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In the King James Version of the Bible there are three differents words translated into the word "hell". These Greek words have totally different meanings. The words are Hades, Tartaros, and Gehenna. In bibical usage, the Greek word Hades is used only 11 times in the New Testament, and is roughly the equivalent to the Old Testament word Sheol... meaning the grave or pit (compare Acts 2:27 with Psalms 16:10). Hades may be likened to a hole in the ground. (In the Bible it has nothing to do with fire!) Most modern bibical translators admit that the use in the English word hell to translate Hades and Sheol are an unfortunate and misleading practice. Why? Because when seeing the word "hell" many readers impute to it the traditional connotation of an ever-burning inferno, when this was never remotely intended in the Greek language or in Old English! In its true bibical usage Hades does indeed refer to the state or abode of the dead, but not in the sense of spirits walking around in some sort of "shadowy realm." Hades is simply the abode we call the grave. All dead go to this hell. The second "hell" of the Bible, Tartaros, is mentioned only once in scripture, 2 Pet.2:4; "For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell (TARTAROS), and delivered them into chains of darkness to be reserved unto judgment..." Following their rebellion to unseat God from His throne (Isa.14:12-14; Rev.12:4), the archangel Lucifer (now Satan) and a third of the created angels (now demons) were ejected from heaven (Luke 10:18). They were cast down to Tartaros, a place or condition of restraint that God has imposed on the mutinous angels as they await ultimate judgment (Jude 6; 1 Cor.6:3). Tartaros, then, is a "hell" that applies only to evil, rebellious angels or demons (It is interesting that the ancient Greeks used this word to describe the place in which Zeus confined the rebellious Titans). Nowhere in the Bible is there any mention of men being put into this particular "hell". The the third word that is translated as "hell" in the Bible is Gehenna. It comes from the Hebrew GAI HINNOM, meaning "valley of Hinniom." Hinnom is a deep, narrow ravine located to the south and southwest of Jerusalem. In Old Testament times it was a place of abominable pagan rites, including infant sacrifice (It was there that the apostate kings Ahaz and Manasseh made their children "pass through the fire" to the god Molech. The rites were specifically celebrated in Tophet, the "place of abhorrence," one of the chief groves in the valley). King Josiah of ancient Judah finally put an end to these abominations. He defiled the valley, rendering it ceremonially unclean (2 Kings 23:10). Later the valley became the cesspool and city dump of Jerusalem; a repository for sewage, refuse and animal carcasses. The bodies of dispised criminals were also burned there along with the rubbish. Fires burned continuously, feeding by a constant supply of garbage and refuse. Aceldama, the "field of blood", purchased with the money Judas received for the betrayal of Christ (Matt.27:8) was also in part of the valley of Hinnom. So what does this valley called Gehenna have to do with hell? In Rev.19:20: the Satan inspired political dictator and a miracle-working religious figure, the False Prophet, working with him will resist the re-establishment of the government of God by Jesus Christ at His Second Coming. Their fate is revealed by the apostle John: "And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet... These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone." Where will this temporary lake of fire (this "hell") be? The prophet Isaiah wrote of this lake of fire prepared for the Beast: "For Tophet (in the valley of Hinnom) is ordained of old, yea for the king it is prepared, he hath made it deep and large, the pile thereof is fire and wood, the breath of the Lord, like a stream of brimstone, doth kindle it" (Isa.30:33). One thousand years later, Satan himself will be cast into this rekindled fiery lake where the Beast and False Prophet were cast! (Rev.20:10). But what of the wicked who have died over the millennia? Does the Bible say that they are now suffering fiery punishment for their sins in a lake of fire? In the sequence of Rev.20 the incorrigibly wicked are resurrected to be thrown into the lake of fire after Satan is cast there! (Rev.20:15). What will become of these wicked? Will they writhe in flames for eternity? The wicked will be burned up from the intense heat of the coming Gehenna fire on the earth. They wil be consumed, annihilated, destroyed! This punishment will be everlasting (permanent and final). The Bible calls it the "second death" (Rev.20:14; 21:8), from which there is no possibility of a further resurrection. The Bible does teach eternal punishment, but not eternal punishing. The prophet Malachi provides a graphic description. "For, behold, the day cometh that shall burn as an oven, and all the proud, yea, and all that do wickedly, shall be stubble, and the day that cometh shall burn them up..." (4:1). To the righteous, God says that the wicked shall be "ashes under the soles of your feet..."(Mal.4:3). Gehenna was a place of destruction and death, not a place of living torture! Jesus was talking to Jews who understood all about this Gehenna or valley of Hinnom. Utter destruction by fire was complete. Nothing was left, but ashes! Every text in the Bible translated from this Greek word Gehenna means complete destruction, not living torture (not eternal life in torment)! The Bible says, in Romans 6:23, "The wages of sin is death", not eternal life in torture. The punishment revealed in the Bible is Death... the cessation of life.
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My last response in this thread fell into a bit-bucket and vanished (though appearing locally). I'll repost it, since I always feel slighted when someone appears to ignore one of my postings in a conversational thread, I don't want Rob to think I'm doing so. Since this is now dated, however, don't feel compelled to respond... I suspect you meant this in context of the Jewish tradition you have been referring to; one problem with a highly-interpreted tradition like this is what happens when a schism occurs, and over time certain large and influential branches of the heretical group come to favor exactly a "face value" interpretation... While the context of the time is important, value judgments must ultimately be according to current understanding, or at least to some base standard (relative stability/success of a society, e.g.). This is obviously true in comparing it to practices of surrounding people, for instance: according to the Bible, the surrounding people were immoral savages with repulsive and inhuman habits. We need to look rather at what those peoples were *really* like. For instance, in what way is it better to worship a single god whose presence is symbolically strongest in a tent or temple over multiple gods some of whose presence is symbolically represented in a statue? By the Bible's own terms idolatry is inherently evil, but I see no evidence that the followers of the various other religions of the area and time were particularly bad people, relative to the people in the Bible. Sounds good, but it presupposes teeth-rending neighbors, which I see no support for. One can argue that post-facto assertion of inhumane neighbors can be used to make moral points, but that doesn't mean that the actual neighbors really were inhuman. More to the point, such dehumanization of the people across the river or over the mountain, or even of a different people dwelling among us, is all too common. Note that I'm speaking of historical interpretation here, for instance claiming that Hammurabi's "an eye for an eye" was primitive brutal retribution, while Moses' version was an enlightened benign fine (because the tradition has since interpreted the phrase that way). As of 3000 years ago or so, they probably both meant the same thing. I don't belittle the accomplishments, particularly the intellectual ones, of the Jewish people. I have given up on trying to think by analogy, since I don't know of any other 'tribe' that is at all similar (the closest I can think of are the Romany, but I don't know enough about them to make a meaningful comparison). I think a tradition of reflective study, of flexible rather than dogmatic interpretation, is a good thing. I think that with such an attitude a case could be made that you could have done as well starting with a 1943 Captain America comic (or whatever the Babylonian equivalent would have been). -- Jim Perry [email protected] Decision Support, Inc., Matthews NC These are my opinions. For a nominal fee, they can be yours.
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... If we take things this literally then we must also forbid women from speaking in church. Paul while led by the holy spirit was human and could err. I find it interesting that CHRIST never discussed the issue of homosexuality, certainly it existed back then and if it was a serious transgression CHRIST would have condemned it. I find it disturbing that the modern church spends its energy trying to stamp out something that CHRIST didn't consider worth a single word of condemnation. CHRIST repeatedly warns us against judgement. Don't we risk "judgement in equal measure" when we condemn people who GOD himself did not judge when he walked on the earth? -- | The love of CHRIST is contagious! --+-- |
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refrettably you are mistaken. alt.drugs was used to recruit people for the worldwide pot religion. I, however hve no problem being in both of them
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So what do we have now, an integral over pain X time? I get to lash you with a wet noodle for ever, but I only get to cut you up with a power saw if I'm quick about it?
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: BULLSHIT!!! In the Gulf Massacre, 7% of all ordnance used was "smart." The : rest - that's 93% - was just regular, dumb ol' iron bombs and stuff. Have : you forgotten that the Pentagon definition of a successful Patriot launch : was when the missile cleared the launching tube with no damage? Or that a : successful interception of a Scud was defined as "the Patriot and Scud : passed each other in the same area of the sky"? : : And of the 7% that was the "smart" stuff, 35% hit. Again - try to follow me : here - that means 65% of this "smart" arsenal missed.
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Yes, but no more than he is worth. :-). Seriously: Jerome is merely (and grandly) another Christian witness, to be taken for what he can tell us. He is one in the community of saints. You seem to wish for a greater polarization and dichotomy between Catholic and Protestant thought than seems to me, from a historical perspective, to be valid. To be sure, Rome rejects (some significant aspects of) Protestant thought just as vehemently as Protestants reject (some significant aspects of) Roman thought. Other than some peoplw who apparently try to embody the greatest extreme of this rejection, on either side, there is not quite so vast a gulf fixed as casual observers seem to assume. Ecumenical consultations between Rome and the Lutherans, as well as those between Rome and the Anglican communion (to which I belong) show very nearly complete convergence on understanding the basic theological issues -- the sticking points tend to be ecclesiology and church polity. Thus, for example, as you go on to say: Many of us do not regard a papal decretal as having any necessary (as opposed to political) significance. Sometimes it will, sometimes it won't. You misread me if you think that my communion, at least, "throws out" the deuterocanonical books. Nor do I think you should overstress the sense in which the more Reformed may do so. I seriously suggest you rethink what you are saying here. It verges on, and could be taken as, anti-Semitic in the worst sense. The "unbelieving" Jews were, according to what I understand as a Christian, the chosen people of God, and the recipients of His pre-Incarnational revelation. I think they have some say in the matter. The Javneh meeting should not be over-interpreted. A recent magisterial study titled _Mikra_ (I don't have more citation information on hand, sorry) produced primarily from the background of Christian (rather than specifically Jewish) scholarship suggests strongly that the Javneh meeting mostly resolved a lingering question, where in practice the canon had long been fixed on the basis of the scrolls that were kept in the Temple, and thereby "made the hands unclean" when used. The list of "sacred books" that may be drawn up from Josephus and other pre-Yavneh sources correspond (plus or minus one book, if I rememeber the chapter correctly) to the current Jewish canon of Tanakh. All of this is not to "throw out" the deuterocanonicals (what, by the way, is YOUR position about the books the Greeks accept and Rome does not? :-)) -- just to observe that the issue is complex and simply binary judgment does not do it justice.
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[By default, followups to 3 newsgroups.] A short excerpt: [...]
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I have enrolled in "The History of Christianity" at a college here in St. Louis. The teacher of the class is what I consider to be closed-minded and bigotted on the subject of what the definition of Christianity is. His definition is tied directly to that of the Trinity and the Catholic church's definition of it and belief in Jesus Christ is not sufficient to call one's self a Christian. While his saying it doesn't make it so, I nevertheless feel insulted (or am I just neurotic? :^) ). I would like to be able to respond to him with some sense of literacy while maintaining an amiable student-teacher relationship. So, is there common definition of what Christianity is? As the previous discussion of the Trinity did not lend itself to an exchange of flames, I am hopeful that this will also not produce major flames. Regards, -- Larry Autry Silicon Graphics, St. Louis [email protected] [Often we get into discussions about who is Christian. Unfortunately there are a number of possible definitions. Starting from the broadest, commonly used definitions are: a historical definition people who accept Christ as Lord and savior a broad doctrinal definition narrow doctrinal definitions 1) By a historical definition I mean the sort of definition a secular historian would likely use. This would include any group that developed out of the Christian church, and continues within the same broad culture. E.g. some Unitarians would fail just about any doctrinal test you could come up with. Yet it's clear that that group developed from Christianity, and people from very different backgrounds (e.g. Hindus) would likely see them as part of Christianity. This is not a definition most Christians like, but it's relevant in some political and ethnic contexts. 2) Accepting Christ as Lord and savior is a test used by many Christian groups for membership, e.g. the Southern Baptists and Presbyterian Church (USA). I would qualify it by saying that what most people have in mind is an exclusive commitment to Christ, so that someone who accepted Christ as one of many gods would not fit. It's an attempt to formulate a criterion that is religious but is not based on technical doctrine. By this definition, groups such as Arians would be viewed as heretical Christians, but still Christians. In the modern context this would include Mormons, JW's, and "oneness Pentecostals". They would be viewed as heretical Christians, but still Christian. In practice I believe just about everyone who falls into this category would accept the Apostle's Creed. 3) The next level is an attempt to give a broad doctrinal definition, which includes all of the major strands of Christianity, but excludes groups that are felt to be outside "historic Christianity." This is of course a slippery enterprise, since Catholics could argue that Protestants are outside historic Christianity, etc. But I think the most commonly accepted definition would be based on something like the Nicene Creed and the Formula of Chalcedon. The attempt is to characterize doctrines that all major strands of Christianity agree are key. Obviously this is to some extent a matter of judgement. A Mormon will regard the LDS church as a major strand, and thus will not want to include anything that contradicts their beliefs. But I think this definition would have fairly broad acceptance. 4) Finally, some people use definitions that I would say are limited to a specific Christian tradition. E.g. some evangelicals only consider someone Christian if he has had an evangelical-style conversion experience, and some I've even heard of groups that limit it to their specific church. I think you can find contexts where each of these definitions is used. A lot is going to depend upon the purpose you're using it for. If you're using it descriptively, e.g. in history or anthropology, you'll probably use definition 1 or 2. If you're using it normatively, i.e. to say what you believe the Christian message is, you'll probably use a definition like 3 or even 4.
