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Which among the following statement regarding skeletal and cardiac muscle is false
|
Ans: c (Both have graded contraction) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/p.79Cardiac action potentialAction potential can be defined as the sequence of changes in the membrane potential in an excitable cell due to opening and closure of differention channels after application of a threshold stimulus.Phases of action potentialPhase 0 - Opening of voltage gated Na channel.Phase 1 - closure of sodium chan-nel- leads to initial rapid depolarization.Phase 2 - plateau phase- due to opening of L type Ca2+channels.Phase 3 - final repolarization due to closure of Ca2+ channels & K+ efflux.Phase 4 - resting membrane potential.
|
Physiology
|
Misc.
|
Both have graded contraction
|
A high tracheostomy may be indicated in-
|
“It is important (in tracheostomy) to refrain from causing any damage in the region of cricoid cartilage.
An exception to this rule is when a patient has laryngeal malignancy and under these circumstances tracheostomy should be placed high so as to allow resection of tracheostomy site at the time of laryngectomy”.
“ The high tracheostomy is generally avoided because of the postoperative risk of peri-chondritis of the cricoid cartilage and subglottic stenosis. In cases of carcinoma larynx with stridor when total laryn-gectomy would be done, high tracheostomy is indicated.”
|
ENT
| null |
Carcinoma of larynx
|
A 67 year male smoker presents with haemoptysis and cough. Brochoscopic biopsy revealed undifferented tumour. The immunohistochemical marker that can be most helpful is:
|
Cytokeratin
|
Pathology
| null |
Cytokeratin
|
A 74-year-old man has a 5-hour elective operation for repair of an abdominal aoic aneurysm. He had a small myocardial infarction 3 years earlier. In the ICU on the first postoperative day, he is hypotensive and is receiving dobutamine by continuous infusion.select the best method of physiologic monitoring necessary for the patient.
|
This patient requires pulmonary aery catheter readings to allow his physicians to assess his volume status and need for ongoing inotropic suppo. Fuhermore, the patient continues to be hypotensive and requires fuher investigation as to the etiology that would subsequently dictate treatment (volume, afterload reduction, etc). Central venous monitoring alone does not allow the physician to assess cardiac function. Miller&;s anaesthesia 9th edition p578
|
Anaesthesia
|
Miscellaneous
|
Pulmonary aery catheterization
|
Deficiency of the ' Intrinsic factor of Castle ' causes-
|
Pernicious anemia is a chronic disease resulting from deficiency of Intrinsic factor leading to impaired absorption of Vitamin B12. Megaloblastic anemia is due to deficiency of Cobalamin/folate. Reference: Atlas and text of Hematology, 3rd edition, pg:102. Exam preparatory manual for UGs by Ramdas Nayak page no: 259
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Pathology
|
Haematology
|
Pernicious anemia
|
Which is true about central retinal aery?
|
The central aery of the retina -It is an end aery. It does not have effective anastomoses with other aeries. Occlusion of the aery results in blindness. The intraocular pa of the aery can be seen, in the living, through an ophthalmoscope. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 3 , pg. no.,216.
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
Is an end aery
|
In Citric acid cycle, which enzyme is inhibited by arsenite?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., a ketoglutarate DehydrogenaseArsenite binds to the sulfhydryl group and hence inhibits the activity of enzymes which have lipoamide in the active site, Hence Arsenite inhibits Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase of citric acid cycle, It is an example for non competitive inhibition, Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by malonate.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
a ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
|
Which steroid is formed from cholesterol without hydroxylation -
|
Cholesterol is first changed to form pregnenolone (common pathway). For this free cholesterol is released in the cytosol from cholesteryl esters of cytoplasmic lipid droplets and transferred into mitochondria. An enzyme called "cytochrome-P- 450-sidechain cleavage" enzyme (P450 sce) present in inner mitochondrial membrane hydroxylates cholesterol at C22 and C20 (also called "20, 22-desmolase") and then cleaves the side chain to form pregnenolone and isocaproic aldehyde. The enzyme requires molecular O2 and NADPH like all mono-oxygenases and also require FAD-containing Fp, a Fe2S2 protein (called adreno- doxin). Pregnenolone to 17-OH pregnenolone: Pregnenolone is transferred to smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER), where it is conveed to 17-OH-pregneno- lone catalysed by the enzyme 17-aaa-hydroxylase. * Conversion of 17-OH pregnenolone to 17-OH progesterone: This is achieved by two enzymes, one is NAD+ dependent 3 bbb-OH-steroid dehydrogenase and the other is DDD4,5-isomerase. Alternatively, the same pregnenolone may be first conveed to 'progesterone' by the action of the two enzymes dehydrogenase and isomerase and it is acted upon by the enzyme 17-a-hydroxylase to form 17-OH progesterone. PROGESTERONE * Progesterone is the hormone of the corpus luteum, the structure which develops in the ovary from the ruptured Graafian follicle. It is also formed by the placenta, which secretes progesterone, during the later pa of pregnancy. Progesterone is also formed in the adrenal coex, as a precursor of both C19 and C21 coicosteroids. It is also formed in the testes. Chemistry: Progesterone may be regarded as a derivative of "pregnane" and is designated chemically as "4- pregnane-3, 20-dione". It is a C21 steroid and has a - CH3 group at C10 and C13. Biosynthesis: Progesterone has a role as an intermediate in the biogenesis of adrenocoical hormones and of androgens. Indirectly androstenedione and testosterone, it also serves as precursors for estrogens also. Progesterone is formed from acetate cholesterol, 'Pregnenolone' is the immediate precursor. Mechanism of action: It is similar to estrogen.Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no: 590-591,603-604
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of lipid
|
Progesterone
|
Ohngren's line extends from-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Medial canthus of eye to angle of mandible Qhngren's lineo In head and neck cancer, Ohngren's line is a line that connects the medial canthus of the eye to the angle of the mandibleo The line defines a plane orthogonal to a sagittal plane that divides the maxillary sinus into (1) an anterior-inferior part, and (2) a superior-posterior part.o Tumours that arise in the anterior-inferior part, i.e. below Ohngren's line, generally have a better prognosis than those in the other groupo Addition to above a vertical line through pupil is also considered, which divides the above mentioned structures into 4 different regions. The structures at posterosuperior medial have worst prognosis and that at anteroinferior medial are least dangerous.
|
ENT
|
Tumors of Nose and PNS
|
Medial canthus of eye to angle of mandible
|
Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by :
|
Since there is mitral stenosis, more time for blood to enter LV. Therefore, increased transient time, so increase duration of murmur of S1 sound can be loud or soft. If sound is soft it tells us about calcified mitral valves but not of severity
|
Medicine
|
Murmurs
|
Diastolic murmur duration
|
Probiotics are useful for -
|
Probiotics are substances secreted by one organism which stimulates the growth of another.
