved so that most antibiotics cannot kill them, making them into what are known as superbugs. If they get into the bloodstream and cause an infection, CRE germs kill half their victims. <P> Carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE) have been defined as carbapenem-nonsusceptible and extended-spectrum cephalosporin-resistant Escherichia coli, Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter cloacae complex, Klebsiella pneumoniae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Some exclude ertapenem resistance from the definition. According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control, CRE producing what was the most common type of carbapenem-destroying enzyme in 2001, were first detected in a North Carolina hospital in 1996. Since then, they have been identified in health care facilities in 41 other states. <P> Carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE) or Carbapenemase-producing Enterobacteriaceae (CPE) , are gram-negative bacteria that are nearly resistant to the carbapenem class of antibiotics, considered the drug of last resort for such infections. Enterobacteriaceae are common commensals and infectious agents. According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control, CRE producing what was the most common type of carbapenem-destroying enzyme in 2001, were first detected in a North Carolina hospital in 1996. Since then, they have been identified in health care facilities in 41 other states. <P> This resistance to carbapenem is not the only reason CRE bacteria are considered dangerous. CRE bacteria that reach the bloodstream have a mortality (death) rate of 40%-50%. CRE are transmitted person to person, usually by direct contact with contaminated feces, skin, or instruments used in hospitals. <P> Monte Morin and Eryn Brown Contact Reporters. Here's a primer on CRE superbugs. CRE superbugs are becoming more widespread in hospitals and other healthcare facilities. They can cause infections that are difficult -- or sometimes impossible -- to treat. At least seven patients at UCLA's Ronald Reagan Medical Center have been sickened with CRE infections in recent weeks, and two have died. <P> CRE (carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae) bacteria are members of related bacterial genera that are commonly found almost everywhere in the world, often colonizing humans and animals (living in or on humans and animals mucosal surfaces, gastrointestinal tracts, and on some areas on the skin). However, CRE possess a unique genetic makeup that allows the bacteria to make an enzyme that protect CRE bacteria from a powerful antibiotic: carbapenem. The most notable genera that can share and even transfer this genetic trait to other members of the Enterobacteriaceae are E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae. <P> Some CRE bacteria have become resistant to most available antibiotics. Infections with these germs are very difficult to treat, and can be deadly—one report cites they can contribute to death in up to 50% of patients who become infected. 1 Interim Duodenoscope Surveillance Protocol. 2 Interim Duodenoscope Sampling Method. Klebsiella species and Escherichia coli (E. coli) are examples of Enterobacteriaceae, a normal part of the human gut bacteria, that can become carbapenem-resistant. Types of CRE are sometimes known as KPC (Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase) and NDM (New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase).
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CRE are bacteria that are resistant to most antibiotics.
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how to enchant objects
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<P> See my shiny enchanted diamond chest armor. Enchanting is one of the new functions in Minecraft, released with the third version of the 1.9 pre-release. This is a quick illustrated guide to making an enchanting table and enchanting weapons and armor. How To Make A Minecraft Enchanting Table. You will need: 1 Two Diamonds. 2 Four Pieces of Obsidian. 3 A Book <P> After enchanting, an item always has a health of 100%. For damaged items, this means that enchanting always repairs the item. However, if you are expert level in Armorer, it can instead mean that the health of an item is decreased from 125% to 100%. To enchant an item through an Altar, select: 1 The item you wish to enchant (weapon or armor). 2 The magical effect qualities are different for weapons and for armor. 3 An energy source, namely a Soul Gem filled with a soul, using Soul Trap. 4 One or more Magical Effects to enchant your item with. <P> Enchant your item. The final things you will need are an item to enchant, and some Lapis Lazuli-the blue ore that you can find when mining. Right-click on the enchantment table to bring up the enchanting interface. Place the item you wish into the slot, and three potential enchantments will be offered. The number in green on the right is how many levels you need to have to be able to do the enchantment. However, doing the enchantment will not cost you all of those levels. <P> You will need the following items for this spell: water bowl cloth (medium) wand Creates an enchanted object which can be used as a magical item, or improve it's usability. If the item you want to enchant can be destroyed if it gets wet, use the Create Magical Charm spell instead. In place of a wand you can use any sort of stick or want like item. Put the water into the bowl. Beside the bowl place the cloth and place your item on the cloth beside the bowl. <P> 1 To enchant an item, first place that item in your inventory (if you're enchanting for another player, have that player place the item in the trade window). 2 Then, choose 'enchanting' from your professions menu, click on the enchantment you'd like to place, and then click on the item you'd like to enchant!. 1 Step 3. 2 To enchant an item, first place that item in your inventory (if you're enchanting for another player, have that player place the item in the trade window). 3 Then, choose 'enchanting' from your professions menu, click on the enchantment you'd like to place, and then click on the item you'd like to enchant!. <P> Enchantment Table. Enchanting through an Enchantment Table requires a specific number of Experience Levels and Lapis Lazuli in order to be executed. Once the required tool/armor is placed, the player may select from a choice of 3 enchantments, each requiring different amount of levels and lapis lazuli. Anvil. Enchanting through Anvils requires an enchanted book and the item that is to be enchanted. Once both are added, the Player can choose to enchant the item. Once done, the item will be enchanted. <P> A run through on how to enchant items and how it all works. I briefly and simply describe some of the things outlined in the wiki and give a demonstration on the use of the new item. http://www.minecraftwiki.net/wiki/Enc... 1 Gaming. <P> 1 Enchanted items will be very helpful in that realm. 2 To get rid of an enchantment, repair the item. 3 You can enchant a bow with all enchantments by using enchanted books and an anvil. 4 Mining nether quartz is an easy and fast way to get to level 30 (as long as you have access to the nether, that is). Place the item that you want to enchant into the box. 1 Keep clicking the item box so that different levels of enchantments appear. 2 Doing this will give you an idea of what range of enchantments you can get at your current XP. 3 When you get to the level that you want within your given range, choose it.
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Water bowl cloth (medium) wand Creates an enchanted object which can be used as a magical item, or improve it's usability. If the item you want to enchant can be destroyed if it gets wet, use the Create Magical Charm spell instead. In place of a wand you can use any sort of stick or want like item.
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what muscles are used during volleyball
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<P> Knees. Along with your hips and ankles, the knees make it possible to complete a jump during a volleyball match. Four muscles collectively known as the quadriceps -- the rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis and vastus medialis – support the knee action and allow you to straighten your legs. Shoulders and Elbows. The shoulder joints play an essential role in volley ball, allowing you to raise and swing your arms to deliver a blow to the ball. The shoulder flexors help raise the arm and the shoulder extensors get into action when you hit the ball. <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. the muscles used in volleyball, are the biceps, triceps, deltoids, quadriceps, hamstrings, calf muscles, abdomens, and obliques. you use a lot more than your arms, DUH! There are several different types of actions in volleyball that use different musclesin different ways. Serving-If you are serving from the ground (not jumping) then the muscles used are the bicep tricep and shoulder muscles. <P> Confidence votes 37. The precise answer is: •Traipses, calf, biceps, trapezius, anterior deltoids, posterior deltoids, pectorals, hip, and quadriceps are the primary muscles used in volleyball. There are a variety of muscles used to play volleyball. There are several different types of actions in volleyball that use different musclesin different ways. Serving-If you are serving from the ground (not jumping) then the muscles used are the bicep tricep and shoulder muscles. You also use the muscles in your forearm and wrist as well as some support from the abdomen. <P> Leg Muscles. Your leg muscles are your foundation when you play volleyball. You'll recruit all of them at one point or another during the game. Your calves, quadriceps, hamstrings, glutes and hip flexors are all essential for running, but they also play a vital part in quick, explosive jumps. Your upper body is where a lot of essential volleyball action happens. Your biceps and forearms engage to move your arms during any ball-hitting action like the serve or receiving, setting, passing and spiking. <P> When you play volleyball, you flex the muscles of your ankles, which are your calves and more formally known as the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris muscles. The ankle joint and the calves make it possible for you to push yourself off the ground and jump. Shoulders and Elbows. The shoulder joints play an essential role in volley ball, allowing you to raise and swing your arms to deliver a blow to the ball. The shoulder flexors help raise the arm and the shoulder extensors get into action when you hit the ball. <P> the muscles used in volleyball, are the biceps, triceps, deltoids, quadriceps, hamstrings, calf muscles, abdomens, and obliques. you use a lot more than your arms, DUH! 2 people found this useful. There are several different types of actions in volleyball that use different musclesin different ways. Serving-If you are serving from the ground (not jumping) then the muscles used are the bicep tricep and shoulder muscles. You also use the muscles in your forearm and wrist as well as some support from the abdomen. <P> Joints & Muscles Used in Volleyball. Keep well-toned upper and lower-body muscles to play volleyball. Volleyball is a game of agility that requires two main skills: Jumping and swinging. Shoulders and Elbows. The shoulder joints play an essential role in volley ball, allowing you to raise and swing your arms to deliver a blow to the ball. The shoulder flexors help raise the arm and the shoulder extensors get into action when you hit the ball. <P> There are a variety of muscles used to play volleyball. There are several different types of actions in volleyball that use different musclesin different ways. Serving-If you are serving from the ground (not jumping) then the muscles used are the bicep tricep and shoulder muscles. You also use the muscles in your forearm and wrist as well as some support from the abdomen <P> Upper Body Muscles. Your upper body is where a lot of essential volleyball action happens. Your biceps and forearms engage to move your arms during any ball-hitting action like the serve or receiving, setting, passing and spiking. Your chest engages during forceful forward and upward arm movement
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The biceps, triceps, deltoids, quadriceps, hamstrings, calf muscles, abdomens, obliques and shoulder muscles.
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how long to bake chicken pieces
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<P> Bake for 20 to 30 minutes: The chicken is done when opaque all the way through and the meat registers at least 165°F in the thickest part. Broil for extra-crispy skin: If you'd like the skin to be a bit more crispy and golden, turn on the broiler for 2 to 3 minutes. <P> 1 Pour the oil into a 9x13 inch baking dish. 2 Add the chicken to the dish and sprinkle with paprika to taste. 3 Bake in the preheated oven for 30 minutes, then turn pieces over and bake for another 30 minutes. 4 Remove from oven and drain on paper towels. <P> Cooking time is generally 20 to 30 minutes, or until the chicken registers 165°F in the thickest part. Amazingly, all the chicken pieces wind up cooking at about the same rate — dark meat pieces cook a bit slower than white meat, but the thickness of the breast meat means everything finishes around the same time. <P> How Long to Cook a Whole Chicken. 1 2-1/2 to 3 pounds: Roast at 375 degrees F for 1 to 1-1/4 hours. 2 3 to 3-1/2 pounds: Roast at 375 degrees F for 1-1/4 to 1-1/2 hours. 3 3-1/2 to 4 pounds: Roast at 375 degrees F for 1-1/4 to 1-3/4 hours. <P> How Long to Cook Chicken Pieces. Use these cooking guides for chicken breast halves, drumsticks, and thighs with bone. 1 2-1/2 to 3 pounds total: 375 degrees F for 45 to 55 minutes. <P> Pat the chicken pieces dry with a paper towel. Sprinkle all sides with salt. Let the chicken pieces sit for 15 to 20 minutes to take the chill off. 2 Preheat your oven to 400°F (205°C). Pat the chicken pieces dry with a paper towel. Rub olive oil over the chicken pieces and on the bottom of the roasting pan. <P> Results 1 - 10 of 73 for chicken pieces oven baked. Result Page: 1   2   3   4   5   6   7   8   Next. 1. CRISPY OVEN BAKED CHICKEN. Wash chicken pieces and pat dry ... to moisten crumbs. Bake, in a preheated 350 F oven, for about 1 hour or until ... <P> Step 2: Bake the chicken pieces. Preheat the oven to 400 degrees F. Bake the chicken pieces, uncovered, for 25 to 30 minutes or until no longer pink (internal temperature should be 170 degrees F for chicken breasts, 180 degrees F for thighs and drumsticks). To store: Let the baked chicken stand for 30 minutes to cool. <P> 1 Add the chicken to the dish and sprinkle with paprika to taste. 2 Bake in the preheated oven for 30 minutes, then turn pieces over and bake for another 30 minutes. 3 Remove from oven and drain on paper towels.
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25 to 30 minutes
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what are rare earth elements
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<P> Despite their name, rare earth elements are – with the exception of the radioactive promethium – relatively plentiful in Earth's crust, with cerium being the 25th most abundant element at 68 parts per million, or as abundant as copper. It was the very scarcity of these minerals (previously called earths) that led to the term rare earth. The first such mineral discovered was gadolinite, a mineral composed of cerium, yttrium, iron, silicon and other elements. <P> A rare earth element (REE) or rare earth metal (REM), as defined by IUPAC, is one of a set of seventeen chemical elements in the periodic table, specifically the fifteen lanthanides, as well as scandium and yttrium. It was the very scarcity of these minerals (previously called earths) that led to the term rare earth. The first such mineral discovered was gadolinite, a mineral composed of cerium, yttrium, iron, silicon and other elements. <P> The thirty rare earth elements are composed of the lanthanide and actinide series. One element of the lanthanide series and most of the elements in the actinide series are called trans-uranium, which means synthetic or man-made. All of the rare earth metals are found in group 3 of the periodic table, and the 6th and 7th periods. The Rare Earth Elements are made up of two series of elements, the Lanthanide and Actinide Series. <P> There are 17 elements that are considered to be rare earth elements—15 elements in the lanthanide series and two additional elements that share similar chemical properties. They are listed below in order of atomic number (Z): Scandium or Sc (21). Scandium, a silvery-white metal, is a non-lanthanide rare earth. This silver-white metal is one of the most reactive rare earth elements. It is used to make special optical glasses, including infrared absorbing glass, camera and telescope lenses, and can also be used to make steel more malleable. Other applications for lanthanum include wastewater treatment and petroleum refining. <P> Rare earth elements (REEs) are a set of seventeen chemical elements. They include the fifteen lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium. Scandium and yttrium are rare earth elements since they are often found in the same ore deposits as the lanthanides and have similar chemical properties. <P> Rare earth elements are a set of seventeen chemical elements in the periodic table, specifically the fifteen lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium. Scandium and yttrium are considered rare earth elements since they tend to occur in the same ore deposits as the lanthanides and exhibit similar chemical properties. While named rare earths, they are in fact not that rare and are relatively abundant in the Earth's crust. China is also the dominant consumer of rare earths, which they use mainly in the manufacture of electronics products for domestic use as well as export. Japan and the United States are the world’s second and third largest consumers of rare earths. <P> Rare Earths: Overview. The rare earth elements (REEs) are a group of seventeen chemical elements on the periodic table: scandium, yttrium, lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium, promethium, samarium, europium, gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium, holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, and lutetium. Praseodymium resembles the typical trivalent rare earths; however, it will exhibit a +4 state when stabilized in a zirconia host. The element is found in most all light rare earth derivatives. It is highly valued in glass and ceramic production as a bright yellow pigment because of its optimum reflectance at 560 nm. <P> The principal economic sources of rare earths are the minerals bastnasite, monazite, and loparite and the lateritic ion-adsorption clays. The rare earths are a relatively abundant group of 17 elements composed of scandium, yttrium, and the lanthanides. The elements range in crustal abundance from cerium, the 25th most abundant element of the 78 common elements in the Earth's crust at 60 parts per million, to thulium and lutetium, the least abundant rare-earth elements at about 0.5 part per million. <P> However, because of their geochemical properties, rare earth elements are typically dispersed and not often found concentrated as rare earth minerals in economically exploitable ore deposits. It was the very scarcity of these minerals (previously called earths) that led to the term rare earth. The first such mineral discovered was gadolinite, a mineral composed of cerium, yttrium, iron, silicon and other elements. <P> Rare earths are a series of chemical elements found in the Earth’s crust that are vital to many modern technologies, including consumer electronics, computers and networks, communications, clean energy, advanced transportation, health care, environmental mitigation, national defense, and many others. This silver-white metal is one of the most reactive rare earth elements. It is used to make special optical glasses, including infrared absorbing glass, camera and telescope lenses, and can also be used to make steel more malleable. Other applications for lanthanum include wastewater treatment and petroleum refining.
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Cerium, yttrium, iron, silicon.
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the difference between condo and apartment
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<P> Ownership. You can rent either, but you normally own a condominium, while you lease and pay rent to an owner of an apartment. In this way, a condo is similar to a single-family home. You usually get a mortgage loan that pays for your purchase of the condo and you resell it in the same way as well. <P> Essentially one could say that a condo is collection of individually owned apartments that could be rented out to someone else and where the owners are responsible for the general maintenance of the area whereas an apartment is owned by the developers and given out on rent to different tenants. <P> The definition of a condo is a unit that's owned individually, and the common areas are owned in undivided fractional interest, equally amongst all owners. Find out about the differences between owning a condo or an apartment with help from an expert with an extensive real estate background in this free video clip. <P> Condo vs Apartment. Apartments and condominiums (called condos in short) are dwelling units that are very similar in structure and purpose. They are both used for residential purposes and called by either name depending upon the part of the world you live. <P> • To a casual onlooker, there is no or very little difference between an apartment and a condo. • However, apartments are in general smaller than condos and also provide less features. For example, the provision of a tennis court is very uncommon in apartments while it is common in condominiums. <P> The difference between a condo and an apartment. Well an apartment and a condo are exactly the same thing the difference is that you own a condo and you rent an apartment. Now whether or not you are in a position to buy a condo or you should stay renting is a completely different thing. <P> The difference between a townhouse and a condo (of any size) is in the form of ownership. In a condominium, the homeowners own the inside of their home—but the exterior, the land and the common areas are owned by an association. <P> Tweet. Key difference: There are several differences between an apartment and a condo. However, the one main difference between the two is based on ownership; condos are usually purchased on a loan and owned, whereas apartments are typically rented. <P> An apartment is owned by a corporation or a person and the units are all rented out to different people. You cannot purchase a unit in an apartment, you can only lease a unit. A condo is very similar to an apartment in appearance and function, but each unit of the building is owned by different individuals. <P> Condo vs Apartment. If you are planning to shift to a big city in your country then accommodation would be an obvious concern. Nowadays two forms of residential facilities are becoming very popular around the world ‘“ apartments and condos.
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Difference is that you own a condo and you rent an apartment.
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what was segregation policy australia
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<P> Racial segregation is generally outlawed, but may exist de facto through social norms, even when there is no strong individual preference for it, as suggested by Thomas Schelling 's models of segregation and subsequent work. Fiji's case is a situation of de facto ethnic segregation. Fiji has a long complex history with more than 3500 years as a divided tribal nation. Unification under the British rule as a colony for 96 years brought other racial groups, particularly immigrants from the Indian subcontinent. <P> Segregation. The policy and practice of separating the Aboriginal peoples from the European settlers was known as segregation. Segregation started in the late 19th century and was used to separate the Aboriginal peoples that had survived the European invasion. Many missionaries were shocked by the bloodshed and the racial violence that was occurring. They wrote about the devastation, robberies, cruelties and murder that was being seen in many parts of Australia and worked towards protecting the Aboriginal people and educating them to become Christians. <P> Aboriginal family life has been disrupted and forcibly changed over the last two hundred years, as a result of the many segregation and assimilation policies introduced by Australian governments. Often a combination of the two was employed. The policy of segregation has impacted upon Aboriginal family life, for through this policy, Aboriginals were restricted and prohibited to practice their traditional culture, hence, resulting in the loss of their Indigenous identity and limiting the cultural knowledge for future Aboriginal generations. <P> Segregation is separation of humans into racial groups in daily life. It may apply to activities such as eating in a restaurant, drinking from a water fountain, using a public toilet, attending school, going to the movies, riding on a bus, or in the rental or purchase of a home. Fiji's case is a situation of de facto ethnic segregation. Fiji has a long complex history with more than 3500 years as a divided tribal nation. Unification under the British rule as a colony for 96 years brought other racial groups, particularly immigrants from the Indian subcontinent. <P> Protection and segregation (1890s to the 1950s). Indigenous survivors of frontier conflict were moved onto reserves or missions. From the end of the nineteenth century, various State and Territory laws were put in place to control relations between Aboriginal people and other Australians. South Wales. More reserves or stations were set up-by 1900 there were 133 of them. Maloga and Warangesda were taken over by the Board, and the people of Maloga subsequently moved to Cummera gunja. Missionaries were allowed to live on the reserves. <P> All our policies, each of our programs and projects, have been and will continue to be fashioned in discussions with Aboriginal people and their organisations at national and community levels. 22. The Initial Impact. Aboriginal people have occupied’ Australia for at least 40 000 years. <P> The idea of assimilation had been around since the 1930s but was not adopted as an official government policy towards the Aboriginal peoples until the 1950s. It became official government policy in Australia not just for Aboriginal peoples, but for all foreign migrants as well. In the late 1940s, Australia was still a very 'British' country, 97 per cent of the population was Australian, or British-born. Since the early 1900s there had been a 'White Australia' policy when it came to immigration. Only white people from Europe (and preferably Britain or Ireland) were allowed to immigrate. People from elsewhere, especially Asia, found it incredibly difficult to move permanently to Australia. <P> 2. Compare and contrast the segregation and assimilation policies in relation to the impact they had on the Aboriginal family life. The policy of segregation has impacted upon Aboriginal family life, for through this policy, Aboriginals were restricted and prohibited to practice their traditional culture, hence, resulting in the loss of their Indigenous identity and limiting the cultural knowledge for future Aboriginal generations. <P> The policy of assimilation, in comparison to the segregation policies, has also affected Aboriginal family life, because through the removal of children from their Aboriginal homes they to as a result were deprived of their Indigenous identity and cultural links. The policy of segregation has impacted upon Aboriginal family life, for through this policy, Aboriginals were restricted and prohibited to practice their traditional culture, hence, resulting in the loss of their Indigenous identity and limiting the cultural knowledge for future Aboriginal generations.
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The policy and practice of separating the Aboriginal peoples from the European settlers was known as segregation.
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marilyn monroe cause of death
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<P> Marilyn Monroe was found dead on August 5, 1962, in the bedroom of her Brentwood home by her psychiatrist, Dr. Ralph Greenson. <P> After a brief investigation, Los Angeles police concluded that her death was “caused by a self-administered overdose of sedative drugs and that the mode of death is probable suicide.”. Marilyn Monroe was born Norma Jean Mortenson in Los Angeles on June 1, 1926. <P> Search for: Marilyn Monroe was found dead as a result of a drug overdose in her bed in her Brentwood home, 12305 Fifth Helena Dr Brentwood, CA, on the night of 8-4-62 ~ 8-5-62. <P> Monroe in her last completed film, The Misfits (1961). Marilyn Monroe was found dead on August 5, 1962, in the bedroom of her Brentwood home by her psychiatrist, Dr. Ralph Greenson. She was 36 years old. <P> Marilyn Monroe was born as Norma Jeane Mortensen (later baptized as Norma Jeane Baker) on June 1, 1926, in Los Angeles, California. During her all-too-brief life, Marilyn Monroe overcame a difficult childhood to become one of the world's biggest and most enduring sex symbols. During her career, Monroe's films grossed more than $200 million. Monroe died of a drug overdose on August 5, 1962, at only 36 years old. <P> Next. Sex symbol Marilyn Monroe died August 5, 1962 in the bedroom of her Brentwood, Los Angeles, home. The actress was found dead by housekeeper Eunice Murray, who called Monroe’s psychiatrist, Ralph Greenson, before alerting authorities. She was 36 years old at the time of her death. <P> Marilyn Monroe – How She Died. Marilyn Monroe was found dead as a result of a drug overdose in her bed in her Brentwood home, 12305 Fifth Helena Dr Brentwood, CA, on the night of 8-4-62 ~ 8-5-62.
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Drug overdose
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when was barbie created
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<P> New for '59, the BARBIE doll: A shapely teenage fashion Model! Retail price $3.00.... Barbie was introduced at the American Toy Fair in New York City in February of 1959 by Ruth and Elliot Handler, founders of Mattel Toys. Ruth originally thought of the idea while her daughter, Barbara, was playing with paper dolls. <P> Barbie is a fashion doll manufactured by the American toy-company Mattel, Inc. and launched in March 1959. American businesswoman Ruth Handler is credited with the creation of the doll using a German doll called Bild Lilli as her inspiration. <P> The doll was marketed as a Teen-age Fashion Model, with her clothes created by Mattel fashion designer Charlotte Johnson. The first Barbie dolls were manufactured in Japan, with their clothes hand-stitched by Japanese homeworkers. Around 350,000 Barbie dolls were sold during the first year of production. <P> Courtesy of Barbie Media & Mattel. The Barbie doll was invented in 1959 by Ruth Handler (co-founder of Mattel), whose own daughter was called Barbara. Barbie was introduced to the world at the American Toy Fair in New York City. Barbie's job was teenage fashion doll. The Ken doll was named after Ruth's son and was introduced two years after Barbie in 1961. <P> Ruth Handler The Barbie doll was created by Ruth Handler, and was inspired by a similar German doll called Bild Lilli, which she discovered on a trip to Europe in 1956. She named it for her daughter Barbara, and her husband began to produce it in 1959 through his toy company, Mattel.
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In 1959
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describe the structure of a nephron
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<P> Structure and Function of the Nephron. The nephron is a long tube that runs from the cortex into the medulla and back again to the cortex before joining another tube called the collecting duct. <P> Together, the glomerulus and its surrounding Bowman's capsule are called a renal corpuscle. This structure is located in the renal cortex. You should also be aware that the nephron is composed of two main parts: the renal tubule and the <P> Kidney Health Care-David Mangusan Jr, PTRP. The nephron is the tiny filtering structure in your kidneys. Each of your kidneys contain more than a million tiny filtering nephrons that help clean your blood. Function of the Nephrons. Your nephrons help: Each nephron is composed of two main structures: the glomerulus and renal (kidney) tubule. The Glomerulus. The glomerulus is a tiny blood vessel or capillary, which looks like a ball of yarn. Actual filtering of your blood occurs in the glomerulus. <P> The nephron or uriniferous tubule is the functional unit of the kidney. A nephron consists of a twisted tubule closed at one end, open at the other with a network of associated blood vessels. <P> The renal corpuscle of each kidney nephron has two parts-they are the Glomerulus, which is a network of small blood vessels called capillaries, and the Bowman's Capsule (also known as the Glomerular Capsule), which is the double-walled epithelial cup within which the glomerulus is contained. <P> The portion of the nephron that leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule; it has a hairpin bend in the renal medulla and the main function of this structure is to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. . <P> The nephron starts as a small cup-like structure known as the Bowman’s capsule and leads into what is known as the first convoluted tubule (also known as the proximal convoluted tubule). It descends into the medulla as the loop of Henle then back into the cortex to become the distal convoluted tubule.
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The glomerulus and renal (kidney) tubule.
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A version of a trait that requires a homozygous genotype for expression is called a
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<P> 0% The genotype of any offspring if one parent is homozygous dominant (AA) and one parent is homozygous recessive(aa) heterozygous (Aa) Incomplete dominance is a form of intermediate inheritance in which one allele for a specific trait is not completely dominant over the other allele. recessive allele The percentage of offspring with a recessive trait if both parents are heterozygous dominant 25% The percentage of offspring with the dominant phenotype if one parent is homozygous domninate and the other parent is heterozygous dominant. <P> A cell is said to be homozygous for a particular gene when identical alleles of the gene are present on both homologous chromosomes. The cell or organism in question is called a homozygote. True breeding organisms are always homozygous for the traits that are to be held constant. An individual that is homozygous-dominant for a particular trait carries two copies of the allele that codes for the dominant trait. This allele, often called the dominant allele, is normally represented by a capital letter (such as P for the dominant allele producing purple flowers in pea plants). <P> The genotype of an organism is often expressed using letters. The visible expression of the genotype is called an organism’s phenotype. Alleles are not created equal. Some alleles mask the presence others. Alleles that are masked by others are called recessive alleles. The illustration explores the relationship between the presence of different alleles at a specific locus and an organism's genotype and phenotype. The organism in the model is a plant. It is diploid and the trait is flower color. <P> The term for a genotype in which there is a dominant allele and a recessive one heterozygous The term for a genotype in which there are two recessive alleles. recessive allele The percentage of offspring with a recessive trait if both parents are heterozygous dominant 25% The percentage of offspring with the dominant phenotype if one parent is homozygous domninate and the other parent is heterozygous dominant. <P> Search for an answer or ask Weegy (Free). Original conversation. User: The physical expression of the genotype is called: A. offspring B. reproduction C. phenotype D. none of the above Weegy: An individual is homozygous for a gene if both alleles are identical; in a ... An organism's phenotype is its appearance; the genotype is the alleles an ... <P> Together, alleles determine the genotype. Alleles which determine some aspect of the phenotype, the physical appearance of an organism, are said to be coding alleles. When both alleles in a pair are the same, the alleles are homozygous. If the alleles are different, they are heterozygous. In the case of homozygous alleles, the expression of phenotype is usually very straightforward <P> If the alleles are the same (TT or tt), the genotype is homozygous. If the alleles are different (Tt) the genotype is heterozygous. It is actually rare that 1 gene determines 1 characteristic as in the case of PTC tasting (a monogenic trait). Most traits are complex and have genes that affect them at more than 1 locus (polygenic). <P> The allelic composition of a cell or organism is called its genotype. The expression of the alleles in a genotype results in observable traits in a plant called a phenotype (red rose color, white rose color, tall stems). The expression and visibility of these traits can be affected by environmental factors. <P> Individuals who have two copies of the same allele are said to be homozygous at that locus. Individuals who receive different alleles from each parent are said to be heterozygous at that locus. The alleles an individual has at a locus is called a genotype. The illustration explores the relationship between the presence of different alleles at a specific locus and an organism's genotype and phenotype. The organism in the model is a plant. It is diploid and the trait is flower color. <P> When the alleles are identical, the individual is homozygous for that trait. While if the pair is made of two different alleles, the individual is heterozygous. A homozygous pair of can be either dominant (AA, BB) or recessive (aa, bb). Heterozygous pairs are made up of one dominant and one recessive allele (Aa, Bb). In heterozygous individuals only one allele, the dominant, gains expression while the other allele, the recessive, is hidden but still present. Not all copies of a gene are identical and alternative forms of a gene, called alleles, lead to the alternative form of a trait. Alleles are a way of identifying the two members of a gene pair which produce opposite contrasting phenotypes.
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Genotype and Phenotype
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mpre score requirements
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<P> 1 Washington's pass score on the MPRE is 85. 2 The MPRE score is valid if you earned the score three years prior to sitting for the UBE or up to one year after sitting for the UBE. 3 Washington's pass score on the WLC is 80%. 1 Washington's pass score on the UBE is 270. 2 Washington's pass score on the MPRE is 85. 3 The MPRE score is valid if you earned the score three years prior to sitting for the UBE or up to one year after sitting for the UBE. 4 <P> Prior to sitting for the Massachusetts Bar examination, all applicants must have achieved a scaled score of 85 or higher on the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE). Information regarding the MPRE test and dates can be found at the National Conference of Bar Examiners at NCBE. <P> The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE) is a 120 minute, 60 question, multiple-choice examination designed to measure the knowledge and understanding of established standards related to a lawyer's professional conduct. The highest required by any state is 86 (Utah and California). The next highest required score is 85, currently required by 19 states and territories (among them Oregon, New York, Arizona, Nevada, Ohio, Texas, and Virginia). Some states have unique requirements regarding the timing of the MPRE in relation to the bar exam. Three states— Iowa, Kentucky, and Massachusetts —currently require that all candidates for the bar exam achieve a passing MPRE score before sitting for the exam <P> MPRE Score Requirement. The New York bar exam MPRE requirement is a scaled MPRE score of 85. In order to be admitted to the New York bar by passing the bar exam, you also have to take, and pass, the MPRE. A scaled score of 85 is not 85% correct on the MPRE. You can take the MPRE before or after you take the New York bar exam. <P> points. The flbar requires applicants to achieve a scaled score of 80 or higher on the MPRE prior to being licensed in the state of Florida. The one thing that I would like to convey to all potential Themis students is that more expensive doesn't mean better. Themis is the most cost effective course available <P> Yes. View. The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE) is a two-hour, 60-question multiple-choice examination developed by NCBE that is administered three times per year. It is required for admission to the bars of all but three U.S. jurisdictions (Maryland, Wisconsin, and Puerto Rico). Jurisdictions Requiring the MPRE. Select a jurisdiction for a summary of bar admission information specific to that jurisdiction and contact information for its bar admission agency. <P> points. The texasbar requires applicants to achieve a scaled score of 85 or higher on the MPRE prior to being licensed in the state of Texas. The one thing that I would like to convey to all potential Themis students is that more expensive doesn't mean better. Themis is the most cost effective course available <P> The Multistate Professional Responsibility Exam (MPRE) is developed and administered by the National Conference of Bar Examiners three times per year. Prior to filing an application to sit the Massachusetts Bar Exam each applicant shall have passed the MPRE with a scaled score of 85 or higher.