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Apparently you *didn't* read the whole thing. You continue to miss the point. [deletions] Counselling that only provides alternatives to abortion would be just as biased as counselling that only provides *abortion* information. How about providing counselling that will give a woman help in finding what *she* is comfortable with. Your adoption-funding idea may be a good one. Any idea if it is feasable? Making adoption easier on the birth-mother may help reduce abortion, but it will *not* eliminate the need for it. Abortion is not done just because the mother can't care for the child and doesn't feel good about giving it to strangers. Abortion is done because the mother can not afford the *pregnancy*. Then please justify why being "human" automatically makes something valuable. And why that includes the unborn. No, they are not guaranteed to become productive members of society. Even if they do that is *MANY YEARS* in the future--until which they are a burden on someone, or society. There is also the matter of the mother. Forcing her to carry a pregnancy to term at a critical time in her life could prevent her from being a productive member of society. Ok, look. It's like this. We *are* footing the bill. Maybe they will take choice A. Maybe they will take choice B. Maybe they will take choice C. They can't afford any *one* of them. If they take choice A we'd have to pay them, say $5. If they take choice B it would cost us $20. If they take choice C it will cost us $20 now and a hell of a lot more for the next 18 years. Which one sounds the most realistic for us to be willing to pay for? Now some people happen not to like choice A. Other people happen not to like choice C (paying for it, that is). C has been around and paid for for years. Even though it means we spend a lot of money, we can't in conscience refuse to pay for it. Now A has been around and is perfectly legal, but it hasn't been funded in the past. Now A is going to be funded but some people object. They don't like the idea of their tax money going to pay for choice A. So we could refuse to fund A at all. Then those women who can't afford any of those choices will be forced to take choice B or C, which will cost *all of us* more money. Most of us don't see any reason at all why *more money* should be spent to the effect of *removing personal choice* from some women. The alternative is to fund A if that is what the mother chooses. We will also still fund B and even C if *that* is what the mother chooses. However, some women will certainly choose A, and that will then save us $15 we otherwise would have had to spend. Your "taxes" are not being raised to fund a choice you object, they are being *lowered* because we will fund a choice that is *legal*, despite your objections to it. (Actually, your taxes are not really going to go down, as I'm sure you would point out. But the amount that is saved in that area can help out in another--like our massive debt.) Those other procedures you mention only cost money. There is no savings in other procedures that would be required down the road without them. (In fact, there could be additional costs down the road *because* of them.) This is quite different from the case of abortion. This is bullshit. We are *not* refusing "to make the alternative affordable too". If we refused to pay for the more expensive choice of birth, *then* your statement would make sense. But that is not the case, so it doesn't. If Clinton tried to block funding for pre-natal care and delivery (or left it out of his health-care plan), I would certainly object. I would also be quite surprised. Yes, but probably not your definition of it, or for the reasons you think. YOU STUPID FUCK! *WE DO* want to fund *all* the choices. *YOU* are the one who wants to *NOT* fund all the choices. Your humble opinion is still wrong. Even with easy adoption, there is still the fact that pregnancy takes several months. Months in which a young woman could need to be getting an education. (like finishing High School, entering college, finishing college, getting a job...things that are much harder to do if you have to "take a break" for a few months...things that have a massive impact on her future productivity.) You *can* have a conversation with the "mentally incompetant". And even though *you* personally may refuse to have a conversation with "people you just don't like", it is still *possible* for others to have a conversation with them. It is *not* possible for *anyone* to have a conversation with a fetus. He was still biologically independent. At least to the same extent you are now. He consumed nutrients and digested them in the normal manner. He breathed his own air. A fetus on the other hand, gets it's nutrients already digested by the mother. It gets its oxygen from the mother as well. That is not biologically independent. Awareness is only *part* of what makes a "member of society". It is the minimal conceivable requirement, yet many people seem to think that something without awareness could still be important enough to justify the suffereing of a true member of society. I keep asking, but I still haven't seen a real justification for why the life of a non-sentient creature should be worth the suffering of a sentient being. (I haven't read every response on the threads I've been asking on, yet, so we'll see if I see one later.) Anyone who can program in UNIX has a lot of experiences in the real world.
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No, this is far from clear. We only have the word of the FBI spokepeople that a survivor made this claim. We have the contradictory word of the lawyers who spoke with the survivors individually that ALL of them agreed that they did NOT have a suicide pact and did not intentionally start the fire. In the absense of any more evidence, I don't see how we can decide who to believe. Furthermore, its quite possible that there was no general suicide pact and that some small inner circle took it upon themselves to kill everyone else. With the state of the area now, we may never know what happened. Again, we have only the word of the FBI on this claim. The lawyers who have also talked to the survors deny that any of them are making that claim. I will agree on your assessment as to the relative probabilities. Its more likely that the BD's started the fire than did the FBI. But there is currently NO way to decide what actually happened based on the publically available evidence (which is nearly none). D. The fire was an started accidentally by the BDs. I am truely amazed that I have heard (or read) of no one suggesting this possibility. With all the tear gas and the lack of electical power in the compound and the adults wearing gas masks, it had to have been chaotic inside. I can easily image someone leaving a lamp too close to something or accidentally dropping a lamp or knocking one over. With the winds, it would have quickly gotten out of control. No, I think that D is also quite reasonable. I personally can't really asses any relative probablities to either of these 3 probabilities although if forced to bet on the issue, I would probably take an accident (either FBI or BD) over intential setting of the fire). I would also like to add a comment related to the reports that bodies recovered had gunshot wounds. The coroner was on the Today Show this morning and categorically denied that they've reach any such conclusions. He pointed out that under intense heat, sufficient pressure builds up in the head that can cause it to explode and that this can look very much like a massive gunshot wound to the head which is quite consisted with te reports I've read and heard. In short, there's been almost no evidence corroborating any of the many scenarios as to what happened on Monday. We should remain skeptical until more information is available. --
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Whoa, dude I don't see the jump you made. She was blessed, I'll give you that much. What do you mean, she was placed "beyond" the sanctification of normal humanity.
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Has anyone read this important book? If so, what are your feelings about it? Frank
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[ . . .] I am a relativist who would like to answer your question, but the way you phrase the question makes it unanswerable. The concepts of "right" and "wrong" (or "correct/incorrect" or "true/false") belong to the domain of epistemological rather than moral questions. It makes no sense to ask if a moral position is right or wrong, although it is legitimate to ask if it is good (or better than another position). Let me illustrate this point by looking at the psychological derivatives of epistemology and ethics: perception and motivation, respectively. One can certainly ask if a percept is "right" (correct, true, veridical) or "wrong" (incorrect, false, illusory). But it makes little sense to ask if a motive is true or false. On the other hand, it is strange to ask whether a percept is morally good or evil, but one can certainly ask that question about motives. Therefore, your suggested answers (a)-(c) simply can't be considered: they assume you can judge the correctness of a moral judgment. Now the problem with (d) is that it is double-barrelled: I agree with the first part (that the "rightness" of a moral position is a meaningless question), for the reasons stated above. But that is irrelevant to the alleged implication (not an implication at all) that one cannot feel peace is better than war. I certainly can make value judgments (bad, better, best) without asserting the "correctness" of the position. Sorry for the lengthy dismissal of (a)-(d). My short (e) answer is that when two individuals grotesquely disagree on a moral issue, neither is right (correct) or wrong (incorrect). They simply hold different moral values (feelings).
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[cont. Dr. James DeYoung; #3] R. Scroggs Robin Scroggs has built upon the discussion of his predecessors and suggested a new twist to the word. Scroggs believes that arsenokoitai is a "Hellenistic Jewish coinage, perhaps influenced by awareness of rabbinic terminology." The term is derived from Lev 18"22 & 20:13 where the LXX juxtaposes the two words arsenos ("male") and koiten ("bed"), and represents the Hebrew miskab zabar ("lying with a male"). Yet he believes that Paul did not originate the term, but borrowed it from "circles of Hellenistic Jews acquainted with rabbinic discussions" (180 n.14). It was invented to avoid "contact with the usual Greek terminology" (108). If this is true, Scroggs observes, it explains why the word does not appear in Greco-Roman discussions of pederasty and why later patristic writers avoided it. It was meaningless to native-speaking Greeks (108). Scroggs takes the second part as the active word and the first word as the object of the second part, thus differing from Boswell's "learned discussion" (107). Yet Scroggs understands the general meaning of "one who lies with a male" to have a very narrow reference. With the preceding malokoi (I Cor 6:9), which Scroggs interprets as "the effeminate call-boy," arsenokoitai is the active partner "who keeps the malakos of the 'mistress' or who hires him on occasion to satisfy his sexual desires" (108). Hence arsenokoitai does not refer to homosexuality in general, to female homosexuality, or to the generic model of pederasty. It certainly cannot refer to the modern gay model, he affirms (109). This is Scrogg's interpretation of the term in I Tim 1:10 also. The combination of pornoi ("fornicators"), arsenokoitai and andrapodistai ("slave dealers") refers to "male prostitutes, males who lie [with them], and slave dealers [who procure them]" (120). It again refers to that specific form of pederasty "which consisted of the enslaving of boys as youths for sexual purposes, and the use of these boys by adult males" (121). Even "serious minded pagan authors" condemned this form of pederasty. He then uses these instances of arsenokoitai in I Cor and I Tim to interpret the apparently general condemnation of both female and male homosexuality in Rom 1. Consequently Paul "Must have had, could only have had pederasty in mind" (122). We cannot know what Paul would have said about the "contemporary model of adult/adult mutuality in same sex relation ships" (122). In relating these terms to the context and to contemporary ethical concerns, Scroggs emphasizes the point that the specific items in the list of vices in I Cor 6 have no deliberate, intended meaning in Paul. The form and function of the catalogue of vices are traditional and stereotyped. Any relationship between an individual item in the list and the context was usually nonexistent. He concludes that Paul "does not care about any specific item in the lists" (104). Both on the basis of the meaning of the terms and of the literary phenomenon of a "catalogue of vices," Scroggs argues that the Scriptures are "irrelevant and provide no help in the heated debate today" (129). The "model in today's Christian homosexual community is so different from the model attacked by the NT" that "Biblical judgments against homosexuality are not relevant to today's debate. They should no longer be used in denominational discussions about homosexuality, should in no way be a weapon to justify refusal of ordination. . . " (127). REACTIONS TO THE NEW INTERPRETATIONS OF ARSENOKOITAI D. Wright In more recent years the positions of Bailey, Boswell, and Scroggs have come under closer scrutiny. Perhaps the most critical evaluation of Boswell's view is that by David Wright. In his thorough article, Wright points out several shortcomings of Boswell's treatment of arsenokoitai. He faults Boswell for failing to cite, or citing inaccurately, all the references to Lev 18:22 and 20:13 in the church fathers, such as Eusebius, the "Apostolic Constitutions," Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian and Origen (127-28). Boswell has not considered seriously enough the possibility that the term derives either its form or its meaning from the Leviticus passages (129). This is significant, for if the term is so derived, it clearly refutes Boswell's claim that the first half of the word (arseno-) denotes not the object but the gender of the second half (-koitai). The LXX must mean "a male who sleeps with a male," making arseno- the object. Wright also faults Boswell's claims regarding linguistic features of the term, including suggested parallels (129). Though Boswell claims that compounds with arseno- employ it objectively and those with arreno- employ it as an adjective, Wright believes that the difference between the two is merely one of dialectical diversity: "No semantic import attaches to the difference between the two forms" (131). Wright believes that in most compounds in which the second half is a verb or has a verbal force, the first half denotes its object and where "the second part is substantival, the first half denotes its gender" (132). It is with Boswell's treatment of the early church fathers that Wright takes special issue, because the former has failed to cite all the sources. For example, Aristides' Apology (c. AD 138) probably uses arrenomaneis, androbaten, and arsenokoitias all with the same basic meaning of male homosexuality (133), contrary to Boswell's discussion. Boswell fails to cite Hippolytus (Refut. Omn. Haer. 5:26:22-23) and improperly cites Eusebius and the Syriac writer Bardensanes. The latter uses Syriac terms that are identical to the Syriac of I Cor 6:9 and I Tim 1:10 (133-34). Next Wright shows how the early church fathers use arsenokoitai in parallel with paidophthoria referring to male homosexuality with teenagers, the dominant form of male homosexuality among the Greeks (134). Sometimes this parallelism occurs in the threefold listings of moicheia ("adultery"), porneia ("fornication"), and paidophthoria, with arsenokoitai replacing paidophthoris (136). Clement of Alexandria in Protr. 10:108:5 cites the second table of the Ten Commandments as "You shall not kill, ou moicheuseis ("you shall not commit adultery"), ou paidophthoreseis ("you shall not practice homosexuality with boys"), you shall not steal. . ." (150 n. 43). Another occurrence of arsenokoitein ("commit homosexuality") exists in the Sibylline Oracles 2:71-73. It may be, Wright observes, that the word was coined by a Jewish pre-Christian writer in a Hellenistic setting represented by Or.Sib., book 2 (137-38). Wright also discusses uses of arsenokoitai in Rhetorius (6th c.) who drew upon the first century AD writer Teucer, in Macarius (4th-5th c.), and in John the Faster (d. 595) (139-40). The last in particular bears the idea of homosexual intercourse, contrary to Boswell. Wright next replies to Boswell's contention that the term would not be absent "from so much literature about homosexuality if that is what it denoted (140-41). Wright points out that it should not be expected in writers prior to the first century AD since it did not exist before then, that the Greeks used dozens of words and phrases to refer to homosexuality, that some sources (e.g. Didache) show no acquaintance with Paul's letters or deliberately avoid citing Scripture, and that Boswell neglects citing several church fathers (140-41). Boswell's treatment of Chrysostom in particular draws Wright's attention (141-44). Boswell conspicuously misrepresents the witness of Chrysostom, omitting references and asserting what is patently untrue. Chrysostom gives a long uncompromising and clear indictment of homosexuality in his homily on Rom 1:26. Boswell has exaggerated Chrysostom's infrequent use of the term. Wright observes that Boswell has "signally failed to demonstrate any us of arsenokoites etc. in which it patently does not denote male homosexual activity" (144). It is infrequent because of its relatively technical nature and the availability of such a term as paidophthoria that more clearly specified the prevailing form of male homosexuality in the Greco-Roman world. Wright also surveys the Latin, Syriac, and Coptic translations of I Tim and I Cor. All three render arsenokoitai with words that reflect the meaning "homosexual" i.e., they understand arseno- as the object of the second half of the word (144-45). None of these primary versions supports Boswell's limited conclusion based on them. Wright concludes his discussion with a few observations about the catalogues of vices as a literary form. He believes that such lists developed in late Judaism as Hellenistic Jews wrote in clear condemnation of homosexuality in the Greek world. This paralleled the increased concern on the part of moral philosophers over homosexual indulgence. The term came into being under the influence of the LXX (145) so that writers spoke "generally of male activity with males rather than specifically categorized male sexual engagement with paides" (146). If arsenokoitai and paidophthoria were interchangeable, it is because the former encompassed the latter (146). In summary, Wright seeks to show that arsenokoitai is a broad term meaning homosexuality and arises with Judaism. The views of Boswell, Scroggs, and others who limit the term to "active male prostitutes" or pederasty are without significant support from linguistic and historical studies.