Probiotics are useful in following conditions:
Rota virus diarrhea
Antibiotic associated diarrhea
Radiation induced diarrhea
Traveller’s diarrhea
Inflammatory bowel disease
Cancers
|
Microbiology
| null |
Necrotizing enterocolitis
|
A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for evaluation of skin lesions on her leg. They are not painful or itchy and have developed gradually over time. There is no history of previous trauma to the site either.On physical examination the skin changes have a central depression and raised irregular margin. The surrounding area is not red, tender, or indurated. They are shown in Figure below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
|
Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is more frequent in females and may antedate other clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes. The plaques are round, firm, and reddish-brown to yellow in color. They most commonly involve the legs but can also involve the hands, arms, abdomen, and head. This in not a staphylococcal skin infection since it is not tender, indurated or warm to touch, and erythema nodosum is characterized by round, tender elevated lesions usually on the anterior shin.
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
|
The main function of Vitamin C in the body is -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Involvement as antioxidant Vitamin C ( Ascorbic acid)o Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is also called antiscorbutic factor. It is very heat labile, especially in basic medium. Ascorbic acid itself is an active form. Maximum amount of vitamin C is found in adrenal cortex,o Ascorbic acid functions as a reducing agent and scavanger of free radicals (antioxidant). Its major functions are:- In collagen synthesis: - Vitamin C is required for post-translational modification by hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues converting them into hydroxyproiine and hydroxy lysine. Thus vitamin C is essential for the conversion of procollagen to collagen, which is rich in hydroxyproiine and hydroxylysine. Through collagen synthesis, it plays a role in formation of matrix of bone, cartilage, dentine and connective tissue.Synthesis of norepineph rine from dopamine by dopamine-b-monoxygenase (dopamineb-hydroxylase) requires Vitamin C.Carnitine synthesisBile acid synthesis :- 7-a-hydroxylase requires vitamin C.Absorption of iron is stimulated by ascorbic acid by conversion of ferric to ferrous ions.During adrenal steroid synthesis, ascorbic acid is required during hydroxylation reactions.Tyrosine metabolism : - Oxidation of P-hydroxy-phenylpyruvate to homogentisate.Folate metabolism : - Folic acid is converted to its active form tetrahydrofolate by help of Vitamin C.
|
Biochemistry
|
Vitamins
|
Involvement as antioxidant
|
TOC for postmenopausal osteoporosis is-
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Alendronate
|
Action of superior oblique is following except -
|
Superior oblique causes intorsion (not extorsion).
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
Extortion
|
Which of the following areas of brain is most resistant to Neurofibrillary tangles in Aizeimer's disease -
|
The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN; also called the lateral geniculate body or lateral geniculate complex) is a relay center in the thalamus for the visual pathway. It receives a major sensory input from the retina. The LGN is the main central connection for the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, paicularly the primary visual coex. In humans, each LGN has six layers of neurons (grey matter) alternating with optic fibers (white matter And is resistant to neurofibrillary tangles Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
Lateral Geniculate Body
|
Amino acid required for formation of thyroxine-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Tyrosine o The term thyroid hormone denotes both thyroxine (T4) and triodothyronine (T3).o Both T4 and T are iodine derivatives of thyronine.o Thyronine is a condensation product of two molecules of amino acid tyrosine.o Thyroxine is 3, 5, 3', 5' - tetraiodothvronineandT, is 3,5,3'-triiodothyronine.o Thyroid hormones are synthesized and stored in the thyroid follicles as apart of thyroglobulin molecule.
|
Biochemistry
|
Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins)
|
Tyrosine
|
Minimal reabsorption from kidney is of -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Urea Renal handling of various plasma constrituents in a normal adult human on an average diet. Per 24 Hours SubstanceFitteredReabsorbedSecretedExcretedPercentage ReabsorbedNa+ (mEq)26,00025,850 15099.4K+(mEq)600560a5029093.3C1- (mEq)18,00017,850 15099.2HCO3-mEq)4,9004,900 0100Urea (mmol)870460 b 41053Creatinine (mmol)121clc12 Uric acid (mmol)50494598Glucose (mmol)800800 0100Total solute (mOsm)54,00053,40010070098.9Water (mL)180,000179,000 100099.4 SubstancePercentage ReabsorbedNa+(mEq)99.4K+(mEq)93.3CT (mEq)992HC03-(mEq)100Urea (mmol)53Uric acid (mmol)98Glucose ( mmol)100Total solute (mOsm)98.9Water (mL)99.4
|
Physiology
|
Renal Tubular Reabsorption and Secretion
|
Urea
|
Nagayama spots are seen in:
|
Nagayama spots: Roseola infantum Koplik spots- Measles Forchheimer spots- Rubella
|
Pediatrics
|
Impoant Viral Diseases in Children
|
Roseola infantum
|
Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:(AIIMS May 2014, Nov 2013)
|
Ans. c. Ganglion cells (Ref: Parsons 21st/280-281; www.nebi nlm.nih.gov.57(4) Jul-Aug 2009)Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy are ganglion cells."Absence of the ganglion cell and nerve fiber layers is a hallmark of glaucoma". Robbins 8/e p1328"Glaucoma, the second leading cause of blindness, is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects. The elevated intraocular pressure was considered the prime factor responsible for the glaucomatous optic neuropathy involving death of retinal ganglion cells and their axons."- www.ncbi.nlm.nih.govGlaucomaGlaucoma, the second leading cause of blindness, is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects.The elevated intraocular pressure was considered the prime factor responsible for the glaucomatous optic neuropathy involving death of retinal ganglion cellsQ and their axons.Glaucoma, a leading cause of irreversible visual loss, is characterized by loss of retinal ganglion cells (RGC)Q and their axons over a period of many years.Mainly the ganglions cellsQ are affected in glaucoma patients, which may lead to glaucomatus optic atrophy.Glaucomatous optic neuropathy is characterized by changes in the optic disc and visual field defects.The morphologic changes in the optic disc are in the form of thinning of neuroretinal rim, pallor and progressive cupping of the optic discQ.The hemorrhage-associated retinal nerve fiber layer defects precede measurable changes of the optic disc configurationQ.The visual field defects in glaucoma are often detected only after 40% of the axons are lostQ.
