question
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| exp
stringlengths 1
22.5k
⌀ | subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | answer
stringlengths 1
287
⌀ |
|---|---|---|---|---|
Metachromatic granules are found in:
|
Metachromatic granules
It is a type of intracytoplasmic inclusion characteristically seen in diphtheria bacilli.
Also known as volutin or metachromatic or Babes Ernst granules.
Strongly basophilic bodies consist of polymetaphosphate.
They are reservoir of energy and phosphate.
They are most frequent in cells growing under nutritionally deficient condition.
Remember :
Metachromatic granules are also seen in B.pertussis (whooping cough).
|
Microbiology
| null |
Diphtheria
|
Elevation of which of the following metabolite in MR Spectroscopy suggests a possibility of carcinoma prostate?
|
Ans CMR Spectroscopy of Prostate - Principal among the identifiable metabolite is citrate, found in relatively high concentration in the glandular tissue of a healthy prostate. The normal MRI spectrum of the prostate reveals a prominent citrate peak, which often appears as a doublet if the shim is good enough. Other are those of creatinine and choline. Choline is a composite peak made up of phospholipid membrane components. It is elevated in many malignant tumors, including prostate cancer
|
Radiology
|
Genito Urinary System
|
Choline
|
All the following are angiogenic factors EXCEPT -
|
Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 67,heading=Growth factors involved in Angiogenesis. Correct option is 3,IFN Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) stimukates both migration and proliferation of endothelial cells,thus initiating the process of capillary sprouting in angiogenesis. Placental growth factor(PIGF) involved in vessel devolopment in embryo. Transforming factor3(TGF3) is also an angiogenic factor.
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
IFN
|
Not a feature of REM sleep:
|
Bruxism REF: GUYTON & HALL, Ganong, various internet resources. See APPENDIX-11 for "SLEEP PHYSIOLOGY"
|
Physiology
| null |
Bruxism
|
Function of larynx ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All There are three impoant functions of larynx, which are of real concerns to the clinician :? Provision of airway Larynx serves as a conduit for air and waste gases to and from lungs. Protection of airway Larynx prevents the passage of secretions of food and of other forein material into the upper respiratory tract. Phonation Larynx serves as organ of voice.
|
Anatomy
| null |
All
|
Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid aery
|
Recurrent laryngeal nerve may pass anterior, posterior or through the branches of the aery and care is taken to preserve it. RLN is injured near the ligament of Berry when cautery or aery forceps is used indiscriminately while cutting the ligament of Berry to free the thyroid lobe. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 382.
|
ENT
|
Diagnostic and operative ENT
|
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
Most common cause of death in Electrocution is-
|
Ventricular fibrillation is the usual cause of death in electrocution.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Ventricular fibrillation
|
With slowly advancing enamel caries and rapid involvement of dentin, the type of dentin formed is:
|
Sclerotic dentin
Dentin that forms in response to stimuli such as aging or mild irritation (slow advancing caries). When responding to initial caries demineralization events, crystalline material precipitates in intratubular and intertubular dentin. Sclerotic dentin walls off a lesion by blocking (sealing) the dentinal tubules. This zone can be seen even before the demineralization reaches the dentin and it may not be present in rapidly advancing lesions. Clinically, sclerotic dentin is dark and harder than normal dentin.
Sturdevant's operative dentistry 7th edition page 43
|
Dental
| null |
Sclerotic
|
Inveor of foot is
|
Eversion: movement in which the lateral border of the foot is elevated so that the sole faces laterally. Inversion: movement in which the medial border of the foot is elevated so that the sole faces medially. In eversion and inversion, the entire pa of the foot below the talus moves together. Inversion is accompanied by plantar flexion of the foot and adduction of the forefoot.Eversion is accompanied by the dorsiflexion of the foot and adduction of the forefoot. JOINTS TAKING PA:-Subtalar Talocalcaneonavicular Transverse talar AXIS:- These movements takes place around an oblique axis which runs forwards, upwards and medially, passing from the back of the calcaneum, through sinus tarsi, to emerge at the superomedial aspect of the neck of the talus. The obliquity of the axis pay accounts for the adduction, abduction, plantar flexion and dorsiflexion which are associated with these movements. RANGE:-Inversion is more free than eversion The range of movements is increased in plantar flexion. MUSCLES PRODUCING MOVEMENTS:- Muscles- Main Accessory Inversion Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior FHL FDL Eversion Peroneus longus Peroneus brevis {Reference:BDC 6E}
|
Anatomy
|
Lower limb
|
Tibialis posterior
|
All are TRUE about hyperparathyroidism, except-
|
solitary adenoma is the most common cause ( Harrison 17 pg 2380)
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
None of the above
|
Population attributable risk is defined as the difference between-
|
.population attributable risk is the incidence of the disease or death in the total population minus the incidence of disease or death among those who were not exposed to the suspected casual factor..this concept is useful in that it provides an estimate of the amount by which the disease could be reduced in that population if the suspected factor was eliminated or modified. ref:park&;s textbook,22 nd ed,pg 75
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
Incidence in population and incidence in non exposed compared with incidence in population
|
A child of 5 years can use sentences of around how many words?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10 words * Although a child has a vocabulary of 250 words at 3 years, the child can use sentence of 10 words at 5 years.* At 18 months, the child can use 10 words with meaning.Other milestones asked in the question are achieved in children older than 18 months* Making a tower of 9 cubes - 30 months* Turn pages of book one at a time - 2 years* Ride tricycle - 3 yearsMilestones achieved at 18 months of age* Starts running (runs stiffy)* Can feed himself from a cup.* Can use 10 words with meaning.* Name pictures* Builds tower of 4 cubes.* Ready for starting toilet training.* Copies parents in task.
|
Pediatrics
|
Growth, Development, and Behavior
|
10 words
|
Which of the following inhibits both gastric acid secretion and motility?
|
G.I.P Secretion + glucose /fat in duodenum, in large doses it inhibits gastric secretion and motility V.I.P -They are inhibitory to the smooth muscles of the intestines. -It causes smooth muscle relaxation in the GIT --> decreases the motility Somatostatin: -Central mechanism of inhibition of gastric acid secretion. -No role in inhibition of gastric motility or gastric emptying Ghrelin: -Increases GH release from the pituitary. -Increases appetite by stimulating neuropeptide Y (NPY) in the feeding centers of the lateral hypothalamus. -Decreases the breakdown of fat and increases gastric motility and acid secretion. -Thus, ghrelin has effect on both gastric motility and secretion; it increases both.
