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The karyotype of patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is :
|
Answer is B (46XY) : Individual with 'androgen insensitivity syndrome' are XY individuals (male karyotype) with a female phenotype. Mutation in the androgen receptor causes resistance to androgen action and the androgen insensitivity syndrome results.
|
Medicine
| null |
46XY
|
All the conditions mentioned below are associated with decreased fetal hea rate except
|
Fetal movement is associated with increase in fetal hea rate .This forms the basis of non stress test. Head compression leads to vagal stimulation and thus bradycardia. Hypoxia and cord compression (causing hypoxia) will also lead to bradycardia.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
All India exam
|
Fetal movement
|
Anti-Ro antibody is found in?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neonatal lupus * Anti SS-A (Ro) and anti SS-B (La) antibodies are the serological marker of Sjogren syndrome.* They are also found in neonated lupus.
|
Pathology
|
Immunity
|
Neonatal lupus
|
All are true about nephrotic syndrome in children except?
|
Nephrotic syndrome is kidney disease with proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Massive proteinuria > 3.5gm%/ 24 hours Persistently low C3 levels are indicative of Acute Glomerulonephritis Minimal change disease- most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children (2-8 yrs)
|
Medicine
|
Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome
|
Low complement levels
|
True about safe CSOM:
|
(a) Aetiology is multiple bacteria(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 1001)CSOM is caused by mixed aerobic and anaerobic organisms. MC aerobic organism being Pseudomonas, others include Proteus, E. coli and Staph, aureus. Bacteroids are the anaerobic bacteria here.Oral antibiotics and antibiotic ear drops are given to control the infection and once the ear is dry for 6 weeks without antibiotics surgical repair is taken up.Otic hydrocephalus is a complication of unsafe CSOMResorption of bony ossicles in safe CSOM is due to repeated infections with resultant local inflammatory cytokines and local acidosis mainly in the area of low blood supply (most commonly long process of incus and incudo-stapedial joint).
|
ENT
|
Ear
|
Aetiology is multiple bacteria
|
The level of branching of common carotid artery:
|
COMMON CAROTID ARTERIES:
There are two common carotid arteries: right and left. They are the chief arteries of the head and neck.
Origin:
The right common carotid artery arises in neck from brachiocephalic trunk (innominate artery) behind the
sternoclavicular joint.
The left common carotid artery arises in thorax (superior mediastinum) directly from the arch of aorta. It ascends to the back of left sternoclavicular joint and enters the neck.
Course, Termination, and Relations:
In the neck, both arteries (right and left) have similar course.
Each artery runs upwards from sternoclavicular joint to the upper border of the lamina of thyroid cartilage (opposite the disc between the 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae), where it terminates by dividing into internal and external carotid arteries.
Key Concept:
Left and right CCA runs upwards from sternoclavicular joint to the upper border of the lamina of thyroid cartilage (opposite the disc between the 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae), where it terminates by dividing into internal and external carotid arteries.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Upper border of thyroid cartilage
|
A 28 year old male patient suddenly started experiencing severe pain in lower right abdominal region, the nature of pain was colicky. He underwent USG-KUB; where no stone was evident, but mild hydronephrosis was evident in relation to right kidney. Renal function test was normal and creatinine levels were in normal range. Urine culture was found to be negative. What should be the next step?
|
Acute Abdominal Pain
Investigations:
Patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, glucose and amylase taken to look for evidence of dehydration, leucocytosis and pancreatitis. Urinalysis is useful in suspected renal colic and pyelonephritis. An erect chest X-ray may show air under the diaphragm, suggestive of perforation, and a plain abdominal film may show evidence of obstruction or ileus. An abdominal ultrasound may help if gall stones or renal stones are suspected. Ultrasonography is also useful in the detection of free fluid and any possible intra-abdominal abscess. Contrast studies, by either mouth or anus, are useful in the further evaluation of intestinal obstruction and essential in the differentiation of pseudo-obstruction from mechanical large-bowel obstruction. Other investigations commonly used include CT (seeking evidence of pancreatitis, retroperitoneal collections or masses, including an aortic aneurysm or renal calculi) and angiography (mesenteric ischaemia).
Diagnostic laparotomy should be considered, when the diagnosis has not been revealed by other investigations. All patients must be carefully and regularly re-assessed (every 2-4 hours) so that any change in condition that might alter both the suspected diagnosis and clinical decision can be observed and acted on early.
Key Concept:
Sometimes, renal stones are not evident in ultrasonography, if these are small in size. Then, CT-KUB should be considered.
Ref: Davidson Ed 23 Pg 787
|
Medicine
| null |
CT scan KUB to rule out presence of renal calculi
|
Earliest response to iron supplementation in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
|
Response to iron therapy: Rapid subjective improvement, with disappearance or marked reduction of fatigue, lassitude, and other nonspecific symptoms, before any improvement in anemia is observed. Earliest hematologic evidence of response to treatment is an increase in reticulocytes on 5th to 10th day after sta of supplementation therapy & thereafter returns to normal. There is steady improvement in Hb and normalization of red cell indices. RETICULOCYTE IN BLUE LINE
|
Pathology
|
Iron deficiency anemia
|
Increase in reticulocyte count
|
Most common cause of endophthalmitis in AIDS patients is:
|
Candida is most common cause of endophthalmitis in AIDS patients. Ocular Manifestations in HIV Anterior Segment Molluscum Contaiosum Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus Kaposi Sarcoma Ocular Surface Squamous Neoplasia Trichomegaly Dry Eyes Anterior Uveitis Ocular Manifestations In HIV Posterior Segment CMV Retinitis Acute Retinal Necrosis Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis Toxoplasma Candida Albicans Endophthalmitis Optic Neuritis
|
Ophthalmology
|
Vitreous Humour, Uveal Disorders
|
Candida
|
Otoacoustic emissions arise from?
