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All are used for cervical ripening, except :
|
Ergometrine
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Ergometrine
|
Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen - Hemoglobin dissociation curve?
|
Bohr effect is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin (deoxyhemoglobin) binds H+ more actively than does oxygenated hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin). The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the righ A rise in temperature or a fall in pH shifts the curve to the right HbO2 + 2,3-BPG - - Hb - 2,3-BPG + O2 In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3BPG shifts the reaction to the rightRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:611
|
Physiology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
Decreased CO2
|
What is the ratio of placental weight to fetal weight at term ?
|
Placenta weighs 500 gm, the propoion to the weight of the baby being roughly 1:6 at term and occupies about 30% of the uterine wall.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
1:06
|
Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline o First adrenaline should be given im to raise the blood pressure and to dilate the bronchi. o If the treatment is delayed and shock has developed, adrenaline should be given i.v. by slow injection.
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Adrenaline
|
Turner's Syndrome is associated with :
|
45 chromosomes Turners syndrome has karyotype 45X0. (Option "a" is correct) No. of Barr Bodies= Total No of X Chromosomes -- 1 No. of Barr Bodies in Turners = 1 -- 1 = 0 (Option "b- ruled out) In Turner's syndrome ovaries are replaced by Streak Gonads --> Decreased Estrogen levels -- Decrease in negative inhibition over FSH and therefore FSH levels raised. (Option "c- ruled out)
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
45 chromosomes
|
Which drug is used in intracavernous injection for erectile dysfunction?
|
AlprostadilQ contains naturally occurring prostaglandin E and, hence has vasodilator action. It can be injected into corpora cavernosa or administered intraurethrally. The firm erection is produced within 2 to 3 minutes and may last for 1 hour. Other injectable medications for erectile dysfunction include: Papaverine Phentolamine
|
Psychiatry
|
Sexual Disorders
|
Alprostadil
|
A nursing mother presented with fever and breast tenderness after two weeks postpaum. Which oral antibiotics is ideal for her condition?
|
Dicloxacillin:- Anti - staphylococcal penicillin :- B lactamase resistant penicillin. Their use is restricted to the treatment of infection cause by penicillinase producing staphylococci including MSSA. Other drug of this class:- Methicillin Oxacillin Methicillin because of its toxicity (interstitial Nephritis), Methicillin is not used. Ampicillin/Amoxicillin:-Extended- Spectrum penicillin. More effective against gram -ve bacilli. Ampicillin is a drug of choice for gram positive bacilli : listeria monocytogenes Ceftazidime:-3rd gen cephalosporin, has activity against P. aeruginosa Ciprofloxacin: of the fluoroquinolone it has best activity against P. Aeruginosa and is commonly used in cystic fibrosis patient.
|
Pharmacology
|
Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors
|
Dicloxacillin
|
Drug of choice for prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease is
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proton pump inhibitors * PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiratory pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGE1 analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPL
|
Pharmacology
|
G.I.T
|
Proton pump inhibitors
|
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a:
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Western Blot
|
The most common organism causing acute tonsillitis is:
|
Group A beta hemolytic streptococci is the M/C bacteria causing acute tonsillitis. other causes are: staph aureus pnuemococci H. Influenza Ref Dhingra 5/e,p 341,6/e,p 288.
|
Anatomy
|
Pharynx
|
Hemolytic streptococci
|
Dead-born fetus does not show: Kerala 11
|
Ans. Adipocere formation
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
Adipocere formation
|
A metastatic carcinoma in the brain of an adult, most often comes from primary in the
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Lung
|
Surgery
| null |
Lung
|
Commonly used long bone for identification -
|
The best long bone for identification is femur. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition Chapter 4 page,43,45.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Identification
|
Femur
|
Prokaryotes doesn't have
|
Ans: b) MitochondriaKingdom protista is divided into Prokaryotes and EukaryotesProkaryotes Bacteria & blue green algaeEukaryotesFungi, slime moulds, other algae & protozoaAlmost all organelle and cell components are absent in prokaryotes which are found in EukaryotesMuramic acid and Diaminopimelic acid (cell wall precursors) are present in prokaryotes & not in EukaryotesChromosome is circular in prokaryotes (single) & more than one (linear) in eukaryotes.
|
Microbiology
|
General
|
Mitochondria
|
Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is:
|
Ans. (A). Therapeutic misadventure(Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 33rd edition 2010. Pg: 38)Civil negligenceSimple absence of skill & careCriminal negligenceGross absence of skill & careContributory NegligenceBoth doctor and patient are negligentCorporate NegligenceFailure in part of hospital management to provide adequate facilitiesDoctrine of Res Ipsa LoquitarThe things or facts speaks for itself. E.g. Amputation of a wrong limbDoctrine of calculated riskEvery medical procedure had Inherent riskNovus Actus InterveniensUnrelated Action InterveningTherapeutic misadventureMischance or disaster.A person dies due to some unintentional act of doctor or hospitalDoctrine of Respondent Superior(Vicarious Liability)Let the master answerProduct's liabilityManufacturer is responsible for quality of drug & medical equipment.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Forensic Psychiatry
|
Therapeutic misadventure
|
Causes of Hemobilia are All Except-
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Hepatitis
|
Ammonia for the urea cycle is supplied by the action of the following enzymes?
