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Drug of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome:
Proton pump inhibitor
1
Proton pump inhibitor
Antacids
Antithistminics
H2 blockers
Pharmacology
null
4718ce69-0036-4e4f-b09d-913543483574
single
A 24 year old construction worker presents to his physician after an injury on the job. Physical examination is remarkable for marked flexion of the ring and little fingers of the left hand. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be found on physical examination?
Clawing of the ring, forefinger and little fingers is characteristic of an ulnar nerve lesion. Ulnar nerve lesions can also produce wasting of the hypothenar eminence and dorsal interosseous muscles. The latter causes "guttering" between the extensor tendons on the back of the hand. Ulnar lesions also cause loss of sensation to the back of the little finger and half of the ring finger.Sensation on the back of the thumb is provided by the radial nerve.Sensation on the palmar side of the forefinger is provided by the median nerve. Wasting of the thenar eminence is associated with lesions of the median nerve.
3
Loss of sensation on the back of the thumb
Loss of sensation on the palmar side of the forefinger
Wasting of the dorsal interosseous muscles
Wasting of the thenar eminence
Anatomy
null
721aa9eb-9cef-45df-9770-4bd86947c2d3
single
Which of the following fat soluble vitamin has been identified to function as a coenzyme?
Most of the water soluble vitamins exert the functions through their respective coenzymes while only one fat soluble vitamin (K) has been identified to function as a coenzyme. Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-117
2
Vitamin A
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Biochemistry
null
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single
Chassar Moir surgery is done is case of:
Ans. is b, i.e. VVF repairRef: Shaw 14th/ed, p168SurgeryDone in1. Kelly stitch/Boney's Test/Marshall Marchetti Krantz SurgeryStress Urinary Incontinence2. Chassar Moir Technique/ Latzko technique/ layer techniqueVVF Repair3. Boari Flap TechniqueUretrovaginal Fistula repair4. Purandare Sling/ Fothergill's Repair/ Manchester Repair/Ward Mayo Hysterectomy/ Lefort's ColpocleisisProlapse Uterus5. Strassman Unification SurgeryBicornuate/Didelphic uterus (Indication for operation, if bicornuate or didelphic uterus lead to >3 Abortion)6. Hysteroscopic Septal Resection (M/c done), Jones/Thompkins/ Williams metroplastySeptate Uterus7. McIndoe VaginoplastyMRKH Syndrome/Vaginal agenesis (Best time to perform this surgery is just before/just after marriage)8. Me Donald/Shirodkar CerclageIncompetent Internal os9. Baldy Webster operation, Modified Gilliams operation, Laparoscopic ventrosuspensionRetroversion of the uterus10. Haultains Operation(via abdominal route Spinellis operation (via vaginal route)Inversion of uterus
2
Uterine inversion
VVF repair
Ureterovesical fistula repair
Retroverted uterus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Diagnosis
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Not associated with coal tar
(D) Leukaemia# Occupational exposure to coal tar or coal-tar pitch is associated with an increased risk of skin cancer.> Other types of cancer, including lung, bladder, kidney, and digestive tract cancer, have also been linked to occupational exposure to coal tar and coal-tar pitch.
4
Bladder cancer
Skin cancer
Lung cancer
Leukemia
Pathology
Misc.
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single
What is the most probable cause of large head in this child?
c. HydrocephalusLarge head in an infant with venous prominences over scalp and presence of 'setting-sun sign', suggest hydrocephalus.
3
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Mucopolysaccharidosis
Hydrocephalus
Cerebral gigantism
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
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single
A 20 year old man presented with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhea, his stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. Which of the following serotype of E.coli is the causative agent of hemorrhagic colitis?
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli O157:H7 is the serotype of E.coli causing hemorrhagic colitis. It is associated with the ingestion of undercooked hamburger, sprouts, unpasteurized milk or juice. EHEC produces a shiga toxin and can cause colitis after an incubation period of 3 -5 days. It typically produces watery diarrhea that progress to bloody diarrhea after a few hours to few days. Fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting are associated complaints. Mechanism of enterohemorrhagic colitis appears to be vascular endothelial damage that leads to platelet aggregation and initiation of the coagulation cascade. This in turn, leads to ischemia of the colon and results in hemorrhagic colitis. Ref: Mayo Clinic Gastroenterology and Hepatology Board Review By Stephen Hauser, 4th Edition, Page 197
1
O 157:H7
O 159:H7
O 107:H7
O 55:H7
Microbiology
null
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single
Which year MTP act was passed -
park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *implementing rules and regulations for legalisation of aboion was initially written in 1971 were revised again in 1992 came to be known as the MTP act 1971.
1
1971
1981
1957
1961
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
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single
Which of the following tumours present with proptosis-
Most common cause of bilateral proptosis: In children : Neuroblastoma and leukemia (chloroma). In adults : Thyroid ophthalmopathy. Most common cause of unilateral proptosis: In children : Orbital cellulitis. In adults : Thyroid ophthalmopathy. Other tumors causing proptosis : symmetrical lymphoma, secondaries from Neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma, Ewings, leukemic infiltration. Ref: A. K. Khurana 6thE pg404 ref img
1
Neuroblastoma
Nephroblastoma
Germ cell tumour
Medulloblastoma
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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Receptors of LDL is/are -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., B 100Apo B-100 acts as a ligand for binding to LDL receptor.Also knowApo E in IDL acts as ligand for LDL receptor mediated endocytosis of IDL and chylomicron remnants. So, Ligand for LDL receptors are :(i) APO B-100 (for LDL)(ii) APO E (for IDL & Chylomicron remnants)
1
B 100
B 48
APO Al
APO A 1 1
Pathology
null
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Influenza belongs to
Ohomyxoviruses are medium-sized, 80 to 120-nm enveloped viruses exhibiting helical symmetry. The genome is linear, segmented, negative-sense, single-stranded RNA, totaling 10-13.6 kb in size. Segments range from 890 to 2350 nucleotides each. Ohomyxoviruses include influenza viruses that infect humans or animals.Ref: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 29; General Propeies of Viruses
1
Ohomyxoviridae
Retroviridae
Herpes virus
Pox virus
Microbiology
Virology
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Fish acts as intermediate host in -a) D. latumb) Clonorchis sinensisc) H. Diminutad) H. Nana
Fish acts as intermediate host: Diphyllobothrium latum, Clonorchis sinensis, Paragonimus westermani (Crab fish), Metagonimus spp., Heterophyes heterophyes In case of H. nana Human, rat and mouse acts as both definitive and intermediate host, no intermediate host. In case of H. diminuta: Flea acts as intermediate host.
2
ac
ab
ad
bc
Microbiology
null
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single
Lilliputian hallucinations are seen in
Lilliputian hallucinations are the visual type where objects appear tiny than their usual size. delirium is a type of ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME it presents with clouding of consiousness the main cognitive function that is altered is attention impairment and disorientation the main hallucinations that presents in delirium is visual hallucinations the visual hallucinations sometimes presents lilliputian hallucinations, that is they can see small miniature animals and humans hitting them they have a phenomenon called as sun downing phenomenon, that is worsening of symptoms in the evening and night the delirium that is cahrecterstic of alcohol withdrawl is hyper active delirium it is also called as delirium tremens as it is assosiated with tremors. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 955
1
Alcohol withdrawal
Opioid withdrawal
LSD withdrawal
Cocaine withdrawal
Psychiatry
All India exam
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Gas most suited for laproscopy is -
Ans. is `d' i.e., Carbon dioxide
4
Air
Nitrogen
CO
Carbon dioxide
Surgery
null
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Dolicocephalic facial pattern is associated with:
null
2
Broad dental arch
Long and narrow dental arch
Paraboloid dental arch
Square dental arch
Dental
null
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single
Commonest position of appendix is?