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The highest required by any state is 86 (Utah and California). The next highest required score is 85, currently required by 19 states and territories (among them Oregon, New York, Arizona, Nevada, Ohio, Texas, and Virginia).
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what are sea lions used for
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<P> It is one of five species of sea lion. Its natural habitat ranges from southeast Alaska to central Mexico, including the Gulf of California. Sea lions are sexually dimorphic, males are larger than females, and have a thicker neck and protruding crest. Sea lions have color vision, though it is limited to the blue-green area of the color spectrum. This is likely an adaptation for living in marine coastal habitats. Sea lions have fairly acute underwater hearing, with a hearing range of 0.4–32 kHz. <P> A group of sea lions in the water is called a raft. Male sea lions don’t eat during the breeding season. They care more about protecting their territory and making sure their females don’t run off with another male. Sea lions don’t need to drink water—they get all the water they need from the food they eat. Never timid about speaking what’s on their minds, sea lions make all sorts of barks, honks, trumpets, and roars. A baby sea lion, called a pup, can pick out its mother from among hundreds gathered on rocky shores just by the sound she makes. <P> They have an average lifespan of 20–30 years. A male California sea lion weighs on average about 300 kg (660 lb) and is about 8 ft (2.4 m) long, while the female sea lion weighs 100 kg (220 lb) and is 6 ft (1.8 m) long. The largest sea lion is Steller's sea lion, which can weigh 1,000 kg (2,200 lb) and grow to a length of 10 ft (3.0 m). Until recently, sea lions were grouped under a single subfamily called Otariinae, whereas fur seals were grouped in the subfamily Arcocephalinae. This division was based on the most prominent common feature shared by the fur seals and absent in the sea lions, namely the dense underfur characteristic of the former. <P> California sea lions may hunt continuously for up to 30 hours, with each dive lasting three to five minutes. Size relative to a 6-ft (2-m) man: The cliched clichéd circus—seal obligingly balancing a ball on its nose and jumping through—hoops is typically A california sea. lion But in the wild, the California sea lion is a sleek animal, faster than any other sea lion or seal. These eared seals top out at speeds of some 25 miles (40 kilometers) an hour. Unlike other sea lions, California sea lions do not have lionlike manes. <P> Introduction to Sea Lions. There are actually seven species of Sea Lions in the world, but people tend to lump them all into one category. They all belong to a group of animals known as pinnipeds. Sea Lions are very interesting animals that can end up being extremely large. Sea Lions are found in bodies of water all over the world, but not in the Northern Atlantic Ocean. Many researchers find this to be a very interesting fact. Yet they can’t pinpoint reasons why this is the case. The temperatures are compatible with where some Sea Lions live. <P> The California sea lion is more slender and more agile on land than other sea lion species. It is believed that sea lions can see more clearly in water than on land. The United States Navy uses trained sea lions to help mark and retrieve objects in the ocean as part of the Navy Marine Mammal Program. Never timid about speaking what’s on their minds, sea lions make all sorts of barks, honks, trumpets, and roars. A baby sea lion, called a pup, can pick out its mother from among hundreds gathered on rocky shores just by the sound she makes. <P> California sea lions are known for their intelligence, playfulness, and noisy barking. Their color ranges from chocolate brown in males to a lighter, golden brown in females. Males reach 850 pounds (390 kg) and seven feet (2.1 m) in length. Females grow to 220 pounds (110 kg) and up to six feet (1.8 m) in length. Nearly 1400 of these were California sea lions. The most common reasons California sea lions are rescued include: malnutrition, domoic acid toxicosis, leptospirosis, cancer, pneumonia, entanglement in debris or fishing gear, gunshots, and other wounds. <P> Sea lions are sea mammals characterized by external ear flaps, long foreflippers, the ability to walk on all fours, and short, thick hair. Together with the fur seals, they comprise the family Otariidae, eared seals, which contains six extant and one extinct species (the Japanese sea lion) in five genera. Until recently, sea lions were grouped under a single subfamily called Otariinae, whereas fur seals were grouped in the subfamily Arcocephalinae. This division was based on the most prominent common feature shared by the fur seals and absent in the sea lions, namely the dense underfur characteristic of the former. <P> Sea lions, seals, and walruses are in a scientific group of animals called pinnipeds, which means wing foot or feather foot.. Never timid about speaking what’s on their minds, sea lions make all sorts of barks, honks, trumpets, and roars. A baby sea lion, called a pup, can pick out its mother from among hundreds gathered on rocky shores just by the sound she makes. <P> California sea lions can also live in fresh water for periods of time, such as near the Bonneville Dam in the Columbia River. In 2004 a healthy sea lion was found sitting on a road in Merced County, California, almost a hundred miles upstream from the San Francisco Bay and half a mile from the San Joaquin River. Sea lions have color vision, though it is limited to the blue-green area of the color spectrum. This is likely an adaptation for living in marine coastal habitats. Sea lions have fairly acute underwater hearing, with a hearing range of 0.4–32 kHz.
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The United States Navy uses trained sea lions to help mark and retrieve objects in the ocean as part of the Navy Marine Mammal Program.ever timid about speaking what’s on their minds, sea lions make all sorts of barks, honks, trumpets, and roars.
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how long is the term of a student loan
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<P> Under this plan you will pay a fixed monthly amount for a loan term of up to 10 years. Depending on the amount of the loan, the loan term may be shorter than 10 years. There is a $50 minimum monthly payment. Advertisement Extended Repayment. The loan term is 12 to 30 years, depending on the total amount borrowed. The monthly payment can be no less than 50% and no more than 150% of the monthly payment under the standard repayment plan. The monthly payment must be at least the interest that accrues, and must also be at least $25. Income-Contingent <P> Perkins loans are always subsidized, but Stafford loans can be either subsidized or unsubsidized. Whether your loans are subsidized will go a long way to determining how much you owe when you enter repayment. 11. Servicer: A servicer is the organization that sends you student loan bills and collects your payments. <P> 1 50% Interest Cap-Even if you run into trouble with your loan, it will never cost more than 50% of what you borrow. 2 This is HALF of the 100% cap most other online lenders are allowed to charge. 3 No Rollovers-Our short term loans don't turn into long term ones. Our personal loans for students are genuinely different from other short term loans, having been created in protest by students unhappy with other lenders. Smart-Pig is partially funded by the government's youth Start-Up Loans fund and was nominated in 2013 for Rockstar Youth Best Overall Business. <P> Loans available consist of emergency, short-term, little, and long-term. The Student Financial Aid department approves these loans. Their office is located on the second floor of the Pavilion. Apply for these loans at their website. <P> The long-term impact of student-loan debt. The $1.2 trillion Americans hold in student-loan debt is a problem for all of us. Student-loan debt surpasses every other type of household debt except mortgage debt. (Photo: Getty). <P> How long does it take to pay off federal student loans? Unless you arrange for a different repayment schedule with your loan servicer, the standard repayment schedule is 120 months (10 years). Your servicer can tell you about programs that allow you to extend your repayment term. Submit a Student Loan complaint. We’ll forward your issue to the company, give you a tracking number, and keep you updated on the status of your complaint. Tell us your story, good or bad, about your experience with consumer financial products. <P> 1 Standard Repayment. 2 Under this plan you will pay a fixed monthly amount for a loan term of up to 10 years. 3 Depending on the amount of the loan, the loan term may be shorter than 10 years. 4 There is a $50 minimum monthly payment. The loan term is 12 to 30 years, depending on the total amount borrowed. The monthly payment can be no less than 50% and no more than 150% of the monthly payment under the standard repayment plan. The monthly payment must be at least the interest that accrues, and must also be at least $25. Income-Contingent Re <P> Short-term, Personal Loans for Students in 60 Minutes. Smart-Pig.com was created in 2012 by students at the University of Warwick and University of Hertfordshire, in order to give people looking for same day loans for students a better deal. Our personal loans for students are genuinely different from other short term loans, having been created in protest by students unhappy with other lenders. Smart-Pig is partially funded by the government's youth Start-Up Loans fund and was nominated in 2013 for Rockstar Youth Best Overall Business. <P> Over the past 10 years, the amount of student loan debt has nearly tripled, while defaults are at a two-decade high, with nearly 15 percent of borrowers defaulting within three years. As an illustration, some 600,000 borrowers who started paying federal student loans in 2010 had defaulted two years later. The $1.2 trillion Americans hold in student-loan debt is a problem for all of us. Student-loan debt surpasses every other type of household debt except mortgage debt. (Photo: Getty).
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120 months (10 years).
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how long does it take for sweet corn to germinate
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<P> Best Answer: A few days, under warm and moist conditions. If the soil is cool-it can take a few weeks. Last year, I tried sowing corn in three waves, to stagger the harvest. I planted the first batch two weeks before I normally do. Two weeks later, I planted the second batch, at the normal time for my area. The first two batches emerged within days of each other-despite the first group having been in the ground so much longer. <P> Germinating longer-season corn helps ensure a good harvest. If your heart’s desire is to grow your own popcorn or make flavor-packed cornmeal from your harvest, germinating corn seeds is for you. While sweet corn can mature in as little as 70 days, longer-season flour and popcorns take up to 120 days to reach maturity. <P> Best Answer: in warm damp soil corn will germinate in 5 days or less...if the seed dries, or is cool, it can take more than twice that long... Source(s): 40 years experience. rjs · 6 years ago. Thumbs up. Time needed to reach transplant size: 2-4 weeks. When to transplant to garden: 0 to 2 weeks after last Spring frost Outdoor Sowing... When to sow outdoors: 0 to 2 weeks after last Spring frost Other Sowing Guidelines... Approx. germination time: 4-12 days. <P> Corn is a warm-season annual that is best planted after the soil temperature reaches 60°F, usually two or three weeks after the last frost in spring. Corn planted in cold, wet soil is unlikely to germinate. Corn grows best in air temperatures from 60° to 95°F. Corn can take from 60 to 100 days to reach harvest depending upon variety and the amount of heat during the growing season. Corn seed germinates in 10 to 14 days at 75°F, but the rate of germination may reach only 75 percent. Start corn indoors 2 to 3 weeks before the last frost in spring for transplanting 2 to 3 weeks after the last frost. If your season is long enough, plant successive crops every two to three weeks. Planting and spacing. <P> Fresh sweet corn can be worth the wait. Gardeners usually plant corn (Zea mays) 10 days to two weeks after the last spring frost, when the soil temperature begins to warm. If corn is planted when the soil temperature is 60 F, then corn sprouts typically break the soil surface in 10 days to two weeks. If you planted sweet corn and two weeks passed without sight of the first green shoot, then several factors may have caused the delay. Soil temperature is one of the best predictors of how long it will take corn to break the ground's surface. Soil temperature is usually 5 to 10 degrees cooler than air temperature, and soil temperature increases slower than air temperature in spring. <P> You might be wondering, “how long does it take for corn to grow?” There are many different varieties of corn and a couple of different methods for corn planting, so you can plant 60-day, 70-day or 90-day corn. When most people think about how to grow corn, they are thinking in terms of their own private stash of corn. Otherwise, your crop will be sparse. If you are thinking about how to grow corn from seed, there are only a few rules to follow. First, make sure you make your rows 24-30 inches apart from each other. Plant the corn one to two inches deep in the soil about nine to twelve inches apart from each other in the row. <P> Corn is a tender, warm-season annual that is best planted after the soil temperature reaches 60°F, usually 2 or 3 weeks after the last frost in spring. Corn requires 60 to 100 frost-free days to reach harvest depending upon variety and the amount of heat during the growing season. Corn seed germinates in 10 to 14 days at 75°F, but the rate of germination may reach only 75 percent. Start corn indoors 2 to 3 weeks before the last frost in spring for transplanting 2 to 3 weeks after the last frost. If your season is long enough, plant successive crops every two to three weeks. Planting and spacing.
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10 to 14 days.
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how long does it take to boil potatoes
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<P> How long does it take to boil potatoes can be better understood by boiling potatoes in microwave. This is a rather quick method because you do not need to boil potatoes. They are just washed, placed in water container and then put in the microwave for five minutes. You can keep the water container without a lid. On average it takes fifteen minutes. Usually potatoes are washed, peeled off and then cut in to fries. Before frying them, they are boiled for 3 minutes, seasoned with corn flour and then fried. They turn in to yummy golden fries. Mashed potatoes are served with roast and steaks. <P> How long it takes to boil 10 pounds of potatoes depends on the size of the potatoes. Cutting them into small pieces will speed up the cooking process. Typically, potatoes … cook at a rate of 15 minutes per pound. 6 people found this useful. It can take only 15 minutes. Slice up all of the potatoes. Make the slice more like cubes. Cube the potatoes into approx. 1 inch cubes. Then they should only need to boil 15 m … inutes. <P> 1 Put your potatoes, peeled or unpeeled, cut or whole, into a cooking pot and completely cover them with cold water. 2 Add 1 or 2 teaspoons of salt to the water before starting to cook. 3 Bring the water and potatoes to a boil then reduce heat to low. 4 Cover, and simmer for 15 to 30 minutes or until fork-tender. 1 Add 1 or 2 teaspoons of salt to the water before starting to cook. 2 Bring the water and potatoes to a boil then reduce heat to low. 3 Cover, and simmer for 15 to 30 minutes or until fork-tender. 4 Check at 5 minute intervals since cooking time will vary according to the type, size and quantity of potatoes being cooked <P> Add cold water to the pan until the potatoes are covered by at least an inch. Add a half teaspoon of salt to the water. Turn the heat on to high, and bring the water to a boil. Reduce the heat to low to maintain a simmer, and cover. Cook for 15 to 20 minutes, or until you can easily poke through them with a fork. 2 While the potatoes are cooking, melt the butter and warm the cream. <P> 1 Bring the water and potatoes to a boil then reduce heat to low. 2 Cover, and simmer for 15 to 30 minutes or until fork-tender. 3 Check at 5 minute intervals since cooking time will vary according to the type, size and quantity of potatoes being cooked. 1 Add 1 or 2 teaspoons of salt to the water before starting to cook. 2 Bring the water and potatoes to a boil then reduce heat to low. 3 Cover, and simmer for 15 to 30 minutes or until fork-tender. 4 <P> 1 Reduce heat to medium low or low. 2 Cover the pan with a lid. 3 Cook the potatoes in gently boiling water until tender, about 15 minutes for cubed potatoes and new potatoes and 20 to 25 minutes for quartered potatoes. 1 Place the potatoes in a large saucepan or pot. 2 Add enough cold water to cover the tops of the potatoes. 3 Add 1/2 to 1 teaspoon salt to the water. 4 Turn the burner on high and bring water to boiling. <P> Boiling Potatoes. 1 Place the potatoes in a large saucepan or pot. 2 Add enough cold water to cover the tops of the potatoes. 3 Add 1/2 to 1 teaspoon salt to the water. 4 Turn the burner on high and bring water to boiling. 5 Reduce heat to medium low or low. 6 Cover the pan with a lid. 1 <P> 1 Cover the pan with a lid. 2 Cook the potatoes in gently boiling water until tender, about 15 minutes for cubed potatoes and new potatoes and 20 to 25 minutes for quartered potatoes. 3 Drain the potatoes in a colander. 1 Place the potatoes in a large saucepan or pot. 2 Add enough cold water to cover the tops of the potatoes. 3 Add 1/2 to 1 teaspoon salt to the water. 4 Turn the burner on high and bring water to boiling. <P> Approximately 10 to 25 minutes at a high boil. The time required to boil potatoes depends on whether and how the potatoes are cut up. Smaller pieces, such as cubes, expose more surface area to the boiling water and so cook more quickly than larger pieces. Whole potatoes will take the longest time to boil until done. It can take only 15 minutes. Slice up all of the potatoes. Make the slice more like cubes. Cube the potatoes into approx. 1 inch cubes. Then they should only need to boil 15 m … inutes.
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Approximately 10 to 25 minutes at a high boil.
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how much should it cost to build a house
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<P> Custom home design companies may create custom home plans as well. Their costs typically range from $1.50 per square foot to more than $2.50 per square foot for the total project and home size. For smaller homes, this may be a budget-friendly option. However, for larger homes, this can be a substantial budget item. <P> 1 Thousands of custom home plans are available for $500-$2,000 or more, depending on style and complexity. 2 But before building it's wise to pay an architect $50-$150 an hour to review the plans to be sure they fit your site and meet local building codes. 3 Check with the local planning department. 1 However, building a modest custom home in a low-cost area might drop costs as low as $100 a square foot, or $350,000 for 3,500 square feet. <P> A lot of builders and home owners talk about the cost to build a house in terms of dollars per square metre. The way this is calculated is by taking the total cost of the build and dividing it by the total floorspace of the home (not the land). Side by side slope – $9,000/metre slope. It is also important to note that a lot of project builders will not build on a block with a greater slope than 3 metres. Soil and Contour Test – This test will cost you around $1,500-$2,000 and is done to test your soil quality and the contour of your block. <P> The cheapest you can build a house for in Australia is somewhere around $155,000. Front to back slope – $6,000/metre slope Side by side slope – $9,000/metre slope. 4 bedroom homes range from $130,000 (160sqm) to $190,000 (300sqm) when looking at the most basic range of properties. Side by side slope – $9,000/metre slope. It is also important to note that a lot of project builders will not build on a block with a greater slope than 3 metres. Soil and Contour Test – This test will cost you around $1,500-$2,000 and is done to test your soil quality and the contour of your block. <P> Consequently, a larger home may have a lower square footage cost than a smaller home. Also, it usually costs less to build a two-story home when compared to a one-story home that has the same square footage. This is because a two-story home will have a smaller roof and foundation. Plumbing and ventilation are more compact in two-story homes. 1 Usually the cost of building a home increases around 3% to 6% per year. 2 If it will be several years before you begin construction, remember to include inflation into the cost estimate for your home. <P> 1 It's possible to custom-build an 800-square-foot dome house for $1 million or a 12,000-square-foot rural ranch house for $400,000. 2 However, the $400,000 custom-built house is the exception rather than the rule. 1 However, building a modest custom home in a low-cost area might drop costs as low as $100 a square foot, or $350,000 for 3,500 square feet. <P> For example, if the home is selling for $230,000 and the land costs $30,000, then the construction cost is around $200,000. If the home is 2,000 square feet, then the cost per square foot is $100. Use several new homes in your area to get an approximate square footage price. 1 Usually the cost of building a home increases around 3% to 6% per year. 2 If it will be several years before you begin construction, remember to include inflation into the cost estimate for your home. <P> 1 A great deal depends on location plus the complexity of the project and the quality of the materials chosen. 2 It's possible to custom-build an 800-square-foot dome house for $1 million or a 12,000-square-foot rural ranch house for $400,000. 3 However, the $400,000 custom-built house is the exception rather than the rule. 1 However, building a modest custom home in a low-cost area might drop costs as low as $100 a square foot, or $350,000 for 3,500 square feet.
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It ranges from $1.50 per square foot to more than $2.50 per square foot for the total project and home size.
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solar pool heater cost
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<P> PRICE A Solar Heating System is priced about the same or sometimes less than your first years cost of ownership for other common heating systems. Example below based on a 650 square foot pool in New Jersey. COST After the first year, a Professionally Installed and Fully Automatic Solar Pool Heating System will pay you back while the cost of using other heaters will continue to drain your finances. +/-) Do it your self kit. If you have decided that you want a solar pool heating system and are inclined to tackle the installation yourself then we can offer these components delivered to your home with a professional installation manual and your choice of a Goldline or Pentair control. <P> If you are currently using a gas or electric pool heater, the savings from solar pool heating system will pay for itself in 2-3 years of installation. For example, the average system costs about $5,500 and it typically costs about $2,000 a year to heat a pool with gas. There are three types of pool heaters to choose from solar, gas and electric: A solar pool heater can be installed for $3,500 to $8,000. Since the sun is free, it will cost you nothing to heat your pool from April through November. Plus, there are no regular maintenance fees. After five years, you probably won’t spend any additional money than what you originally did for installation <P> You can reduce the cost of heating your swimming pool by installing a high-efficiency or solar heater, using a pool cover, managing the water temperature, and using a smaller pump less often. | Photo courtesy of ©iStockphoto/herreid. Heating a swimming pool can consume a lot of energy and add up to high heating bills. <P> Selecting a Solar Pool Heater. A solar pool heating system usually costs between $3,000 and $4,000 to buy and install. This provides a payback of between 1.5 and 7 years, depending on your local fuel costs. 21,000 Btu ÷ $387 = 54.26 Btu/day per dollar spent. Don't choose a solar pool heating system or collector based solely on its estimated costs. When selecting a solar pool heater, it's also important to consider all of the factors involved in the system's sizing and quality of the design and installation. <P> An example of a solar pool heater. You can significantly reduce swimming pool heating costs by installing a solar pool heater. They're cost competitive with both gas and heat pump pool heaters, and they have very low annual operating costs. Actually, solar pool heating is the most cost-effective use of solar energy in many climates. 21,000 Btu ÷ $387 = 54.26 Btu/day per dollar spent. Don't choose a solar pool heating system or collector based solely on its estimated costs. When selecting a solar pool heater, it's also important to consider all of the factors involved in the system's sizing and quality of the design and installation. <P> How much would a solar pool heater cost for my pool? Solar pool heating system prices for a residential pool can vary based on the location and size of the pool, location of the solar panels, desired temperature and season, and type of pool equipment. Once a solar pool heater is installed, your heat is FREE from the sun. With a gas heater you need to pay the gas company depending on how much you use the heater. In the spring and fall when you really need heat, you use the pool heater more, so it costs you more-but solar energy is still free. <P> Solar pool heating system prices for a residential pool can range anywhere from $2500 to $7000. The location and size of the pool, location of the solar panels, desired temperature and season, and type of pool equipment determine system size and costs. Depending on your weather and climatic conditions, you can expect your FAFCO solar pool heater to: 1 Raise your pool temperature 2 to 5 degrees Fahrenheit each time the water passes through the system, and. 2 Raise your pool’s temperature 5 to 15 degrees Fahrenheit over a period of several days of good weather. <P> In Summation-for most inground pool owners, installing a New pool heater (not a replacement, which has a cheaper installation cost), new pool heaters cost between $1500-$3500, depending on type and size. The cost to run a pool heater, with some conservation practices, runs from $0 (solar heater) to over $300 per month. No cost to run a solar heater. Very little maintenance also, since there are so few moving parts-you may never need repair. Most pool solar systems will last about 10-20 years, depending on the material they are made from, before needing heavy repairs or replacement. The cost to run a solar pool heater is $0. <P> A solar pool heater can range in cost from about $3,500 to $8,000 with the average system costing around $5,500. There are three types of pool heaters to choose from solar, gas and electric: A solar pool heater can be installed for $3,500 to $8,000. Since the sun is free, it will cost you nothing to heat your pool from April through November. Plus, there are no regular maintenance fees. After five years, you probably won’t spend any additional money than what you originally did for installation
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$3,500 to $8,000
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impact of stuttering on school aged children
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<P> Third, we present several strategies designed to help clinicians respond to the individual needs of children who stutter in a data-based, comprehensive manner that focuses on minimizing the adverse impact of stuttering on children's educational endeavors, and on their lives as a whole. Stuttering in school-age children: a comprehensive approach to treatment. Yaruss JS(1), Coleman CE, Quesal RW. Author information: (1)University of Pittsburgh, PA, USA. [email protected]. Comment in Lang Speech Hear Serv Sch. 2012 Oct;43(4):549-51. <P> It is a problem that affects all ages, but is most common in children between the ages of two and six, who are just beginning to develop speech and language skills. Boys are three to four times more likely to stutter. Most children outgrow their stuttering. About one percent of adults stutter. <P> Strategies for treatingelementary school-age children who stutter: An integrative ap-proach. Language, Speech, and Hearing Services in Schools, 26,151–161.Healey, E. C., Scott Trautman, L. A., & Susca, M. (2004).Clinical applications of a multidimensional model for the as-sessment and treatment of stuttering. Evidence-basedpractice for school-age stuttering: Balancing existing researchwith clinical practice. EBP Briefs, 2(4), 1–8.Yaruss, J. S., Pelczarski, K. M., & Quesal, R. W. (2010).Comprehensive treatment for school-age children who stutter:Treating the entire disorder. <P> A few groups of people can have an impact on the self-concepts of people who stutter and can help them develop healthy, positive views of themselves. First, parents play a major role in their child's overall development. Because of the negative self-concept that people who stutter sometimes have, they present some characteristics that we associate with personality. Stuttering is not a personality disorder and there is no defined stuttering personality.. However, many people who stutter share some similar traits. <P> Stuttering is a speech problem that makes it hard for children to speak smoothly. Children most often stutter at the start of sentences, but stutters can also happen throughout sentences. Children might also do nonverbal things when they stutter. Parent perceptions of the impact of stuttering on their preschoolers and themselves. Journal of Communication Disorders, 43, 407-423. Reilly, S., Onslow, M., Packman, A., Cini, E., Conway, L., Ukoumunne, O., Bavin, E., Prior, M., Eadie, P., Block, S., & Wake, M. (2013). <P> Stuttering affects friends and family of the person who stutters as well. Moreover, family and friend's reactions and feelings about the stuttering can have a significant impact on the person who stutters. The following will give insight into the emotional and psychosocial ramifications of stuttering on the individual and those around him or her. Because of the negative self-concept that people who stutter sometimes have, they present some characteristics that we associate with personality. Stuttering is not a personality disorder and there is no defined stuttering personality.. However, many people who stutter share some similar traits. <P> PURPOSE: This letter, prepared through a close collaboration between the authors and more than 100 colleagues, responds to a paper by the editor of Language, Speech, and Hearing Services in Schools that highlighted the need for research on treatment for stuttering in school-age children. Stuttering in school-age children: a comprehensive approach to treatment. Yaruss JS(1), Coleman CE, Quesal RW. Author information: (1)University of Pittsburgh, PA, USA. [email protected]. Comment in Lang Speech Hear Serv Sch. 2012 Oct;43(4):549-51. <P> Clinician attitudes to-wards stuttering: Two decades of change. Journal of FluencyDisorders, 21, 119–136.Dell, C. W. (2000). Treating the school-age child who stutters(2nd ed.). Memphis, TN: Stuttering Foundation of America.DiLollo, A., Neimeyer, R. A., & Manning, W. H. (2002). Apersonal construct psychology view of relapse: Indications fora narrative therapy component to stuttering treatment. Evidence-basedpractice for school-age stuttering: Balancing existing researchwith clinical practice. EBP Briefs, 2(4), 1–8.Yaruss, J. S., Pelczarski, K. M., & Quesal, R. W. (2010).Comprehensive treatment for school-age children who stutter:Treating the entire disorder. <P> Involve the SLP to help students with speech disorders such as stuttering (or anything else) F. Create a positive (communication) environment for all 1. Teachers and administrators can establish a culture of tolerance and acceptance for all of the children in their class and school 2. Dell, C. (2000). Treating the school-age child who stutters (2nd ed.). Memphis, TN: Stuttering Foundation. Donnellan, M. B., Trzesniewski, K.H., Robins, R. W., Moffitt, T. E. & Caspi, A. (2005), Low Self-Esteem Is Related to Aggression, Antisocial Behavior, and Delinquency Psychological Science, 16 (4) , 328-335. <P> The school-age childwho stutters: Working effectively with attitudes and emotions.Memphis, TN: Stuttering Foundation of America.Ciarrochi, J., Bilich, L., & Godsell, C. (2010). Psychologicalflexibility as a mechanism of change in acceptance and Yaruss et al.: Letter to the Editor 545. Evidence-basedpractice for school-age stuttering: Balancing existing researchwith clinical practice. EBP Briefs, 2(4), 1–8.Yaruss, J. S., Pelczarski, K. M., & Quesal, R. W. (2010).Comprehensive treatment for school-age children who stutter:Treating the entire disorder.
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Stuttering is a speech problem that makes it hard for children to speak smoothly. Children most often stutter at the start of sentences, but stutters can also happen throughout sentences. Children might also do nonverbal things when they stutter.
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average age for lung cancer
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<P> The average age of someone diagnosed with lung cancer is about 70. Only 2 to 3 percent of the 228,190 people diagnosed with lung cancer in 2013 are younger than 40. Nunez says the only sign that something was wrong was a small bump on her left collarbone. “It had never bothered me and I felt fine,” she says. <P> Age and lung cancer — The risk of developing lung cancer increases with age. Lung cancer can occur in young people, although it is unusual in people younger than 40 years old. After age 40, the risk for developing lung cancer slowly increases every year. <P> Number of New Cases and Deaths per 100,000: The number of new cases of lung and bronchus cancer was 58.7 per 100,000 men and women per year. The number of deaths was 47.2 per 100,000 men and women per year. These rates are age-adjusted and based on 2008-2012 cases and deaths. Death rates for lung cancer are higher among the middle-aged and older populations. Lung and bronchus cancer is the first leading cause of cancer death in the United States. The number of deaths was 47.2 per 100,000 men and women per year based on 2008-2012 deaths. <P> Lung cancer is the fourth most common cancer in Europe, with more than 410,000 new cases diagnosed in 2012 (12% of the total). In Europe (2012), the highest World age-standardised incidence rates for lung cancer are in Hungary for men and Denmark for women; the lowest rates are in Sweden for men and Ukraine for women. In 2012, there were 44,488 new cases of lung cancer in the UK: 24,005 (54%) in men and 20,483 (46%) in women, giving a male:female ratio of around 12:10.[ 1-4 ] The crude incidence rate shows that there are 77 new lung cancer cases for every 100,000 males in the UK, and 63 for every 100,000 females. <P> Lung cancer mainly occurs in older people. About 2 out of 3 people diagnosed with lung cancer are 65 or older; fewer than 2% of all cases are found in people younger than 45. The average age at the time of diagnosis is about 70. Overall, the chance that a man will develop lung cancer in his lifetime is about 1 in 13; for a woman, the risk is about 1 in 16. These numbers include both smokers and non-smokers. Lung cancer (both small cell and non-small cell) is the second most common cancer in both men and women (not counting skin cancer). In men, prostate cancer is more common, while in women breast cancer is more common. Lung cancer accounts for about 13% of all new cancers. <P> Age. Increasing age is a risk factor for many cancers, including lung cancer. The average age in the United States for a lung cancer diagnosis is around 70 years of age. About 10% of lung cancer cases occur in people younger than 50 years old. ^ back to top <P> The risk of getting lung cancer increases with age and is greater in men than in women. The tables below shows the percentage of men or women (how many out of 100) who will get lung cancer over different time periods. The time periods are based on the person's current age. For example, go to the men’s current age 60. The table shows 2.05% of men who are now 60 years old will get lung cancer sometime during the next 10 years. That is, 2 or 3 out of every 100 men who are 60 years old today will get lung cancer by the age of 70.
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About 70 years old
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where is leo located
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<P> Leo is a constellation not a star. Although Leo is the name of a constellation, several of the stars in the constellation share the name. The star Regulus is also known as … Cor Leo. All of the brightest stars in Leo are designated Leo with a Greek letter prefixing Leo to indicate they are in that constellation. <P> The constellation is located between Ursa Major to the north, Cancer to the southwest, Lynx to the west, and Leo, which represents the larger lion, to the south. Notable deep sky objects in Leo Minor include Hanny’s Voorwerp and the interacting galaxies Arp 107. FACTS, LOCATION & MAP. <P> Find Leo by star-hopping from the Big Dipper. If you’re familiar with the Big Dipper asterism, you can star-hop to Leo the Lion every time. To find Leo, first find the Big Dipper. In March, the Big Dipper stands pretty much on its handle in the northeast sky at nightfall. <P> St Leo University is located in St Leo, Florida. St Leo, Florida is about 35 miles North of Tampa. St Leo University offers small class sizes, which makes this university quit … e popular. <P> Leo Constellation. Leo constellation lies in the northern sky. It is one of the zodiac constellations and one of the largest constellations in the night sky. It represents the lion and is usually associated with the Nemean lion in Greek mythology. <P> Of the 13 constellations of the Zodiac, Leo the Lion ranks as one of easiest to identify in the night sky. Most people find Leo by looking first for a distinctive pattern on the sky’s dome: the pattern of a backwards question mark. That star pattern – or asterism – is called the Sickle in Leo. <P> Leo’s brightest star, Regulus, is a sparkling blue-white beauty of a star. It’s located at the bottom of the backwards question mark pattern and depicts the Lion’s heart. A triangle of stars in eastern Leo represents the Lion’s hindquarters and tail. <P> How to see the constellation Leo. From a Northern Hemisphere perspective, the Lion is a fair-weather friend, springing into the early evening sky around the March 20 equinox.