|
Glutamate dehydrogenase breaks down glutamate to form ammonia and ct-ketoglutarate. Aspaate aminotransferase transfers the amino group from glutamate to oxaloacetate to form aspaate. Ammonia and aspaate both feed into the urea cycle to supply the nitrogen used to synthesize urea. Argininosuceinate synthase, argininosuccinate lyase, and arginase are enzymes that catalyze other steps of the urea cycle.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Glutamate dehydrogenase
|
A hirsuite lady with PCOD treatment is:
|
Ans. is b, i.e. Ethinyl estradiol + DesogestrelRef: Novak 14th/ed, p 1083, 15th/ed, p 1086 KDT Pharma 6th/ed, p 307OCPs decrease adrenal and ovarian androgen production and reduce hair growth in nearly two thirds of hirsute patients. When an OCP is used to treat hirsutism, a balance must be maintained between the decrease in free testosterone levels and the intrinsic androgenicity of the progestin.Progesterones with:High androgenic bioactivityNewer progestins with low androgenic bioactivity* Norgestrel* Desogestrel i.e. class III* Norethindrone* Gestodene* Norethindrone acetate* Norgestimate* Drospirenone Thus, newer progestins with minimal androgenic activity are preferred for management of hirsutism in a patient of PCOD/PCOS (i.e. option b is correct).
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Disorders in Menstruation
|
Ethinyl estradiol + Desogestrel
|
Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., T-cellsNote - Osteoclast is a type of macrophage.
|
Pathology
| null |
T-cells
|
Phyllodes tumor most commonly presents in ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 6th decade Phyllodes tumors, like fibroadenomas, arise from intralobular stroma of breast, but are much less common. Although they can occur at any age, most present in the sixth decade, 10 to 20 years later than the peak age for fibroadenomas.
|
Pathology
| null |
6th decade
|
Caseous necrosis in granuloma not found in
|
Caseous necrosis is found in the centre of foci of tuberculous infections.(Ref: Textbook of Pathology HARSH MOHAN 6th Edition page no.45)
|
Physiology
|
General physiology
|
Tuberculosis
|
SA node is located in ?
|
In crista terminalis
|
Anatomy
| null |
In crista terminalis
|
Step in HMP pathway requiring TPP
|
Transketolase requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Transketolase
|
An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:
|
Answer is B (Supranuclear gaze palsy): Progressive supranuclear palsy should always be considered when a middle aged/elderly persons presents with a history of repeated falls, & difficulty in downward or horizontal gaze. Steel Richardson syndrome Nature of disorder Is a degenerative disorder where in there occurs loss of neurons in pas of our CNS which are involved with maintenance of posture & equilibrium, namely the Mid brain, Pons, Basal ganglion and cerebellum. The clinical features are characteristic "Progressive supranuclear palsy should be considered whenever a middle aged or elderly person person presents with history of repeated falls and has an extrapyramidal syndrome accompanied by nuchal dystonia and paralysis of voluntary down gaze" Factors which distinguish this from Parkinson's marked impairment of voluntary downward gaze and horizontal gaze. extended rather than flexed dystonic posturing absence of tremor poor response to antiparkinsonian medication
|
Medicine
| null |
Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
|
Growth of cranium continues upto:
| null |
Dental
| null |
15 years
|
The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicated by ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoenzyme pattern Zymodene There are distinct invasive and noninvasive strains of E. histolytica. These strains vary according to their isoenzyme patterns (zymodemes). E. histolytica strains have 22 zymodemes of these 10 zymodemes are invasive and 12 are noninvasive. Zymodemes of E. histolytica are identified according to the electrophoretic mobility of 4 enzymes. L-malate : NADP+ Oxidoreductase Phosphoglucomutase (PGM)-------- most impoant Glucose-phosphate isomerase Hexokinase Electrophoresis of PGM can show one or more of the 4 bands : a, 13, y and 5. Strains of E. histolytica showing, an absence of a-band together with the presence of 13 band are virulent i.e., invasive.
|
Microbiology
| null |
Isoenzyme pattern
|
Function of Health worker female -
|
Functions maternal and child health Family planning Medical termination of pregnancy Nutrition Dai training Communicable diseases Vital events Record keeping Treatment of minor ailments Team activities (refer pgno:910 park 23rd edition)
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Health care of community & international health
|
Trains dais
|
Most common site of mandibular fracture is
|
Mandibular fractures are typically the result of trauma. This can include a fall onto the chin or a hit from the side. Rarely they may be due to osteonecrosis or tumors in the bone. The most common area of fracture is at the condyle (36%), body (21%), angle (20%) and symphysis (14%).
|
ENT
| null |
Condylar process
|
Not gluconeogenic-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acetyl CoA o Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (alt amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of citric acid cycle..
|
Biochemistry
|
Gluconeogenesis
|
Acetyl CoA
|
The dominant histologic feature of infarction is:
|
Pathognomonic cytologic change in all infarcts is coagulative (ischaemic) necrosis of the affected area of tissue or organ.