|
Physiology
|
Gastrointestinal System
|
Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
|
A 23 year old presented with fever with chills and back pain. He also complained about increased frequency of voiding. USG examination reveals that bladder stones. All of the following are true about bladder stones, EXCEPT:
|
Primary vesical calculi are rare in the United States but are common in Southeast Asia and the Middle East. Most bladder calculi are seen in men. In developing countries, they are frequently found in prepubescent boys. Stone analysis frequently reveals ammonium urate, uric acid, or calcium oxalate stones. A solitary bladder stone is the rule, but there are numerous stones in 25% of patients. Patients present with irritative voiding symptoms, intermittent urinary stream, urinary tract infections, hematuria, or pelvic pain. Small stones can be removed or crushed transurethrally (cystolithalopaxy). Ref: Cooper C.S., Joudi F.N., Williams R.D. (2010). Chapter 38. Urology. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.
|
Surgery
| null |
Rare in Indian children
|
Specific gravity of enamel is
| null |
Dental
| null |
2.8
|
Nerve most commonly injured in Mcburney's incision:
|
Ans. (b) Iliohypogastric NRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition, Page 1214* Most common nerve injured in McArthur grid iron incision is Iliohypogastric nerve
|
Surgery
|
Small & Large Intestine
|
Iliohypogastric N
|
A 40-year-old women presented with a CT scan of the head showing an enlarged sella tursica. Neurological and endocrine work up in detail were found to be normal. The most likely diagnosis is -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Empty sella syndrome
|
Which of the following is the clinical indication for using Cidofovir?
|
Cidofovir is a cytidine nucleotide analogue. This is a broad spectrum agent with in vitro activity against human herpesviruses, adenovirus, HPV, polyomaviruses and human poxviruses. Cidofovir is under clinical investigation for a variety of potential applications. Examples include intravenous administration of cidofovir for treatment of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy and Kaposi's sarcoma, intraocular injection for treatment of CMV retinitis, intralesional injection for treatment of respiratory papillomatosis, topical application for treatment of molluscum contagiosum, anogenital condyloma acuminata, and recurrent genital herpes, and ophthalmic instillation for treatment of viral keratoconjunctivitis.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
All of the above
|
Testis descends the in inguinal canal during - month
|
Testies descent :
4th month - itiac fossa.
7th month - deep inginal ring.
7th and 8th month - Inguinal canal.
|
Anatomy
| null |
7th month
|
An adult patient presents with normal or enlarged kidneys with massive proteinuria. Most likely cause is -
|
Answer- C. AmyloidosisAmyloidosis causes :-Enlarged kidneyMassive proteinuria (nephrotic range proteinuria)
|
Medicine
| null |
Amyloidosis
|
There is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward. What is the best way to control the infection?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Washing hand before & after attending patients " Given the prominence of cross infection, hand hygiene is the single most preventive measure in hospitals."
|
Microbiology
| null |
Washing hand before & after attending patient
|
Iron supplementation in a healthy term breast fed baby should be staed at the age of -
|
Ans. is NoneCorrect answer is 6 months.
|
Pediatrics
| null | null |
Which branch of poal vein is involved in chronic pancreatitis
|
,
|
Anatomy
|
G.I.T
|
Splenic vein
|
No chemoprophylaxis for
|
Cholera: Tetracycline or furazolidone for household contacts Bacterial conjunctivitis: Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment Diphtheria: Erythromycin Influenza: Oseltamivir Meningitis, meningococcal: Ciprofloxacin, and minocycline Plague: Tetracycline for contacts of pneumonic plague Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 137
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
Chicken pox
|
Oblique view is required to diagnose fracture of
|
B i.e. Scaphoid
|
Surgery
| null |
Scaphoid
|
CD marker of stem cell is:
|
Ans: A (CD 34) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition. Explanation:(See following table)Some Immune Cell Antigens Detected by Monoclonal AntibodiesAntigenDesignationNormal Cellular DistributionPRIMARILY T-CELL ASSOCIATEDCD1Thymocytes and Langerhans cellsCD3Thymocytes, mature T cellsCD4Helper T ceils, subset of thymocytesCD5T cells and a small subset of B cellsCD8Cytotoxic T cells, subset of thymocytes, and some NK cellsPRIMARILY B-CELL ASSOCIATEDCD1 0Pre-B cells and germinal-center B cells; also called CALLACD19Pre-B cells and mature B cells but not plasma cellsCD20Pre-B cells after CD19 and mature B ceils but not plasma cellsCD21EBV receptor; mature B cells and follicular dendrstic cellsCD23Activated mature B cellsCD79aMarrow pre-B cells and mature B celtsPRIMARILY MONOCYTE-OR MACROPHAGE-ASSOCIATEDCD11cGranulocytes, monocytes, and macrophages; also expressed by na ry cell leukenmasCD13Immature and mature monocytes and granulocytesCD14MonocytesCD15Granulocytes; Reed-Stern berg cells and variantsCD 33Myeloid progenitors and monocytesCD64Mature myeloid celsPRIMARILY NK-C ELL ASSOCIATEDCD16NK cells and granulocytesCD56NK cells and a subset of T cellsPRIMARILY STEM CELL-AND PROGENITOR DELL-ASSOCIATEDCD34Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells of many lineagesACTIVATION MARKERSCD30Activated B cells. T cells, and monocytes;Reed-Sternberg cells and variantsPRESENT ON ALL LEUKOCYTESCD45All leukocytes; also known as leukocyte common antigen (LCA)
|
Pathology
|
Cells and Tissues of Immune System
|
CD 34
|
Most common sinus to be involved in acute sinusitis?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Maxillary Most common sinus affected by sinusitis overall Maxillary Most common sinus affected in adult Maxillary Most common sinus affected in children Ethmoid Least common sinus affected Sphenoid Sinuses involved in order of frequency Maxillary > Frontal > Ethmoid > Sphenoid
|
ENT
| null |
Maxillary
|
The visualization of the angle of anterior chamber by:
|
(Gonioscopy) (546-Khurana 4rd)GONIOSCOPY - The angle between the posterior corneal surface and the anterior surface of the iris constitute the angle of the anterior chamber the configuration of which is relevant to the pathogenesis of glaucoma contact between peripheral iris and cornea signifies, a closed angle, which precludes aqueous access to the trabecular meshwork. While wide separation between the two signifies in or beyond the trabecular meshwork. Gonioscopy involves the examination and analysis of angle.1. Diagnostic - Gonioscopy facilitates the identification of abnormal angle structure and estimation of the width of the chamber angle particularly important in the management of eyes with narrow angles.2. Surgical - gonioscopy involves visualization of the angle during procedures such as laser trabeculoplasty and goniotomy.Perimetry - estimating extent of the visual fields.Direct ophthalmoscopyIndirect ophthalmoscopy* Most commonly practiced method for routine fundus examination* Image is erect, virtual and 15 times magnified in emmetropes* Popular method for examination of the posterior segment* Image is real, inverted, 4-5 times magnified.