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St Leo, Florida
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capacity fees per ton + district cooling
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<P> 1 11 ton hour means a measured unit of energy consumption equivalent to 12000 btu in one hour ton hours are measured and metered by recording the flow of water in gallons per minute and the temperature differential between supply temperature at the point of delivery and return temperature at the point of return <P> for a tower that requires 1000 refrigeration tons the power demand will be demand will be 1751750 kw for building chillers0 kw for building chillers 1000 kw with district cooling for 5 towers of same size power demand will be demand will be 9 mw for air cooled chillers 5 mw with district cooling tabreed fees connection fees one time payment capacity fees function of project cooling load consumption fees function of energy meter reading <P> monthly rate shall be computed in accordance with the following charges capacity charge $ 45 05 per ton for all tons of billing demand less than or equal to 105 % of the contract demand and $ 63 08 per ton for all tons of billing demand exceeding 105 % of the contract demand <P> what s more life cycle costs are extremely competitive and often less with district energy than they would be with in building heating and cooling for more read chapter 12 district heating and cooling of 2012 ashrae handbook hvac systems and equipment energy and the environment the site efficiency usable energy out divided by energy in of district energy incorporated with chp is well over 75 percent for example say the peak efficiency of a chiller is 0 6 kw per ton and the blended average electrical rate is 10 cents per kilowatt hour an operator may assume the cost to produce chilled water is the product of 0 6 times 0 1 or 6 cents per ton hour unfortunately it is not that simple <P> the resulting amount will be calculated to the pe nny with no rounding for the tenth of a penny figure other inspections and fees 1 inspections outside of normal business hours minimum of two hours $ 38 00 per hour 2 reinspection fee assessed under provisions of c06 6 $ 27 50 3 inspections for which no fee is specifically indicated minimum charge one half hour <P> qatar cool s district cooling operations in west bay doha which consist of two plants covering 10 square kilometres supply over 67000 refrigerating tons of cooling they serve more than 35 towers with a capacity committed to serve 48 one time capacity fee this is set at qr5 500 per tr this fee covers part of the infrastructure to bring the chilled water to the premises it is a one time payment from the developer to qatar cool <P> a $ 35 00 per ton fee will be assessed for all weight charges exceeding 10 tons self contained compactors will be charged for landfill fees in the amount of $ 30 95 per ton up to six tons a $ 35 00 per ton fee will be assessed for all weight charges over 6 tons rate in addition to the service charge the rate per billing cycle for water used shall be $ 1 70 per 1000 gallons for all water used plus a surcharge rate of $ 0 75 per 1000 gallons <P> ypically in the $ 3 $ 4 per 1000 gal range for both makeup and blowdown volumes ttypically only for condenser water chemicals on a per ton hour basis for annual cooling load rule of thumb number is $ 0 0025 ton hr check with local provider for costs and recommended methods based on acity water quality <P> escalation ratesdiscussion and sample costs based on installed capacity of the plant larger plants benefit from economies of scale with reduced unit prices ypically $ 2300 $ 2900 per ton for plants over 4000 tons and $ 3000 $ 3500 per ton for plants below 4000 tons ttypically only for condenser water chemicals on a per ton hour basis for annual cooling load rule of thumb number is $ 0 0025 ton hr check with local provider for costs and recommended methods based on acity water quality
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500 per ton.
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what style of music does the steel drums play
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<P> It is called calypso. Since the 1940s many advances have been made, the drums are now concave with the notes hammered up. Nine varieties of steel drums or 'pans' as they are called in Trinidad, exist allowing the musician to play a full range of voices with the steel drum. It is a steel drum or pan, hand crafted from 55-gallon oil barrels. Areas are designated and tuned for a specific pitch. By striking these areas, a melody can be created, just as by pressing individual keys on a piano. <P> Basics. Also known as the Pan, the Steel Drum is a percussion musical instrument that has been known to play any genre of music. The drum is a large 55-gallon oil drum that has been hammered together carefully and skillfully. It is tuned so that it can produce tones and has a chromatic range of notes. The steel drum can be used in all types of music including calypso, reggae, latin, brazilian, soca, pop, jazz and R&B, and is also used in orchestras and symphonies. <P> learn to play steel drums at your own pace on your own time at your own place from anywhere in the world or take your skills to another level by understanding chord patterns and how music really works on the steel-drums play any song any time in any key get 60 days of free training. At Least 1 year experience playing steel-Drums/pan music] #1.. steel drums/pans Pan Sticks. #2 Computer with or without a camera for your personal one on one training or online courses.#3 pens:Markers:NoteBook:Time and a be wiling to learn from a different approach. <P> The steel drums are used in a variety of music styles. Latin and jazz are the most common types of music using steel drums, and have been recently used in jazz fusion. The Hol … lies' (a pop group) 1967 song Carrie Anne used steel drums as well. 2 people found this useful. Soon … the steel drum was the center of a new type of sound. Some music fans believe that Raggae music was strongly influenced by the mix of steel drum and much older music. <P> The steel drums are used in a variety of music styles. Latin and jazz are the most common types of music using steel drums, and have been recently used in jazz fusion. The Hol … lies' (a pop group) 1967 song Carrie Anne used steel drums as well. 2 people found this useful. <P> RythmTrail offers your favorite songs played professionally anywhere in the state, as well as throughout the U.S. and internationally. Whether you want a steel drum player for your corporate event or you need the whole steel drum band for your beach wedding, RythmTrail is sure to please. Steel Drum Songs. From your favorite steel drum tunes to classic reggae hits, RythmTrail’s unique sounds offer to transport you and your guests to the warm shores of the Caribbean islands. <P> Anwers to Steel Drum Questions. The steel drum is a unique musical instrument created in the late 1930s on the Caribbean island of Trinidad. Made from 55-gallon barrels, the drums have a rustic appearance but a sophisticated sound that surprises listeners. It is a steel drum or pan, hand crafted from 55-gallon oil barrels. Areas are designated and tuned for a specific pitch. By striking these areas, a melody can be created, just as by pressing individual keys on a piano. <P> Listening Library. Welcome to steel pan (steel drum) information.com's listening library. Any genre of music can be played on the steel pan (steel drum)! Traditionally, calypsos have been the most popular style of music played on the steel pan (steel drum) but the instrument is versatile.
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Latin, Jazz, Calypsos.
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how much does a kean professor make
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<P> Kean University Adjunct Professor Salary. Kean University Adjunct Professor average salary is $70,720, median salary is $68,640 with a salary range from $68,640 to $74,880. Kean University Adjunct Professor salaries are collected from government agencies and companies. Each salary is associated with a real job position. <P> Kean University Salary. Kean University average salary is $59,738, median salary is $57,883 with a salary range from $35,355 to $91,062. Kean University salaries are collected from government agencies and companies. Each salary is associated with a real job position. Kean University salary statistics is not exclusive and is for reference only. <P> A full professor at Kean earns an average salary of nearly $120,000 a year, plus benefits, according to the American Association of University Professors survey. Meanwhile, an adjunct earns a minimum of $3,825 to teach a three-credit class on campus, according to their union contract. “Overall, it is more efficient.
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Ranges from $68,640 to $74,880
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what is the required percentage of minority heritage to qualify as a minority?
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<P> For the purposes of NMSDC's program, a minority group member is an individual who is a U.S. citizen with at least 25 percent Asian-Indian, Asian-Pacific, Black, Hispanic or Native American heritage. Documentation to support the claim is required. <P> A minority-owned business is defined as being owned, capitalized, operated and controlled by a member of an identified minority group. The business must be a for-profit enterprise which physically resides in the United States or one of it territories. <P> Ownership by minority individuals means the business is at least 51% owned by such individuals or, in the case of a publicly-owned business, at least 51% of the stock is owned by one or more such individuals. Further, the management and daily operations are controlled by those minority group members. <P> Minority Owned Businesses (MBE) A minority-owned business is a for-profit enterprise, regardless of size, physically located in the United States or its trust territories, which is owned, operated and controlled by minority group members. <P> Many states and cities also have minority-owned business programs, which are often referred to as Minority Business Enterprise (MBE) programs. Maryland, for instance, has a legally mandated program that requires 25 percent of all government contracts to be filled by minority-owned businesses. <P> For the purposes of NMSDC's program, a minority group member is an individual who is a U.S. citizen with at least 25 percent Asian-Indian, Asian-Pacific, Black, Hispanic, or Native American heritage. <P> 'It really is in the state's best interest to use all of our small businesses, including our minority-and woman-owned firms,' Jenkins says. Who is eligible: For most programs, at least 51 percent of a business needs to be owned by a member of a minority group in order to qualify for certification. How to apply: Contact your state or local program for instructions. <P> For the purposes of NMSDC’s program, a minority group member is an individual who is a U.S. citizen with at least 25 percent Asian-Indian, Asian-Pacific, Black, Hispanic, or Native American heritage. Documentation to support the claim is required. <P> The council helps these companies connect with the more than 17,000 minority-owned suppliers in its database. Seventeen states and 25 cities also accept NMSDC certification for programs designed to help minorities win public-sector contracts.
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25 percent
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what is bahrain monarchy
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<P> In sum, both Morocco and Bahrain have the potential to evolve toward a constitutional monarchy system allowing the royal family to remain in place. This is an option to end the current crises unavailable to republics where a “change in government” by necessity entails the removal of the leader. First, Shi‘a-Sunni divisions weaken the connection between the monarch and the people. There is a Berber-Arab split in Morocco, but paradoxically Berbers have been strong supporters of the monarchy since independence. Secondly, the Iran factor is an important part of the equation in Bahrain. <P> The Council of Ministers (Cabinet) is appointed directly by the King (Article 33d). Bahrain has had only one Prime Minister since the country's independence in 1971, Khalifah ibn Sulman al-Khalifah, the uncle of the reigning King Hamad ibn Isa al-Khalifah. The Judiciary of Bahrain is divided into two branches: the Civil Law Courts and the Shari'a Law Courts. The Civil Law Courts deal with all commercial, civil, and criminal cases, as well disputes related to the personal status of non-Muslims. <P> Bahrain is the site of the ancient land of the Dilmun civilisation. Bahrain was one of the earliest areas to convert to Islam in 628 AD. Following a period of Arab rule, Bahrain was occupied by the Portuguese in 1521, who in turn were expelled in 1602 by Shah Abbas I of the Safavid dynasty under the Persian Empire. In 1783, Nasr Al-Madhkur, ruler of Bahrain and Bushire, lost the islands of Bahrain following his defeat by the Bani Utbah tribe at the 1782 Battle of Zubarah. Bahrain was not new territory to the Bani Utbah; they had been a presence there since the 17th century. <P> 1 Politics: The Khalifa family has ruled since 1783; Bahrain is now a constitutional monarchy with an elected legislative assembly; majority Shia Muslims are demanding more power from Sunni-led government. 2 The government launched a crackdown on pro-democracy protests in 2011, but unrest continues to simmer. Since independence it has forged close links with the United States, and is home to the US Navy's Fifth Fleet. 1 <P> The monarchy in Bahrain, a tiny Gulf nation of less than one million people, is a Sunni dynasty formed in 1783 when a local Arab royal family, the Al Khalifa, took power from the Persians. First, Shi‘a-Sunni divisions weaken the connection between the monarch and the people. There is a Berber-Arab split in Morocco, but paradoxically Berbers have been strong supporters of the monarchy since independence. Secondly, the Iran factor is an important part of the equation in Bahrain. <P> Geography. Bahrain, which means “two seas,” is an archipelago in the Persian Gulf off the coast of Saudi Arabia. The islands for the most part are level expanses of sand and rock. A causeway connects Bahrain to Saudi Arabia. Constitutional monarchy. <P> Saudi Arabia lies to the west and is connected to Bahrain by the King Fahd Causeway while Iran lies 200 km (124 mi) to the north across the Persian Gulf. The peninsula of Qatar is to the southeast across the Gulf of Bahrain. The population in 2010 stood at 1,234,571, including 666,172 non-nationals. In 1783, Nasr Al-Madhkur, ruler of Bahrain and Bushire, lost the islands of Bahrain following his defeat by the Bani Utbah tribe at the 1782 Battle of Zubarah. Bahrain was not new territory to the Bani Utbah; they had been a presence there since the 17th century. <P> At a glance. 1 Politics: The Khalifa family has ruled since 1783; Bahrain is now a constitutional monarchy with an elected legislative assembly; majority Shia Muslims are demanding more power from Sunni-led government. 2 The government launched a crackdown on pro-democracy protests in 2011, but unrest continues to simmer. Since independence it has forged close links with the United States, and is home to the US Navy's Fifth Fleet <P> Politics of Bahrain takes place since 2002 in a framework of a constitutional monarchy where the government is appointed by the King of Bahrain, King Hamad bin Isa Al Khalifa. The Judiciary of Bahrain is divided into two branches: the Civil Law Courts and the Shari'a Law Courts. The Civil Law Courts deal with all commercial, civil, and criminal cases, as well disputes related to the personal status of non-Muslims. <P> The head of the government since 1971 is Prime Minister Prince Khalifa bin Salman Al Khalifa and the Crown Prince is Prince Salman bin Hamad Al Khalifa, who serves as Commander of the Bahrain Defence Force. The Judiciary of Bahrain is divided into two branches: the Civil Law Courts and the Shari'a Law Courts. The Civil Law Courts deal with all commercial, civil, and criminal cases, as well disputes related to the personal status of non-Muslims.
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A framework of a constitutional monarchy where the government is appointed by the King of Bahrain, King Hamad bin Isa Al Khalifa.
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cost to attend university of buffalo
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<P> The basis for awarding financial aid funds is the Cost of Attendance (COA). The cost of attendance, also referred to as the budget, reflects typical expense patterns of University at Buffalo students based on research conducted by the Office of Financial Aid in conjunction with the academic divisions. For further information regarding the cost of attendance, please contact the Office of Financial Aid at 716-645-8232. Information is subject to change without notice due to changes in federal, state and/or institutional rules and regulations. <P> Tuition & Fees. The University at Buffalo offers students an excellent education at a cost that is more affordable than most other major research universities. In 2011, the State of New York established a predictable tuition plan for SUNY <P> According to the College Board, the average tuition and fees at a four-year private college are $29,056 a year. In comparison, Buffalo State costs $7,347 a year for undergraduate tuition and fees, making it one of the most affordable universities—public or private—in the state of New York and beyond. You'll Be Prepared <P> Undergraduate Tuition. University at Buffalo tuition is $6,170 per year for in-state residents. This is 4% cheaper than the national average public four year tuition of $6,429. The cost is $13,948 and 69% cheaper than the average New York tuition of $20,118 for 4 year colleges. Tuition ranks 34th in New York amongst 4 year colleges for affordability and is the 154th most expensive 4 year college in the state. 59% of University at Buffalo students received grant aid in 2013/2014. The average total aid amount was $7,781. 31 percent of students received aid in the form of Pell Grants from the U.S. Federal Government. The average Pell Grant awarded for 2013/2014 was $4,816. <P> High Quality, Low Cost. A University at Buffalo education is an excellent value. As a public university, our tuition is only a fraction of the cost of attending a private college or university of comparable quality and opportunity. <P> This university is situated in University at Buffalo, New York, which is 1.35 square miles in size and has a population of 5,941 people. 1 Rental properties typically cost between $500 and $1,000 per month. 2 Approximately 7.8% of the labor force is unemployed which is 0.3% lower than the average unemployment rate (8.1%) . Out of the total $339M R&D budget, University at Buffalo invested $228M in Life Sciences (67.1% of the total fund). This is 3.9 times more than an average research university's investment size in the field of Life Sciences (Avg. <P> Annual Total Cost. The total list price for in-state New York residents to go to UB is $22,434 for the 2014/2015 academic year. Out-of-state students who don't possess New York residence can expect a one year cost of $35,854. 59% of University at Buffalo students received grant aid in 2013/2014. The average total aid amount was $7,781. 31 percent of students received aid in the form of Pell Grants from the U.S. Federal Government. The average Pell Grant awarded for 2013/2014 was $4,816. <P> Out-of-State : $20,151. University at Buffalo's in-state tuition is more expensive than the average public 4 year college in New York's in-state tuition ($6,747), but it is cheaper than the average college in New York's in-state tuition ($16,991). Out of the total $339M R&D budget, University at Buffalo invested $228M in Life Sciences (67.1% of the total fund). This is 3.9 times more than an average research university's investment size in the field of Life Sciences (Avg. <P> A University at Buffalo education is an excellent value. While we’re a leading public research university, our tuition is a fraction of the cost of a private college or university of comparable quality and opportunity.
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$6,170 per year
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nikon dslr price in india
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<P> Find All Nikon DSLR Cameras price in India updated on 2015 Oct 15th. Prices of all Nikon DSLR Cameras are compiled and compared from Leading Online Shops. We have selected the best selling Nikon DSLR Cameras in this page. Click the menu to find all Nikon DSLR Cameras and their respective prices in India. Currently 63 Nikon DSLR Cameras are available in the price range of Rs. 18490 to Rs. 480943. <P> For your navigational ease, Nikon DSLR Cameras price list has been categorized by brands, features and prices. There are 88 Nikon DSLR Cameras models in this list as on 13 September 2015 and the best DSLR Cameras price is shown from over 15 major online stores. <P> Price Range of Nikon Cameras. View the latest prices of Nikon Cameras in India with product description, specifications, reviews & ratings, photos etc. PriceDekho compiles the most updated list of 262 Nikon Cameras in India as on 22 October 2015 to help you get the best prices. Choose from a wide range of Point & shoot cameras, DSLR, Digital cameras with different types of lens as per requirement. <P> Price Range of DSLR Cameras. View the latest prices of DSLR Cameras in India with product description, specifications, reviews & ratings, photos etc. PriceDekho compiles the most updated list of 142 DSLR Cameras in India as on 8 October 2015 to help you get the best prices.
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Rs. 18490 to Rs. 480943.
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what is a deliverable in a contract
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<P> BREAKING DOWN 'Deliverables'. Deliverables serves as a general term that encompasses the requirements of a project. A deliverable may be an object, used in the greater scheme of the project. For example, in a project meant to upgrade a firm's technology, a deliverable may be a dozen new computers. A project management term for the quantifiable goods or services that will be provided upon the completion of a project. Deliverables can be tangible or intangible parts of the development process, and are often specified functions or characteristics <P> A deliverable differs from a project milestone in that a milestone is a measurement of progress toward an output whereas the deliverable is the result of the process. For a typical project, a milestone might be the completion of a product design while the deliverable might be the technical diagram of the product. A deliverable is more than just a project document in that a project document is typically part of a project deliverable. A project deliverable may contain a number of documents and physical things. In technical projects, deliverables can be further classified as hardware, software, or design documents <P> A deliverable is an outcome that a project team must produce and present to the customer in accordance with the terms of a contract for a project to be complete. The deliverables a team presents to a customer and the deadlines for the completion of the deliverables are specified in a contract. A project manager administers a project to produce project deliverables, such as the installation of a billing system, according to agreed-to objectives. <P> deliverables (dɪˈlɪvərəbəlz). 1 items named in a contract, course, or project that must be delivered for its successful completion ⇒ ■ Keep stakeholders on task and encouraging them to produce relevant deliverables. 1 Trends. 2 <P> The deliverables are the specific items that must be delivered to the client, at a specified date, meeting the criteria defined in the contract. The details of the deliverables are usually very carefully spelled out in the contract. If they are not-get specific definitions before you get involved. Jim · 10 years ago. Typically, the Contract sets out terms under which partial payments are made by the Customer's Contracting Officer upon accomplishment of each of the Contract Deliverables. <P> Best Answer: From an aviation/military contracting viewpoint, a 'Contract Deliverable' is normally one of the Required Duties or sub-sets of tasks that were identified in the Customer's Specification, and to which the performing company/individual (contractor) originally submitted his Proposal (or promise) on. Typically, the Contract sets out terms under which partial payments are made by the Customer's Contracting Officer upon accomplishment of each of the Contract Deliverables. <P> Deliverable is a term used in project management to describe a tangible or intangible object produced as a result of the project that is intended to be delivered to a customer (either internal or external). A deliverable could be a report, a document, a server upgrade or any other building block of an overall project. A deliverable is more than just a project document in that a project document is typically part of a project deliverable. A project deliverable may contain a number of documents and physical things. In technical projects, deliverables can be further classified as hardware, software, or design documents <P> There are a number of deliverable futures contracts traded on both ASX and ASX 24. For deliverable contracts, all bought and sold positions in existence as at the close of trading in the relevant contract month shall be settled via physical delivery. For further information on the applicable delivery process please click on the market in which you are interested <P> In finance, a non-deliverable forward (NDF) is an outright forward or futures contract in which counterparties settle the difference between the contracted NDF price or rate and the prevailing spot price or rate on an agreed notional amount. It is used in various markets such as foreign exchange and commodities.
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An outcome that a project team must produce and present to the customer.
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how does the anatomy of the knee differ from the elbow
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<P> Answer by Catelyst11. Confidence votes 1. the elbow is a hinge joint.. the knee is a hinge joint and it rotates. i m just reaching in my own mind.. so i have not looked anything up to answer this.. i do know. the knee has incrediable shock absorbers called menicus in both the top and bottom of the joint.. the elbow is a hinge joint.. the knee is a hinge joint and it rotates. i m just reaching in my own mind.. so i have not looked anything up to answer this. <P> Elbow Anatomy. The elbow is a relatively simple hinge joint which only allows flexion and extension. The elbow joint occurs at the junction the humerus or upper arm bone, the ulna which is the larger of the two forearm bones and the radius bone. Both sections arise from the Medial Epicondyle and pass over the inside of the elbow joint. The anterior portion then attaches to the front part of the top of the Ulna, known as the Coranoid process and the posterior part to the back of the Ulna, or Olecranon process. <P> The main muscles of the elbow involved in wrist and finger movement are: 1 flexors, which attach to the inside of the elbow and enable you to bend your wrists and fingers. 2 extensors, which attach to the outside of the elbow and enable you to extend or straighten your wrists and fingers. However, there are two lesser-known, but equally important joints that make up the elbow: 1 humeroradial joint – the joint formed where the radius and humerus meet. 2 proximal radioulnar joint – the joint where the radius and ulna meet. <P> The knee is a ball in socket joint and the elbow is a hinge joint. surface anatomy is the anatomy of the outside of an organ, such as the surface of the skin or surface of the heart, while regional anatomy takes the perspective of an entire a … rea, such as in the thoracic region you would study the heart, lungs, aorta, and intercostal muscles just to name a few. <P> The two main ligaments connecting the humerus and ulna are: 1 ulnar-collateral ligament, also called the medial collateral ligament, which runs along the inside of the elbow. 2 lateral collateral ligament, also called the radial collateral ligament, which runs along the outside of the elbow. However, there are two lesser-known, but equally important joints that make up the elbow: 1 humeroradial joint – the joint formed where the radius and humerus meet. 2 proximal radioulnar joint – the joint where the radius and ulna meet. <P> Elbow Anatomy. Elbow anatomy includes the elbow joint which is a complex joint and structures surrounding it. This joint is formed by the articulation of three bones namely. 1 the lower end of humerus (arm bone). 2 the upper end of radius (forearm bone). 3 the upper end of ulna (forearm bone). <P> All rights reserved. The knee is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body. The knee joins the thigh bone (femur) to the shin bone (tibia). The smaller bone that runs alongside the tibia (fibula) and the kneecap (patella) are the other bones that make the knee joint. Tendons connect the knee bones to the leg muscles that move the knee joint. Ligaments join the knee bones and provide stability to the knee: 1 The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the femur from sliding backward on the tibia (or the tibia sliding forward on the femur) <P> Elbow Joint. The elbow joint is a complex hinge joint formed between the distal end of the humerus in the upper arm and the proximal ends of the ulna and radius in the forearm. The elbow allows for the flexion and extension of the forearm relative to the upper arm, as well as rotation of the forearm and wrist. <P> Advertisement. Advertisement. The elbow is where the two bones of the forearm – the radius on the thumb side of the arm and the ulna on the pinky finger side – meet the bone of the upper arm -- the humerus. The lower end of the humerus flares out into two rounded protrusions called epicondyles, where muscles attach. However, there are two lesser-known, but equally important joints that make up the elbow: 1 humeroradial joint – the joint formed where the radius and humerus meet. 2 proximal radioulnar joint – the joint where the radius and ulna meet.
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The knee is a ball in socket joint and the elbow is a hinge joint.
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how long are organic eggs good for
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<P> Header image: CHOW. Hard-boiled eggs last about a week if they are kept in their shells, and should be refrigerated within two hours of cooking, says the USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service. <P> Expert answer: Eggs are unlikely to go bad in a refrigerator setting, but would dry up over time. Eggs don't automatically go bad or spoil after date. If the eggs do not already have salmonella, it will not grow in an egg as it sits in your fridge. It's important to get tips on how to protect yourself and your family from food-related illnesses. It's sometimes easy to determine when food in your refrigerator has gone bad. All you usually have to do is check for mold, or for a foul odor. But eggs can be a little harder to determine freshness. <P> So, if your eggs are fresh from the organic farm, with intact cuticles, and will be consumed within a few days, you can simply leave them on the counter or in a cool cupboard. The shelf life for an unrefrigerated egg is around 7 to 10 days. <P> Expert answer: We tell consumers to look to the egg carton sell-by dates to judge freshness. The USDA says that the date can be no further ahead than 30 days after the packing date. Your store can choose any day within that 30 days to date the eggs. If you don't find a date on the carton, using the eggs within three weeks of the carton date should allow them to be used within optimum quality, meaning the yolk will be high and upstanding, and the white will be tall and firm. It's important to get tips on how to protect yourself and your family from food-related illnesses. It's sometimes easy to determine when food in your refrigerator has gone bad. All you usually have to do is check for mold, or for a foul odor. But eggs can be a little harder to determin <P> In general, eggs are good for as long as the quickest expiring ingredient in the recipe. To find out how long foods are good for, please visit the Dairy, Drinks, Fruits, Grains, Proteins, Vegetables and Other sections of Eat By Date or use the search function below. So, if you want to freeze your eggs to extend their shelf life, it is best to crack the eggs into a freezer safe container and gently blend in 1/2 teaspoon of salt before freezing. <P> To properly answer the question of how long do eggs last, how long are eggs good for, or the shelf life of eggs, a variety of factors must be examined such as the sell by date and how the eggs have been stored. So, if you want to freeze your eggs to extend their shelf life, it is best to crack the eggs into a freezer safe container and gently blend in 1/2 teaspoon of salt before freezing. <P> Report Abuse. Eggs are interesting, they are good for months after they are laid, the question comes in when they've been stored in a warehouse and shipped across the country for who knows how long. <P> 1 Eggs can remain edible for even longer than a month, but freshness (egg yolk that sits firm and high, and a thick viscous egg white) will be noticeably less after two weeks. 2 If eggs start out as Grade AA, they remain AA for only two weeks if properly refrigerated. 3 After that, they'll be Grade A for another 2 weeks. Eggs … can remain edible for even longer than one month, but freshness (egg yolk that sits firm and high, and a thick viscous egg white) will be noticeably less after two weeks. There is an expiration date on the carton. If in doubt, put the egg in water. <P> Most of the hens never even get to ogle a rooster, because they lay eggs whether or not a male is in the vicinity. When they are too old to produce good eggs, at around 24 months of age, they are shipped out to be slaughtered for various cooked-chicken products such as canned chicken meat. The Pennsylvania system has proven that eggs from conventional caged hens can be made very low risk. In 1992, when the program began, 26% of the manure samples that inspectors took from participating Pennsylvania henhouses tested positive for Salmonella. Now it's down to 1%. <P> So, IF your eggs are very fresh, and IF their cuticle is intact, you do not have to refrigerate them. According to Hilary Thesmar, director of the American Egg Board's Egg Safety Center: The bottom line is shelf life. The shelf life for an unrefrigerated egg is 7 to 10 days and for refrigerated, it's 30 to 45 days. A good rule of thumb is one day at room temperature is equal to one week under refrigeration.. Eggs purchased from grocery stores are typically already three weeks old, or older
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7 to 10 days.
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meaning of surname myers
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<P> This interesting name is of early medieval English origin, and is one of the patronymic forms of the surname Mayer, found as Mayers, Myers, Meyers and Miers, the s being an abbreviated form of son of Mayer. The first recorded spelling of the family name is shown to be that of Herewardus le Mire, which was dated 1212, The Berkshire Curia Rolls, during the reign of King John, known as Lackland, 1199 - 1216. Surnames became necessary when governments introduced personal taxation. <P> Myers Name Meaning. English (mainly Yorkshire): patronymic from Mayer 1, i.e. ‘son of the mayor’.English: patronymic from mire ‘physician’ (see Myer 1).Irish: Anglicized form of Gaelic O ó, midhir probably a variant OF O ‘ó’ (meidhir Mayor see). mayer 1 <P> MYERS Surname Meaning & Origin: The surname MYERS or MYER is either of German or British origin, depending upon the country of the particular family. The German origin of the surname MYERS has the meaning steward or bailiff, as in the magistrate of a city or town. The English orign of the surname has two possible sources: 1) from the Old French mire meaning physician and 2) Old Norse myrr meaning marsh.. Myers is the 85th most popular surname in the United States. <P> Myers is an English origin and German origin surname. The English surname traces its origins to Anglo-Saxon England, from the Old English word maire (originally maior) meaning Mayor. The German origin of the surname MYERS has the meaning steward or bailiff, as in the magistrate of a city or town. <P> Myers Surname Origin. The same as Meyer, the magistrate of a city or town; a very common name in Germany. Source: An Etymological Dictionary of Family and Christian Names With an Essay on their Derivation and Import; Arthur, William, M.A.; New York, NY: Sheldon, Blake, Bleeker & CO., 1857. There is more to Myers family history than the origin of your surname: Start your Genealogy to find your personal Myers family ancestry. It's easy to get started. Just begin your family tree with what you already know. <P> Click here for return to front page. The English derivation of the surname Myers was from the Old Norse myre or mire. The surname Myre, Myres and most commonly Myers is a locational name in the north of England for a dweller by swampy, low-lying lands. However in America, Myers will also have come from German surnames such as Meyers, Meyer, Mayer, Maier, or Moyer. Early surname spellings in Pennsylvania could vary considerably. Myers in New York Many Myers came via New York. The Myers family of Albany, New York came from an old Dutch family, their forebear being a Stephanus Myers who had arrived from Holland and settled in what was then New Amsterdam. <P> In the form Meyer (without the s) the surname can be of Jewish and German origin, deriving from the German word meiger, meaning Mayor, the name likely traces its origins to a wealthy landholder. Among German Jews, Meyer converged with the etymologically unconnected name Meir , which is derived from Hebrew. The name is derived from the Old English name maire, meaning Mayor, or an officer in charge of legal matters. The English surname may also mean physician (from mire, Old French, or marsh (from myrr, Old Norse }. <P> This article is about the surname Meyers. For other uses, see Meyers (disambiguation) . Meyers is a surname of English origin, many branches of the Meyers family trace their origins to Anglo-Saxon England. The name is derived from the Old English name maire, meaning Mayor, or an officer in charge of legal matters. The English surname may also mean physician (from mire, Old French, or marsh (from myrr, Old Norse }. <P> MYERS Genealogy. This is an open forum to discuss the origin, the meaning and the family stories of the surname MYERS. Both your knowledge and the oral tradition of the origin and meaning of this surname will be helpfull. Using the Daitch-Mokotoff Soundex Code we can obtain some variants of scripture of the same surname. Below you will find the variants of scripture we have in our database.
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Mayor or bailiff.