In cerebral infarcts, however, there is characteristic liquefactive necrosis.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 112
|
Pathology
| null |
Coagulative necrosis
|
Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes :
|
Answer is C (Gait disorder, Urinary incontinence & Dementia): Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) is a communicating hydrocephalus with a patent aqueduct of sylvius, caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexities and delayed absorption into the venous system. Clinical triad Abnormal gait Q Dementia Q Urinary incontinence Q Neuroimaging Enlarged lateral ventricles Q (Hydrocephalus) Q with little or No Coical-Atrophy Q CSF picture Pressure : High normal range (Hence called NPH) Q Protein : Normal Q Sugar : Normal Q Cell count : Normal Q
|
Medicine
| null |
Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia
|
In case of IVC obstruction the collaterals which open up are all except ?
|
Superficial epigastric pain drains into great saphenous vein. Iliolumbar vein drains into internal iliac vein,so these two do not form collateral between SVC & IVC as both of them will be ultimately drained into IVC.All other choices form collaterals between SVC & IVC.
|
Anatomy
| null |
Superficial epigastric & iliolumbar vein
|
A patient is having random plasma glucose levels of 110 mg/ dl and 113 mg/ dl on two separate occasions. What you will advise him: March 2012
|
Ans: C i.e. Declare patient as normal Diagnosis of DM Random plasma glucose levels of more than 200 mg/dl along with symptoms suggesting diabetes, confirms the diagnosis Random plasma glucose ranging between 140-198 mg/dl is an indication to perform oral glucose tolerance test The use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes is unceain. HbAlc is used to monitor glycemic control. The recommended target HbA1c is 7% or less, to minimise the risk of vascular complications So analyzing the options given, RBS values of 110 mg/dl and 113 mg/dl falls in normal range
|
Medicine
| null |
Declare patient as normal
|
A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis
|
Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
schwannoma
|
A solution contains 2x10-3 mol/L of a weak acid (pK=3.5) and 2x10-3 mol/L of its conjugate base. Its pH is best approximated by which one of the following?
|
Buffers consist of solutions of acid-base conjugate pairs, such as acetic acid and acetate.a. Near its pK, a buffer maintains the pH of a solution, resisting changes due to addition of acids or bases. For a weak acid, the pK is often designated as pKa .b. At the pKa , and are equal, and the buffer has its maximal capacity.The pH and pK are related as follows: pH=pK+log(/). Thus, when the concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base are equal, the pH equals the pK. The pK is defined as the pH at which =
|
Biochemistry
|
Enzymes
|
3.5
|
In new drug designing. problern arises in
|
Ans. b. Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins
|
Pharmacology
| null |
Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins
|
Common salt can be used as a chemical antidote for washing the stomach in case of oral poisoning by
|
.
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
Silver nitrate
|
In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected?
|
In asymmetric IUGR, brain growth (head circumference) - spared
|
Pediatrics
|
IUGR and Feeding of Preterm Neonate
|
Brain
|
Pain in hypogatric region may arise from
|
Refer to diagram above Pain in Hypogastrium Urine infections Appendicitis Diveicular disease Inflammatory bowel Pelvic pain (Gynae)
|
Surgery
|
Urology
|
Uterus
|
Organism commonly associated with wearing of soft lens:
|
refer : AK KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY 6TH EDITION pg 100
Mode of infection of Acanthamoeba
Contact lens wearers using home-made saline (from contaminated tap water and saline tablets)
is the commonest situation recognised for acanthamoeba infection in western countries.
Other situations include mild trauma associated with contaminated vegetable matter, salt water
diving, wind blown contaminant and hot tub use. Trauma with organic matter and exposure to muddy water are the major predisposing factors in developing countries.
Opportunistic infection. Acanthamoeba keratitis can also occur as opportunistic infection in patients with herpetic keratitis, bacterial keratitis, bullous keratopathy and neuroparalytic keratitis.
|
Unknown
| null |
Acanthamoeba
|
For early diagnosis of ca stomach which method is used -
|
Endoscopy with multiple biopsies and brush cytology is the investigation of choice for gastric cancer.
|
Surgery
| null |
Staining with endoscopic biopsy
|
A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and respiratory distress. The nurses report that the child's bowel movements are greasy and have a pungent odor. A sweat-chloride test is positive. Which of the following mechanisms of disease is the most likely cause of steatorrhea in this child?
|
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting children, which is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and the reproductive tract. The diagnosis of CF is most reliably made by the demonstration of increased concentrations of electrolytes in the sweat. The decreased chloride conductance characteristic of CF results in a failure of chloride reabsorption by the cells of the sweat gland ducts and, hence, to the accumulation of sodium chloride in the sweat. All of the pathologic consequences of CF can be attributed to the presence of abnormally thick mucus. Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion in patients with CF causes malabsorption and foul-smelling fatty stools (steatorrhea). The other choices do not address the underlying cause of malabsorption in patients with CF.Diagnosis: Cystic fibrosis
|
Pathology
|
Genetics
|
Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion
|
Which of the following is not true about transmission -
| null |
Microbiology
| null |
Tetanus may be transmitted through dust and droplets
|
MRI is the investigation of choice in all of the following except:
|
Ans. (c) Skull bone tumors* MRI is best for soft tissue tumors* CT is best for Bone tumors* Imaging modality of choice to detect cerebral necrosis - PET scan.* IOC for Leptomeningeal Carcinomatosis-Gadolinium enhanced MRI
|
Surgery
|
Nervous System
|
Skull bone tumors
|
A country has crude birth rate 25 per 1000 and crude death rate 10 per 1000. What is the growth rate of that country -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1.5% * Growth rate = Crude birth rate - Crude death rate.* Thus, growth rate = 25-10=15 per 1000 or 1.5%
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography and Family Planning
|
1.50%
|
Xanthurenic acid in the urine is suggestive of deficiency of which vitamin?