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If you want parallels the best source is probably the book _Temple and Cosmos_ by Hugh Nibley. It is not light reading however. As to why these early practices "only parallel" and do not exactly duplicate the modern LDS ceremony, there are a couple of reasons: 1. Quite likely we do not have the exact original from ancient times. This stuff was not commonly known but bits and pieces undoubtedly spread. (Much as bits and pieces of the modern ceremony get known.) What we have in the 40 day literature, the Egyptian ceremonies, and certain Native American ceremonies is almost certainly not exactly what Jesus taught.
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The tongue that brings healing is a tree of life, but a deceitful tongue crushes the spirit.
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: Very true (length of time for discussions on creationism vs evolutionism). : Atheists and Christians have been debating since ?? and still debate with : unabated passion 8-). Mike, I've seen referrences to "Creation vs Evolution" several times in a.a and I have question. Is either point of view derived from direct observation; can either be scientific? I wonder if the whole controversy is more concerned with the consequences of the "Truth" rather than the truth itself. Both sides seem to hold to a philosophical outcome, and I can't help wondering which came first. As I've pointed out elsewhere, my view of human nature makes me believe that there is no way of knowing anyhthing objectively - all knowledge is inherently subjective. So, in the context of a.a, would you take a stand based on what you actually know to be true or on what you want to be true and how can you tell the difference?
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I agree with your points, and I'm glad to hear that you subscribe to the notion of secular humanism, humans helping humans instead of hoping for a possible deux ex machina solution! As for faith, you could always use such constructs to dampen your anger or sorrow. Cheers, Kent
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: > : Precisely my position. : As a newbie, I tried the point-by-point approach to debate with : these types. It wasted both my time and my lifespan. Ignoring : them is not an option, since they don't go away, and doing so : would leave one with large stretches of complete anonymity in this : group. Bob, I've posted here long enough to see your name a few times, but I can't recall any point by point approach to anything you've contributed. But I'm old (probably senile) and I may have just forgotten, if you could post an example of your invincible logic, it might jog my memory.
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I have already made the clear claim that Don't mind my saying this but the best example of obfuscation is to condemn without having even your most basic facts straight. If you want some examples, go back and look at your previous posts, where you manage to get your facts wrong about the fatwa and Khomeini's supposed infallibility.
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You should remember that in Adam's transgression, all men and women sinned, as Paul wrote. All of humanity cooperativley reblled against God in Adma's sin, thus, all are subject to it, and the sin is transmitted from generation to generation.
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[does he believe in predestination] really? you may be right, but i'd like proof. as far as i know (and i am not a div school student!) the catholic church does not seem to accept predestination. my chaplain told me "beware of greeks bearing gifts" with reference to this doctrine: it seems to have the curious result that human beings are not held responsible for their own actions! i'll answer how you deal with this in a minute. right. that doesn't really seem like predestination to me, but i'll continue with what you're saying.... this is really confusing to me, especially since i still believe that christ jesus died for ALL of us. preknowledge of obstinacy seems like an awfully convoluted way to account for a couple of verses. but then, i am not really biblically supported in this opinion -- or am i? others? so God uses grace like margarine: he only spreads it where it's needed and not where it isn't? and so there are the saved and the not-saved, and nothing in between. hmmmm. although i realize this doctrine was not originally intended to cause social problems, it ends up doing just that -- if there is supposed to be some sort of "sign" that someone is elect, like lots of children or success at work, then those who have a good life on earth will go around thinking that those who don't are doomed to hell. in a way, though, this sounds like the opposite idea -- those doomed to hell will have a great life on earth. that's almost like the converse of what i believe -- responsibility for what we do now will be punished after we die. you're saying what we get after we die has a direct bearing on how we live now? strange.... so sin is either punished now or later -- and not both? what if it's sort of half-punished? are there any grey areas in this doctrine? [my stuff deleted] >We should stop the slaughter of the innocent (cf Proverbs 24.11-12), but >does that mean that Christians should support a war in Bosnia with the >U.S. or even the U.N. involved? I do not think so, but I am an >isolationist, and disagree with foreign adventures in general. But in >the case of Bosnia, I frankly see no excuse for us getting militarily >involved, it would not be a "just war." "Blessed" after all, "are the >peacemakers" was what Our Lord said, not the interventionists. Our >actions in Bosnia must be for peace, and not for a war which is >unrelated to anything to justify it for us. the idea (well, my idea) would be that you would intervene to establish peace and stop the atrocities. i'm not suggesting wwIII. i don't really understand what you mean by a "just war". of course i am not an isolationist, although i see some merit in not jumping in at the first opportunity (can you say kuwait?). we happen to be a big country with a lot of resources (as well as a lot of debt), and this gives us some responsibility in the world, whether we like it or not. flashbacks of wwII, as well as vietnam, should be haunting us. yet another difference of opinion. so be it. >Andy Byler thank you for answering; i hope you don't take any of my comments as flames, but instead as expressions of interest.
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That was my point. If I play poker with Monopoly money I can bet anything I want. This is exactly why Christianity is missionary in nature, not just out of a need to irritate. 8-) To the people who wrote the Bible and to whom the Bible is written, there is evidence of love, but that is a cultural bias. This is a poor answer which you needn't rebut. I will now pull the old bait and switch. I think you should use the Bible to judge man, not God. By that I mean, if your moral intuition doesn't like what is described in the Bible, realize that such things are going on now. I will avoid the semantic arguments about the cause of evil and ask what are you doing to fight it? Not you specifically, but everyone, including myself. If I don't like the genocide in the Bible, what about the genocide that goes on right now? To move beyond the question of a hell, realize that many people right now are suffering. If you think hell isn't fair and are willing to sacrifice everything just to deny its existence, what about how life isn't fair? Right now there is a young mother with three little kids who doesn't know how she will get through the day. Right now there is a sixth grader who is a junkie. Right now there is an old man with no friends and no money to fix his TV. Instead of why doesn't God help them ask why don't we help them. I think you are correct to challenge any Christian who doesn't live his life with the compassion you seem to possess. You want evidence of God. Find someone who is making a difference, someone you admire, someone who has been through some tough times and has come out with his head up. Ask the person how he does it. Ask the Vietnam vet who was battle medic how he kept his mind. Ask the woman who was pregnant at 15, kept the baby and now is a successful business woman. Ask the doctor who has operated on a 1-1/2 pound baby. They won't all be Christians, or even what you might call religious, but there will be something in common. God is not defined in the Bible, God is defined by what is in those people's hearts. It doesn't matter if you can't give intellectual assent to any description you've heard, they're all wrong anyway. The compassion you already feel in your heart is a step in the right direction. Follow that instead. Then come back and read the Bible and you'll see that same thing described there. Good, I guess we only have to work on your grammar. 8-)
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This is not correct. The event horizon is not the "center" of the black hole but merely the distance at which the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light. That is, the event horizon is a finite radius...
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Looking at your discussion I would say that you both operate from your own reference frame. There's no inside and no outside, there are just two polarized views. As for statements inside the Bible, things are still not that clear, we don't have any indications for instance why Jobs was placed in the Old Testament, one of the few books that actually talks about Satan. Jobs is very much out of line with the rest of the OT books, and there's a chance that someone added this book later into the group of OT scriptures. This operates the other way around as well. You have to understand the mind of an atheist, agnostic, or as in my case, a radical relativist. If you don't understand the underlying concepts, it is pretty hard to continue with a dialogue. I'm not a perfect Christian, however about 20+ years of Christian teaching should have provided me with a pretty good picture of the Christian mind frame. Cheers, Kent
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My wifes uncle was a 30+ level mason. He let me look at some of the books (which after his death his "brothers" came over and took from his greiving widow before his body had even cooled). Don't tell me you don't worship Osiris. You must not be past your 20th level. You should read Wilkinson's Egyptians and how he shows this Egyptian religion paralleling his own British Masonry. There is a man here at this laboratory who is a 33 degree black mason. I've talked with him, though much he likes to hide ("mystery"). Special handshakes and all. When he first started trying to "evangelize" me, he told me all kinds on special this, and special that. Here is truely a "mystery" religion. THere is the public side with motorcyle mania and childrens hospitals and then there is the priviate side that only the highest degree mason every learns of. I haven't read it, but the literature that is offered by the silver haired apologist (can't remember his name) on TV, didn't exactly come to this same conclusion. "Khons, the son of the great goddess-mother, seems to have been gernaerally represented as a full-grown god. The Babylonian divinity was also represented very frequently in Egupt in the very same wayas in the land of his nativity -i.e. as a child in his mother's arems. THis was the way in which Osiris, 'the son, the husband of his mother,' was often exhibited, and what we learn of this god, equally as in the case of Khonso, shows that in his original he was none other than Nimrod. It is admitted that the secret system of Free Masonry was originally founded on the Mysteries of the Egyptian Isis, the goddess-mother, or wife of Osiris. But what could have led to the union of a Masonic body with these Mysteries, had they not had particular reference to architecture, and had the god who was worshipped in them not been celebrated for his success in perfecting the arts of fortification and building? Now, if such were the case, considering the relation in which, as we have already seen, Egypt stood to Babylon, who would naturally be liiked up to there as the great patron of the Masonic art? The strong presumption is, that Nimrod must have been the man. He was the first that gained faim in this way. As the child of the Babylonian goddess-mother, he was worshipped in the character of Ala mahozim, 'The God of Fortification.' Osiris, the child of the Egyptian Modonna, was equally celebrated as 'the strong chief of the buildings.' THis strong chief of the buildings was origninally worshipped in Egypt with every physicall characteristic of Nimrod. I have already noticed the fact that Nimrod, as the son of Cush, was a negro. Now, there was a tradition in Egypt, recorded by Plutarch, that 'Osiris was black'......." Hislop It was like a cold slap to my face, when my wifes uncle brought out his cerimonial dress and it was leopard skin. I mean real leopard skin. He told me that only the highest of degrees wore the leopard skin. (The reason that he started telling me all this was that he had just been given a couple of months to live and my wife had led him to a saving faith in Christ and he immediately repented from 'mysteries' of the lodge!) Nimr-rod from Nimr, a "leopard," and rada or rad "To subdue." It is a universal principle in all idolatries, that the high priest wears the insignia of the god he serves. Any representation of Osiris usually show the wearing of some leopard. It is interesting that the Druids of Britian also show, or should I say hide, this representation. They, however, worshipped the "spotted cow". I'll stand by my statements. Masonry is of the "mystery" religions that all find their source in Babylon, the great harlot. Sorry Peter, I do not mean to be a "cold slap to the face" but there is to much evidence to the contrary that Masonry doesn't find its origins in Egypt. Of the Masons I have personally talked to, all refered to Egypt as their origin. Why are you now separating yourself from this which not many years ago, was freely admitted?
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I read somewhere that Kurt Goedel argued that the ontological argument for God's existence was logically reasonable (or something to that effect). Does anyone know if this is true, and have a citation? Thanks.