|
Ophthalmology
|
General Considerations - Definition, Classification, Pathogenesis
|
Ganglion cells
|
Miriam, a college student with acute rhinitis sees the campus nurse because of excessive nasal drainage. The nurse asks the patient about the colour of the drainage. In acute rhinitis, nasal drainage normally is:
|
Normally, nasal drainage in acute rhinitis is clear.
Yellow or green drainage indicates the spread of the infection to the sinuses.
Gray drainage may indicate a secondary infection.
|
Medicine
| null |
Clear
|
Which of the following is not seen in coronal CT paranasal sinuses?
|
ANSWER: (D) Frontoethmoid recessREF: Sutton 7th ed vol 2 page 1519-1522, Grainger 5th ed chapter 62See previous question
|
Radiology
|
Respiratory System
|
Frontoethmoid recess
|
After a 26-year-old man's car was roadsided by a large truck, he is brought to the emergency depament with multiple fractures of the transverse processes of the cervical and upper thoracic veebrae. Which of the following muscles might be affected?
|
The Levator Scapulae arise from the transverse processes of the Upper Cervical Veebrae and inses on the medial border of the Scapula. The other muscles are attached to the Spinous Processes of the Veebrae.
|
Anatomy
|
Back region
|
Levator scapulae
|
At what size of mean gestational sac diameter measured on TVS with no embryonic pole is labelled as 'Anembryonic Gestation' -
|
An intrauterine gestational sac is reliably visualized with transvaginalsonography by 5 weeks, and an embryo with cardiac activity by 6 weeks The embryo should be visible transvaginally once the mean sac diameter hasreached 25 mm--otherwise the gestation is anembryonic. Cardiac motion isusually visible with transvaginal imaging when the embryo length reaches 5 mm.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
|
25mm
|
The typical appearance of "spider leg" on excretory urography is seen in:
|
Diagnosis USG: Enlarged kidney with uniformly medullary echogenicity. IVP in ADPKD Stretching of the calyces by the cysts (spider leg or ball like deformity. Bubble appearance (calyceal distoion) Swiss cheese appearance. CT scan is IOC in ADPKD
|
Surgery
|
Kidney and ureter
|
Polycystic kidney
|
All take place in mitochondria except
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. EMP pathway Embedem Meyerhof Parnas (EMP) pathway or glycolysis occurs in cytosolFor rest see above question
|
Biochemistry
|
Carbohydrates
|
EMP pathway
|
The aerial supply of duodenum is / are derived from ?
|
The duodenum develops paly from the foregut and paly from the midgut. The opening of the bile duct into the second pa of the duodenum represents the junction of the foregut and the midgut. Upto the level of the opening, the duodenum is supplied by the superior pancreaticoduodenal aery, and below it by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg. no., 288. ( fig . 20. 13 - 289 page ).
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
superior mesenteric aery and inferior mesenteric aery
|
Keoppe nodules are present on -
|
The pathological reaction in granulomatous uveitis is characterised by infiltration with lymphocytes, plasma cells, with mobilization and proliferation of large mononuclear cells which eventually become epithelioid and giant cells and aggregate into nodules. Iris nodules are usually formed near pupillary border (Koeppe's nodules). and sometimes near collarette (Busacca nodule).
|
Ophthalmology
|
Uveal tract
|
Iris
|
Feather edge finish line is indicated in cases of:
| null |
Dental
| null |
Not recommended
|
A 36 years male presented with complaint of productive cough and fever for last 2 months. He has undergone kidney transplantation 2 years back. His sputum examination revealed a gram positive filamentous bacteria that showed acid fastness with modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining (1% H2SO4). The most likely etiological agent is ?
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Nocardia asteroides
|
Commonest operation done for gastric outlet obstruction with peptic ulcer is: March 2007
|
Ans. A: Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomyGastric outlet obstruction is manifested by obstruction at the level of the pylorus, which is the outlet of the stomach. Patients may develop vomiting, which may be projectile but non-bilious in nature, nausea or abdominal pain. An unusual finding that may lead to the diagnosis is the succussion splash, a splash-like sound heard over the stomach in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen on shaking the patient, with or without the stethoscope.The diagnosis is typically made by X-ray, which will show an absent air bubble in the stomach, or by CT scan.Causes of gastric outlet obstruction include peptic ulcer disease; tumours of the stomach, including adenocarcinoma (and its linitis plastica variant), lymphoma, and gastrointestinal stromal tumours; infections, such as tuberculosis; and infiltrative diseases, such as amyloidosis.Metabolic alkalosis may develop as a result of loss of acid.Traditionally severe cases of Gastric outlet obstruction are treated usually by a gastroenterostomy rather than a pyloroplasty. Truncal vagotomy leads to reduction of the maximal acid output by 50% as vagus nerves are sectioned which critically controls the secretion of gastric acid.