|
Xanthurenic acid is formed in the side reaction of kynurenine. Kynurenine which is a intermediate of tryptophan metabolism requires vitamin B6 dependent enzyme kynureinase for its normal metabolism. In pyridoxine(Vit B6) deficiency kynurenine is metabolized to xanthurenic acid which is excreted unchanged in urine. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry DM Vasudevan, 5th Ed, page 208
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Vitamin B6
|
Which of the following statements about lamivudine is FALSE :
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Dose lower for blocking HIV replication than HBV replication
|
A 56 year old diabetic man, Damu who regularly consumes nearly 120g alcohol per day, was referred by the PHC physician with history of fatigue, cough with putrid smelling sputum and fever. He has anemia, weight loss, pyorrhea and gingivitis. His chest X-Ray showed some findings which helped the doctor to diagnose his pathology. The true statement regarding treatment of this condition is:
|
This is a tricky question, here we have a patient with alcoholism with frequent aspirations. On the top of that the patient is diabetic too. He is complaining of fever, weight loss, cough with expectoration with foul smelling sputum, so the first d/d is lung abscess due to anaerobes. Let us see the explanations from harrison: Lung abscess: A common feature is periodontal infection with pyorrhea or gingivitis. The usual symptoms are fatigue, cough, sputum production, and fever. Chills are uncommon. Many patients have evidence of chronic disease, such as weight loss and anemia. Some patients have putrid-smelling sputum indicative of the presence of anaerobes. This is usually treated with clindamycin; the initial IV dose of 600 mg four times daily can be changed to an oral dosage of 300 mg four times daily once the patient becomes afebrile and improves clinically. The duration of therapy is until imaging shows that chest lesions have cleared or have left a small, stable scar. An alternative to clindamycin is any B-lactam/-lactamase inhibitor combination; parenteral treatment may be followed by orally administered amoxicillin/clavulanate. Penicillin was previously regarded as a preferred drug for these infections, but many oral anaerobes produce -lactamases, and clindamycin proved superior to penicillin G in a randomized clinical trial. Metronidazole is highly active against viually all anaerobes but not against aerobic microaerophilic streptococci, which play an impoant role in mixed infections. In therapeutic trials, metronidazole has done poorly unless combined with a -lactam or another agent active against aerobic and microaerophilic streptococci. Patients with fevers persisting for 7-14 days should undergo bronchoscopy. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 258, Pages 2145-2146
|
Medicine
| null |
Clindamycin is the initial treatment of choice in this setting
|
Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to
|
Pathophysiology AP is the final result of abnormal pancreatic enzyme activation inside acinar cells Colocalization hypothesis: Cathepsin B-mediated intra acinar cell activation of the digestive enzymes leads to acinar cell injury and triggers an Inflammatory response Digestive enzymes are released which consists of trypsin and lipase which is responsible for the digestion of fat in acute pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1524-1528
|
Anatomy
|
G.I.T
|
Lipase and trypsin
|
Warm-antibody immunohemolytic anemia is seen in all except -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Infectious mononucleosis
|
Which one of the following is not true for an α-helix
|
Right-handed (clockwise) α-helix is more stable and therefore is the usual α-helix pattern found in the natural secondary structure. Left-handed α-helix is not common.
α-helix is the most common secondary structure in proteins.
α-helix has an overall dipole moment: amino terminus of an alpha helix is positive and carboxy terminus is negative.
All hydrogen bonds in a-helix are parallel (i.e. in the same direction).
|
Biochemistry
| null |
Long stretches of left handed α-helices occur in proteins
|
Decidualization of endometrium is due to
|
Progesterone is responsible for decidualization of endometrium.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
Progesterone
|
A pateint with cervix cancer is mised by a screeing test and later diagnosed with advanced disease. This time interval is called
|
.lead time is actually the advantage gained by screening.the priod between the diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.detection programmes should therfore concentrate on those conditions where the time lag between the disease&;s onset and its final critical point is sufficiently long to be suitable for population screening. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 128
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
Lead time
|
Exclusive milk ingestion can manifest as?
|
Ans. is 'None'
|
Pediatrics
| null | null |
Enzyme alpha naphtyl esterase is present in ?
|
Ans. is d i.e., Monocyte
|
Pathology
| null |
Monocyte
|
Drug not causing enzyme inhibition is
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenobarbitone Drugs that induce microsomal enzymes* Phenobarbitone* Carbamezepine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Rifampin* Clofibrate* Glucocorticoids* Meprobamate* Isoniazid* Ritonavir* Chloral hydrate* Glutethimide* Phenylbutazone* Chronic alcohol intake* Griseofulvin* Cigarette smoking* DDT* Cyclophosphamide Drugs that inhibit drug metabolizing enzymes* Allopurinol* Diltiazem* Omeprazole* Amiodarone* Erythromycin* Propoxyphene* Clarithromycin* Isoniazid* Chloramphenicol* Cimetidine* Phenylbutazone* Quinidine* Ketoconazole* Metronidazole* Itraconazole* Disulfiram* Ciprofloxacin* Verapamil* Sulfonamides* MAO inhibitors
|
Pharmacology
|
General Pharmacology
|
Phenobarbitone
|
Consistent change in particular direction over a period of time
| null |
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
Secular trend
|
Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is
|
The characteristic finding is of ovoid cells in nests with a single 'palisading' layer. It is only the outer layer of cells that actively divide, explaining why tumour growth rates are slower than their cell cycle speed would suggest.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 605
|
Surgery
|
General surgery
|
Nuclear palisading
|
All are true about premature rupture of membrane (PROM) except:
|
Answer is option 1 Because amnioinfusion with warm saline can be performed in the presence of variable decelerations due to cord compression in oligohydraminos. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN, 2nd EDITION,pg:526
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Abnormal labor
|
Amnioinfusion is done
|
Paial claw hand is caused by lesion involving the:March 2010, March 2013 (a, b)
|
Ans. B: Ulnar Nerve
|
Surgery
| null |
Ulnar nerve
|
The inferior hypogastric plexus is located -
|
Inferior Hypogastric plexus is located on the side of the rectum.
