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Which of the following describes the reflex increase in hea rate with on atrial distension? | Bainbridge reflex: When the hea rate is slow, intravenous infusions of blood or electrolyte solutions usually accelerate the hea. Both atria have receptors that are affected by changes in blood volume and that influence the hea rate. These receptors are located principally in the venoatrial junctions: in the right atrium at its junctions with the venae cavae and in the left atrium at its junctions with the pulmonary veins. Distention of these atrial receptors sends afferent impulses to the brainstem in the vagus nerves. The efferent impulses are carried from the brainstem to the SA node by fibers from both autonomic divisions. Bezold-Jarisch reflex or the coronary chemoreflex: Activation of chemosensitive vagal C fibers in the cardiopulmonary region (eg, juxtacapillary region of alveoli, ventricles, atria, great veins, and pulmonary aery) causes profound bradycardia, hypotension, and a brief period of apnea followed by rapid shallow breathing. It can be elicited by a variety of substances including capsaicin, histamine, serotonin, phenylbiguanide, and veratridine. In human this reflex may be activated: During myocardial ischemia or, reperfusion (thrombolytic therapy) as a result of increased production of oxygen radicals. By agents used as radiocontrast for coronary angiography. It is cardioprotective by producing bradycardia, thus reduce the amount substances get absorbed into the blood Vasovagal syncope has been attributed to activation of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex J reflex or pulmonary chemoreflex: Because the C fiber endings are close to pulmonary vessels, they have been called J (juxtacapillary) receptors. They are stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung, but they respond as well to intravenous or intracardiac administration of chemicals such as capsaicin. The reflex response that is produced is apnea followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension Oculocardiac reflex: Traction on the extraocular muscles (especially the medial rectus), conjunctiva, or orbital structures causes hypotension and a reflex slowing of the HR, as well as arrhythmias Cushing's reflex: Increased CSF pressure (intracranial pressure) - cerebral aery compressed - CNS ischemia that causes hypoxia and hypercapnia in medulla, which directly stimulates the vasomotor centre - increased BP - baroreceptor mechanisms causes reflex Bradycardia. Cushing reflex causes the symptoms of Cushing triad: Bradycardia Hypeension (with widened pulse pressure) Irregular respiration (bradypnea) | 2 | J reflex | Bainbridge reflex | Cushing reflex | Bezold Jarisch reflex | Physiology | Cardiovascular System | f905dcaa-3f9b-455d-bb86-3a0d9c48991b | single |
FLT3-TKD gene is located at? | FLT3-TKD- present in approx. 30% of cases of AML. It is located on long arm of Chromosome 13. AML: Good prognosis t (15;17) t (8;21) inv 16 Poor prognosis t (6;9) inv 3 7 deletion | 1 | 13q12 | 11q23 | 11p13 | 4q24 | Medicine | AML & ALL | a8dbacc8-9492-422c-83f6-ce3f8fb92fb9 | single |
Using neem stick is an example of | null | 1 | Appropriate Technology | Equitable Distribution | Community Participation | Inter-Sectoral Coordination | Dental | null | c3568e4d-a689-46c1-9a71-993a3e20e436 | single |
Recovery in cataract surgery is fastest with which of the following - | smaller incision nd post operative astigmatism. REF:khurana,pg 199 | 3 | ICCE | ECCE | Phacoemulsification | ECCE with ICI | Ophthalmology | Lens | 4bfdd156-79dc-4a63-b90d-a2223aeec859 | single |
Intra-epithelial split is seen in : | null | 3 | Epidermolysis bullosa. | Bullous pemphigoid. | Pemphigus vulgaris. | All of the above. | Pathology | null | 45811753-971c-413c-917b-bbd678290bd3 | multi |
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder of coagulation seen only in males. It is transmitted as | Mendelian diseases and their inheritance: | 3 | X-linked dormant | Y-linked dormant | X-linked recessive | Autosomal recessive | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | e89ba6a8-289d-4b58-97e7-557e535d0422 | single |
