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A middle aged man came with fever 2 weeks. He also complains of occasional night sweats and has significant weight loss. BAL was done, in which MTB was not detected. Extra pulmonary TB is suspected. Which of the following sites is most likely affected? | Lumph nodes are the most common site of extrapulmonary TB. Associated pulmonary disease is present in fewer than 50% of cases. The diagnosis is established by fine needle aspiration biopsy. Cultures are positive in 70- 80%. In descending order of frequency, the extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in TB are the lymph nodes, pleura, genitourinary tract, bones and joints, meninges, peritoneum and pericardium. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | 3 | Skeletal system | Gastrointestinal tract | Lymph nodes | Genito urinary tract | Microbiology | Bacteriology | 823d0894-30c4-41d8-b93d-5734139f18d3 | single |
. A neonate is seen crying with eyes closed and moving all his limbs. What is the Neonatal Behavioral response scale - | Scale 6 Neonatal behavior assessment scale It is a scale developed by T. Berry Brazelton for evaluating the neurological conditions and behavior of newborn by assessing his or her aleness, motor maturity, irritability and interaction with people. Scores SLEEP STATE I)Deep sleep: - Sleep with regular breathing, eyes closed, no spontaneous activity except stales or jerky movements at quite regular intervals. 2)Light sleep: - Sleep with eyes closed: rapid eye movements can often be observed under closed lids; low activity level with random movements and stales. AWAKE STATE 3)Drowsy: - Drowsy or semidozing; eyes may be open but dull and heavylidded, or closed, eyelids fluttering; activity level minimal, Movements are usually smooth, although there may be stales. "Some infants may also show fuss/ cry vocalizations in this state"Q. What distinguishes state 3 from state 5 when both are accompanied by fuss/ cry vocalizations is the minimal movement in state 3 and considerable movement in state 5 4)Quiescent ale: - Ale, eyes open with bright look. Motor activity is minimal there can be a glazed look that is easily changed into a brighter look with appropriate stimulation. 5)Active ale : - Eyes likely to be open; considerable motor activity, with thrusting movements of the extremities, and even a few spontaneous stales reactive to external stimulation with increase in stales or motor activity. 6)Crying:- Crying characterized by intense, loud, rhythmic, and sustained cry vocalizations that are difficult to break through with stimulation; motor activity is hige. Eyes may be tightly closed. | 4 | Scale 1 | Scale 3 | Scale 5 | Scale 6 | Pediatrics | null | bf300f7c-0856-430f-b55e-efecb015cb1b | multi |
Ohobaric oxygen is used in | .HYPERBARIC OXYGEN It is administration of oxygen 1 or 2 atmospheres above the atmospheric pressure in a compression chamber. It increases the aerial oxygen saturation so that oxygen perfusion of tissues will be increased.Indications 1. Carbon monoxide poisoning. 2. Tetanus, gas gangrene infections. 3. Bedsores, frostbites, necrotising fasciitis. 4. Drenching in paralytic ileus to reduce the nitrogen gas in distended bowel. 5. As a radiosensitizer in the treatment of cancer. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 98 | 1 | Carbon monoxide poisoning | Ventilation failure | Anaerobic infection | Gangrene | Surgery | Urology | cb7ae32c-5d79-4d98-932f-885cb393d2a9 | single |
All are true about Exenatide except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Used in type I diabetes mellitus Exenatide is a synthetic glucagon-like peptide -1 (GLP-l) analogue. o It acts similar to GLP-1 --> Enhancement of postprandial insulin release, suppression of glucagon release and appetite as well as slowing of gastric emptying. o It is given by subcutaneous route & used in type 2 DM | 3 | Decreases glucagon secretion | It is GLP 1 analogue | Used in type 1 DM | Given subcutaneously | Pharmacology | null | b137d458-4957-4d0b-92ef-d242a3a820da | multi |
Smallest diameter of pelvis is? | Interspinous diameter REF: Clinical Obstetrics 10th edition by S. Gopalan, Sarala & Jain, Vanita Page 4, Manual of Obstetrics, 3e by Shirish N Daftary Page 11-12, Manual Of Obstetrics (2Nd Edition) by Daftary Page 16-18 "Interspinous diameter (transverse diameter of midpelvis = 10 cm or somewhat more) is the smallest diameter of pelvis" REF: Williams's obstetric 22nd edition page 34 | 1 | Interspinous diameter | True conjugate | Diagonal conjugate | Inteuberous diameter | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 0b457836-0c29-42e5-841c-94bb6e6740b0 | multi |
NSAIDS with least anti inflammatory' action - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ParacetamolParacetamolo It does not possess anti - inflammatory activity because it is ineffective in the presence of peroxides generated at the site of inflammation.o It produces very little GI toxicity and can be administered in patients intolerant to other NSAIDs. | 2 | Indomethacin | Paracetamol | Ketorolac | Ibuprofen | Pharmacology | Prostaglandins | 432370b8-e674-4ca1-b21f-b8b15f5c1089 | single |
H is helpful in all of the following except | . | 4 | Vaginal atrophy | Flushing | Osteoporosis | Coronary hea disease | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | 2dba6ccc-eaba-40b5-9345-08c63fec6e6d | multi |
Direct fibrinolytics are/is: | Ans. b (Alfimeprase). (Ref. Harrison's medicine 16th ed. 690)Alfimeprase is a metalloproteinase that degrades fibrin in a plasmin-independent fashion. It is a novel thrombolytic based on snake venom derived protein. It is a direct fibrinolytic. It is not a plasminogen activator. It is neutralized by alpha-macroglobulin.PHARMACOLOGICAL REPERFUSION# Therapeutic plasminogen activators include streptokinase, urokinase, tPA and non-tPA fibrinolytics like Recombinant prourokinase, staphylokinase, and alfimeprase.- They are fashioned after endogenous tPA or urokinase that convert plasminogen into active plasmin. Plasmin degrades fibrinogen and fibrin in to FDPs.- tPA is released from endothelial cells, enters the fibrin clot, and activates plasminogen to plasmin.- Any free plasmin is complexed with a,plasmin inhibitor (a2PI).- Fibrin is degraded to low-molecular-weight fragments, fibrin degradation products (FDPs).# Innovative intravenous pharmacological reperfusion strategies include:- Novel fibrinolytic agents (tenecteplase, reteplase, desmetolplase, plasmin, and microplasmin),- GP Ilb/IIIa antagonists = platelet disaggregating effects (abciximab and tirofiban),- Combination therapies to improve efficacy of clot lysis (fibrinolytics and GP IIb/IIIa agents, and fibrinolytics and direct thrombin inhibitors), increase the time window for clot lysis (fibrinolytics and neuroprotectants), and reduce the frequency of hemorrhagic complications. | 2 | R4prourokinase | Alfimiprase | rtpA | All | Pharmacology | Hematology | 709e9acd-83c8-4c25-8041-5e7df4f9c83c | multi |
A 2 day old newborn baby presented with microcephaly, macroglossia, visceromegaly and a blood glucose level of 20 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis | null | 2 | Prader–Willi syndrome | Beck with–Wiedman syndrome | Werner syndrome | Cockayne syndrome | Pediatrics | null | 9638270b-74f0-400b-b3e8-dcc8612cf736 | single |
Drug of choice for sedation of a patient in ICU is: September 2009, March 2013 (a) | Ans. C: Propofol Benzodiazepines, e.g. diazepam, lorazepam and midazolam, are widely used as sedative agents in the ICU. Diazepam use has become less common as newer shoer-acting benzodiazepines have become available. Lorazepam is more potent than midazolam and, because of its low lipid solubility, crosses the blood-brain barrier more slowly, delaying its onset of action and prolonging the sedative effect. Hence, it is recommended for longer-term sedation while midazolam is preferred for sho-term sedation Propofol, another frequently used sedative agent, resembles midazolam in terms of pharmacological profile. Midazolam and propofol have similar efficacy and safety in sedating various groups of critically ill patients. Midazolam is, however, cheaper than propofol Neveheless, propofol, when used as a sedative in mechanically ventilated patients, is associated with shoer weaning times and hence, while midazolam may be cheaper, the overall cost-benefit analysis taking into account duration of mechanical ventilation and ICU stay may in fact be better with propofol. | 3 | Diazepam | Lorazepam | Propofol | Alprazolam | Anaesthesia | null | 32790a09-f519-4c46-9354-5bb020b75db3 | single |