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What is fornication? (sex outside of marriage, abuse of sex) Is not homosexual intercourse outside the context of marriage? Isn't it an unatural use of what God has given us? Why is it that homosexuals are using the Grace of God as a license to practice sin? For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ. Jude 4 (NASB) What is defined by God as a legitimate marriage? For this cause a man shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and the shall become one flesh. Gen 2:24 (NASB) And He answer and said, "Have you not read, that He who created them from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, 'FOR THIS CAUSE A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER, AND CLEAVE TO HIS WIFE; AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? Consequently they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." Matt 19:4-6 (NASB) But because of immoralities, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. Let the husband fulfill his duty to his wife, and likewise also the wife to her husband. 1 Corinthians 7:4,5 (NASB) I disagree... Every law that is written in Leviticus should be looked at as sin. That is why we have a need for a savior. I can understand someone who may not know a particular sin listed in the Levitcal law, but I would hope that they would repent when confronted with it. Also I noticed that the preceeding verses say. Also you shall not approach a woman to uncover her nakedness during her menstrual impurity. And you shall not have intercourse with your neighbors wife, to be defiled with her. Leviticus 18:19, 20 (NASB) These verses are just as relevant as: You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female; it is an abomination. Leviticus 18:22 (NASB) Why was God telling the Israelites not to practice such things? Do not defile yourselves by any of these things; for by all these the nations which I am casting out before you have become defiled. For the land has become defiled, therefore I have visited its punishment upon it, so the land has spewed out its inhabitants. But as for you, you are to keep My statutes and Judgments, and shall not do any of these abominations, neither the native, nor the alien who sojourns among you Leviticus 18:24-26 (NASB) He is the Lord... Listen to what he has to say... Nobody wants to dismiss homosexuals. We do love you, but we don't agree that what you practice is not sin. You have not truly repented of your sin. We hate the sin that is within your lives. I hate sin that is in my life. All Christians should hate the sin that is within their own lives. Confrontaion with sin should bring about repentance. Yes I agree with John 3:17, but I also know that Jesus said, "Repent for the kingdom of heaven is at hand" Matt 3:17. If you don't agree that homosexuality is sin than how can you repent from it? This means that you remain in bondage to it. Repent from it and God will set you free. In His Love, Mike ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- Michael Christensen | Trust the Lord with all your heart, Senior Product Support Engineer | And do not lean on your own Procom Technology, Inc. | understanding. Proverbs 3:5 (NASB)
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(Deletion) The reference to it's not yet being ethics is dubious. You have used the terms absolute, objective and others interchangeably. Same with moral values, values, at all, worth, measuers, and usefulness. You infer from them as if they were the same. To the IF. When the If is not fulfilled, your intermission is a waste of time. Assuming that you don't intend this, it is reasonable to conclude that you want to argue a point. You have made a interesting statement here, namely that of the disinterested observer. There is no such thing in morals. Probably the shortest proof for objective and morality being a contradiction. Fine. And that freedom is valuable is not generally agreed upon. I could name quite a lot of people who state the opposite. (Not that that wasn't mentioned before). In other words, you have nothing to fulfill your strong claims with. Clutching a straw. I don't believe in mappings into metaphysical sets were loaded terms are fixpoints. Those who deny the morality of freedom make quite clear what they say, their practice is telling. Yes, there are even those who are willingly unfree. It is quite common in religions, by the way. For one, there is a religion which is named Submission. Don't even try to argue that submission is freedom. If it were so, it would argue my case. But I am afraid that that is considered proof.
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The killing of the ATF agents is a separate issue. My point is that many children died because of Koresh defending himself. Did he have what you call the "moral right" to keep those children in a dangerous enviroment in order to defend himself?
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Vell, this is perfectly normal behaviour Vor a Vogon, you know?
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John E. King ([email protected]) posts a whopping one liner: * "The modern theory of evolution is so inadequate that it deserves to be * * treated as a matter of faith." -- Francis Hitching * I have a few points to make about the above posting. 1. Science is not based on and does not consist of "quotes" from either real or alleged experts. Critical reasoning, evidence and (if possible) experimentation are necessary. Creationists frequently display a massive confusion about this by merely quoting both non-experts and experts alike (some of the latter quotes are in fact false) and steadfastly refusing to follow any kind of rigorous scientific procedure. This strongly suggests that (a.) their claims completely lack any scientific merit and (b.) they are aware of this fatal deficiency. Of course, you may not actually be a creationist and this may not be your real intent. 2. You have failed to identify Hitching and the surrounding context of his statement. Why is that? If Hitching is a scientific illiterate then the quote would merely display his profound ignorance of evolutionary biology. Creationists are frequently known to quote real scientists out of context and to fabricate statements that they subsequently attribute to legitimate scientists. Of course, you may not actually be a creationist and this may not be your real intent. 3. Evidence supporting the alleged inadequacies of "the modern theory of evolution" would be a much more powerful argument than a contextless one line quote from an unidentified nobody. It is also important to note that disproving biological evolution does not automatically prove some alternate claims any more that disproving that the earth is shaped like a hockey puck proves that it is a hyperbolic paraboloid. Creationists seem rather fond of diving (head first) into this logical fallacy. Of course, you may not actually be a creationist and this may not be your real intent. 4. Since evolution is central to virtually all of modern science, an attack on evolution (either the fact or the theory) really represents an attack on science. While the theory will unquestionably continue to evolve (B^) the fact of evolution will not ever go away. Creationists lost the battle long ago (more than 100 years in fact) but are simply too willfully ignorant and irrational to acknowledge the fact. Of course, you may not actually be a creationist and you may not really be that ignorant. Warren Kurt vonRoeschlaub ([email protected]) asks: * Neither I, nor Webster's has ever heard of Francis Hitchings. Who is he? * I, like Hitchings, am not to be found in Webster's B^). Francis Hitchings is a scientifically illiterate creationist (or perhaps he is just playing the part of one) who wrote a quite ignorant book attacking evolution ("The Neck of the Giraffe"). In that publication he quotes a creationist (Jean Sloat Morton) using the standard invalid creationist probability argument that proteins could not have formed by chance. Thus not only confusing abiogenesis with evolution (the two are quite independent) but also concluding with a "non sequitur" (i.e. the conclusion "does not follow"). [pp 70-71] Hitchings also misquotes Richard Lewontin in an effort to support creationism. [pp 84] Hitchings book was reviewed by National Park Service ecologist David Graber in the Los Angeles Times (and repeated in the Oregonian). The article was titled "`Giraffe' sticks scientific neck out too far". Excerpts include : "Francis Hitchings is not a biologist." "He goes after Darwin like Mark Antony after Brutus. He flips from scientific reasoning to mysticism and pseudo-science with the sinuosity of a snake-oil salesman." "He suggests a mystical `organizing principle' of life, using the similarity of organs in different creatures as evidence [sic]." Note that the last statement above is actually evidence FOR evolution not against it. If John E. King is quoting from this reviewed book it wouldn't surprise me much. It's also interesting that King had nothing to add (i.e. he only posted a quote).
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Brian Kendig also declares: "Christ" is Greek for "Messiah". "Messiah" means "Annointed One". "Annoint" means "to rub with oil, i.e. to anoint; by impl. to consecrate" The major prophet Daniel uses the word "Messiah" in Daniel chapter 9.
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Hmm. The police strategy of bursting in with weapons drawn, clearly marked as officers and yelling "Police" repeatedly. This is used every day to bust drug houses. The idea is to awe the suspects into submission with surprise and display of firepowere in order to avoid a gun fight. As for not knocking, it's a sad necessity in many cases since the suspects will attempt to escape or even fight. Usually this strategy works; if it didn't, then it wouldn't be used so commonly, now would it? Whether or not it was appropriate to use this strategy on the BD is not my point, since I don't think any of us have enough information to make a clear judgement on this issue. I merely point out that it IS a valid strategy which is used every day. Furthermore, we don't know of any substitute strategy capable of apprehending potentially dangerous and armed suspects. Do you suggest that the police always knock with guns holstered and never arrest any suspects until they have been allowed to inspect the officers's badges? Just what should the police do when apprehending potentially dangerous and armed suspects? How far can they reasonably go to identiy themselves? What do you suggest they can do which can't be faked by the "competition"? Even if you've got deadly enemies who may pretend to be cops, that's not an excuse to murder police. In the case of the BD's, there was almost definitely at most the paranoid delusion of deadly enimies who would pretend to be cops.
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This is hell. Hasn't anyone noticed?
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Well lets see - a long haired nut case with sexual hangups surrounded by a lot of gulible losers without a brain between them with a miserable and meaningless death to boot Sounds like he fits the bill to me! Joseph 'Remember David Koresh fried for you' Askew
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Can a theist be truly objective? Can he be impartial when questioning the truth of his scriptures, or will he assume the superstition of his parents when questioning? I've often found it to be the case that the theist will stick to some kind of superstition when wondering about God and his scriptures. I've seen it in the Christian, the Jew, the Muslim, and the other theists alike. All assume that their mothers and fathers were right in the aspect that a god exists, and with that belief search for their god. Occasionally, the theist may switch religions or aspects of the same religion, but overall the majority keep to the belief that some "Creator" was behind the universe's existence. I've known Muslims who were once Christians and vice versa, I've known Christians who were once Jewish and vice versa, and I've even known Christians who become Hindu. Yet, throughout their transition from one faith to another, they've kept this belief in some form of higher "being." Why? It usually all has to do with how the child is brought up. From the time he is born, the theist is brought up with the notion of the "truth" of some kind of scripture-- the Bible, the Torah, the Qur'an, & etc. He is told of this wondrous God who wrote (or inspired) the scripture, of the prophets talked about in the scripture, of the miracles performed, & etc. He is also told that to question this (as children are apt to do) is a sin, a crime against God, and to lose belief in the scrip- ture's truth is to damn one's soul to Hell. Thus, by the time he is able to read the scripture for himself, the belief in its "truth" is so ingrained in his mind it all seems a matter of course. But it doesn't stop there. Once the child is able to read for himself, there is an endeavor to inculcate the child the "right" readings of scripture, to concentrate more on the pleasant readings, to gloss over the worse ones, and to explain away the unexplainable with "mystery." Circular arguments, "self-evdent" facts and "truths," unreasoning belief, and fear of hell is the meat of religion the child must eat of every day. To doubt, of course, means wrath of some sort, and the child must learn to put away his brain when the matter concerns God. All of this has some considerable effect on the child, so that when he becomes an adult, the superstitions he's been taught are nearly impossible to remove. All of this leads me to ask whether the theist can truly be objective when questioning God, Hell, Heaven, the angels, souls, and all of the rest. Can he, for a moment, put aside this notion that God *does* exist and look at everything from a unbiased point of view? Obviously, most theists can somewhat, especially when presented with "mythical gods" (Homeric, Roman, Egyptian, & etc.). But can they put aside the assumption of God's existence and question it impartially? Stephen _/_/_/_/ _/_/_/_/ _/ _/ * Atheist _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ * Libertarian _/_/_/_/ _/_/_/_/ _/ _/ _/ * Pro-individuality _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ * Pro-responsibility _/_/_/_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Jr. * and all that jazz...
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Fred Gilham asks (May 11) whether it is true that Kurt Goedel wrote a version of the ontological argument for the existence of God. Yes, he did. He did not publish it, but it will be published by the Oxford University Press in German and with English translation in Volume 3, due to appear this fall, of his Collected Works. Meanwhile, you can find a summary, or perhaps the whole thing, in an article by Jordan Howard Sobel called "Goedel's ontological proof" in the book ON BEING AND SAYING, edited by Judith Jarvis Thompson (sp?), published by the MIT Press in 1987. Professor C Anthony Anderson of the Philosophy Department of the University of Minnesota has written an article, "Some Emendations of Goedel's Ontological Proof," which appeared in the magazine FAITH AND PHILOSOPHY, v. 7 (1990): 291-303. It discusses some objections that various critics have raised against Goedel's proof, and offers a revised version of the proof that is not vulnerable to these objections.
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Yes, one does. I examined a critique of the Book of Romans by I think, Benjamin Franklin once, a Deist. I found it amazing that Benjamin Franklin missed the whole boat. I also have the writings on Thomas Jefferson sitting on my shelf, and it is amazing how much he missed. I have studied Plato's Theory of Forms and Aristotelian Hylomorphesism. What a pile of junk. Jesus makes Plato and Aristotle look like kindergardeners. Psychology, the id, ego, superego by Freud? Elements of truth, but Jesus explained it far better and gave reasons. Thomas Paine, Benjamin Franklin, Thomas Jefferson are mere men. They can screw up the Bible just as well as any man. I do not put these men on a pedestal. And if I remember T.J.'s autobiography correctly, he thought Thomas Paine was the most unread man he ever met. Here's some more circular reasoning to you. Paul says to the Corinthians that "that the gospel will be foolishness to the world, because it is spiritually discerned." And so, people without the spirit of God haven't a clue to what the Bible is saying. From your point of view, that's incredibly circular and convenient. To me, it is mysteriously and supernaturally bizarre. I can see it, but you can't. This is not arrogance on my part. Trust me. It is as bizarre to you as it is to me. But nonetheless, it is a truth, explainable or not. Are any of you color blind to red and green? I am. Remember those dot tests they do at the optomologist's? They put pictures in front of you and you are supposed to identify the pattern in the dots? If your eyes are perfectly normal, you can see letters or numerals embedded in the dots. They are a slightly different color and stand out from the background. But if you are color blind to red and green, you will not see anything but gray-shaded dots. That is how a dot test appears to me. I do not see a pattern at all. A normal seeing person will see the patterns. And to him, I seem like a total anomaly. To him, I appear as if I am missing the universe or something. It is hard for him to understand why I can't see anything that to him is as plain as day. That it what it is like with the Bible, the Word of God, to the believer. The believer can see the meaning in the words. I can see how the patterns fit together. There is such depth. Such consistency. But then, on the other hand, I notice the non-believer. He doesn't see it. He thinks I am weird because he thinks I am seeing things. I look at him, and say, "No, you are weird. You do not see." Then it is time for a sanity check. I go to another Christian and say, "Do you see this." And they go, "Yes. It is an "X"". And I say, "Thank God, I see the "X" too." It is truly the strangest thing. It adds a little extra dimension to the phrase, "He will make the blind see, and the deaf hear."