|
Ophthalmology
|
Glaucoma
|
Gonioscopy
|
Most common indication of liver transplant in children is:
|
A. Biliary atresia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1975)Biliary atresia is the most common indication for liver transplantation in children, followed by metabolic and inborn disorders, autoimmune and familial cholestatic disorders, and acute hepatic necrosis.
|
Pediatrics
|
Gastro Intestinal System
|
Biliary atresia
|
Nuk Sauger Nipple has been designed to prevent the problem of:
|
Children who have the habit of thumb sucking derive the pleasure from keeping their finger/thumb at various depths of mouth.
Initially, they start this at conscious level and soon it goes to the subconscious level.
If it is not intervened, it will alter the muscle balance and might cause malocclusion.
Along with this, it also alters the way the child sucks the nipple.
|
Dental
| null |
Thumb sucking
|
The phenomenon where subsequent generations are at risk of earlier and more severe disease is known as
|
Ref Robbins 9/e p169 Anticipating refers to observation that clinical features of a genetic disease worsen with each successive generations.it is observed in fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease commonly
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
Anticipation
|
People are arranged alphabetically by their names and then every 3rd person is chosen for study. The type of sampling is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Systematic random Simple random samplingo Simple random sampling, also, known as 4unrestricted random samplingis applicable for small, homogenous, readily available population and is used in clinical trials,o In simple random sampling each individual is chosen randomly and entirely by chance,o So, each individual has the same probability of being chosen at any stage during the sampling process.For example : -o Let us assume you had a school with 1000 students, divided equally into boys and girls, and you wanted to select 100 of them for further study.o You might put all their names in a bucket and then pull 100 names out.o Not only does each person have an equal chance of being selected, we can also easily calculate the probaility of a given person being chosen, since we know the sample size (n) and population (N) and it becomes a simple matterof division - n/N or 100/1000 = 0.10 (10%).o This means that even' student in the school has a 10% or 1 in 10 chance of being selected using this method.Methods of simple random sampling.Lottery methodRandom number tableComputer sofware - Computer technique.Systematic random samplingo In order to do systematic random sampling, the individuals in a population are arranged in a certain way (for example, alphabetically).o A random starting point is selected and then every n,h (for example 10th or 15th) individual is selected for the sample.o That is, after arranging the individuals in certain pattern (e.g., alpabetically) a starting point is chosen at random, and choices thereafter at regular interv als,o For example, suppose you want to sample 8 houses from a street of 120 houses.o 120/8 = 15, So every' 15th house is chosen after a random starting point between 1 and 15.o If the random starting point is 11, then the houses selected are - 11, 26, 41, 56, 71, 86, 101, and 116.o In contrast to simple random sampling, some houses have a larger selection probabily e.g., in this question 11, 26,41,56, 71, 86, 100 and 116.o While the remaining number can not be selected.Stratified random samplingo When sub-populations vary considerably, it is advantageous to sample each subpopulation (stratum) independently,o Stratification is the process of grouping members of the population into relative hemogenous subgroups before sampling.o The strata should be mutually exclusive, every element in the population must be assigned to only one stratum,o Then systematic random sampling method is applied within each stratum.Population - Stratification - Systematic random sampling - Sample.o This often improves the representativeness of the sample by reducing sampling error.o For example, suppose in a population of 1000, sample of 100 is to be drawn for Hb estimation, first convert the population into homogenous striata (e.g., 700 males and 300 females), then draw 70 males and 30 females by doing systematic random sampling.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Statistical Tests
|
Systematic random
|
A 30 years old lady was brought to the hospital with strong labour pains for the last 3 hours and no progress. She was found to have pelvic deformities which lead to cephalopelvicdisproportion. The baby was delivered by a cesarean section. The woman is likely to have suffered from the deficiency of
| null |
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Vitamin D
|
Negri bodies are found in-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rabies * The characteristic histopathological picture in rabies is the intra-cytoplasmic inclusion body (Negri body) in the neurons, most abundant in the cerebellum and Hippocampus.* Negri bodies are pathognomic of rabies.
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
Rabies
|
A 35-year-old patient has a small but painful tumor under the nail of the little finger. Which of the following nerves would have to be anesthetized for a painless removal of the tumor?
|
The common palmar digital branch comes off the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve and supplies the skin of the little finger and the medial side of the ring finger. The superficial branch of the radial nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the radial (lateral) dorsum of the hand and the radial two and a half digits over the proximal phalanx. The common palmar digital branch of the median nerve innervates most of the lateral aspect of the palmar hand and the dorsal aspect of the second and third finger as well as the lateral part of the fourth digit. The deep radial nerve supplies the extensor carpi radialis brevis and supinator muscles and continues as the posterior interosseous nerve. The recurrent branch of the median nerve supplies the abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles.
|
Anatomy
|
Upper Extremity
|
Common palmar digital of ulnar
|
The most common cause of vocal cord palsy is:
|
Thyroidectomy was the single most common surgical cause for unilateral vocal cord palsy, followed by other nonthyroid neck surgeries (20%) and anterior cervical decompression (18.3%). Conclusion: The most common cause for unilatera lvocal cord palsy is idiopathic.