Decreased number of melanocytes are seen in: March 2005 | Ans. D: All of the above Melanopenic hypopigmentation is due to decrease in number of melanosomes, which could be due to: Genetic diseases-albinism, piebaldism A utoimmune diseases-vitiligo Post-inflammatory-Discoid lupus erythematosus Piebaldism is due to an absence of melanocytes in affected skin and hair follicles. The condition is present at bih and usually remains unchanged throughout life. This is caused by mutations of the KIT proto-oncogene. 14 point mutations, 9 deletions, 2 nucleotide splice mutations, and 3 inseions of the KIT gene are believed to be mutations causing piebaldism. The severity of the condition correlates with the site of the mutation within the KIT gene. Piebaldism is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder meaning half of an affected person's children will also have the condition. Piebaldism is one of the cutaneous signs of Waardenburg syndrome. Piebaldism is a rare inherited condition characterised by: White forelock in 80-90% of those affected (poliosis) White patch (due to absence of pigmentation) of the central poion of the forehead Eyebrow and eyelash hair may also be affected, either continuously or discontinuously with the forelock White patches of skin may also be seen on the face (paicularly the chin), trunk and extremities (hands and feet are not usually affected) Often a narrow border of hyperpigmented skin surrounds the white unpigmented patches Sometimes islands of normal or hyperpigmented skin occur within the white patches. Albinism is a condition in which people have little or no melanin pigment (compound that creates colour) in their eyes, skin or hair. Because of this people with albinism look a little different from other members of their family without albinism. They have very fair skin which is prone to sunburn, their hair is white or a very light colour, and they may squint a lot as their eyes are sensitive to sunlight. | 4 | Pebaldism | Albinism | Vitiligo | All of the above | Skin | null | a86efc20-cdc0-4221-bcf4-1dd46d59f22c | multi |
Dentist act was introduced on | null | 2 | 27th March 1948 | 29th March 1948 | 27th March 1949 | 29th March 1949 | Dental | null | dbe050ce-c822-48de-93be-a70ed0fb50f6 | single |
A 40 year old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which of the following is the best choice of treatment for him? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Excision of tumour | 1 | Excision of tumor | Radiotherapy | Chemotherapy | Carotid aery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor | Surgery | null | f2852a59-4dbd-4568-bccb-26706fe4e82c | multi |
Branchial cyst arises due to- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft Brachial Cyst* A branchial cleft cyst is a congenital epithelial cyst that arises on the lateral part of the neck usually due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development. Less commonly, the cysts can develop from the first, third, or fourth clefts.* The cyst, usually presents as a smooth, slowly enlarging lateral neck mass that may increase in size after an upper respiratory tract infection.* Treatment is generally conservative. | 1 | Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft | Persistance of urachus | Thymus | Thyroglossal tract | Anatomy | Embryology | b42e0068-f0a8-4d38-b7f2-a68b8ce48286 | single |
Most common pulmonary manifestation of SLE: | Ans. (b) PleuritisRef: Harrisons Principle of Internal Medicine 20th Ed; Page No- 2520Most Common Complication in SLE* Cutaneous Manifestations:# The most common acute SLE rash: Butterfly" rash# Most common chronic dermatitis in lupus: Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)* Vascular Occlusions: Myocardial infarctions are primarily manifestations of accelerated atherosclerosis.* Pulmonary manifestation: Pleuritis with or without pleural effusion.* Cardiac manifestations: Pericarditis.* Hematologic Manifestations: Anemia* Renal Manifestations: Nephritis* CNS Manifestations: The most common manifestation of diffuse CNS lupus is cognitive dysfunction, including difficulties with memory and reasoning.NoteOther pulmonary Complications* Pulmonary infiltrates are seen active SLE and it is very difficult to distinguish from infection on imaging studies.* Interstitial inflammation is a life-threatening pulmonary manifestation leading to fibrosis, shrinking lung syndrome, and intra-alveolar hemorrhage.* Pulmonary arterial hypertension occurs in a small proportion of SLE patients.Cardiac complications* More serious cardiac manifestations are myocarditis and fibrinous endocarditis of Libman-Sacks.* A patient has SLE if four or more of these 11 criteria are present at any time.Diagnostic criteria for SLEMucocutaneous signs (each counts as one)* Malar rash* Photosensitivity rash* Oral ulcers rash* Discoid rashArthritisPresent in 90 percent of patients; non-erosiveCardiac & PulmonaryPericarditis, myocarditis, Pleuritis (most common pulmonary finding), pleural effusion, pneumonitis, pulmonary HypertensionHematologic (Any blood involvement counts as 1 criteria)Hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopeniaRenalIt benign from Proteinuria >0.5g/ day to end stage renal disease; such as:- Cellular casts, Glomerulonephritis, azotemia, pyuria, uremia, HTNCerebralSeizures, psychosis (may be subtle), meningitis TIA, cerebrovascular accidentSerology* ANA. It is 95 % sensitive but not specific; almost all patients with SLE have elevated serum ANA levels.* Anti-ds DNA (60-70%) or anti-Sm (Smith) (10-20%). The presence of either of these is diagnostic of SLE--very specific (but obviously not sensitive)NoteEach of the serologic abnormalities counts as 1 criterion. Hence, if the person has joint pain, a rash, and both an ANA and DS DNA, that patient would have 4 criteria.Points to RememberDiagnostic Test for SLE* Best initial test: ANA* Most specific test: Anti-DS DNA (60-70%) or anti-Sm (Smith) (10-20%)..* Rule of thumb- ANA positivity is a must in SLE diagnosis.* ANA negativity twice rules out SLE. Even though ANA positivity cannot confirm SLE - negativity can rule out.Note* There is no ANA negative SLE. But there is ANA negative scleroderma* Also Drug induced lupus - secondary to Quinidine/ Minocycline tends to be ANA negative. | 2 | Shrinking Lung | Pleuritis | Intra alveolar hemorrhage. | Interstitial inflammation | Medicine | Respiratory | 2c3b3748-4455-49f6-bbfd-c93177fde53f | single |
Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of: | Ans. a. P. falciparum (Ref: Robbins 9/e p390, 8/e p387)Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of P. falciparum."People who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait (HbS) become infected with P. falciparum, but they are less likely to die from infectionQ. The HbS trait causes the parasites to grow poorly or die because of the low oxygen concentrationsQ."- Robbins 8/e p387Host Resistance to PlasmodiumTwo general mechanisms of host resistance to Plasmodium:Inherited alterations in red cells make people resistant to PlasmodiumQ.Repeated or prolonged exposure to Plasmodium species stimulates an immune response that reduces the severity of the illness caused by malariaQ.People who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait (HbS) become infected with P. falciparum, but they are less likely to die from infectionQ.The HbS trait causes the parasites to grow poorly or die because of the low oxygen concentrationsQ.The geographic distribution of the HbS trait is similar to that of P. falciparumQ, suggesting evolutionary selection of the HbS trait in people by the parasite.HbC, another common hemoglobin mutation, also protects against severe malaria by reducing parasite proliferationQ.People can also be resistant to malaria due to the absence of proteins to which the parasites bindQ.P. vivax enters red cells by binding to the Duffy blood group antigenQ.Many Africans, including most Gambians, are not susceptible to infection by P. sivax because they do not have the Duffy antigenQ.Antibodies and T lymphocytes specific for Plasmodium reduce disease manifestations.Cytotoxic lymphocytes may also be important in resistance to P. falciparum.In the given image, irregularly shaped large rings and trophozoites are seen with enlarged erythrocytes, which are the characteristic features of Plasmodium vivax.Examination of Blood Films for Malaria ParasiteMalaria parasites pass through a number of developmental stages. In all stages, however, the specific parts of the parasite will stain a specific colour.Parts of parasiteStaining characteristicChromatin (parasite nucleus)* Usually round in shape & stains a deep red.Cytoplasm* Blue, although shade of blue may vary between malaria species.Recognition of a Malarial Parasite* Malaria parasite takes up Giemsa stain in a special way in both thick & thin blood films. Blood Smears of PlasmodiumFeaturesP. falciparumP. vivaxP, malariaeP. ovaleFeatures of red cellsSizeAll sizes/ normalLarge (young) paleSmall (Old), normalLarge (young)ShapeRound, may be crenatedRound or ovalRoundRound or pear- shaped fimbriatedStipplingMaurer's cleftsQ Large;red up to 20 Basophilic stippling +-Schuffner's dotsQ;numerous small redNone, Occasionally Zieman's dotsQSchuffner's dots, James dotQFeatures of ParasiteRing (early trophozoite)Threadlike, multiple infections, double chromatin dots form accoleQThickerQCompactQCompactQMature/Late trophozoites (amoeboid form)Absent/ occasionally seenAmeboid may fill cell-- More regular, smaller, Band formQLess ameboid &smaller than those of P vivaxDiagnostic keys Gametocyte, multiple rings, double chromatin dots, accoie forms, heavy infectionQSchizont, large RBCs, amoeboid formsQSchizont, small RBCs, band formsQSchizont and large RBCs; pear-shaped, fimbriated RBCsQ Characteristics of plasmodium species infecting HumansCharacteristicP. falciparumP. vivaxP. ovaleP. malariaeIncubation period12 days (shortest) Q14 days14 days30 days (longest) QDuration of erythrocytic cycle (hours)48 (malignant tertian malaria) Q48 (benign tertian malaria)50 (ovale tertian malaria)72 (Guatran malaria) QRed cell preferenceYounger cellsQ (but can invade cells of all ages), >2% of RBC infectedQRed cells upto 14 days oldQ, <1% of RBC infectedReticulocytesQOlder cellsQMorphologyUsually only ring forms, banana shaped gametocytesQIrregularly shaped large rings and trophozoites; enlarged erythrocytes; Schuffner's dotsQInfected erythrocytes enlarged and oval with tufted endsQ; Schuffners dotsSand ofrectangular formsof trophozoites commonPigmentBlackQYellow-brownQDark brownQBrown-blackQRelapse (hypnozoits or exo- erythrocytic schizogony)NoYesQYesQNo | 1 | P. falciparum | P. vivax | Pneumococcus | Salmonella | Pathology | Hemolytic anemia | 29735677-15e7-4b29-ae79-ab2ddeda079c | single |
Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of | null | 4 | Coagulase | Peroxidase | Bradykinin | Hyaluronidase | Pathology | null | 15b7d01c-5d0a-4fd2-a732-d83c965db507 | single |
Johne's bacillus is: | M. Paratuberculosis | 2 | Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis | M. Paratuberculosis | H. Acgipticus | Micrococcus | Microbiology | null | afb7e1cc-c579-4b43-93c9-d3ff081e08eb | single |
A 30 year ols woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be - | prolactinoma stimulate pituitary causing excessive milk secretion and it also inhibit GnRH causing decreased FSH &LH level causing secondary amenorrhea (Harrison 17 pg 2206) | 2 | Craniopharyngioma | Prolactinoma | Meningioma | Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage | Medicine | Endocrinology | 1bc4f6ce-6b4d-4798-8dfb-c6b95f196b07 | single |
Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: | Answer is D (Furosemide): Thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia while loop diuretics (furosemide) cause hypocalcemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is characteristically associated with hypocalcemia and not hypercalcemia. | 4 | Thyrotoxicosis | Vit. D intoxication | Sarcoidosis | Furosemide | Medicine | null | ec3f622e-eeda-40af-ba52-c613b3699301 | multi |
All of the following are true regarding chronic active hepatitis, except: | Chronic hepatitis is defined as a chronic inflammatory reaction of the liver of more than 3-6 months duration, demonstrated by persistently abnormal serum aminotransferase levels and characteristic histologic findings. The causes of chronic hepatitis include. HBV, HCV and HDV autoimmune hepatitis, chronic hepatitis associated with ceain medications (paicularly isoniazid), Wilson's disease, and antiprotease deficiency. Autoimmune hepatitis responds to steroids and is more common in females with 4:1 ( F:M) ratio. | 2 | Common in females | Progression to cirrhosis is not seen | Remission with steroids | May associate with autoimmune disease | Medicine | Hepatitis | 14fa16a8-1f89-4de9-9e85-f4ab360f5f2a | multi |
HLA is present on - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sho arm of chromosomes 6 o HLA complex of genes is located on the sho arm of chromosome 6. | 2 | Sho term of chromosomes 3 | Sho arm of chromosomes 6 | Long arm of chromosomes 3 | Long arm of chromosomes 6 | Pathology | null | 7baca24a-b67a-471a-9f9e-79ada427357f | single |
Hemochromatosis affect the following organs | Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16,hed, p. 2301 | 4 | Heart | Pancreas | Skin | All of the above | Medicine | Blood | 0f6e2f1d-6a4f-45d2-85a3-5ecb97c5d8fc | multi |
SSRI is first-line treatment for | In social phobia, among the antidepressants, SSRIs are currently drugs of choice, with paroxetine being the most widely used drug. Other SSRIs, such as fluoxetine and seraline are also equally effective. Fluoxetine has the advantage of a longer half-life. Other antidepressants such as imipramine (TCA) and phenelzine (MAOI), are also helpful in treating the panic attacks associated with phobias, thereby decreasing the distress. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 95 | 3 | OCD | Panic disorder | Social phobia | Post traumatic stress disorder | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | e72a3615-f212-4a79-a0f4-87aba20c0cc4 | single |
The most common site of primary osteoarthrosis is - | In general, weight bearing lower limb joints are affected more commonly than upper limb joints.
However, No textbook has mentioned which is the commonest joint : knee or hip.
According to me it is knee because of following facts :-
I have seen hardly one or two cases of primary OA of hip; while, I have seen hundreds of cases of Primary OA of knee in my OPD. At least 4 to 5 patients of primary OA of knee comes daily to my OPD.
"OA commonly affects the knee joint" —Ebnezar
"OA of hip is second in frequency to the knee joint" —Ebnezar | 2 | Hip joint | Knee joint | Ankle joint | Shoulder joint | Orthopaedics | null | d2017687-25a0-4272-907f-a1e0863c11a9 | single |
Anemia of chronic renal failure -a) Normocytic normochromic anaemiab) Erythropoietin improves the symptomsc) Dialysis causes severe anemiad) Anemia is proportional to the kidney disease | null | 3 | acd | bcd | abd | ab | Medicine | null | 19402012-e78f-4a51-bfae-2903aa13e50e | single |
The classical example of muscular violence is | B i.e. of patella | 2 | of fibula | of patella | of clavicle | all of the these | Surgery | null | f6b2ad2a-fe3d-4359-adbe-488acfaee6a0 | multi |
Which of the following sonographic finding suggests development of preeclampsia | Superabundance of chorionicvilli is implicated in etiopathogenesis of preeclampsia. | 1 | Increased volume of chorionic villi. | Extensive remodelling of spiral arterioles. | Increased invasion of extravillous trophoblastic tissue. | None of the above. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 2159a784-ce33-4e06-9ff2-49f75627c2e1 | multi |
Copper containing enzyme is | null | 2 | Catalase | Cytochrome oxidase | LDH | None | Biochemistry | null | be507d85-3a7a-4b77-86e9-ba220bc70f9f | multi |
Perl's stain or prussion blue test is for: | Perls' stain (Prussian-Blue Reaction) is to demonstrate Ferric salts in tissues. These are seen as iron granules in bone marrow macrophages, erythroblasts (Sideroblasts) and erythrocytes (Siderocytes) in blood films and haemosiderin in spun urine. | 3 | Bilirubin | Calcium | Hemosiderin | Glycogen | Biochemistry | null | 9e74ea99-cd9a-47e7-bd03-95c4f99b8d59 | single |
Secondary hemorrhage is after how many days of tonsillectomy | Secondary haemorrhage (occur from 3rd day onwards (5th to 10th day higher chances) due to sloughing of aeries caused by infection). It is the result of sepsis and premature separation of membrane. Ref : ENT textbook by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 430 | 3 | Within 6 hrs of operation | Within 24 hrs of operation | Within 3 weeks of operation | Within 3 months of operation | ENT | All India exam | 96624c60-6cfb-41f7-94ce-d9ce6c565e73 | single |
The most common cuase of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis The small scarred kidney in childhood;. Risdon RA] `Reflux nephropathy is now a generally accepted term to describe small scarred kidneys discovered during childhood; it recognises the close association between this renal lesion and vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)'. Renal scarring is most commonly a result of chronic pyogenic injection of the kidney or chronic pyelonephritis. Chronic pyelonephritis occurs only in patients with major anatomic abnormalities, such as obstructive uropathy, struvite calculi or, most commonly, VUR (in 30 to 45% of young children with symptomatic UTI). | 3 | Trauma | Tuberculosis | Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis | Interstitial nephritis | Pediatrics | null | 20255e67-c1c7-4d28-9aab-16c70c500d0b | single |
In chronic inflammation confined to the portal tract with intact limiting membrane and normal lobular parenchyma, the histopathological diagnosis would be - | Intact limiting membrane with inflammation confined to portal area is seen in chronic persistent hepatitis. | 3 | Active hepatitis | Chronic active hepatitis | Chronic persistent hepatitis | Acoholic heaptitis | Pathology | null | dab67c26-3707-4de5-8b91-30e60c3eafeb | single |
A neonate born to infected hepatitis-B mother, should be treated with: | D. Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1942-1952)"Infants born to HbsAg positive mothers should receive both Hep B Ig and Hep B vaccine at separate sites within 12 hours of birth, followed by 2nd and 3rd dose of vaccine at 1 and 6 months. | 4 | Isolation | Immunoglobulins | Hepatitis-B-vaccine | Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine | Pediatrics | Gastro Intestinal System | 238d76d9-837c-407e-8399-952a3cf3d851 | single |
Advantage of coho study ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., More than one outcomes can be studied | 4 | Involves fewer number of subjects | Inexpensive | Suitable for rare disease | More than one outcomes can be studied | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | f7aab564-8873-4d84-be7b-bc8381a4cc8c | single |
The most earliest sign of anterior uveitis is: | Ans. Aqueous flare | 1 | Aqueous flare | Keratic precipitates | Constriction of pupil | Raised intraocular pressure | Ophthalmology | null | 2271f000-f55d-4774-ab06-c11e5e29450a | single |
Ligament of Cooper, used in the surgery for femoral hernia repair, is formed by which of the extentions of inguinal ligament? | Answer-A. Lacunar ligamentIt is also called Gimbernat's ligament.From the medial end, deep fibres curve horizontally backward to the medial side of pectin pubis forming lacunar ligament.This ligament is trainagular in shape, with the apex attached to the pubic tubercle.Its sharp lateral edge forms the medial boundary of the femoral canal, which is the site of production of femoral hernia. | 1 | Lacunar ligament | Pectineal ligament | Ilioinguinal ligament | Reflected pa of inguinal ligament | Surgery | null | 6455f1b0-0aee-4ff5-8448-7b4f1ecdb05a | single |
False statement about impetigo – | Impetigo is a highly contagious (infectious) Gram-positive bacterial infection of the superficial layer of the epidermis. It occurs in two forms :-
Impetigo contagiosa (Non-bullous) → Caused by both staph aureus & streptococcus (group `A )
Bullous impetigo Caused by Staph.aureus.
Lesions of Impetigo contagiosa heal without scarring.