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salary of a qantas flight attendant
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<P> Answers. Best Answer: I don't know the salary rate for Qantas, but I'm confident that it's a living wage. With this career, you have to consider the lifestyle as well as the salary. Flight Attendants can schedule their trips in a multitude of ways. You can be home most every night, or you can be gone for multiple days. Most 9-5ers only get 2 weeks off a YEAR! Most airlines will allow you to pick up extra trips for overtime pay as well. So don't just look at salary when looking at a Flight Attendant career. Source(s): Flight Attendant Career Guide www.crew4jets.com. crew4jets · 7 years ago. <P> QANTAS-Rates of Pay and Allowances. As members are aware, a further 3% increase was available under EBA 7 on and from 1 July 2006. <P> Best Answer: International Airlines do offer more pay with a base salary + per-diem, flight allowances, outport etc.. than domestic or other carriers. I recently met a new appointed Qantas Customer Service Manager (lead Cabin Crew) in HK who is based in London. He will start his Airbus A380 training shortly & indicated an increase in his base salary of UK pounds 4000.00 per year. The salary & benefits are increased in accordance with this position <P> Polina Sasko, an flight attendant student with Emirates, applies lip liner during a make-up training session at the Emirates Aviation College in Dubai. I recently had a chat to Jenna McNaught, a 24-year-old who's worked as a cabin crew member for Emirates for the last three years or so. Turns out it's not all fun and games. Emirates flight attendants at the airline's training school in Dubai. <P> Qantas traditionally was an Airline that would take an individual Crew member 15 + years of service to reach the Cabin Service Manager position & salary. I Understand that the gross annual income for a senior Crew member would be around USD $80 - $120'000.00 per annum (as a cabin Service Manager). than domestic or other carriers. I recently met a new appointed Qantas Customer Service Manager (lead Cabin Crew) in HK who is based in London. He will start his Airbus A380 training shortly & indicated an increase in his base salary of UK pounds 4000.00 per year. <P> Emirates flight attendants start on a basic annual salary of about 47,000 dirhams ($A12,200), plus hourly flying pay, a fixed monthly cash sum based on their role and competencies, free housing and transport, and an annual payment from a profit-sharing plan. I recently had a chat to Jenna McNaught, a 24-year-old who's worked as a cabin crew member for Emirates for the last three years or so. Turns out it's not all fun and games. Emirates flight attendants at the airline's training school in Dubai. <P> In his TED Talk last spring, Michael Kimmel spoke about something he knows something about: men and privilege. Not only is he a middle-class white mal... 7 Things You Should NEVER Say to Co-Workers. Given the amount of time we spend at work, it's understandable that a lot of us get pretty comfortable there. It's a good thing when you can really be... 3 Reasons Why It's Tough to Teach in West Virginia (and These Other States). There are a lot of wonderful things about being a teacher, but it's a really difficult job, too. It's a profession that's immensely rewarding and imme... <P> A new book lifts the lid on what really goes down. In Confessions of a Qantas Flight Attendant – True Tales and Gossip from the Galley, Owen Beddall dishes the first-class dirt, revealing all about the glamorous world of flying. See Also. On one flight, one of the Gallagher brothers from the British band Oasis offered flight attendants £1000 ($AU1807) a piece to turn a blind eye to them smoking in the toilets. <P> Born to an Aboriginal father and Welsh mother, Beddall was adopted out at birth. He worked for the ‘flying kangaroo’ for 12 years as a first-class flight attendant travelling to more than 40 countries on six continents and says he was with Qantas “in its heyday”. In a way, the book charts the fall from grace of Qantas as much as the ups and downs of Beddall’s own life. On one flight, one of the Gallagher brothers from the British band Oasis offered flight attendants £1000 ($AU1807) a piece to turn a blind eye to them smoking in the toilets.
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4000.00 per year.
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brake costs
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<P> 1 CostHelper readers who bought the needed replacement parts and then paid a mobile mechanic or one at a local shop or gas station to install them report total costs of $80-$430, for an average of $251. I took it to this shop and they replaced the piston, the caliper, and the rotors for $300. The radio also didn't work so the guy bought a kenwood (expensive) without my consent and fixed the radio. I told him that I wanted to have it fixed at a later date but he had opened up that part of the car and fixed it already. <P> 1 For work on front and back brakes, CostHelper readers reported paying $273-$1,025 for an average of $567 at standard repair shops, or $280-$935 for an average of $578 at dealerships. I took it to this shop and they replaced the piston, the caliper, and the rotors for $300. The radio also didn't work so the guy bought a kenwood (expensive) without my consent and fixed the radio. I told him that I wanted to have it fixed at a later date but he had opened up that part of the car and fixed it already. <P> 1 CostHelper readers report paying $23-$285 for an average of $104 for materials for brakes on one axle, and $135-$439 for all parts for both front and back brakes, for an average of $304. I took it to this shop and they replaced the piston, the caliper, and the rotors for $300. The radio also didn't work so the guy bought a kenwood (expensive) without my consent and fixed the radio. I told him that I wanted to have it fixed at a later date but he had opened up that part of the car and fixed it already. <P> If you wish to replace the discs on the front an average price for a set of brake pads is approximately $60.00 - $111.00 but depending on the make and model of your car it could cost a lot more than that. <P> 1 Edmunds provides do-it-yourself instructions for replacing brake pads, calling it an easier-than-expected DIY project that requires standard tools and takes about an hour, for a savings of about $250 in labor costs on most cars. I took it to this shop and they replaced the piston, the caliper, and the rotors for $300. The radio also didn't work so the guy bought a kenwood (expensive) without my consent and fixed the radio. I told him that I wanted to have it fixed at a later date but he had opened up that part of the car and fixed it already. <P> Parts: $82 - $141. The average cost for a brake pad(s) replacement is between $179 to $264. Labor costs are estimated between $97 to $123 while parts are priced between $82 to $141. Get a personalized estimate based on your location and specific car. Estimate does not include taxes and fees. The brake rotors should be inspected when the pads are replaced, and depending on their condition, they may need resurfacing or replacement. We recommend braking gently for the first 40 to 50 miles of driving on new pads. This will allow them to adjust to the rotors and help prevent squeaking. <P> Depending on your car’s brake system, it may use between 4-8 brake pads. When you step on the brake pedal, the master cylinder sends fluid under pressure to the brake calipers (which hold the brake pads). The caliper presses the brake pad against the brake rotor, causing friction that slows down the car. During normal usage of the brakes, brake pads wear out and become thinner. If the thickness of brake pads is less than 3mm, it is time to change the pads. Depending on where you drive (city driving tends to wear pads out quicker) brake pads usually last between 30,000-35,000 miles. Some vehicles (eg. BMW’s) are equipped with a low-pad-warning system. In these vehicles, you will also need to replace the brake sensors as part of the brake pad service <P> The average cost of master cylinder repair is usually between $200 and $300, but it can be more, again, depending on the scope of the fix. If individual wheel cylinders need to be replaced, the cost will go up. The repair price for an entire brake job—rotors, calipers, drums, pads, cylinders—can run you $750 or more. Therefore, it's best to stay on top of brake repair and get the pads replaced when you hear squeaking. Components like master cylinders wear down after time, so eventually it will have to be replaced. Worn out brake pads, calipers and drums might be the issue, but it could also be a problem with your master cylinder, individual wheel cylinders or simply a lack of fluid. The cost of repairing brake problems fluctuates depending on what is wrong.
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$179 to $264
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size of earth in km
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<P> Earth's core is about 4,400 miles (7,100 km) wide, slightly larger than half the Earth's diameter and roughly the size of Mars. The outermost 1,400 miles (2,250 km) of the core are liquid, while the inner core — about four-fifths as big as Earth's moon at some 1,600 miles (2,600 km) in diameter — is solid. <P> The circumference of Earth at the equator is about 24,902 miles (40,075 km), but from pole-to-pole — the meridional circumference — Earth is only 24,860 miles (40,008 km) around. This shape, caused by the flattening at the poles, is called an oblate spheroid. Density, mass and volume. <P> Earth's Size. As the largest of the terrestrial planets, Earth has an estimated mass of 5.9736 × 10 24 kg. Its volume is also the largest of these planets at 108.321 × 10 10 km 3. In addition, Earth is the densest of the terrestrial planets as it is made up of a crust, mantle and core. <P> The planet's rotation causes it to bulge at the equator. Earth's equatorial diameter is 7,926 miles (12,756 kilometers), but from pole to pole, the diameter is 7,900 miles (12,720 km) — a difference of only 40 miles (64 km). <P> The equatorial diameter of Earth is 12,756 km, its polar diameter is 12,713 km, and its average diameter, which is referred to in common usage, is 12,742 km. <P> Earth is classified as the largest of the terrestrial planets based on its circumference and diameter as well. At the equator, Earth's circumference is 24,901.55 miles (40,075.16 km). It is slightly smaller between the North and South poles at 24,859.82 miles (40,008 km). Earth's diameter at the poles is 7,899.80 miles (12,713.5 km) while it is 7,926.28 miles (12,756.1 km) at the equator.
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40,075 km
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what does cytoplasm do
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<P> Cytoplasm is a gel like substance that fills the cell from the membrane to the nucleus. It is composed of about 80% water and contains mini-organs. It also contains ribsomes and proteins. The cytoplasm's job is to keep all of the cell organelles in place, so they do not bump into each other and destroy each other. it is to pick up all the left over stuff on the floor or ground of the cell. <P> Share. By Regina Bailey. Definition: The cytoplasm consists of all of the contents outside of the nucleus and enclosed within the cell membrane of a cell. This includes the cytosol and in euckaryotic cells, organelles such as mitochondria and ribosomes <P> All of the organelles in turn are in the cytoplasm. Plant and animal cells both have cytoplasm in their cells. Some of cytoplasm's jobs are to hold the organelles in place and provide nourishment. It also contains ribsomes and proteins. The cytoplasm's job is to keep all of the cell organelles in place, so they do not bump into each other and destroy each other. it is to pick up all the left over stuff on the floor or ground of the cell. <P> The cytoplasm comprises cytosol (the gel-like substance enclosed within the cell membrane) – and the organelles – the cell 's internal sub-structures. All of the contents of the cells of prokaryote organisms (such as bacteria, which lack a cell nucleus) are contained within the cytoplasm. The physical properties of the cytoplasm have been contested in recent years. It remains uncertain how the varied components of the cytoplasm interact to allow movement of particles and organelles while maintaining the cell’s structure. <P> The cytoplasm is about 80% water and usually colorless. It is within the cytoplasm that most cellular activities occur, such as many metabolic pathways including glycolysis, and processes such as cell division. The physical properties of the cytoplasm have been contested in recent years. It remains uncertain how the varied components of the cytoplasm interact to allow movement of particles and organelles while maintaining the cell’s structure. <P> Cytoplasm offers support to the cell. It allows the cell to take up 3-dimensional space and the cell's many organelles to float freely throughout. Also acts as a medium for transport inside the cell. It also pulls a cell together. It also contains ribsomes and proteins. The cytoplasm's job is to keep all of the cell organelles in place, so they do not bump into each other and destroy each other. it is to pick up all the left over stuff on the floor or ground of the cell. <P> Cytoplasm is a gel like substance that fills the cell from the membrane to the nucleus. It is composed of about 80% water and contains mini-organs. It also contains ribsomes and proteins. The cytoplasm's job is to keep all of the cell organelles in place, so they do not bump into each other and destroy each other. it is to pick up all the left over stuff on the floor or ground of the cell. <P> Organelles. The organelles within the cytoplasm do not contain any of a cells genetic material, because all of that is exclusive contained within the nucleus. The organelles inside cytoplasm are very important for the maintenance of the cell. These are the nucleus, the cytoplasm, and the cell membrane. The cell membrane is the outer-boundary of a cell, and it contains various channels to let materials into and out of a cell. The nucleus is at the center of the cell, and it is home to all of a cell’s chromosomes, or genetic material. <P> Cytoplasm is the cushioning agent in a cell. It fills up the rest of the space in the cell that is not taken up by organelles and the nucleus. Edit. Share to: 1 The Five Major Parts of the Brain At its most basic, the brain controls the body. It also contains ribsomes and proteins. The cytoplasm's job is to keep all of the cell organelles in place, so they do not bump into each other and destroy each other. it is to pick up all the left over stuff on the floor or ground of the cell.
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The cytoplasm is about 80% water and usually colorless. It is within the cytoplasm that most cellular activities occur, such as many metabolic pathways including glycolysis, and processes such as cell division.
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tool to remove drain from bathtub
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<P> The tub drain removal tool is dual sided to accommodate most tub drains and closet spuds. The dumbbell wrench can be turned with an adjustable wrench or heavy duty screwdriver for easy operation. A great tool for any do-it-yourselfer or professional plumber. 1 Dual sided to accommodate most tub drains and closet spuds. <P> DIY tool for removing and/or installing bathtub drain using needlenose pliers and adjustable pliers. Enables conversion of plunger type drain plug to pop-up stopper. 1 Howto & Style. <P> for your sink, bathtub, and shower drains. These installation and removal tools are a must-have for your next drain project-whether you're installing a new shower drain or removing an old lavatory sink drain. Affordable and very easy to use, they make a great addition to any tool box. Step 1. Determine which side of the Smart Dumbell to use, based on the size of the drain. The larger side can be used for kitchen sink baskets, flush valves, or other large drains. The smaller side can be used for bathtub drains, bar strainers or some lavatory drains. <P> In four easy steps we will show you how to remove your old tub drain flange to get your bathtub looking it's best. Click here for larger image. Drain flange. A bathtub drain flange is the finished drain part that is visible in the tub. Some manufacturers refer to the drain flange as a drain body or drain basket. The drain flange is threaded into a piece called a drain shoe. Drain shoe. Underneath the tub drain flange will be a good amount of plumber's putty that seals the inside of the tub drain, and a rubber gasket underneath the tub that seals the drain flange to the tub. The tub drain flange screws into the drain shoe <P> Product Information. The ezXtractor is a simple and effective bathtub drain removal tool. The ezXtractor is easy to use and operates by gripping the inside of the bathtub drain with the serrated edge of the bathtub drain removal tool. The ezXtractor is rotated against the inside of the drain. The ezXtractor also operates as an excellent pipe removal tool or a fitting removal tool. The ezXtractor fits pipes and pipe nipples from 1 3/8 to 1 3/4. <P> 1 To remove drains that do not have crossbars, use a drain key that is designed to work by biting into the sides of the drain when you turn the tool. 2 The most common types work in conjunction with a standard 3/8-inch drive ratchet and a 1/2-inch socket or a pair of wrenches. <P> When you're changing out your present bathtub, snaking the drain, or performing minor repairs, you will need to remove the tub drain. It looks simple--and it really is--but the first time I looked at one, I was mystified. <P> Easily replace your old bathtub drain using the ezXtractor. No more sawing and hammering on old, sticky bathtub drains. The ezXtractor is the ideal bathtub drain removal tool to simplify the removal of old bathtub drains. Even works when the bathtub drain’s cross members are broken or missing. It is fantastic, the best tool I have ever used for removing a drain. It is so easy to set in place, and it grabs the drain and takes it right out. Before the ezXtractor, I would have had to cut the drain out. -J.T.
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The tub drain removal tool
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what are breaded meatballs called
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<P> 1 In a large bowl, combine the ground beef, bread, eggs, cheese, parsley and onion and season with salt and pepper to taste. 2 For meatballs: Form mixture into golf size balls and brown in a large skillet over medium heat for 5 to 10 minutes, or until well browned. Directions. Prep. Cook. Ready In. 1 In a large bowl, combine the ground beef, bread, eggs, cheese, parsley and onion and season with salt and pepper to taste. 2 For meatballs: Form mixture into golf size balls and brown in a large skillet over medium heat for 5 to 10 minutes, or until well browned. <P> 1 In Belgium, meatballs are called ballekes or bouletten in Flanders, and are usually made of a mixture of beef and pork with bread crumbs and sliced onions. 2 Many other variations exist, including different kinds of meat and chopped vegetables. 1 If they are fried (typically small meatballs), they are called kal-e gonjeshki (literally sparrow 's head). 2 Both types are consumed with either bread or rice. 3 Typically, herbs are added, and for kufteh, usually the meatball is filled with hard boiled eggs or dried fruits. <P> p. I'm looking at some various meatball recipes and some call for bread crumbs and some call for stale bread which is then soaked in water or milk. Some of the bread crumb recipes also call for water to be added at the end of the mixing process. <P> This recipe can be used with meat or without thus making it a possible vegetarian dish.These are also called breaded meatballs, however I add into the meatballs some bulgur (which is super easy to make). <P> 1 In a large bowl, use your hands to mix together ground chuck, egg, bread crumbs, fresh parsley, garlic, and yellow onion. 2 Combine well. 3 Divide the meat mixture into 30-36 meatballs. 4 I used a heaping tablespoon of meat mixture for each meatball. DIRECTIONS. 1 In your slow cooker, combine marinara, crushed tomatoes, basil, oregano, red pepper flake, and garlic powder. 2 In a large bowl, use your hands to mix together ground chuck, egg, bread crumbs, fresh parsley, garlic, and yellow onion. 3 Combine well. 4 <P> A meatball is ground or minced meat rolled into a small ball, sometimes along with other ingredients, such as bread crumbs, minced onion, eggs, butter and seasonings. Meatballs are cooked by frying, baking, steaming, or braising in sauce. There are many types of meatballs using different types of meats and spices. 1 If they are fried (typically small meatballs), they are called kal-e gonjeshki (literally sparrow 's head). 2 Both types are consumed with either bread or rice. 3 Typically, herbs are added, and for kufteh, usually the meatball is filled with hard boiled eggs or dried fruits. <P> 1 In Greece, fried meatballs are called keftedes (keftédes) κεφτέδες and usually include within the mix of, bread onions and mint. 2 Leaf stewed meatballs are called (yuvarlakia: yuvarlákia γιουβαρλάκια From the turkish, word yuvarlak which) means round and usually include small quantities. of rice 1 If they are fried (typically small meatballs), they are called kal-e gonjeshki (literally sparrow 's head). 2 Both types are consumed with either bread or rice. 3 Typically, herbs are added, and for kufteh, usually the meatball is filled with hard boiled eggs or dried fruits. <P> 1 In Austria, fried meatballs are called Fleischlaibchen or Fleischlaberl. 2 In Belgium, meatballs are called ballekes or bouletten in Flanders, and are usually made of a mixture of beef and pork with bread crumbs and sliced onions. 1 If they are fried (typically small meatballs), they are called kal-e gonjeshki (literally sparrow 's head). 2 Both types are consumed with either bread or rice. 3 Typically, herbs are added, and for kufteh, usually the meatball is filled with hard boiled eggs or dried fruits. <P> Best Answer: The meatball in various countries Albanian fried meatballs (Qofte te të) ferguara fërguara include. Feta Cheese, in brazil meatballs 'are' called almondegas and are usually served. With spaghetti chinese meatballs are made of pork and are usually steamed, or boiled-either, as is or with the addition of. soy sauce In Greece, fried meatballs are called 'keftedes' and usually include within the mix onions and mint leaf. Stewed meatballs are called 'yuvarlakia'. In Bulgaria, meatballs are called 'kyufte' and are usually made of a mixture of beef and pork with breadcrumbs and sliced onions.
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Fleischlaibchen or Fleischlaberl
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why was india granted independence
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<P> Later that year, Britain granted India its independence but split the country into two dominions: India and Pakistan. Gandhi strongly opposed Partition, but he agreed to it in hopes that after independence Hindus and Muslims could achieve peace internally. <P> The Partition of India was the partition of the British Indian Empire that led to the creation of the sovereign states of the Dominion of Pakistan (it later split into Pakistan and Bangladesh) and the Union of India (later Republic of India) on 15 August 1947. Some critics allege that British haste led to increased cruelties during the Partition. Because independence was declared prior to the actual Partition, it was up to the new governments of India and Pakistan to keep public order. <P> Before leaving, the British were able to get the Hindus, against Gandhi's wishes, to agree to a partition plan. On August 15, 1947, Great Britain granted independence to India and to the newly formed Muslim country of Pakistan. <P> It was British prime minister Clement Atlee who, when granting independence to India, said that Gandhi’s non-violence movement had next to zero effect on the British. In corroboration, Chief Justice P.B. Had there been no Hitler and no World War II, it most probably would have taken another 30 or more years for India and some of the other colonies to achieve independence. Another major consequence of World War II was that it greatly hastened Indian political <P> On June 15, 1947, the British House of Commons passed the Indian Independence Act, or Mountbatten Plan, which divided India into two dominions, India and Pakistan. It called for each dominion to be granted its independence by Aug. 15 of that year. <P> Report Abuse. India was granted it's independence as a result of the end of World War II. At the end of the war, all of the imperial powers were ordered to surrender all of their colonies and establish governments for the former colonies. And that's why Britian granted India its independence. Steve · 6 years ago. It is better sometimes to grant Independence than to fight a war. The English passed laws that encouraged self government where ever they went. Canada and Australia became independent in WW1. Indian politics had evolved. <P> One of the greatest myths, first propagated by the Indian Congress Party in 1947 upon receiving the transfer of power from the British, and then by court historians, is that India received its independence as a result of Mahatma Gandhi’s non-violence movement. Had there been no Hitler and no World War II, it most probably would have taken another 30 or more years for India and some of the other colonies to achieve independence. Another major consequence of World War II was that it greatly hastened Indian political <P> In February of 1947, the British government announced that India would be granted independence by June 1948. Viceroy for India Lord Louis Mountbatten pleaded with the Hindu and Muslim leadership to agree to form a united country, but they could not. Only Gandhi supported Mountbatten's position. The Partition of India was the process of dividing the subcontinent along sectarian lines, which took place in 1947 as India gained its independence from the British Raj. <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. The Indian Independence Act 1947 was as an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The act was subsequently repealed in the article 395 of the Constitution of India and article 221 of the Constitution of Pakistan of 1956 to obtain true independence for the new states.
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In February of 1947, the British government announced that India would be granted independence by June 1948. Viceroy for India Lord Louis Mountbatten pleaded with the Hindu and Muslim leadership.
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what type of government is japan
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<P> The Japanese government is a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary government. Although Japan has an emperor, his powers as the head of state are limited. The prime min … ister is the chief executive in Japan. <P> The government of Japan is a constitutional monarchy in which the power of the Emperor is limited and is relegated primarily to ceremonial duties. As in many other states, the Government is divided into three branches: the Executive branch, the Legislative branch and the Judicial branch. <P> The National Diet Building (AFLO). A plenary session of the Diet (House of Councillors). Japan's Constitution, which came into force in 1947, is based on three principles: sovereignty of the people, respect for fundamental human rights, and renunciation of war. <P> Japan's government is a Constitutional Monarchy and Parliamentary Government with 722 members in its legislature. Executive elections are every 6 years. The percent of seats in Japanese parliament held by women is 59% lower than the global average, 17% . <P> Answer by Erik Rhodes. Confidence votes 197. Japan's government is a democratic parliamentary government, with a constitutional monarchy as the head of state. Japan's Imperial role is essentially only as a figurehead now, and the Emperor has no defined governmental power. <P> Japan is a Constitutional Monarchy and Parliamentary Democracy whose current leader is Chief Executive Shinzō Abe. The chief executive in Japan typically has a term length of 6 years. Japan's Legislature has 722 seats, and the last legislative elections were in 2010. Type of Government.
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Democratic parliamentary government.
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the term that means inflammation of the outer ear is
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<P> Swimmer's ear is inflammation, irritation, or infection of the outer ear and ear canal. The medical term for swimmer's ear is otitis externa. <P> Water and bacteria entering the middle ear from the ear canal can cause inflammation and infection. Drainage from the ear is a sign of a perforation. Inflammation and infection in time can cause erosion of the ossicles and the walls of the middle and inner ear. <P> Acute otitis media typically causes fluid in the middle ear accompanied by signs or symptoms of ear infection: a bulging eardrum usually accompanied by pain; or a perforated eardrum, often with drainage of purulent material (pus). <P> the outer ear; includes the auricle (1) or pinna and the external auditory meatus that carries the sound waves picked up by the auricle to the eardrum or tympanic membrane. external ear canal. the tubular part of the auricle. external ear canal inflammation. see otitis externa. <P> Auricular chronditis: Inflammation of ear cartilage. The cartilage of the ear can become inflamed, causing swelling, redness and pain of the outer ear. The cartilage, found in the outer ear, is a springy, supple type known as elastic <P> Introduction. Otitis externa is a condition that causes inflammation (redness and swelling) of the external ear canal, which is the tube between the outer ear and eardrum. Otitis externa is often referred to as swimmer's ear because repeated exposure to water can make the ear canal more vulnerable to inflammation. Symptoms of otitis externa include: 1 ear pain, which can be severe. 2 itchiness in the ear canal. 3 a discharge of liquid or pus from the ear. 4 some degree of temporary hearing loss. <P> Severe ear infections may cause the eardrum to rupture. The pus then drains from the middle ear into the ear canal. The hole in the eardrum from the rupture usually heals with medical treatment. The treatment for acute otitis media is antibiotics usually for 7-10 days.
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Otitis externa
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landforms you would find along river brahmaputra
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<P> A glacier at about 22,100 feet (6,735 meters) in the Himalayan Mountains is the source of the Ganges River. The river flows southeast across India to combine with the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh. The Brahmaputra River has its source in Tibet along the northern slope of the Himalayan Mountains. The combined Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers have formed the largest delta in the world, the Ganges River Delta (sometimes called the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta). Approximately 220 miles (345 kilometers) wide, the delta covers an area of roughly 40,790 square miles (105,645 square kilometers). <P> The Ganges Delta has the shape of a triangle, and is considered to be an arcuate delta (arc-shaped). It covers more than 105,000 km 2 (41,000 sq mi), and although the delta lies mostly in Bangladesh and India, rivers from Bhutan, China, India, and Nepal drain into it from the north. It is the world's largest delta, and empties into the Bay of Bengal. It is also one of the most fertile regions in the world, thus earning the nickname The Green Delta. The delta stretches from the Hooghly River on the west to the Meghna River on the east. It is approximately 354 km (220 mi) across at <P> Upper course of a river. In the upper course of a river gradients are steep and river channels are narrow. Vertical erosion is greatest in the upper course of a river. As the result of this typical features include steep valley sides, interlocking spurs, rapids, gorges and waterfalls. When a river runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock, rapids and waterfalls may form. Rivers menu The Water Cycle River Basins Rivers-Long Profile Landforms-Upper Course Landforms-Middle Course Landforms-Lower Course Processes-Erosion Processes-Transportation Processes-Deposition Discharge Flooding and management The Great Floods of 2000 Case Study-Ganges/Brahmaputra River Basin. <P> The Ganges Delta (also known as the Ganges–Brahmaputra Delta, the Sunderbans Delta, or the Bengal Delta) is a river delta in the South Asia region of Bengal, consisting of Bangladesh and the state of West Bengal, India. It is the world's largest delta, and empties into the Bay of Bengal. It is also one of the most fertile regions in the world, thus earning the nickname The Green Delta. The delta stretches from the Hooghly River on the west to the Meghna River on the east. It is approximately 354 km (220 mi) across at the Bay of Bengal. <P> 1 Rivers have an upper, middle and lower course. 2 In the upper course, the river erodes the landscape and bends to avoid hard rock, creating interlocking spurs. 3 Rapids and waterfalls can form when it runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock. 4 This is because soft rock erodes more easily than hard rock. 1 In the upper course, the river erodes the landscape and bends to avoid hard rock, creating interlocking spurs. 2 Rapids and waterfalls can form when it runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock. 3 This is because soft rock erodes more easily than hard rock. <P> Interlocking spurs on a tributary of the Yangtse. 1 As the river erodes the landscape in the upper course, it winds and bends to avoid areas of hard rock. 2 When a river runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock, rapids and waterfalls may form. Upper-course river features. As the river moves through the upper course it cuts downwards. The gradient here is steep and the river channel is narrow. Vertical erosion in this highland part of the river helps to create steep-sided V-shaped valleys, interlocking spurs, rapids, waterfalls and gorges. <P> Interlocking spurs on a tributary of the Yangtse. 1 As the river erodes the landscape in the upper course, it winds and bends to avoid areas of hard rock. 2 This creates interlocking spurs, which look a bit like the interlocking parts of a zip. Upper-course river features. As the river moves through the upper course it cuts downwards. The gradient here is steep and the river channel is narrow. Vertical erosion in this highland part of the river helps to create steep-sided V-shaped valleys, interlocking spurs, rapids, waterfalls and gorges. <P> Key points. 1 Rivers have an upper, middle and lower course. 2 In the upper course, the river erodes the landscape and bends to avoid hard rock, creating interlocking spurs. 3 Rapids and waterfalls can form when it runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock. 4 In the middle course the river flows on a gentler slope with more energy and volume. 5 Over 1 In the upper course, the river erodes the landscape and bends to avoid hard rock, creating interlocking spurs. 2 Rapids and waterfalls can form when it runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock. 3 This is because soft rock erodes more easily than hard rock.
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Long Profile Landforms,Upper Course Landforms,Middle Course Landforms,Lower Course Processes,Erosion Processes and transportation precesses.
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how long can you keep boiled eggs in fridge
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<P> Bottom Line. When an egg is washed or boiled, the protective coating on the shell is removed, and the egg will spoil much faster than a raw egg. Boiled eggs with the shells still on can be refrigerated for up to one week, while peeled eggs must be eaten the same day. <P> Peeled hard boiled eggs can be stored in the refrigerator in a bowl of cold water to cover for about 1 week (change the water daily) - or in a sealed container without water (cover the eggs with damp paper towels) for the same length of time. I understand a hard boiled egg can be left in the refrigerator for one week, but how long will shelf-life be if you were to peel the boiled egg and then refrigerate it? <P> Eggs Boiled in the Shell. According to the Benton-Franklin County Health District, refrigerated hard boiled eggs with the shells still on can be safely eaten within seven days of cooking. Boiled eggs with the shells still on can be refrigerated for up to one week, while peeled eggs must be eaten the same day. <P> Best Answer: In an air tight container they can stay for a few days. If you keep them in water they can last a few more, maybe 8. But keep an eye on them, if the water starts to smell even a little change it and rinse off the egg. <P> You can extend the answer to how long do hard boiled eggs last by storing them in your fridge (refrigerator) immediately after preparation or use. Once prepared, hard boiled eggs should be stored in a tightly closed container in the fridge to keep out moisture and other contaminants. Hard boiled eggs last about 7 days, but can spoil quickly if not handled properly. Hard boiled eggs are fresh whole eggs that have been boiled for 10 minutes. Chicken eggs are the most common choice for this process. <P> 4. The number of days deviled eggs or egg salad can be saved in the refrigerator and still be edible. Hard-boiled eggs still in their shells can keep for a week in the fridge, and raw eggs in their shells can stay fresh three to five weeks from the purchase date, even if the sell-by date has passed. (Source: 1.usa.gov/160UJdA). <P> No Follow. Refrigerate leftover hard-cooked eggs in the shell within two hours of cooking them and they should keep well for over one to one and a half weeks. It's best to place them in a container or plastic bag so they don't absorb refrigerator smells and flavors. If the egg is peeled it won't last as long—keep it no more than 3-5 days, and be sure to wrap it well in plastic wrap and/or store it in a heavy duty plastic bag or container with a lid. See our collection of Egg Recipes if you're looking for ways to use up all your hard-cooked eggs. <P> Raw eggs keep a lot longer. Interestingly, hard-boiled eggs do not keep nearly as long as raw eggs, which can last three to five weeks in the refrigerator. There is a good reason for this. When a hen lays an egg, it puts a naturally protective coating on the outside of the shell. Interestingly, hard-boiled eggs do not keep nearly as long as raw eggs, which can last three to five weeks in the refrigerator. There is a good reason for this <P> Raw eggs keep a lot longer. Interestingly, hard-boiled eggs do not keep nearly as long as raw eggs, which can last three to five weeks in the refrigerator. There is a good reason for this. When a hen lays an egg, it puts a naturally protective coating on the outside of the shell.
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For 1 week
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what is considered a low pulse rate
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<P> 1 The resting adult heart rate is normally 60 to 100 beats per minute. 2 Athletes or people on certain medications may have a lower resting normal rate. 3 The normal heart rate for children aged 1 to 8 years is 80 to 100 beats per minute. 4 The normal heart rate for infants age 1 to 12 months is 100 to 120 beats per minute. Your heart rate is the number of beats (rhythmic contractions) per minute of your heart. Your heart is the muscular organ, located in the chest, behind and to the left of the breastbone that maintains circulation of the blood. Heart rate is a measure of cardiac activity. <P> Having bradycardia (say “bray-dee-KAR-dee-uh) means that your heart beats very slowly. For most people, a heart rate of 60 to 100 beats a minute while at rest is considered normal. If your heart beats less than 60 times a minute, it is slower than normal. A slow heart rate can be normal and healthy. For some people, a slow heart rate does not cause any problems. It can be a sign of being very fit. Healthy young adults and athletes often have heart rates of less than 60 beats a minute. In other people, bradycardia is a sign of a problem with the heart’s electrical system. <P> A Resting Heart Rate anywhere in the range of 60 - 90 is considered in the normal range. Your Heart Rate will fluctuate a lot depending on such factors as your activity level and stress level. The normal resting heart rate for an adult human is in the 65-75 range. a resting rate of 47 is not a low resting heart rate as long as you are very fit. The heart is a muscle … and the more you exercise it the stronger it becomes. <P> Having bradycardia (say bray-dee-KAR-dee-uh) means that your heart beats very slowly. For most people, a heart rate of 60 to 100 beats a minute while at rest is considered normal. If your heart beats less than 60 times a minute, it is slower than normal. A slow heart rate can be normal and healthy. Or it could be a sign of a problem with the heart's electrical system. For some people, a slow heart rate does not cause any problems. It can be a sign of being very fit. Healthy young adults and athletes often have heart rates of less than 60 beats a minute. In other people, bradycardia is <P> Having bradycardia (say “bray-dee-KAR-dee-uh) means that your heart beats very slowly. For most people, a heart rate of 60 to 100 beats a minute while at rest is considered normal. If your heart beats less than 60 times a minute, it is slower than normal. A slow heart rate can be normal and healthy. Or it could be a sign of a problem with the heart's electrical system. For some people, a slow heart rate does not cause any problems. It can be a sign of being very fit. Healthy young adults and athletes often have heart rates of less than 60 beats a minute. In other people, bradycardia is <P> The average heart rate in human adults is 70-80 beats per minute. Anything that is higher, or lower, than that is considered arrhythmia. If the pulse is 100 beats per minute, or more, it is called tachycardia. If it is 50 beats per minute, or below, it is considered low and is referred to as bradycardia. The normal resting heart rate for an adult human is in the 65-75 range. a resting rate of 47 is not a low resting heart rate as long as you are very fit. <P> Bradycardia = too slow A heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute (BPM) in adults is called bradycardia. What's too slow for you may depend on your age and physical condition. 1 Physically active adults often have a resting heart rate slower than 60 BPM but it doesn't cause problems. <P> Identification. Your pulse rate is also called your heart rate. It is the number of times your heart beats per minute as it delivers blood, oxygen and nutrients to your bloodstream. Your pulse varies throughout the day. Your resting pulse is your rate when you first wake in the morning after a good night's sleep. Keeping track of your blood pressure and pulse lets you know how hard your heart is working and what your risk for heart disease is. A normal pulse rate at rest is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. Generally, a lower pulse rate means that your heart muscle is not having to beat too hard to do its job. However, if your pulse goes too low, it can be dangerous
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If your heart beats less than 60 times a minute, it is slower than normal.