Retrocaecal is the mc position in 65percent cases in 12 o clock position followed by pelvic in 4 o clock position M/C :-retrocaecal>pelvic
2
Paracaecal
Retrocaecal
Pelvic
Subcoecal
Anatomy
Small and Large intestine
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single
In Allergic rhinitis nasal mucosa is:
Ans. is a i.e Pale and swollen Nasal mucosa pale, boggy, swollen and bluish Nasal mucosa congested and swollen (Hyperophic) Mulberry appearance Pale and atrophied nasal mucosa Allergic rhinitis Vasomotor rhinitis Chronic hyperophic rhinitis Atrophic rhinitis
1
Pale and swollen
Pink and swollen
Atrophied
Bluish and atrophied
ENT
null
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multi
All are true of cerebral salt wasting except -
Cerebral salt-wasting syndrome (CSWS) is a rare endocrine condition featuring a low blood sodium concentration and dehydration in response to injury (trauma) or the presence of tumors in or surrounding the brain. In this condition, the kidney is functioning normally but excreting excessive sodium. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 745
3
Increased urine output
Low intravascular volume
Low uric acid in serum
Decreased vasopressin levels
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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Non - bias study is -
.<p>randomised control trials mainly include dtrawing up a protocol,selecting reference and experimental populations ,randomisation,manipulation or intervention ,follow up, assessment of outcome.RCT s are generally described as non biassed studies as they give no chance of any systemic error in the determination of association between exposure and disease.</p><p>ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22 nd edition ,pg no 70</p>
3
Case control study
Coho study
Randomized controlled trials
Unrandomized trials
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Fracture mandible occurs most common in ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Condylar process Condylar process fractures of the mandible are most common account for 35% of all the fractures of mandible. They are followed by angle, body and symphysis in decreasing order of frequency. Mnemonic CABS: condylar process >angle >body >symphysis decreasing order of frequency of fracture mandible.
3
Body
Angle
Condylar process
Coronoid process
ENT
null
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single
When planning home care for a client with hepatitis A, which preventive measure should be emphasized to protect the client’s family?
Hepatitis A is transmitted through the faecal-oral route or from contaminated water or food. Measures to protect the family include good handwashing, personal hygiene and sanitation, and the use of standard precautions. Complete isolation is not required. Avoiding contact with blood-soiled clothing or dressings or avoiding the sharing of needles or syringes are precautions needed to prevent transmission of hepatitis B.
2
Keeping the client in complete isolation
Using good sanitation with dishes and shared bathrooms
Avoiding contact with blood-soiled clothing or dressing
Forbidding the sharing of needles or syringes
Medicine
null
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Healthy carriers are present in all except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Typhoid Healthy carriers Healthy carriers emerge from subclinical cases. o They are victims of subclinical infection who have developed carrier state without suffering from ove disease, but are nevehess shedding the disease agent. o Examples ---> Polio, cholera, meningococcal meningitis, salmonellosis, diphtheria. Note : Dont get confuse typhoid fever with salmonellosis. Though typhoid fever is caused by salmonella typhi, Here salmonellosis means disease caused by other salmonella species. q In Typhoid fever following types of carrier state is seen : - i) Temporary carriers" v:shapes="_x0000_s1026">Incubatory carrier ii) Convalescent carrier ii) Chronic carriers
1
Typhoid
Cholera
Diphtheria
All
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
During epidural analgesia the following points suggests that needle is in the extradural space
Loss of resistance technique, tactile feedback from the needle, and surface landmarks are traditionally used to guide the epidural needle tip into the epidural space (EDS). Number of newer techniques are now available like ultrasound - Ultrasound imaging with preacquired three-dimensional images of spine, Ultrasound through needle, Ultrasound imaging with preacquired three-dimensional images of spine Modifications of the loss of resistance techniqueMembrane in syringe technique, Epidural balloon, Epidrum, Episure Autodetect, Auditory and visual display of pressure wave
4
Loss of resistance sign
Negative pressure sign
Mackintosh extradural space indicator
All of the above
Anaesthesia
Central Neuraxial Blockade
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fanconi anaemia -
null
1
Hematologic abnormalities in infancy
Pancytopenia
Skeletal anomalies
Chromosome fragility
Medicine
null
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single
An ankle-brachial index (ABI) that suggests increased risk of myocardial infarction would be
There is increasing interest in the use of the ankle-brachial index (ABI) to evaluate patients at risk for cardiovascular events. An ABI less than 0.9 correlates with increased risk of myocardial infarction and indicates significant, although perhaps asymptomatic, underlying peripheral vascular disease.
1
<0.9
<0.6
>0.9
>0.6
Surgery
Aerial disorders
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EBV Causes:
Ca Nasopharynx
2
Ca cervix
Ca Nasopharynx
Ca lung
Ca uterus
Microbiology
null
39e6f816-9798-4628-888b-a41f0f29f107
single
Which of the following local anaesthetic causes methemoglobinemia?
Prilocaine similar to that of lidocaine. The primary differences are that it causes little vasodilation and thus can be used without a vasoconstrictor, and its increased volume of distribution reduces its CNS toxicity, making it suitable for intravenous regional blocks. The drug is unique among the local anesthetics in its propensity to cause methemoglobinemia. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
2
Procaine
Prilocaine
Etidocaine
Ropivacaine
Anaesthesia
null
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TRUE about infant airway compared to adult airway are all, EXCEPT:
Differences in airway anatomy make the potential for technical airway difficulties greater in infants than in teenagers or adults. The airway of infants differs in five ways: (1) the relatively large size of the infant's tongue in relation to the oropharynx increases the likelihood of airway obstruction and technical difficulties during laryngoscopy; (2) the larynx is located higher (more cephalic) in the neck, thus making straight blades more useful than curved blades; (3) the epiglottis is shaped differently, being sho, stubby, omega shaped, and angled over the laryngeal inlet; control with the laryngoscope blade is therefore more difficult; (4) the vocal cords are angled, so a "blindly" passed endotracheal tube may easily lodge in the anterior commissure rather than slide into the trachea; and (5) the infant larynx is funnel shaped. Ref: Miller's anesthesia-7th ed, Chapter 82.
4
The relatively large size of the tongue
Epiglottis is omega shaped
Larynx is funnel shaped
None of the above
Anaesthesia
null
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In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood?
Ans: a (Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 170,171,199In ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency there will be high level of ammonia in blood.Rate limiting step in urea synthesis is formation of carbomoyl phosphate. It is catalysed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I.One molecule of ammonia condenses with CO, in the presence of 2 molecules of ATP to form carbamoyl phosphateNOTE:An entirely different cytoplasmic enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is involved in pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis.CPS-I deficiency is related to hyperammonemia type IUrea cycle disorders:DiseaseEnzyme defectHyperammonaemia type IHyperammonaemia type IIHyperornithinaemiaCitrullinaemiaCPS-IOrnithine transcarbamoylaseDefective ornithine transporter proteinArginosuccinate synthetaseOTC deficiency leads to hyperammonaemia type II and not hyperornithinaemia- Galactosaemia is due to deficiency of galactose-1-uridyl transferase and in galactosaemia there will be increased blood galactose level and galactosuria- Histidinaemia leads to accumulation of histidine in blood and body fluids and increased excretion of imidazole pyruvic acid in urine. This is due to deficiency of histidase.- Pheny ketonuria is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase.