|
Surgery
| null |
Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy
|
A 30 year old presents with nausea, weakness, headache and impaired vision and high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Most likely cause is:
|
Methanol
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Methanol
|
Amongst the following, which carries the least chance of transmitting HIV infection: September 2010
|
Ans. A: Heterosexual Intercourse. Heterosexual Intercourse is the most common route but the chance of infection is less (0.30%) ,looking to the other options. Average per act risk of getting HIVby exposure route to an infected source Exposure routeChance of infection Blood transfusion 90% Childbih (to child) 25% Needle-sharing injection drug use 0.67% Percutaneous needle stick 0.30% Receptive anal intercourse* 0.04-3.0% Inseive anal intercourse* 0.03% Receptive penile-vaginal intercourse* 0.05-0.30% Inseive penile-vaginal intercourse* 0.01-0.38% Receptive oral intercourse*SS 0-0.04% Inseive oral intercourse*SS 0-0.005% * assuming no condom useSS source refers to oral intercourseperformed on a man Most commonly, people get or transmit HIV through sexual behaviors and needle or syringe use. MC mode of transmission: Hetero-sexual In hetero-sexual transmission: Male to female is commoner (as compared to female to male) Chances of transmission with accidental needle prick: 0.3%. Less commonly, HIV may be spread From mother to child during pregnancy, bih, or breastfeeding. Although the risk can be high if a mother is living with HIV and not taking medicine, recommendations to test all pregnant women for HIV and sta HIV treatment immediately have lowered the number of babies who are born with HIV. In extremely rare cases, HIV has been transmitted by Oral sex--putting the mouth on the penis (fellatio), vagina (cunnilingus), or anus (rimming). In general, there's little to no risk of getting HIV from oral sex. Receiving blood transfusions, blood products, or organ/tissue transplants that are contaminated with HIV. This was more common in the early years of HIV, but now the risk is extremely small because of rigorous testing of the blood supply and donated organs and tissues. Eating food that has been pre-chewed by an HIV-infected person. The contamination occurs when infected blood from a caregiver's mouth mixes with food while chewing. The only known cases are among infants. Being bitten by a person with HIV. Each of the very small number of documented cases has involved severe trauma with extensive tissue damage and the presence of blood. There is no risk of transmission if the skin is not broken. Contact between broken skin, wounds, or mucous membranes and HIV-infected blood or blood-contaminated body fluids. Deep, open-mouth kissing if both paners have sores or bleeding gums and blood from the HIV-positive paner gets into the bloodstream of the HIV-negative paner. HIV is not spread through saliva.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Heterosexual Intercourse
|
Outstanding clinical performance of dental amalgam restoration is related to its
| null |
Dental
| null |
Compressive strength
|
All of the following are true regarding Legionella except.
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Legionella are communicable from infected patients to othersRef: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1014; Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 401* No man to man transmission occurs.* Aspiration is predominant mode of transmission. Other modes include aerosolization, direct instillation into lungs.* Aerosolization by AC, nebulizer, humidifier, overhead showers and direct installation into lungs are other modes.* Aerosol spread leading to epidemics.
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteria
|
Legionella are communicable from infected patients to others
|
The triad of cirrhosis, hemochromatosis and diabetes are referred to as
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Bronze diabetes
|
Which is not true about Fragile X syndrome ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pigmented nevi Fragile - X syndrome Fragile - X syndrome is the prototype of diseases in which the mutation is characterized by a long repeating sequence of three nucleotides. o In fragile X syndrome,trinucleotide repeat mutation involve CGG on non coding region. o Clinical features of fragile - X syndrome Mental retardation Long face with large mandible Hyperexntesible joint Mitral valve prolapse Large eveed ears Large testis (macro-orchidism) High arched palate o Fragile X syndrome is the second most common cause of mental retardation, after Downs syndrome.
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Pigmented nevi
|
The product, which is obtained by calcining gypsum under steam pressure at 120-130°C or by dehydrating gypsum in the presence of sodium succinate, is
| null |
Dental
| null |
Alpha - hemihydrates
|
Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Psoriasis o Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto thyroiditis) patients are at increased risk for developing other autoimmune disease :- i) Endocrine : Type 1 DM, autoimmune adrenalitis. ii) Non-endocrine : SLE, mysthenia gravis, sjogren syndrome. o These patients are also at increased risk for development of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, especially marginal cell lymphoma of MALT lymphoma.
|
Pathology
| null |
Psoriasis
|
In Aspirin mechanism of action
|
(B) Cyclooxygenase decreased # Aspirin acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme, thereby inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.> Leukotriens acts by inhibiting Lipooxygenase> Steroids acts by inhibiting phospholipase
|
Pharmacology
|
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
|
Cyclooxygenase decreased
|
Slow or soft start polymerization is seen in
| null |
Dental
| null |
Quartz-Tungsten-Halogen Light cure units
|
A farmer visiting a orchard gets unconscious, excessive salivation , constricted pupils and fasciculation of muscles, treatment staed with
|
A i.e. Atropine
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Atropine
|
In follicular carcinoma chromosomal translocation is?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAX8- PPARrl Various genes involved in thyroid carcinomas arePapillaryo Tyrosine kinase receptors RET or NTRK1o RAS mutationo BRAF oncogeneFollicularo RAS oncogene (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS)o PAX8- PPARrl translocationMedullaryo RETprotooncogne.