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Translation of the above paragraph: "I am uninformed about the evidence for evolution. Please send me the talk.origins FAQs on the subject."
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Aside to the moderator: I won't quote any of it, but there are several errors in the article. Not things that are just differences of opinion, but the writer just plain has his facts confused. For example, Kip McKean was *asked* to come to the Lexington church by the leaders there. He brought no team. He actually had been in Charleston, IL up to that point. He had many friends, even leaders in Gainesville, telling him not to go, because people in the Northeast weren't "open" and he'd be wasting his time and talents. Really!! (This fact was a kind of "inside joke" at one point after the church in Boston took off so well... Not open, indeed!) ;-) I could take it on point by point, but I am not in a position to know one way or the other about some things in the article. I just wanted to point out that it contains misinformation. Mark
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[ Deletia; in case anybody hadn't noticed, Frank and I are debating "objective morality", and seemingly hitting semantics. ] It may be that, being a non-native English-speaker, I've misunderstood your usage of "objective", and tried to debate something you don't assert; my apologies. I'm at a loss to imagine what you really do mean, though. Wrong point. The age of the universe has no direct effect on humanity's sticking power, in the way the moral system of a society can have. I'm saying the Universe has a "real age", because I see evidence for it; cosmology, astronomy and so on. I say this age is independent of people's opinions of it, because I know different people have a lot of different opinions in the matter, yet empirical tests consistently seem to give roughly the same results. I can't see how it does that. Put a creationist to the task of performing the tests and calculations, see to it (s)he makes no blatant errors in measuring or calculating, and the result of the test will be the same. Because logically consistent empirical tests contradict their opinion. If those tests were just my opinion, then their own tests (which would then be their opinion) would contradict mine, even if we conducted said tests in identical manner, no? They don't, which I take as showing these tests have some validity beyond our opinion of them. Map the activity of nerves and neural activity, if you mean physical pain. You have a sharp point, I'll give you that; but you still haven't given me a way to quantify morality. We agree. Hypotheses, however, can change; I hold that there is no "ultimate hypothesis of morality" towards which these changes could gravitate, but that they could be changed in any way imaginable, producing different results suitable for different tasks or purposes. "Better" and "worse" are (almost?) always defined in the context of a moral system. Your prediction will _always_ be correct, *within* *that* *moral* *system*. What you need now is an objective definition of "good" and "bad"; I wish you luck. Isn't that what _you're_ doing, when assuming an "objectively real" morality? Besides, what _exactly_ is provably wrong with my statement? Claiming there is no objective morality is suddenly a positive claim? Besides, I think I _can_ lend some credence to my claim; ponder different individuals, both fully functional as human beings and members of society, but yet with wildly different moral codes. If morality was "objective", at least one should be way off base, but yet hir 'incorrect' morality seems to function fine. How come? As for producing these individuals, it might be easiest to pick them from different societies; say, an islamic one and some polynesian matrilineal system, for example (if such still exist). [ deletia - testing for footballs on desks ] One thing is "good" under some circumstances, because we wish to achieve some goal, for some reason. Other times we wish to do something else, and that thing is no longer so clearly "good" at all. Some things are hard to make "good", because we'd seldom if ever wish to achieve the sort of goal mass murder would lead one into. Still, the Aztecs were doing fine until the Spaniards wiped them out. I almost always know what "good" means; sometimes I even know why. I never claim this "good" is thereby fixed in stone, immutable. [...] Yes, me too, and I've tried a thing or two down that line; it doesn't look good for objective values to me at all.
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You mean Bobby Mozumder is a myth? We wondered about that. You mean Bobby Mozumder didn't really post here? We wondered about that, too. So, Mr Conner. Is Bobby Mozumder a myth, a performing artist, a real Moslem. a crackpot, a provocateur? You know everything and read all minds: why don't you tell us?
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"I'm afraid I'm going to have to kill you. Don't worry, though; as a Loving Christian, I guarantee that I will regret the fact that I have to kill you, although I won't regret the actual killing." False dichotomy. That's because they weren't even attempted. You want to know why it bothers me that thousands of innocent people were maimed or killed by bombing at the end of WW2, when it was far from clear that such bombing was necessary? And why-is-it-that-way? Who set things up to be that way? No, just the ones that have oil. Or the ones that look like they might make a success of Communism. I don't see that getting UN forces to East Timor is any harder than getting them to Iraq. Fine. Write to your Congressman and to President Clinton. China's status as "Most Favoured Nation" comes up for renewal in June. Point out that the US shouldn't be offering favourable trading terms to such a despicable regime. I doubt anything will happen. Clinton's keener on trade sanctions against Europe. [ Unbelievable comments about the Rodney King case deleted ] Any idea how many kill files you just ended up in? The ends justify the means, eh? The same tired old misunderstanding. Moral relativism means that there is no *objective* standard of morality. It doesn't mean you can't judge other people's morals. Christ on a bike, how many times have we tried to hammer that into your head? Obviously not, as I am an atheist. I don't think you'd get on with Jesus, though; he was a long-haired lunatic peace-nik, was he not? Right. Unfortunately for you, it turned out that my opinions on the matter were entirely consistent in that I condemned the bombing of Dresden too. I think you're being a bit glib with your explanation of the blanket bombing policy, too. You make it sound as though we were aiming for military targets and could only get them by destroying civilian buildings next door. As I understand it, that is not the case; we aimed deliberately at civilian targets in order to cause massive damage and inspire terror amongst the German people. Oh, come on. With wars like the Falklands fresh in people's minds, that sort of propaganda isn't going to fool anyone. Yes? And what about the millions of casualties the Russians suffered? It's hardly surprising the US didn't lose many men in WW2, given that you turned up late.
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I wouldn't and don't. I thought I did a pretty good job of qualifying my statement, but apparently some people misinterpreted my intentions. I apologize for my part in communicating any confusion. My intent was more to stir up discussion rather than judge. It seems to have worked. [rest of post noted - by the way, I did not originally post this to alt.atheism. If it got there, I don't know how it did.]
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Ken, Then what happens when you die? Why are you here? What is the purpose of Your life, do you think it's just by chance you're in the family you are in and have the friends you have? Why do you think your searching? To fill the void that exists in your life. Who do you think can fill that void
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(This is a continuation of an earlier post) (I am sorry you found this offensive. It was not my intent to offend. I was leading up to another point, which I discuss in more detail below.) I can see you have a revulsion for bestiality that far exceeds my distaste for homosexuality. Certainly if I spoke about homosexuality the way you speak of bestiality, nobody would have any trouble labelling me a homophobe. Let me ask this gently: why are you so judgemental of other people's sexual preferences? What happened to "No doubt I am free to do anything"? I think you have a serious double standard here. When you describe a comparison between homosexuality and bestiality as "slimey" and "sleazy", you are making an implicit judgement that bestiality is perverted, sinful, disgusting, unnatural--in short, all the things that society once thought about homosexuality. Not all people share your view. You claim not to know any sincere zoophiles, but this does not mean that they do not exist. They even have their own newsgroup: alt.sex.bestiality. Are you going to accuse them all of being mere "jokers"? I notice you deleted the main point of my comment: the fact that the only Biblical condemnations of bestiality occur in connection with the Levitical prohibitions against homosexuality. While there are some New Testament passages that can arguably be taken as condemning homosexuality, there are none that condemn bestiality. One of your main points seems to be that Christian homosexuality is acceptable due to the lack of any "clear" New Testament statements against it; if this is a valid argument, then should not Christian zoophilia be made that much more acceptable by the fact that the New Testament makes no reference, clear or unclear, to the subject at all? I am quite serious here. If I am going to accept homosexuality as Biblically acceptable on the basis of your arguments, then I am going to be fair and apply the same standards to everyone else's declared sexual preferences as well. If the arguments you make for homosexuality can be applied to other sexual preferences as well, I'm going to apply them and see what comes up. I'm not trying to "torpedo a serious issue" by using what you label "a ridiculous joke". I posted a question about how we should interpret Biblical guidelines for Christian sexuality, and I don't think such a question is "irrelevant" in a group called "soc.religion.christian". The Bible discusses homosexuality and bestiality together in the same context, and therefore I feel I have a good precedent for doing the same. I don't know whether it makes any difference, but for the record, this is not a side issue for me. I believe loving one another includes not encouraging people to defile themselves, therefore it is of high importance to determine whether God regards certain sexual acts as defiling. I can read in the New Testament that "God has joined together" heterosexual couples, and that the marriage bed is undefiled. I can read in the Old Testament that homosexual intercourse and bestiality defile a person whether or not that person is under the Law. If gay Christians can validly put aside the Old Testament standards of defilement, then I want to know so that I can fairly apply it to all the sexual practices that defiled a person in the old days. I don't think it's right to take just bits and pieces of the Law and try and apply them to Christians today, e.g. bestiality still defiles you but homosexuality doesn't. That was pretty much what you said earlier, right? You used different examples, but I think you said essentially the same thing about it being wrong to apply only certain parts of the Law to Christians. It was not my intent to stir up such an emotional reaction. I personally don't get all that upset discussing alternatives to the monogamous heterosexual orientation; I'm afraid I naively assumed that others would have a similar attitude. Please note that I have never intended to equate homosexuality with child abuse. I have merely noted that, for all the lack of "clear" NT condemnation of homosexuality, there is an even greater lack of NT condemnation (or even mention) of bestiality, a practice which a number of people (e.g. on alt.sex.bestiality) consider to be their true sexual orientation. This is an excellent question, and I pray that you will not treat it as a mere rhetorical question, but will genuinely seek to discover and understand the answer. I recommend you begin with a little introspection into why you yourself have much the same attitude towards zoophilia. Why do you find bestiality so repugnant that you regard it as slanderous to even mention in connection with other alternative sexual orientations? Why do you not apply all the same verses about love and tolerance to zoophiles the way you apply them to homosexuals? Is it because you automatically experience a subjective feeling of revulsion at the thought? A lot of people have the same experience at the thought of homosexual intercourse. Is it because you regard the practice as socially unacceptable? A lot of people regard homosexuality as socially unacceptable. Do you feel that it violates the traditional Judeo-Christian standard of sexual morality? Many people feel that homosexuality does. Do you feel the Bible condemns it? Many people think the Bible says more to condemn homosexuality than it does to condemn bestiality. Why then do you think comparing bestiality with homosexuality is insulting to homosexuality? If you can honestly answer this question, you will have come a long way towards understanding why many people feel the same way about homosexuality as you feel about bestiality. Also please note that I am not in any sense condemning *people*. I am merely pointing out that when I read the Bible I see certain sexual *practices* that the Bible appears to condemn, e.g. sex outside of marriage. When I say I think adultery and pre-marital sex are sinful, do you take that as me failing to love my neighbor? When you treat bestiality as something disgusting and unmentionable, are you disobeying "repeated orders not to judge or condemn others"? When you say other Christians are guilty of sinning by condemning you and judging you, are you by that accusation making yourself guilty of the same offense? Or are you and I both simply taking note about *practices* the Bible brands as sinful, and leaving the judgement of the *people* up to God? I'm not sure what you mean by the above two paragraphs. If you mean that Jesus is the Truth, and that He accepts sinners, and does not reject them, then I agree. If we were not sinners, then we would not *need* a Savior. Our salvation in Christ, however, does not mean that sin is now irrelevant for us, and we can now do whatever we want. Nor does Christ's grace mean that those who refer to sin as "sin" are being judgemental or intolerant. I am speaking in general terms here, not specifically about homosexuality. If the Bible calls something "sin", then it is not unreasonable for Christians to call it sin too. As applied to Christian homosexuality, I think the only definitive authority on Christian sexuality is the Bible. If you make a list of everything the Bible says on the subject of homosexual intercourse, I think you will find that every verse on the list is negative and condemning at worst, and "unclear" at best. The most pro-gay statement you could make about the list is that there is some dispute about the New Testament verses which many people interpret as condemning homosexual intercourse. That is, from a gay perspective, the most positive thing you can say about the Bible's treatment of homosexuality is that some verses fail to clearly condemn it. That's it. Jesus declared all foods clean, the council at Jerusalem declared that Gentiles were not required to keep the ritual Law, but nobody ever reclassified homosexual intercourse from being an abomination deserving of death to being an accepted Christian practice. You have verses describing homosexual intercourse as an abomination that defiles both Jews under the Law and Gentiles not under the Law, and you have some verses which are at best "not clear" but which some people believe *are* clear in their condemnation of homosexual behavior, and that's the sum total of what the Bible says about same-sex intercourse. I can appreciate (from personal experience) your desire to have everything simple, cut-and-dried, black-and-white, what-I-want- is-ok, and those-who-oppose-me-are-wicked. However, I do not think the Bible makes your case as definitively as you would like it to. In fact, I don't believe it says anything positive about your case at all. Yes, I know the verses about loving one another, and not judging one another, but that's not really the issue, is it? You know and admit that there are still things that are sinful for Christians to do, since you say it is wrong for Christians to condemn you. Therefore, the issue is whether the Bible says homosexual intercourse is a sin. Even if you do challenge the clarity of the New Testament verses, you are still left with the fact that the only thing the Bible does say clearly about homosexual intercourse is that it is an abomination that defiles both those who are under the law and those who are not. - Mark
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(I presume you are quoting John 3:3-7.) 1. My King James Bible says "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3:5). (Here "man" == "adult"). (However, this could be a quibble between translations.) 2. We can also analyze to whom the Lord is addressing: "Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again" (John 3:7). Here Jesus is clearly directing his remarks to Nicodemus -- a ruler of the Jews (not a child). 3. We can ask ourselves why the Lord would even introduce the concept of spiritual re-birth through baptism if newborn babies weren't free from sin? A IDLER
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Could the guy who wrote the article "Why I am not Bertrand Russell" resend me a copy?