|
ANSWER: (A) Outer hair cellsREF: Dhingra's ENT 4th edition page 29 Repeat from December 2009 Otoacoustic Emissions (OAEs)They are low intensity sounds produced by outer hair cells of a normal cochlea and can be elicited by a very sensitive microphone placed in the external ear canal and an analysis by a computer. Sound produced by outer hair cells travels in a reverse direction:Outer hair cells -basilar membrane - perilymph - oval window - ossicles - tympanic membrane - ear canal,
|
ENT
|
Diagnostic & Operative ENT
|
Outer hair cells
|
Genital ridge derived from which mesoderm?
|
Each testis develops from the coelomic epithelium, that covers the medial side of the mesonephros, of the corresponding side. In the region where testis is to develop, this germinal epithelium becomes thickened. This thickening is called the genital ridge. The gonadal ridge (or genital ridge) is the precursor to the gonads. The gonadal ridge initially consists mainly of mesenchyme and cells of underlying mesonephric origin. Once oogonia enter this area they attempt to associate with these somatic cells.The gonadal ridge appears at approximately five weeks, and gives rise to the sex cords. (Reference : I B Singh's Embryology, 10th edition , pg 307)
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
Intermediate mesoderm
|
No prior immune suppression is helpful in which type of graft rejection?
|
Ans is 'b' i.e. Hyperacute rejectiono Hyperacute rejection is caused by ABO incompatibility and preformed cytotoxic antibodies against donor HLA antigens. Therefore immunosuppressant is not helpful.
|
Pathology
|
Rejection of Transplants
|
Hyperacute rejection
|
Fall on foot causes?
|
ANSWER: (D) Compression fractureREF: Manual of orthopedics by Marc F. Swiontkowski MD 6th ed Ch: 7Burst Compression fractures of the lumbar spine are associated with fractures of calcaneus in a setting where a person falls and land on foot. This type of fracture is called a Don Juan fracture.Calcaneal fractures are more frequent than any other fracture of the tarsal bones and comprise 1% to 2% of all fractures. These fractures, which are often bilateral, are likely to occur when a person falls from a height and lands on the heels. Associated injuries include compression fractures of the lumbar spine and occasionally fractures about the knee or pelvis.
|
Orthopaedics
|
Spinal Injuries
|
Compression fracture
|
Not transmitted by soft Tick
| null |
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
KFD in India
|
Which is characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in humans?
| null |
Dental
| null |
Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar composition
|
Double bubble sign in children seen in A/E –
|
Obstruction of 2nd part of duodenum cause double bubble sign on plain abdominal radiograph. OIt may be due to -
i) Annular pancreas
ii) Pancreatic pseudocyst
iii) Ladds band
iv) Tumor in the head of the pancrease
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Diaphragmatic hernia
|
Oliguria causing drug is-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acyclovir Drugs Causing Oliguriao Drugs causing decreased renal perfusion - diuretics.o Drugs causing nephrotoxicity - aminoglycosides and chemotherapeutic agents,o Urine retention - adrenergic and anticholinergic drugs.o Urinary obstruction associated with precipitation of urinary crystals - sulfonamides and acyclovir.
|
Pharmacology
|
D.O.C
|
Acyclovir
|
Which has the highest cholesterol content?
|
LDL contains cholesterol as the main lipid component. A positive correlation exists between the incidence of atherosclerosis and the plasma concentration of LDL cholesterol. The LDL (apoB-100, E) receptor is defective in familial hypercholesterolemia, a genetic condition which blood LDL cholesterol levels are increased, causing premature atherosclerosis. HDL concentrations vary reciprocally with plasma triacylglycerol concentrations and directly with the activity of lipoprotein lipase. This may be due to surplus surface constituents, eg, phospholipid and apo A-I, being released during hydrolysis of chylomicrons and VLDL and contributing toward the formation of pre-HDL and discoidal HDL. HDL2 concentrations are inversely related to the incidence of atherosclerosis, possibly because they reflect the efficiency of reverse cholesterol transpo. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e
|
Biochemistry
| null |
LDL
|
which of the following is not a theory of mechanism of AGING ?
|
MECHANISMS OF AGING Theory Principle DNA & Genetic Theory -Aging is predetermined by genetic programmng. Neuroendocrine Theory -Loss of hypothalamic regulation and cell sensitivity to ormones. Free Radical Theory Cellular damage by production of metabolic free adicals. Membrane Theory -Decline in cell efficiency loss of lipid in cell membane. Hayflick Limit Theory Limitation of cell division. Mitochondial Decline Theory -Dysfunction of mitochondria in cells. Cross-Linking Theory Impairment of protein functions glycosylation. ref : robbins 10th ed
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
lysosomal degeneration theory
|
n-3 PUFA is present in all except -
|
Fatty acid content of different fats (%) : Fats SFA MUFA PUFA Coconut oil 92 6 2 Safflower oil 10 15 75 Sunflower seed oil 8 27 65 Soya bean oil 14 24 62 Margarine 25 25 50 Ground nut oil 19 50 31 Palm oil 46 44 10 Butter 60 37 3 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 649
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Nutrition and health
|
Groundnut oil
|
The wall absent in class V lesion
| null |
Dental
| null |
Pulpal wall
|
The quantity of X-rays is controlled by:
| null |
Radiology
| null |
Milliamperage
|
Declaration of Sydney is related to ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Time of death Declaration of SydneyThe advent of organ transplantation made this Declaration a guide to determining the time of death of the comatose donor. "Brain death" has displaced "cardiac death" as the essential criterion; and the diagnosis must be made before there is organ death.The Declaration also states that "If transplantation of an organ is onvolved, the decision that death exists should be made by one or more physicians; and the physicians determining the moment of death should in no way be immediately concerned with the performance of the transplant."This makes for objectivity. But it is incorrect to say that "death exists" or refer to "the moment of death". The patient is not dead until after life suppo has been withdrawn.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Time of death
|
Following investigations are required in initial evaluation of a chronic myeloid leukemia patient EXCEPT -
|
CML is established by identification of the clone of hematopoietic stem cells that possesses the reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 & 22,forming Philadelphia chromosome. Peripheral smear shows metamyelocytes, myelocytes, mature segmented neutrophils , basophils.Bone marrow examination reveals hypercellularity with predominance of myeloid cells.Reference:Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 357
|
Medicine
|
Haematology
|
HLA typing
|
Antilipidemic drugs that prevent hypercholesterolemia by inhibiting absorption -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ezetimibe Ezetimibe inhibits the absorption of cholesterol by bidning to transpoer located in intestinal brush border. Note: Orlistat also reduces cholesterol absorption, but it is an anti-obesity drug (not an antilipidemic drug).