|
Pathology
|
Carcinogenesis
|
PAX8 -PPARrl
|
An absolute contraindication of MRI is:
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Automatic Cardioverter-defibrillators MR is considered among the safest imaging modalities for patients, even at very high field strengths, more than 3-4 tesla. But Ferromagnetic objects under magnetic field can be vulnerable to 4 adverse effects: Movement (causing structural injury), Current conduction (potentially causing electrical shock), Heating (possibly causing bum injury), and Artifact generation Serious injuries can be caused by attraction of ferromagnetic objects into the magnet, which would act as missiles if brought too close to the magnet. Ferromagnetic implants, such as aneurysm clips, may torque (turn or twist) due to the magnetic field, causing damage to vessels and even death. Metallic foreign bodies in the eye have moved and caused intraocular hemorrhage. Pacemakers and pacemaker leads are a contraindication, as the pacemaker can malfunction and cause arrhythmia or even death. However with growing expansion of MR, increasing number of implant medical devices are being MR safe. So newer pacemaker and aneurysm clips are being made which are MR safe. Absolute Contraindications for the MRI scan: Electronically, magnetically, and mechanically activated implants Ferromagnetic or electronically operated active devices like automatic cardioverter defibrillators Cardiac pacemakers- but there are pacemakers available from Medtronic which are safe in MRI environment but not so widely used. Metallic splinters in the eye Ferromagnetic hemostatic clips in the central nervous system (CNS) Patients with an implanted cardiac pacemaker have been scanned on rare occasions, but pacemakers are generally considered an absolute contraindication. Relative Contraindications for the MRI scan: Cochlear implants Other pacemakers, e.g. for the carotid sinus Insulin pumps and nerve stimulators Lead wires or similar wires (MRI Safety risk) Prosthetic heart valves (in high fields, if dehiscence is suspected) Hemostatic clips (body) Non-ferromagnetic stapedial implants Women with a first-trimester pregnancy Tattoos (only a problem in higher-strength magnetic field i.e. more than 3 tesla)
|
Radiology
|
Ultrasonography, CT, and MRI
|
Automatic Cardioverter-defibrillators
|
Mandibular nerve does not supply:
|
Buccinator is supplied by facial nerve (7th nerve).
Mandibular nerve is nerve of 1st branchial arch & supplies all muscles derived from it, i.e.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Buccinator
|
Which of the following is used to differentiate between hypercalcemia of malignancy from primary hyperparathyroidism?
|
Answer- A. Hydrocoisone suppression testlf doubt exists, hyilrocokone suppression test is of value.If the test is performed as originally described, (120 mg hydrocoisone per day for 10 days, correcting the serum calcium for haemodilution), it provides an excellent discrimination, since significant suppression ofserum calcium does not occur in primary hyperparathyroidism, where as malignant hypercalcemia is usually completely alleted.
|
Surgery
| null |
Hydrocoisone suppression test
|
Normal facial index is:
| null |
Dental
| null |
80 - 90%
|
Contraindication of Enteral nutrition :a) Intestinal obstructionb) Severe Pancreatitisc) Severe diarrhoead) IBDe) Intestinal fistula
| null |
Surgery
| null |
abce
|
"Hair on End" appearance is seen in:
|
Thalassemia
|
Radiology
| null |
Thalassemia
|
Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features, except ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypo albuminaemiao Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by nephritic syndrome whereas hypoalbuminemia is a feature of Nephrotic syndrome.o Clinical features of Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
|
Pathology
| null |
Hypoalbuminaemia
|
A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases on lying down position. What is the most probable diagnosis –
|
This child has : -
3 days history of upper respiratory tract infection.
Followed by stridor
These features suggest the diagnosis of croup.
Clinical manifestations of Croup
Most patients have an upper respiratory tract infection with some combination of -
Rhinorrhea
A mild cough
Pharyngitis
Low-grade fever
After 1-3 days signs and symptoms of upper respiratory tract obstruction become apparent -
Barking cough
Hoarseness
Inspiratory stridor
Symptoms are characteristically worse at night.
Symptoms often recur with decreasing intensity for several days and resolve completely in one week.
Agitation and crying aggravate the symptoms.
The child may prefer to sit up in bed or be held upright.
Chest X-ray
Characteristic narrowing of the subglottic region known as the steeple sign.
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Laryngotracheobronchitis
|
cGMP is second messenger for which of the following harmone
|
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) and Nitric acid (NO) user cGMP as second messenger.
|
Physiology
| null |
Both of the above
|
Investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is
|
The investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is ultrasound. Focused abdominal sonar for trauma(FAST) is a technique whereby ultrasound(sonar) imaging is used to assess the torso for the presence of free fluid, either in the abdominal cavity, and is extended into the thoracic cavities and pericardium(eFAST). eFAST is accurate at detecting <100ml of free blood. CT is the gold standard for the intr-abdominal diagnosis of injury in the stable patient. Reference: Bailey & love, 27th Edition, page no = 372.
|
Surgery
|
Trauma
|
USG
|
The correlation between IMR and Socio Economic status is best depicted by –
| null |
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Correlation (– 0.8)
|
In lepromatous leprosy the single drug dapsone is continue for -
|
In lepromatous leprosy the single drug is continued to one year. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 297
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
1 years
|
A knownHIV positive patient is admitted in anisolation ward after an abdominal surgery followingan accident. The resident docter who changed hisdressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood hich of the following would be the right method ofchoice of descarding the dressing -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send for incineration o This waste category lies in category No. 6 o No.6 category of solid wastes consists of : Items contaminated with blood and fluid containing u Cotton dressings Soiled plaster casts o Linen o Beddings Other materials contaminated with blood o Treatment and disposal of this category of wastes o Incineration (There will be no chemical pretreatment prior to incineration) Autoclaving/microwaving
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Put the dressing material directly in anappropriate bag and send for incineration
|
Most common organ involved in congenital Tb is?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Liver Congenital tuberculosis Although it is rare as mother having tuberculosis primarily present with infeility. Tuberculous bacilli sometimes pass throgh umblical vein and may develop focus in liver (hepatic complex). When neonate aspirate amniotic fluid containing bacilli then develop GI tuberculosis or lung infection. Neonate usually present as respiratory distress, hepatosplenomegaly lymphadenopathy. Overall liver is most commonly involved in congenital tuberculosis
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Liver
|
In E. coli true is -
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Pilli present in uropathogenic type
|
Organism identified by interferons:
|
Ans. is. 'd' i. e., M. tuberculosis
|
Microbiology
| null |
M. tuberculosis
|
Trantas spots are seen in
|
VERNAL KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (VKC) OR SPRING CATARRHIt is a recurrent, bilateral, interstitial, self-limiting, allergic inflammation of the conjunctiva having a periodic seasonal incidence.Signs of vernal keratoconjunctivitis can be described in following three clinical forms:1. Palpebral form: Usually upper tarsal conjunctiva of both eyes is involved. The typical lesion is characterized by the presence of hard, flat-topped, papillae arranged in a &;cobble-stone&; or &;pavement stone&;, fashion. In severe cases, papillae may hyperophy to produce cauliflower like excrescences of &;giant papillae&;. Conjunctival changes are associated with white ropy discharge.2. Bulbar form: It is characterized by (i) dusky red triangular congestion of bulbar conjunctiva in the palpebral area; (ii) gelatinous thickened accumulation of tissue around the limbus; and (iii) presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus (Tranta&;s spots).3. Mixed form. It shows combined features of both palpebral and bulbar forms.Ref. Khurana; 4th edition; Pg no. 74
|
Ophthalmology
|
Conjunctiva
|
Vernal conjunctivitis
|
Screening is done because of all except:
|
Screening is testing for infection or disease in populations or in individuals who are not seeking health care. It is defined presumptive identification of unrecognized disease. E.g. serological testing for AIDS virus in blood donors, neonatal screening, pre-marital screening for syphilis . Search for unrecognized disease or defect by means of rapidly applied test, examinations or other procedures in apparently healthy individuals. Case finding is use of clinical and/or laboratory tests to detect disease in individuals seeking health care for other reason ; for example, the use of VDRL test to detect syphilis in pregnant women.