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what colour is magnolia
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<P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. Technically Magnolia is rendered a pale magenta, however many photographers place this dual colored bloom on the neutral list as the white is a very soft, slightly off white color, and the pastel magenta is a gorgeous accent to black and white neutral palette. <P> 1 Magnolia as a named color historically enjoyed sporadic support in web browsers. 2 In Microsoft Internet Explorer 7 it may sometimes be rendered a pale magenta. 3 In Mozilla Firefox 2.0 it may sometimes appear grayish pink. <P> 'Magnolia' is a shade of White that is 4% saturated and 100% bright. <P> Real Estate. 1 In the UK, Magnolia paint is a neutral to warm white (as the petals in the picture of the plant), noted as being the 'standard' color of household paint, other than white. 2 However, the color called Magnolia in UK paint is closer to peach rather than the rose-lavender white of the web color. <P> Pink Magnolias. Magnolia stellata, or the star magnolia, is the most widely known magnolia, according to the University of Florida. This species, which features white or pink flowers, blooms well even when young, making it very attractive to home gardeners who want a specimen tree. <P> But I tell people that magnolia is a warm, gentle colour that stays in the background of their living space so that they can brighten things up with soft furnishings and ornaments. I believe that a room is decorated by what is in it, not by the colour of the walls. The walls are just a canvas. <P> Pink is one of the most common colors for magnolia blossoms. The shade will vary from tree to tree. The flowers may be pale pink to bright fuchsia in color. Pink blossoms are most commonly found growing on the saucer magnolia tree variety. <P> People have magnolia on and pretend its something else; but they actually like the colour. The added bonus is that it costs about half the price of similar colours which have to be mixed in the store. My whole house is magnolia-ceilings as well. The covings are white and a lot of the woodwork is white.
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Warm white
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what color model do scanners operate in
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<P> The filter and lens arrangement vary based on the scanner. Some scanners use a three pass scanning method. Each pass uses a different color filter (red, green or blue) between the lens and CCD array. After the three passes are completed, the scanner software assembles the three filtered images into a single full-color image. The Scanning Process. Here are the steps that a scanner goes through when it scans a document: 1 The document is placed on the glass plate and the cover is closed. 2 A lamp is used to illuminate the document. 3 The entire mechanism (mirrors, lens, filter and CCD array) make up the scan head. 4 The image of the document is reflected by an angled mirror to another mirror. 5 The .. <P> The RGB color model is an additive color model in which red, green, and blue light are added together in various ways to reproduce a broad array of colors. The name of the model comes from the initials of the three additive primary colors, red, green, and blue. Thus an RGB value does not define the same color across devices without some kind of color management. Typical RGB input devices are color TV and video cameras, image scanners, video games, and digital cameras. Typical RGB output devices are TV sets of various technologies (CRT, LCD, plasma, etc.), computer and mobile phone displays, video projectors, multicolor LED displays, and large screens such as JumboTron <P> Handheld scanners are smaller, portable versions of their desktop cousins. Like a flatbed scanners, they scan documents, drawings and other flat media, turning them into digital files you can store, edit or email from a computer. Description. A handheld scanner is a bar-shaped electronic device that digitally captures and stores images. Portable and running on batteries, it has controls and a display for selecting different scan modes, showing the amount of memory available for documents and indicating the status of a scan. <P> 1 Drum scanners are used by the publishing industry to capture incredibly detailed images. 2 They use a technology called a photomultiplier tube (PMT). 3 In PMT, the document to be scanned is mounted on a glass cylinder. 4 At the center of the cylinder is a sensor that splits light bounced from the document into three beams. 1 Flatbed scanners, also called desktop scanners, are the most versatile and commonly used scanners. 2 In fact, this article will focus on the technology as it relates to flatbed scanners. 3 Sheet-fed scanners are similar to flatbed scanners except the document is moved and the scan head is immobile. <P> Often, it is easier to model an object in clay and then scan it, or just scan an existing object. That's what the $400 Sense 3D scanner from 3D Systems does: scans an object and creates a 3D model that can be modified on a computer and printed from a 3D printer or online printing service. <P> How Scanners Work. In a nutshell, a scanner is a device that analyzes the surface of an image, printed text or an object and converts it into a two-dimensional digital image. Scanners come in different shapes and sizes depending on the intended use. The most common scanner for home and offices today is the flatbed scanner. A newer technology that is rising in popularity in the field of flatbed scanners is the use of Contact Image Sensors (CIS). Instead of using mirrors and lenses found in a CCD scanner, CIS scanners use red, green and blue LEDs to produce white light. <P> Color printers, on the other hand, are not RGB devices, but subtractive color devices (typically CMYK color model). Thus an RGB value does not define the same color across devices without some kind of color management. Typical RGB input devices are color TV and video cameras, image scanners, video games, and digital cameras. Typical RGB output devices are TV sets of various technologies (CRT, LCD, plasma, etc.), computer and mobile phone displays, video projectors, multicolor LED displays, and large screens such as JumboTron <P> RGB is a device-dependent color model: different devices detect or reproduce a given RGB value differently, since the color elements (such as phosphors or dyes) and their response to the individual R, G, and B levels vary from manufacturer to manufacturer, or even in the same device over time. Thus an RGB value does not define the same color across devices without some kind of color management. Typical RGB input devices are color TV and video cameras, image scanners, video games, and digital cameras. Typical RGB output devices are TV sets of various technologies (CRT, LCD, plasma, etc.), computer and mobile phone displays, video projectors, multicolor LED displays, and large screens such as JumboTron
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RGB color.
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most chemical reactions take place in
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<P> For example, oxygen will react with carbon because the product, carbon dioxide, has more chemical stability-in other w … ords, each atom shares its electrons to give the other atom(s) in the molecule an electron arrangement of more stability that the one before. <P> Explain that in most chemical reactions, two or more substances, called reactants, interact to create different substances called products. Tell students that burning a candle is an example of a chemical reaction. <P> 2 Our Body is a Big Chemical Factory Chemical Reactions take place in our body too. Our whole body depends on chemical reactions for proper functioning. These chemical reactions keep on happening in our body throughout our life. For example, the whole digestion process involves chemical reaction of acids and the food. <P> Chemical reactions are processes in which substances change into other substances. You know a chemical reaction takes place if one or more of these occur: 1 Color changes-Different combinations of molecules reflect light differently. 2 A color change indicates a change in molecules. <P> The reactions that take place in the troposphere may be acid base reaction or photochemical reactions, and substances in the troposphere usually have a shorter lifetime than in other atmospheric regions. The ultimate fate of chemical reactions in the troposphere is to be washed out through precipitation events. <P> Students will be able to explain that for a chemical reaction to take place, the bonds between atoms in the reactants are broken, the atoms rearrange, and new bonds between the atoms are formed to make the products. Students will also be able to explain that in a chemical reaction, no atoms are created or destroyed. <P> Most chemical reactions within a cell could not take place without a compound. 6 people found this useful. Edit. Share to: Chrishan Silva. 509,209 Contributions. I'm an undergraduate in Physical Sciences stream. <P> Most chemical reactions take place in the cytoplasm. + 7 others found this useful. Kayla Oatis. Edit. Share to: Judy Olmsted. 79,010 Contributions. Retired college science professor. Member of Beta Beta Beta Biological Honor Society. Member of the American Chemical Society (ACS). <P> 1 A physical change, such as a state change or dissolving, does not create a new substance, but a chemical change does. 2 In a chemical reaction, the atoms and molecules that interact with each other are called reactants. 3 In a chemical reaction, the atoms and molecules produced by the reaction are called products.
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in the troposphere
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va disability rates
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<P> current va disability compensation pay rates the 2015 va disability rates increased by 1 7 % on december 1 2014 if you receive disability payments from the va you will see a small raise in your monthly check starting on january 1 2015 <P> 2015 va disability rates are 1 7 % higher than the previous year va disability rate increases are determined by cost of living adjustments cola the 2016 va disability rates will be known by the middle to end of october 2015 right after the september consumer price index is released however it is appearing unlikely that there will be an increase in 2016 <P> example if you have a 30 % disability rating the va would multiply that against 100 % which is assumed to be good health this gives you 30 % subtract that from 100 % which leaves you with 70 % consider this your new starting point for your health rating <P> va rates disability from 0 % to 100 % in 10 % increments e g 10 % 20 % 30 % etc see the combined ratings section below for information about how va calculates disability percentage for multiple disabilities <P> 2016 cola effective payment dates retired military veterans va rates for compensation and pension for disabled veterans and surviving families will be effective december 1 2015 and will be reflected on the first check to be paid on december 31 2015 <P> 2015 va disability rate tables for veterans with a disability rating of 10 percent or higher eligible veterans with disabilities can receive up to $ 3423 98 per month as a tax free monetary benefit <P> if va finds that a veteran has multiple disabilities va uses the combined ratings table below to calculate a combined disability rating disability ratings are not additive meaning that if a veteran has one disability rated 60 % and a second disability 20 % the combined rating is not 80 %
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10 percent
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what part of animal does corned beef come from
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<P> any part of a cow,the name corned beef,gets its name from small salt-packets that are used to preserve the meat called corns,hence corned beef. 4 people found this useful. Edit. Share to: 1 Beef and Onion Flash Fry Recipe from Chef Rocco DiSpirito Chef Rocco DiSpirito has created many interesting gourmet recipes. Corned beef is derived from cattle (beef), not from pigs (pork). Also, don't mistake 'corned beef' for 'corn-fed beef'. 'Corned beef' is a brine cured cut of beef, whereas ' … corn-fed beef' is cattle that were fed corn as opposed to other grains. <P> And if your heart is set on corned beef and cabbage anyway and you'd like something Irish for afterwards, take a look at this page, where there's a terrific collection of real Irish desserts. We particularly recommend Irish Coffee cake and the Baileys marble cheesecake. And once again I found the usual result: three packages of corned beef, eighty packages of assorted pork and boiling bacon.) One note, though: the most popular way Irish people seem to eat corned beef these days, when they eat it at all, is in sandwiches. <P> Corned beef is a salt-cured beef product. The term comes from the treatment of the meat with large grained rock salt, also called corns of salt. It features as an ingredient in many cuisines. In the United States, consumption of corned beef is often associated with Saint Patrick's Day. Corned beef is not considered an Irish national dish, and the connection with Saint Patrick's Day specifically originates as part of Irish-American culture, and is often part of their celebrations in North America. <P> Putting it in your liver won’t matter a bit. Tags: corned beef, Irish, Ireland, St. Patrick’s Day, St. Paddy’s Day, St. Patty’s Day, who the heck is Patty, Patrick, Irish food, what do people eat on Saint Patrick’s Day, what part of the cow does the corned beef come from. What part of the cow does corned beef come from. March 16, 2006 Diane Duane 1 Comment. We’ve had about (EDITED, 17 Mar 2011) twenty three hundred queries about this today. We always get these this time of year, and more of them every year that goes by. <P> Corned beef is made from a cut of meat known as the brisket which comes from the shoulder part of cows. report this answer. Updated on Monday, February 06 2012 at 11:33AM GMT. Source: www.blurtit.com/... <P> Both of these are tough cuts requiring either long, slow cooking, or pickling in brine, or both -- hence their use in corned beef. See this article for lots more background on corned beef, including the oldest historical info. There are rumors that corned beef comes from -- let's put this delicately -- the lady parts of a cow. These are untrue. Corned beef is a muscle meat, not an organ meat, and anybody who tells you otherwise is just trying to gross you out. And once again I found the usual result: three packages of corned beef, eighty packages of assorted pork and boiling bacon.) One note, though: the most popular way Irish people seem to eat corned beef these days, when they eat it at all, is in sandwiches. <P> Corned beef is form the brisket of the cow which is the lower stomach it is usually made in Germany. Where it is made will depend on your location. The U.S. will not import beef from Europe. The U.S. has it's own corned beef processors. Corned beef is derived from cattle (beef), not from pigs (pork). Also, don't mistake 'corned beef' for 'corn-fed beef'. 'Corned beef' is a brine cured cut of beef, whereas ' … corn-fed beef' is cattle that were fed corn as opposed to other grains. <P> Corned beef is form the brisket of the cow which is the lower stomach it is usually made in Germany. Where it is made will depend on your location. The U.S. will not import … beef from Europe. The U.S. has it's own corned beef processors. 1 Spices to Add Flavor to Your Corned Beef Corned beef is a brined, uniquely seasoned beef brisket with roots in Ireland, but given the influx of Irish and Scots-Irish immigrants to the South in the 18th and 19th cent…. <P> Corned beef is derived from cattle (beef), not from pigs (pork). Also, don't mistake 'corned beef' for 'corn-fed beef'. 'Corned beef' is a brine cured cut of beef, whereas ' … corn-fed beef' is cattle that were fed corn as opposed to other grains. 15 people found this useful. 1 Spices to Add Flavor to Your Corned Beef Corned beef is a brined, uniquely seasoned beef brisket with roots in Ireland, but given the influx of Irish and Scots-Irish immigrants to the South in the 18th and 19th cent…. <P> Corned beef comes from the brisket and silverside (just under the topside) of the cow. Both of these are tough cuts requiring either long, slow cooking, or pickling in brine, or both — hence their use in corned beef. See this article for lots more background on corned beef, including the oldest historical info. What part of the cow does corned beef come from. March 16, 2006 Diane Duane 1 Comment. We’ve had about (EDITED, 17 Mar 2011) twenty three hundred queries about this today. We always get these this time of year, and more of them every year that goes by.
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Brisket and Silverside of the cow.
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how long will chocolate chip cookie batter last in the fridge
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<P> Refrigerating & Freezing. Homemade cookie dough can be safely stored in the refrigerator for 3-4 days if kept tightly wrapped. For longer storage, wrap and seal in plastic wrap, then place in freezer bags. Place in freezer for up to 3-6 months. Yes, you can, but I wouldn't recommend it. <P> Most cookies will last at room temperature up to three days. However, keep cookies with cream cheese frosting (such as pumpkin bars) in the fridge for up to a week. Cookie Covers Store each kind of cookie separately in a tightly covered container. <P> Ok, so if I want to make cookies Thursday night, but don't have a whole lot of time, would it be ok to make the dough on Tuesday and keep it in the fridge till Thursday? I see that refrigerator cookies (which can be kept in the fridge before baking for up to a week) contain eggs. <P> Cookie dough can keep for a week in the fridge as long as it doesn't start to dry out. Be sure to wrap it tightly in plastic wrap. You can also freeze cookie dough for up to three months, which may be your best option if you are trying to get ahead on time. <P> up vote 1 down vote. Cookie dough can keep for a week in the fridge as long as it doesn't start to dry out. Be sure to wrap it tightly in plastic wrap. You can also freeze cookie dough for up to three months, which may be your best option if you are trying to get ahead on time. share | improve this answer. answered Dec 19 '13 at 1:21. <P> Make Room In The Freezer Freeze most cookies for up to three months, stored in freezer bags or containers -- unfrosted. Thaw in the container 15 minutes, then frost or sprinkle with sugar before serving.Store baked bar cookies in a block.
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3-4 days
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what county is sellwood oregon in
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<P> detailed map of Sellwood and near places. Welcome to the Sellwood google satellite map! This place is situated in Multnomah County, Oregon, United States, its geographical coordinates are 45° 27' 53 North, 122° 39' 5 West and its original name (with diacritics) is Sellwood. See Sellwood photos and images from satellite below, explore the aerial photographs of Sellwood in United States. <P> Sellwood Junior Baseball (SJB) is a non-profit and all volunteer-run community baseball and softball league for kids ages 4 to 14 in Southeast Portland. Older players (8 to 14) participate in Clackamas County Junior Baseball following rules and guidelines set by the Junior Baseball Organization. Sellwood Junior Baseball (SJB) is a non-profit and all volunteer-run community baseball and softball league for kids in Southeast Portland. Older players participate in Clackamas County Junior Baseball (CCJBA) under Junior Baseball of Oregon (JBO) <P> Sellwood originated as an independent city, as a rival of nearby early Portland on the 1,320-acre (5.3 km 2) Donation Land Claim of Reverend John Sellwood, who sold the claim in 1882 to the Sellwood Real Estate Company. The town of Sellwood was incorporated by the Oregon Legislative Assembly on February 25, 1889. Sellwood has an amusement park named Oaks Park along the river. A bike trail next to railroad tracks above the river is accessible from Sellwood, and links Milwaukie and downtown Portland. The Oaks Bottom Wildlife Refuge was established in 1988 and has allowed the preservation and protection of numerous species <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. Sellwood-Moreland is a neighborhood on a bluff overlooking the Willamette River in Southeast Portland, Oregon, bordering Westmoreland to the north, Eastmoreland to the east, and the city of Milwaukie to the south. Sellwood has an amusement park named Oaks Park along the river. A bike trail next to railroad tracks above the river is accessible from Sellwood, and links Milwaukie and downtown Portland. The Oaks Bottom Wildlife Refuge was established in 1988 and has allowed the preservation and protection of numerous species <P> The Sellwood bridge links the Sellwood-Westmoreland neighborhoods of Portland on the east side with Oregon Route 43/Macadam Avenue on the west side. It was built in 1925. Upon discovery of cracks in both concrete approaches in January 2004, the weight limit on the bridge was lowered from 32 tons to 10 tons. Guide to the Sellwood-Moreland Neighborhood in Portland. Sellwood-Moreland is a neighborhood on a bluff overlooking the Willamette River in Southeast Portland, bordering the Brooklyn neighborhood to the north, Eastmoreland to the east, and the city of Milwaukie to the south. Sellwood-Moreland is located five miles south of downtown Portland <P> The Sellwood Bridge is a truss bridge that spans the Willamette River in Portland, Oregon, in the United States. It was Portland's first fixed-span bridge and, being the only river crossing for miles in each direction, is the busiest two-lane bridge in Oregon. It links the Sellwood and Westmoreland neighborhoods of Portland on the east side with Oregon Route 43 /Macadam Avenue on the west side. At its east end it leads to Tacoma Street. The bridge is owned and operated by Multnomah County. <P> Sellwood (GNIS FID: 1126736) is a populated place LOCATED WITHIN the City of Portland. In turn, the City of Portland is located within Multnomah County. Sellwood is located at latitude 45.465 and longitude -122.653. The elevation of Sellwood is 115 feet above mean sea level. Since Sellwood is located within the City of Portland, all of the census and demographic data for residents of Sellwood are included as part of the information reported for City of Portland in the Data tab above.
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United States
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bahamas affected by ocean currents
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<P> Surface currents are those found in the upper 400 meters (1,300 feet) of the ocean and make up about 10% of all the water in the ocean. Surface currents are mostly caused by the wind because it creates friction as it moves over the water. This friction then forces the water to move in a spiral pattern, creating gyres. Deep water currents, also called thermohaline circulation, are found below 400 meters and make up about 90% of the ocean. Like surface currents, gravity plays a role in the creation of deep water currents but these are mainly caused by density differences in <P> Tides and ocean currents in the Bahamas sculpted the sand and seaweed beds into these multicolored, fluted patterns in much the same way that winds sculpted the vast sand dunes in the Sahara Desert. Image courtesy Serge Andrefouet, University of South Florida. <P> Beginning in the Caribbean and ending in the northern North Atlantic, the Gulf Stream System is one of the world's most intensely studied current systems. This extensive western boundary current plays an important role in the poleward transfer of heat and salt and serves to warm the European subcontinent. Eddy kinetic energy along both the Gulf Stream and the North Atlantic Current is at peak values here (Richardson 1983). There is also the presence of elongated, high-pressure cells along the offshore side of the North Atlantic Current (Worthington 1976; Clarke et al. 1980; Baranov and Ginkul 1984; Krauss et al. 1987). <P> The Caribbean is a semi-enclosed sea adjacent to the landmasses of Central and South America. The closely spaced chain of islands, banks, and sills of the Antilles Islands Arc separate the Caribbean from the Atlantic Ocean and act as a sieve for the inflow of Atlantic water (Murphy et al. In addition, Murphy et al. (1999) studied the connectivity of mesoscale variability in the Atlantic Ocean, Caribbean Sea, and the Gulf of Mexico with the aid of three simulations by the Naval Research Laboratory's Global Ocean Model. <P> Outside of Earth’s equatorial areas, weather patterns are driven largely by ocean currents. Currents are movements of ocean water in a continuous flow, created largely by surface winds but also partly by temperature and salinity gradients, Earth’s rotation, and tides (the gravitational effects of the sun and moon). Ocean currents act much like a conveyer belt, transporting warm water and precipitation from the equator toward the poles and cold water from the poles back to the tropics. <P> Ocean currents can be generated by wind, density differences in water masses caused by temperature and salinity variations, gravity, and events such as earthquakes. Currents are cohesive streams of seawater that circulate through the ocean. Currents may also be generated by density differences in water masses caused by temperature and salinity variations. These currents move water masses through the deep ocean—taking nutrients, oxygen, and heat with them. Occasional events also trigger serious currents. Huge storms move water masses. <P> The Bahamas is a group of about 700 atolls and cays in the western Atlantic Ocean, of which only between 30 and 40 are inhabited. The largest of the islands is Andros Island, located 200 km (120 mi) southeast of Florida. Play media. This short video shows the cloudy island of Cuba and the Bahamas as the ISS flies from the Caribbean Sea north-east to the Atlantic Ocean. In the video, you can see Cuba is mostly covered by clouds, but the reefs in the Bahamas stand out quite nicely. <P> The Caribbean Current transports significant amounts of water northwestward through the Caribbean Sea and into the Gulf of Mexico, via the Yucatan Current. The source water for the Caribbean Current is from the equatorial Atlantic Ocean via the North Equatorial, North Brazil, and Guiana Currents. In addition, Murphy et al. (1999) studied the connectivity of mesoscale variability in the Atlantic Ocean, Caribbean Sea, and the Gulf of Mexico with the aid of three simulations by the Naval Research Laboratory's Global Ocean Model. <P> Illustration of major ocean currents throughout the globe. Ocean currents act as conveyer belts of warm and cold water, sending heat toward the polar regions and helping tropical areas cool off. The world’s ocean is crucial to heating the planet. While land areas and the atmosphere absorb some sunlight, the majority of the sun’s radiation is absorbed by the ocean. Ocean currents act much like a conveyer belt, transporting warm water and precipitation from the equator toward the poles and cold water from the poles back to the tropics. <P> They can be either surface or deep water. Because ocean currents circulate water worldwide, they have a significant impact on the movement of energy and moisture between the oceans and the atmosphere. As a result, they are important to the world’s weather. Deep water currents, also called thermohaline circulation, are found below 400 meters and make up about 90% of the ocean. Like surface currents, gravity plays a role in the creation of deep water currents but these are mainly caused by density differences in the water.
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Tides and ocean currents in the Bahamas sculpted the sand and seaweed beds into these multicolored, fluted patterns in much the same way that winds sculpted the vast sand dunes in the Sahara Desert.
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describe stratospheric ozone destruction
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<P> The stratospheric ozone layer, centered at about 20 km above the surface of the Earth (Figure 10-1), protects life on Earth by absorbing UV radiation from the Sun. In this chapter we examine the mechanisms controlling the abundance of ozone in the stratosphere and the effect of human influence. <P> Ozone layer depletion, is simply the wearing out (reduction) of the amount of ozone in the stratosphere. Unlike pollution, which has many types and causes, Ozone depletion has been pinned down to one major human activity. <P> About 90% of the ozone in the Earth's atmosphere is found in the region called the stratosphere. This is the atmospheric layer between 16 and 48 kilometers (10 and 30 miles) above the Earth's surface. Ozone forms a kind of layer in the stratosphere, where it is more concentrated than anywhere else. <P> Ozone is also destroyed naturally in the stratosphere, being dissociated by ultraviolet radiation: This is the reaction that is responsible for O3's absorbtion of uv radiation that would otherwise reach earth. <P> Most ozone is found in a layer more than 10 kilometers (6 miles) above the Earth. This stratospheric ozone layer prevents the Sun's harmful, high-energy radiation from reaching Earth's surface. Ozone in the stratosphere is constantly being created and destroyed by the action of light and photochemistry. <P> Where is ozone found in the atmosphere? Ozone is mainly found in two regions of the Earth's atmosphere. Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17 kilometers) above the Earth's surface and extends up to about 30 miles (50 kilometers). This region of the atmosphere is called the stratosphere. <P> Most of it is concentrated in the ozone layer, a region located in the stratosphere several miles above the surface of the Earth. Although ozone represents only a small fraction of the gas present in the atmosphere, it plays a vital role by shielding humans and other life from harmful ultraviolet light from the Sun.
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Ozone is also destroyed naturally in the stratosphere, being dissociated by ultraviolet radiation.
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what is a government corporation quizlet
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<P> The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) is a United States government corporation operating as an independent agency created by the Banking Act of 1933. <P> A government corporation does a number of things but it is mainly tasked with the role of providing government services. This is a business entity which is fully or party … owned by the government. JD Heyl. is a legal entity created by a government to exercise some of the powers of the government. <P> For this reason, we say that it is a government-sponsored corporation. Government-sponsored corporations are not owned by the government but they are partially funded by the government and as a result can be regulated by the government. Government-Acquired Corporations. Sometimes the government can acquire a corporation that it did not commission or start. Perhaps the corporation has become delinquent on taxes, allowing the government to takeover the <P> Because businesses of all kinds are subject to government oversight and regulation, it is imperative that business owners have a good relationship with local government leaders. <P> Definition. A government corporation is a company that is owned by the government and operates with the same independence of a private business, except that the owner is the government. Government-Acquired Corporations. Sometimes the government can acquire a corporation that it did not commission or start. Perhaps the corporation has become delinquent on taxes, allowing the government to takeover the corporation. <P> A government corporation is a company or business that is owned, in part or full, by a national government. The U.S. Postal Services, which sells postage stamps and other services, is an example of a government corporation. View slideshow of images above. Watch the Did-You-Know slideshow. Top 10 unbelievable historical concurrencies. A government corporation is a company or business that is owned, in part or full, by a national government. Sometimes the government connection is obvious, but not always. A lot depends on how the company was structured and why <P> Also, the government creates laws for the business sector while the sector itself cannot create laws unless it pertains to the business itself. It cannot contradict and must follow what is already prescribed by the government or risk being closed due to violation. Government vs Business. Governments and businesses are two different entities that exist in society. Governments and businesses are also classified as social institutions that benefit society in general and its members. Both share the same features with varying differences. <P> Overseas Private Investment Corporation. Assists American businesses when they make investments abroad; helps companies manage the risk involved in overseas investments and promotes economic development in emerging markets. It gets most of its revenue from fees for its products.
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Assists American businesses when they make investments abroad helps companies manage the risk involved in overseas investments and promotes economic development in emerging markets.It gets most of its revenue from fees for its products.verseas Private Investment Corporation.
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what is airport aviation management salary
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<P> Research what it takes to become an airport manager. Learn about the requirements, duties, job outlook and salary to find out if this is the career for you. Schools offering Logistics & Transportation Management degrees can also be found in these popular choices. Airport managers may oversee the business operations, finances, legal matters and mechanical capabilities of an airport. If you work in a larger airport, you might supervise engineers, control officers, assistant managers or supporting staff. <P> You'll be responsible for maintaining the general operations of an airport. Most airport managers are overseen by a local government or an airport's private owner. For this position, you'll need to be proficient in business administration, public relations, economics and human resources management. Airport managers may oversee the business operations, finances, legal matters and mechanical capabilities of an airport. If you work in a larger airport, you might supervise engineers, control officers, assistant managers or supporting staff. <P> Aviation Manager Job Description The following is a full job description for Aviation Manager. Here are the requirements and responsibilities for Aviation Manager along with statistics. <P> For example the median expected annual pay for a typical Aviation Manager in the United States is $159,851 so 50% of the people who perform the job of Aviation Manager in the United States are expected to make less than $159,851. Source: HR Reported data as of October 2015. Median $159,851. Job Description for Aviation Manager. Manages the operations of the aviation department. Ensures compliance with FAA regulations and that all maintenance, safety, and scheduling operations are executed satisfactorily. <P> Some managers hold a Master of Business Administration. In an aviation management or business administration program, you might take courses like aviation marketing, airport administration, economics of air transportation, labor relations in the aviation industry and airline management. Airport managers may oversee the business operations, finances, legal matters and mechanical capabilities of an airport. If you work in a larger airport, you might supervise engineers, control officers, assistant managers or supporting staff. <P> According to 2015 data presented by Salary.com, aviation managers earned an median annual salary of $162,440. Most aviation managers earned between $108,277 and $227,968. To continue researching, browse degree options below for course curriculum, prerequisites and financial aid information. Explore the career requirements for aviation managers. Get the facts about education requirements, salary, and potential job growth to determine if this is the right career for you. Schools offering Logistics & Transportation Management degrees can also be found in these popular choices <P> An aviation manager is an airport employee who oversees compliance with local, state and federal rules and regulations, ensuring that an airport or its departments run efficiently and safely while overseeing the hiring and management of airport or department staff. Workers in top management jobs like these can expect to work long hours, because the aviation manager is responsible for the success or failure of the entire organization. Evening, weekend and holiday shifts are a possibility, since airports may serve incoming or outgoing flights during those times. <P> Aviation Management Salary and Requirements. An aviation manager is the person responsible for the operations of an aviation department at an airline or airport. They ensure that safety, scheduling, and maintenance operations are executed properly.
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Annual $159,851
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turkey cooking temperature celsius
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<P> In 2006, the USDA changed the rules for how long you need to cook fowl in order to kill harmful bacteria. According to current guidelines, turkey should attain an internal temperature of 165 degrees Fahrenheit (73.8889 degrees Celsius). This is lower than lots of recipes you'll find on the web and in print. You also have more cooking options than ever before. 1 The U. S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) recommends thawing the bird either in the refrigerator (one day for every four to five pounds), immersed in cold water (30 minutes per pound), or in the microwave according to the manufacturer's instructions. 2 Never leave a turkey out to thaw at room temperature [source: USDA ]. <P> 1 Poultry is considered cooked at around 80 or 90 degrees Celsius, thus the logic of slow cooking and not cooking at higher temperature to avoid drying out the meat. 2 The turkey needs to be basted every 20 minutes, using the juices and fat flowing from the bird as it cooks. Cooking time for a 4kgs bird will be over 3 half hours including resting of the meat. You might want to consider half cooking your roast vegetables the night before, then reheating and crisping in a hot oven whilst the turkey is resting. Pre-heat oven to 200 degrees Celsius. <P> Cooking thermometers take the guesswork out of cooking, as they measure the internal temperatures of your cooked meat, poultry, seafood, baked goods, and/or casseroles, to assure that a safe temperature has been reached, harmful bacteria have been destroyed, and your food is cooked perfectly. 160 degrees F. 71 degrees C. When eggs are part of the recipe it is necessary that the internal temperature of the baking item reach at least 160 degrees F. (71 degrees C.) in order to kill any dangerous bacteria. <P> Internal Temperature Cooking Chart Beef-Pork-Poultry-Fish and Seafood-Baked Goods copyright 2004 by Linda Stradley-United States Copyright TX 5-900-517- All rights reserved. This web site may not be reproduced in whole or in part without permission and appropriate credit given. 160 degrees F. 71 degrees C. When eggs are part of the recipe it is necessary that the internal temperature of the baking item reach at least 160 degrees F. (71 degrees C.) in order to kill any dangerous bacteria. <P> 1. Do not roast the turkey in a oven temperature lower than 325° F. Poultry should be roasted at 325° F. or higher to avoid potential food safety problems. 2. Do not roast the turkey in a brown paper grocery bag. Present day grocery bags may be made of recycled materials and are not considered safe for food preparation. 3. Take the guesswork out of preparing the perfect turkey by choosing the right cooking method and temperature for your version of the perfect turkey. Since so many folks are intimidated by the prospect of cooking a turkey, we went to the experts for the lowdown. <P> Cook raw meat and poultry to safe internal temperatures. Always use a clean food thermometer to check the internal temperature of these foods. Internal Temperature Reference Chart for Meats & Poultry. Cook raw meat and poultry to safe internal temperatures. Always use a clean food thermometer to check the internal temperature of these foods. Make sure it goes straight into meats, but doesn't come out the other side and touch the pan. <P> Cooking the turkey and tips. 1 General cooking time is 20 minutes per 500 g, approximately 2 hours 40 minutes for a 4 kgs bird. 2 For the first 40 minutes cook at 200 degrees Celsius which seals in the flavours, then lower temperature to 160 degrees for remainder of cooking time. Cooking time for a 4kgs bird will be over 3 half hours including resting of the meat. You might want to consider half cooking your roast vegetables the night before, then reheating and crisping in a hot oven whilst the turkey is resting. Pre-heat oven to 200 degrees Celsius. <P> 2. Cook ground beef, pork, chicken or turkey to a temperature of 165 degrees (74 Celsius). Because the meat is ground, contaminating bacteria might be present throughout the meat. It's therefore never safe to serve ground meat that's less than well done. 3. Roast whole birds or breasts to a temperature of 165 degrees Fahrenheit (74 Celsius). 1 You should also cook the stuffing to 165 degrees Fahrenheit (74 Celsius), since many stuffing recipes incorporate juices or other parts of the bird.