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Ezetimibe
|
Which of the following is used for medical adrenalectomy?-
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Mitotane
|
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Mycobacterium bacilli
|
What is the inheritance pattern of marfan syndrome?
|
Refer the byte "Menddian disorders and their Inbetitance pattern"
|
Pathology
| null |
AD
|
Which one of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
|
Metoclopramide is an effective drug in the treatment of patients with GERD. It is a prokinetic drug that speeds up gastric emptying by increasing gastric peristasis while relaxing the pylorus and first pa of duodenum. It also enhance the tone of lower esophageal sphincter thereby preventing reflux. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 602, 605-606
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Metoclopramide
|
Blood stained sputum may be the only symptom in-
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Adenoma bronchus
|
Examination of vitreous is best done by:
|
Ans. Indirect ophthalmoscope
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Indirect ophthalmoscope
|
Irvin Moore sign is positive in
|
Irwin-Moore sign:- Expression of cheesy material from the tonsil, on pressing anterior pillar seen in case of chronic tonsillitis. Ref:- Textbook of ENT, Hazarika; pg num:- 480
|
ENT
|
Pharynx
|
Chronic tonsillitis
|
These ventral spinal rootlets are more prone to injury during decompressive operations because they are shoer and exit in a more horizontal direction:
|
A ie C5
|
Anatomy
| null |
C5
|
Tache noires is seen in -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Boutoneuse fever
|
Urethritis in males is not caused by
|
H Ducreyi course soft sore chancroid Infections cuase urethritis Neisseria gonorrhea chlamydia trachsmati&;s Trichsmonas Vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium ref : ananthanaryana
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
H ducreyi
|
Which one of the following condition is associated with extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura?
|
Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of Asbestosis. Exposure to asbestos can result in extensive pleural thickening, calcification, effusion, and malignant neoplasm of lung and pleura. Pleural fibrosis associated with asbestos fiber inhalation result in diffuse pleural thickening or focal plaque formation bilaterally, and is the most frequent manifestation of asbestos exposure. Pleural calcification occuring especially along the diaphragmatic surface of pleura is also pathognomonic of prior asbestos exposure Ref: Computed Body Tomography with MRI Correlation, Volume 1 By Joseph K. T. Lee, 4th Edition, Pages 489-90; Handbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing By Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, Page 194; Asbestos : Mixed Dust and Fela Issues, Page 110.
|
Radiology
| null |
Asbestosis
|
The protein responsible for elasticity of the muscle is:
|
Titin is responsible for the elasticity of the muscle present in hea and skeletal muscle Actin and myosin are regarded as contractile proteins Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:86,87
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
Titin
|
Study of finger printing is:
|
B i.e. Dactylography
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Dactylography
|
All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome, except:
|
Undescended testis has not been described as an association with Down's syndrome. Hypothyroidism, ventricular septal defect, Brushfield's spots are seen in Down's syndrome. Ref: Essential Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 592; Down Syndrome By Mark Selikowitz, 2008, Preview.
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Undescended testis
|
In morbus caeruleus foramen ovole closes after
|
In few cases, foramen ovale remains patent throughout life and gives rise to cyanosis, a condition called as Morbus caeruleus.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2162)
|
Pediatrics
|
All India exam
|
Never
|
Scrub typhus is caused by -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., R tsutsugamushi o Has been explained in previous years
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Rickettsial Diseases
|
R tsutsugamushi
|
What is suggilation?
|
Postmortem staining is also called livor mortis / suggilation/ Hypostasis / Cadaveric lividity.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Livor mortis
|
Not a complication of Colles' fracture
|
D i.e. Wrist drop
|
Surgery
| null |
Wrist drop
|
A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at bih. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballooned atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is:
|
Administration of Prostaglandin E and ballooned atrial septosomy which shows improvement in oxygenation in a severely cyanotic five day old male infant suggest this case as transposition of great vessels. Oxygenation is normal before bih but, after bih as ductus aeriosus closes, severe hypoxia occurs and in the absence of V.S.D, or ASD child presents with cyanosis and tachypnea at bih. Ref: O P Ghai Essential Pediatrics, 6th Edition, Pages 406-413
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Transposition of great vessels
|
Which of the following is not included in major Jone's criteria aEUR'
|
Elevated E.S.R. * The jones criteria for rheumatic fever: Major criteria * CarditisQ . * Migratory polyahrrusQ Minor cieria Clinical * Fever * Sydenham's choreaQ * AhralgiaQ * Subcutaneous nodules Laboratory Erythema marginatumQ * Elevated acute phase reactants * Prolonged PR interval PLUS Suppoing evidence of a recent group A Streptococcal infection (e.g. positive throat culture or rapid antigen detection test; and or elevated or increasing streptococcal antibody test). To fulfill jones criteria either two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria plus evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection is required.
|
Surgery
| null |
Elevated ESR
|
Shade selection is done with in how much time to avoid fatigue of eyes?
| null |
Dental
| null |
5 seconds
|
The sequence of commonest fractured sites of Mandible is
|
The mandible is commonly fractured at the canine socket where it is weak. Involvement of the inferior alveolar nerve in the callus may cause neuralgic pain, and if the nerve is paralyzed, the area supplied by the mental nerve becomes insensitive. The next common fracture of the mandible occurs at the angle.Reference: Chourasia; 6th edition; 35th page; 1.29 Figure
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
Canine fossa, Angle, Neck
|
Facial edema, cheilitis granulomatosa and a fissured tongue characterize which of the following syndromes?
| null |
Pathology
| null |
Melkerson-Rosenthal syndrome
|
Right border of hea is formed by ?