1
Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
Galactosaemia
Histidinaemia
Phenyl ketonuria
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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The mechanism of action of emergency contraception includes the following except:
Ans. A. By Causing early ovulation.Methods of emergency contraceptionThere are two methods of emergency contraception:# emergency contraception pills (ECPs)# copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs).When inserted within five days of unprotected intercourse, a copper-bearing IUD is the most effective form of emergency contraception available.The emergency contraceptive pill regimen recommended by WHO is one dose of levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, taken within five days (120 hours) of unprotected intercourse.1. Emergency contraception pills# WHO recommends levonorgestrel for emergency contraceptive pill use. Ideally, this progestogen-only method should be taken as a single dose (1.5 mg) within five days (120 hours) of unprotected intercourse. Alternatively, a woman can take the levonorgestrel in two doses (0.75 mg each; 12 hours apart).# Mode of action :Levonorgestrel emergency pills prevent pregnancy by preventing or delaying ovulation. They may also prevent fertilization of an egg by affecting the cervical mucus or the ability of sperm to bind to the egg. They are not effective once the process of implantation has begun.# Effectiveness :levonorgestrel regimen is 52-94% effective in preventing pregnancy. The regimen is more effective the sooner after intercourse it is taken.2. Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs)# WHO recommends that a copper-bearing IUD, as an emergency contraceptive, be inserted within five days of unprotected intercourse. This may be an ideal emergency contraceptive for a woman who is hoping for an ongoing, highly effective contraceptive method.# Mode of action : As emergency contraception, the copper-bearing IUD primarily prevents fertilization by causing a chemical change that damages sperm and egg before they can meet.# Effectiveness: When inserted within five days of unprotected intercourse, a copper-bearing IUD is over 99% effective in preventing pregnancy. This is the most effective form of emergency contraception available. Once inserted, she can continue to use the IUD as an ongoing method of contraception.# Postcoital contraceptivesDrugsDosePregnancy rate (%)Levonorgestrel0.75 mg stat and after 12 hours0-1Ethinyl estradiol 50 mg + Norgestrel 0.25 mg2 tab stat and 2 after 12 hrs0-2Conjugated estrogen15 mg BD x 5 days0-0.6Ethinyl estradiol2.5 mg BD x 5 days0-0.6Mifepristone10 mg single dose0-0.6Copper IUDsInsertion within 5 days0-0.1
1
By Causing early ovulation
Degeneration of corpus leutum
Inhibition of fertilization
Prevention of implantation of fertilized egg.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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All the following statements art true for the viral genome in HIV, Except
null
2
They are diploid
They consist of DNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
They consist of three major genes-gag, pol and envcharacteristic of all retroviruses
They are most complex of human retroviruses
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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True about mitochondrial inheritance
Ans. b (An offspring bom to an affected female will be affected) (Ref. Nelson paediatrics, Ch. 80. p. 496)Mitochondrial Inheritance# An individual's mitochondrial genome is entirely derived from the mother. Sperm contain few mitochondria, most of which are shed upon fertilization.# Mitochondrial disorders exhibit maternal inheritance; a woman with a mitochondrial genetic disorder will have only affected offspring of either sex, while an affected father will have no affected offspring.# Common manifestations include developmental delay, seizures, cardiac dysfunction, i strength and tone, as well as hearing and vision problems.# Examples include- NARP- MELAS (myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and strokelike episodes),- MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy associated with ragged red fibers),- Kearns-Sayre syndrome (ophthalmoplegia, pigmentary retinopathy, and cardiomyopathy).# Cells may contain a mixture of mutant and normal mitochondria, referred to as heteroplasmy.
2
An offspring bom to an affected male will be affected
An offspring born to an affected female will be affected
An offspring born to an affected female will be normal
All of the above
Pediatrics
Genetics And Genetic Disorders
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HCV virus is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hepatitis C virus is a small, enveloped, positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus of the family Flaviviridae.
2
Enveloped DNA
Enveloped RNA
Nonenveloped DNA
Nonenveloped RNA
Microbiology
null
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multi
Ca 125 is used for ?-
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. CA 125 is a tumor marker of ovarian cancer. Most commonly used for follow up of ovarian cancer. pancreas tumor marker CA 19-9..
1
Follow up of ovarian cancer
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer
Diagnosis of stomach cancer
Diagnosis of ovarian cancer
Pathology
General pathology
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single
With increase in age which of the following is true for lungs
Ageing and Lung Changes * Decreased chest wall compliance is counter balanced by a loss of elastic recoil of the lungs (increased lung compliance), which is due to a decrease in the number of parenchymal elastic fibers. * Chest wall and thoracic spine deformities which leads to increase work of breathing. * Dilation of air spaces: "senile emphysema". * Respiratory muscle strength decreases with age and this impairs effective cough, which is impoant for airway clearance. * Clearance of paicles from the lung through the mucociliary elevator is decreased and associated with ciliary dysfunction. * The alveolar dead space increases with age, affecting aerial oxygen without impairing the carbon dioxide elimination. * The airways receptors undergo functional changes with age and are less likely to respond to drugs used in younger counterpas * Decreased sensation of dyspnea and diminished ventilatory response to hypoxia and hypercapnia, making them more vulnerable to ventilatory failure during high demand states (ie, hea failure, pneumonia, etc) * Decreases in the volume of the thoracic cavity and reduced lung volumes. Hence Residual volume increases. Ref:- Relationship between chest wall and pulmonary compliance and age Charles Mittman, Norman H. Edelman, Ahur H. Norris, and Nathan. Pg num:- 202
1
Pulmonary compliance increases
Residual volume decreases
Mucocillary clearance increases
The alveolar dead space decreases
Physiology
Respiratory system
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Which of the following is best type of inquest at the international level?
Medical examiner's inquest is prevalent in most of the states of USA.it is considered to be superior to all other types of inquest, because it is conducted by a forensic pathologist with medical, scientific,& legal knowledge.police& magistrates inquest common in India. Coroner's inquest was common in Mumbai and Kolkata now it is not followed. REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 3.
3
Coroner's inquest
Police inquest
Medical examiner's inquest
Magistrates inquest
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
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T/t of alcohol withdrawal -
null
2
B-blocker
BZD
Amitryptiline
SSRIs
Psychiatry
null
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single
Wiggly appearance of the master cone in the root canal suggests:
If the cone goes to length and radiographically exhibits a wiggly or S-shaped appearance, the cone is too small for the canal and a larger cone must be selected.
2
Long cone in the canal
Short cone in the canal
Thick cone in the canal
Thin cone in the canal
Dental
null
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A neonate within 4 hours of bih presented with severe respiratory distress. He appears to be dyspneic, tachypneic, and cyanotic with severe retractions of the chest. On examination, grunting is present along with use of the accessory muscles. Neonate also appears to have scaphoid abdomen and increased chest wall diameter. There is evidence of shift of the point of maximal cardiac impulse from its original location to the right side. Chest x ray of the neonate Defect in development of which pa of the responsible structure is causing this condition of the baby?