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Definition and Concepts, Examples from NHPs
|
Use of clinical or laboratory tests to detect disease in individual seeking health care for other reasons
|
Which of the following drug can cause thyroid dysfunction ?
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Amiodarone
|
Hepatitis can be a complication of ......
|
Metabolic byproduct of halothane can cause autoimmune hepatitis. Halothane hepatitisis rare with an incidence of 1 per 35,000 cases but very fatal, with amoality of 50-75%. It is an immune mediated due to antibodies against highly reactive trifluoroacetyl chloride which is a metabolite of halothane. Risk factors for halothane hepatitis: Multiple exposures to halothane at sho intervals middle-aged obese women - because halothane undergo extensive metabolism in obese patients familial predisposition to halothane Another theory for halothane hepatitis is that it is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction associated with oxidative metabolism of halothane. The liver in halothane hepatitis shows centrilobular necrosis. In a patient with prior history of halothane hepatitis, inhalational induction agent of choice is Sevoflurane. Other points related to effect of halothane on hepatic system : Disrupts dual blood supply of liver ( Among all volatile anesthetic agent , it cause max decrease in hepatic flow) Contraindicated in Pre-existing liver days function C/I in hepatic surgery
|
Anaesthesia
|
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
|
Halothane
|
Tinea versicolor is seen with
|
Tinea versicolor is caused by Pityrosporum orbiculare (also called Malassezia furfur).
|
Physiology
|
All India exam
|
Pityrosporum orbiculare
|
Doppelganger is-
|
Ans. is `b' i.e., Feeling of double of oneself Doppelgangers (subjective double) is the delusion that there is double of oneself. A person feels that double of himself exists elswhere.
|
Psychiatry
| null |
Feeling of double of oneself
|
All of following are true about neonatal sepsis except-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Most common transmission of infection is through nursery personal o Early onset sepsis is caused by organisms prevalent in the maternal genital tract. o Late onset sepsis is caused by organisms of the external environment of home or hospital and the infection is transmitted most frequently by the hands of the care-provider. Predisposing factors for neonatal sepsis 1) For early onset sepsis o Low bih weight or prematurity o Maternal fever o Prolonged rupture of membrane o Difficult or prolonged labor Foul smelling liquor o Meconium aspiration Multiple per vaginum examination 2) For late onset sepsis Low bih weight o Lack of breast feeding Superficial infections (pyoderma, umblical sepsis) o Aspiration of feeds o Disruption of skin integrity with needle pricks and use of iv fluids. Note? Option 'C' is also paially correct --> most common mode of infection transmission for late onset neonatal sepsis is through the hands of nursery personel, but it is not the most common mode of transmission for overall sepsis, i.e. early plus late neonatal sepsis.
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Most common transmission of infection is through nursery personel
|
Maxillary first molar has how many roots?
| null |
Dental
| null |
1 lingual and 2 facial
|
Deltoid ligament is attached to all, Except:
|
Medial cuneiform The ankle or the talocrural joint has 2 ligaments: the medial collateral (or deltoid ligament) and the lateral collateralligamentMedial collateral ligament (or deltoid ligament)It consists of two sets of fibres, superficial and deep. Both pas have a common attachment above to the apex and margins of the medial malleolus. The lower attachment is indicated by the name of the fibres.Superficial fibresOf the superficial fibres,- The most anterior (tibionavicular) fibres pass forward to be inseed into the tuberosity of the navicular bone, and immediately behind this they blend with the medial margin of the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring ligament);- The middle (tibiocalcaneal) fibres descend almost perpendicularly to be inseed into the whole length of the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneum;- The posterior fibres (posterior tibiotalar) pass backward and laterally to be attached to the medial side of the talus, and its medial tubercleDeep fibres- The deep fibres (anterior tibiotalar) are attached to the anterior pa of medial surface of the talus. The deltoid ligament is crossed by the tendons of the Tibialis posterior and Flexor digitorum longus.Lateral collateral ligamentThe lateral ligament has 3 discrete bands or pas:The anterior talofibular ligament- extends anteromedially from the anterior margin of the fibular malleolus to the neck of the talus.The posterior talofibular ligament- extends almost horizontally from the lateral malleolar fossa to the lateral tubercle of the talusThe calcaneofibular ligament - is a long cord which passes from a depression anterior to the apex of the fibular malleolus to a tubercle on the lateral calcaneal surface. It is crossed by the tendons of the peroneus longus and brevis.The above attachments of the two ligaments of the ankle joint could be simplified as:The medial collateral or deltoid ligament passes from the medial malleolus (tibia) to the talus, calcaneum, navicular and the spring ligament.The lateral collateral ligament passes from the lateral malleolus (fibula) to the talus and calcaneum.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Medial cuneiform
|
True about Penicillin G
|
Ans. c. Used for treatment of rat bite fever Penicillin G MOA: It inhibits cell wall synthesis b.y interfering with the transpeptidation reactiondeg. b-lactam antibiotics and are used in the treatment of bacterial infections caused by susceptible, usually Gram-positive, organisms. Acid-labile, destroyed by gastric acid, so not given by oral route. Probenecid is given along with Penicillin G, increase its action because it has high affinity for the tubular OATP, so it blocks the transpo of penicillin and increase its efficacy. Probenecid also decreases volume of distribution of penicillin G. DOC for: Anthrax Actinomycosis Trench mouth Rat bite fever
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Used for treatment rat bite fever
|
All of the following are true about pulp space infection except -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is a painless condition Felon/Whitlowo Fingertip pulp is divided into numerous small compartments by vertical septa that stabilize the pad. Infection occurring within these compartments can lead to abscess formation, edema, and rapid development of increased pressure in a closed space. This increased pressure may compromise blood flow and lead to necrosis of the skin and pulp
|
Surgery
|
Oral Cavity
|
It is a painless condition
|
All are true except:
|
Ans. The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age
|
Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation:
|
Answer is D (Isograft) : "Although the best graft is an Autograft, a renal graft can obviously not he an Autograft...silly." So the best renal graft is an Isoqraft from an individual twin. IsOgrall: Is a graft from a different individual genetically identical with recipient e.g. identical twin. Aulograft: Is to self. Allograft: Graft from different species. Xenograft: Graft from different species.