|
External features of hea The hea has following borders and surfaces :- A) Borders i) Right border :- Formed by right atrium. ii) Left border (obtuse margin):- Formed mainly by left ventricle and paly by left auricle (in its upper most pa). iii) Inferior border (acute margin):- Formed mainly by right ventricle and paly by left ventricle near apex. iv) Upper border :- Mainly by left atrium and paly by right atrium where SVC enters. v) Apex :- Formed by left ventricle. B) Surfaces i) Anterior (sternocostal) surface :- Formed mostly by right ventricle (major) and right auricle and paly by left ventricle and left auricle. ii) Inferior (diaphragmatic) surface :- It is formed by left ventricle (left 2/3) and right ventricle (right 1/3). It is traversed by posterior interventricular groove (PIV) containing PIV branch of RCA.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Right atrium
|
Adipocere is likely to occur in :
|
A i.e. Warm humid climate
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Warm humid climate
|
Shortest incubation period is seen in-
|
Mumps → 16 - 18 days
Influenza → 2 - 3 days
Hepatitis A → 15 - 90 days
Hepatitis B → 6 wk to 6 months
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Influenza
|
Eosinophilic meningitis is seen with all except
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Cryptococcal meningitis
|
Which of the following is more aggressive rectal carcinoma ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary mucoid carcinoma
|
Surgery
| null |
Secondary mucoid carcinoma
|
Most common complication of coeliac plexus block ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypotension Celiac plexus block The celiac plexus is situated retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen. It is at the level of T12 and L, veebrae anterior to the crura of the diaphragm. It contains visceral afferent and efferent fibers divided from T5 to T1, by means of greater, lesser and least splanchnic nerves. Celiac plexus innervates most of the abdominal viscera, therefore this procedure blocks the nerves which come from the pancreas, liver, gall bladder, stomach, intestine, spleen, kidney and adrenal glands. A celiac plexus block can be combined with an intercostal block to provide anesthesia for intra-abdominal surgery. Because celiac plexus block results in blockade of the autonomic nervous system, this block may help to reduce stress and endocrine responses to surgery. For the same reason, the most common complication of celiac plexus block is postural hypotenstion because of blockade of lumbar sympathetic chain leading to upper abdominal vessel dilation and venous pooling. Celiac plexus block can be done by following three approaches : - Retrocrural (classic) approach, anterocrural approach and splanchnic nerve block. Celiac plexus block is given to treat intractable pain in chronic pancreatitis, gastric & pancreatic malignancies. It can be combined with an intercostal block to provide anesthesia for intra-abdomival surgery. Postural hypotension is the Most common complication of classic retrocrural and splanchnic nerve block, Where as most common complication of Anterocrural approach is transient diarrhoea
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
Hypotension
|
Bipedicle flap is used for reconstruction of?
|
Answer- C. EyelidBipedicled flap is a bucket handle flap supplied by both the ends. It is used for lower eyelid repair and rarely anywhere else.
|
Surgery
| null |
Eyelid
|
A 9 year girl presents with menarche. History reveals thelarche at the age of 8 years the most common cause of this condition in girls is
|
Precocious pubey:The term is reserved for girls who exhibit any secondary sexual charecters before the age of 8 or menstruate before the age of 10 Causes GnRH Dependent: 80% Constitutional : Activation of HPO axis Juvenile Primary Hypothyroidism Intracranial Lesions GnRH Independent Ovary Adrenal Liver Iatrogenic Granulosa cell tumour Theca cell tumor Leydig cell tumor Androblastoma McCune Albright syndrome Hyperplasia Tumor Hepatoblastoma Exogenous Estrogen or Androgen intake Ref: D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:51
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Sexuality and intersexuality
|
Idiopathic
|
A 35 years old with 36-week pregnancy comes with history of 5 convulsions at home. Her BP is 170/100. Diagnosis made by doctor is eclampsia. Next Management is?
|
Eclampsia management: DOC: Magnesium sulphate IM +IV (Pritchard regimen) IV only (Zuspan regime) Pritchard regimen I.M. & I.V. regime This is the most preferred and the 'method of choice' Loading dose-Sta with a loading dose of 14g in which 4g given as intravenous and 10g given as intramuscular Maintenance dose - Maintain 5 gm 4 hourly till 24 hours pass after delivery or 24 hours pass after the last convulsion Whichever is later. Add IV labetalol: DOC of hypeensives emergencies in pregnancy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
FMGE 2019
|
MgSO4 + Labetalol
|
Which of the following is involved in tumor metastasis cascade:-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. E. cadherin For the tumor cells to metastasize they must-1st - detach from each other.Next - traverse the extracellular matrix (i. e. the basement membrane and interstitial connective tissue).Normally the cells are neatly glued to each other and their surrounding by a variety of adhesion molecules.Of these the E-Cadherin is most important. Any abnormality of E-cadherin molecule or down-regulation of its expression would lead to detachment of the cells from the primary tumor and move out for metastasis.
|
Medicine
|
General
|
E-Cadherin
|
All are Orofacial pain of vascular origin except:
|
The various orofacial pains of vascular origin are:
Cluster headache
Temporal arteritis (involves extracranial carotid circulation)
Chronic paroxysmal hemicranias
Migraine – (MC)
|
Pathology
| null |
MPDS
|
Acute radiation hepatic damage is most marked between -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 40-100 days o Acute radiation damage normally affects rapidly proliferating tissue : - i) Hematopoietic tissue Latent period 2-3 weeks. ii) Epithelium of GIT --> Latent period 3-5 days. iii) Lymphoid tissue o Acute radiation damage also affects the CNS Latent period 15 minutes to 3 hours. o Hepatic radiation damage is not acute, it is subacute and appears within 90 days.
|
Pathology
| null |
40-100 days
|
Which of the following is a "water scarce disease"?