This is a case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (bochdalek or posterolateral hernia) Chest radiograph shows a stomach, nasogastric tube, and small bowel contents in the thoracic cavity, consistent with a CDH. Development of Diaphragm: PA A: Body wall: Peripheral muscular pa PA B: Oesophageal Mesentery: Crura PA C: Septum Transversum: Central Tendon. PA D: Pleuroperitoneal membrane: Small intermediate muscular pa. More common mechanism for the origin of diaphragmatic hernias occurs when muscle cells fail to populate a region of the pleuroperitoneal membranes. This results in a weakened area and subsequent herniation of abdominal organs into the thoracic cavity. The primary cause for the muscle deficiency appears to reside in fibroblasts in the pleuroperitoneal membranes These fibroblasts fail to provide the appropriate scaffolding and/or guidance cues for migrating myoblasts.
3
PA C
PA A
PA D
PA B
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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A boy comes with complains of vomiting, bloated abdomen and abdominal pain. He has a history of attending ice–cream eating competition last night. Ile also has a past history of similar episodes following ingestion of milk and milk products. The likely cause –
History of ice cream ingestion and subsequent symptoms of vomiting, bloated abdomen, are characteristic findings of lactase deficiency. Lactase deficiency - Lactase is a disaccharidase present on intestinal epithelium (brush border)*. It is used to digest lactose (disaccharide). Symptoms arise after ingestion of food containing lactose (e.g. milk). Symptom - Diarrhoea, vomiting, bloated abdomen. Diagnosis Presence of more than 1/2 percent of reducing substrate in the fresh stool. Acidic stools Abnormal oral sugar tolerance test* (blood glucose rise of less than 20mg/d1 above fasting level with a disaccharide load of 2g/kg) Breath H2 excretion of more than 11 ppm*. Enzyme assay on mucosal biopsies showing low levels of disaccharidases. Treatment - low lactose diet.
2
Pancreatic amylase deficiency
Lactase deficiency
Salivary amylase deficiency
Food poisoning
Pediatrics
null
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True about aplastic anemia -a) Splenomegalyb) Nucleated RBC in peripheral bloodc) Reticulocytopeniad) Thrombocytopeniae) Neutropenia
Aplastic anemia is a disorder of marrow failure which stems from suppression or disappearance of multipotent myeloid stem cells. It is characterized by: Anemia, Neutropenia , Thrombocytopenia, and Reticulocytopenia. Splenomegaly is characteristically absent; if present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia is almost ruled out. Bone marrow shows hypocellular marrow largely devoid of hematopoietic cells, often only fat cells, fibrous stroma, and scattered or clustered foci of lymphocytes and plasma cells. Nucleated RBCs in peripheral smear (leukoerythroblastic picture) are found in cases of marrow fibrosis.
2
abd
cde
bde
ade
Pathology
null
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multi
In leptospirosis, the following clinical features are seen except-
Clinical features After a relatively brief bacteraemia, invading organisms are distributed throughout the body, mainly in kidneys, liver, meninges and brain. The incubation period averages 1-2 weeks. Four main clinical syndromes can be discerned and clinical features can involve multiple different organ systems . Bacteraemic leptospirosis Bacteraemia with any serogroup can produce a non-specific illness with high fever, weakness, muscle pain and tenderness (especially of the calf and back), intense headache and photophobia, and sometimes diarrhoea and vomiting. Conjunctival congestion ,massive splenomegaly is the only notable physical sign. The illness comes to an end after about 1 week, or else merges into one of the other forms of infection. Aseptic meningitis Classically associated with L. canicola infection, this illness is very difficult to distinguish from viral meningitis. The conjunctivae may be congested but there are no other differentiating signs. Laboratory clues include a neutrophil leucocytosis, abnormal LFTs, and the occasional presence of albumin and casts in the urine . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1099
4
Jaundice which may be intense
Hemorrhage
Hepatomegaly
Massive splenomegaly
Medicine
Infection
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The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:
Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV: Ideally HIV PEP must be initiated as soon as possible HIV PEP must be initiated within: 24 hours HIV PEP unreasonable to initiate beyond: 72 hours Duration of HIV PEP: 4 weeks Follow-up period after HIV PEP: 12 weeks. Only the higher risk injuries are offered HIV post-exposure prophylaxis which consists of2-3 anti-retroviral medications administered for 28 days. A baseline rapid HIV testing of exposed and source person must be done for PEP. However, initiation of PEP should not be delayed while waiting for the results of HIV testing of the source of exposure PROTOCOL: It is necessary to determine the status of the exposure and the HIV status of the exposure source before staing post exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
1
4 weeks
6 weeks
8 weeks
12 weeks
Social & Preventive Medicine
Leprosy, HIV & STDs
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single
Where was the atraumatic restorative treatment first introduced?
null
1
Tanzania
China
U.S.A.
New Zealand
Dental
null
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single
Howell jolly bodies are seen in?
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Hemolytic anemia Howell-Jolly bodies (HJ bodies)* These are round solid staining, dark-blue to purple inclusions. They are nuclear remanants predominatly composed of DNA.* The presence of Howel-Jolly bodies is associated with hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia, hereditary spherocytosis, myelodysplastic syndrome, post splenectomy and after physiological atrophy of spleen.* Although HJ bodies are seen in all these conditions, they are most common after splenectomy.
2
Iron deficiency anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Polycythemia vera
Multiple myeloma
Pathology
Blood
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single
Secular trend is
The term secular trend implies changes in the occurence of diseases (i.e. A progressive increase or decrease)over a long period of time generally several years or decades.(refer pg no: 66 park 23 rd edition)
1
Long term
Sho term
Both
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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multi
A 65 year male has a history of sweating and chest pain for last 24 hours with the following ECG. Which of the following is not given in managing the patient?
T waves are hyper-acute in leads V2-V5 with the simultaneous presence of ST segment elevation in chest leads V2-V5. This is diagnostic of STEMI involving anterior wall and the vessel blocked is left anterior descending aery. The symptoms of chest pain and diaphoresis are explained by the ECG findings of the pain. Ideal treatment of STEMI is PCI or thrombolysis Since PCI is not among the given choices we need to consider thrombolysis but is indicated only within 12 hours of onset As per this question, patient presented late and hence we will treat with Aspirin to prevent future MI episode, Statin to stabilize the vulnerable plaques Morphine to calm the patient and reduce pulmonary edema. Condition ECG findings ECG findings of ischemia Tall wide (peaked)T wave T wave inversion ECG findings of injury ST elevation (Pardee sign) ECG findings of cell death Pathological Q wave
3
Aspirin
Statin
Thrombolytic therapy
Morphine
Medicine
Acute coronary syndrome
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single
During autopsy for virology study which agent is used for storing tissue -
In autopsy in virological disease universal work precautions have to be followed and specimens are stored in 50% glycerine. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 60.
4
Sodium chloride
Alcohol
Spirit
50% glycerin
Forensic Medicine
Death and postmortem changes
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Anesthetic agent/s which have tocolytic effect are?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Halothane, enflurane and isoflurane produce a dose dependent decrease in uterine tone (tocolysis). Studies of isoflurane demonstrate that halogenated compounds reduce both the frequency of uterinecontractions and the interval between them.