For treatment of Impetigo contagiosa, Systemic Erythromycin is given to cover and Staphylococcus Streptococcus.
Glomerulonephritis may occur after streptococcal skin (e.g. impetigo, ecthyma) or throat infection, whereas rheumatic fever can develop only after throat infection (not skin infection). Therefore, Impetigo can cause glomerulonephritis but not rheumatic fever. | 3 | Mostly caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus or both | It predisposes to glomerulonephritis | Produces scar on healing | Erythromycin is drug of choice | Dental | null | 77445f6f-a991-4bea-8128-852ae5b6105e | multi |
Mantoux test reading of less than 5mm indicates | Ref Robbins 9/e p371 Mantoux test is simply able to predict the presence or absent of cell mediated immunity against the tubercular antigens .it cannot differentiate between infection and disease Negative mantoux test just indicates that the individual has not been exposed to tuberculin bacilli | 2 | Tuberculosis infection | Disseminated TB | Susceptiblity to TB | Immunity to TB | Anatomy | General anatomy | 2f2b9b1e-61f7-45cb-a653-76e70b1b4583 | single |
Which Vitamin is involved in Redox reactions - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Riboflavin VitaminCoenzymeFunction as coenzymeEntity transferredThiamine (Vit B1)Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)Oxidative decarboxylation and transketolase reactionHydroxy-ethylRiboflavin (Vit B2)Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN)Oxidation and reduction reactionHydrogen atomsNiacinNicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)Oxidation and reduction reactionHydride ion (H-)Pyridoxin Q (Vit B6)Pvridoxal phosphate (PLP)Transamination, deamination, decarboxylation of amino acidsAmino groupBiotin QBiocytinCarboxylation reaction QCarbon dioxideFolic acid QTetrahydrofolate (THF)Carrier of one carbon group (other than CO2)One carbon groupPentothenic acid QCoenzyme A QAcyl carrierAcyl groupCyanocobalamine QMethylcobalamine and DeoxyadenosylcobalamineTransfer of H2 group and isomerizationAlkyl group or hydrogen atom | 4 | Pyridoxin | Biotin | Folic acid | Riboflavin | Biochemistry | Vitamins | 701efbf3-bf83-4797-87c8-3200c6632e1c | single |
A Wahin's tumour is | Wahin's tumor Is the second most common benign tumor of the parotid gland (1st is pleomorphic adenoma). It consists of both epithelial and lymphoid elements thus known as adenolymphoma (probably arises from remnants of parotid tissue trapped in lymphnodes within the parotid gland). Also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. The tumor arises only in the parotid gland. Almost always arises in the lower poion of the parotid gland overlying the angle of mandible. Common in males. (Occurs most often in older white men) Age : 5th to 7th decade. Association is seen with smoking. Bilaterality is seen in 10% cases. Its well encapsulated, extremely slow growing tumor, never turns malignant. A peculiar feature of Wahins tumor is that it shows 'hot' spot in 99' Tc-peechnate scan. Other tumors of the parotid show 'cold' spot (Oncocytomas another benign parotid tumor also shows hot spot). (Because of the high mitochondrial content within oncocytes, the oncocyte-rich Wahin tumor and Oncocytomas incorporate technetium Tc 99m and appear as hot spots on radionuclide scans.) Also remember Godwin's tumor - Benign lymphoepithelial tumor of the parotid gland. Most salivary gland tumors are benign. However remember that the smaller the salivary gland, the higher is the chance of the tumor being malignant. Parotid gland - 80% benign Submandibular, Sublingual - 50% benign, 50% malignant Minor salivary glands - 25% benign, 75% malignant | 1 | An adenolymphoma of parotid gland | A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid | A carcinoma of the parotid | A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland | Surgery | Head and neck | d9f99fbc-bebb-4db3-abff-ba9db4b085a6 | single |
Natural killer cells | Natural Killer CellsThe function of NK cells is to destroy irreversibly stressed and abnormal cells, such as virus-infected cells and tumor cells. NK cells make up approximately 5% to 10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes. They do not express TCRs or Ig.NK cells are endowed with the ability to kill a variety of virus-infected cells and tumor cells, without prior exposure to or activation by these microbes or tumors.Two cell surface molecules, CD16 and CD56, are commonly used to identify NK cells. CD16 is an Fc receptor for IgG, and it confers on NK cells the ability to lyse IgG-coated target cells. This phenomenon is known as antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). The function of CD56 isnot known.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 6; Diseases of the Immune System | 3 | Belongs to B-cell lineage | Belongs to T-cell lineage | Display cytotoxic effect on tumor cell | Requires previous antigen exposure for activation | Microbiology | Immunology | 977df036-1eb8-4de2-badd-0a23b59e225b | single |
Radioisotope used systemically in Polycythemia rubra vera. | 32p - Polycythemia rubra vera.
Rhenium -186; Painful bone metastasis. | 1 | 32p | 131I | Strontium-89 | Rhenium-186 | Radiology | null | eba12407-7ccc-4146-a72a-b37fd80cca3d | multi |
Life span of CuT 380 A is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 years o The longest life span is of CuT380A: 10 years.IUDsLife spanFirst generation:Lippe's loop (obsolete)--Second generationCopper-T--CuT-200-B4 yrCuT-2003yrCuT-220C--Nova-T5 yrMultiload - 2503 yr3755 yrCuT-3 80A10 yrThird generationProgestasert1 yrLNG-20 (Mirena)5 yr (Ref: Novak p263; Note that Park mentions the life span of mirena to be 10 yrs) | 1 | 10 years | 8 years | 4 years | 5 years | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Non-Hormonal - Intrauterine Devices | 557d6593-08fc-4abf-aa48-5a4ddbd9e594 | single |
Herpes simplex infection can lead to? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Temporal lobe involvement Pathology of Herpex simplex encephalitis:o Herpes simplex infection has a prediliction for the involvement of Temporal lobe.o The lesions in HSV encephalitis are intense hemorrhagic necrosis of the inferior and medial temporal lobe and the mediorbital part of frontal lobes.o The temporal lobe lesions are usually b/L but not symmetrical.o The distribution of the lesion is so characteristic that the diagnosis can be made by gross inspection or by their location and appearance on imaging studies.o In the acute stages of the disease, intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions are found in neurons and glial cells in addition to the usual microscopic abnormalities of acute encephalitis and hemorrhagic necrosis.C.S.F examination# Increased C.S.F pressure# Pleocytosis, cells are mostly lymphocytes# Red cells sometimes numbering in thousands and xantho chromia are found refecting the hemorrhagic nature of the brain lesions.# Protein content is increased in most cases.# Slight reduction of glucose.o Herpes simplex encephalitis is characterized bv "focal neurological symptoms"o Over 90% patients will have one of the following symptoms offocal neurological deficit, plus fever -# Focal cranial nerve deficits# Hemiparesis# Dysphasia# Aphasia# Ataxia# Focal seizure# Altered mentation and level of consciousnesso Most common area involved in herpes simplex encephalitis is "Temporal lobe"# Temporal lobe abnormalities on brain imaging are considered strong evidence for herpes simplex encephalitis.# Temporal lobe lesions are predominantly unilateral.# Most sensitive and specific investigation for HSV-1 encephalitic is MRI# In contrast, cranial CT scans have only 50% sensitivity and that too early in the disease.EEG findings in HSV-jencephalitis# Focal electroencephalogram (EEG) findings occur in >80% of cases typically showing prominent intermittent high amplitude slow waves (delta and theta slowing) and occasionally continuous "periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges ". | 3 | Frontal lobe infarction | Parietal lobe infarction | Temporal lobe involvement | Occipital neuralgia | Medicine | Infection | d5bb73ad-1472-4bc4-9a31-8e0abab3e418 | single |
Corbohydrate reserve of human body | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 350 gmCarbohydrate store of body is approximately 350 grams (70 grams hepatic glycogen and 280 grams muscle glycogen). | 1 | 350 gm | 600 gm | 950 gm | 1500 gm | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 31608513-c271-49e8-b833-7a55d2d1ab75 | single |
Which cranial nerve is commonly involved in meningeal tuberculosis infection? | Meningeal involvement is pronounced at the base of the brain, paresis of cranial nerves (ocular nerves in paicular) is a frequent finding. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1348 | 3 | 7th nerve | 8th nerve | Ocular nerve | Oculomotor nerve | Medicine | null | 802b5bec-215a-462d-b053-62c0e5af3894 | single |
A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0157 : 117 | 1 | 0 157 : H7 | 0 159 : H7 | 0 107 : H7 | 0 55 | Microbiology | null | 16640d79-bcfe-4f1f-be63-419d6a3c6874 | single |
17 D vaccine is used for the prevention and control of- | null | 1 | Yellow fever | Japanese encephalitis | Haemorrhagic fever | Dengue | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | ce68127c-5b6f-4efb-92d2-55c694331993 | single |
MRI is unsuitable for: | (All of the above) (19-Sutton 7th)MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGINGADVANTAGESDISADVANTAGES* It is non-invasive technique* It is safe as it does not involve the use of ionising radiation* There is no adverse biological effect.* Images can be readily produced in any plane eg. Axial sagittal or coronal without changing position of the patient* It gives high intrinsic contrast* Very high cost of imaging* Inability to image bone and calcium* It is unsuitable for patients with cardiac pacemakers and other ferromagnetic implants.* Imaging time is long, hence movement or motion artifacts are quite like.* Highly operator dependent, hence require technical expertise | 4 | Cardiac pacemakers | Metallic clips | Woody items | All of the above | Medicine | Miscellaneous | 2d58a218-9118-45e1-b2d6-7b01e36dcffc | multi |