|
Many diseases are caused by scarcity of water in enough amount to be able to maintain personal hygiene and cleanliness. These are called water scarce disease or water washed disease. Examples include trachoma, conjunctivitis, lice infestation, scabies, ascariasis etc. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 657.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Trachoma
|
`La facies sympathique' is a condition seen in cases of -
|
o In case of pressure of ligature on cervical sympathetic chin the eye on that side is found open (La facie sympathique). It confirms antemortem banging.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Hanging
|
All of the following statements about paneth cells are true, Except.
|
D i.e. Foamy appearance
|
Anatomy
| null |
Foamy appearance
|
Onodi cells and Haller cells of ethmoid labyrinth is seen in relation to following respectively
|
A i.e. Optic nerve and floor of orbit Agger nasi cells are medial relations of lacrimal sac & duct; Haller's cells develop medially beneath orbital floort2 and Sphenoethmoid or Onodi cells is intimately related to optic nerve & canal and internal carotid aeryQ. It may contain tuberculum nervi optic, where the optic canal bulges into the wall of onodi cell. And optic nerve injury is a devastating complication of endoscopic sinus surgery, paicularly if a sphenoethmoid cell is present.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Optic nerve and floor of orbit
|
All are true in megaloblastic anaemia except:(1995)
|
Ans: a (Microcytes)Ref: Robbin's, 7th ed, p. 638, 639 & p. 642 for d & 6th ed, p. 622 for b 623 for c p. 624 for d. Also see Harrison, 16llled, p. 605, 606 & 15th ed, p. 679
|
Pathology
|
Blood
|
Microcytes
|
If a substance "X" has more renal clearance than the GFR, it means:
|
For the given substance "X": > GFR {That is, clearance of "X" is greater than GFR.} It means, urinary excretion of the substance (Ux x V) is greater than the total filtration of the substance (Px x GFR). So the substance must have been secreted by the tubules. Option B is correct. If is greater than , it means the amount of total filtered substance is greater than its urinary excretion. In that case, the substance is being reabsorbed from the tubules. Option C: If a substance is being reabsorbed as well as secreted (for instance, K+), and if the amount of its secretion is greater than its reabsorption, there would be net secretion of the substance. And, its renal clearance would be greater than GFR. Hence, this option could have qualified as a correct statement. However, the amounts of its reabsorption and secretion are not mentioned in the option. Hence, option B should be taken as the most appropriate answer.
|
Physiology
|
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
|
"X" is being secreted by the tubules
|
The four points of probe placement in Focused Abdominal Sonogram for trauma (FAST) in blunt thoraco-abdominal trauma are -
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Epigastrium, (R) and (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium
|
True about Ribozyme:
|
Ans. A. Peptidyl Transferase activity(Ref: Harper 31/e p396)Ribozyme is RNA with catalytic activity.E.g.: SnRNA in Spliceosome-Takes part in splicing of exons and removal of intronsRibonuclease P--Cuts the RNAPeptidyl Transferase: Peptide Bond formation other optionsCuts the DNA at specific site--Restriction EndonucleaseDNA Synthesis--DNA Polymerase
|
Biochemistry
|
Molecular Genetics
|
Peptidyl Transferase activity
|
The drug of choice for treatment of hypehyroidism during lactation period is -
|
Hypehyroidism in pregnancy Methimazole crosses the placenta to a greater degree than propylthiouracil and has been associated with fetal aplasia cutis. However, propylthiouracil can be associated with liver failure. Some expes recommend propylthiouracil in the first trimester and methimazole thereafter. Radioiodine should not be used during pregnancy, either for scanning or for treatment, because of effects on the fetal thyroid. In emergent circumstances, additional treatment with beta blockers may be necessary. Hypehyroidism is most difficult to control in the first trimester of pregnancy and easiest to control in the third trimester. In women with high-titer thyroid stimulating antibodies, the newborn may be born with neonatal Graves' disease. Ref - harrisons internal medicine 20e p3443 For many years breastfeeding was strongly discouraged if treatment with antithyroid drugs was required.12 Both propylthiouracil and methimazole can be detected in milk; however, studies have shown that propylthiouracil crosses into milk only in minute amounts, leading to a milk-plasma ratio of approximately 0.1 Ref - <a href="
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
Propylthiouracil
|
Which of the following is order of development is not charac-teristic
|
Ans a (Caudal - Cranial)Ref O P ghai 7th edOrder of growth in human beings is cephalocaudal and distal to proxi-mal. During the fetal life, growth of head occurs before that of neck and arms grow before legs. Distal part of the body such as the hands increase in size before the upper arms.Generalised mass activity gives way to spe-cific individual response.
|
Pediatrics
|
Growth, Development, and Behavior
|
Caudal -Cranial
|
Chagas disease and is transmitted by the following:
|
Chagas disease is transmitted by tsetse flies. There are two distinct types of human trypanosomes: African, which causes sleeping sickness and is transmitted by tsetse flies (eg, Glossina): Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense and Trypanosoma brucei gambiense; American, which causes Chagas disease and is transmitted by kissing bugs (eg, Triatoma): Trypanosoma cruzi. Ref: (2013). Chapter 46. Medical Parasitology. In Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzner T.A. (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
|
Microbiology
| null |
Tsetse flies
|
Ulnar nerve injury results in: March 2012
|
Ans: C i.e. Clawing of fingers
|
Surgery
| null |
Clawing of fingers
|
The commonest type of cataract is –
|
You must be thinking, why not a blue dot?
Carefully read the question. Here the question is about the commonest type of cataract (not congenital cataract).
A most common type of cataract is senile cataract (Age-related cataract).
A most common type of senile cataract is cuneiform cataract (70%).
"In general, the predominant form can be given as cuneiform (70%), nuclear (25%), and cupuliform (5%)". — Anatomy & Physiology of eye
"Cortical senile (Cuneiform) cataract is the most common form of senile cataract prevalent in aging population".