All of the following neurotransmitters are suspected of being involved in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia except -a) Prostaglandins E b) Norepinephrinec) Ascorbic acidd) 5-HT | null | 2 | a | ac | ad | b | Psychiatry | null | 99123bf5-5cdb-4ff0-8a2e-4a3427a8e558 | multi |
Which of the following amino acid contains free sulphydryl group | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Cysteine There are two sulfur containing amino acids :?CysteineMethionineThe side chain of cysteine contains sulfhydryl group that has a pKa of approximately 8.4 for dissociation of its hydrogen sulfhydryl groups of two cystein molecules can form covalent disulfide bond to form cystine.Methionine although it contains sulfur group, does not containt sulfhydryl group and cannot form disulfide bond. | 1 | Cysteine | Methionine | Serine | Glycine | Biochemistry | null | a5fff229-91ba-439e-812f-1926dfa4ba8f | single |
Drug not contraindicated in a pregnant lady for Hypeension: March 2009 | Ans. B: Hydralazine Intravenous form of hydralazine is useful when treating severe hypeension due to preeclampsia/eclampsia. It has got a long record of safe use during pregnancy, but troublesome adverse effects occur. It decreases systemic resistance through direct vasodilation of aerioles. | 2 | Sodium nitroprusside | Hydralazine | ACE inhibitors | Indapamide | Pharmacology | null | 30b6b541-b523-4a1a-b241-8eef796868f4 | single |
Glucose is transpoed in the presence Na+ ions in intestine. This is a type of | The active transpo of Na+ into the ECF by Na+-K+ pump is coupled to the transpo of other substances across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient. The energy for the transpo is not directly derived from ATP hydrolysis. Na+ Cotranspo of glucose is an example(Ref: Diseases. Textbook of medical physiology-Geetha) | 1 | Secondary Active transpo | Primary active transpo | Facilitated diffusion | Simple diffusion | Physiology | General physiology | 249b20de-584a-4dd5-8f94-4df1bcb68a09 | single |
On routine examination, it is discovered that a 35-year-old woman had been exposed in-utero to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) administered to her mother, who had had a history of recurrent spontaneous aboion. This history suggests that the patient might be at increased risk of which of the following? | Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is the risk factor for clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix in young women with a history of in utero exposure to DES while their mothers were pregnant. | 2 | Adenomyosis | Clear cell adenocarcinoma | Lichen sclerosus | Squamous cell carcinoma | Pathology | Uterus | 002b10de-a518-4f65-8e2b-9e306be97722 | single |
The Schilling test is performed to determine the cause of - | null | 4 | Lactose malabsorption | Fatty acid malabsorption | Amino acid malabsorption | Cobalamin malabsorption | Medicine | null | 7590b14b-a134-4c84-8fb5-cc6b79ea1311 | single |
Childhood osteopetrosis is characterized by – a) B/L frontal bossingb) Multiple # (fracture)c) Hepatosplenomegalyd) Cataracte) Mental retardation | Osteopetrosis
Osteopetrosis is an autosomal recessive heredofamilial disorder in which partly calcified cartilaginous intercellular ground substance is not regularly reabsorbed & replaced by regular osteoid tissue & bone.
Manifested by :
Increased bone density masking the distinction between cortex & medulla, bone within bone appearance (Marble's bone).
Brittle bone & easily fracturability
Fracture healing satisfactory resulting in skeletal deformities.
Myelophthisic anemia
Hepatosplenomegaly & presence of immature leukocytes & normoblasts in the peripheral blood.
Growth retardation,Macrocephaly.
Thickening of cranial foramina & thus causing pressure on optic nerve & optic atrophy.
Deafness & blindness
Dental problems & osteomyelitis of the mandible.