Cytochrome P450 is identified to 11-ss hydroxylase is known as | Cytochromes P450 (CYPs) are a family of enzymes containing heme as a cofactor that function as monooxygenases. In mammals, these proteins oxidize steroids, fatty acids, and xenobiotics, and are impoant for the clearance of various compounds, as well as for hormone synthesis and breakdown Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:20,21,22 | 2 | CYMA-IB | CYPA-2B | CYPA-3B | CYPA-4B | Physiology | Endocrinology | 3de7ebb7-c191-4ea9-bbac-4a23d3b6025c | single |
True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non ketotic hyperglycemia is: September 2005 | Ans. D: Severely elevated Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is being diagnosed with increasing frequency in obese children with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2 DM). The syndrome is characterized by severe hyperglycemia, a marked increase in serum osmolality and dehydration without accumulation of beta-hydroxybutyric or acetoacetic ketoacids. Significant ketogenesis is restrained by the ability of the pancreas to secrete small amount of insulin. Prolonged phase of osmotic diuresis leads to severe depletion of body water, which exceeds that of sodium, resulting in hypeonic dehydration. These children, usually obese adolescents with T2 DM, present with signs of severe dehydration and depressed mental status but continue to have increased rather than decreased urine output and are at increased risk of developing rhabdomyolysis and malignant hypehermia. | 4 | No change | Mild elevation | Moderate elevation | Severely elevated | Medicine | null | d4d3c56d-5b55-49bf-845b-4128ff053407 | multi |
Premalignant bone lesion among the following is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pagets disease Paget's disease o Paget s disease is characterized by increased bone turnover and enlargement and thickening of the bone the internal architecture is abnormal and the bone is usually brittle, o Primary defect is in osteolastic. o It is marked by regions of furious osteolastic bone resorption which is followed by a period of hectis bone formation. The net effect is gain in bone mass. o It has the following three stages Initial osteocytic stage Mixed osteoclast osteoblastic stage Burned out quiescent osteosclerotic stage o Following complications can occur in Paget's Increased risk of development of sarcomas (osteosarcoma chondrosarcoma) Fractures in weight bearing bones Osteoarthritis High output cardiac failure Cranial nerve compression Otoscleosis | 1 | Pagets disease | Osteoid osteoma | Osteochondroma | Enchondroma | Unknown | null | 7183c715-5517-42cb-84bd-47d08d1d36ab | single |
Which among the following is the epithelial lining of vagina? | There are two types of stratified squamous epithelia: nonkeratinized and keratinized. Nonkeratinized epithelium exhibits live surface cells and covers moist cavities such as the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, vagina, and anal canal. Keratinized epithelium lines the external surfaces of the body. | 1 | Stratified squamous non-keratinized | Columnar | Stratified squamous keratinized | Cuboidal | Anatomy | null | afc9a7aa-ea95-4bda-adef-6c0c157909bd | single |
Drug of choice for hypeension crises in systemic sclerosis is | One of the main causes of death is hypeensive renal crisis, characterised by rapidly developing malignant hypeension and renal failure. Hypeensive renal crisis is much more likely to occur in DCSS than in LCSS, and in patients with topoisomerase 1 antibodies. Hypeension should be treated aggressively with ACE inhibitors, even if renal impairment is present. DAVIDSON&;S 22nd EDITION;PAGE NO 1113 | 3 | Beta blocker | Losaan | ACE inhibitor | Nitrates | Medicine | Immune system | 5d79dffd-dde1-4967-bc9d-0910b7926218 | single |
The conversion of an optically pure isomer into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as- | Racemic Mixture - Equimolar mixture of optical isomers which has no net reaction of plane polarized light. | 3 | a) Polymerization | b) Stereoisomerism | c) Racemization | d) Fractionation | Biochemistry | null | 124d7216-461a-4c4d-a0cd-1f13b6bce740 | multi |
Apoptosis is? | Ans. (a) Internally controlled, programmed cell deathRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /52* Apoptosis is internally controlled, programmed cell deathSalient Features of Apoptosis:* No inflammation* Cell shrinkage* Formation of apoptotic bodiesExample* PhysiologicahEmbryogenesis, Organogenesis, Men- struation* Pathological: Acute viral hepatitis- Councilman bodies | 1 | Internally controlled, programmed cell death | Externally controlled, programmed cell death | Internally controlled, programmed enzyme degradation | Externally controlled, programmed karyolysis | Pathology | Apoptosis | 5afecdc0-0cdb-4b86-bba4-c0bb343e6a39 | multi |
Posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into (JIPMER May 2019) | - There are 3 groups of ethmoidal air sinuses Anterior Middle Posterior - Posterior ethmoidal sinus is opening in lateral wall of the nose. - Lateral wall of the nose has 3 elevations called superior, middle & inferior turbinates / conchae - Under each turbinate, there is space called meatus called superior, middle & inferior meatus - Posterior ethmoidal sinus is opening in superior meatus - Anterior & middle sinus is opening in middle meatus - Middle meatus have hiatus semilunaris At front of hiatus semilunaris frontal air sinus opens The anterior, middle ethmoidal sinus respectively Maxillary sinus opens slightly posterior; In the region of hiatus semilunaris in middle meatus - Naso-lacrimal duct opens in the inferior meatus on Anterior aspect - Inferior turbinate is largest turbinate & its meatus is largest meatus - Eustachian tube opens behind inferior turbinate in lateral wall of nasopharynx | 2 | Spheno-ethmoidal recess | Superior meatus | Middle meatus | Inferior meatus | Anatomy | JIPMER 2019 | 3b909ad5-c40f-4013-85df-1a402a8b9fc4 | single |
Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Males can transmit the disease Leber's Hereditary optic neuropathv Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy is characterized by sequential subacute optic neuropathy in males aged 11-30 years. The underlying genetic abnormality is a point mutation in mitochondria! DNA. Since mitochondrial DNA is exclusively derived from mother, males do not transmit the disease and the disease is transmitted by carrier females. It is characterizeed by bilateral, painless, subacute visual failure that develops during young adult life. Males are four to five times more likely than females to be affected. Affected individuals are usually entirely asymptomatic until they develop blurring affecting the central visual field of one eye; Similar symptoms appear in the other eye an average of two to three months late. In about 25% of cases, visual loss is bilateral at onset. On examination, patients generally have bilateral impairments of visual acuity. There is centrocecal scotoma that begins nasal to the blind spot and extends to involve fixation of both sides of the veical meridian. Pupillary reactions are often normal. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows fundus abnormalities in acute phase like swelling of the disc, peripapillary retinal telangiectasia, but characteristically there is no leak from the optic disc during fluorescein angiography. Later in atrophic phase, disc becomes atrophic and pale. | 3 | Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life | It is a example of gradual painless visual loss | Males can transmit the disease | No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography | Ophthalmology | null | 7664873d-ed28-4cad-8799-4ac424bc7f63 | multi |
Radiation of 5 Gy will kill patients in: March 2013 (b, c, d, e, f) | Ans. D i.e. 4-6 weeks | 4 | 1 day | 1 week | 2-3 weeks | 4-6 weeks | Radiology | null | a83bb49c-f940-4968-910c-33b703faef2f | single |
Regarding anaplastic carcinoma which statement is false | More commonly seen in elderly women. Local infiltration is an early feature of these tumours with spread by lymphatics and by the bloodstream. They are extremely lethal tumours and survival is calculated in months. p53 mutations are found in 15% of tumors, Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg: 910 | 4 | Common in elderly | Associated with P53 mutation | Surrounding neck tissue is usually infiltrated | Radiotherapy cures | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | 9dc53c99-27ab-4e67-a660-bd33707fbb55 | multi |
A 56-year-old man is diagnosed with an extradural tumor in the posterior cranial fossa. When the patient protruded his tongue during physical examination, the tongue deviated to the right. Which of the following muscles and nerves are most likely injured? | The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue and is therefore directly involved in alteration of shape and movement of the tongue. A lesion in this nerve would cause deviation of the tongue toward the injured side, which could be observed upon protrusion of the tongue. The genioglossus is the major muscle involved in protrusion of the tongue. The genioglossus muscles arise from the inside of the mandible and pass posteriorly to insert into the deep aspect of the tongue. When the genioglossi contract, they pull the tongue forward, and out of the mouth, in protrusion. If one genioglossus is paralyzed, it acts like a brake on one side of the tongue when the tongue is pulled forward, causing the tip of the tongue to point to the nonmoving side. The styloglossus muscle is responsible for retraction and elevation of the tongue. | 1 | Right hypoglossal nerve and right genioglossus | Left hypoglossal nerve and left genioglossus | Right hyoglossus and left styloglossus | Right geniohyoid and first cervical nerve | Anatomy | Head & Neck | 6a2008ad-90b7-46ec-8b01-422d1cd3ad8e | single |
Staphylococcus differs from streptococcus by: | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Catalase test(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 200 and 8th/e, p. 196)* Coagulase test is used to differentiate the different species of staphylococci (staph, aureus, staph, epidermidis).* Catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from streptococci.* Coagulase test cannot be used to differentiate streptococci from staphylococci because certain species of staphylococci are coagulase negative (coagulase negative staphylococci) as streptococci. | 2 | Coagulase test | Catalase test | Phosphatase | Gram negative | Microbiology | Bacteria | 5f9056e8-2364-4f13-926e-7853c4a561f0 | single |