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Cuneiform
|
Agnes hunt traction:
|
Ans. A. Flexion deformity of hipRef: Campbell, Ebnezer and MaheshwariExplanationThese are commonly asked memory based questions in orthopedics. These charts are must to memorize.Commonly asked tractions, fractures, splints and castNameUseGallow's tractionFracture shaft of the femur in children below 2 yearsBryant's tractionSameRussell's tractionTrochanteric fracturesBuck's tractionConventional skin tractionPerkin's tractionFracture shaft of femur in childrenAgnes-Hunt tractionCorrection of hip deformityWell-leg tractionCorrection of adduction or abduction deformity of hipDunlop tractionSupracondylar fracture of humerusSmith's tractionSupracondylar fracture of humerusCalcaneal tractionOpen fractures of ankle or legMetacarpal tractionOpen forearm fracturesHead-Halter tractionCervical spine injuriesCrutchfield tractionCervical spine injuriesHalo-pelvic tractionScoliosisSplintsNameUseCramer-wire splintEmergency immobilizationThomas splintFracture femur--anywhereBohler-Braun splintFracture femur--anywhereAluminium splintImmobilization of fingersDenis Browne splintCongenital talipes equinovarus (CTEV)Cock-up splintRadial nerve palsyKnuckle-bender splintUlnar nerve palsyToe-raising splintFoot dropVolkmann's splintVolkmann's ischemic contracture (VIC)Four-post collarNeck immobilizationAeroplane splintBrachial plexus injurySternal occipital mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) braceCervical spine injuryAnterior spinal hyperextension (ASHE)Dorso-lumbar spinal injury braceTaylor's braceDorso-lumbar immobilizationMilwaukee braceScoliosisBoston braceScoliosisLumbar corsetBackacheCastsName of the castUseMinerva castCervical spine diseaseRisser's castScoliosisTurn-buckle castScoliosisShoulder spicaShoulder immobilizationU-slabFracture of the humerusColies' castColies' fractureHip spiceFracture of the femurCylinder castFracture of the patellaPatella tendon bearing (PTB) castFracture of the tibiaA spica is a cast where a limb and a part of the trunk are included, e.g., hip spica, shoulder spica.Disease and locationNameSite affectedPerthes' diseaseFemoral headPanner's diseaseCaplitulumKienbock's diseaseLunate boneOsgood-Schlatter's diseaseTibial tubercleSever's diseaseCalcaneal tuberosityKohler's diseaseNavicular boneFreiberg's diseaseMetatarsal headSchuermann's diseaseRing epiphysis of vertebraeCalve's diseaseCentral bony nucleus of vertebral bodyNamed Fractures# Barton's: Distal radius, intra-articular fracture# Chauffer's: Radial styloid fracture# Colles': Distal radius, extra-articular fracture with dorsal tilt of the distal fragment# Galleazzi: Fracture of distal V2 of the radius with dislocation of distal radio-ulnar joint# Monteggia: Fracture of proximal V2 of the ulna with dislocation of head of the radius# Night-stick: Isolated fracture shaft of the ulna# Smith's: Distal radius fracture, extra-articular with volar tilt of the distal fragment# Bennett's: Fracture of base of the 1st metacarpal, intra-articular# Boxers': Fracture of neck of 5th metacarpal# Mallet: Avulsion of attachment of extensor tendon from base of the distal phalanx# Rolando: Fracture of base of 1st metacarpal, extraarticular# Hangman's: Fracture pedicle-lamina of C2 vertebra# Malgaigne's: Pelvic-ring disruption with both pubic rami and sacro-iliac injury on the same side# Bumper: Comminuted fracture of lateral condyle of the tibia# Cotton's: Trimalleolar ankle fracture# Pott's: Bimalleolar ankle fracture# March: Stress fracture of shaft of 2nd metatarsal# Aviators: Fracture of the neck of the talus# Jone's: Fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsalSigns and Tests# Adson's test: For thoracic outlet syndrome# Allen's test: For testing patency of radial and ulnar arteries# Alli's test: For CDH# Anvil test: For testing tenderness of the spine# Ape thumb: For median nerve injury# Apley's grinding test: For meniscus injury# Apprehension test: For recurrent dislocation of the shoulder# Barlow's test: For CDH# Blue sclera: Osteogenesis imperfect# Bryant's test: For anterior dislocation of the shoulder# Callaways' test: For anterior dislocation of the shoulder# Chovstek's sign: For tetany# Claw hand: For ulnar nerve injury# Coin test: For dorso-lumbar tuberculosis of spine# Cozen's test: For tennis elbow# Drawer test: For ACL and PCL injuries# Anterior: For ACL injury.# Posterior: For PCL injury# Finkelstein's test: For de Quervain's tenovaginitis# Foot drop: For common peroneal nerve injury# Froment's sign: For ulnar nerve injury# Gaenslen's test: For SI joint involvement# Galleazzi sign: For congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)# Gower's sign: For muscular dystrophy# Hamilton-ruler test: For anterior dislocation of the shoulder# Kanavel's sign: For infection in ulnar bursa# Lasegue's test: For disc prolapsed# Lachmann test: For ACL injury# Ludloff s sign: For avulsion of lesser trochanter# McMurray's test: For meniscus injury# Nagffziger test: Disc prolapsed# Obei^s test: For tight ilio-tibial band (e.g., in polio)# O'Donoghue triad: Triad of MCL, ACL and medial meniscus injuries occurring together# Ortolani's test: For CDH# Pivot-shift test: For ACL injury# Policeman tip: For Erb's palsy# Sulcus sign: For inferior dislocation of the shoulder# Thomas' test: For hip flexion deformity# Trendelenburg's test: For unstable hip due to any reason (e.g., CDH)# Tinel's sign: For detecting improving nerve injury# Volkmann's sign: For ischemic contracture of forearm muscles# Wrist drop: For radial nerve injury# Runner's knee: Patellar tendinitis.
|
Orthopaedics
|
Management In Orthopedics
|
Flexion deformity of hip
|
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents, who complain that their son continually loses his balance. They also report that his speech seems more slurred. Physical examination confirms the truncal ataxia and wide-based gait. The child appears lethargic, and there is bobbing of the head while he is sitting. Muscle tone is normal. This patient may have a midline tumor in which anatomic portion of the brain?