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74 Celsius.
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what does enteritis mean
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<P> Enteritis (entero- + -itis) is inflammation of the small intestine. It is most commonly caused by food or drink contaminated with pathogenic microbes. Symptoms include abdominal pain, cramping, diarrhea, dehydration, and fever. Inflammation of related organs of the gastrointestinal system are: 1 gastritis. <P> Meaning: Inflammation of the intestine (especially the small intestine); usually characterized by diarrhea. Classified under: Nouns denoting stable states of affairs. Hypernyms (enteritis is a kind of...): inflammation; redness; rubor (a response of body tissues to injury or irritation; characterized by pain and swelling and redness and heat). <P> 1. inflammation of the intestine (especially the small intestine); usually characterized by diarrhea. Familiarity information: ENTERITIS used as a noun is very rare. Inflammation of the intestine (especially the small intestine); usually characterized by diarrhea. Classified under: Nouns denoting stable states of affairs. Hypernyms (enteritis is a kind of...): <P> The noun ENTERITIS has 1 sense: 1. inflammation of the intestine (especially the small intestine); usually characterized by diarrhea. Familiarity information: ENTERITIS used as a noun is very rare. Dictionary entry details. Inflammation of the intestine (especially the small intestine); usually characterized by diarrhea. Classified under: Nouns denoting stable states of affairs. Hypernyms (enteritis is a kind of...): <P> enteritis. inflammation of the intestine, especially the small intestine, a general condition that can be produced by a variety of causes. Bacteria and certain viruses may infect the intestinal tract and produce symptoms of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. phlegmonous enteritis a condition with symptoms resembling those of peritonitis, which may be secondary to other intestinal diseases, e.g., chronic obstruction, strangulated hernia, carcinoma. enteritis polypo´sa enteritis marked by polypoid growths in the intestine, due to proliferation of the connective tissue. <P> enteritis. inflammation of the intestine, especially the small intestine, a general condition that can be produced by a variety of causes. Bacteria and certain viruses may infect the intestinal tract and produce symptoms of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. <P> Enteritis. In medicine, enteritis, from Greek words enteron and suffix-itis, refers to inflammation of the small intestine. It is most commonly caused by the ingestion of substances contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms. Symptoms include abdominal pain, cramping, diarrhea, dehydration and fever
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Inflammation of the intestine, especially the small intestine, a general condition that can be produced by a variety of causes.
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genetic process synonym
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<P> Sexual reproduction is able to generate genetic variation in offspring because the process of meiosis randomly shuffles genes across chromosomes and then randomly separates half of those chromosomes into each gamete. The two gametes then randomly fuse to form a new organism. Genetic variation is one of the keys to evolutionary fitness. This is made possible because reproductive cells undergo meiosis, which is the process in which one cell divides twice to produce four sperm or four eggs. <P> adj. inherited; transmitted at birth. 1 ancestral. 2 bequeathed. 3 family. 4 genealogical. 5 genetic. 6 handed down. 7 heritable. 8 inborn. 9 inbred. 10 inheritable. 11 inherited. 12 lineal. 13 maternal. 14 paternal. 15 patrimonial. 16 traditional. 17 transmissible. 18 transmitted. 19 willed. <P> How is genetic testing done? Once a person decides to proceed with genetic testing, a medical geneticist, primary care doctor, specialist, or nurse practitioner can order the test. Genetic testing is often done as part of a genetic consultation. Genetic tests are performed on a sample of blood, hair, skin, amniotic fluid (the fluid that surrounds a fetus during pregnancy), or other tissue. <P> Adj. 1. polygenic-of or relating to an inheritable character that is controlled by several genes at once; of or related to or determined by polygenes. genetic science, genetics-the branch of biology that studies heredity and variation in organisms. adj. 1. Of, relating to, or determined by polygenes: polygenic inheritance. 2. a. Of or relating to polygenesis; polygenetic. b. Of or relating to polygenism. <P> 8. process (n.). a writ issued by authority of law; usually compels the defendant's attendance in a civil suit; failure to appear results in a default judgment against the defendant. 1 monition, 2 process of monition, 3 citation, 4 summons, 5 judicial writ, 6 writ, 7 ticket <P> Synonyms and Antonyms of GENETIC. Synonyms genetic (also genetical), heritable, inborn, inheritable, inherited. Related Words congenital, inbred, inherent, innate, native, natural. <P> Epigenetic mechanisms. Epigenetics is the study, in the field of genetics, of cellular and physiological phenotypic trait variations that are caused by external or environmental factors that switch genes on and off and affect how cells read genes instead of being caused by changes in the DNA sequence. <P> Gene expression is the process by which the information encoded in a gene is used to direct the assembly of a protein molecule. The cell reads the sequence of the gene in groups of three bases. Each group of three bases (codon) corresponds to one of 20 different amino acids used to build the protein. <P> Full Definition of GENETIC. 1. : relating to or determined by the origin, development, or causal antecedents of something. 2. a: of, relating to, or involving genetics. — ge·net·i·cal·ly \-ti-k(ə-)lē\ adverb. See genetic defined for English-language learners. See genetic defined for kids. <P> 2. transduction, natural process, natural action, action, activity. usage: the process whereby a transducer accepts energy in one form and gives back related energy in a different form; the transduction of acoustic waves into voltages by a microphone. See also: transduction (Dictionary).
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Gene expression is the process by which the information encoded in a gene is used to direct the assembly of a protein molecule.
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what is different about the rotation of venus
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<P> Venus takes 243 days to spin on its axis relative to the background stars, while it takes 224.7 days to orbit the sun. Although its spin on its axis is longer that its orbital … period, an apparent day is 116.75 days, since it spins in the other direction to Earth and most other planets. Venus has a retrograde rotation, compared to its orbit around the Sun. Unlike the other major planets, Venus rotates in a slow clockwise direction (from east to west). … Scientists speculate that Venus may have collided with another large object during its early formation. <P> So, the Earth takes one day to rotate on its axis, and it takes one year to revolve around the Sun in orbit. Venus, on the other hand, takes 243 days to turn once on its axis, and it takes almost 225 days to travel once around the Sun in orbit. As you can see, a day on Venus is longer than its year. If that’s not strange enough, the rotation of Venus is backwards. It has a similar size, mass, density and chemical composition. Of course, its high temperatures and extreme atmospheric pressure make it different. And there’s another aspect of Venus that’s different from Earth; the rotation of Venus is longer than its year – oh, and Venus rotate <P> Another thing that differs between the two planets is the direction of their rotation. Venus s rotation takes longer than a year and it rotates backwards. Note that a rotation is when an object spins once on its own axis. Our planet takes only 24 hours, or one full Earth day, to rotate on its axis and a year to revolve around the Sun. Venus, however, takes 243 days to turn one time on its axis and almost 225 days to revolve around the Sun in orbit. <P> Venus spins retrograde (opposite) relative to the earth's movement. The period of rotation of Venus (a Venusian day) is longer the Venusian year by 18.3 days. Venus circles the sun every 224.7 earth days. Most of my sources stated that the Venusian day is 243 earth days long. 243 days. Venus is the second planet from the sun and the planet that is closest to earth. It is named for the Roman Goddess of love and beauty and has been thought of throughout history as one of the most beautiful objects in the sky. Venus is covered by clouds that move three times faster than hurricane winds. <P> 1 Whereas Earth rotates in about 24 hours Venus rotates in the contrary sense (retrograde rotation) in 243 days. 2 The orbital period of Venus is 225 days so that a Venus year takes less than a full day. <P> Venus is a terrestrial planet and is sometimes called Earth's sister planet because of their similar size, mass, proximity to the Sun and bulk composition. It is radically different from Earth in other respects. It has the densest atmosphere of the four terrestrial planets, consisting of more than 96% carbon dioxide. The atmospheric pressure at the planet's surface is 92 times that of Earth's. With a mean surface temperature of 735 K (462 °C; 863 °F), Venus is by far the hottest planet in the Solar System, even though Mercury is closer to the Sun. <P> Venus is the second planet from the Sun, orbiting it every 224.7 Earth days. It has no natural satellite. It is named after the Roman goddess of love and beauty. After the Moon, it is the brightest natural object in the night sky, reaching an apparent magnitude of −4.6, bright enough to cast shadows. The atmospheric pressure at the planet's surface is 92 times that of Earth's. With a mean surface temperature of 735 K (462 °C; 863 °F), Venus is by far the hottest planet in the Solar System, even though Mercury is closer to the Sun. <P> Venus has the longest day 243 earth days long. In fact its day is longer than its year (224.7 Earth days)!. Scientists think it is because of Venus's dense atmosphere that causes the slower rotation. Then their is its orbit around the sun which is nearly circular and it is the only planet with such an orbit. A curious aspect of Venus's orbit and rotation periods is that the 584-day average interval between successive close approaches to the Earth is almost exactly equal to five Venusian solar days. <P> When Venus was first formed it may have had a different obliquity and rotation period. It changed to the current rotation period because of tidal effects and planetary perturbations on its atmosphere. Venus takes 242 earth days to rotate on its axis, so a day on Venus is about 242 Earth days. This is the slowest rate of a planet in our Solar System. 243 earth days in Venus takes longer than a Venusian year which is 224.7 earth days. The sun also rises in the west and sets on the east in Venus. The distance of Venus from the sun as it orbits around is 108,000,000 kilometers (0.7 AU). It takes Venus 224.65 days to complete its orbit, which means a year on Venus is approximately 224.65 Earth days. While all planets’ orbits are elliptical, Venus’ orbit is the only one which is closest to circular.
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Venus s rotation takes longer than a year and it rotates backwards.
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what is imco cargo
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<P> IMO Shipper's Declaration Form. IMO Shipper's Declaration is the form used to describe hazardous materials in a container or shipping on a vessel. The IMO shippers declaration form is mandatory for shipments of dangerous goods by sea under the International Maritime Organization regulations. <P> IMCO Codes. IMDG/IMCO Codes are set by the International Maritime Organization for the safe transportation of dangerous goods by vessel and to prevent marine pollution: <P> || Click here to comment. In my previous article Hazardous Cargo, we had a brief look into Class 1 cargoes.. Below is a guest post by Bentley Cook about how to handle IMCO Class 1 cargo and dispel the taboo surrounding this cargo.. <P> 1 The shipper of dangerous goods should provide a dangerous goods declaration embodying the relevant details listed in section 9 of the general introduction to the IMDG Code and the original or a copy should be placed aboard the ship. 2 Without such a declaration the dangerous goods shall not be accepted for shipments. Classification of dangerous goods. For all modes of transport (sea, air, rail, road and inland waterways) the classification (grouping) of dangerous goods, by type of risk involved, has been drawn up by the UNITED NATIONS Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods (UN). <P> The International Maritime Organization (IMO), known as the Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization (IMCO) until 1982, is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shipping. The most well known is the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), as well as International Convention on Oil Pollution Preparedness, Response and Co-operation (OPRC). Others include the International Oil Pollution Compensation Funds. <P> Shipping Dictionary. International Maritime Consultative Organization. A forum in which most major maritime nations participate and through which recommendations for the carriage of dangerous goods, bulk commodities and maritime regulations become internationally acceptable. <P> Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization (IMCO) was formed to fulfill a desire to bring the regulation of the safety of shipping into an international framework, for which the creation of the United Nations provided an opportunity. The most well known is the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), as well as International Convention on Oil Pollution Preparedness, Response and Co-operation (OPRC). Others include the International Oil Pollution Compensation Funds. <P> From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. IMDG Code or International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code is accepted as an international guideline to the safe transportation or shipment of dangerous goods or hazardous materials by water on vessel. The HNS Convention covers hazardous and noxious substances that are included in the IMDG code. The code is updated and maintained by the DSC Sub-Committee of the International Maritime Organization every 2 years. The correct edition to the IMDG Code is the 2012 Edition; Incorporating Amendment 36-12. <P> Documents: Classification of dangerous goods. For all modes of transport (sea, air, rail, road and inland waterways) the classification (grouping) of dangerous goods, by type of risk involved, has been drawn up by the UNITED NATIONS Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods (UN). <P> IMCO Cargo Classification. Regulations. The Carriage of dangerous goods and marine pollutants in sea-going ships is respectively regulated in the International Convention for the Safety of the Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of pollution from Ships (MARPOL). Classification of dangerous goods. For all modes of transport (sea, air, rail, road and inland waterways) the classification (grouping) of dangerous goods, by type of risk involved, has been drawn up by the UNITED NATIONS Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods (UN).
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The Carriage of dangerous goods and marine pollutants in sea-going ships is respectively regulated in the International Convention for the Safety of the Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of pollution from Ships (MARPOL).
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what type of service provider is Xplornet
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<P> I am an xplornet customer, for another couple of days while I wait for my new service provider to come hook us up. I have fought with Xplornet on my down load speeds being no where near the 1.5Mbps that I was paying for. You can hardly use the internet with less then 1Mbps anymore. I am in NW SK & I am getting rid of Xplornet tomorrow BEFORE my contract is up in June, paying the damn penalty of 6 mos just so I can use my computer on weekends & evenings again. I hope!! I have experienced almost 3 years of hell with these guys, once telling me it was MY computer at fault. <P> *Customers on the Anywhere Bundle receive a one-time $50 bill credit of their Xplornet Internet on 3G or 4G service. To be eligible for the bundle discount, customer must be in good standing with both Xplornet and Shaw Direct. Customer must be new to Xplornet and activated on or after July 15, 2014 to be eligible. 1 You must contact Xplornet Customer CARE prior to the end of the 30 day money back guarantee period. 2 You must remain on both Shaw Direct and Xplornet for over 30 days. 3 You must be a customer in good standing of <P> Internet Service Providers (ISP’s), which first began to emerge in the late 1980s and early 1990s, are the businesses and organizations that provide users with Internet access and related services. These providers connect customers to customers of other service providers by way of networks. Often, Internet Service Providers (also called Internet Access Providers) are companies that provide telecommunications services including data communications access and telephone connection. <P> The company is owned by Barrett Corporation. Xplornet has been around for 8 years and what a terrible 8 years it is for them. Xplornet offers two different types of Internet to their customers. Satellite Wireless and usually people in rural area's get this internet because it is the only service provided in their communities because there is no competition for Xplornet they snatch up unsuspecting customers. <P> Xplornet Communications Inc. is a rural internet service provider in Canada. It is the largest rural internet service provider in the country. <P> Xplornet Sucks. i was a customer of Xplornet for 4 years. then we decided to move into the city where we could get a faster ISP provider. After giving them 30 days notice they cancelled my service the next day and say that they cannot restore my service. <P> *Customers on the Anywhere Bundle receive a one-time $50 bill credit of their Xplornet Internet on 3G or 4G service. To be eligible for the bundle discount, customer must be in good standing with both Xplornet and Shaw Direct. Customer must be new to Xplornet and activated on or after July 15, 2014 to be eligible. TV and internet. Shaw Direct and Xplornet – Canada's leading rural broadband provider – have come together to help you save more with the Anywhere Bundle. Now, you can enjoy great HD TV and fast, reliable Internet at home, anywhere in Canada <P> File this one under “ Streisand Effect.” It’s a story I wouldn’t be writing if I hadn’t been warned not to. Let’s start with some background: in Canada, we supposedly have Net Neutrality. That means your Internet service provider can’t mess around with the speeds of your connection based on which sites or apps you use. I am in NW SK & I am getting rid of Xplornet tomorrow BEFORE my contract is up in June, paying the damn penalty of 6 mos just so I can use my computer on weekends & evenings again. I hope!! I have experienced almost 3 years of hell with these guys, once telling me it was MY computer at fault. <P> Xplornet, through its two service offerings-fixed wireless and satellite-delivers affordable, high-speed Internet access on a national basis to communities that are un-serviced by other broadband service providers or underserved by dial-up.
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It is a rural internet service provider in Canada.
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what can you carry in hand luggage on easyjet
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<P> Bags that are bigger than the guaranteed size, but are smaller than the maximum size limitation of 56 x 45 x 25 cm may have to be put into the airplane hold, especially on busy flights, but may be permitted to travel with you in the cabin if there is space available. <P> If you’re travelling with infants or children, they have the same luggage allowance as adults: three items of hold luggage per person. There is a charge for each hold item. For example, if a couple with one infant (in other words three passengers), the group can add up to nine hold bags online. <P> Hold luggage. Each item you check-in as hold luggage has to be under a certain size and weight. Its total size has to be under 275cm (to find this out simply add its length + width + height) and a standard weight of 20kg per bag, except for sporting and medical equipment. <P> 1 Each liquid you carry must be in its own container of no more than 100ml (3.4 ounces). 2 All liquids should be carried in a single, transparent, re-sealable plastic bag of up to 20cm x 20cm (8in x 8in) with a total capacity of up to a litre (approximately one quart). <P> You can bring liquids in your cabin baggage as long as: 1 they are stored in containers no bigger than 100ml and; 2 carried in a clear, re-sealable plastic bag with maximum dimensions of 20 x 20cms. <P> Carry-on Allowance. Each EasyJet passenger is allowed one item of cabin baggage. If the baggage is no larger than 50 x 40 x 20 cm then it is guaranteed to travel with you in the cabin. <P> For example, two passengers with a bag each may carry 20kg of luggage each, but if you wish to put 18kg in one bag and 22kg in the other, then that’s okay with us. You’ve just got to remember that you cannot exceed the 40kg total weight allowance without paying additional charges. <P> If your cabin bag is larger than the maximum cabin bag size (56 x 45 x 25cm including handles and wheels) the Bag Drop desk will ask you to check the bag into the aircraft hold and a charge of £30.00 will apply. <P> When passing through airport security screening: 1 Each liquid you carry must be in its own container of no more than 100ml (3.4 ounces). 2 All liquids should be carried in a single, transparent, re-sealable plastic bag of up to 20cm x 20cm (8in x 8in) with a total capacity of up to a litre (approximately one quart). <P> Each passenger who pays for a hold bag can take up to 20kg of luggage. This weight allowance applies to the passenger rather than to the bag so purchasing extra bags is possible but will not increase the weight allowance.
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Carry 20kg of luggage each, but if you wish to put 18kg in one bag and 22kg in the other, then that’s okay with us.
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how far ahead can you make cupcakes for a wedding
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<P> Freezer. Unfrosted, unfilled cupcakes may be stored in the freezer for up to six months before a wedding, but it’s best to only store them one to two months prior to minimize the risk of freezer burn. Bake cupcakes and allow them to cool completely. Even though they take less time than wedding cakes, they’re tedious. After all, you’re not just decorating one, solid wedding cake -- you’re now decorating dozens, if not hundreds, of cupcakes for a single event. You can make cupcakes ahead of time to save yourself from rushing, but how far in advanced depends on a few factors: how they’re stored, decorated and lined <P> 1 week: Assemble a group of helpers and bake, cool, wrap and freeze the cupcakes 2 days: Move the cupcakes from the freezer to a refrigerator to thaw. 1 day: Frost and decorate. Day of wedding: Transport to reception hall and display on tiered cake or cupcake stands. <P> Room Temperature. Cupcakes can be stored at room temperature for up to two days in an airtight container. So, you could bake your cupcakes and store them up to two days before the event. Don’t frost or fill the cupcakes; otherwise you’ll need to store them in the refrigerator to avoid spoilage. Even though they take less time than wedding cakes, they’re tedious. After all, you’re not just decorating one, solid wedding cake -- you’re now decorating dozens, if not hundreds, of cupcakes for a single event. You can make cupcakes ahead of time to save yourself from rushing, but how far in advanced depends on a few factors: how they’re stored, decorated and lined <P> The cupcakes I am making can be made up ahead of time because of the stabilized frosting. Which basically means the ingredients and ratio of them can sit at room temperature without spoiling. I made over 300 cupcakes for my sister-in-laws wedding 2 days before the wedding. Make Ahead Cupcake Tutorial. Here is a helpful recipe if you have multiple parties to go to or just want to make something ahead of time. At the time I had 4 parties to go to, and host a baby shower, all within a matter of days. Each of these I had to bring a dish to pass. <P> This Site Might Help You. RE: How far in advance can you make cupcakes? I'm making cupcakes for my son's first birthday party next Saturday, and I was wondering how far in advance can I make them? Could I make the cupcakes this weekend and freeze them? I could frost them the night before. <P> Back to the holidays! Here is the recipe I used to make a Vanilla cupcake:CUPCAKES:1 Package of vanilla cake mix* (see note below)3 Tablespoons of instant pudding1 1/3 Cup of milk1/2 Cup of vegetable oil4 Eggs1 Teaspoon of vanilla extractPre-heat oven to 350 degrees. Make Ahead Cupcake Tutorial. Here is a helpful recipe if you have multiple parties to go to or just want to make something ahead of time. At the time I had 4 parties to go to, and host a baby shower, all within a matter of days. Each of these I had to bring a dish to pass. <P> 1 3 days before the event, I bake half of the cupcakes and store them in bakery boxes with cupcake inserts. 2 I do not frost them. 3 I use two mixers to speed up the process (if you only have one, find a friend and borrow theirs). 4 2 days before the event, I bake the second half of the cupcakes and store them in bakery boxes. Since I have baked cupcakes for several weddings, I am often asked for advice on how to bake large quanitites of cupcakes from a home kitchen. While there are many ways to do it, here’s my method: 1 4 days before the event, I shop. <P> I usually bake up to 4-5 days in advance. You can put the cake or cupcakes in the freezer. I will take them out and ice them the night before. The cakes stays fresh and it is easier to frost a frozen cake or cupcake. <P> My mom and I are driving from Minneapolis, MN to Madison, WI next weekend to visit my grandpa for Father's Day. A few other relatives are coming too. I am in charge of the celebratory dessert and was hoping to make cupcakes as they are festive and enable portion control (my grandpa is on a diet). The problem is, I need to be able to make the cupcakes two days ahead of time, then drive them 5 hours to my grandparent's house.
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One to two months.
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how many calories in a dill pickle
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<P> How Many Calories in a Dill Pickle. Dill Pickle is prepared using different methods and the calorie content in these differ based on the way it is prepared though the calories in different kinds of Dill Pickles are almost the same. <P> One little slice of a bread & butter pickle or a dill pickle what I have in my refrigerator is 40 calories per pickle. One little pickle is a serving. Most people have … a few pickles on a sandwich they are adding 80 calories. Some of the sweeter pickles are upto 100 calories per slice. 2 people found this useful. <P> One dill pickle spear contains 306 milligrams of sodium, and 1 cup of dill pickle slices contains 1,356 milligrams. Even if you eat just one dill pickle slice, you are still consuming 61 milligrams of sodium, which is quite a bit for one tiny pickle slice. <P> The primary drawback to eating dill pickles is the amount of sodium they contain. The average diet includes 3,400 milligrams of sodium per day, which is far more than the 1,500 to 2,300 milligrams recommended for good health. <P> In fact not just the calories the content of other macronutrients also varies from pickle to pickle. While the calorie content in some kinds of pickles may be nil others may have a good number of calories in each serving. <P> Like any other pickle, Dill pickle is also consumed for taste rather than nutrition. Thus, though less in calories it is not recommended to consume it in large quantity. There is no nutritional value in this pickle, apart from the Vitamin B content that it offers; around 120% Vitamin B is present in Dill Pickle. <P> Dill pickles are low in calories. One dill pickle spear contains just 4 calories, and a 1-cup serving of dill pickle slices contains only 19 calories.
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One dill pickle spear contains just 4 calories, and a 1-cup serving of dill pickle slices contains only 19 calories.
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what is in mineral rock salt
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<P> Halite /ˈhaelaɪt/ , ˈhælaɪt commonly known as rock, salt is a type of, salt the mineral form of sodium (Chloride Na). Cl halite forms isometric. Crystals the mineral is typically colorless or, white but may also be light, blue dark, blue, purple, pink, red, orange yellow or gray depending on the amount and type of. impurities Halite occurs in vast beds of sedimentary evaporite minerals that result from the drying up of enclosed lakes, playas, and seas. Salt beds may be hundreds of meters thick and underlie broad areas. <P> Rock Salt. - Rock Salt may be a synonym of the mineral Halite, but is also used referring to a rock composed of 95 to 99 percent Halite, containing impurities such as the minerals Anhydrite, Gypsum, Dolomite, Quartz, and Pyrite. The Mineral halite. Halite, the natural form of salt, is a very common and well-known mineral. It is found in solid masses, and as a dissolved solution in the oceans and in salt lake s. The inland lakes that are rich in salt exist in arid regions, and may also be below sea level without an outlet. <P> Halite forms isometric crystals. The mineral is typically colorless or white, but may also be light blue, dark blue, purple, pink, red, orange, yellow or gray depending on the amount and type of impurities. It commonly occurs with other evaporite deposit minerals such as several of the sulfates, halides, and borates. Halite occurs in vast beds of sedimentary evaporite minerals that result from the drying up of enclosed lakes, playas, and seas. Salt beds may be hundreds of meters thick and underlie broad areas. <P> Halite /ˈhaelaɪt/ , ˈhælaɪt commonly known as rock, salt is a type of, salt the mineral form of sodium (Chloride Na). cl Halite occurs in vast beds of sedimentary evaporite minerals that result from the drying up of enclosed lakes, playas, and seas. Salt beds may be hundreds of meters thick and underlie broad areas. <P> Rock salt is the key ingredient in the 'grit' which keeps our road network moving despite ice and snow. Rock salt is composed of the mineral halite (sodium chloride) and occurs in thick beds, deep beneath parts of Cheshire, Yorkshire and Northern Ireland. The UK has large resources of rock salt in the ground that are sufficient to last for hundreds of years. <P> Common salt is a mineral composed primarily of sodium chloride (NaCl), a chemical compound belonging to the larger class of salts; salt in its natural form as a crystalline mineral is known as rock salt or halite. Salt is present in vast quantities in seawater, where it is the main mineral constituent; the open ocean has about 35 grams (1.2 oz) of solids per litre, a salinity of 3.5%. Salt is essential for animal life, and saltiness is one of the basic human tastes. <P> A good example of a simple mineral is table salt (Yes, salt is a mineral.). The proper mineral name for table salt is halite, and a geologist will often identify it by tasting it. Salt is composed of two elements; Sodium (Na) and Chlorine (Cl). Sodium and chlorine are strongly attracted to each other and stack together into a cubic crystal structure (see figure). <P> Halite is the mineral name for the substance that everyone knows as salt. Its chemical name is sodium chloride and a rock composed primarily of halite is known as rock salt. Halite is mainly a sedimentary mineral that usually forms in arid climates where ocean water evaporates. <P> Halite /ˈhaelaɪt/ , ˈhælaɪt commonly known as rock, salt is a type of, salt the mineral form of sodium (Chloride Na). Cl halite forms isometric. crystals Halite occurs in vast beds of sedimentary evaporite minerals that result from the drying up of enclosed lakes, playas, and seas. Salt beds may be hundreds of meters thick and underlie broad areas.
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Form of sodium (Chloride Na).
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what kind of bears are in india
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<P> Like all other animals, the origin of bears is also from the Northern Hemisphere. In India three species of bears are found, The Himalayan Black Bear, The Brown Bear and The Sloth Bear. Bears can easily be recognized by their heavy body, thick coat of hair, protruding lips and lumbering gait. Bear’s have very good sense of smell which in a way overcomes the handicap of poor hearing and sight. Himalayan Black Bear is a large yet compact of all three bear species found in India. It can reach a length of 5-6 ft and when standing it can be a formidable sight and foe to tackle with. It has a smooth black shining coat than the sloth bear and has a distinct V shaped mark on the breas <P> The government of India has banned use of sloth bears for entertainment, and a 'Sloth Bear Welfare Project' in the country has the objective of putting an end to the use of sloth bears for entertainment. However, their number in such activity is still large. The breeding season for sloth bears varies according to location: in India, they mate in April, May, and June, and give birth in December and early January, while in Sri Lanka, it occurs all year. Sows gestate for 210 days, and typically give birth in caves or in shelters under boulders. <P> The sloth bear (Melursus ursinus), also known as the Stickney bear or labiated bear, is a nocturnal insectivorous bear species found wild within the Indian Subcontinent. The breeding season for sloth bears varies according to location: in India, they mate in April, May, and June, and give birth in December and early January, while in Sri Lanka, it occurs all year. Sows gestate for 210 days, and typically give birth in caves or in shelters under boulders. <P> Relevance. Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: There are 8 species in the bear family, Ursidae-the polar bear, the brown bear, the American black bear, the Asiatic black bear (also called the moon bear), the spectacled bear, the sun bear, the sloth bear, and the giant panda. The koala is not a bear, it's a marsupial <P> Asian black bears are black and have a light brown muzzle. They are white on the chin, and have a distinct white patch on the chest, which sometimes has the shape of a V. Their ears are bell shaped, proportionately longer than those of other bears, and stick out sideways from the head. The tail is 11 cm (4.3 in) long. The famed British sportsman known as the Old Shekarry wrote of how a black bear he shot in India probably weighed no less than 363 kg (800 lb) based on how many people it took to lift its body. The largest Asian black bear on record allegedly weighed 200 kg (440 lb). Zoo-kept specimens can weigh up to 225 kg (496 lb). <P> The red dot by a link to a web site through the web address, site title, word, or picture, indicates that you are leaving the Portsmouth School District Web Site, and the Portsmouth School District is not responsible for the content of this external site. There are eight types of bears in the world. <P> black bears live in north America and is the most common species of bears. They live in forested areas. They live through out the froests of North America. Brown Bears live in … the froests of North America and now are found in Northern Mexico. Bears live in India. One species that can be found there is the sloth bear. A sloth bear is a nocturnal bear that eats insects.
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The Himalayan Black Bear, Brown Bear and Sloth Bear.
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how long to soft boil chicken egg
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<P> Directions. Place the eggs a large saucepan and cover them with cool tap water. Bring the water to a boil, lower the heat and simmer for 3 minutes. Remove the eggs from the saucepan and immediately place them in a bowl of cold water until they are completely cool. Remove the shells, slice each egg in half lengthwise, sprinkle with salt and pepper and serve. 2010, Ina Garten, All Rights Reserved. <P> For hard-boiled eggs, put the eggs in a pan and cover them with cold water. This way you'll have less of a chance of breaking them. Bring to a boil, put a lid on it and turn off the heat. Let it stand for 10 to 15 minutes. <P> Cook. When I want a soft boiled egg I want the yolk soft and the white firm. The boiling time has a lot to do with your elevation. 5 minutes is perfect for an elevation of 1100 ft (330 meters) if you are nearer sea level decrease the boiling time if at a higher elevation increase the time. <P> Allow three and a half minutes for a medium-sized egg and four minutes for a large egg. The yolk will be runny and the white just set. Cook for a further minute if you like your soft boiled eggs a little firmer. For a hard-boiled egg, start the egg in cold water and bring up to the boil. Once the water is gently boiling, set the timer for between 7-10 minutes depending on how well cooked you like your eggs. <P> Simmer the eggs for 4 minutes for soft-boiled eggs. For semi-firm yolks and hard whites, simmer for 5 minutes. For hard-boiled eggs, simmer for 8 minutes. Use a slotted spoon to remove the egg from the water.