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You just don't get it, do you? I think the discussion is more like this... Me: [ happily picking daisies by the side of the road ] BC: [ dancing on the double yellow broken line ] "Come on out and play on the highway!" Me: "Why?" BC: "The highway was put here for people to be on. We must work towards fulfilling its purpose." Me: "But --" BC: "Look, the highway has been here for several generations. Look, I have a story about how it was actually created by a divine being! And several people actually saw Elvis bless it!" Me: "But --" BC: "Look, are you going to come out here, or not?" Me: "But --" BC: "You probably think that picking daisies is fun. Well, you're wrong." Me: "Where in blazes did you get this silly idea that you're supposed to be playing on the highway? You'll get yourself killed!" BC: "Better to be killed on the highway than to live an empty life off of it. Besides, you're just asking pointless questions. You know you really want to be playing on the highway too; you're just denying it." Me: "If you want to get run over, then fine, but I'd much rather enjoy the daisies, if you please." BC: "Why do you shun me like this? The Creator of the Highway will flatten you with a steamroller if you don't see the light and come join me!" Me: "Well, if he's gonna be THAT way about it, maybe I want to get as far from the highway as I can..." BC: [ incoherent but quite familiar righteous sputtering ] Brian C., don't you see? I do not believe that your god is: (a) real, or even (b) beneficial. In fact, I believe your religion is imaginary and, carried to extremes, harmful. I would like to help you see its shortcomings, and perhaps someday finally become strong enough to see it for what it is: an elaborate lie, kept alive by the elite priesthood to keep the masses properly submissive to their influences. Please offer me an argument that's more convincing than "you just don't believe 'cos you don't want to." Everything you've said so far could apply equally to any religion -- why do you believe yours is the real one? (Note that saying "it's the only one that promises eternal life" or something like that isn't an answer to my question, unless you show that (a) no other religion promises eternal life and (b) it is unarguably true that eternal life must be a reality.)
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********NOTE: FOLLOWUPS go to alt.atheism,talk.religion.misc,talk.origins! [deleted] If you say X statement and give it the authority of fact, I will respond by asking you why. You aren't obligated to say anything, but if your intent is to convince me that X statement is true, then yes, the burden of proof is upon you. If you are merely giving testimony to your beliefs, then you are an egotist. Why would I care? To surmise, the burden of proof is upon you if you wish us to believe that what you say is true.
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Stuff deleted I reiterate that I would agree with you that there is little justification for the punishment of apostasy in the Qur'an. In Islamic history, as well, apostasy has rarely been punished. Belief is considered a matter of conscience and since there is to be no compulsion in the matter of belief, apostates have been generally left to believe or not believe as they will. However, when an apostate makes attacks upon "God and His Messenger" the situation changes. Now the charge of apostasy may be complicated with other charges - perhaps charges of sedition, treason, spying, etc. If the person makes a public issue of their apostasy or mounts public attacks (as opposed to arguement) against Islam, the situation is likewise complicated. If the person spreads slander or broadcasts falsehoods, again the situation changes. The punishments vary according to the situation the apostate is in. Anyhow, the charge of aggravated apostasy would only be a subsidiary charge in Rushdie's case. There is a distinction in the Qur'an between a formal war situation and being in the situation where someone unilaterally wages war (by their actions), creates disorder, makes mischief,etc. against the Muslims and creates a situation that results in harm to Muslims. Here, a small group or even a single individual could be said to be engaged in such a practise. In other words, there is a clear difference between a formal war situation (where two clearly defined parties wage war, conclude treaties, exchange prisoners, etc.), and dealing with attacks that come from isolated individuals or groups against Islam. It is the second situation, the unilateral attack and the spreading of "fasad" that would apply in the case of Rushdie. The matter of Rushdie is not a simple matter of banning an offensive book (banning the book is secondary) - a full set of circumstances following the publication of the book come into play as well, including the deaths of many Muslims, and Rushdie's (and his publishers) Media games. I am not sure which hadith you are referring to above. I believe that one of the Qur'anic verses on which the fatwa is based is 5:33. Every verse in the Qur'an has a corresponding "circumstance of revelation" but in no way is the understanding (the tafsir) of the verse restricted solely to the particular historical circumstance in which it was revealed. If this was the case then we could say that all the laws and regulations that were revealed when the Muslims were NOT involved in conflict, should be suspended when they were at war. The logic does not follow. In complex, real-life situations, there may be many verses and many hadiths which can all be related to a single, complicated situation. The internal relationships between these verses may be quite complex, such that arriving at an understanding of how the verses interlock and how each applies to the particular situation can be quite a demanding task. It is not necessarily a simple "this or that" process. There may be many parameters involved, there may be a larger context in which a particular situation should be viewed. All these matters impinge on the situation. In other words there is a great deal involved in deciphering the Qur'an. The Qur'an asks us to reflect on its verses, but this reflection must entail more than simply reading a verse and its corresponding hadith. If the reflection is for the sake of increasing personal piety, then each person has his own level of understanding and there is no harm in that. However, if the reflection is in order to decide matters that pertain to the State, to the gestation of laws and rulings, to the gestation of society, the dispensing of justice, the guidance of the community, then there are certain minimum requirements of understanding that one should achieve. Jaffar Ibn Muhammad as-Sadiq(a.s.) relates some of these requirements, as taught by the Prophet(S.A.), in a hadith: "...he who does not distinguish in the Book of Allah the abrogating verse from the abrogated one, and a specific one from a general one, and a decisive from an ambiguous; and does not differentiate between a permission and an obligation, and does not recognize a verse of Meccan period from a Medinite one, and does not know the circumstances of revelation, and does not understand the technical words of the Qur'an (whether simple or compound); and does not comprehend the knowledge of decree and measure, and is ignorant of advancing and delaying (in its verses); and does not distinguish the clear from the deep, nor the manifest from the esoteric, nor the beginning from the termination; and is unaware of the question and the answer, the disjoining and the joining, and the exceptions and the all-inclusive, and is ignorant of an adjective of a preceding noun that explains the subsequent one; and is unaware of the emphasized subject and the detailed one, the obligatory laws and the permissions, the places of the duties and rules, and the meaning of the lawful and the unlawful; and does not know the joined words, and the words that are related to those coming before them, or after them - then such a man does not know the Qur'an; nor is he among the people of the Qur'an....". Based on these and other hadiths, and in accordance with many Qur'anic verses ("Why should not a company from every group remain behind to gain profound understanding (tafaqquh) in religion and to warn people when they return to them, so that they may beware." (9:122)), a science of jurisprudence arose. The requirements for a person to be considered a mujtahid (one who can pronounce on matters of law and religion) are many. I've listed a few major divisions below - there are, of course, many subdivisions within these headings. - Knowledge of Arabic (syntax, conjugation, roots, semantics, oratory). - Knowledge of tafsir and principles of tafsir. - Logic (mantiq) - A knowledge of Hadiths - A knowledge of transmitters (rijal) - Knowledge of the principles of juriprudence (Qur'an, Sunnah, Consensus, Reasoning) The study of Qur'an and sunnah for purposes of law involves: - discussion of imperatives (awamir) - discussion of negative imperatives (nawahi) - discussion of generalities and particularities (aam wa khas) - discussion of unconditional and conditional - discussion of tacit meanings - discussion of the abstract and the clear - discussion of the abrogator and the abrogated The principles of Application of the law involves: - principles of exemption - principles of precaution - principles of option - principles of mastery The jurisprudent is bound to go through a very rigorous process in pronouncing judgement on a given situation. It is not a matter of looking at one verse and one hadith. Now no one should blindly follow anyone, but there is a difference between blind following and acceding to the opinion of someone who is clearly more knowledgeable and more qualified than oneself. There is the "The fuqaha (religious scholars) are the trustees of the Prophet, as long as they do not concern themselves with the illicit desires, pleasures, and wealth of this world." The Prophet (S.A.) was asked: "O Messenger of God! How may we know if they so concern themselves?" He (S.A.) replied: "By seeing whether they follow the ruling power. If they do that, fear for your religion and shun them." I do not yet know enough about the Imams of the four Sunni madhabs to comment on how this hadith applies to them or to the contemporary scholars who base themselves upon them. The Prophet also refered to the fuqaha as "The fortress of Islam". My only point is to make it clear that arriving at a legal judgement calls into play a certain amount of expertise - the specifics of this expertise is delineated in the Qur'an and hadith. Those who acquire this expertise are praised in both the Qur'an and hadith - those who without the requisite knowledge pronounce on matters that affect society, state, and religion are cautioned. The only reason I said anything at all about the Rushdie affair in this group, is because the whole basis for the discussion of the fatwa (that is, apostasy), was wrong. When one discusses something they should at least base their discussion on fact. Secondly, Khomeini was condemned as a heretic because he supposedly claimed to be infallible - another instance of creating a straw man and then beating him. I agree that we should move the discussion to another newsgroup. Unfortunately, I do not have any access to email, so private discussion or a moderated group is out of the question (I cannot post to a moderated group like soc.religion.islam. How about soc.culture.arabic or talk.religion.misc?
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[some big deletions] ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ Another in a string of idiotic generalizations. Gad, I'm surprised I got this far down in the post. I guess some just like seeing their names up on a CRT. Like me :-) Phil Trodwell
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While this is essentially a discussion of reincarnation in the context of Christianity Gerry Palo has made some comparisons to Asian religious beliefs on this topic which have simplified the Asian idea of karma to the point of misrepresentation. There are significant differences in the idea of karma among Hindus, Jains, Buddhists (and even among the various Buddhist traditions.) To refer to karma as a system of reward for past deeds is totally incorrect in the Buddhist and Jain traditions. Karma is considered to be a moral process in which intentions (either good or evil) shape a person's predilections for future intention and action and produce a person who is more prone to good than evil, or the opposite -- "reward" has nothing to do with it. Both Jainism and Buddhism are atheistic so there is no deity to dispense rewards or punishments. Karma is usually described in terms of seeds and reaping the fruit thereof. In fact "As you sow, so shall you reap" is found in the Pali Canon as I recall, the metaphor of natural growth is explicit. Hinduism, or some sects in that tradition, are I believe much more deterministic and involve concepts closer to reward and punishment being theistically inclined. In point of fact, the Theravadin Buddhist tradition of Southeast Asia considers karma as only one of five influences in human life, and in fact from their point of view they would be unable to explain the mechanics of karma without the element of free will. Also in Eastern religions there is a difference between reincarnation and rebirth, which is essentially absent in Western considerations. Isn't Origen usually cited as the most prestigious proponent of reincarnation among Christian thinkers? What were his views, and how did he relate them to the Christian scriptures?
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Is anybody using David Rapier's Hebrew Quiz software? And can tell me how to *space* when typing in the Hebrew? (space bar doesn't work, for me anyway...) Email please; thanks. Ken
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[email protected] (Turin Turambar, ME Department of Utter Misery) said re. Dan Schaertel's article [if I followed the quoting right]: I think it may also be worthwhile pointing out that if we take the appellation `Rabbi' seriously then Jesus had a full grasp of contemporary `scripture' Mat21:42 Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures... Mat22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing Mat22:29 the scriptures, nor the power of God. Following from this, he would have been in a wonderful position to fulfil prophesies, and the NT says as much: Mat26:54 But how then shall the scriptures be fulfilled, Mat26:54 that thus it must be? Mat26:56 But all this was done, that the scriptures of the Mat26:56 prophets might be fulfilled. Then all the disciples Mat26:56 forsook him, and fled. If the books comprising the referred-to `scripture' had not been accessible then it probably would be a different matter.
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I am not familiar with, or knowledgeable about the original language, but I believe there is a word for "idol" and that the translator would have used the word "idol" instead of "graven image" had the original said "idol." So I think you're wrong here, but then again I could be too. I just suggesting a way to determine whether the interpretation you offer is correct.
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Did you by any chance see the pictures of the agents in flak jackets climbing up on the roof and breaking windows. You call that peaceful? If you believed, as these people did, that they would be attacked by evil forces from the outside, found the scores of agents breaking into your compound what would you do? Your beliefs always determine your actions. The beliefs may be wrong from my point of view but they are yours all the same. To make it more practical. If I attempted to stick you with a needle you would try to stop me because you believe it would hurt, or that I do not have that right. If you did not you would ignore me. You certainly would it you saw me sticking the needle in a tree. Koresh may have been misguided, only God knows. But the Jews at Masada died for what they believed, the three Hebrews preferred to die in the furnace rather than bow down, Daniel preferred to die in a lion's den rather than stop praying to his God, and as a Christian I am prepared to die for my faith. Koresh was not dying for now reason. He had a cause. Why should he give up the children to forces he was convinced were evil. The events are bizarre but they match his beliefs.
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Robin Lane Fox is a historian and a gardener. He has written several history books, perhaps a recent one you might remember is "The Search for Alexander". He has also written or edited several books on gardening.