|
Anatomy
| null |
On the side of rectum
|
Complete mole is -
|
Ans-B i.e., 46XX "In general, complete moles have a 46XX karyotype (85%), the molar chromosomes are derived entirely from father. Infrequently, the chromosomal pattern may be 46, XY or 45, Y".
|
Unknown
| null |
46XX
|
The major advantage of alternate day prednisone therapy for conditions such as asthma –
|
Measures that minimize hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis suppression -
Use shorter acting steroids
Use lowest possible dose
Use for shortest period
Give entire daily dose at a time
Switch to alternate - day therapy
|
Pediatrics
| null |
There is less adrenal suppression
|
Following is not true concerning amyloidosis (NOT RELATED)
|
Amyloidosis of the spleen characteristically is not associated with leukopenia & anaemia. all other options are true
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
Amyloidosis of the spleen is associated with severe anemia
|
In a female,basi-occiput fuses with basi-sphenoid at the age of
|
Basal suture: the basiocciput fuses with basisphenoid by about 18- 22 years in females and 19- 24 years in males. Metopic suture: closes from 2-8 years. In some cases, the metopic suture will not close and may be associated with other congenital anomalies like hydrocephalus and meningocele with asymmetry of fingers which is called Metopic syndrome. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 86
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Identification
|
20 years
|
Cervical cone biopsy in a case of carcinoma cervix causes all, except:
|
Ans. is d, i.e. Spread of malignancyRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p406; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p421; Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p635Complications of Cone biopsy are:* HemorrhageQ* Sepsis (infection)Q* Cervical stenosisQ* Pregnancy complications which include:- Mid trimester abortionsQ- Preterm laborQ- Cervical dystociaQAlso Know* Cone biopsy should be done under general anesthesia.* The cone should include the entire outer margin and the endocervical lining but internal OS is spared.* A small cone is preferred in younger women to avoid pregnancy complications.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Carcinoma Cervix
|
Spread of malignancy
|
Swine flu is ca used by ?
|
Swine infkuenza, a new H1N1 Virus causes swin flue<\p> REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.503
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
H1N1
|
Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:
|
Evaluation of iron status in the body can be done by: Serum ferritin: 'Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status' , especially in populations with low prevalence of anemia. Hemoglobin concentration: A relatively insensitive index of nutrient depletion. Serum iron concentration: Normal range is 0.80 - 1.80 mg/L. Serum transferrin saturation: Normal value is 30%.
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Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Vitamins and Nutritional Deficiencies
|
Serum ferritin
|
The preferred treatment of verrucous carcinoma of the larynx is -
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ENT
| null |
Endoscopic removal
|
Which of the following fungi has not been cultured -
|
(B) (Rhinosporidium) (558- C.P. Baveja 4th)* Rhinosoridium seeberi fungus has not been cultured.* Diagnosis depends on the demonstration of sporangia.* Many fungi develop relatively slowly and cultures should be retained for at least 2-3 weeks (in some cases up to 6 weeks before discarded. Yeasts usually grown within 1-5 days.* Rhinosporidiosis is a chronic granulomatous disease characterised by formation of friable polyps, usually confined to the nose, mouth or eye.* Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of reticuloendothelial system. It is caused by Histoplasma - capsulatum mycelial growth containing thick, walled spherical spores with tubercles or finger like projections is a characteristic feature.* Cryptococcosis is caused by crypto neoformans a capsulated yeast. The fungus is a soil saprophyte and is particularly abundant in the faeces of pigeons. Cryptococcal meningitis is a important feature.Usually seen in immunocompromised host. C. neoformans has ability to grow at 37degC**, hydrolyse urea, produce brown colonies on nigar seed agar and produce disease in mice (Animal inoculation test positive)*** Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia are associated with Zymomycosis.* Absence of rhizoids is a characteristic feature of MUCOR.* Examination of scales in 1% KOH, shows short hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti, and meat ball appearance) and Wood's lamp shows Aple green fluorescence (blue-green fluorescence) in Pityriasis versicolor**** Renauld-Braud phenomenon is seen in Candida albicans.* CandidsL-albicans is the most common cause of mucosal candidiasis.High Yeild Points1."Pseudo-buboes'VPseudolymphadenopathy is caused by Donovanosis (Calymmatobacterium- grcmulomatis)2.Darling's disease or Cave's disease or Caver's disease is caused by dimorphic fungus. Histoplasma capsulatum3.Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by corona virus type - 44.i.Tumbling motility - Listeria ii.Darting motility - V. cholera iii.Stately motility - Clostridium iv.Lashing motility - Borrelia V.Cork-screw motility - T. pallidium vi.Gliding motility - Mycoplasma vii.Swarming motility - Proteus mirabilis. P. vulgaris, B. cereus, Cl. tetani5.*Warthin - Finkldey bodies - Measles *Herpes, Yellow fever - Granular Cowdry type A *Guamieri bodies - Vaccinia *Adeno, Polio virus - Circumscribed Cowdry Type B *Sclerotic bodies - Chromoblastomycosis6.i.Polar flagella are seen in - Vibria, Pseudomonas, H. pylori, Campylobacter, Spirochetes, Legionella ii.Peritrichous flagella - E. coli, Proteus, L. monocytogenes, All Clostridia except Cl. perfringens and Cl. tetani. Bacillus except B. anthrax. Salmonella except S. gallinarum- pollorum.7.i.Hepatitis A - Enterovirus (Picoma virus) - non - enveloped RNA virus - Enterovirus 72 ii.Hepatitis B - Hepadana virus DNA virus iii.Hepatitis C - Flaviviris, enveloped RNA virus iv.Hepatitis D - Defective RNA virus resembling viroids8.Prozone phenomenon is seen with antibody excess to antigen 9."Fish tank granuloma" or "Swimming pool granuloma" is caused by M. marinum 10.A. Post splenectomy - susceptible to bacterial infectionsi. Strep to pneumoniaeii. H. influenzaeiii. Gram negative enteric organism, N. meningitidesB. Splenectomized patients are more susceptible to parasitic disease - Babesiosis, paludism11.Cryptococcus neoformans is best demonstrated in CSF by direct microscopy. The capsule is seen as a clear halo around the yeast cells in unstained wet preparations of CSF mixed with a drop of India - ink or nigrosine. Methamine silver stain would be the best choice for tissue sample.12.Reactive arthritis in tuberculosis is known as Poncets disease (Tubercular rheumatism)13.i. Largest protozoa is - Balantidium coliii. Fasciolopsis- buski - is the largest trematode parasitizing maniii. Largest Nematode- Ascaris, Smallest nematode - Trichinella14.Water house - friderichsen syndrome or Purpura fulminans caused by N. meningitides causes septic shock, prominence of hemorrhagic skin lesion (petechiae, purpura) and the consistent development of DIC15.Obligate intracellular organisms are - Rickettsiae, Chlamydiae, Viruses, M. leprae, pathogenic treponemes (syphilis)
|
Microbiology
|
Mycology
|
Rhinosporidium
|
Which of following techniques tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy -
|
FISH (Fluorescent in situ hybridisation) and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) like RT-PCR and QF PCR tests can detect specific aneuploidy.
Whereas, microarray-based CGH (comparative genomic hybridization) test can be used as high-resolution whole-genome scan for the detection or screening of unknown (non-specific) abnormalities, mutation or genomic imbalance including deletions, duplication and aneuploidies. Microarray-based CGH cannot detect balanced translocations or inversions.
So FISH and PCR can detect specific (known) chromosomal abnormalities whereas microarray-based CGH is better suited for screening unknown (non-specific) chromosomal abnormalities.
|
Biochemistry
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Microarray
|
Which of the following occurs along with glucose transport into a cell
|
Na+- Glucose co-transport. Glucose is reabsorbed 100% in Proximal Tubule
|
Physiology
| null |
Sodium symport
|
Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction':
|
Frei's test is not a heterophile reaction Frie's test is used in the diagnosis of LGV. Antigen made from sterile pus aspirated from previously unruptured LGV abscesses, produces a reaction in patients with lymphogranuloma inguinale when injected intradermally. Heterophile reactiion Similar antigens on dissimilar organisms are called heterophile antigens Antibodies reacting with such antigens are called heterophile antibodies. Serologic tests employing such antigens are called heterophile tests. Heterophile agglutination tests include- Sheep RBCs agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies and are the basis for the Paul-Bunnell test in Infectious mononucleosus. Agglutination of horse RBCs on exposure to heterophile antibodies is the basis of the Monospot test in Infectious mononucleosus. Patients suffering from some rickettsial diseases develop agglutinins against ceain nonmotile strains of Proteus. This is the basis of Weil Felix test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against human blood group O RBC's. This is the basis of cold agglutination test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against Group F Streptococcus. This is the basis of Streptococcus MG test
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)
|
Frei's test
|
Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis?
|
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis used to be most common manifestation of tuberculosis, but now it is causes by staphylococcus Eales' disease (periphlebitis retinae ) occur in tuberculosis but it is not very common. Acute retinal necrosis occurs in Herpes simplex and varicella infection not in tuberculosis. Choroiditis is by far the most common manifestation of tuberculosis.