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5 minutes
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cost of b.c. long term care
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<P> The cost of long term care can vary greatly by state and vary greatly by your location within that state. We have compiled nationwide cost data for you to use as a guide to gauge long term care costs in your area. <P> Medicare may pay some long-term care costs. Medicare is a federal program that pays for health care for people over age 65 and for people under age 65 with disabilities. If you meet all the necessary requirements for Medicare, it will cover up to 100 days of skilled care in a nursing home, per benefit period. To claim a tax deduction for long-term care premium payments, your out-of-pocket medical expenses, including premiums, must be more than 10 percent (7.5 percent for people 65 and older) of your adjusted gross income. <P> Costs of Care. Some average costs for long-term care in the United States (in 2010) were: 1 $205 per day or $6,235 per month for a semi-private room in a nursing home. 2 $229 per day or $6,965 per month for a private room in a nursing home. The cost of long-term care depends on the type and duration of care you need, the provider you use, and where you live. Costs can be affected by certain factors, such as: 1 Time of day. <P> A long-term care insurance policy typically pays from $50 to $250 per day for nursing home care. To find out how much coverage you might need, call local nursing homes, home health care agencies, and adult day care centers in your area and ask about their cost for daily care. To claim a tax deduction for long-term care premium payments, your out-of-pocket medical expenses, including premiums, must be more than 10 percent (7.5 percent for people 65 and older) of your adjusted gross income. <P> How Much Does Long Term Care Cost? The cost of long term care varies greatly, depending on the type of care, the place provided, and the region where you receive your care. For instance, the average hourly cost of home care ranges from $15 per hour in Montgomery, Alabama, to $24 per hour in Hartford, Connecticut. Nursing home care costs vary from $148 per day in Shreveport, Louisiana, to $462 in New York City for a semiprivate room <P> Long term care can be expensive, and at least 70% of people over 65 will need long term care services and support at some point in their lives. 1 Having a plan for long term care can help you find practical and affordable ways to help pay the high costs of long term care services. <P> Medicare might pay some long-term care costs. Medicare is a federal program that pays for health care for people over age 65 and for people under age 65 with disabilities. If you meet all the necessary requirements for Medicare, it will cover up to 100 days of skilled care in a nursing home, per benefit period. You can get long-term care at home or in a hospice, adult day care center, nursing home, or assisted living center. Read the Texas Department of Insurance's Shoppers Guide to Long-Term Care Insurance for more information about long-term care. <P> Use the tool below to access the 2014 New York Life Cost of Long-Term Care Services information by major metropolitan areas*. The tool displays the average costs for nursing homes, assisted living facilities and home care services in the selected area. <P> For 2015, the maximum monthly rate for a client receiving long-term residential care services is $3,157.50 per month. For more general information on the costs of publicly subsidized home and community care services in B.C., please see: Is there a cost for long-term residential care services? If you receive publicly subsidized long-term residential care services, you will pay a monthly rate of up to 80 per cent of your after tax income towards the cost of housing and hospitality services, subject to a minimum and maximum monthly rate.
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$3,157.50 per month.
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what is the average cost to lay brick
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<P> The above basic price is just straight lay brick. If you are doing columns, that's a big adjustment up, and there's a big list of extras. As a rule, I figure $7/sf for brick when building a home, which translates to $1/brick for modular size and $9/sf for brick on a commercial project, $1.30/brick for modular size. Gotta add to this, even if it is specific to Georgia, as I think our costs are probably 90% of the national average, so add 10% and then adjust for your costs relative to the national average...or something like that :-). <P> Do you need to know the average cost to install Brick Walls in your zip code? Do you need an easy-to-understand 2015 estimate of Brick Wall job options and costs? Get pricing INSTANTLY. Enter your options and zip code above-then select Update. <P> Here, brick is $225 to $300 a thousand, depending on what you pick out, and I estimate modular brick at 7 brick per sq ft which includes waste. Then you gotta add in the sand-maybe $225 for 12 yds delivered, ~1 yd per 1000 brick and $7 a bag for mortar. I think it's 7 bags per 1000 bricks. <P> 1 Bricks that are larger than the traditional brick can cost upwards of $900 per 1,000 bricks. 2 On a forum thread on the website GarageJournal.com, users claimed that you should be prepared to pay around $0.46 to $1 per brick or block. 3 One contractor in particular charged $450 per 1,000. <P> Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Basic Veneer Brick Wall Installation project. For a basic 120 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Install a Basic Veneer Brick Wall ranges between $17.17 - $23.58 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1. <P> Pavers will come in at a similar cost to brick and natural flagstone will be more expensive. Low End-simple running bond pattern (approximately $12 per square foot). High End-intricate pattern requiring many cuts (approximately $22 per square foot). National Price Ranges for Brick. Find out the average price per square foot for brick paving. When having any type of paving installed you can expect to pay for two elements: materials and labor. In the case of a brick patio the materials you will need include bricks, edging, gravel and sand (or concrete and mortar). <P> Excluding the 'additional items', most brick masons for straight running bond brick is about $650 to $750 per thousand for the good masons in Southeast/Central Virginia. English bond is a little bit more, and Flemish bond is about $1.10 to $1.25/brick. Our brick layers just finished our house. They charged us $350 per 1000 bricks layed. That included the double roll outs around the windows, 1 column in the back of the house, keystons over all windows, soliders around the top perimeter of the house, quoins, 5 steps and 14ft arched opening. <P> 1 Bricklayers often charge per brick. 2 The charge per brick averages about $1.00, but can range from $.90 to $1.10, depending on the job and location. 3 For some jobs, the cost per brick can be much higher. 4 It takes 49 bricks to cover 1 square metre of wall. <P> Cost of Materials. The cost of adding a new wall to a home depends on the material used. Brick walls are often an affordable option, and a hollow brick wall costs around $25.40 per square foot. Hollow bricks feature a unique design with a durable shell and a hollow space in the center of each brick. <P> Everything depends on the state your in. 1.80 per brick avg. Gotta add to this, even if it is specific to Georgia, as I think our costs are probably 90% of the national average, so add 10% and then adjust for your costs relative to the national average...or something like that :-). Bricks usually cost me $225 to $450 per thousand
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$7/sf for brick when building a home, which translates to $1/brick for modular size and $9/sf for brick on a commercial project, $1.30/brick for modular size.
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how long does a consumer proposal affect your credit
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<P> 1 R5 – Your payments are 120 days late. 2 R6 – Typically not used. 3 R7 – You are in a consumer proposal, consolidation order, or debt management plan (offered through a non-profit credit counselor). 4 R8 – It is used to show that a secured creditor has taken steps to realize on their security (e.g. repossessed your car). Here are their meanings: 1 R1 – You pay that creditor’s loan on time. 2 R2 – Your payments are 30 days late. 3 R3 – Your payments are 60 days late. 4 R4 – Your payments are 9 <P> I am often asked how long a bankruptcy or consumer proposal remains on a credit report. In Canada there are two large credit reporting agencies, or credit bureaus, Equifax and Trans Union, and they each report bankruptcies and proposals differently. 1 If you have bad credit today, bankruptcy or a consumer proposal can be a step in repairing your credit history because it eliminates debt you may otherwise not be able to pay. 2 Even if you think you have good credit, your ability to obtain a new loan may be negatively affected if you carry too much debt. <P> Getting started on the road to financial recovery means making the first call for debt help. Understand more about how a consumer proposal is the first step in improving your credit by reading our article A Clean Credit Report Does Not Equal A Good Credit Report. If you are struggling with too much debt, call us today at 1-866-747-0660 or email us for a free debt evaluation. <P> The largest credit bureau in Canada, Equifax, maintains this record on your credit report for a period from the date of your discharge or last payment: 1 A consumer proposal for three years after your last payment. 2 A bankruptcy for six years from the date of your discharge. 3 A second bankruptcy for 14 years. <P> On your credit report in Canada, each creditor assigns you a credit score on a scale from 1 to 9. R1 is the best credit rating and R9 is the worst. Here are their meanings: 1 R1 – You pay that creditor’s loan on time. 2 R2 – Your payments are 30 days late. 3 R3 – Your payments are 60 days late. 4 R4 – Your payments are 90 days late. 5 R5 – Your payments are 120 days late. 6 R6 – Typically not used <P> This document is then filed with the government and your credit record will be updated. The consumer proposal will stay on your record for three more years from the date your proposal is completed. So, that means that if you do a three year proposal, it will be on your record for six years in total. Your credit score is important, but it is not the only criteria lenders use to determine whether you are eligible to obtain credit. <P> When you file your consumer proposal the credit bureau will be notified. At this time, the consumer proposal information will be entered on your credit report in the public information section. Your credit rating will be updated to either an R7 or R9 depending on the credit bureau. So, that means that if you do a three year proposal, it will be on your record for six years in total. Your credit score is important, but it is not the only criteria lenders use to determine whether you are eligible to obtain credit. <P> How long will a Consumer Proposal or Bankruptcy stay on my credit record? In Ontario, a Consumer Proposal stays on your credit record for three years after it is completed, and a Bankruptcy (if it is your first Bankruptcy) stays on your credit record for up to seven years after it is completed. <P> How long does a Consumer Proposal stay on a credit report? Shortly after (generally less than 30 days) you enter into a consumer proposal, it will start reporting on both Equifax and TransUnion credit reports. You will be making payments in a consumer proposal generally between 3 to 5 years depending on what agreement has been arranged with your creditors. How long the Consumer Proposal will stay on your credit report is answered in the graph below. In short, a Consumer Proposal will stay on your credit report for 3 years from the date you are discharged (made your last payment) regardless if you are looking at your Equifax or TransUnion report. The consumer proposal will still show up on the credit report longer but that doesn’t have to stop you from getting approved for the best interest rates, reduced fees, and fewer headaches the next time you apply for credit. The key is to rebuild your credit fast and properly or it may never improve.
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Three year
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cost of brake replacement
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<P> The average cost of master cylinder repair is usually between $200 and $300, but it can be more, again, depending on the scope of the fix. If individual wheel cylinders need to be replaced, the cost will go up. The repair price for an entire brake job—rotors, calipers, drums, pads, cylinders—can run you $750 or more. Therefore, it's best to stay on top of brake repair and get the pads replaced when you hear squeaking. Components like master cylinders wear down after time, so eventually it will have to be replaced <P> 1 CostHelper readers who bought the needed replacement parts and then paid a mobile mechanic or one at a local shop or gas station to install them report total costs of $80-$430, for an average of $251. 1 Edmunds provides do-it-yourself instructions for replacing brake pads, calling it an easier-than-expected DIY project that requires standard tools and takes about an hour, for a savings of about $250 in labor costs on most cars. <P> Parts: $82 - $141. The average cost for a brake pad(s) replacement is between $179 to $264. Labor costs are estimated between $97 to $123 while parts are priced between $82 to $141. Get a personalized estimate based on your location and specific car. Estimate does not include taxes and fees. The brake rotors should be inspected when the pads are replaced, and depending on their condition, they may need resurfacing or replacement. We recommend braking gently for the first 40 to 50 miles of driving on new pads. <P> 1 CostHelper readers report paying $23-$285 for an average of $104 for materials for brakes on one axle, and $135-$439 for all parts for both front and back brakes, for an average of $304. 1 Edmunds provides do-it-yourself instructions for replacing brake pads, calling it an easier-than-expected DIY project that requires standard tools and takes about an hour, for a savings of about $250 in labor costs on most cars. <P> 1 For work on front and back brakes, CostHelper readers reported paying $273-$1,025 for an average of $567 at standard repair shops, or $280-$935 for an average of $578 at dealerships. 1 Edmunds provides do-it-yourself instructions for replacing brake pads, calling it an easier-than-expected DIY project that requires standard tools and takes about an hour, for a savings of about $250 in labor costs on most cars. <P> If you wish to replace the discs on the front an average price for a set of brake pads is approximately $60.00 - $111.00 but depending on the make and model of your car it could cost a lot more than that. Brake Discs and Calipers. Always keep in mind that not only does the price vary according to the make and model of your vehicle, but also where you purchase the replacement brake parts. Always shop around, unless you are taking your car to the mechanic for replacement parts. <P> The caliper presses the brake pad against the brake rotor, causing friction that slows down the car. During normal usage of the brakes, brake pads wear out and become thinner. If the thickness of brake pads is less than 3mm, it is time to change the pads. Depending on where you drive (city driving tends to wear pads out quicker) brake pads usually last between 30,000-35,000 miles. Some vehicles (eg. BMW’s) are equipped with a low-pad-warning system. In these vehicles, you will also need to replace the brake sensors as part of the brake pad service. How It's Done: 1 Inspect brake pads. 2 Install new pads if thickness is less than 3mm. 3 Inspect: rotors, calipers, hoses, and brake fluid condition. 4 Perform a basic safety inspection. <P> Mr Clutch can replace the brakes on any make or model of vehicle and holds stock on the widest possible selection of brakes, regardless of shape and size. So, if your brakes need replacing, we should be able to do it that very day. We operate a Fixed Price Brake Replacement Schedule based on your engine size.
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A brake pad(s) replacement is between $179 to $264.
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how much more will i pay in taxes if I withdrawal my ira
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<P> The IRS charges a penalty for taking early distributions. If you withdraw funds from a traditional IRA before reaching age 59 1/2, you are typically required to pay an additional 10 percent penalty on the distribution amount, in addition to the income taxes. Under certain circumstances, the penalty portion of the tax may be waived <P> Once you reach age 59½, you can withdraw money without a 10% penalty from any type of IRA. If it's a Roth IRA, you won't owe any income tax. If it's not you will. If the money is deposited in a traditional IRA, SEP IRA, Simple IRA or SARSEP IRA you will owe taxes at your current tax rate on the amount you take out. For example, if you are in the 15% tax bracket, your withdrawal will be taxed at 15%. The purpose of the withdrawal. Sometimes the answer is zero (you owe no taxes). In other cases, you owe income tax on the money and sometimes an additional penalty if you withdraw funds before age 59½. On the other hand, after a certain age, you may be required to withdraw money and pay taxes on it. <P> With a traditional IRA, each withdrawal is taxed as ordinary income. For example, if you are in the 15 percent tax bracket and you take a withdrawal of $10,000 during the tax year, you will owe $1,500 in federal income tax. If your state has a state income tax, you will pay those taxes as well. . If you withdraw funds from a traditional IRA before reaching age 59 1/2, you are typically required to pay an additional 10 percent penalty on the distribution amount, in addition to the income taxes. <P> You've already paid tax on all your contributions, and therefore you may remove the entire value of your contributions without paying tax again. For example, if you contributed $5,000 to a Roth IRA that is now worth $6,000, you may take up to $5,000 early and not pay tax or penalties. If you withdraw more than $5,000 -- that is, if you withdraw part of the earnings, that amount counts as taxable income. When you take an early IRA distribution, the taxable portion of the distribution gets added to your other taxable income. For example, if the IRA distribution puts you in the 15 percent tax bracket, you'll pay 15 percent in income taxes. If you're in a higher income tax bracket, you'll pay a higher rat <P> Taking withdrawals from an IRA before you're retired is something you should do only as a last resort. There are a few reasons why. If you withdraw money from a traditional IRA before you turn 59 ½, you must pay a 10% tax penalty (with a few exceptions), in addition to regular income taxes. Plus, the IRA withdrawal would be taxed as regular income, and could possibly propel you into a higher tax bracket, costing you even more. <P> Ultimate guide to retirement. Your withdrawals from a Roth IRA are tax free as long as you are 59 ½ or older and your account is at least five years old. Withdrawals from traditional IRAs are taxed as regular income, based on your tax bracket for the year in which you make the withdrawal. <P> Whenever you take money from a traditional IRA, you have to pay taxes at your ordinary, or marginal, income tax rate. If you withdraw money from your traditional IRA before you reach age 59 1/2, you must pay an additional 10 percent penalty on the amount. You must also pay income tax and penalties on distributions of earnings you take before age 59 1/2 from a Roth that has not been open for at least five years. Calculating the tax liability before you make the withdrawal is good practice <P> Taxes and Penalties. If your retirement account has a balance of $50,000 -- which is less than the national average of $75,000 for 401(k) accounts, as reported by Fidelity -- expect to lose $10,000 in mandatory tax withholding before you even see the check. <P> Tax Laws and 401k Plans. The IRS is pretty clear about taxes and 401k plans: If you withdraw money or cash out your 401k, you will pay taxes on it. How much really depends on your individual circumstances. For starters, everyone is in a tax bracket.
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Before reach age 59 1/2, must pay 10 percent penalty
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what is psychological egoism business ethics
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<P> 1 Ethical egoism does not claim that all persons, in fact, seek their own self-interest; ethical egoism only claims that we should or ought seek our self-interest, even though all persons might not do so. 2 If ethical egoism is to be regarded as a theory, it must be universalized to hold for all persons. 1 In science, a purported law only needs one disconfirming instance to disprove it. 2 Psychological egoism makes no claim as to how one should act. 3 That all persons seek their self-interest on this theory is a purported fact, and this belief is viewed by the psychological egoist as nonmoral and verifiable. <P> Egoism is a teleological theory of ethics that sets as its goal the benefit, pleasure, or greatest good of the oneself alone. It is contrasted with altruism, which is not strictly self-interested, but includes in its goal the interests of others as well. There are at least three different ways in which the theory of egoism can be presented: Psychological Egoism— This is the claim that humans by nature are motivated only by self-interest. <P> Egoism can be a descriptive or a normative position. Psychological egoism, the most famous descriptive position, claims that each person has but one ultimate aim: her own welfare. Normative forms of egoism make claims about what one ought to do, rather than describe what one does do. <P> The distinction between psychological egoism and ethical egoism reflects the contrast of is verses ought, fact verses value, or descriptive verses prescriptive.. 1 Psychological egoism is the empirical doctrine that the determining motive of every voluntary action is a desire for one's own welfare. 1 In science, a purported law only needs one disconfirming instance to disprove it. 2 Psychological egoism makes no claim as to how one should act. 3 That all persons seek their self-interest on this theory is a purported fact, and this belief is viewed by the psychological egoist as nonmoral and verifiable. <P> Ethical egoism is the normative ethical position that moral agents ought to do what is in their own self-interest. It differs from psychological egoism, which claims that people can only act in their self-interest. Ethical egoism also differs from rational egoism, which holds that it is rational to act in one's self-interest. Ethical egoism holds that actions whose consequences will benefit the doer can be considered ethical <P> Moral System: Ethical Egoism. Ought to do what in own self-interest. Ethical Egoism The Basic Good is one’s own interests. Rule-everyone should act in ways that are in their own interest. Types of Ethical Egoism Individual-all people should do whatever benefits them. Personal-should act in his or her own self-interest. <P> Ethical Egoism— This is the claim that individuals should always to act in their own best interest. It is a normative claim. If ethical egoism is true, that appears to imply that psychological egoism is false: there would be no point to saying that we ought to do what we must do by nature. It is contrasted with altruism, which is not strictly self-interested, but includes in its goal the interests of others as well. There are at least three different ways in which the theory of egoism can be presented: Psychological Egoism— This is the claim that humans by nature are motivated only by self-interest. <P> Psychological egoism suggests that all behaviors are motivated by self-interest. In other words, it suggests that every action or behavior or decision of every person is motivated by self interest. It also suggests that every action must be motivated by self interest. <P> Varieties of Egoism. Egoism is a teleological theory of ethics that sets as its goal the benefit, pleasure, or greatest good of the oneself alone. It is contrasted with altruism, which is not strictly self-interested, but includes in its goal the interests of others as well. There are at least three different ways in which the theory of egoism can be presented: Psychological Egoism— This is the claim that humans by nature are motivated only by self-interest. Any act, no matter how altruistic it might seem, is actually motivated by some selfish desire of the agent (e.g., desire for reward, avoidance of guilt, personal happiness)
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The distinction between psychological egoism and ethical egoism reflects the contrast of is verses ought, fact verses value, or descriptive verses prescriptive.
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what is the primary function of the epithalamus
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<P> Of the three sections that make up the diecephalon, the epithalamus is the dorsal, or farthest to the rear. In terms of function, the epithalamus is responsible for connecting the lymbic system to the rest of the brain, as well as regulating hormones secreted by the pineal gland. Looking at a side view of the human brain, the epithalamus is located just above the medulla oblongata and the pituitary gland. <P> The epithalamus is a (dorsal) posterior segment of the diencephalon. The diencephalon is a part of the forebrain that also contains the thalamus, the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. The epithalamus includes the habenula and their interconnecting fibers the habenular commissure, the stria medullaris and the pineal gland. <P> The diencephalon, along with the telencephalon (cerebrum) comprise the two major divisions of prosencephalon (forebrain). Main structures of the diencephalon include the hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus (including the pineal gland), and subthalamus. The diencephalon relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system. <P> As a regulator of sensory information, the thalamus also controls sleep and awake states of consciousness. Function: The thalamus is involved in several functions of the body including: 1 Motor Control. 2 Receives Auditory, Somatosensory and Visual Sensory Signals. 3 Relays Sensory Signals to the Cerebral Cortex. By Regina Bailey. Thalamus: The thalamus is a large, dual lobed mass of grey matter buried under the cerebral cortex. It is involved in sensory perception and regulation of motor functions. The thalamus is a limbic system structure and it connects areas of the cerebral cortex that are involved in sensory perception and movement with other parts of the brain and spinal cord that also have a role in sensation and movement <P> By Dr Ananya Mandal, MD. The thalamus is a small structure within the brain located just above the brain stem between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve connections to both. The main function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex. <P> Merge this question into. Split and merge into it. Answer by Christine Hiegel. Confidence votes 18. its main function is to house the pineal gland (part of the endocrine system), which secretes melatonin. it also contains the choroid plexus of the third ventricle in the brain which forms cerebral spinal fluid. For example, the function of a hammer is to strike something nearby whereas its purpose (what to strike and why) could be anything the hammer-wielder has in mind. 2. <P> They are defined by their locations, functions, and anatomy. The thalamus is a structure in the middle of the brain. It is located between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain. It works to correlate several important processes, including consciousness, sleep, and sensory interpretation. <P> The epithalamus comprises the habenular trigone, the pineal gland, and the habenular commissure. It is wired with the limbic system and basal ganglia. Species that possess a photoreceptive parapineal organ show asymmetry in the epithalmus at the habenula, to the left (dorsal). The epithalamus includes the habenula and their interconnecting fibers the habenular commissure, the stria medullaris and the pineal gland.
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The habenula and their interconnecting fibers the habenular commissure, the stria medullaris and the pineal gland.
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meaning and origin of the name grace
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<P> American Meaning: The name Grace is an American baby name. In American the meaning of the name Grace is: Grace. English Meaning: The name Grace is an English baby name. In English the meaning of the name Grace is: From the word 'grace', derived from the Latin 'gratia', meaning God's favor. Famous bearer: American actress Grace Kelly became Princess Grace of Monaco. Irish Meaning: <P> Additional information: Grace is a feminine English name derived from the Latin gratia, meaning ‘gracious’. Originally a virtue name created by the Puritans, the name Grace has a lot more modernity than names such as Clemency and Illumination – other more modern virtue names are Faith, Verity, and Amity. <P> Grace /gra-ce/ [1 syll.] as a girls' name is pronounced grayce. It is of Latin origin, and the meaning of Grace is favor; blessing . A virtue name referring to God 's grace. Greek mythology: the Three Graces were goddesses of nature: Aglaia (brillance), Thalia (flowering), and Euphrosyne (joy). Actress and princess Grace Kelly; singer Grace Jones; choreographer Graciela Daniele. <P> From the English word grace, which ultimately derives from Latin gratia. This was one of the virtue names created in the 17th century by the Puritans. The actress Grace Kelly (1929-1982) was a famous bearer. <P> The name Grace stems from Latin gratia meaning pleasing quality, favor, or thanks.. In Christian theology, grace is the unconditional love of God toward all people. The Puritans utilized this meaning and popularized the term grace in the 17th century. The Gaelic form of Grace is Grainne. <P> About the name Grace. The meaning of the name Grace: Charm. The origin of the name Grace: Latin. Alternate spellings: Gracia. People who like the name Grace also like: Ava, Olivia, Emma, Sophia, Charlotte, Isabella, Ella. Noah, Liam, Ethan, Benjamin, Jacob, Jack, Jackson. Notes: Grace is a name with Latin origins. The meaning of the name Grace is charm. It was first created as a reference to the “grace of God.” Alternate spellings of the name Grace include Grace, Grayse, Gracia, and Graciella. Common nicknames of the name Grace include Gracie, Gray,and Gigi. Famous Graces include actress Grace Kelly, Princess of Monaco. <P> Origin of the name Gracie: Inspired by grace (eloquence or beauty of form, kindness, mercy, favor), which is derived from the Latin gratia (favor, thanks). The name was made popular by 17th-century Puritans, who bestowed it in reference to God's favor and love toward mankind. <P> Origin of the name Grace: Inspired by grace (eloquence or beauty of form, kindness, mercy, favor), which is derived from the Latin gratia (favor, thanks). The name was made popular by 17th-century Puritans, who bestowed it in reference to God's favor and love toward mankind. From A World of Baby Names by Teresa Norman. Meanings and history of the name Grace : | Edit. Meanings of the name Grace. Latin: Grace. American: Grace. English: God's Favor. Fact: From the word 'grace', derived from the Latin 'gratia', meaning God's favor. <P> English name. In English, the name Grace means-From the word grace, derived from the Latin gratia, meaning Gods favor. Famous bearer: American actress Grace Kelly became Princess Grace of Monaco.. Other origins for the name Grace include-English, Latin-American, Irish.The name Grace is most often used as a girl name or female name. English Name Meaning-From the word grace, derived from the Latin gratia, meaning Gods favor. Famous bearer: American actress Grace Kelly became Princess Grace of Monaco
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Meanings of the name Grace in American is Grace and in English is God's Favor.Origin of the name Grace: Inspired by grace ), which is derived from the Latin gratia.
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what is in aluminium
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<P> Definition of the Aluminium Element. Aluminium is a silvery-white, ductile metallic element, the most abundant in the earth's crust but found only in combination, chiefly in bauxite. Aluminum occurs naturally in many foods in low concentrations and is also present in many pharmaceuticals and drinking water. <P> Full Definition of ALUMINUM. : a bluish silver-white malleable ductile light trivalent metallic element that has good electrical and thermal conductivity, high reflectivity, and resistance to oxidation and is the most abundant metal in the earth's crust where it always occurs in combination — see element table. <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. Aluminium is aluminum, a recyclable metal that is lightweight, strong, and conductive. It is inexpensive and will not rust, nor will this natural resource ever run out because to some extent, the earth's crust is made of it. <P> Aluminium (or aluminum; see different endings) is a chemical element in the boron group with symbol Al and atomic number 13. It is a silvery-white, soft, nonmagnetic, ductile metal. Aluminium is the third most abundant element (after oxygen and silicon) in the Earth 's crust, and the most abundant metal there. It makes up about 8% by mass of the crust, though it is less common in the mantle below. <P> Although aluminum is the most abundant metal in the earth's crust, it is never found free in nature. All of the earth's aluminum has combined with other elements to form compounds. Two of the most common compounds are alum, such as potassium aluminum sulfate (KAl(SO 4) 2 ·12H 2 O), and aluminum oxide (Al 2 O 3). <P> Aluminum is used as a basic metal or as an alloy for utensils, engineering, electrical equipment, cooking foil, and canning; where lightness, cheapness, tensile strength o … r conductivity are factors in design. Aluminum (aluminium) is used in a variety of industrial, structural, and consumer applications. <P> Aluminum is the second most abundant metallic element in the Earth's crust after silicon, yet it is a comparatively new industrial metal that has been produced in commercial quantities for just over 100 years.
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Aluminium (or aluminum; see different endings) is a chemical element in the boron group with symbol Al and atomic number 13.
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how long does it take for a cat to have kittens
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<P> Later Stages of Gestation. Your cat will gain weight as her kittens develop. You can expect to see a weight gain of two to three pounds by the time the kittens are born. During this time, you will want to make sure she is getting a good diet and plenty of fresh water. <P> As birth nears, your cat will refuse to eat. As labor begins, she may vomit or cry out. Fortunately, labor is not a prolonged event. The final kitten should be delivered within six hours from the start of labor, and this time estimate may be even shorter if she has fewer kittens. <P> It can take a cat up to 24 hours to have kittens but it usually doesn't take that long. Usually the kittens will come within about one hour of each other or less. <P> Gestation or the length of pregnancy of a cat averages 64 days. It is generally between 62 and 67 days or about 9-10 weeks. You might notice subtle indications of pregnancy after the first 3 weeks. The cat’s nipples will begin to swell and their color will change from white to a rosy pink. <P> The gestation period is anywhere from 61-65 days. From the time they start giving birth, it can take up to 24 hours for her to have them all. Mine just had kittens, and she usually takes anywhere from half hour to 2 hours between kittens. Give her time, and make sure she is comfortable. <P> A cat's pregnancy typically lasts 65 days, though it can take as few as 63 or as many as 71 days in some cases, according to WebMD. During her pregnancy, your little girl becomes more docile than usual, and she won't go into heat. <P> How long does pregnancy last and how many kittens will by cat have are two of the most common questions cat owners have. The regular gestation period for cats is between 58 and 65 days, or approximately 9 weeks. A queen (pregnant cat) may have anywhere from 1 to 8 kittens at a time. The average being 2 to 5 kittens.
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58 and 65 days
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what color dogs see
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<P> Dogs see colors, but not the same way humans do. People can see variations of violet, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. Dogs can only see blue, violet, yellow and some shades of gray. <P> Dogs do in fact see in color, as shown by the fact that a dog's eye contains both rods (which we associate with B/W vision) and cones (which differentiate between colors). While humans' cones are attached to neurons that react to light at 435nm, 545nm and 570nm, a dog's cones react at 429nm and 555nm. <P> Dogs can see violet, indigo, blue, and yellow. They are very good at telling the difference between violet, indigo, and blue. A blue-green color is the color white to dogs. mostly dogs can see rich colors that are in older paintings. they see brighter coulers but green. <P> Dogs have just one-tenth the concentration of color-capturing cones in the back of their eyes that humans have. So while we enjoy a smorgasbord of tinges and tones, dogs only see two colors: blue-violet and yellow, as well as any blends of these colors. <P> Actually, yes. Dogs do see color (meaning more than just black and white), just a lot fewer than normal humans do. Instead of seeing the colors of the rainbow as violet, blue, … blue-green, green, yellow, orange and red, dogs see it as dark blue, light blue, gray, light yellow, darker yellow, and very dark gray. <P> In other words, dogs see the colors of the world as basically yellow, blue and gray. They see the colors green, yellow and orange as yellowish, and they see violet and blue as blue. Blue-green is seen as a gray. You can see what the spectrum looks like to people and dogs below. One amusing or odd fact is that the most popular colors for dog toys today are red or safety orange (the bright orange red on traffic cones or safety vests). However red is difficult for dogs to see. <P> Dogs do see in color, but their perception of color is not the same as it is for people. They cannot distinguish between red, orange, yellow or green. They can see various shades of blue and can differentiate between closely related shades of gray that are not distinguishable to people.