Learning disorder but may have normal intelligence despite hearing & visual loss. | 1 | bc | c | ac | ad | Pediatrics | null | 3f63787d-7816-48fe-a623-b61ba10a3001 | single |
Refractive index of cornea is | Corneal refractive index is 1.376 | 1 | 1.37 | 1.33 | 1.42 | 1.45 | Anatomy | All India exam | 497c8405-2ab3-4ed1-bf2b-2a9410609a7a | single |
First change in a dead body is: | Greenish discolouration of RIF | 2 | Mummification | Greenish discolouration of RIF | Putrefaction | Maggot formation | Forensic Medicine | null | 75753f92-3e4a-4597-8f05-7eb4612ae324 | single |
Supports of uterus are all except | Ans. C. Broad ligamentCLASSIFICATIONPrimary supportsa. Muscular or activei. Pelvic diaphragmii. Perineal bodyiii. Urogenital diaphragmb. Fibromuscular or mechanicali. Uterine axisii. Pub cervical ligamentiii. Transverse cervical ligamentiv. Uterosacral ligamentv. Round ligament of uterusSecondary supportsi. Broad ligamentsii. Uterovesical fold of peritoneumiii. Rectovaginal fold of peritoneum Broad Ligaments:These are folds of peritoneum which attach the uterus to the lateral pelvic wall, it has anterior and posterior surfaces and upper, lower, medial and lateral borders. It contains the following structures:Uterine tubei. Round lig. of uterusii. Lig. of ovaryiii. Uterine and ovarian plexus and nerve plexusiv. Epoophoron and paroophoronv. Lymphaticsvi. Connective tissue. | 3 | Uterosacral ligaments | Mackenrodt's ligament | Broad ligament | Levatorani | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrical Anatomy | b0129be1-152c-426c-a210-03cddde1495c | multi |
Most common site of primary spinal tumor | - MC spinal tumor - Metastasis - MC primary spinal tumor - Nerve sheath tumor - MC intra - Medullary tumor - Astrocytoma - MC site of primary spinal tumor - Intra-dural; Extra medullary | 3 | Intramedullary; Extradural | Intramedullary only | Intradural; Extramedullary | Intra axially only | Surgery | CNS Tumors | ececfd67-7320-4339-96d7-5803f507a47e | multi |
Warfarin induced skin necrosis is seen in ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protein C deficiency o Warfarin - induced skin necrosis occurs in patients with undiagnosed protein C deficiency. | 1 | Protein C deficiency | Protein S deficiency | Hemophillia | Antithrombin III deficiency | Pharmacology | null | 689ccf30-8cce-477c-8161-2ff8ec748244 | single |
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy used esophageal carcinoma | Neoadjuvant chemotherapyNeoadjuvant chemotherapy is the administration of therapeutic agents before the main treatment.Neoadjuvant therapy aims to:Reduce the size or extent of cancer.Makes procedures easier and more likely to succeed.Reduces the consequences of a more extensive treatment.Single agent chemotherapyCombination chemotherapyBleomycin5-fluorouracil (5-FU)CisplatinMitomycinCarboplatinVindesine and vinorelbinePaclitaxelDocetaxelEtoposideCisplatin and 5-FU - Most widely used.Epirubicin/Cisplatin/5-FUPaclitaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUDocetaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUIrinotecan Plus 5-FUOxaliplatin/Capecitabine | 2 | Doxorubicin | Cisplatin | 5-Fu-Leucovarin | Mitomycin C | Pathology | All India exam | d1cd5c04-ce98-45b7-8141-b11f3802e444 | single |
A 40-year-old woman who is a known case of anxiety disorder and has prominent symptoms of frontal headache is being treated with a procedure in which the tension in the frontalis muscle is measured regularly. The readings are projected on to a computer screen, which patient can see. She is then taught to use mental techniques to decrease tension in this muscle. Which of the following treatment techniques does this example illustrate? | The treatment technique described here is biofeedback. In this treatment, the patient is being given ongoing physiological information, in this case the muscle tension in the frontalis muscle. With the help of his feedback, she learns to use mental techniques to control the tension and keep her muscles in a relaxed state. | 2 | Implosion | Biofeedback | Aversive conditioning | Flooding | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | 5f892117-3e89-4f00-b541-b00b4eefc67c | single |
The special stain used for treponema pallidum is | null | 3 | Giemsa staining | Gram staining | Fontanna silver | Ziel Neelson | Microbiology | null | 23ab1a89-238a-4edd-9824-a154c5b043b2 | multi |