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> Public revelation, which is the basis of Catholic doctrine, ended > with the death of St John, the last Apostle. Nothing new can be > added. Every so often, the Pope declares that some departed Christian is now in Heaven, and may be invoked in the public rites of the Church. It is my understanding that Roman Catholics believe that such declarations by the Pope are infallible. I see three possibilities: 1) The Church has received a Public Revelation since the death of (for example) Joan of Arc. 2) The Church was given a list before the death of St John which had Joan's name on it. 3) There is no public revelation about Joan, and Roman Catholics are free to doubt that she died in a state of grace, or even that she is a historical character.
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In some earlier discussions on this thread I may have given the impression that even though children didn't require baptism it wouldn't hurt if they were. To the contrary, when you baptize children before they are capable of comprehending it you deny them their opportunity to demonstrate their desire to serve God. Have any of you considered that children are not accountable for sin because they are not capable of repentance? Peter said to a group of "men and brethren," "Repent and be baptized every one of you" (Acts 2:38). Notice that he specified that if they *repent* then they may be *baptized*. In following Peter's instructions people must first demonstrate repentance (a forsaking of their sins and a desire to obey God's commands) *before* they are eligible to be baptized. Since young children are not capable of repenting, they are not eligible for baptism. And since God is both just and merciful "sin is not imputed when there is no law" (Romans 5:13), young children are not accountable for what they can't comprehend.
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It troubles me that there have been so many posts recently trying to support the doctrine of Original Sin. This is primarily a Catholic doctrine, with no other purpose than to defend the idea of infant baptism. Even among, its supporters, however, people will stop short of saying that unbaptised infants will go to hell. It's very easy for just about anyone to come up with a partial list of scripture to support any sort of wrong doctrine. However, if we have the heart to persevere in our beliefs to make sure that they are biblically based, then we can come to an understanding of the truth. Let's now take a more complete look at scripture. Colossians 2:11-12 "In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead." In baptism, we are raised to a new life in Christ (Romans 6:4) through a personal faith in the power of God. Our parent's faith cannot do this. Do infants have faith? Let's look at what the Bible has to say about it. Romans 10:16-17 "But not all the Israelites accepted the good news. For Isaiah says, 'Lord, who has believed our message?' Consequently, faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ." So then we receive God's gift of faith to us as we hear the message of the gospel. Faith is a possible response to hearing God's word preached. Kids are not yet spiritually, intellectually, or emotionally mature enough to respond to God's word. Hence they cannot have faith and therefore cannot be raised in baptism to a new life. Ezekiel 18:20 "The soul who sins will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him." If you read all of Ezekiel 18, you will see that God doesn't hold us guilty for anyone else's sins. So we can have no original guilt from Adam. Ezekiel 18:31-32 "Rid yourselves of all the offenses you have committted, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, O house of Israel? For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent and live!" The way to please God is to repent and get a new heart and spirit. Kids cannot do this. Acts 2:38-39 says that when we repent and are baptized, we will then receive a new spirit, the Holy Spirit. Then we shall live. Now then that we have a little more background as to why original sin is not Biblical, let's look at some of the scriptures used to support it. Romans 5:12 "Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned--" Sin and death entered the world when the first man sinned. Death came to each man because each man sinned. Note that it's good to read through all of Romans 5:12-21. Some of the verses are easier to misunderstand than others, but if we read them in context we will see that they are all saying basically the same thing. Let's look at one such. Romans 5:19 "For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous." Through the disobedience of each individual, each was made a sinner. In the same way, through the obedience of Jesus, each will be made righteous. We must remember when reading through this passage that death came to each man only because each man sinned, not because of guilt from Adam. Otherwise the Bible would contradict itself. I encourage you to read through this whole passage on your own, looking at it from this point of view to see if it doesn't all fit together. Psalm 51:5 "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me." This whole Psalm is a wonderful example of how we should humble ourselves before God in repentance for sinning. David himself was a man after God's own heart and wrote the Psalm after committing adultry with Bathsheba and murdering her husband. All that David is saying here is that he can't remember a time when he wasn't sinful. He is humbling himself before God by confessing his sinfulness. His saying that he was sinful at birth is a hyperbole. The Bible, being inspired by God, isn't limited to a literal interpetation, but also uses figures of speech as did Jesus (John 16:25). For another example of hyperbole, see Luke 14:26. Now then, even though people see that baptism requires faith and that original sin is not Biblical, they will still argue that infant baptism is necessary because children sin by being selfish - not sharing toys with other children, by being mean - hitting others and fighting, etc. Certainly we have observed children doing wrong things, but my gut feeling is always that they don't know any better. Let's look to see if the Bible agrees with my gut feelings. Isaiah 7:14-15 "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right." Now just about any church leader will tell you that this is a prophecy about Jesus. If they don't, then point them to Matthew 1:23 and find a new leader. Jesus certainly couldn't have had less knowledge than normal human babies. Yet this passage says that he had to mature to a certain extent before he would know the difference between right and wrong. We see that he did grow and become wiser in Luke 2:40 and 2:52. The implication is that Jesus did wrong things as a child before he knew to choose right over wrong. Since we know that Jesus was perfect -- without sin, we have rather conclusive proof that babies cannot sin because they don't know to choose the right instead of the wrong. Jesus himself was baptized, albeit with John's baptism, not as an infant, but as a thirty-year-old man (Luke 3:21-23) and started his ministry as soon as he was baptized (Luke 3:23). Immediately afterwards, he was tempted by the devil (Luke 4:1-13; Matthew 4:1-11; Mark 1:12-13). Thank you for your attention. Moderator - this should finish up the subject for a while. Perhaps you would like to make a FAQ out of this response so that you can repost it from time to time when the topic comes up. Feel free to rearrange the contents if you would like to, but please send me a copy of the final FAQ. Sincerely, Aaron Cardenas [email protected]
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I use it to refer to those Christians who take a more conservative-literalist approach to the Bible, as distinct from "liberals". I would use the word "Christian" (unqualified) to describe someone to whom the above definition applied. BTW, it applies to me. [deletia: Joe Gaut indicates his interest in the BD disaster is from a civil liberties issue, not an attempt to justify Koresh's beliefs and/or practices.] I agree with Joe about this: if some group wants to believe in whatever god or Invisible Pink Unicorns and go off and live together and have group sex, or no sex, or sex only for the leaders (but NOT with children), then, as much as I might believe them to be misguided, I think they should have the legal right. And I hope the investigation will start by determining whether the feds had any *legitimate* reason for going after Koresh in the first place (before moving on to consider the wisdom of various tactics used). [Joe goes on to dispute the child-abuse allegations. I'll (provisionally) accept this, unless someone has evidence to support the allegations?] Actually I wasn't thinking about the (alleged) child abuse, but about the reports that he had sex with, and fathered children by, several women in the cult. I agree this is not a legal matter - consenting adults and all that - but Stephen Tice seems to be defending Koresh's beliefs and practices from specifically *Christian* perspective, not a civil liberties perspective. I think my question is not really aimed at Joe (and possibly not at Ray Cote either, who seems to also be taking the political angle), but at Stephen Tice.
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The biblical arguments against homosexuality are weak at best, yet Christ is quite clear about our obligations to the poor. How as Christians can we demand celibacy from homosexuals when we walk by homeless people and ignore the pleas for help? Christ is quite clear on our obligations to the poor. Thought for the day: MAT 7:3 And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother's eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye? Or how wilt thou say to thy brother, Let me pull out the mote out of thine eye; and, behold, a beam is in thine own eye?
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An extremely good example of "circumstantial evidence!" Every time these right-wing control-freaks start spouting about prayer in schools, I get this nagging commentary from the Sermon on the Mount [Matt: 6:5-6] "And when you pray, do not imitate the hypocrites: they love to say their prayers standing up in the synagogues and at the street corners for people to see them. I tell you solemnly, they have had their reward. But when you pray, go to your private room and, when you have shut your door, pray to your Father who is in that secret place." But no. THEY want PUBLIC prayers, the better to manipulate children. "Amen" indeed. I hope you don't mind if I say "amen" to this? :-)
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Stephen A. Creps writes to All: [...] SAC> Also, we know that SAC> the Bible says that _everyone_ must be baptized to enter Heaven. Where exactly does it say that? SAC> _Everyone_ includes infants, unless there is other Scripture to the SAC> contrary, i.e. an exception. Since there is no exception listed in the SAC> Bible, we must assume (to be on the safe side) that the Bible means what SAC> it says, that _everyone_ must be baptized to enter Heaven. I think we do see an exception in the case of Cornelius and his household, mentioned in Acts. Of course, they were baptised, but only after "God showed that He accepted them by giving them the Holy Spirit". This means they were already acceptable to God before their baptism, and had they suddenly died they would have gone to heaven. In case that seems far-fetched - an ancestor of mine was a missionary who worked among the Hereros in Namibia. Some of the tribesmen were jealous of Christianity, and they poisoned the first convert before he could be baptised. Surely he still went to heaven? I'm inclined to agree with a comment recorded at the time: "It is not the neglect of baptism, but its contempt, that condemns." Mike
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Well, again, I am doing as much as the poster I was replying too. I am quite busy and really don't have the time to respond in full scholarly form to every accusation that is flippantly made by someone who's being clearly antagonistic. I have considered it. But if someone spreads falsehoods out of ignorance then they are still spreading falsehoods. Those falsehoods generally do not come out of nowhere but are produced by people who know that what they are saying is (at _least_) not the whole truth. I still consider such spreading of falsehoods propaganda on some level. Bob, I never accused you of having your head up your ass! It takes me quite some time in dealing with someone before accusing them of having their head up their ass. I was accusing the original poster (Benedikt, I believe) of being so impaired. Cheers,
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Bill Conner, meet Bill Conner.
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^^-- name? Other than it tells quite a lot about the Man himself. Are you the spokesman for "most people?" That you don't recognize the Biblical commentary used. Those in the church know the language though, and have no such excuse. You missed the point -- which is that the Prophets, the Psalms, and Revelation, all together, provide a very rich view of a very special event -- a wedding. How are you able to make such a conclusion? Please note, that the first part of Revelation makes it clear that the address is to those in the church. That said, it doesn't hurt to try to see what the prophecies are ahead of time -- for those outside the church. So you say. It should be interesting to see what the investigators conclude, and what the final judgments are. So much for war and government eh. Very glad you asked, since I goofed -- it should be Philippian 1:14-19: (here from NIV) Because of my chains, most of the brothers in the Lord have been encouraged to speak the word of God more courageously and fearlessly. It is true that some preach Christ out of envy and rivalry, but others out of good will. The latter do so in love, knowing that I am put here for the gospel. The former preach Christ out of selfish ambition, not sincerely, supposing that they can stir up trouble for me while I am chains. But what does it matter? The important thing is that in every way, whether from false motives or true, Christ is preached. And because of this I rejoice. My comment stems from the realization that we who love the Lord, are human and imperfect. Whatever we "preach," no matter how eloquent, or how corrupted -- is of little difference. Those who know the Master's voice will recognize Him -- a gem-stone amidst rock. Such is also the lesson of the "stumblingblock." For those who have an ear to hear.
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For example, I would claim that the recent assassination of four catholic construction workers who had no connection with the IRA was probably religously motivated. What would you call is when someone writes "The killings in N.I are not religously motivated?" Given that the avowed aim of the IRA is to take Northern Ireland into a country that has a particular church written into its constitution, and which has restriction on civil rights dictated by that Church, I fail to see why the word "past" is appropriate. You don't have to hand us a bunch of double-talk about what I was "seemingly" attacking. I *quoted* what I was attacking.
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. It should be remembered that all of the first reports came from the FBI, and that independent observers, i.e. the press, were not allowed to get close and see things for themselves. Official communiques tend to be self-serving for the agencies that issue them. People in general tend to believe first reports, as these get the most and the biggest headlines. Corrections are often overlooked. An example is the FBI report that several of the bodies found in the rubble had bullet wounds. The local coroner, who is independent of the FBI, has so far found no bullet wounds!