4
Halothane
Enflurane
Isoflurane
All the above
Anaesthesia
null
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multi
Helper T-cells are primarily involved in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Cell mediated immunity
1
Cell mediated immunity
Killing virus infected cells
Killing tumor cells
Involved in type II hypersensitivity
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
Ideal contraceptive for a couple living in different cities meeting only occasionally:
Ans-A Barrier method Barrier method is a suitable contraceptive option for those who have infrequent sexual intercourse."Condom are suitable for use in old age, for a couple who have infrequent coitus, during lactation, during holidays, a subject who can not tolerate OCP, IUCD. The practice of Fertility Control by S. K. Chaudhary 7/ep71
1
Barrier method
IUCD
OCP
DMPA
Unknown
null
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multi
Depressed of skull results from:
A i.e. Heavy object with small striking surface
1
Heavy object with small striking surface
Heavy object with large striking surface
Fall over the ground
Light object
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
The arachnoid villi responsible for cerebrospinal fluid absorption protrude mainly in the:
A i.e. Superior saggital sinus
1
Superior sagittal sinus
Inferior sagittal sinus
Straight sinus
Transverse sinus
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following is most often involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 (MEN 1):
Parathyroid
3
Pituitary
Pancreas
Parathyroid
Thyroid
Pathology
null
e4dda930-6a91-49d9-a12a-8c6ca9d3f460
single
Carpal bone which fractures commonly:
Ans: a
1
Scaphoid
Lunate
Hamate
Pisiform
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around the Fore Arm & Wrist
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single
Spuriously high BP is seen in A/E:
Answer is A (Auscultatory gap) Spuriously high BP may be seen in obese individuals with a thick blanket of fat which dissibates cuf fpressure, patients with thick calcified vessels and use of small narrow cuff
1
Auscultatory gap
Small cuff
Thick calcified vessels
Obesity
Medicine
null
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multi
Depression patients in developing countries most prominently show which of the following feature?
Multiple physical symptoms (such as heaviness of head, vague body aches) are paicularly common in the elderly depressives and depressed patients from the developing countries (such as India) * MC psychiatric disorder in India: Depression * Neurotransmitter involved: Serotonin and nor-epinephrine * MC cause of suicide: DepressionRisk features of suicide in depression: * Endogenous type of depression * Psychotic depression * MC type of post-puerperal psychosis: Depression * Nihilistic ideas: Seen in depression
3
Low mood
Sleep disturbance
Vague body aches
Suicidal tendancy
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
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single
Best blood product to be given in a patient of multiple clotting factor deficiency with active bleeding
Refer Robbins page no 664
1
Fresh frozen plasma
Whole blood
Packed RBCs
Cryoprecipitate
Anatomy
General anatomy
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An example of tumor suppressor gene is
Ref Robbins 7/e p300; , Harrison 17/e p499; 9/e p290 Tumor suppressor genes are the genes whose products down regulate the cell cycle. RB Gene: Governor of the Cell Cycle It is useful to begin with the retinoblastoma gene (RB), the first tumor suppressor gene to be discovered and, as it happens, a prototypical representative. As with many advances in medicine, the discovery of tumor suppressor genes was accomplished by the study of a rare disease--in this case, retinoblastoma, an uncommon childhood tumor. Approximately 60% of retinoblastomas are sporadic, and the remaining ones are familial, the predisposition to develop the tumor being transmitted as an autosomal dom- inant trait. To account for the sporadic and familial occur- rence of an identical tumor, Knudson, in 1974, proposed his now famous two-hit hypothesis, which in molecular terms can be stated as follows: * Two mutations (hits) are required to produce retinoblas- toma. These involve the RB gene, which has been mapped to chromosomal locus 13q14. Both of the normal alleles of the RB locus must be inactivated (hence the two hits) for the development of retinoblastoma (Fig. 5-21). * In familial cases, children inherit one defective copy of the RB gene in the germ line; the other copy is normal. brakes to cellular proliferation Rb gene is a tumor suppressor gene whereas My ,fos and Ra's are all example of proto oncogene Retinoblastoma develops when the normal RB gene is lost in retinoblasts as a result of somatic mutation. Because in retinoblastoma families only a single somatic mutation is required for expression of the disease, the familial transmission follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. * In sporadic cases, both normal RB alleles are lost by somatic mutation in one of the retinoblasts. The end result is the same: a retinal cell that has lost both of the normal copies of the RB gene becomes cancerous. Although the loss of normal RB genes initially was discovered in retinoblastomas, it is now evident that homo- zygous loss of this gene is a fairly common feature of several tumors, including breast cancer, small cell cancer of the lung, and bladder cancer. Patients with familial retinoblastoma also are at greatly increased risk for development of osteosarcomas and some soft tissue sarcoma The RB gene product is a DNA-binding protein that is expressed in every cell type examined, where it exists in an active hypophosphorylated state and an inactive hyperphosphor- ylated state. The impoance of Rb lies in its regulation of the G1/S checkpoint, the poal through which cells must pass before DNA replication commences. As background for an understanding of how tumor sup- pressors function, it is useful to briefly revisit the cell cycle: In embryos, cell divisions proceed at an amazing clip, with DNA replication beginning immediately after mitosis ends. As development proceeds, however, two gaps are incorpo- rated into the cell cycle: gap 1 (G1) between mitosis (M) and DNA replication (S), and gap 2 (G2) between DNA replica- tion (S) and mitosis (M) (Fig. 5-20). Although each phase of the cell cycle circuitry is monitored carefully, the transi- tion from G1 to S is believed to be an extremely impoant checkpoint in the cell cycle "clock." Once cells cross the G1 checkpoint they can pause the cell cycle for a time, but they are obligated to complete mitosis. In G1, however, cells can remove themselves entirely from the cell cycle, either tem- porarily (quiescence, or G0) or permanently (senescence). Indeed, during development, as cells become terminally differentiated, they exit the cell cycle and enter G0. Cells in G0 remain there until external cues, such as mitogenic sig- naling, push them back into the cell cycle. In G1, therefore, diverse signals are integrated to determine whether the cell should progress through the cell cycle, or exit the cell cycle and differentiate, and Rb is a key hub integrating external mitogenic and differentiation signals to make this decision. To appreciate this crucial role of Rb in the cell cycle, it is helpful to review the mechanisms that enforce the G1/S transition. * The initiation of DNA replication (S phase) requires the activity of cyclin E/CDK2 complexes, and expression of cyclin E is dependent on the E2F family of transcription factors. Early in G1, Rb is in its hypophosphorylated active form, and it binds to and inhibits the E2F family of transcription factors, preventing transcription of cyclin E. Hypophosphorylated Rb blocks E2F-mediated transcription in at least two ways (Fig. 5-22). First, it sequesters E2F, preventing it from interacting with other transcriptional activators. Second, Rb recruits chromatin remodeling proteins, such as histone deacetylases and histone methyltransferases, which bind to the promoters of E2F-responsive genes such as cyclin E. These enzymes modify chromatin at the promoters to make DNA insen- sitive to transcription factors. This situation is changed on mitogenic signaling. Growth factor signaling leads to cyclin D expression and activa- tion of cyclin D-CDK4/6 complexes. These complexes phosphorylate Rb, inactivating the protein and releasing E2F to induce target genes such as cyclin E. Expression of cyclin E then stimulates DNA replication and pro- gression through the cell cycle. When the cells enter S phase, they are committed to divide without additional growth factor stimulation. During the ensuing M phase, the phosphate groups are removed from Rb by cellular phosphatases, regenerating the hypophosphorylated form of Rb. * E2F is not the sole target of Rb. The versatile Rb protein binds to a variety of other transcription factors that regulate cell differentiation. For example, Rb stimulates myocyte-, adipocyte-, melanocyte-, and macrophage- specific transcription factors. Thus, the Rb pathway couples control of cell cycle progression at G0-G1 with differentiation, which may explain how differentiation is associated with exit from the cell cycle. In view of the centrality of Rb to the control of the cell cycle, an interesting question is why RB is not mutated in every cancer. In fact, mutations in other genes that control Rb phosphorylation can mimic the effect of RB loss; such genes are mutated in many cancers that seem to have normal RB genes. For example, mutational activation of CDK4 or overexpression of cyclin D ors cell proliferation by facil- itating Rb phosphorylation and inactivation. Indeed, cyclin D is overexpressed in many tumors because of gene ampli- fication or translocation. Mutational inactivation of CDKIs also would drive the cell cycle by unregulated activation of cyclins and CDKs. As mentioned earlier, the CDKN2A gene is an extremely common target of deletion or muta- tional inactivation in human tumors. The emerging paradigm is that loss of normal cell cycle control is central to malignant transformation and that at least one of the four key regulators of the cell cycle (CDKN2A, cyclin D, CDK4, Rb) is mutated in most human cancers. Fuhermore, the transforming proteins of several oncogenic human DNA viruses act, in pa, by neutralizing the growth inhibi- tory activities of Rb. For example, the human papillomavi- rus (HPV) E7 protein binds to the hypophosphorylated form of Rb, preventing it from inhibiting the E2F transcrip- tion factors. Thus, Rb is functionally deleted, leading to uncontrolled growth