Regarding sexual differentiation of the fetus? | Goandal development begins at 5th week of intrauterine life and Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than female."The differentiation of the gonadal ridge into the testis by 43-50 days (7-8 wks) of gestation is a rapid phenomenon that contrasts with the slower and delayed development of the ovary, which will not become apparent until 140 days (20 weeks) of gestation with the .formation of granular cells. Leydig cells are apparent by about 60 days and differentiation of the male external genitals occurs by 65-77 days of gestation. | 4 | Gonadal development begins at 5th week of intrauterine life | Y chromosome determines the differentiation of ovaries. | Female external genitalia development is completed by 10 weeks. | Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than females | Anatomy | null | 14f55294-96c2-4db8-8bf5-e8d23f4d8536 | single |
The following agent decrease gastric motility except- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Naloxone o Opioids decrease GI motility.o Naloxone is opioid antagonist (at all receptors), thus it will counteract the GI effect of opioids.Naloxoneo It antagonizes all action of morphine (sedation is less completely reversed),o It is the drug of choice for acute morphine poisoning.o It is also used for reversing neonatal asphyxia due to opioid use during labour, alcohol intoxication and to elevate BP in endotoxic or hypovolaemic shock.o It precipitates withdrawl in dependent subjects ->> can be used for diagnosis of opioid dependence,o It partly antagonizes respiratory depression produced by certain nonopioid also, e.g. N2O, diazepam.o It is ineffective orally because of high first pass metabolism - used parenterally.o It is very short acting (t1/2 1 hour in adults and 3 hours in newborns). | 1 | Naloxone | Morphine | Codeine | Pethidine | Pharmacology | G.I.T | b73d4f0f-95bb-4676-82ac-7ebff6a78a7b | multi |
Water lily appearance in chest X-ray suggestive of the following condition: | Chest X-ray finding of hydatid cyst of the lung: Dense homogenous opacity Collapsed laminated membrane produces an irregular projections in a fluid level due to rupture of the cyst- 'Water-lily appearance' Crescentic cap of air, when it communicates into bronchial tree Ref: Srb's Manual of Surgery By Bhat, 2012, Page 1205. | 3 | Bronchiectasis | Bronchopleural fistula | Hydatid cyst | Sequestration cyst of lung | Radiology | null | 55d82ff9-e362-4abd-831a-d4c411fa622e | single |
Which of the following is the most common cancer of thyroid | Papillary carcinoma is the most common malignancy of thyroid, accounts to 70-80% of all thyroid malignancies. It has the best prognosis of all thyroid cancers. Source : Sabiston 20th edition pg : 900 | 3 | Anaplastic carcinoma | Follicular carcinoma | Papillary carcinoma | Medullary carcinoma | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | 5af076ca-87ad-40b2-8b7b-706847483013 | single |
Osgood schlatter disease? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tibial tuberosity | 1 | Tibial tuberosity | Femur head | Navicular | Calcaneum | Surgery | null | f4bdbc93-73aa-4fd7-a4fc-44d1bba50b10 | single |
DOC in P. jeroveci | Drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is co-trimoxazole,with adjunctive doses of steroid if the patient has hypoxia.Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is common in immunocompromised individuals,like HIV positive patients.In P.jirovecii pneumonia,symptoms of cough and breathlessness can be present for several days or weeks before the onset of systemic symptoms or the appearance of X ray abnormalities.HRCT showing bilateral opacification is diagnostic. Reference:Davidson's Medicine-22nd edition,page no:400,688 | 2 | Clotrimazole | Cotrimoxazole | Penicillin | none | Medicine | Respiratory system | ace87d4b-02d9-4939-b177-54f6ba66af0b | multi |
Undue restlessness in a patient during the immediate post burn period is often a manifestitation of ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anxiety | 4 | Hypoxia | Hypovolemia | Hyperkalemia | Anxiety | Surgery | null | 93570cb3-b590-4c7f-a659-4d296a92092b | single |