|
ENT
| null |
Total thyroidectomy
|
Tinnels sign indicates:
|
Ans: d (Regeneration of nerves)Ref: Schwartz surgery, 7th ed, p. 1885
|
Surgery
|
Nervous System
|
Regeneration of nerves
|
Which of the following is not a pathogenic mycobacteria -
|
According to RUNYON classification atypical mycobacterium is classified under RAPID GROWERS which include M.chelonie, M.fouitum, M.smegmatis, M.abscess, M.phlei. Non pathogenic- M. smegmatis M. kansasii- Pulmonary disease resembling tuberculosis M. scrofulaceum- Cervical lymphadenitis M. chelonae- chronic abscess
|
Microbiology
|
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
|
M. smegmatis
|
Organophosphate insecticides are all except
|
Ans. is `a' i.e., Dieldrin
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Dieldrin
|
Interpret the developmental anomaly shown in the following radiograph:
|
Dens invaginatus
This anomaly is the result of an infolding of the enamel organ prior to calcification and represents, in its coronal form, an accentuation of the cingulum pit. The anomaly is believed to be genetically determined and has a prevalence of 5%. The maxillary lateral incisors are commonly affected. The condition rarely occurs in the deciduous dentition.
Radiological signs
The invagination appears as a linear radiopacity at the level of the cingulum. It varies in the degree that it involves the coronal tooth tissue. The tooth may display an open apex and periapical radiolucency as a sequel to loss of pulp vitality.
Ref: Interpreting Dental Radiographs by Keith Horner, Jon Rout and Vivian E Rushton
|
Radiology
| null |
Dens invaginatus
|
A 40-year-old male patient presented with slowly progressive dysphagia both to solids and liquids, regurgitation, chest pain and weight loss for 2 months. Barium swallow and esophageal manometry was advised by the doctor. Upper GI endoscopy was also performed. Which of the following organism has been most commonly implicated in causing the above disease: -
|
This is a case of achlasia cardia. Barium swallow x-ray appearance shows a dilated esophagus with poor emptying, an air-fluid level, and tapering at the les giving it a beak-like appearance. Esophageal manometry shows impaired lower esophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and absent peristalsis and minimal pressurization of the esophageal body. UPPER GI ENDOSCOPY SHOWS a: Functional stenosis of the esophagogastric junction. b: Wrapping around the esophagogastric junction. c: Abnormal contraction of the esophageal body. d: Mucosal thickening and whitish change. e: Dilation of the esophageal lumen. f, g: Liquid and/or food remnant. Achalasia cardia It is an autoimmune process Due to loss of ganglion cells Presents with dysphagia, regurgitation and chest pain. It is attributed to latent infection with HSV-1.
|
Unknown
|
Integrated QBank
|
HSV 1
|
Hyperophic pyloric stenosis presents after how many months of bih :
|
Pyloric stenosis is the most common surgical disorder producing emesis in infancy. It results from hyperophy of the circular and longitudinal muscularis of the pylorus and the distal antrum of the stomach with progressive narrowing of the pyloric canal. The cause is not known. The male-to-female incidence is 4:1.It presents 2-4 weeks after bih. Typically, the affected infant is full term when born and feeds and grows well until 2-4 weeks after bih, at which time occasional regurgitation of some of the feedings occurs. Ref :Albanese C.T., Sylvester K.G. (2010). Chapter 43. Pediatric Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.
|
Surgery
| null |
One
|
Gold is used for management of?
|
Ans. (b) Rheumatoid ArthritisRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 2144-45* Minocycline, gold salts, enicillamine, azathioprine, and cyclosporine have all been used for the treatment of RA with varying degrees of success; however, they are used sparingly now due to their inconsistent clinical efficacy or unfavorable toxicity profile.* Drugs used in Rheumatoid arthritis* Hydroxychloroquine* Lefluonomide* Methotrexate* Abatacept* Anakinra* Rituximab
|
Medicine
|
Immunology and Rheumatology
|
Rheumatoid Arthritis
|
The Y shaped central developmental groove is most likely found on which of the following premolars?
|
Y shaped central developmental groove is found on the mandibular second premolar.
|
Dental
| null |
Mandibular second.
|
Which one of the following is not a feature of type 2 respiratory failure ?
| null |
Medicine
| null |
p CO2 38 mm Hg and pO2 50 mm HG
|
What is the most commonly involved in carcinoma colon -
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Rectosigmoid colon
|
Which of the following is not a feature of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia(TPE)?
|
In tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, microfilariae and parasite antigens are rapidly cleared from the blood stream by the lungs and is therefore not found in the circulation. TPE develops in individuals infected with lymphatic dwelling filarial species. Characterisitc features includes paroxysmal cough and wheezing, fever, weight loss, lymphadenoapthy and pronounced blood eosinophilia (more than 3000eosinophils/microL). Chest Xray shows increased bronchovascular markings. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 218.
|
Medicine
| null |
Presence of circulating Microfilaria
|
The distinct golden colour in transgenic Golden rice is due to presence of
|
Golden rice:
Variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to boisynthesize beta carotene, a precursor of vitamin A.
The distinct golden colour is due to the beta carotene content.
It is indented to produce a fortified food to be grown and consumed in areas with a shortage of dietary vitamin A.