A 6-month old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had a history of itchy lesions.The most likely diagnosis is : | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scabies Vesicobullous lesion in an infant can be seen in Scabies Infantile eczema Seborrheic dermatitis The clincher here is involvement of palms and soles. This is a characteristic feature of scabies in infants * Differential diagnosis Scabies Infantile eczema Characteristic distribution: Lesions present on palms, soles and genitalia Spares palms and soles Burrows present. Absent Typical lesions in a family member May have atopic diathesis in family H/O asthma not relevant History of Asthma Infantile Seborrheic dermatitis Infantile eczema Begin in infants <3 months In infants > 3 months Asymptomatic Extremely itchy Scalp, major flexures (axillae, groins) Face, other parts of the body Family or personal history of atopy. Also, know, In scabies in adults, the scalp, face, palms, and soles are characteristically spared, but in infants scalp, face, palms, and soles are typically involved. | 1 | Scabies | Infantile eczema | Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis | Impetigo contagiosa | Unknown | null | df20a02a-2444-4503-9a36-722ccedbe7eb | single |
In tandem bullet, number of bullet/ bullets coming out of the gun is/are: | 2 | 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | Forensic Medicine | null | 6cc4ed27-ae50-44fb-8167-387e285534ac | single |
All of the following conditions may be associated with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly, Except | Answer is A (Aplastic Anemia) Splenomegaly is typically absent in patients with aplastic anemia, and if present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia should be questioned and search for another associated pathology be initiated Splenomegaly, Lymphadenopathy and Hepatomegaly in Aplastic Anemia The finding of splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy or hepatomegaly at presentation in patients with Aplastic Anemia is unusual and if present should cause one to question the diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Splenomegaly may develop later in the course of disease or after several blood transfusions. Myelofibrosis and Hairy cell Leukemia are typically associated with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly. Hypersplenism is also often associated with .splenomegaly and Pancvtopenia. | 1 | Aplastic Anemia | Hairy Cell Leukemia | Myelofibrosis | Hypersplenism | Medicine | null | 316c3d2f-0f5b-4786-9c4e-fff6eef37d71 | multi |
If both parents are sickle cell anemia patients then the likelyhood of offsprings having the disease is- | Sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive. | 4 | 10% | 25% | 50% | 100% | Pathology | null | c6f36cb1-2587-4647-863b-98835b737355 | multi |
Scotochromogens are: (PGI Dec 2008) | Ans: A (Mycobacterium Gordonae) M. Marinum & M. Kansasii are photochromogenes while M. intracellulare & M. avium are non-photochromogenes.Scotochromogens# M, Gordonae (formely M.aquae) - Often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and a rare cause of pulmonary disease.# M. Scrofulaceum - It is principally associated with scrofula or cervical lymphadenopathy, but also cause pulmonary disease.# M, szulgai - An uncommon cause of pulmonary disease & bursitis. It is a scotochromogen when incubated at 37degC but a photochromogen at 25degC.Table (Greenwood): Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agentsDiseaseUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofuiaceumSkin lesions Post-trauma abscessesM. chelonaeM. fortuitumM.terraeSwimming pool granulomaM. marinumBuruli ulcerM. ulceransPulmonary diseaseM avium complexM. kansasiiM. xenopiM. malmoenseDisseminated disease AIDS-relatedM. avium complexM. genevenseNon-AIDS-relatedM. avium complexM. chelanae A typical = Nontuberculous = Paratubercle Mycobacterium = MOTTClassified into four group by Runyon | | | | |1. PhntnchroiiiogenesProduce no pigment in dark & yellow orange pigment when exposed to light.i M.SimiaeQii M. AsiaticumQiii M. kansasiiQiv M. MarinumQ 2. Scotochromogenes: Form yellow-orange red colonies even in the darki. M. ScrofulaceumQii M.Szulagaiiii. M. GordonaeQ 3. NonphotochromogenesDo not form pigment even on exposure to lighti M. AviumQii M. XenopiQiii M. UlceransQiv M. JntracellulareQv M.Matmoensevi M. Shinshuensevii M. Paratuberculosisviii M. Sylvaticumix M. Lepraemuriumx M. terraexi M. Nonchromogenicumxii M. trivialexiii M. Haemophiiumxiv M. Genevense 4. Rapid growers: Thevare capable of rapid growth, colonies appearing within seven days of incubation at 37deg C or 25deg C.i M. ChelonaeQii M. ForuitumQiii M. SmegmatisQiv M. fiavescensQv M. VaccaeQ | 1 | Mycobacterium Gordonae | Mycobacterium Marinum | Mycobacterium Intracellulare | Mycobacterium avium | Microbiology | Bacteria | 8d8e32be-d0b8-4cce-b382-d65d00d3ebad | single |
The most common site of rupture of Abdominal Aortic-Aneurysm is | null | 1 | Laterally into the Left Retroperitoneum | Laterally into the Right Retroperitoneum | Posteriorly into the Posterior Retroperitoneum | Anteriorly into the Peritoneum (Intraperitonial) | Surgery | null | a9455f00-fdac-4ad0-8663-b432c3f84799 | multi |
A 3 month baby can do: | Social smile appears at 3 months | 1 | Social smile | Can sit without suppo | Transfer objects from right to left | Can change position from prone to supine | Pediatrics | Social and Language Milestones | 14d9cae9-2b65-4a16-9d24-7e4d66c126f1 | single |
Child of 6 weeks with Hemoglobin of 10 gm% pale on examination, diagnosis is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Physiological anemia o Physiologic Anemia of InfancyHemoglobin drops to low point at age 6 to 8 weeksErythropoietin nadir drops HemoglobinTerm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 9-11 g/dlPreterm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 7-9 g/dlo No work-up or treatment unless Hemoglobin lower than expected Other point -# Hemoglobin g/dl cut off-. (WHO/UNU-1996)# 6mo-5yr <11.0;5-11 yr. - 11.5;# 12-13 yr -12.0g/dl; Men - 13.0# Women Non-pregnant - 12.0;Pregnant -11.0 | 1 | Physiological anemia | Pathological anemia | Thalassemia | Iron dificiency anemia | Pediatrics | Anemias of Inadequate Production | eee95682-65f1-4f9b-887b-96bcad4b41ac | single |
A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is- | For the antemortem diagnosis of rabies, viral antigens can be demonstrated in the corneal smear, skin biopsy from the face or neck or saliva. | 2 | Serum for anti-rabies IgG antibody | Corneal impression smear for immunofluorescence stain | CSF sample for viral culture | Giemsa stain on smear prepared from salivary secretions | Microbiology | null | f61646b1-e81a-4592-990d-968991f1b156 | single |
All of the following are microsomal enzyme inhibitors except | Other inhibitors- Ketoconazole, Metronidazole, Allopurinol, Erythromycin, OCPs, Omeprazole | 1 | Glucocoicoids | Cimetidine | Ciprofloxacin | INH | Physiology | All India exam | 481df4bc-6b5f-4728-a35a-f3eb735d762c | multi |
Amount of radiation used in mammography - | Ans. is'b'i.e.,0.7 mSvScreening mammography and radiation A screening mammogram is an X-ray of the breast tissue for women without any breast symptoms.It uses low doses of radiation (about 0.7mSv for 4 X-rays). | 2 | 0.5 mSv | 0.7 mSv | 0.9 mSv | 1 mSv | Radiology | null | a9fe12f7-57f8-4f2d-90d0-55426043e20d | single |
The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle | The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle are: Tendons of Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus. Distal radial tubercle (Lister's tubercle) is located at the distal dorsal aspect of the radius It is a bony prominence that can be easily palpated. Function: It acts as a pulley for the Extensor Pollicis Longus tendon, changing it's mechanical direction of action. | 2 | Extensor pollicis longus | Extensor carpi radialis longus | Brachioradialis | Extensor carpi ulnaris | Anatomy | Muscles of arm and forearm region & Cubital fossa | c02c97aa-cb2d-403d-909c-efcc2d5851f8 | single |
Best imaging study for the earliest diagnosis of cerebral infarct- | Diffusion-weighted MRIDiffusion-weighted MRI detects cytotoxic edema in just a few hours of infarction. | 4 | FLAIR MRI | Non-contrast CT | CECT | Diffusion-weighted MRI | Radiology | null | d2dc91ad-da8a-4713-9f51-8499aef5a8f3 | single |
Effect of infusion of hypotonic saline? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased in both ICF and ECFAfter infusion of hyptonic saline causes a decline in plasma osmolality and a shift of water into interstial space (as water moves from higher osmolarity to lower osmolarity), causing decrease in ICF osmolality.This results in shift of water from ECF to ICF.Finally, both ECF and ICF compaments are increased (due to increases water) and osmolality of both compament are decreased. | 3 | Increased ICF only | Increased ECF only | Increased in both ICF and ECF | Increased ICF and decreased ECF | Physiology | null | 8858d292-5cd2-40f5-9d16-317e77a3d011 | multi |
Which of the following is not true about fibroblasts? | null | 2 | Secrete & Synthesize collagen | Derived from blood precursor cells | Migrate to wound along fibres used as scaffold | Large fibrin clot acts as barrier to fibroblast penetration | Pathology | null | ec87dcd0-e222-4d82-a7e1-d1cbcf831710 | multi |
All of the following structures are developed from Septum transversum, EXCEPT: | Structures developed from septum transversum:1. Diaphragm (central tendon)2. The fibrous pericardium3. The falciform ligament4. The stroma and capsule of the liver5. The triangular and coronary ligaments6. The lesser omentum The round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres hepatica) is an embryological remnant of the umbilical vein. | 4 | Coronary ligament | Falciform ligament | Lesser omentum | Ligamentum teres hepatica | Anatomy | null | 40a7ba32-30bd-4e4e-8521-f690bff12ed6 | multi |
A 40 year old male patient complains of diminished vision during night and dryness of eyes. Patient gives history of recurrent bacterial infections. Ophthalmic examination reveals white triangular plaques on conjunctiva. This patient is suffering from deficiency of: | Night blindness (nyctalopia) is one of the earliest symptoms of vitamin A deficiency. Severe deficiency of vitamin A leads to xerophthalmia. This is characterized by dryness in conjunctiva and cornea, and keratinization of epithelial cells. In certain areas of conjunctiva, white triangular plaques known as Bitot's spots are seen.
Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-123 | 3 | Vitamin D | Vitamin B | Vitamin A | Vitamin C | Biochemistry | null | 6de209bb-4110-403b-9938-375289db82ec | single |
The usual incubation period of pertusis is - | null | 1 | 7-14 days | 3-5 days | 21-25 days | Less than 3 days | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 83209a74-c40b-4769-894d-70ab48cd4e00 | single |
Which helps in the production of more glucose? | Reversal of the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase in glycolysis involves two endothermic reactions. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, Key Gluconeogenic Enzymes 1. Pyruvate carboxylase.Pyruvate Carboxylase Reaction Pyruvate in the cytoplasm enters the mitochondria. Then, carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is catalysed by a mitochondrial enzyme, pyruvate carboxylase (Fig. 9.24). It needs the co-enzymes biotin and ATP.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, Chapter 9 | 2 | Pyruvate kinase | Pyruvate carboxylase | PDH | Pyruvate decarboxylase | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | 053485fa-4a38-44a1-b70a-687af2906c74 | single |
8000 rads dosage in Cancer cervix is given to - | Ans- A a. External beam via cobalt or linear accelerator & brachytherapy (e.g. Radium, cobalt or cesium) are used in the treatment of carcinoma cervix. b. The radium dosage is calculated with respect to the amount of irradiation received at 2 theoretical points a & b. c. Point a lies 2cm above & 2cm lateral to the base of the radium tube in the cervical canal. It approximates to the position in the pelvis where the uterine artery & ureter cross. d. Point b lies 3cm lateral to point a & roughly corresponds to the position of obturator nodes. e. 8000 rads is the dosage given to point a in cancer cervix. f. The manchester method of radiotherapy for a ca cervix is a variation of the stockholm technique & uses rubber avoids loaded with radium in plate of the platinum boxes for vaginal vault. | 1 | Point A | Point B | Side walls of pelvis | None of the above | Unknown | null | ccd55f48-b485-4c42-ac56-1268633b02e1 | multi |
HPV vaccine is ? | Both bivalent and Quadrivalent Currently, there are two types of cervical cancer vaccines available Gardasil vaccine (quadrivalent vaccine) Cervavarix vaccine (Bivalent vaccine) Gardasil vaccine Gardasil is a quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine. Gardasil is the only vaccine that helps protect against 4 types - types 6, 11, 16, 18 - of HPV. - The vaccine helps prevent diseases such as cervical cancer, abnormal and precancerous cervical lesions, vaginal lesions, vulvar lesions, and genital was, caused by these strains of HPV. Gardasil contains recombinant virus like paicle (VLPs) assembled from the Ll proteins of HPVs 6, 11, 16 and 18. - Since VLPs lack the viral DNA, they cannot induce cancer. They do, however, trigger an antibody response that protects vaccine recipients from becoming infected with the HPV Ives represented in the vaccine. Gardasil is recommended to be given to females aged between 9 to 26 years Gardasil provides 98% protection against cervical pre-cancers caused by HPV types 16 & 18, which are responsible for 70% of all cervical cancer cases worldwide. Similarly, in large placebo controlled, double blind, randomized, multicentric studies, the vaccine has also been proven to be 90% effective in the prevention of genital was caused by HPV types 6 and 11, which are responsible for 90% of all genital was cases worldwide. According to the Indian Academy of Pediatrics Committee of Immunization (L4PC01) 2008 recommendations : "This vaccine has a .orable tolerability profile and the IAP-001 recommends offering HPV vaccine to all females as per label. The recommended age for initiation of vaccination is 10-12 years and catch up vaccination is permitted up to the age of 26 years. It is recommended to be given in three doses at 0, 2 and 6 months". Gardasil is usually given in the arm muscle. Three shots are given on the following schedule: - Dose 1 -? - Dose 2 --4 2 months after Dose 1 - Dose 3 -4 6 months after Dose 1 Cervarix Cervarix is a vaccine against HPV types 16 and 18, which currently cause about 70% of cervical cancer cases. - Cervarix is a preventative cervical cancer vaccine, not therapeutic; Cervarix vaccine will not block infection .from cervical cancer-causing HPV strains other than HPV 16, 18, 31 and 45. Cervarix is using the "L1 protein" of the viral capsid. The viral proteins induce the .fonnation of neutralizing antibodies. The vaccine contains no live virus and no DNA, so it cannot infect the patient. Cervari data from patients show that at 18 months after the first of a three-dose regimen, 100 percent of women up to age 55 vaccinated with cervarix vaccine had antibodies present against the two most common cancer-causing human papillomavirus types, 16 and 18. Cervarix Vs. Gardasil: which is the better cervical cancer vaccine ? Cervarix is "bivalent" -effective against only two strains of the virus-vaccine. While Gardasil is "quadrivalent" vaccine (effective against four common strains of HPV). The question now arises which vaccine to be the vaccine of choice?? On the face of it a quadrivalent vaccine seems to be the better choice. In reality that is not so - The vaccine protects against the HPV viruses 16, 18, 6, 11, of which only the .first two are responsible for cervical cancer, while the other two are responsible for genital was. On the other hand cervarix gives protection against 16 and 18. It is better because, there is cross-reactive protection against the virus strains 45 and 31, two other viruses causing cervical cancer. Cervarix is formulated with ASO4, a propriety adjuvant that boosts the immune system response .for a longer period of time. Both vaccines are against the human papillom virus but cervarix seems to be more effective against cancer cervix. Cervarix can be given to females between 10 to 45 yrs old whereas Gardasil can be given to females between 10 to 26 yrs only. Both the vaccines are given in the schedule of 0, 1, 6 months, Cervarix is the costlier one being priced at Rs.3200 per dose. "Cervarix seems to win against Gardasil because of its stronger immune response and broader protection". | 4 | Monovalent | Bivalent | Quadrivalent | Both bivalent and Quadrivalent | Pediatrics | null | 57896e7c-3419-4fdf-82a9-7bac2c5fb92a | multi |
Rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria seen in - | null | 4 | Viper bite | Heat stroke | Malignant hyperthermia | Multiple hornet stings | Medicine | null | 321bd3cc-44bf-45db-9195-e95fe30a9664 | single |
The prognosis is best in rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis associated with: | Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may occur in association with the five diseases mentioned and also with periaeritis (polyaeritis) nodosa, Wegener's granulomatosis, and essential cryoglobulinemia. Some cases arise without a known antecedent disease (idiopathic). Although the prognosis is poor in all types of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, post streptococcal disease has a better prognosis than the other types, and up to 50% of patients may recover sufficient renal function to avoid chronic dialysis or transplantation. Ref: Wyatt C., Kemp W.L., Moos P.J., Burns D.K., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 16. Pathology of the Kidney and Bladder. In C. Wyatt, W.L. Kemp, P.J. Moos, D.K. Burns, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | 1 | Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis | Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) | Henoch-Schoenlein purpura | Polyaeritis nodosa | Pathology | null | cae21cc5-b191-4ee9-8fbe-d3f083837659 | single |
Which of the following causes a dead end infection? | Ans. A. C. tetani.Since, there is no further human to human transmission, tetanus is a dead end infection.Dead end infections in humans-Tetanus, Legionnaire's disease, Leptospirosis, Lyme's diseaseRabies, JE, West Nile fever, Equine encephalitis, KFDCysticercosis, Hydatid disease, Trichinellosis, Babesiosis | 1 | C. tetani | V. cholerae | S. aureus | Hemophilus | Microbiology | Bacteria | d611f107-561b-46c6-b8a3-ea26dbf94c89 | single |
Phossy jaw is caused by- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., White Phosphorus o Phossy jaw is caused by phosphorus poisoning. All phosphorus poisoning are caused by white (yellow) phosphorus (Red phosphorus is nontoxic).Phosphorus poisoningo Phosphorus is a protoplasmic poison affecting cellular oxidation and causing anoxic necorbiosis, classically affecting liver. It increases fat deposition and inhibits glycogen deposition in liver. It is used in fire works (Diwali poisoning) and as rat poison. Lethal dose is 60-120 mg.o Phosphorus occurs in two formsWhite/yellow phosphorus: It is white, and becomes yellow on exposure to air. It is translucent, waxy, luminous and crystalline cylinders. It has garlic like odor. It is insoluble in water and luminous in dark. Its fumes show phosphorescence.Red phosphorus : It is reddish brown, inert, odourless and tasteless. It is nontoxic (thus poisoning occurs only due to white phosphorus). It is put on the sides (striking surface) of match box (along with powdered galss).Acute poisoningo It has following stages :1st Stage <GI irritation): There is nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and garlic odor. This stage lasts for 8 hours to 3 days.2nd Stage (Asymptomatic): This stage lasts for 3 days.3rd Stage : There is liver and kidney damage due to absorbed phosphorus. Initially liver is enlarged due to acute fatty infiltration. Later liver shruks due to necrosis, i.e. acute yellow atrophy.Chronic poisoningo Toothache is the first symptom which is associated with loosening of teeth, necrosis of gums and osteomyelitis of jaw. Therefore chronic phosphorus poisoning is also know as phossy jaw (or glass jaw).Postmortem appearanceo There is garlic odor. Viscera and stool glow in dark (due to luminosity).o To preserve luminosity, viscera are preserved in saturated saline solution. Rectified spirit is not used as it causes loss ofluminosity. | 1 | White phosphorus | Red Phosphorus | Arsenic | Antimony | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | 1e279b6c-588d-4bc9-95b6-1f8d309e0389 | single |