Type D personality has been recently found to be a risk factor for: | Ans. a. Coronary artery disease Type D personality has been recently found to be a risk factor for coronary' artery disease."Type A personality (behavior pattern) includes competitiveness, time urgeny, and hostility.""Type D (distressed) personality is not oniy a risk factor for development of ischemic heart disease, it also leads to Horse prognosis following a myocardial infarction." Personality Disorder Type-A PersonalityType-B PersonalityType-D Personality* It is originally characterized by competitiveness, time urgency, hostility and anger3 (last two components are pathogenic).* Ambitiousness, aggressiveness, competitiveness, impatience, muscle tenseness, alertness, rapid and emphatic vocal style, irritation, and cynicism are other features.* Are hard working workaholics who deny emotional or physical vulnerability. Their self esteem is dependent on achievement i.e. they are impatient, achievement oriented people.* These individuals show a greater physiological reactivity (e g. BP. Heart rate) and are more likely to get engaged in unhealthy babbits e g., drinking alcohol, smoking.* And if these individuals smoke they inhale smoke for a longer time.* Associated with significantly high risk of coronary heart disease.* It includes carefree, easy going, relaxed individuals* It includes people with distressed personality who suffer from high degree of emotional distress (negative emotions /affectivity) but they consciously suppress their feelings* Type D personality is both a prognostic and risk factor for IHD.* These persons have worse prognosis after Ml with an - 4 times increased risk of sudden cardiac death, recurrent Mi and mortality.* These persons have an impaired/poor quality of life and are more likely to experience anxiety and depression (mood swings).Risk factor for cardiac disase include major depressive disorder, type D personality and ty pe A personality, (especially anger and hostality). | 1 | Coronary artery disease | Depression | Personality disorder | Schizophrenia | Psychiatry | Personality Disorders | 24d02c3f-3f3f-4ed2-a9c6-ff0ecf163b5c | single |
All of the following genetic syndromes are associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia, except: | Of all the options given Turner's syndrome is not found to be associated with increased incidence of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Down's syndrome, Klinefelter's Syndrome, Patau Syndrome are associated with AML. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine16th Edition, Page 631; Excellent Care for Cancer Survivors: A Guide to Fully Meet Their Needs By Kenneth Miller - Pg 327; Childhood Leukemia: A Practical Handbook, By Gregory H. Reaman - Pg 11 | 4 | Down's Syndrome | Klinefelter's Syndrome | Patau Syndrome | Turner's Syndrome | Pediatrics | null | a52d8314-4e54-4986-9763-836902eee7fa | multi |
RBC cast in the microscopic examination of the urine is an indicator of | (A) Acute glomerulonephritis THE GLOMERULAR SYNDROMEAcute nephritic syndromeHematuria, azotemia, variable proteinuria, oliguria, edema, and hypertensionRapidly progressive glomerulonephritisAcute nephritis, proteinuria, and acute renal failureNephrotic syndrome>3.5 gm proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, lipiduriaChronic renal failureAzotemia uremia progressing for yearsAzotemia uremia progressing for yearsGlomerular hematuria; subnephrotic proteinuria | 1 | Acute glomerulonephritis | Acute pyelonephritis | Chronic glomerulonephritis | Nephrotic syndrome | Pathology | Misc. | c21e9c93-2115-449c-a45f-9a41f926a9bc | single |
EKG finding of ventricular premature beats- | PVCs are characterized by premature and bizarrely shaped QRS complexes that are unusually long (typically >120 msec) and appear wide on the electrocardiogram (ECG). These complexes are not preceded by a P wave, and the T wave is usually large and oriented in a direction opposite the major deflection of the QRS. pvc is followed by a compensatory pause Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1435 | 4 | Fusion beat | Narrow QRS complex | AV Dissociation | Wide QRS complex | Medicine | C.V.S | 96340200-ba8a-425c-aeab-c288fc83ab1d | single |
Cardiopulmonary manifestation of hyperthyroidism-a) Tachycardiab) Sinus bradycardiac) Cardiomegalyd) Low output cardiac failure | null | 3 | a | bc | ac | b | Medicine | null | 4228433a-cba4-490a-9b04-097a8601a6fd | single |
A patient presented with a hard swelling in this right testis. All are true statements except: | Ans. (a) Trans scrotal biopsy is needed* Chevassu maneuver biopsy is done inguinal.* Transcrotal biopsy will disseminate the tumor cells to Inguinal nodes | 1 | Trans scrotal biopsy is needed | Inguinal exploration is done | High inguinal exploration should be done | Scrotal USG is done | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | e3b79ab2-495a-428d-b1b9-c26d76272f96 | multi |