Golden rice differs from its parenteral strain by the addition of three beta carotene biosynthesis gene.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
β-carotene
|
Tumour cells avoid immugenic response by all except:
|
Ans: B (Decreased...) IMMUNE SURVEILLANCE IN CANCER Robbins 8th/331-32Most cancers occur in persons who do not suffer from any overt immunodeficiency. It is evident then that tumor ceils must develop mechanisms to escape or evade the immune system in immunocompetent hosts.Several such mechanisms may be operative: They are-# Selective outgrowth of antigen-negative variants: During tumor progression, strongly immunogenic subclones may be eliminated.# Loss or reduced expression of MHC molecules: Tumor cells may fail to express normal levels of HLA class I molecules, thereby escaping attack by cytotoxic T cells. Such cells, however, may trigger NK cells# Lack of costimulatiom tumor cells may express peptide antigens with class I molecules, they often do not express costlmitlatory molecules. This not only prevents sensitization, but also may renderT cells anergic or, worse, cause them to undergo apoptosis. Because dendritic cells express high levels of co stimulatory molecules, it Is expected that such dendritic cell immunization will stimulate antitumor T cells.# Immunosuppression: Many oncogenic agents (e.g., chemicals and ionizing radiation) suppress host immune responses. Tumors or tumor products (like TGF-b) may also be immunosuppressive.# Antigen masking: The cell-surface antigens of tumors may be hidden, or masked, from the immune system by glycocalyx molecules, such as sialic acid-containing mucopolysaccharides. This may be a consequence of the fact that tumor cells often express more of these glycocalyx molecules than normal cells do.# Apoptosis of cytotoxic T cells: Some melanomas and hepatocellular carcinomas express Fas ligand. It has been postulated that these tumors kill Fas-expressing T lymphocytes that come in contact with them, thus eliminating tumor-specific T cellsImmunosuppressive cytokines (e.g., TGF-b)Fig: Mechanisms by which tumors evade the immune system
|
Pathology
|
Tumor Immunity
|
Decreased expression of MHC II molecule
|
The second number in a four number instrument formula denotes
| null |
Dental
| null |
Primary cutting edge angle
|
Lyedig ceils secrete -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Testosterone o The hormone-secreting cells in the testes are the leydig cells and sertoli cells. Leydig cells have receptors for LH and secrete all the androgens, i.e., testosterone (major androgen), dihydrotestosterone (DHT), androstendione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). All of theme have 19 carbon atoms.o Sertoli cells are under the control of FSH, i.e., have receptors for FSH. When stimulated by FSH, these cells secrete androgen binding protein (ABP), inhibin and MIS (mullerian inhibiting substance). Sertoli cells also contair aromatase; the enzyme that converts androgens to estrogens. Beside these hormonal function, junction betweer adjacent sertoli cells forms blood-testis barrier which does not allow harmful substances to enter the area when spermatogenesis is going on. Sertoli cells also have receptors for androgens (testosterone) which stimulate: spermatogenesis.
|
Physiology
|
Sex Hormones
|
Testosterone
|
Test not used for diagnosis of syphilis
|
D i.e. Frie - test - Most specific test is TPI > FTA -ABSQ Non treponemal test becomes non reactive after t/t; the Treponemal test often remain reactive & therefore not helpful in determining the infection status of person with past syphilis Q. Response to treatment in early syphilis is seen by sequential VDRL or RPR titerQ as they become negative after treatment. CSFVDRL is highly specific but insensitive test; may be nonreactive in symptomatic progressive neuro syphilis. It's sensitivity is highest in meningovascular syphilis & paresis.
|
Skin
| null |
Frei Test
|
Which of the following muscle relaxant is contraindicated in muscle dystrophy?
|
Succinyl choline can cause hyperkalemia in especially in nerve & muscle disorders. Hence it is avoided in patients with paraplegia, Guillain barre syndrome, Myasthenia gravis & muscle dystrophy.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Succinyl choline
|
Which of the following is most preferred graft in CABG?
|
Vascular graft Bioprosthetic Synthetic Autograft Homograft (allograft) Heterograft (xenograft) Tissue engineered Textile Dacron Non textile ePTFE Polyurethane Best natural vascular graft: Reversed saphenous vein Best synthetic vascular graft: Dacron Best vascular graft for supra inguinal bypass: Dacron Best vascular graft for infra inguinal bypass: Saphenous vein Best vascular graft for aoa: Dacron Most preferred graft for CABG: LIMA (left internal mammary aery) > Saphenous vein MC used graft for CABG: Saphenous vein
|
Surgery
|
Thorax And Mediastinum
|
Internal mammary aery
|
Which waves is predominantly seen in EEG with eyes closed in normal alert adult?
|
Ans. A. Alpha wavesBandFrequency (Hz)Location NormallyDelta<4frontally in adults, posteriorly in children; high-amplitude waves* adult slow-wave sleep* in babiesTheta4-7Found in locations not related to task at hand* higher in young children* drowsiness in adults and teensAlpha8-15posterior regions of head, both sides, higher in amplitude on dominant side.* relaxed/reflecting* closing the eyesBeta16-31both sides, symmetrical distribution, most evident frontally; low-amplitude waves* range span: active calm - intense - stressed - mild obsessive* active thinking, focus, high alert, anxiousGamma>32Somatosensory cortex* Displays during cross-modal sensory processing (perception that combines two different senses, such as sound and sight)* Also is shown during short-term memory matching of recognized objects, sounds, or tactile sensations
|
Psychiatry
|
Sleep Disorders
|
Alpha waves
|
SERM drug used in treatment of osteoporosis aEUR'
|
Raloxifene Traditionally hormone replacement therapy with estrogen was being used to prevent/treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal worsen. H has been shown to reduce the risk of osteoporosis in women. But long term use of estrogen leads to range of adverse effect including cardiovascular disease, stroke, pulmonary emboli and invasive breast cancer. These serious adverse effect made to look for other options. Selective estrogen receptor modulators These are class of compounds that act on estrogen receptors. Their characteristic feature is that they do not have pure agonist or antagonistic action on estrogen receptors. - Their selective action distinguishes these substances .from pure receptor agonist or antagonist. - SERMS are "selective" that means SERMS block estrogen in some tissues and activate estrogen action in others. - All the SERMS bind to the estrogen receptor but each agent produces a unique receptor drug conformation. - As a result specific coactivator or co-oppressor proteins are bound to the receptor resulting in differential effects. Two SERMS are currently being used Raloxifens For the t/t and prevention of osteoporosis Tamoxifen --> For the t/t and prevention of Breast Ca The .first SERM to reach the market was Tamoxifen which blocks the stimulative effect of estrogen on breast tissue and is used in breast cancer. Raloxifene is the second SERM to be approved by the FDA. Raloxifens has been approved for the tit and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Raloxifens acts like estrogen on bone and helps to build and maintain bone density. - Raloxifen has been shown in clinical trials to increase bone density in the spine and hip and to reduce the risk of spinal fractures in women with osteoporosis. While it acts like estrogen on bone, it blocks the action of estrogen on breast and uterus. - This profile makes it very useful for the t/t of osteoporosis because Raloxifene provides the bone benefits of estrogen without increasing the risk for estrogen related breast and uterine cancers. Raloxifene in Breast cancer Due to its antiestrogenic effect on breast, Raloxifene has been shown to reduce the risk of invasive breast cancer in women who are taking it for osteoporosis. Raloxifene reduces the risk of breast cancer by 50-70% in both low risk and high risk postmenopausal women. The national cancer institute U.S.A. funded the STUDY OF TAMOXIFEN AND RALOXIFEN (STAR) a clinical trial comparing raloxtfens with tamoxifen in preventing breast cancer, in postmenopausal women who are at increased risk of developing the disease. The study found that tamoxifen and Raloxifen are equally effective in reducing invasive breast cancer risk in postmenopausal women who are at increased risk of the disease. The study also .found out that women who took raloxifen had fewer uterine cancer and.fewer blood clots than women who took tamoxifen. However, Raloxifen did not decrease the risk of noninvasive breast Ca. On September 14 2007, the US. food and drug administration announced approval of raloxifens for reducing the risk of invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis and in postmenopausal women at high risk for invasive cancer.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Raloxifene
|
Phlycten is due to -
|
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis - Endogenous allergy It is believed to be a delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV cell mediated) response to endogenous microbial proteins. Causative allergens are :- (i) Staphylococcus proteins (most common); (ii) Tuberculous proteins and (iii) Proteins of Moraxells axenfeld bacillus and ceain parasistes. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis - Exogneous allergy Reference : AK khurana 7th edition
|
Ophthalmology
|
Conjunctiva
|
Endogeneous allergy
|
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to-
|
Tuberculin test is type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Delayed or cell mediated hypersensitivity is a cell mediated response. The antigen activates specifically sensitised CD4 & CD8 T lymphocytes leading to the secretion of lymphokines and phagocyte accumulation. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 162 <\p>
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology
|
T lymphocytes
|
Which muscle arises from 4th pharyngeal arch?