4
Myc
Fos
Ras
Rb
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
The extent of bony defects can be best estimated by
null
4
Long cone parallel radiographic technique
Sequential probing
Use of Florida probe
Transgingival probing
Dental
null
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multi
All of the following are associated with proximal muscle weakness except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Myotonic dystrophy o The general rule in that : Myopathies have proximal muscle weakness. Neuropathies have distal muscle weakness. o Myotonic dystrophy is an exception to this general rule and mainly involves the distal muscles. Also know o The difference between myopathy and muscular dystrophy. Myopathy Any skeletal muscle disorder that causes structural changes or functional impairment of muscle. It also includes muscular dystrophies. Muscular dystrophy The muscular dystrophy means abnormal growth of muscle. It is characterized by - i) It is a primary myopathy iii) Course is progressive ii) It has genetic basis iv) Degeneration & Death of muscle fibers occur at some stage of the disease So, muscular dystrophy is a type of myopathy.
4
Spinomuscular atrophy
Duchenis muscular dystrophy
Polymyositis
Myotonic dystrophy
Pediatrics
null
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multi
In status asthmaticus, anesthetic agent used as bronchodilator:-
Morphine - Morphine depresses respiratory center in a dose dependent manner Rate | Tidal | volume In healthy individuals - no cognizable respiratory depression MARKED DEPRESSION In patients with: Asthma COPD Corpulmonalae Lungs and kidney Disease THIOPENTONE SODIUM -decreases respiratory rate KETAMINE: Bronchodilation (best IV anesthetic against causing bronchodilation) Airway reflexes are maintained Respiratory center is not depressed. d/t sympathetic stimulation the following are observed: HR CO | BP Agent of choice in: Shock( duetoo the sympathetic stimulation) bronchial asthma(as it causes bronchodilation) HALOTHANE - causes bronchodilation. Best inhalational bronchodilator followed by sevoflurane
3
Morphine
Thiopentone sodium
Ketamine
Halothane
Anaesthesia
FMGE 2018
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single
In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes:
(d)- Actinomycosis of spine is characterized by granulomatous lesions or osteomyelitis. Cutaneous sinus tracts frequently develop.
4
Intervertebral disc
Into the pleural cavity
Into the retroperitoneal space
Towards the skin
Orthopaedics
Fungal Infections
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multi
Neurotic depression may be characterised by all except -a) Ravenous appetiteb) Hypersomniac) Increased libidod) Weight gain
Dysthymia (neurotic depression) present with mild depressive symptoms (not severe symptoms like ravenous appetite). "Increased libido does not occur as a symptom of depression".         Advanced abnormal psychology 2nd/e 309 For symptoms of dysthymia (neurotic depression) see the table of diagnostic criteria in text.
1
ac
bc
ad
b
Psychiatry
null
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multi
This type of lesion in HIV patient is caused most likely by which of the following?
Ans. B. Fungusa. This HIV/AIDS patient presented with a secondary oral pseudomembranous candidiasis infection.b. The immune system which suffers with HIV undergoes a dramatic reduction in its effectiveness, resulting in the greater possibility of secondary infections.
2
Bacteria
Fungus
Virus
Parasite
Medicine
Infection
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single
Test of detecting damage to cochlea is
Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. In ABC test: Patient's bone conduction is compared with that of the examiner (presuming that the examiner has normal hearing). In conductive deafness, the patient and the examiner hear the fork for the same duration of time. In sensorineural deafness, the patient hears the fork for a shoer duration. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 22
4
Caloric test
Weber test
Rinnie's test
ABC test
ENT
Ear
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single
Which of the following drug is used in this test?
The picture shows Peripheral angiography for which we need vasodilatation. Vasodilatation is produced best by non-selective alpha-blockers, tolazoline is more selective for peripheral vesselsRef: CMDT 2010-Pg 1434
1
Tolazoline
Clonidine
Bismuth
Oxymetazoline
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
Which of the following finger is having two dorsal interossei muscles:
Ans. (c) Middle FingerRef: Grays Anatomy 41st Ed; Page No- 884* The four dorsal interossei muscles are bipennate in nature.* They are larger in size compare to palmar interossei.* They are arising from the adjacent sides of two metacarpal bones.* First two attach to radial side of proximal phalanx of index and middle finger and blend with dorsal digital expansion.* The third and fourth to ulnar side of proximal phalanx of middle and ring finger and blend with dorsal digital expansion.* The second and third are attached to the radial and ulnar sides of the middle finger, respectively.Action of the interossei musclesPalmar Interossei* It unipennate in natures.* Location: On the palmar surface between the metacarpals.* All fingers have palmar interossei; except;- Mid die finger.* They are arising from palmar aspects of the metacarpals.* It adduct the fingers towards the longitudinal axis of the middle fingerDorsal Interossei* It abducts the fingers away from the longitudinal axis of the middle finger.* Note: Fifth finger is not abducted by dorsal interossei.Extra MileInterosseiMuscleOriginInsertionNerve supplyNerve rootActionDorsal interossei (4) (bipennate)Adjacent sides of metacarpal bonesLateral sides of bases of proximal phalanges; extensor expansionUlnarC8;Abduct fingers; flex metacarpo- phalangeal joints; extend inter- phalangeal jointsT1Palmar interossei (3) (unipennate) Medial side of second metacarpal; lateral sides of fourth and fifth metacarpalsBases of proximal phalanges in same sides as their origins; extensor expansionUlnarC8;Adduct fingers; flex metacarpo- phalangeal joints; extend inter- phalangeal jointsT1 Movement at the Metacarpophalangeal JointDorsal interosseiAbductionPalmar interosseiAdductionExtensor digitorumExtensionLumbricals and interosseiFlexion
3
Index finger
Little finger
Middle finger
Ring finger
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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single
In achalasia cardia, true is:
Answer is A (Pressure at distal end increased with no peristalsis): Achalasia is characterized by an increased pressure of LES and absence of esophageal peristalsis. Physiological /Manometric features of Achalasia Elevated Resting pressure of LES (>45 mmHg)Q Incomplete LES relaxation (in response to swallowing)Q Absence of distal esophageal peristalsis
1
Pressure at distal end increased with no peristalsis
Low pressure at LES with no peristalsis
Pressure > 50 mmHg with peristalsis
Pressure at the distal end increased with normal relaxation
Medicine
null
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multi
Trastuzumab all are true EXCEPT:
Causes upregulation of HER2/neu REF: Lippincott's pharmacology 6th edition 653, Goodman & Gillman's 11'1' edition page 901, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trastuzumab "It has been suggested that trastuzumab induces some of its effect by downregulation of HER2/neu not upregulation" Trastuzumab: Herceptin (Trastuzumab) is a humanized antibody directed against the HER-2 antigen that is overexpressed on the tumor cell surface in approximately 25% of breast cancer patients. Trastuzumab is approved as intravenous infusion in HER2/neu overexpressing metastatic breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel as initial treatment or as monotherapy following chemotherapy relapse. Trastuzumab also is synergistic with other cytotoxic agents, but only in HER2/neuoverexpressing cancers. Trastuzumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to the domain IV of the extracellular segment of the HER2/neu receptor It has been suggested that trastuzumab induces some of its effect by downregulation of HER2/ neu Herceptinus e is associated withinfusion-relatedhypotension , flushing andbronchoconstriction, and skin rash but no bone marrow toxicity Herceptin appears to sensitize patients to cardiotoxicity, an impoant concern in patients also receiving doxorubicin.