|
Ophthalmology
|
Investigation in ophthalmology and miscellaneous topics
|
Choroiditis
|
Carbon di oxide is transpoed in plasma as:September 2005
|
Ans. D: All of the aboveCO2 is carried in blood in three different waysMost of it (about 70% - 80%) is conveed to bicarbonate ions by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells5% - 10% is dissolved in the plasma5% - 10% is bound to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds
|
Physiology
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All of the above
|
All are true statements regarding use of sodium fluoride in the treatment of otosclerosis except:
|
Ans. is a i.e. It inhibits osteoblastic activity The most useful medication which prevents rapid progression of cochlear otoscierosis is sodium fluoride Mechanism of Action It reduces osteoclastic bone resorption and increases osteoblastic bone formation, which promote recalcification and reduce bone remodelling in actively expanding osteolytic lesion. It also inhibits proteolytic enzymes that are cytotoxic to cochlea and lead to SNHL (Hence specially useful in cochlear otosclerosis). Current Otolaryngology 2nd/ed pg 678
|
ENT
| null |
It inhibits osteoblastic activity
|
Newborns have transplacentally acquired immunity against all of the following diseases except –
| null |
Pediatrics
| null |
Pertusis
|
In Kluver-Bucy animals, lesion is in:
|
Kluver-Bucy syndrome refers to the changes in behavior due to bilateral destruction of anterior poions of temporal lobes & amygdala on both sides. It is characterised by: The animal is not afraid of anything, It has extreme curiosity about everything, It has a tendency to place everything in its mouth, The animal has an extreme sex drive.
|
Physiology
|
Higher Functions
|
Amygdala
|
Cryoglobulins are present in blood in which of the following clinical scenarios
|
Cryoglobulins if present in blood, form precipitates in patients serum when it is cooled down. They are a type of abnormal immunoglobulin disorder Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 102
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology
|
All the above
|
Serum sickness occurs after -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Injection with foreign serum o Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated) reaction that results from the injection of heterologous or foreign protein or serum.o Certain medications (eg, penicillin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ) have also been associated with serum sickness-like disease.o When an antiserum is given, the human immune system can mistake the proteins present for harmful antigens. The body produces antibodies, which combine with these proteins to form immune complexes. These complexes precipitate, enter the walls of blood vessels, and activate the complement cascade, initiating an inflammatory response and consuming much of the available complement component 3 (C3). The result is a leukocytoclastic vasculitis. This results in hypocomplementemia, a low C3 level in serum. o Serum sickness is typically self-limited and resolves within days.
|
Pathology
|
Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury
|
Injection with foreign serum
|
Chancroid is caused by:
|
Ans. c (Haemophilus ducreyi). (Ref. Textbook of microbiology by Ananthanarayan 6th/ 311.)VulvovaginitisAdherent yellowish discharge, pH >5, fishy amine odor in KOH, clue cells, gram - cell dominateBacterial vaginosisOvergrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, anaerobesClue cells, gram - rodsMetronidazoleVulvovaginitis, pruritus, erythema, discharge with consistency of cottage cheeseCandida spp.Antibiotic use-* overgrowth, immunocom promisedGerm tube test, gram + yeasts in vaginal fluidsNystatin, miconazole"Strawberry cervix" foamy purulent discharge; many PMNs and motile trophozoites microscopically (corkscrew motility)Trichomonas vaginalisVaginitis with dischargePear-shaped trophozoites with corkscrew motilityMetronidazoleEducational points: STDCAUSATIVE AGENTDIAGNOSISTREATMENT1.Chancroid (Soft sore)H. ducreyi"School of fish"/Rail road trackErythromycin/Cotrimazole2.L6VChlamydiae trachomatis (L1< L2, and L3)Culture of LGV strain from node or rectum, occa-sionally from urethra or cervix; NAAT for C. trachomatis from these sites; LGV CF titer, 1:64; micro-IF titer, 1:512.Tetracycline3.Syphilis (Hard chancre)T. pallidumDark ground microscopyPenicillin4.Genital herpesH. simplex2HSV infection is best confirmed in the laboratory by detection of virus, viral antigen, or viral DNA in scrapings from lesions.Acyclovir5.Donovaniasis(Granuloma inguinale)Calymmto- bacterium granulomatisSmears can be examined in a clinical setting by direct microscopy with a rapid Giemsa or Wright's stain. Donovan bodies can be seen in large, mononuclear (Pund) cells as gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts filled with deeply staining bodies that may have a safety-pin appearance.Erythromycin6.GonorrhoeaN. gonorrheaA rapid diagnosis of gonococcal infection in men may be obtained by Gram's staining of urethral exudates.PenicillinCeftriaxone (For disseminated gonorrhoea)7.TrichomoniasisT. vaginalis"Strawberry vagina & Cx"metro/tinidazole8.Bacterial vaginosisGarnerellaVaginalis"Clue cells"LeucocytopeniaReduced lactobacilliMetronidazole/ Clindamycin
|
Skin
|
S.T.D.
|
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor in neuroblastoma?
|
Unourable prognostic factors in neuroblastoma: Stage 3, 4 Age >18 months Absence of evidence of schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation High Mitosis-karyorrhexis index (>200/5000 cells) Near-diploid (segmental chromosome losses; chromothripsis) MYCN Amplified Chromosome 1p loss Chromosome 11q loss Absent TRKA expression Presence of TRKB expression Mutations of neuritogenesis genes
|
Pathology
|
Organ Transplant / Graft
|
Evidence of gangliocytic differentiation
|
'Hot Potato' voice is characteristically seen in
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Lateral pharyngeal space infection
|
In CPR, chest compressions are done:
| null |
Surgery
| null |
On the middle of the lower part of the sternum
|
Not a cause of acute anal pain is:
| null |
Surgery
| null |
Fistual in ano
|
Overall most common trisomy is
|
Most common Trisomy overall is Trisomy 16. Most common Trisomy in live birth is Trisomy 21.