|
(a) Cricothyroid(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 3; 884)We can remember it as the only muscle supplied by external laryngeal nerve (the 4th pharyngeal arch nerve) is cricothyroid hence derived by 4th arch.Rest all the muscles are derived by 6th arch nerve as they are supplied by 6th arch nerve, the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
|
ENT
|
Larynx
|
Cricothyroid
|
Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells via:
| null |
Physiology
| null |
Simple diffusion
|
Gene not associated with Diabetes malitus?
|
PDGF-R gene is associated with glioma.
Most important Genes associated with the Development of Diabetes Type 1 Diabetes
|
Pathology
| null |
PDGF-R
|
Dystrophic calcification are calcifications seen in
| null |
Pathology
| null |
Dead tissue
|
Simultaneous perception in binocuiar vision is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Grade I Grades of binocular single visiono There are three grades of binocular single vision, which are best tested with the help of a synoptophore.1. Grade-1-Simultaneous perceptiony It is the power to see two dissimilar objects stimultaneously.It is tested by projecting two dissimilar objects (which can be joined or superimposed to form a complete picture) in front of the two eyes.For example, when a picture of a bird is projected onto the right eye and that of a cage onto the left eye, an individual with presence of simultaneous perception will see the bird in the cage.2 Grade-11 - FusionIt consists of the power to superimpose two incomplete but similar images to from one complete image.The ability of the subject to continue to see one complete picture when his eyes are made to converge or diverge a few degrees, gives the positive and negative fusion range, respectively.3. Grade-Ill - StereopsisIt consists of the ability to perceive the third dimension (depth perception).It can be tested with stereopsis slides in synoptophore.
|
Ophthalmology
|
General Considerations - Definition, Classification, Pathogenesis
|
Grade I
|
All are cholinergic drugs except
|
Memantine acts on NMDA receptors .remaining all the drugs are indirectly acting cholinergicn drugs used in the treatment of alzhimers disease. Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 472,473
|
Pharmacology
|
Autonomic nervous system
|
Memantine
|
In leprosy, the best bactericidal agent is :
|
Best and the fastest acting drug for leprosy is rifampicin.
Clofazamine and dapsone are bacteriostatic agents.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Rifampicin
|
A 39 week primigravida with breech presentation is in labour. MOST common breech presentation is:
|
The sacrum is the denominator of breech and there are four positions. In anterior positions, the sacrum is directed towards the iliopubic eminences and in posterior positions, the sacrum is directed to the sacro-iliac joints. The positions are, First position - left sacro-anterior- being the commonest 2nd position - right sacro-anterior 3rd position - right sacro-posterior 4th position - left sacro-posterior Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D C Dutta, 6th edition, Page 376.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Left sacroanterior
|
Cognisable offence comes under which section of Cr. P.C. -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2C o Cognisable offence: Section 2C Cr. PC.-it is an offence in which a police officer can arrest a person without warrant from the magistrate. Eg murder, ragging.o In such offences, the person is sent by police to the doctor for medical examination.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Introduction to Forensic Medicine and Medical Jurisprudence
|
2C
|
True about H. pylori includes all except:
|
Ans. is. 'a' i. e., Gram positive bacillus
|
Microbiology
| null |
Gram positive bacillus
|
A 30 year old female epileptic on phenytoin, developed weakness and fatigue. Blood examination revealed Hb = 4.6 gm. MCV = 102 fl and MCH = 40 pg/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Megaloblastic anaemiaNormal valuesMCU- 86 - 98 fLMCH- 28 - 33 pg/cellHb (female) - 12-16 gm/dLLab finding in this pt. go in favour of megaloblastic anemia. H/O phenytoin intake is also suggestive of same.
|
Pharmacology
|
Epilepsy
|
Megalobalstic anemia.
|
All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except -
|
Traction
Traction is defined as a pulling force to treat muscle or skeletal disorders (fractures, dislocation). There are two major types of tractions: skin & skeletal traction.
A) Skin traction
Here the traction is applied to the skin (using adhesive or nonadhesive tape or straps) which is indirectly transmitted to the bone.
Skin traction can sustain a pull of no more than 4 to 5 kgs.
Skin traction is given by adhesive tape & bandage, Buck's apparatus.
Gallow's/Bryant's/Russel traction are examples of skin traction.
B) Skeletal traction
Skeletal traction is an invasive procedure in which pins, screws, wires or tongs (e.g., Steinmann pin, Denham's pin, Kirschner's wire, ice tong, Crutchfield's tong, Bohler stirrup, Ilizarov's wire) are placed into the bones so that the weight is directly applied to the bone.