Which of the following is common with Streptococcus infection? | Ref: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 8th ed. pg. 205SKIN AND SOFT TISSUE INFECTION BY STREPTOCOCCUS1. Erysipelas-diffuse infection involving the superficial lymphatics2. Impetigo-superficial infection of skin (pyoderma)3. Cellulitis-cellulitis is caused mainly by hemolytic streptococci. It specifically affects the dermis and subcutaneous fat.4. Lymphangitis* Gangrene-type of ischemic necrosis# Dry gangrene: Arterial obstruction# Wet gangrene: Venous obstruction* Pyoderma is most commonly caused by Staph Aureus | 1 | Cellulitis | Gangrene | Pyoderma | UTI | Microbiology | Bacteria | 11b6929a-7f6b-409c-a98c-59ac3a2b2225 | single |
A 40-year-old man without a significant medical history comes to the emergency room with a 3-day history of fever and shaking chills, and a 15-minute episode of rigor. He also reports a cough productive of yellow-green sputum, anorexia, and the development of right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Shortness of breath has been present for the past 12 hours. Chest x-ray reveals a consolidated right middle lobe infiltrate, and CBC shows an elevated neutrophil count with many band forms present. Which feature would most strongly support inpatient admission and IV antibiotic treatment for this patient? | Because of the development of effective oral antibiotics (respiratory fluoroquinolones, extended spectrum macrolides), many patients with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) can be managed as an outpatient as long as compliance and close follow-up are assured. The CURB-65 score is a validated instrument for determining if inpatient admission (either observation or full admission) is indicated. Factors predicting increased severity of infection include confusion, urea above 19 mg/dL, respiratory rate above 30, BP below 90 systolic (or 60 diastolic), and age 65 or above. If more than one of these factors is present, hospitalization should be considered.This patient's presentation (lobar pneumonia, pleuritic pain, purulent sputum) suggests pneumococcal pneumonia. The pneumococcus is the commonest organism isolated from patients with CAP. Fortunately, Spneumoniae is almost always sensitive to oral antibiotics such as clarithromycin/azithromycin and the respiratory fluoroquinolones. A Gram stain suggestive of pneumococci would therefore only confirm the clinical diagnosis. Exposure to influenza is an important historical finding. Patients with influenza often have a prodrome (upper respiratory symptoms, myalgias, prostrating weakness), but influenza would not cause a lobar infiltrate. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia can sometimes follow influenza. Acute lobar pneumonia, even in an HIV-positive patient, is usually due to the pneumococcus and can often be treated as an outpatient. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is usually insidious in onset, causes diffuse parenchymal infiltrates, and does not cause pleurisy or pleural effusion. Physical examination signs of consolidation confirm the CXR finding of a lobar pneumonia (as opposed to a patchy bronchopneumonia) and would simply affirm the importance of coverage for classic bacterial pathogens (i.e., pneumococci, H influenzae). Atypical pneumonias (due to Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, or Legionella) are usually patchy and do not usually cause pleural effusion. Currently recommended treatment regimens for CAP cover both typical and atypical pathogens. | 2 | Recent exposure to a family member with influenza | Respiratory rate of 36/min | Recent sexual exposure to an HIV-positive patient | Purulent sputum with gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain | Medicine | Respiratory | eacec070-a402-4eb3-845e-8452e0ee972d | single |
Pramlintide is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Synthetic amylin analogue NEWER ANTIDIABETIC DRUGS Exenatide Exenatide is a synthetic glucagon-like peptide - 1 (GLP-1) analogue. GLP-1 is an impoant incretin that is released from gut in response to oral glucose. But GLP-1 can not be used clinically as it is degraded rapidly by enzyme dipeptidly peptidase - (DPP-4). Exenatide is resistant to DPP-4. It acts similar to GLP-1 - Enhancement of postprandial insulin release, suppression of glucagon release and appetite as well as slowing of gastric emptying. It is given by subcutaneous route & used in type 2 DM Nausea is most impoant side effect. Sitagliptin This is orally active inhibitor of DPP-4. It prevents degradation