|
The neuroectoderm may (albeit infrequently) give rise to a neoplasm of neuronal heritage. These tumors occur most often in childhood, and their cellular composition is usually primitive. An example is medulloblastoma, which arises in the cerebellum, generally in the first decade of life. This entity is usually situated in the vermis. Its growth is rapid and regional infiltration is extensive. Children with medulloblastoma are first seen with cerebellar dysfunction or hydrocephalus. Tumors in the other areas do not ordinarily produce the symptoms described.Diagnosis: Medulloblastoma
|
Pathology
|
Central Nervous System
|
Cerebellum
|
Fosphenytoin is different from phenytoin as
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Fosphenytoin* This water soluble prodrug of phenytoin* It has been introduced to overcome the difficulties in i.v. administration of phenytoin in status epilepticus.* In the body, it is rapidly converted to phenytoin.* Its doses are expressed as phenytoin equivalents (PE).* On i.v. injection it is less damaging to the intima; few vascuiar complications are produced; it can be injected at a faster rate (150 mglmin).* While phenytoin cannot be injected in a drip of glucose solution, fosphenytoin can be injected with both saline and glucose.
|
Pharmacology
|
C.N.S
|
All the above
|
Western blot is used for ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., ProteinVisualization of a specific DNA or RNA fragment among the many thousand of contaminating molecules requires the convergence of number of techniques collectively termed the blot transfer.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Protein
|
Fever is caused by:
|
Ans. b. IL 6
|
Microbiology
| null |
IL 6
|
Ducts of the main lacrimal gland open in:
|
Ans. Both of the above
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Both of the above
|
All are true about popliteus except
|
POPLITEUS:- Origin:-intracapsular origin.lateral condyle of femur.lateral meniscus of knee.Inseion:-posterior surface of shaft of tibia above soleal line. Nerve supply:- tibial nerve.Action:-Unlocks knee by lateral rotation of femur on tibia prior to flexion. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 108}
|
Anatomy
|
Lower limb
|
Inseed to medial meniscus
|
A neurologist notes that a patient has weakness when she attempts internal rotation of her right arm at the shoulder. This could be caused by weakness in which of the following muscles?
|
The subscapularis muscle arises from the anterior surface of the scapula and inses onto the lesser tubercle of the humerus. It is one of the rotator cuff muscles. Its tendon passes on the anterior side of the shoulder joint capsule, where it reinforces the capsule. Contraction of this muscle causes internal rotation of the arm at the shoulder.The infraspinatus muscle arises from the posterior surface of the scapula in the infraspinous fossa and inses on the greater tubercle of the humerus. It is one of the rotator cuff muscles. Its tendon passes along the posterior surface of the shoulder joint capsule, where it reinforces the capsule. Contraction of the infraspinatus causes external rotation of the arm at the shoulder.The pectoralis minor muscle arises from the chest wall and inses onto the coracoid process of the scapula. The pectoralis minor does not attach to the humerus and therefore does not cause movement of the humerus at the shoulder.The supraspinatus muscle arises from the posterior surface of the scapula in the supraspinous fossa and inses onto the greater tubercle. It is one of the rotator cuff muscles. Its tendon passes along the superior surface of the shoulder joint capsule, where it reinforces the capsule. Contraction of the supraspinatus causes abduction of the arm at the shoulder. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 30. Shoulder and Axilla. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture:
|
Anatomy
| null |
Subscapularis
|
X-ray abdomen of neonate shows:
|
Ans. (c) Pneumatosis intestinalis.* The finding of pneumatosis intestinalis (air in the bowel wall) confirms the clinical suspicion of NEC and is diagnostic; 50-75% of patients have pneumatosis when treatment is started.* NEC is the most common life-threatening emergency of the gastrointestinal tract in the new-born period.* The greatest risk factor for NEC is prematurity.* Pneumatosis Intestinalis is seen modified Bell staging class 2A* Pneumoperitoneum is seen in modified Bell staging class 3B* Portal venous gas is a sign of severe disease, and pneumoperitoneum indicates a perforation.* Hepatic ultrasonography may detect portal venous gas despite normal abdominal roentgenograms. Image source. style="text-decoration: underline; color: rgba(17, 85, 204, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">638.jpg?cb=1363698022
|
Pediatrics
|
Gastro Intestinal System
|
Pneumatosis intestinalis
|
The effects associated with cold working can be eliminated by a heat treatment called
| null |
Dental
| null |
Annealing heat treatment
|
Stress ulcers seen in burns are:
|
Answer is A (Curling's Ulcer) Stress ulcers after severe burns are called curling's ulcers Stress ulcers after head trauma : Cushing's Ulcers Stress ulcers after severe burns : Curling's Ulcers
|
Medicine
| null |
Curling's ulcer
|
Which generation of bonding system combines the primer and bonding agent into a single step?
|
FIFTH GENERATION
To decrease the number of steps PRIME AND BOND WERE COMBINED.
ETCH + (PRIME+BOND).
Called self priming adhesive.
Bond strength 17-24 MPA.
Less number of steps less post operative sensitivity.
Eg: Prime and bond NT, Adper single bond, Opti bond solo.