Skeletal traction is used.
In cases when the pulling force needed is more than the skin traction can bear.
When longer durations of traction is required.
When the part of the body needing traction is positioned so that the skin traction is impossible.
Upto 20 kg weight is permitted.
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
Rush pin
|
Left vertricular hypertrophy is not a feature of
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Isolated mitral stenosis
|
Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Aminoglycosides
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Aminoglycosides
|
A 10-year old child presented with severe sore throat and a grey pseudomembrane over pharynx and tonsils. The organism causing this infection is most likely:
|
Ans. a. A gram positive bacillus (Ref: Harrison 19/e p978, 18/e p1189-1190: Ananthanarayan 9/e p239)A 10-year old child presented with severe sore throat and a grey pseudomembrane over pharynx and tonsils. The clinical features are strongly suggestive of a diagnosis of diphtheria, caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria, a gram-positive bacillus.Respiratory Diphtheria (Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria):Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissues.The diphtheritic pseudomembrane is gray or whitish and sharply demarcatedQ.Diagnosis requires the isolation of C. diphtheria or the histopathologic isolation of compatible gram-positive organismsQ.The pseudomembranous lesion is most often located in the tonsillopharyngeal regionQRespiratory DiphtheriaClinical Features:The clinical diagnosis of diphtheria is based on:Constellation of sore throatQAdherent tonsillar, pharyngeal, or nasal pseudomembranous lesionsQLow-grade feverQOccasionally, weakness, dysphagia, headache, and voice change are the initial manifestationsQ.Neck edema and difficulty breathing are seen in more advanced cases and carry a poor prognosisQ.The systemic manifestations of diphtheria stem from the effects of diphtheria toxin and include weakness as a result of neurotoxicity and cardiac arrhythmias or congestive heart failure due to myocarditisQ.The pseudomembranous lesion is most often located in the tonsillopharyngeal regionQ.The diphtheritic pseudomembrane is gray or whitish and sharply demarcatedQ.Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Less commonly, the lesions are detected in the larynx, nares, and trachea or bronchial passages.Large pseudomembranes are associated with severe disease and a poor prognosisQ.A few patients develop swelling of the tonsils and present with "bull-neck" diphtheria, which results from massive edema of the submandibular and paratracheal region and is further characterized by foul breath, thick speech, and stridorous breathingQ.Unlike the exudative lesion associated with streptococcal pharyngitis, the pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Diagnosis:Attempts to dislodge the membrane may cause bleeding.Hoarseness suggests laryngeal diphtheria, in which laryngoscopy may be diagnostically helpful.In addition, diagnosis requires the isolation of C. diphtheria or the histopathologic isolation of compatible grampositive organismsQ.
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteria
|
A gram positive bacillus
|
Which of the following are true for Bronchiolitis in children?
|
Ans. D. All of the aboveBronchiolitis primarily affects young infants (1- 6 months some may be affected upto 2 years of age), clinical manifestations are initially subtle. Infants may become increasingly fussy and have difficulty feeding during the 2 to 5-day incubation period. A low-grade fever, usually less than 101.5degF, and increasing coryza and congestion usually follow the incubation period. In older children and adults, as well as in up to 60% of infants, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is generally confined to the upper airway and does not progress further. Over a period of 2-5 days, RSV infection progresses from the upper to the lower respiratory tract, and this progression leads to the development of cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and feeding difficulties.
|
Pediatrics
|
Miscellaneous
|
All of the above
|
The periodontal Index is
| null |
Dental
| null |
partially reversible
|
A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is:
|
Sphingomyelin has got sphingosine alcohol, not the glycerol. Lecithin & cardiolipin has got glycerol in it and they are membrane phospholipid.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Sphingomyelin
|
The commonest space-occupying lesion in the cerebellopontine angle is
|
Common tumors of CP (cerebellopontine) angle are 1. Acoustic neuroma (commonest: 80- 90%) 2. Meningioma (2nd commonest: 5- 10%) Ref: Harrison; 20th edition , pubmed.com
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
Acoustic neuroma
|
Which of the following is not a treatment modality for stress incontinence?
|
Fothergill's repair is used to treat uterine prolapse. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Pages 138-39.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Fothergill's repair
|
Drug showing additional nitric oxide activity:
|
Ans. D. NebivololAll the drug mentioned are selective beta 1 blockers. Out of all nebivolol has additional nitric oxide activity which increase the level of cGMP and thus causing vasodilation.
|
Pharmacology
|
C.V.S
|
Nebivolol
|
Synytial osteoclastic giant Cells are seen in all except
|
Refer Robbins page no 8th edition
|
Anatomy
|
Musculoskeletal system
|
Osteosarcoma
|
A chronic alcoholic presented with repeated episodes of non-bilious vomiting after meals. On the basis of CECT findings, what is the diagnosis?
|
Symptoms are s/o pancreatitis In the given CT scan, pancreatic psudocyst is seen Pancreatic Pseudocyst - MC cystic lesion of pancreas (75%)- Not lined by Epithelium, but with granulation tissue - M/C cause of pseudocyst - Alcohol- More common in chronic pancreatitis > Acute pancreatitis- MC complication- Infection (14%) > Hemorrhage (10%)- IOC - CECT- Treatment- Cysto jejunostomy/ Roux-en-Y- Cysto jejunostomy- Indications of surgery - Duration > 6 weeks- Size > 6 cm
|
Surgery
|
Pancreas
|
Pseudocyst
|
Drug of choice for impetigo herpetiformis is -
|
Only indication for use of systemic steroids is generalized pustule psoriasis in pregnancy( impetigo herpetiformis). From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 56
|
Dental
|
Papulosquamous disorders
|
Prednisolone
|
A man with chills, fever, and headache is thought to have "atypical" pneumonia. History reveals that he raises chickens and that approximately 3 weeks ago he lost many them to an undiagnosed disease. The most likely diagnosis of this man's condition is
|
Ornithosis (psittacosis) is caused by Chlamydia psittaci. Humans usually contract the disease from infected birds kept as pets or from infected poultry, including poultry in dressing plants. Although ornithosis may be asymptomatic in humans, severe pneumonia can develop. The disease is cured easily with tetracycline
|
Microbiology
|
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
|
Psittacosis
|
Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as-
|
Bronchoscope is similar to esophagoscope, but has openings at the distal part of the tube, called Vents which help in aeration of the side bronchi.