of endogenous GLP-1 and other incretins, potentiating their action, resulting in limitation of postprandial hyperglycemia. It is used in type 2 DM. Other DPP-4 inhibitor is vildagliptin Pramlintide This is a synthetic amylin analogue (Amylin is a polypeptide produced by pancreatic (3-cells which reduces glucagon secretion from a-cells and delays gastric emptying). Pramlintide attenuates postprandial hyperglycemia and exes a centrally mediate anorectic action. o It is given by subcutaneous route and is used in both Type 1 and Type 2 DM. Glucomannan This is powdered extract from tuber of konjar. It is promoted as a dietary adjunct for diabetes. It swells in stomach by absorbing water and is claimed to reduce appetite, blood sugar, serum lipids and relieve constipation. Bromocriptine Recently bromocriptine has been approved by FDA, as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in type 2 DM. It has been found that dopamine alter insulin resistance by acting on hypothalmus and bromocriptine blocks O2 receptors. | 1 | Synthetic amylin analogue | Inhibitor of DPP 4 | GLP 1 analogue | PPAR gamma | Pharmacology | null | dd418072-cc4b-4cbf-9612-6c013781d955 | single |
The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in - | Plication of inferior lid retractors is done to strengthen them. This operation is performed in severe cases of senile entropion or when recurrence occurs after other procedures. It is known as the Jones, Reeh and Wobig operation. | 2 | Senile ectropion | Senile entropion | Cicatricial entropion | Paralytic entropion | Ophthalmology | null | b229e7ff-2046-4e4c-99b7-374e67773db3 | single |
A 74-year-old woman has symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion and waking up at night. Her physical examination reveals a JVP at 8 cm, extra third heart sound, lung crackles, and pedal edema. She is started on furosemide 80 mg/day for heart failure, while further investigations are performed.For the above patient with new symptoms, select the most likely acid base disorder. | Diuretics are a common cause of metabolic alkalosis. The disorder can occur in volume expanded patients in whom the alkalosis is unresponsive to sodium chloride loading, as in primary hyperaldosteronism or volume contraction with secondary hyperaldosteronism, as in this case. | 2 | metabolic acidosis | metabolic alkalosis | respiratory acidosis | respiratory alkalosis | Medicine | Oncology | a69ec1f0-17d5-42ee-b5fa-605c3ddd8802 | multi |
who is the sceintist who got noble prize for his contribution for psychosurgery | * Jacobson=================lobotomy in chimpanzees * Almedia lima+ egaz moniz===PF leukotomy * Subcaudate tractotmy======OCD * Limbic leukotomy=========OCD and depression * Anterior capsulotomy Anterior cingulotomy Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065 | 4 | erik erikson | alfred adler | manfred bleuler | egaz moniz | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | 4b0df041-afc1-4417-a87a-12f56c6505e6 | single |
In a patient presenting with diarrhoea due to vibrio cholera, which of the following will be present ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neutrophilia On laboratory evaluation there will be : Mild neutrophilic leukocytosis (neutrophilia) Elevated hematocrit Elevated BUN and creatinine Normal sodium, potassium and chloride levels. Markedly reduced bicorbonate level Elevated anion gap Acidosis (Low pH) | 4 | Abdominal pain | Presence of leukocytes in stool | Fever | Neutrophilia | Microbiology | null | ede08409-7c4c-4d8e-9826-9ecffaf0d4ae | single |
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by | Features of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Increased body temperature >38degC (>100.4degF), orConfused or altered consciousnessDiaphoresis "sweat shock"Rigid musclesAutonomic imbalanceLabile hypeension Metabolic acidosis (Refer: Kaplan and Saddock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, pg no: 995) | 2 | Bradycardia | Labile hypeension | Hypotonia | Hypothermia | Pathology | All India exam | 70b5334f-5e21-46c6-9702-60a00883a9be | single |
Treatment for clostridial myonecrosis is : | null | 2 | Amikacin | Penicillin | Ampicillin | Gentamicin | Pharmacology | null | dcefa365-acfb-4337-9290-29900a9bf39b | single |