|
Pediatrics
| null |
Trisomy 16
|
In camera trial of a rape case hearing is done under ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. 327 CrPC S. 327 CrPC (2) -The inquiry into and trial of rape or an offence under sec.376 IPC shall be conducted in camera and it is not lawful for any person to print or publish any matter in relation to such proceedings except with the permission of cou.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
327 CrPC
|
A mill-wheel type of murmur during laparoscopy suggests
|
The 'water-wheel' or 'mill-wheel' murmur is classically associated with large intracardiac air emboli and described as a "characteristic splashing auscultatory sound due to the presence of gas in the cardiac chambers." . Most venous air (gas) emboli are iatrogenic . Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 620
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory system
|
Gas embolism
|
Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is -
|
Typhoid and paratyphoid (enteric) fevers Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, which are transmitted by the faecal-oral route, are impoant causes of fever in the Indian subcontinent, sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America. Elsewhere, they are relatively rare. Enteric fevers are caused by infection with Salmonella Typhi and Salmonella Paratyphi A and B. After a few days of bacteraemia, the bacilli localise, mainly in the lymphoid tissue of the small intestine, resulting in typical lesions in the Peyer's patches and follicles. These swell at first, then ulcerate and usually heal. After clinical recovery, about 5% of patients become chronic carriers (i.e. continue to excrete the bacteria after 1 year); the bacilli may live in the gallbladder for months or years and pass intermittently in the stool and, less commonly, in the urine. Clinical features Typhoid fever The incubation period is typically about 10-14 days but can be longer, and the onset may be insidious. The temperature rises in a stepladder fashion for 4 or 5 days with malaise, increasing headache, drowsiness and aching in the limbs. Constipation may be caused by swelling of lymphoid tissue around the ileocaecal junction, although in children diarrhoea and vomiting may be prominent early in the illness. The pulse is often slower than would be expected from the height of the temperature, i.e. a relative bradycardia. At the end of the first week, a rash may appear on the upper abdomen and on the back as sparse, slightly raised, rose-red spots, which fade on pressure. It is usually visible only on white skin. Cough and epistaxis occur. Around the 7th-10thday, the spleen becomes palpable. Constipation is followed by diarrhoea and abdominal distension with tenderness. Bronchitis and delirium may develop. If untreated, by the end of the second week the patient may be profoundly ill. Salmonella enterica is a facultative anaerobe and is a gram negative, motile ... For enteric fever, the infectious dose is about 105 bacilli by ingestion Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1079
|
Medicine
|
Infection
|
102-105 bacilli
|
Ocular hallmark of giant cell aeritis is
|
Answer- C. AIONThe most common ocular manifestation of giant cell aeritis is visual loss, most commonly secondary to anterior ischemicoptic neuropathy (AION) due to occlusion of sho posterior ciliary aerities.Ophthalmic aery involvement can lead to sudden blindness which is the most feared complication of temporal aeritis.
|
Medicine
| null |
AION
|
The following are true of vibro cholerae except
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dies rapidly at low temperature . Duration of protection of cholera vaccine is 3-6 months. . Vibrio cholerae does not die at lower temperature, infact it grows at lower temperature (range 16-40degC)
|
Microbiology
| null |
Dies rapidly at low temperature
|
In CEAP clinical classification what does C-4b indicate
|
The CEAP (Clinical - Etiology - Anatomy - Pathophysiology)classifi cation for chronic venous disorders is widely utilised.Clinical classification* C0: no signs of venous disease* C1: telangectasia or reticular veins* C2: varicose veins* C3: oedema* C4a: pigmentation or eczema* C4b: lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche* C5: healed venous ulcer* C6: active venous ulcer
|
Surgery
|
All India exam
|
Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche
|
Which of the following features defines toddler fracture
|
Toddler fractures occur in young ambulatory children (from 9 months to 3 years). A toddler&;s fracture is a spiral or oblique undisplaced fracture of the distal shaft of the tibia with an intact fibula. The periosteum remains intact and the bone is stable. These fractures occur as a result of a twisting injury. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
|
Pediatrics
|
Musculoskeletal disorders
|
Spiral fracture of the tibia
|
A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on treatment with a combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except -
| null |
Medicine
| null |
Lymphadenopathy
|
The world health organisation day is -
|
In 1946 the constitution was drafted by "Technical Preparatory Committee " under the chairmanship of Rene Sand and was approved in the same year by an International Health Conference of 51 nations in New york. The constitution came in to force on 7 th April 1948 which is celebrated every year as "World Health Day "(refer pgno:919 park 23rd edition)
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Health care of community & international health
|
7th April
|
Chorda tympani leaves skull through?
|
The chorda tympani arises in the veical pa of the facial canal about 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen. It runs upwards and forwards in a bony canal. It enters the middle ear and runs forwards in close relation to the tympanic membrane. It leaves the middle ear by passing through the petrotympanic fissure. It then passes medial to the spine of the sphenoid and enters the infratemporal fossa. Here it joins the lingual nerve through which it is distributed Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 140
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
Petrotympanic fissure
|
Klinefelter syndrome karyotype is-
|
harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *klinefelter'syndrome is an example of sex chromosome trisomy 47,XXX karyotype
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
47XXY
|
Fluoxetine is a -
| null |
Psychiatry
| null |
Serotonin uptake inhibitor
|
The viruses causing diarrheal diseasesin infants are -
|
rota virus cause diarrheal disease in childrens REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.561
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
Rotavirus
|
Ketamine is a
| null |
Pharmacology
| null |
Short general anesthetic agent
|
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