|
ENT
| null |
Vents
|
Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle glaucoma is
|
Ans. (b) Laser trabeculoplasty* Please refer to above explanation* Treatment of choice for primary angle closure glaucoma (fellow eye, latent stage, subacute or intermittent stage , chronic stage) is laser iridotomy* Peripheral surgical iridectomy can also be used.* In acute congestive stage of PACG drug of choice is Pilocarpine, till the time laser iridotomy can be performed. Treatment of choice for fellow eye | | |Primary open angle glaucoma Primary angle closure glaucoma | | Laser trabeculoplasty Nd YAG Laser Iridotomy
|
Ophthalmology
|
Surgical Procedures For Glaucoma
|
Laser trabeculoplasty
|
Massive Splenomegaly is least likely to be associated with which of the following Myeloproliferative disorders:
|
Answer is C (Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)) Essential Thrombocytosis is not associated with massive splenomegaly. 'Physical Examination in Essential Thrombocytosis is generally unremarkable except occassionally for mild splenomegaly. Massive splenomegaly is indicative of another Myeloproliferative disorder in paicular PV, PMF or CML --Harrison 1867/903 `Splenomegaly in Essential Thrombocytosis is seen in less than 30% of patients, and when palpable the spleen is usually not enlarged more than 4 cm below the left costal margin'.
|
Medicine
| null |
Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)
|
. Gartners cyst can be differentiated from cystocele by all except:
| null |
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Presence of rugosities of overlying vaginal mucosa
|
Axillary nerve supplies
|
Posterior division of axillary nerve supplies the posterior pa of deltoid muscle and teres minor. Teres minor is one of the muscle in rotator cuff muscles. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no : 180
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
Teres minor
|
A 32 yrs lady having 10 yrs old child of down syndrome is presenting at 9th week of pregnancy. what will be advice by doctor?
|
The population risk for Down syndrome is approximately 1 in 800 live bihs and the recurrence risk after the bih of an affected child is approximately 1-2 %. As the lady is already having a child with Down's , the doctor will advice her Chorionic Villous sampling (CVS) to assess fetal karyotype to check for Trisomy 21 can be done in the coming weeks to be sure of the diagnosis. Chorionic Villous sampling - Biopsy of chorionic villi is generally performed between 10 -13 weeks gestation. Most procedures are performed to assess fetal karyotype Numerous specialized genetic tests can also be performed by chorionic villus sampling The primary advantage of villus biopsy is that results are available earlier in pregnancy, allowing safer pregnancy termination. However, the aboion rates are 1-2% which is more than that of amniocentesis.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance
|
Plan a Chorionic Villous sampling
|
Dietary cholesterol is transported to extrahepatic tissue by
|
LDL
It is worth noting that dietary cholesterol is not directly transported to extrahepatic tissues.
Though the major function of chylomicrons is to transport exogenous triglyceride to various tissues, it also transports the other dietary lipids (including cholesterol) to the liver after conversion into chylomicron remnants.
In the liver, this dietary cholesterol and the endogenous cholesterol which is synthesized in the liver itself are incorporated into VLDL which is secreted into the circulation. In circulation, VLDL is converted to IDL and then to LDL. This LDL serves to deliver the cholesterol to various extrahepatic tissues. Thus, LDL transport dietary as well as endogenous cholesterol to extrahepatic tissues.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
LDL
|
The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts are
|
Fate of various cells in enamel organ:
Inner enamel epithelium — differentiate into ameloblasts
Stellate reticulum — collapses and does not exist
Outer enamel epithelium — cells flattens and thrown into folds.
|
Dental
| null |
Cells of inner enamel epithelium
|
The correlation coefficient can range from:
| null |
Dental
| null |
-1 to +1.
|
Mauriacs syndrome is characterised by all except
|
It is a rare complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus in children assoasiated with Growth impairment Hepatomegaly Cushingoid features
|
Anatomy
|
Musculoskeletal system
|
Diabetes
|
Berlin's edema is due to
|
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 431)Berlin's edema (commotio retinae) is a common condition caused by blunt injury to the eye. It is characterized by a decreased vision in the injured eye a few hours after the injury. Under examination, the retina appears opaque and white in color in the periphery but the blood vessels are normally seen. Cherry-red' spot in the foveal region may be seen
|
Ophthalmology
|
Ocular trauma
|
Blunt trauma to eye
|
The following are Not predisposing factors for genuine stress incontinence, except:
|
Detrusor Instability, Genuine stress incontinence is defined as urinary leakage occurring during
increasedbladder pressure. It is caused by sphincter weakness. Detrusor instability, urethral diverticulum,
neurological cases are responsible.
|
Unknown
| null |
Detrusor instability
|
Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is:
|
A i.e. Ulnar nerve
|
Skin
| null |
Ulnar
|
Testes completely descend in the scrotum by the age of?
|
End of 9th month of intrauterine life PhaseIntrauterine agePosition of testisTransabdominal phaseUp to the sta of 3rd monthEntrance of future inguinal canal (internalinguinal ring)Transinguinal phaseBetween 4 to 5 monthsNo descent7th to 9th monthPasses through inguinal canalBefore bihInto the scrotum
|
Anatomy
| null |
End of 9th month of intrauterine life
|
Lymphocytic infiltration is diagnostic in :
|
Dysgerminoma
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Dysgerminoma
|
Amino acid required for conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine:-
|
Norepinephrine to Epinephrine conversion requires SAM (S-Adenosyl Methionine). Enzyme involved is Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase. Coisol is the activator. Synthesis of Catecholamines (Dopamine, NE and E) from Tyrosine. SAM (S - adenosyl methionine) is synthesized from dietary methionine with the help of enzyme METHIONINE ADENOSYL TRANSFERASE (MAT).
|
Biochemistry
|
NEET 2019
|
Methionine
|
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTIHYPEENSIVES DRUG IS AVOIDED IN PATIENTS WITH HIGH SERUM URIC ACID LVELS?
|
REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
HYDROCHLOR THIAZIDE
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.