|
Medicine
| null |
Isograft
|
Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is increased due to ?
|
ANSWER: D A decrease in 2,3 DPG
|
Unknown
| null |
A decrease in 2,3 DPG
|
In the cross section of brain in the below pic, the tracts have been labeled, which of them are concerned with pain and temperature.
|
Pain and temperature are carried by the spinothalamic tract (STT) towards the VPL (ventro-postero-lateral) nucleus of thalamus.
Pain is carried by the lateral STT whereas anterior STT carries the crude touch sensations.
Spinothalamic tracts carry sensations contra-laterally hence the area of sensation loss is to the opposite side of the lesion (Brown-Séquard syndrome).
Spinocerebellar tracts carry the unconscious proprioception, mainly from the lower limbs, towards the cerebellum and from the mossy fibers. They contribute archi-cerebellar fibers to the cerebellum.
Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers carry the information ipsilaterally and enter the inferior cerebellar peduncle to reach the cerebellum.
Ventral spinocerebellar tract carries the information contra-laterally and enters the cerebellum via superior cerebellar peducle.
Unconscious proprioception of upper limb is carried by the cuneocerebellar tract.
Conscious proprioception is carried by the dorsal columns (Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus).
Pyramidal tract is a motor tract and is concerned with control of fine and skilled voluntary motor activity.
|
Unknown
| null |
A
|
Positive predictive value of a test does not depends upon
| null |
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Incidence of disease
|
Which of the following diuretics acts at the nephron's distal tubule?
|
The thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, benzthiazide) promote diuresis by inhibiting reabsorption of NaCl, primarily in the early distal tubule. Ethacrynic acid and furosemide are both loop diuretics. They act by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Note that even if you didn't know where these agents act, if you knew that they both belonged to the same class of diuretics, you could have eliminated them both as possibilities since there can't be more than one correct answer choice. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. Its primary action occurs at the proximal tubule. Ref: Michel T., Hoffman B.B. (2011). Chapter 27. Treatment of Myocardial Ischemia and Hypeension. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Hydrochlorothiazide
|
What is choledocholithotomy
|
Choledocholithotomy is a procedure in which we are draining the CBD and removing the stones by a longitudinal incision in the duct. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition ,page no:1126
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
Removal of common bile duct stone
|
All the following are criteria for diagnosing severe aplastic anemia except:
|
D i.e. ANC <1500Ref: WHO, Hematopoietic System, page 221Explanation:Criteria for Aplastic Anemia (ASH)ClassificationCriteriaSevereBM cellularity <25% (or<50%if <30% of BM is hematopoietic cells) AND >2 of the following:* Peripheral blood neutrophil count <0.5x109/L* Peripheral blood platelet count <20x109/L* Peripheral blood reticulocyte count <20x109/LVery severeAs above, but peripheral blood neutrophil count must be <0.2x109/LNon-severeHypocellullar BM with peripheral blood values not meeting criteria for severe aplastic anemia
|
Pathology
|
Blood
|
ANC<1500
|
Ferruginous bodies are commonly seen in:
|
Inorganic paicles may become coated with iron containing proteinaceous material, these bodies are called ferruginous bodies. They mimic asbestos bodies and can be seen in patient with asbestosis but is not specific hence asbestosis is the best answer. Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in Asbestosis. Ref: Robbin's Illustrated Pathology, 7th Edition, Page 736 ; Concise Pathology By Chandrasoma P, Taylor C, 3rd Edition, Page 541
|
Pathology
| null |
Asbestosis
|
Cerebral perfusion pressure in children is:
|
- Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated as the difference between the systemic mean aerial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP) - The normal range of CPP is thought to be approximately 50 to 150 mm Hg in healthy adults, and 40 to 60 mm Hg, in children. Normal CPP (mm Hg) 2-6 yrs - 50 mm of Hg 7-10 yrs - 55 mm of Hg 11-16 yrs - 65 mm of Hg
|
Pediatrics
|
Raised intracranial tension
|
40-60 mm Hg
|
Which of the following statements is true about the epidemiological determinants of measles -
|
SAR of some important infectious diseases
Measles → 80%
Rubella → 90 - 95%
Chickenpox → 90%
Pertussis → 90%
Mumps → 86%
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Secondary attack is less than that of rubella
|
Right Gastric Aery is a branch of :
|
Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. It turns to the left and runs upwards along the the lesser curvature of the stomach and ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery which is a branch of the coeliac trunk. Coeliac trunk: Arises at the level of interveebral disc between T12 and L1 veebrae. It is an unpaired branch of the abdominal aoa that arises from its ventral/anterior aspect (front) just below the aoic opening of diagphragm. Branches: Left Gastric aery (Smallest branch) Common Hepatic aery Splenic Aery (Largest branch of trunk) Ends by anastomosing with right gastric aery (Right Gastric aery is a branch of the hepatic aery) Common hepatic aery is a direct branch of the celiac trunk till the origin of gastroduodenal aery. The pa distal to this origin is termed proper hepatic aery Sho gastric aeries (5-7) Left gastroepiploic aery Numerous pancreatic branches Aeria pancreaticamagna Aeria cauda pancreatic Splenic hila branches Common Hepatic aery gives off a branch called Gastroduodenal aery and continues as the Hepatic aery proper. Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. Thus the right gastric aery may be termed as a branch of the hepatic aery proper rather than the common hepatic aery. Hepatic aery Branches: Gastro-duodenal aery Right gastric Aery Hepatic Aery proper Right gastroepiploic aery Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery Right gastric aery (ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery) Hepatic aery proper ends by dividing into left and right hepatic aeries Right hepatic aery Left hepatic aery (cystic aery) is a branch of the right hepatic aery Ref: Vishram Singh 2nd edition Pgno: 120