The kidney stone whose development is seen most commonly is:- | Commonest stone seen in in kidney - Calcium oxalate Other types of kidney stones : Triple phosphate - Ca, NH4+ ,MgP04 Uric acid Cysteine stones | 1 | Calcium oxalate | Triple phosphate | Uric acid | Cysteine | Pathology | Kidney disorders | 1dc227ae-ac70-4359-8d4b-5916ab9b5eb1 | single |
A 25-year-old man requests cholesterol screening because of a family history of premature coronary artery disease (CAD). His lipid levels reveal an elevated total and LDL cholesterol. The high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and triglyceride values are normal. His physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following is the most common cause of genetic dyslipidemia? | Familial combined hyperlipidemia has an incidence of 1/100. It is an autosomal dominant disorder and different affected family members may display different dyslipidemic phenotypes. Familial hypercholesterolemia (1/500) and familial defective Apo B (1/1000) are also common. The other two disorders (Apo C-II deficiency and lipoprotein lipase deficiency) are extremely rare. | 1 | familial combined hyperlipidemia | familial hypercholesterolemia | familial defective Apo B | Apo C-II deficiency | Medicine | Endocrinology | c969a7ef-dec0-4f9a-afd9-77b69cdeeb8c | single |
True about Trotters triad -a) Conductive deafnessb) Involvement of CN VIc) Involvement of CN Xd) Palatal paralysise) Associated with nasopharyngeal angiofibroma | null | 1 | acd | ad | bc | bde | ENT | null | c496e51a-8fd4-481b-828c-c725b6f434a6 | multi |
List of the charges established or agreed to, by a dentist for specific dental services: | null | 2 | Table of allowances | Fee schedule | Reasonable fee | Capitation | Dental | null | 4cf1630b-ae87-4dca-9a61-3f6193902aee | multi |
All of the following can be administered in acute highpeension during labour except | Ref - KDT7/e p572 Sodium nitroprusside is contra indicated in eslampsia | 2 | IV labetalol | IV nitroprusside | IV hydralazine | IV esmolol | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | 7254b3c4-efb8-47d6-b910-f49b241183b1 | multi |
Labetalol is an | Labetalol is a commonly used a 1 and non-selective b-adrenergic blockerDose: 200-2400mg/day, orally in two to three divided dosesIn an emergency: 20mg IV, followed by 20-80mg every 20min to a maximum of 220mg. Avoid in patients with Asthma, congestive cardiac failure, Liver failure(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 4 | Alpha 1 blocker | Alpha 2 blocker | Alpha 1 and selective beta 1 blocker | Alpha 1 and non-selective beta blocker | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | a843da51-7ae7-464f-9c2b-3bb7efe762b0 | single |
True about Ringer's Lactate - | Ringer's lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hamann's solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is an isotonic solution .it is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or low blood pressure.It may also be used to treat metabolic acidosis and to wash the eye following a chemical burn. It is given by injection into a vein or applied to the affected area Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 370 | 1 | Isotonic | Colloidal solution | Potassium level is same as that of serum potassium | Helps in acidosis by acid neutralization | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | 49764201-1e0b-4c29-9729-d5ef2b1a886f | multi |
Submandibular gland is divided into superficial and deep parts by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mylohyoid Submandibular glando This walnut sized gland lies belowr the mandible in the anterior part of digastric triangle. It is J-shaped and consists of a large superficial and a small deep parts, separated by mylohyoid muscle and continuous with each other around the posterior border of mylohyoid muscle.Superficial parto It is situated in the anterior part of digastric triangle. The gland is partially closed in a capsule formed by two layers of deep cervical fascia. It has three surfaces: (i) inferior, (ii) lateral, and (iii) medial.Inferior surface is covered by skin, platysma, cervical branch of facial nerve, deep fascia, facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes.Lateral surface is related to submandibular fossa (on mandible), medial pterygoid (insertion) and facial artery.Medial surface is related to mylohyoid, hyoglossus and styloglossus muscles.Deep parto It lies on the hyoglossus muscle deep to mylohoid. It is related above to lingual nerve and submandibular ganglion; and below to hypoglossal nerve. | 3 | Digastric | Geniohyoid | Mylohyoid | Stylohyoid | Anatomy | Salivary Glands | c866dee1-d931-48a6-8749-d3884e68fb72 | single |
Treatment of choice for genital was in pregnancy is: | During pregnancy, electrocoagulation, cryotherapy, or CO2 laser therapy should be administered at approximately 32 weeks to avoid, on one hand, post-treatment necrosis, which may last as long as 4-6 weeks, and to prevent, on the other hand, recurrence if treated too early. Podophyllin, podofilox, and imiquimod should not be used during pregnancy. Also know: Treatment of Condyloma Acuminata: Applied by health care provider Bichloracetic acid or trichloroacetic acid, 50-80% solution Podophyllin 10-25% in tincture of benzoin Cryosurgery, electrosurgery, simple surgical excision, laser vaporization Applied by patient Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel Imiquimod 5% cream (topically active immune enhancer that stimulates production of interferon and other cytokines) Ref: Bornstein J. (2013). Chapter 39. Benign Disorders of the Vulva & Vagina. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | 4 | Salicylic acid with lactic acid solution | Imiquimod | Podophyllotoxin | Cryotherapy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 6aa5d556-3305-41bf-b989-db4563d4a91f | single |
Apgar stands for: (Asked twice in exam) | ANS. C | 3 | Attitude pulse grimace activity respiratory effort | Attitude pulse grimace appearance respiratory effort | Appearance pulse grimace activity respiratory effort | Appearance pulse grimace attitude respiratory effort | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | 40fc36c5-ec55-40db-8042-635a01c0975c | single |
The false statement associated with Kaposi's sarcoma is: | Kaposi sarcoma, a vascular tumor ,induced by HHV 8. The lesions of KS are characterized by the proliferation of spindle-shaped cells that express markers of both endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells. There is also a profusion of slit like vascular spaces, suggesting that the lesions may arise from primitive mesenchymal precursors of vascular channels. KS lesions display chronic inflammatory cell infiltrates. Solid organ transplant (SOT) patients are highly susceptible to development of KS Kaposi's sarcoma is 550-1000 times M/C among SOT recipients than in normal population Mainstay treatment active Retroviral therapy. | 4 | Caused by human herpes virus 8 | Seen in immune suppressed persons | Proliferative tumor of the blood vessels | Surgery is the treatment of choice | Pathology | Immunodeficiency Disorders | 5b02dca8-07c2-4806-a2e2-06c3c16f7a3f | multi |
Which of the following is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent in a patient with cardiac arrest: | Answer is A (Amiodarone) Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent jiff resuscitation in a patient with cardiac arrest. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent for resuscitation, In patients with VF/VT that does not respond to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. Amiodarone is the first-line antiarrhythmic agent given during cardiac arrest because it has been clinically demonstrated to improve the rate of ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) and hospital admission in adults with refractory VF/pulseless VT. Amiodarone should be considered when VF/VT is unresponsive to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. If Amiodarone is unavailable, Lidocaine may be considered, but in clinical studies Lidocaine has not been demonstrated to improve rates of ROSC and hospital admission compared with Amiodarone. Procainamide may be used for stable wide QRS Tachycardia but not for pulseless cardiac arrest and must be avoided in Torsades De Pointes. Magnesium sulphate should be considered only for Torsades de pointes associated with a long QT interval | 1 | Amiadorone | Lidocaine | Procainamide | Atropine | Medicine | null | dcaa2d7b-0c25-4e12-b372-a40f48f351ec | single |
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