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I didn't know God was a secular humanist... Kent
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As opposed to Universal or Catholic or "FourSquare Gosple". I think that the Greek Orthodox Church would take high offense at your misuse of the word. Your version of Christianity is neither mainstream nor bible derived you make claims of bible-centricity that are not derivable soley from the Bible. About six-seven months ago, you claimed that your primary objection to the LDS was that "our" doctrine was not bible-derived, And now this (and other) claims can be shown, are also not bible interpeting bible. Simple truths... oh for example? "paradise exalted to heaven" paradise wasn't equal to heaven and _now_ it is? Yet you claim that peeple can not be exalted to heaven, nicht wahr? When I read the story, I found that "Abraham's Bosom" wasn't so much a place, but somewhere the rich man could see and talk to Abraham? Gee this is fairly close to what the LDS call spirit prison, and what you have called false doctrine... [ vers deleted reproduced below quoted from the SunSpot Gopher Archive ] This part is _not_ supported from scripture, nor does it support your claim that the "paradise" where Christ descended was exalted. Making such claims on this little "evidence" ignores the witness of the scripture Using this to argue that paradise or spirit prison, is now changed from a Pre-Easter postion to post-easter by God postion is not supportable. Makeing such a claim requires more evidence than you have given here... Yes, and your reasons are in general not supported by any direct reading of the scriptures. You have demonstrated that you claims to scriptural "proof" need to be cross-checked. The referencs that you supply often do not support your postion, if they are read in the context of the scripture. How about that those who have been in paradise, and have accepted the gosple will be judged of Jesus Christ, and then return to the presence of God. Is that somehow different from your expressed view that the paradise spoken of (or "Abraham's Bosom") Should we go back and discuss your view on why the Angle of the Lord is the Lord again... ;-)
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Thanks for the responses so far. I hope that I have sparked some thought (which is more my intent than to restart one of the Reformations). I'm just going to tug on two threads: In Message-ID: <[email protected]> [email protected] (D. Andrew Byler) writes, I was simply observing that as a non-Jew, I am not in that community which might be bound by such a decision (I don't know much about the Council of Jamnia, but I have heard that it is not well-attested historically). 'Faithless' has nothing to do with it, and I prefer not to speculate about motives. I wish the Dialogue_with_Trypho were a real transcript of a real dialogue,, but I think it a fictional effect on Justin's part. Putting that to one side, Justin's point may be evidential; one would want to know- 'which books?' Perhaps the reformers were traveling in all the light (MS evidence) they had. Let's stick to the issues. Again, I prefer not to speculate about motives. One would need quotes from Luther, Calvin, etc. to evidence this 'preference'. ----- In Message-ID: <[email protected]> [email protected] (David Wagner) Is this the principle: 'Any (BC) text not quoted by Christ cannot be counted as Scripture' ? Think well about this- Job, Ruth...? These is a logically invalid *a priori*. Besides, we are talking about OT texts- which in many parts are superceded by the NT (in the Xtian view). Would not this same principle exclude _Ecclesiastes_? This principle cannot be consistently applied. Dave W. answers: Meaning what? Do you affirm the principle (that the D.c's can be excluded since they contain 'false doctrine') or do you deny it? If affirmed (as is implied in your statement) how does one determine that doctrine X is false? Do you affirm every teaching in _Ecclesiastes_? If so, it may be a test that cannot be applied. The Orthodox faithfully believe that Psalm 151 is canonical. How can my faith say 'Not!' ? All I hear here is the *a priori* I mentioned before. This is contrary to fact. Can this be elevated to a principle? How is 'spiritual quality' measured? I'll take the 'spiritual quality' of most of Sirach over Joshua or Chronicles, any day. What can I say? You believe what you believe- I'm asking for a consistency check. I don't see that the books were added- in any construction this formulation begs the question. No one can validly ask me to 'have faith' that these books are noncanonical. Dave Davis, [email protected] These are my opinions & activities alone QOTD:
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Actually in D&C 68:25-28 the parents are being held accountable for their own sins. Specifically they are accountable for their failure to teach their children properly. If I fail to teach my children that stealing is wrong then I am responsible for their theft if they later indulge in such behavior.
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STILL, the Angel Gabriel's greetings was: "Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with you. Blessed art thou amongst women". Even Mary was confused about this greeting.
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Why don't you ask the approx. two million British Muslims who break it five times a day and have never ever been prosecuted under it? Then ask how easy it is to hold a Christian church service in Saudi Arabia.
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Let me say that the life, death, and resurrection of Jesus Christ is central to Christianity. If you personally believe that Jesus Christ died for you, you are a part of the Christian body of believers. We are all still human. We don't know it all, but homosexual or heterosexual, we all strive to follow Jesus. The world is dying and needs to hear about Jesus Christ. Are you working together with other Christians to spread the Gospel?
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I'm curious to know if Christians ever read books based on critique on the religion, classical text such as "Age of Reason" by Paine, or "The Myth Maker" by Jacobi. Sometimes it is good to know your enemy, and if you want to do serious research you have to understand both sides, and not solely the one and only right one. Cheers, Kent
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Does anyone know about the Christian Embassy in Washington DC? What exactly does it do? Please respond to [email protected]
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I don't think the issue of whether infants have faith is relevant or not. Certainly they *can*, as the example of John in utero proves. I find the translation of Col 2 above odd in terms of the circumcision of christ, which the KJV and RSV put in terms of Christ's cricumcision which we, in union with him *participate* in putting off the body of sins of the flesh. Also, perhaps cor 2:12 is dividing the act of burial with him in baptism, which can be independant of faith, from the experience of rising with Christ by faith. Who says both are by faith? This interpretation has the advantage of explaining those who are faithlessly baptized, for whom their baptisim is not benefit, but serves to put them into the kingdom nonetheless. Like the israelites (all of them, children included) who were baptized in the cloud and in the sea, it was of no advantage because they did not add to their baptism faith and obedience. Baptism does not impart faith, nor is it done strictly speaking on the basis of the faith of the parent, but because of the covcenant promise of God. It imparts grace, the grace of the kingdom, which can be a punishement in disguise if there is later apostacy. Do you teach a child to pray the Lord's prayer? Do you expect them to not steal? They *can* have faith appropriate to their condition. And in the new covenant, we shall no longer say: know the lord, for they shall all know him from the least unto the greatest Heb 8:11. But also according to Ezekiel 18, God will not hold innocent anyone on the basis of anyone elses innocense. Thus Jesus could not be our federal head any more than adam, *IF* that's what ezekiel is talking about. Shall you make ezekiel 18 contradict the second commandemnt as well? > Ezekiel 36:25-26 indicates that this new heart will be given by God, in the context of the sprinkling of water in baptism. It is the action of God puting them into his new order, and not a question of"personal" faith as such. But the death that came to all because of sin is not just their personal death, but the dead state (originbal sin). We are in a covenant of death, because adam, our federal head gave over his dominion to the devil and death. While this psalm is figurative in it's language, it is not hyperbolic, and the one does not necessarily imply the other. There is not other hyperbolic language in this psalm. What v 5 is likely refering to is what is symbolized by the OT cleanliness laws (which make intercourse and childbrith both acts which caus uncleannes and seperation from God). The whole psalm is in the language of OT ritual (hyssop, cleansing, burnt offering, etc) David's sin with bathsheba included this element, as he did not ritually cleanse himself when he should have. But what was symbolized by the OT ritual was the truth that sin was passed generationally. That's why the organ of generation had to be cut. That's why brith was unclean. Uncleanness was death, and all babies were born dead, and needed to be washed to newness of life, which we have in baptism today.
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: > : > I think you're letting atheist mythology : Great start. I realize immediately that you are not interested : in discussion and are going to thump your babble at me. I would : much prefer an answer from Ms Healy, who seems to have a : reasonable and reasoned approach to things. Say, aren't you the : creationist guy who made a lot of silly statements about : evolution some time ago? : Duh, gee, then we must be talking Christian mythology now. I : was hoping to discuss something with a reasonable, logical : person, but all you seem to have for your side is a repetition : of the same boring mythology I've seen a thousand times before. : I am deleting the rest of your remarks, unless I spot something : that approaches an answer, because they are merely a repetition : of some uninteresting doctrine or other and contain no thought : at all. : I have to congratulate you, though, Bill. You wouldn't : know a logical argument if it bit you on the balls. Such : a persistent lack of function in the face of repeated : attempts to assist you in learning (which I have seen : in this forum and others in the past) speaks of a talent : that goes well beyond my own, meager abilities. I just don't : seem to have that capacity for ignoring outside influences. : Dean Kaflowitz Dean, Re-read your comments, do you think that merely characterizing an argument is the same as refuting it? Do you think that ad hominum attacks are sufficient to make any point other than you disapproval of me? Do you have any contribution to make at all?
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A recent post bears the subject line: > Re: Serbian genocide work of God? The text contains 80 lines devoted to a defence of the doctrine of predestination as applied to the salvation of individuals. There is then a five-line post-script on the Balkans. It is natural and easy to keep the Subject line of the post that one is replying to, but when the focus shifts, keeping the same Subject can cause confusion. This is intended as a general request. The post mentioned is just the handiest example.
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I've tried [email protected] Bounced twice.... Any other guesses?
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Yes. ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ No, look again. While you never *said* it, the implication is pretty clear. I'm sorry, but I can only respond to your words, not your true meaning. Usenet is a slippery medium. [deleted wrt the burden of proof] Look, I'm not supporting *any* dogmatic position. I'd be a fool to say that in the large group of people that are atheists, no people exist who wish to proselytize in the same fashion as religion. How many hard atheists do you see posting here, anyway? Maybe I'mm just not looking hard enough... I never meant to do so, although I understand where you might get that idea. I was merely using the 'bible' example as an allegory to illustrate my point. Evidence for what? Who? I think I may have lost this thread... [why theists are arrogant deleted] Guilty as charged. What I *meant* to say was, the theists who *are* arrogant are this way because they say ... Other than that, I thought my meaning was clear enough. Any position that claims itself as superior to another with no supporting evidence is arrogant. Thanks for your apology, btw. Explained above.
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The "R Us" thing is trademarked. I don't know if Charles Lazarus is dead or alive, but I'd be careful, because with a name like Lazarus, he might rise again just to start a lawsuit. Dean Kaflowitz
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But one of the most basic concepts of Christian morality is that we all have defective appetites due to original sin. Not just homosexuals, but everybody. Thus we are not entitled to indulge in whatever behavior our bodies want us to. I think we need to keep clear the distinction between homosexual _behavior_ (which is wrong) and homosexual _orientation_ (which is not a sin, merely a misfortune). [Please: NO EMAIL REPLIES. Respond in this public forum.]
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For your information, I checked the Library of Congress catalog, and they list the following books by Francis Hitching: Earth Magic The Neck of the Giraffe, or Where Darwin Went Wrong Pendulum: the Psi Connection The World Atlas of Mysteries
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On 26-Apr-93 in Re: What part of "No" don't.. Please provide evidence that having a moment of silence for a student who died tragically costs taxpayers money.
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No wonder that we don't see any detail for this claim. It is good to remember that you have answered the statement that you are a theist by another correspondent with that you are not a member of a denomination. It is either stupidity or an attempt at a trick answer. Not unlike the rest of your arguments. I am extremely wary of the way you use words. Like in this case, there are broader definitions of gods used by persons who are considered by themselves and others theists. I have pointed to that in my post. You use one of them. Your use of definitions seems to rest on the assumption: because my moral is objective/absolute or the other buzz words you are so fond of, everybody will know it, and there is no need to define it more exactly. And as a user has shown recently, the easiest way to dispell you is to ask you for definitions.
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rh> From: [email protected] (ron house) rh> Newsgroups: alt.atheism rh> Organization: University of Southern Queensland rh> I _know_ I shouldn't get involved, but... :-) rh> [bit deleted] [rest of rant deleted] This is a standard argument for fundies. Can you spot the falicy? The statement is arguing from the assumption that Jesus actually existed. So far, they have not been able to offer real proof of that existance. Most of them try it using the (very) flawed writings of Josh McDowell and others to prove it, but those writers use VERY flawed sources. (If they are real sources at all, some are not.) When will they ever learn to do real research, instead of believing the drivel sold in the Christian bookstores. rh> Righto, DAN, try this one with your Cornflakes... rh> The book says that Muhammad was either a liar, or he was rh> crazy ( a modern day Mad Mahdi) or he was actually who he rh> said he was. Some reasons why he wouldn't be a liar are as rh> follows. Who would die for a lie? Wouldn't people be able rh> to tell if he was a liar? People gathered around him and rh> kept doing it, many gathered from hearing or seeing how his rh> son-in-law made the sun stand still. Call me a fool, but I rh> believe he did make the sun stand still. rh> Niether was he a lunatic. Would more than an entire nation rh> be drawn to someone who was crazy. Very doubtful, in fact rh> rediculous. For example anyone who is drawn to the Mad rh> Mahdi is obviously a fool, logical people see this right rh> away. rh> Therefore since he wasn't a liar or a lunatic, he must have rh> been the real thing. Nice rebutal!
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From article <[email protected]>, by [email protected] (Stephen A. Creps): Just a little issue of semantics: Would it not be better, then to call it "pre-determination"?! -- RRRRR OO BBBBB : R R OO OO B B : R R OO OO B BB : Robert Pomeroy R RR O O B B : RRRR O O BBBBB : [email protected] R R O O B B : R R OO OO B BB : 1993 R R OO OO B B : R R OO BBBBB : My address } during } Hawthorns Hall, KEELE, Staffordshire, ST5 5AE. England. term-time. }
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The cited passages are covered IN DEPTH in a FAQ for this group. That particular FAQ (I've forgotten the author) discusses the traditional vs. pro-homosexual interpretations of the passages and indicates which points have strong textual support. Perhaps the moderator might give again the instructions for retrieving the FAQ on this topic? BTW, this issue, while dealt with before, is VERY timely. One of the major Presbyterian churches in California (St. Andrews -- a MegaChurch in a rich neighborhood) is withholding their support of Synod (amounts to about 10% of the budget of the Synod, which covers all of Southern CA and Hawaii) until support for a pro-homosexual lobbying group (the Lazarus Project) is terminated. [This came from a news report on CNN yesterday -- corrections welcome.] Tim [I think it's time for me to post the FAQ. This is an issue throughout the Presbyterian Church. On the other side, one of the major churches in Cincinnati has been ordaining homosexual elders, and has ignored Presbytery instructions not to do so. And the church in Rochester where the judicial commission said they couldn't install a homosexual pastor has made her an "evangelist". These situations, as well as the one you describe, do not appear to be stable. This will certainly be a major topic for the General Assembly next month. If the church can't come up with a solution that will let people live with each other, I think we're end up with a split. Clearly neither side wants that, but I think we'll get pushed into it by actions of both sides.
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