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
Hepatic aery
|
The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is:
|
Pruritus is the most common side effect with neuraxial opioids. It may be generalized but is more likely to be localized to the face, neck or upper thorax. Treatment 1. naloxone 2. antihistaminic. 3. propofol
|
Anaesthesia
|
Central Neuraxial Blockade
|
Pruritus
|
What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis :-
|
Answer is C (Rectal biopsy): Rectal biopsy is single best answer amongst the options provided. The systemic amyloidosis offer a choice of biopsy sites. Abdominal fat aspirates or renal or rectal biopsies are often preferred'. - Harrison
|
Medicine
| null |
Rectal biopsy
|
Alkaptonuria is caused by defect in which of the following enzymes?
|
Alkaptonuria was first recognized and described in the 16th century. Characterized in 1859, it provided the basis for Garrod's classic ideas concerning heritable metabolic disorders. The defect is lack of homogentisate oxidase. The urine darkens on exposure to air due to oxidation of excreted homogentisate. Late in the disease, there is ahritis and connective tissue pigmentation (ochronosis) due to oxidation of homogentisate to benzoquinone acetate, which polymerizes and binds to connective tissue. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 29.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Homogentisate oxidase
|
MC abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is -
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Spleen
|
26 year old man died while playing. His autopsy of the heart revealed myocyte hypertrophy. Diagnosis is -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
HOCM
|
The right coronary aery arises from ?
|
Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. ( fig 18.22a and b ).
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
anterior aoic sinus
|
Which of the following marker is used to diagnose rhabdomyosarcoma -
|
. Desmin
|
Pathology
| null |
Desmin
|
Hashimoto's thyroiditis,all are TRUE except-
|
In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, there is a marked lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid with germinal center formation, atrophy of the thyroid follicles accompanied by oxyphil metaplasia, absence of colloid, and mild to moderate fibrosis. Its incidence increases with age (mean age at diagnosis is 60 yrs). Patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis may present because of goiter rather than symptoms of hypothyroidism. The goiter may not be large, but it is usually irregular and firm in consistency. Reference : page 2290-91 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
None of the above
|
Post mortem staining gets fixed after -
|
Postmortem staining get fixed in 6-12 hours.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
6-7 hrs.
|
The following muscle is an opener of the glottis
|
1. Muscles which abduct the vocal cords: only posterior cricoarytenoids( safety muscles of larynx) 2. Muscles which adduct the vocal cords: * lateral cricoarytenoids * transverse aenoid * cricothyroid *thyroarytenoids 3. Muscles which tense the vocal cords: cricothyroid 4.muscles which relax the vocal cords: * thyroarytenoids * vocalis 4. Muscles which close the inlet of the larynx * oblique arytenoids * aryepiglottic 5.muscles which open the inlet of larynx : Thyroepiglotticus Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 258
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
Posterior cricoarytenoid
|
Malonate competetively inhibits-
|
D i.e. Succinate dehydrogenase
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Succinate dehydrogenase
|
Neoplastic transformation in leucopLakia is seen most commonly in
| null |
Pathology
| null |
Floor of mouth
|
The operative procedure is known as "microfracture" is done for the
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Osteochondral defect of the femurRef. Various internet sites (www.orthopedics.hss.edu, www.kneeguru.co.uk)Microfracture is an arthroscopic procedure used to treat osteochondral defects (damaged areas of articular cartilage of the knee)
|
Unknown
| null |
Osteochondral defect of femur
|
Antibiotic structurally resembling Aminoacyl t-RNA and inhibiting protein synthesis in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes is?
|
1. Puromycin is an Aminonucleoside antibiotic derived from the Streptomyces alboniger bacterium. 2. It can causes premature chain termination during translation and the pa of it resembles the 3' end of the Aminoacyl tRNA. 3. It can inhibit protein synthesis in both bacteria as well as humans
|
Pharmacology
|
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
|
Puromycin
|
Which one of the following activities cannot be formed by a 7 month old infant –
| null |
Pediatrics
| null |
Cruise
|
How much labial reduction is needed for a porcelain
fused to metal
| null |
Dental
| null |
1.5 - 2 mm
|
Which of the following is not a prokinetic?
|
Prokinetic drugs. - These are drugs which promote gastrointestinal transit and speed gastric emptying by propulsive motility.D2blocker example Domperidone. 5HT4 agonistexample cisapride. Metoclopramide. Macrolidesacts on motilin receptor. Hence, Diphenoxymethane is the answer.
|
Pharmacology
|
NEET Jan 2020
|
Diphenoxymethane
|
DIC is common in which AML -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Promyelocytic Tumor cells in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3) release procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors that cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
|
Pathology
| null |
Promyelo cytic (M3)
|
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