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various shades of blue and can differentiate between closely related shades of gray
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blood flows into the heart through the upper vena cava to the
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<P> Blood enters the heart through two large veins, the inferior and superior vena cava, emptying oxygen-poor blood from the body into the right atrium. Left Side. Blood leaves the heart through the aortic valve, into the aorta and to the body. This pattern is repeated, causing blood to flow continuously to the heart, lungs and body. <P> Blood from the body flows: 1 to the superior and inferior vena cava, 2 then to the right atrium. 3 through the tricuspid valve. 4 to the right ventricle. 5 through the pulmonic valve. 6 to the pulmonary artery. 7 to the lungs. Blood Flow. All blood enters the right side of the heart through two veins: The superior vena cava (SVC) and the inferior vena cava (IVC) (see figure 3). The SVC collects blood from the upper half of the body. The IVC collects blood from the lower half of the body <P> The oxygen-poor blood from the vena cavae flows into your heart's right atrium and then to the right ventricle. From the right ventricle, the blood is pumped through the pulmonary (PULL-mun-ary) arteries (shown in blue in the center of figure B) to your lungs. The blood enters the left atrium and is pumped into the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the oxygen-rich blood is pumped to the rest of your body through the aorta. The aorta is the main artery that carries oxygen-rich blood to your body. Like all of your organs, your heart needs oxygen-rich blood. <P> This blood flows through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs, where it absorbs oxygen. Oxygen-rich blood returns from the lungs and enters the heart through the left atrium. Blood passes from the left atrium through the mitral valve and into the left ventricle. The left ventricle, the largest and most muscular of the four chambers, is the main pumping chamber of the heart. When the left ventricle contracts, blood is pumped through the aortic valve into the main artery of the body (aorta). <P> De-oxygenated blood enters the right half of the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava. These are major veins collecting oxygen-poor blood from the upper and lower parts of the body, respectively. From the right atrium, the blood flows through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. <P> Blood enters the right atrium, the chamber on the upper right side of the heart. When the blood enters the right atrium, most of it flows through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. Blood then passes into the left ventricle (lower chamber of the heart) and then to the aorta (the large artery coming from the heart). <P> 1 Oxygen-poor blood returns from the body to the heart through the superior vena cava (SVC) and inferior vena cava (IVC), the two main veins that bring blood back to the heart. 2 The oxygen-poor blood enters the right atrium (RA), or the right upper chamber of the heart. 1 The oxygen-poor blood enters the right atrium (RA), or the right upper chamber of the heart. 2 From there, the blood flows through the tricuspid valve (TV) into the right ventricle (RV), or the right low <P> Oxygen-poor blood travels from organs and tissues to the heart through veins. The vena cava is the major vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart. The vena cava superior returns blood from the head, neck, upper extremities, and chest. The vena cava inferior returns blood from the lower extremities, the pelvis, and the abdomen. Blood passes from the left atrium through the mitral valve and into the left ventricle. The left ventricle, the largest and most muscular of the four chambers, is the main pumping chamber of the heart. When the left ventricle contracts, blood is pumped through the aortic valve into the main artery of the body (aorta). <P> 1 Oxygen-rich blood flows from the lungs back into the left atrium (LA), or the left upper chamber of the heart, through four pulmonary veins. 2 Oxygen-rich blood then flows through the mitral valve (MV) into the left ventricle (LV), or the left lower chamber. 1 The oxygen-poor blood enters the right atrium (RA), or the right upper chamber of the heart. 2 From there, the blood flows through the tricuspid valve (TV) into the right ventricle (RV), or the right low
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Right atrium
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how long to hard boil an egg in a thermomix
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<P> Directions. Place eggs in a large saucepan. Cover them with cool water by 1 inch. Slowly bring water to a boil over medium heat; when the water has reached a boil, cover and remove from heat. Let sit 12 minutes. Transfer eggs to a colander; place under cool running water to stop the cooking. Eggs can be peeled and served immediately. <P> Heat the pot on high heat and bring the water to a full rolling boil. Adding a teaspoon of vinegar to the water may help keep egg whites from running out if an egg does crack while cooking. Also some people find adding 1/2 teaspoon of salt to the water helps prevent cracking as well as making the eggs easier to peel. If you are planning to make hard boiled eggs for Easter and want to make sure that the eggs are easy to peel, buy your eggs at least a week ahead of time (two weeks even better, they'll keep). If you need easy-to-peel eggs and you have fresh eggs, you might want to try steaming the eggs for 15 minutes. <P> Medium: Bring a pot of water to a boil over high heat. Reduce the heat to low, then add your eggs and cook 7 to 8 minutes. Drain, cool in ice water and peel. Hard: Place your eggs in a pot and cover with cold water by 1 inch. Bring to a boil over medium-high heat, then cover, remove from the heat and set aside 8 to 10 minutes. Drain, cool in ice water and peel. How to Make Deviled Eggs: Transfer hard-boiled eggs to a bowl of ice water with a slotted spoon and let cool. Drain the ice water. <P> Depending on how cooked you like your hard boiled eggs, the eggs should be done perfectly in 10-12 minutes. That said, depending on your altitude, the shape of the pan, the size of the eggs, the ratio of water to eggs, it can take a few minutes more. If you are planning to make hard boiled eggs for Easter and want to make sure that the eggs are easy to peel, buy your eggs at least a week ahead of time (two weeks even better, they'll keep). If you need easy-to-peel eggs and you have fresh eggs, you might want to try steaming the eggs for 15 minutes. <P> Step 1: Place the Eggs in a Pan of Water and Bring to a Boil. For hard-boiled eggs, put the eggs in a pan and cover them with cold water. This way you'll have less of a chance of breaking them. Bring to a boil, put a lid on it and turn off the heat. Let it stand for 10 to 15 minutes. <P> Cook for a further minute if you like your soft boiled eggs a little firmer. For a hard-boiled egg, start the egg in cold water and bring up to the boil. Once the water is gently boiling, set the timer for between 7-10 minutes depending on how well cooked you like your eggs. The longer you boil the egg, the firmer it will be. Once cooked, plunge the hard-boiled egg into plenty of cold water for one minute. <P> An egg that is at room temperature at the start of the cooking process will require about 1 minute less cooking time than eggs taken directly from the refrigerator. 4. Technique for hard-cooking (boiled) eggs: Choose the right size pot to cook your eggs in: The eggs must not be stacked but be in one (1) layer only. Hard-cooked eggs in the shell can be refrigerated up to one week. Peeled hard boiled eggs can be stored in the refrigerator in a bowl of cold water to cover for about 1 week (change the water daily) - or in a sealed container without water (cover the eggs with damp paper towels) for the same length of time. <P> Older eggs are easier to peel than fresh eggs. If you are planning to make hard boiled eggs for Easter and want to make sure that the eggs are easy to peel, buy your eggs at least a week ahead of time (two weeks even better, they'll keep). If you need easy-to-peel eggs and you have fresh eggs, you might want to try steaming the eggs for 15 minutes. Pour an inch of water into a pot and insert a steamer basket.Bring to a boil. Place the eggs in the steamer basket, cover and steam for 15 minutes (more or less, check!) <P> 1 Stirring the eggs a couple of times while the water is coming to a boil helps center the yolk and ensure even cooking. 2 When you boil the eggs make sure the water is at boiling point. 3 Cook the egg for 12 minutes for a large, 15 minutes for an extra large. <P> Simply pour 500ml of water into the Tmx bowl, place eggs into the basket and insert into bowl (anywhere between 4 and 8 eggs at a time). Cook Varoma, speed 1, 14 minutes – for hard boiled. Or if you would like to eat them straight away as soft boiled eggs reduce the cooking time to 9-12 minutes.
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For 12 minutes for a large, 15 minutes for an extra large.
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what is normal esr reading
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<P> ESR stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate. this is a test that indirectly measures the level of inflammation is in the body. normal readings are. Adults, Westergren method Men under 50 years old-------less than 15 mm/hr. Men over 50 years old-------- less than 20 mm/hr. Women under 50 years old-- less than 20 mm/hr. No an ESR of 48 is high and indicates that there is some sort of inflammation in your body. The normal sedimentation rate (Westergren method) for males is 0-15 millimeters p … er hour, and for females is 0-20 millimeters per hour. <P> A sedimentation rate is common blood test that is used to detect and monitor inflammation in the body. The sedimentation rate is also called the erythrocyte sedimentation rate because it is a measure of the red blood cells (erythrocytes) sedimenting in a tube over a given period of time. Sedimentation rate is often abbreviated as sed rate or ESR. <P> An ESR reading that is below the normal range. An ESR value that is below the normal range is of no great importance. It can however be considered as a sign of different disorders such as polycythemia, sickle cell anemia, serious leukocytosis, and protein anomalies. The ESR blood test normal range values in mm/hr. are given below and categorized according to the gender and age: 1 For men over 50 years, the normal ESR reading is below 20. <P> No an ESR of 48 is high and indicates that there is some sort of inflammation in your body. The normal sedimentation rate (Westergren method) for males is 0-15 millimeters p … er hour, and for females is 0-20 millimeters per hour. ESR stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate. It is a haemotology (blood) test that is used as a basic marker for inflamation. If the ESR is raised, this is an indication tha … t there is some type of inflamation occurring within the body. <P> Normal Results. What is considered a normal ESR blood test result depends on a person's age and gender. For men under 50, the normal result is a result of less than 15 mm per hour. For women in the same age group, the normal result is considered to be less than 20 mm per hour. What is considered normal changes as a person ages. For men over the age of 50, the normal test result is less than 20 mm per hour. <P> An ESR reading that is above the normal range. When the ESR value increases moderately or mildly from the normal range, then it can be considered as a sign of inflammation in the body and the occurrence of varied conditions like anemia, pregnancy, aging, cardiac abnormalities, diabetes, and certain kinds of infections. The ESR blood test normal range values in mm/hr. are given below and categorized according to the gender and age: 1 For men over 50 years, the normal ESR reading is below 20. <P> ESR is an abbreviated form for erythrocyte sedimentation rate. It is often referred to as the sedimentation rate or the sed rate. An ESR blood test is usually done to check and understand the degree of inflammation in the body such as cancers, various kinds of infections as well as autoimmune disorders and diseases. It is a non specific and an easy test which is really cost effective as compared to other blood tests.
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Men under 50: Less than 15mm per hour.
Women under 50: Less than 20mm per hour.
Men over 50: Less than 20mm per hour.
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what does the word girl mean
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<P> Wiktionary (0.00 / 0 votes) Rate this definition: girl (Noun). A young female (in contrast to boy), usually a child or adolescent. Amanda is a girl of 16. girl (Noun). Any woman, regardless of her age. See usage notes. girl (Noun). A female servant; a maid <P> Link to this slang definition. To link to this term in a web page or blog, insert the following. To link to this term in a wiki such as Wikipedia, insert the following. Some wikis use a different format for links, so be sure to check the documentation. <P> From our Multilingual Translation Dictionary. 1 ف 2 اة Arabic. 3 Maedchen Mädchen. 4 german Chica. 5 spanish Fille. 6 french लड़की. 7 hindi Lany. 8 lány Hungarian. 9 ragazza Italian. 10 女の子 Japanese. 11 소녀 Korean. 12 puella Latin. 13 dziewczyna Polish. 14 fată Romanian. 15 девушка Russian. 16 kız Turkish. 女孩 chinese <P> In business and professional offices, the girl or my girl in reference to one's secretary has decreased but not disappeared. Such terms as the girls for a group of women, girl or gal friday for a female assistant, and bachelor girl for an unmarried woman are frequently regarded as offensive. <P> The term ratchet is a noun and adjective. This means pretty much anything or action can be classified as ratchet. Lets narrow it down as far as we can. Ratchet basically means from an adjective perspective; the act of being stupid, reckless, inelegant, disrespectful, rude, and down right nasty. <P> Dakota /dako-ta/ [3 sylls.] as a girls' name (also used less commonly as boys' name Dakota) is pronounced da-KOH-tah. It is of Native American Indian origin, and the meaning of Dakota is friend, ally. Tribal name and American place name: the word may also possibly mean forever smiling. <P> Taylor is a very popular first name for women (#805 out of 4276, Top 19%) and also a very popular surname for all people (#13 out of 150436, Top 1%). (2000 U.S. Census). Shown below is the baby name popularity of Taylor for girls. <P> Dakota is a somewhat popular first name for women (#4077 out of 4276, Top 95%) and also a somewhat popular surname for all people (#82691 out of 150436, Top 55%). (2000 U.S. Census). Charted below is the baby name popularity of Dakota for girls.
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A young female
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what is shibori
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<P> Rather than treating cloth as a two-dimensional surface, with shibori it is given a three-dimensional form by folding, crumpling, stitching, plaiting, or plucking and twisting. Cloth shaped by these methods is secured in a number of ways, such as binding and knotting. The common English translation of the Japanese word shibori is tie-dye; however, a more accurate translation is shaped resist dyeing, which describes the inherent patterning process of manipulating the two-dimensional cloth surface into three-dimensional shapes before compressing them to dye. <P> Shibori is the Japanese word for a variety of ways of embellishing textiles by shaping cloth and securing it before dyeing.The word comes from the verb root shiboru, to wring, squeeze, press.. Although shibori is used to designatc a particular group of resist-dyed textiles, the verb root of the word emphasizes the action performed on cloth, the process of manipulating fabric. The common English translation of the Japanese word shibori is tie-dye; however, a more accurate translation is shaped resist dyeing, which describes the inherent patterning process of manipulating the two-dimensional cloth surface into three-dimensional shapes before compressing them to dye. <P> HERE. Shibori is a Japanese term for methods of dyeing cloth by binding, stitching, folding, twisting, and compressing. In Japan, the earliest known example of cloth dyed with the shibori technique dates back to the 8th century where indigo was the main dye used. We were immediately inspired by this fascinating technique, it’s history and beauty. (Japanese for “storm”) shibori a pole-wrapping technique. The cloth is wrapped on a diagonal around a pole or cylindrical object (we used old PVC and copper piping) and then tightly bound by wrapping thread or wire up and down the pole. Next, the cloth is scrunched down o <P> Shibori is a Japanese term for several methods of dyeing cloth with a pattern by binding, stitching, folding, twisting, compressing it, or capping. Some of these methods are known in the West as tie-dye. <P> Dyeing Fabric-Shibori Techniques By: ApeApe http://www.burdastyle.com/techniques/dyeing-fabric-shibori-techniques Shibori is a method of resist dyeing that includes stitching, clamping and binding techniques.ThisHowto explains stitching techniques to create patterns and shapes, and then how to dye yourfabric. <P> Shibori is just tie dyeing fabrics in different shapes to make different patterns. In Japan, the earliest known example of cloth dyed with a shibori technique dates from the 8th century; it is among the goods donated by the Emperor Shōmu to the Tōdai-ji in Nara. Until the 20th century, not many fabrics and dyes were in widespread use in Japan. The main fabrics were silk and hemp, and later cotton. <P> Although shibori is used to designate a particular group of resist-dyed textiles, the verb root of the word emphasizes the action performed on cloth, the process of manipulating fabric. The common English translation of the Japanese word shibori is tie-dye; however, a more accurate translation is shaped resist dyeing, which describes the inherent patterning process of manipulating the two-dimensional cloth surface into three-dimensional shapes before compressing them to dye. <P> Woven Shibori is a process of weaving and resist that Catharine Ellis developed in the early 1990's and has continued to evelve both technically and artistically. Traditional Japanese shibori uses a variety of means to compress cloth before it is dyed including stitching, binding, folding, pleating, ect. The stitched shibori was the inspiration for woven shibori. In traditional stitched or mokume shibori parallel rows of running stitches are sewn by hand with a needle into a piece of finished cloth. When the stitches are completed they're used to gather the cloth tightly. Then the cloth is dyed. <P> Shibori is the Japanese art of shaped resist dyeing. The fabric is compressed by using wrapping, stitching or folding techniques that create a resist when dyeing the fabric; that is, the “resist” creates areas where the dye is not absorbed into the fabric. <P> Adorable animal families that will make you aww. Shibori is a Japanese technique of creating designs in dyed fabric. It is a dye-resist technique, using items that bind the fabric to create areas where the dye will not penetrate.
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Shibori is a Japanese term for several methods of dyeing cloth with a pattern by binding, stitching, folding, twisting, compressing it, or capping.
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what is lexisnexis law
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<P> Westlaw is one of the primary online legal research services for lawyers and legal professionals in the United States and is a part of West. In addition, it provides proprietary database services. Most legal documents on Westlaw are indexed to the West Key Number System, which is West's master classification system of U.S. law. Westlaw supports natural language and Boolean searches. <P> West's chief competitor in the legal information retrieval market is LexisNexis. Both Westlaw and LexisNexis started in the 1970s as dial-up services with dedicated terminals. The earliest versions used acoustic couplers or key phones; then smaller terminals with internal modems. Most legal documents on Westlaw are indexed to the West Key Number System, which is West's master classification system of U.S. law. Westlaw supports natural language and Boolean searches. <P> Lexis®. An online legal information service that provides the full text of opinions and statutes in electronic format. Subscribers use their personal computers to search the Lexis database for relevant cases. They may download or print the legal information they retrieve. The Lexis service contains major archives of federal and state case law, statutes of all 50 states, state and federal regulations, and public records from major U.S. states. <P> Access Your Reports. LexisNexis Risk Solutions is a leader in providing essential information that helps customers across industries and government predict, assess and manage risk. Combining cutting-edge technology, unique data and advanced scoring analytics, we provide products and services that address evolving needs in the risk sector. Much of the data held by LexisNexis has been collected from public record and publicly-available data sources. We also use proprietary data and information from third-party data sources in compiling our information products. LexisNexis is committed to the responsible use of sensitive consumer information. <P> LexisNexis Group is a corporation providing computer-assisted legal research as well as business research and risk management services. During the 1970s, LexisNexis pioneered the electronic accessibility of legal and journalistic documents. In 2000, LexisNexis purchased RiskWise, a St. Cloud, Minnesota company. In 2002 it acquired a Canadian research database company, Quicklaw. In 2004, Reed Elsevier Group, parent company of LexisNexis, purchased Seisint, Inc, of Boca Raton, Florida. <P> Information resources on Westlaw include more than 40,000 databases of case law, state and federal statutes, administrative codes, newspaper and magazine articles, public records, law journals, law reviews, treatises, legal forms and other information resources. Most legal documents on Westlaw are indexed to the West Key Number System, which is West's master classification system of U.S. law. Westlaw supports natural language and Boolean searches. <P> For companies and government agencies seeking data analytics supporting compliance, customer acquisition, fraud detection, health outcomes, identity solutions, investigation, receivables management, risk decisioning and workflow optimization. <P> Previously, LexisNexis had a stripped-down free version (known as LexisOne) but this has been discontinued and replaced by Lexis Communities, which provides news and blogs across a variety of legal areas. In France, the UK and Australia, LexisNexis publishes books, magazines and journals, both in hard copy and online. In 2000, LexisNexis purchased RiskWise, a St. Cloud, Minnesota company. In 2002 it acquired a Canadian research database company, Quicklaw. In 2004, Reed Elsevier Group, parent company of LexisNexis, purchased Seisint, Inc, of Boca Raton, Florida.
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It is a corporation providing computer-assisted legal research as well as business research and risk management services.
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what is a reclamation bond
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<P> Know Surety Bonds.com. Reclamation Bond-A reclamation bond is a bond that guarantees protection of the public health, safety and welfare, during and after mining operations. It also guarantees restoration of the land to its original condition. Reclamation bonds are usually requested when working on federal land. <P> The reclamation bond provides a financial guarantee that the land being disturbed for the operation of the mine, or related activity, will be returned back to either its approximate original state or an acceptable condition agreed upon by the operator and the government agency. In either instance, the mine operator is responsible for the financial expense incurred by the Surety. A Reclamation bond is not insurance and does not work like insurance. The mine operator is ultimately financially responsible for the land reclamation. <P> Reclamation bond amounts are not standard. The amount required is usually based on a form of cost analysis used to determine the approximate cost to reclaim the land after the mining operations have ceased. In either instance, the mine operator is responsible for the financial expense incurred by the Surety. A Reclamation bond is not insurance and does not work like insurance. The mine operator is ultimately financially responsible for the land reclamation. <P> A surety bond is a contract among at least three parties: 1 The principal-the primary party who will be performing a contractual obligation. 2 The obligee-the party who is the recipient of the obligation, and. 3 The surety-who ensures that the principal's obligations will be performed. A bail bond is a type of surety bond used to secure the release from custody of a person charged with a criminal offense. Under such a contract, the principal is the accused, the obligee is the government, and the surety is the bail bondsman. Examples of fidelity bonds 1 : ERISA. 2 Business Service Bonds. 3 Public Official. <P> (November 2010). In finance, a surety, surety bond or guaranty involves a promise by one party to assume responsibility for the debt obligation of a borrower if that borrower defaults. The person or company providing this promise is also known as a surety or as a guarantor. <P> A Reclamation bond is a type of performance surety bond. This type of bond is required by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and also by some state government agencies that issue permits for mining type operations. In either instance, the mine operator is responsible for the financial expense incurred by the Surety. A Reclamation bond is not insurance and does not work like insurance. The mine operator is ultimately financially responsible for the land reclamation. <P> A surety bond is defined as a contract among at least three parties: 1 the obligee-the party who is the recipient of an obligation. 2 the principal-the primary party who will perform the contractual obligation. 3 the surety-who assures the obligee that the principal can perform the task. Through a surety bond, the surety agrees to uphold — for the benefit of the obligee — the contractual promises (obligations) made by the principal if the principal fails to uphold its promises to the obligee. <P> Reclamation bonds required by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and various state environmental agencies are long term surety obligations. Generally, these surety bonds cannot be canceled, adequate performance can be highly subjective, and bond losses can be large. These and other onerous provisions require the input of underwriters with knowledge and experience in the reclamation field. <P> A surety bond or surety is a promise by a surety or guarantor to pay one party (the obligee) a certain amount if a second party (the principal) fails to meet some obligation, such as fulfilling the terms of a contract. Through a surety bond, the surety agrees to uphold — for the benefit of the obligee — the contractual promises (obligations) made by the principal if the principal fails to uphold its promises to the obligee. <P> A reclamation bond is assurance by an independent third party that they will be responsible forinsuring the mining company identified in the bond will meet certain performance requirements. The third party assures compliance with all requirements of the operating permit, reclamationplans, statutes, and rules. According to ARM 17.24.140 (1), the bond shall includeestimated costs for reclamation, contingencies, and associated monitoring activities. These rules, approved by the Board of Environmental Review, address the followingareas:-- Designation of land use.-- Proposed topography.
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An independent third party that they will be responsible for insuring the mining company identified in the bond will meet certain performance requirements.
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why is dna replication such an important process
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<P> It is important because when a cell divides, it needs to produce an exact copy of the DNA for the new cell to have the information it needs to carry out its processes. + 132 others found this useful. Nana Mensah. Edit. <P> DNA replication, the process by which genetic information is duplicated, occurs in order to ensure that each cell in an organism has a complete and correct copy of the organism's genome, or library of genetic data. DNA replication occurs in two different forms of cellular division. The first is mitosis, which serves all of the normal needs of growth, maintenance, and repair within an organism. In mitosis, a single cell divides into two, each with its own set of genetic information. <P> Replication occurs simultaneously at multiple places along a DNA strand. Because human DNA is so very long (with up to 80 million base pairs in a chromosome) it unzips at multiple places along its length so that the replication process is going on simultaneously at hundreds of places along the length of the chain. Before a cell divides, its DNA is replicated (duplicated.) Because the two strands of a DNA molecule have complementary base pairs, the nucleotide sequence of each strand automatically supplies the information needed to produce its partner. <P> This process is semiconservative in that each strand of the original double-stranded DNA molecule serves as a template for the reproduction of the complementary strand. Hence, the process of DNA replication yields two identical DNA molecules from a single double-stranded molecule. <P> DNA replication is the copying of DNA within the nucleus of a cell so that two full copies are present. This occurs before a cell divides. Two copies of a cell’s DNA need to be present before a cell divides so that each of the resulting two daughter cells will each have one full copy of the cell's DNA. After replication is complete, the cell divides, forming to two identical daughter cells. This process is important for the replacement of damaged or dead cells as well as for the proper formation of gametes needed for fertility. <P> 1 A molecule of a DNA polymerase binds to one strand of the DNA and begins moving along it in the 3' to 5' direction, using it as a template for assembling a leading strand of nucleotides and reforming a double helix. 2 In eukaryotes, this molecule is called DNA polymerase epsilon (ε). <P> DNA replication is the process which copies the DNA in a cell. After replication is complete, the cell divides, forming to two identical daughter cells. This process is important for the replacement of damaged or dead cells as well as for the proper formation of gametes needed for fertility. Errors in DNA replication can lead to diseases, including cancer <P> Yes, DNA also has to divide. The important characteristic of DNA is its ability to make several copies of it. The process of making copies of DNA strand in nucleus of the cell is called replication. The cell divides into two and distributes each copy of DNA into the divided cells. Through replication the DNA transfers the information necessary for creating an exact copy of it in the new cell. Replication is important as it generates same copy. As replication of DNA helps in forming the similar copy of it in the children, this concept has been used in forensic labs to investigate those cases where a dispute exists in identification of correct parents for a child. <P> DNA replication is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA molecule. This biological process occurs in all living organisms and is the basis for biological inheritance. DNA is made up of two strands and each strand of the original DNA molecule serves as a template for the production of the complementary strand, a process referred to as semiconservative replication. Cellular proofreading and error-checking mechanisms ensure near perfect fidelity for DNA replication.
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Because it produces two identical replicas from one original DNA molecule. This biological process occurs in all living organisms and is the basis for biological inheritance.
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what does inflamed bowel mean
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<P> No one knows for sure what causes inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Experts think that abnormal action of a person's immune system may trigger IBD. The immune system is made up of various cells and proteins. Normally, the immune system protects the body from infections caused by viruses or bacteria. IBD is not the same as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), although the symptoms can be similar. Unlike inflammatory bowel disease, IBS does not cause inflammation or damage in the intestines. In many people with IBD, medicines can control symptoms. <P> The inflamed colon (colitis) has different types: 1 Infectious colitis – this is due to ingestion of many bacteria, disease-causing bacteria. 2 Ischemic colitis – blood supply is impeded because of obstruction thus causing ischemia. 3 Ulcerative colitis – affects the rectum and sigmoid colon. Colitis or known as the inflammation of the colon affects about a small percent of Americans. This condition usually occurs to people at a young age and less frequently in old people. The colon is a tube that receives the products of digestion. Then it eliminates the digested food from the body through the anus. <P> Symptoms of an inflamed colon may include abdominal pain. Infectious colitis, a type of colon inflammation, may be caused by harmful bacteria in water. Tobacco use may lead to the development of colon inflammation. High fever is often present with colon inflammation. <P> Classified under: Nouns denoting stable states of affairs. Synonyms: colitis; inflammatory bowel disease. Hypernyms (inflammatory bowel disease is a kind of...): inflammation; redness; rubor (a response of body tissues to injury or irritation; characterized by pain and swelling and redness and heat). Hyponyms (each of the following is a kind of inflammatory bowel disease): Crohn's disease; regional enteritis; regional ileitis (a serious chronic and progressive inflammation of the ileum producing frequent bouts of diarrhea with abdominal pain and nausea and fever and weight loss) <P> Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a group of inflammatory conditions of the colon and small intestine. Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are the principal types of inflammatory bowel disease. The chief types of inflammatory bowel disease are Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). Inflammatory bowel diseases fall into the class of autoimmune diseases, in which the body's own immune system attacks elements of the digestive system. <P> Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) involves chronic inflammation of all or part of your digestive tract. IBD primarily includes ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. Both usually involve severe diarrhea, pain, fatigue and weight loss. IBD can be debilitating and sometimes leads to life-threatening complications. Crohn's disease is an IBD that cause inflammation of the lining of your digestive tract. In Crohn's disease, inflammation often spreads deep into affected tissues. The inflammation can involve different areas of the digestive tract — the large intestine, small intestine or both. <P> Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a broad term that describes conditions with chronic or recurring immune response and inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract. The two most common inflammatory bowel diseases are ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. <P> Introduction. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term mainly used to describe two conditions, ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. Both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are long-term (chronic) conditions that involve inflammation of the gut (gastrointestinal tract). Causes of inflammatory bowel disease. The exact causes of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are unclear. It’s thought that several factors may play a part, such as: 1 genetics – there is evidence that you are more likely to develop IBD if you have a close relative with the condition.
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It is the term that describes conditions with chronic or recurring immune response and inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.
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how long do you take blood thinner after hip replacement
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<P> For anywhere from six to 12 months after hip replacement surgery, pivoting or twisting on the involved leg should be avoided. You should also not cross the involved leg past the midline of the body nor turn the involved leg inward and you should not bend at the hip past 90 degrees. <P> Everyone heals from total knee replacement surgery at a different pace. In most cases, however, you will likely use a walker or crutches for 2 to 4 weeks after your operation. You will then advance to a cane and wean to no assistive device at all. <P> After your surgery, you'll be at increased risk of blood clots in your legs. Possible measures to prevent this complication include: 1 Early mobilization. 2 You'll be encouraged to sit up and even try walking with crutches or a walker soon after surgery. <P> Everyone heals from total hip replacement surgery at a different pace. In most cases, however, you will be restricted to using a walker or crutches for 1 month after your operation. <P> For routine hip surgery, we use the blood-thinning medicine for about 4 weeks after surgery. In addition to a blood thinner, we also use early mobility, spinal anesthesia, leg exercises, foot pumps, and efficient surgery as adjunctive measures to minimize the risk of blood clots. <P> A blood thinner commonly prescribed to prevent blood clots after a hip or knee replacement is associated with an increased risk of post-surgery bleeding or infection, according to a study conducted by orthopaedic researchers at the NIH s National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases (NIAMS). <P> Taking XARELTO ® after hip or knee replacement surgery. Most people who have hip replacement surgery will take XARELTO ® 10 mg once a day for 35 days following surgery. Those who have knee replacement will usually take it for 12 days. But only your doctor can decide how long you should take XARELTO ® . Take it exactly as prescribed by your doctor. <P> 1 Blood-thinning medication. 2 Your surgeon may prescribe an injected or oral blood thinner after surgery. 3 Depending on how soon you walk, how active you are and your overall risk of blood clots, you may need blood thinners for several more weeks
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After 4 weeks
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meaning of allies
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<P> plural noun. ( 1 in World War I) the powers of the Triple Entente (France, Russia, and Britain) together with the nations allied with them. ( 2 in World War II) the countries that fought against the Axis. 3 The main Allied powers were Britain and the Commonwealth countries, the US, the Soviet Union, France, China, and Poland. <P> Noun. 1. Allies-the alliance of nations that fought the Axis in World War II and which (with subsequent additions) signed the charter of the United Nations in 1945. alignment, alinement, coalition, alliance-an organization of people (or countries) involved in a pact or treaty. <P> 3. (cap.) (in World War II) the nations that fought against the Axis: Great Britain, the U.S., the Soviet Union, and others. a group of nations allied against another nation or group of nations. <P> 1. the alliance of nations that fought the Axis in World War II and which (with subsequent additions) signed the charter of the United Nations in 1945. 2. in World War I the alliance of Great Britain and France and Russia and all the other nations that became allied with them in opposing the Central Powers. 3. an alliance of nations joining together to fight a common enemy. Familiarity information: ALLIES used as a noun is uncommon. <P> Allies-in World War I the alliance of Great Britain and France and Russia and all the other nations that became allied with them in opposing the Central Powers. alignment, alinement, coalition, alliance-an organization of people (or countries) involved in a pact or treaty. <P> Allies refers to the countries that fought against German, Italy and Japan in World War II. An example of a country that was part of the Allies in World War II is Great Britain.
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Allies refers to the countries that fought against German, Italy and Japan in World War II.
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what is autosar ppt
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<P> V1.4 June 2015. Produktinformation OS www.vector.com 3 1 Operating Systems for ECUs 2 MICROSAR.OS – The Real-Time Operating System for the AUTOSAR Standard MICROSAR.OS is a pre-emptive real-time multitasking operating system with optimized properties for use on microcontrollers. <P> From an abstract point of view (i.e. at system design time), the Run Time Environment (RTE) is the run-time implementation of the Virtual Functional Bus (VFB) on a specific ECU. The VFB translates the relevant communication mechanisms to the application layer software. <P> AUTOSAR (AUTomotive Open System ARchitecture) is an open and standardized automotive software architecture, jointly developed by automobile manufacturers, suppliers and tool developers. <P> 3 The story of Autosar • It ll t t d h th i d t dIt all started when the semiconductor vendorsneeded a driver layer for their microprocessors• The work started in 2002 in Tyskland within BMW,VW, Daimler Chrysler, Bosch and Continental• Autosar was founded in 2003 and the work started in2004 The story of Autosar cont. These are in charge oforganisation and managementWithin this group are Peugeot Citroen, Citroën, TOYOTA, VW Bmw, Daimler, Ford (OPEL), Gm, Bosch, Continental siemens VolvoFord volvoford has been represented VolvoSaab volvosaab has had a key role in the ENGAGEMENTFROM. gm 4 thew story Of autosar. cont <P> AUTOSAR (AUTomotive Open System ARchitecture) is an open and standardized automotive software architecture, jointly developed by automobile manufacturers, suppliers and tool developers. The AUTOSAR-standard enables the use of a component based software design model for the design of a vehicular system. This is also a fast way to make changes in the system design and check whether the system will still function. The AUTOSAR-project created a methodology that can be used to create the E/E system architecture starting from the design-model. <P> − Chapters of SRS documents Chapter 1 defines the area of application of the BSW Chapter 2 defines the structure of the document Chapter 3 defines the acronyms used in that document Chapter 4 is the main chapter. Contains a brief description of the BSW functional overview and continues with the requirements. <P> When the software-componentdescription uses this feature, it is the responsibility of the OS tostart the Runnable when the event occurs.In case the Runnable wants to block and wait for events (whichmakes the runnable into a cat. 2 runnable), the description of the runnable may include the definition of a wait-point. Resource consumption Description-model for the execution time The description of the implementation of a component referencesthe description of the internal behavior of the atomic software-component that is implemented The description of the internalbehavior describes all the runnable entities of the component. <P> Figure 1: AUTOSAR Virtual Function Bus Software components (SWCs) are the main architectural unit for structuring applications in AUTOSAR systems. SWCs communicate with the other components through a well-defined interface (an AUTOSAR interface) that is typed and statically defined. <P> AUTOSAR Components: RTE events During execution, several run-time events will occur, such as the reception of a remote operation-invocation on a P-Port or a timeout on an R-Port that is not receiving the data-elements itexpects. Resource consumption Description-model for the execution time The description of the implementation of a component referencesthe description of the internal behavior of the atomic software-component that is implemented The description of the internalbehavior describes all the runnable entities of the component.
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AUTOSAR (AUTomotive Open System ARchitecture) is an open and standardized automotive software architecture, jointly developed by automobile manufacturers, suppliers and tool developers.
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