3
Shows better response in combination with paclitaxel
Used in metastatic breast cancer
Causes upregulation of HER2/neu
Do not causes bone marrow toxicity
Pharmacology
null
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multi
With regard to surgical site infection, what is it called if bacteria are dividing and have invaded wound surface
Contamination Bacteria are on the wound surface. No division occurring Colonization  Bacteria are dividing Tropical infection (Critical colonization) Bacteria are dividing and have invaded the wound surface. There may be an increasing variety of bacteria present ; Biofilm may be present Local infection Bacteria and  / or their products have invaded the local tissue
3
Contamination
Colonization
Tropical infection
Local infection
Surgery
null
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multi
Concept of lingual orthodontic appliance was introduced by
null
4
Atkinson
Mershon
Johnson
Kurz
Dental
null
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single
Balanced stone is dental stone:
A stone with a setting time established by the addition of proper quantities of both accelerator and retarder is called ‘balanced stone’.  Typical accelerators are potassium sulfate and potassium sodium tartrate (Rochelle Salts). Typical retarders are sodium citrate and sodium tetraborate decahydrate (Borax). Manappalil pg-313
2
Which undergoes rapid expansion
In which, accelerators or retarders have been added according to need
In which, amount of water of hydration is controlled
In which, the crystals are all of uniform size
Dental
null
3a44d71f-6c40-47db-9ca8-bc986355f673
multi
Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly in ultrasound is seen at week :
14 weeks of gestation
4
6 weeks of gestation
8 weeks of gestation
10 weeks of gestation
14 weeks of gestation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
847c8f17-4ff2-4a10-a23e-e993af52db54
single
True about Pityriasis rosea is –
Pityriasis rosea is thought to be a viral disease caused by HHV6/7, which is self limiting and subsides in 6-12 weeks.
1
Self limiting
Chronic relapsing
Life threatening infection
Caused by dermatophytes
Dental
null
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multi
What is the normal net weight gain during pregnancy?
According to American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology the recommended weight gain for singleton pregnancy is 25-35 pounds during a singleton pregnancy. Maternal weight gain during pregnancy could be due to: Fetus: 3500 gm at term Placenta: 650g Amniotic fluid:800mg Breast enlargement: 400g Uterus: 970g Interstitial fluid and blood volume: 1200-1800 gm. Underweight women should gain more weight of 12.5-18 kg or 28-40 lb. Obese women should gain less than 7-11.5 kg or 15-25 lbs. Ref: Bernstein H.B., VanBuren G. (2013). Chapter 6. Normal Pregnancy and Prenatal Care. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
2
11 Pounds
24 Pounds
36 Pounds
42 Pounds
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5d5e1670-3096-4762-b2af-a608efe8dba3
single
Shotgun does not contain :
Bullets are used in Rifled Gun. SHOT GUN also known as SMOOTH Barrel GUN :- Choking :-to decrease dispersion and increase the range. Lead shot/ pellets used in shot gun.
3
Barrel
Choke bore
Bullets
Muzzle
Forensic Medicine
Ballistics
adac28c7-bb22-4978-8efc-493a6e0fdddf
single
OCP failure by rifampicin is due to -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased metabolism of drug
3
Decreased absorption of OCP
Increased binding of OCPs by rifampicin and reduced free drug concentration
Increased metabolism of drug
Increased chances of ovulation due to rifampicin
Pharmacology
null
39fb6596-c033-4bf6-a75a-bf0eb92ad041
single
Propranolol is useful in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT:
null
2
Angina
Partial atrioventricular block
Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy
Familial tremor
Pharmacology
null
7cdbf116-2a01-485f-b55e-00af46088c5d
multi
Which of the following is used to represent continuous (quantitative) data -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Histogram DataScaleGraph/DiagramQuantitativeInterval scaleRatio scaleHistogramFrequency polygonfrequency curves linechart scatter diagramCumulative frequency CurveLine Chart graphQualitativeNominal scaleOrdinal scaleBar diagramPie chartPictogramMap diagram or spot map
3
Bar diagram
Pie chart
Histogram
Map diagram
Social & Preventive Medicine
Data Variables
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single
Retraining approach in a pediatric patient, all are true, Except:
Retraining approach includes: Avoidance. De- emphasis and substitution. Distraction.
1
Discrimination
Avoidance
De-emphasis and substitution
Distraction
Dental
null
51ef3ecb-faf3-434c-aa52-bc8ec5e0b440
multi
Granulomatous reactions caused by ova or products of schistosomes at places of oviposition would result in clinical manifestations which includes all except:-
Although the chronic stage of proliferation within tissues is distinctive in the different forms of schistosomiasis, a granulomatous reaction to the eggs and chemical products of the schistosome occurs in all forms of the disease. Schistosoma haematobium commonly involves the distal bowel and the bladder, as well as the prostate gland and seminal vesicles. Bladder calcification and cancer may ensue. S. mansoni affects the large bowel and the liver; presinusoidal poal hypeension, splenomegaly, and esophageal varices may be complications. Pulmonary hypeension, often fatal, may be seen with S. mansoni and S. japonicum disease. * Eggs may be found in an unstained specimen of rectal mucosa or in stool. Urine microscopy and liver biopsy, when warranted, often prove positive. Schistosomiasis is best prevented by the elimination of the parasite in snails before human infection occurs.
3
Bladder wall hyperplasia
Poal hypeension
Cardiac abnormalities
Splenomegaly
Microbiology
Parasitology Pa 2 (Helminthology)
c35f8cc2-4427-4859-84cb-69e9e4890513
multi
The function of vitamin A is/are related to which of the following?
null
4
Retinol
Retinal
Retinoic acids
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
7e81065b-6506-4829-8aa4-1a362c999ce7
multi
False about actinomycetes.
Pencillin is the DOC. It is used for 6-12 months.