Reference- Sturdevant 6th ed
|
Dental
| null |
Fifth
|
Which of the follow ing drugs is contraindicated in liver dysfunction?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pefloxacin In liver dysfunctionDrugs contraindicatedDrugs require dose adjustmento Erthromycin estolaleo Tetracyclineso Pyrazinamideo Pefloxacino Chloremphenicalo Methotrexateo INHo Rifampicino Tacrineo Talcaponeo Clindamycin
|
Pharmacology
|
Adverse Drug Effect
|
Pefloxacin
|
To say twin discordance the differences in the two twins should be :
|
Ans. is c i.e. 25% with the larger twin as index Unequal sizes of twin fetuses with a difference of 25% (larger twin being used as the index), is called as Discordant growth. It is a sign of pathological growth restriction in the smaller fetus. As the weight difference within a twin pair increases and the earlier the growth discordance is evident, perinatal moality increases. Most common cause of discordance : In dichorionic twins - unequal placental mass. mr,nochnrinnic ftviriS - Twin - twin transfusion syndrome/Genetic syndrome Hazards of discordant growth. The smaller fetus is at increased risk of perinatal moality due to : Respiratory distress Intra ventricular hemorrhage - Seizure Sepsis - Periventricular leukomalacia Necrotising enterocolitis At a difference of more than 30% - Risk of fetal death increases. Extra Edge : Besides weight - other ultrasonographic parameters indicating discordance. Difference in Bipanetal diameter is 6 mm or more. - Difference in Head circumference is 5% or more. - Difference in Abdominal circumference is 20 mm or more. On colour doppler ultrasound in umbilical aeries systolic to diastolic (S/D) ratio difference -is 15% or more. but amongst all cnterias best is Fetal weight difference i.e. more than equal to 25deg Route of delivery : In case of discordant growth vaginal delivery is indicated if - Cervix is ripe - Presentation is veex / veex - Weight of smaller twin is > 1500gms
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
25% with the larger twin as index
|
Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion -
| null |
Orthopaedics
| null |
Simple bone cyst
|
Score 4 of IOTN?
| null |
Dental
| null |
Treatment need
|
a-receptor of estrogens are?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nuclear receptors in breast(Ref: Principles of medical physiologlt p. 777).Estrogen binds to nuclear receptors --> Estrogen receptors (ERs)
|
Physiology
| null |
Nuclear receptors in breast
|
Which of the following is an exclusive 5-HT 1F receptor agonist approved by FDA for treatment of acute migraine attack?
|
Lasmiditan has been approved by FDA in October 2019 for acute treatment of migraine attack which is a selective 5-HT 1F receptor agonist. The triptans were designed to stimulate selectively subpopulations of 5-HT receptors; at least 14 different 5-HT receptors exist in humans. The triptans are potent agonists of 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors, and some are active at the 5-HT1F receptor; the latter's exclusive agonists are called ditans. Most drugs effective in the treatment of migraine are members of one of three major pharmacologic classes: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonists, and dopamine receptor antagonists. Two new classes of therapeutic agents, CGRP receptor antagonists, such as rimegepant and ubrogepant, and 5-HT1F receptor agonists, such as lasmiditan, should soon be available. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 3096, 3100.
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
Lasmiditan
|
A person of 60 years age is suffering from myositis ossificans progressive. The usual cause of death would be -
|
Severe restrictive chest wall disease reduces pulmonary volumes and predisposes to right ventricular dysfunction (cor pulmonale).
Cardiopulmonary failure may lead to premature death.
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
Lung disease
|
Lacunar infarcts manifests as -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
All of the above
|
Genital ulcers are seen in all except -
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
H. aegyptius
|
Wormian bones are seen in all except ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fibrous dysplasia Wormian bones Wormian bones are extra bone pieces that occur within a suture in the cranium. These are irregular isolated bones which appear in addition to the usual centers of ossification of the cranium. They occur most frequently in the course of the lambdoid suture. Causes of wormian bones (Mnemonic - PORKCHOPS) Pyknodysostosis Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets Kinky hair syndrome Cleidocranial dysostosis Hypothyroidism (cretinism) / Hypophosphatasia Otopalatodigital syndrome Progeria Syndrome of Downs Wormian bone appears radiographically as islands of ossification in the skull in nonossified membranous bone. To be diagnostic value, the wormian bones should be 4 mm by 6 mm in size, 10 in number and arranged in a mosaic pattern. Wormian bones are not present in normal skull.
|
Surgery
| null |
Fibrous dysplasia
|
Site of RBC formation in 20-year-old healthy male is
|
RBC formation in 20-year-old healthy adult takes place in flat bones. It also occurs in end of long bones.RBC formation during mesoblastic stage (3rd week to 3rd month) of intrauterine life takes place in yolk sac.RBC formation during hepatic stage (after 3 months) of intrauterine life takes place in liver.Ref: Medical physiology for UG students, Indu Khurana, pg 104
|
Physiology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
Flat bones
|
Which of the following is an analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis?
|
Nefopam is nonopioid analgesic and does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis relieves traumatic, postoperative, sho lasting musculoskeletal pain produce anticholinergic and sympathomimetic side effects Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION;KD TRIPATHI;PAGE NO 208
|
Pharmacology
|
Autacoids
|
Nefopam
|
Biopsy from parathyroid gland from a 55-year old male who presented to nephrology department of AIIMS has been shown below. He is a known case of chronic kidney disease with hypertension and type II diabetes. He has recently developed bone pain, lesions in skin and recurrent stones in kidney
|
Ans. (a) Water clear cells in parathyroid hyperplasia.*The given histology shows abundant optically clear cells of variable size (hyperplasia and hypertrophy), with spherical clear vacuoles surrounded by thin eosinophilic material; basal nuclei, compact or alveolar patterns.
|
Pathology
|
Endocrine
|
Water clear cells in parathyroid hyperplasia
|
A sample to look for uric crystal (Gouty tophus) would be submitted to the pathology laboratory in:
|
C i.e. Alcohol
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Alcohol
|
Which of the following is a "Fenestrated hip prosthesis"?
|
ANSWER: (B) Austin Moore prosthesisREF: Essential Handbook of Practical Orthopedic Examination, By Dr. Kaushik Banerjee, page 146Bipolar prosthesis is used for total hip replacement (THR) while the Austin Moore and Thompson both are used for hemiarthroplasty. Bipolar prosthesis can be both fenestrated and non-fenestratedAustin Moore is always fenestratedThompson is always non fenestrated Austin mooreThompsonPartsHead, neck, collar, shoulder, stemHead, neck, collar, stem (no shoulder)FixingWithout bone cementWith bone cementExtractionEasierVery difficultStem fenestrationsTwo in numberNilCollar holePresent (to check position)AbsentSelf-lockingPresentAbsentWeightLight weightHeavierUsed whenCalcar femorale > 1.25 cmCalcar femorale <1.25 cm
|
Orthopaedics
|
Avascular Necrosis & Osteochondroses
|
Austin Moore prosthesi
|
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