4
Non-acid fast
M/C site is cervico facial
Obligate anaerobe
Pencillin is used in treatment for 6 weeks
Microbiology
null
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multi
A 32 year old carpenter presented to you with history of recurrent attacks of chest pain . You prescribe him sublingual nitroglycerin and advise him to take it at the time of pain. The patient revisits the hospital again after 2weeks and tells that the intensity of chest pain has increased on taking nitroglycerin. The patient is most likely suffering from
Nitrates are vasodilator drugs which aggravate condition of HOCM , so it is generally not used in HOCM
2
Aortic regurgitation
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Aortic dissection
Aortic aneurysm
Medicine
null
105ca4bd-e16c-4122-8f78-b77e1be7b881
single
Erythropoietin production is inhibited by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Estrogen o The most important stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is hypoxia. Other stimulus that can increase its secretion are cobalt salts, androgens, alkalosis due to high altitude, and catecholamines via b-adrenergic mechanism.o Pregnancy (due to placental lactogen), testosterone and prolactin increase the activity of erythropoietin. Estrogen inhibits utilization of erythropoietin by marrow cells and also impairs its production. Progesterone increase the effect of erythropoietin by enhancing the effect of placental lactogen and by antagonizing the effect of estrogen.
1
Estrogen
Progesterone
Thyroxine
Testosterone
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
a6491268-ce12-4e2c-9831-1997b62e8af9
single
Equatorial diameter of the lens is
The lens continues to grow throughout life. At bih, it measures about 6.4 mm equatorially and 3.5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 90 mg. The adult lens typically measures 9 mm equatorially and 5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 255 mg. Ref. AAO Sec.11 (2011-2012) Pg.No. 7
3
7mm
8mm
9mm
10mm
Ophthalmology
Lens
98f00043-22e0-414a-a202-2f59ffc9f04c
single
The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called :
Time dependent killing kinetics is shown by aminoglycosides. Here, the killing activity depends upon the length of time, plasma concentration is above MIC. Concentration dependent killing is shown by β lactam drugs. Here, killing activity depends upon the ratio of plasma concentration to MIC. Post-antibiotic effect is the suppression of bacterial growth after limited exposure to the antibiotic.
2
Time dependent killing
Post antibiotic effect
Concentration dependent killing
Sequential blockade
Pharmacology
null
be5073d3-5757-4648-b7c8-140abe6e259a
multi
A 7 years old girl with falling grades and complaints by teacher that she is inattentive in class to her parents and has bad school performance. On hyperventilation her symptoms increased and showed the following EEG findings. Diagnosis is (graph is given):
Ans. c. Absence seizures
3
Myoclonic epilepsy
Myoclonus
Absence seizure
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Pediatrics
null
f043a8cf-a59a-424b-a33b-5348302c80b8
multi
Anesthesia of choice in child with cyanotic hea disease?
Ketamine REF: Morgan 4'h ed p. 935 Anesthesia of choice for congenital hea disease Left to right shunt (Acynotic) Sevoflurane Right to left shunt (Cyanotic) Retamine
2
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopentone
Sevoflurane
Anaesthesia
null
5ffda24a-5951-481b-be1c-8be2c83f6964
single
Hippocampal formation includes all, except?
Ans. (c) Amygdaloid nucleusRef.: Ganong 25th ed. 1288, Atlas of neuroanatomy 2nd ed. / 203* The hippocampal formation is a compound structure in the medial temporal lobe of brain containing# Dentate gyrus# Hippocampus proper# Subiculum# Pre-subiculum, para-subiculum# Entorhinal cortex.* Amygadala primary role in the processing of memory, decision-making, and emotional reactions, the amygdalae are considered part of the limbic system.
3
Dentate gyrus
Subiculum complex
Amygdaloid nucleus
Entorhinal cortex
Physiology
Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Basal Ganglia
a50f07ba-0402-4c6e-b721-3f935c380c02
multi
Which is the commonest childhood tumor –
null
1
ALL
CLL
AML
CML
Pediatrics
null
1e7e4e3b-8adc-4729-b892-d297c70151af
multi
Residual volume is the volume of air in lung after-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Maximal expirationo Residual volume is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration.Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult MaleMeasurementTypical valueDefinition Respiratory volumes1.Tida] volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing2.Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3.Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4.Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5.Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV-rTV-s-IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6.Inspiratory capacity (1C)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7.Functional residual capacity (FRC)2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8.Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV - VC)
2
Maximal inspiration
Maximal expiration
Normal inspiration
Normal expiration
Physiology
Mechanics of Respiration
72ed06c8-5abf-493e-9343-02d95148a20e
single
Color of kit 3 for STD under AIDS control programme?
Ans. is 'c' i.e.,WhitePre-packed colour coded STI/I kits have been provided for free supply to all designated STI/I clinics :Kit 1 4 Grey, for urethral discharge, ano-rectal discharge, cervicitis.Kit 2 - Green, for vaginitisKit 3 4 White, for genital ulcersKit 4 - Blue, for genital ulcersKit 5 - Red, for genital ulcersKit 6 4 Yellow, for lower abdominal painKit 7 - Black, for scoal swelling.
3
Red
Blue
White
Green
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
90fd0d02-c9df-421e-9477-273415613650
single
Average weight of thyroid gland where diet is rich in Iodine is -
null
3
10-12gm
14-16gm
18-20gm
28-30gm
Surgery
null
ce45dc6e-74e0-4c73-b7a0-2c6e9fc02cdf
single
All the following metabolic may cause chronic or recurrent abdominal pain, except -
null
4
Acute intermittent prophyria
Addison's disease
Hypercaleemia
Hyperkalemia
Medicine
null
8ad36736-374b-483f-9d9c-70fafbb525b7
multi
What is cognizable offence ?
Cognizable offence Offence in which a police officer can arrest a person without warrant.
3
Offence that can be forgiven
Offence in which person can be arrested but with a warrant
Offence in which a person can be arrested even without a warrant
Offence in which bail cannot be granted
Forensic Medicine
null
d77fc2b5-e37c-4b79-98f9-e94f88e4aa90
single
The lung pathology occurring in persons working in cotton- wool industries is
Ans. (a) Asthma like features(Ref: Robbins 9th 689)In 10-25% cases, disease may be progressive, with chest tightness recurring or persisting throughout the workweek.After >10 years of exposure, workers with recurrent symptoms are more likely to have an obstructive pattern on pulmonary function testing.
1
Asthma like features
Hypersensitivity pnemonitis
Lung Ca
Chronic bronchitis
Pathology
Respiration
b6a6923a-e2cf-4dd5-bb2c-e1cdc45a7957
single
Pendred&;s Syndrome is due to defect in:
Pendred&;s Syndrome: Consists of congenital sensorineural hearing loss+ goitre Due to defects in sulfate transpo protein (Chromosome 7q) to the thyroid gland and cochlea. Rafetoff Syndrome End organ resistance to T4 Ref: Schwaz 10th edition Pgno: 1534
2
Chromosome 7p
Chromosome 7q
Chromosome 8p
Chromosome 8q
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
622f30da-dc18-407b-972b-fd679469ce86
single
Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 minutes child shows features of breathlessness,on CXR-mediastinal shift was there, possible causes – a) Bilateral choanal atresiab) Pneumothoraxc) Congenital diaphragmatic herniad) Hyaline membrane disease
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia and pneumothorax cause respiratory distress with mediastinal shift to contralateral side. Bilateral choanal atresia and HMD cause respiratory distress, but no mediastinal shift.
2
a
bc
ac
ad
Radiology
null
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single