Coicosteroids suppress: September 2009 | Ans. B: ACTHFree glucocoicoids inhibit ACTH secretion, and the degree of pituitary inhibition is propoionate to the circulating glucocoicoid level. The inhibitory effect is exeed at both the pituitary and the hypothalamic levels. The inhibition is due primarily to an action on DNA, and maximal inhibition takes several hours to develop, although more rapid "fast feedback" also occurs. The ACTH-inhibiting activity of the various steroids parallels their glucocoicoid potency. A drop in resting coicoid levels stimulates ACTH secretion, and in chronic adrenal insufficiency the rate of ACTH synthesis and secretion is markedly increased.Thus, the rate of ACTH secretion is determined by two opposing forces: the sum of the neural and possibly other stimuli converging through the hypothalamus to increase ACTH secretion, and the magnitude of the braking action of glucocoicoids on ACTH secretion, which is propoionate to their level in the circulating blood | 2 | GH | ACTH | FSH | LH | Physiology | null | 89620158-70ac-4154-bd9c-f4067a8d2fc4 | single |
Eicosanoids are derived from | EICOSANOIDSThey are 20 C compounds (Greek, eikosi = twenty), derived from arachidonic acid. Their names are:1. Prostanoids, containing1-a. Prostaglandins (PGs);1-b. Prostacyclins (PGIs);1-c. Thromboxanes (TXs)2. Leukotrienes (LTs)Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 163 | 4 | Oleoc acid | Linoleic acid | Linolenic acid | Archidonic acid | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | b3fa9be8-59f2-4dce-8cb3-3d0ddb7bd16d | single |
The end product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions is: | null | 1 | Lactic acid | Pyruvic acid | Acetoacetic acid | Oxaloacetic acid | Biochemistry | null | 79d04333-2603-44df-8b46-2c93185d7405 | single |
Kary otyping is done in which phase of cell cycle- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metaphase o To produce a karyotype, one must obtain cells capable of growth and division as karyotyping is done by arresting mitosis in dividing cells in metaphase.o Karyotyping is the study of chromosomes and is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities,o After arresting the cells in metaphase the chromosomes are examined to see for:i) Numbers - to detect abnormalities in chromosome numbers such as aneuploidy (trisomy, tetrasomy), polyploidy,ii) Structure - to detect structural chromosomal anomalies such as translocations, deletions, inversions.Karyotypingo It is the study of chromosomes,o It is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities.o A karyotype is a standard arrangement of a photographed or imaged stained metaphase spread in which chromosome pairs are arranged in order of decreasing length.o To produce a karyotype, one must obtain cells capable of growth and division as karyotyping is done by arresting mitosis in dividing cells in metaphase,o Samples used are : -Amniotic fluids (cells from amnion, skin, urogenital system, respiratory system and GI system).# Chorionic vill.# Bone marrow# Skin fibroblasts# Peripheral blood lymphocytes# Fetal umblical blood.# Lymph node tissue# Solid tumor sample | 2 | Anaphase | Metaphase | Telophase | S phase | Pathology | Cytogenetic Disorders | 440a4785-047d-466a-bd81-6c094e8728be | single |
Which one of the following lysosomal storage disorder is associated with mental retardation? | (D) All of the above# Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD, or Arylsulfatase A deficiency) is a lysosomal storage disease which is commonly listed in the family of leukodystrophies. Leukodystrophies affect the growth and/or development of myelin, the fatty covering which acts as an insulator around nerve fibers throughout the central and peripheral nervous systems. It involves sulfatide accumulation.> Like many other genetic disorders that affect lipid metabolism, there are several forms of MLD, which are late infantile, juvenile, arid adult.> Children with the juvenile form of MLD (onset between 3-10 years of age) usually begin with impaired school performance, mental deterioration, and dementia and then develop symptoms similar to the late infantile form but with slower progression.> Age of death is variable, but normally within 10 to 15 years of symptom onset although some juveniles can live for several decades or longer after onset.> Tay-Sachs disease (abbreviated TSD, also known as GM2 gangliosidosis or Hexosaminidase A deficiency) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.> In its most common variant, known as infantile Tay-Sachs disease, it causes a relentless deterioration of mental and physical abilities that commences around six months of age and usually results in death by the age of four.> Fabry disease (also known as Fabry's disease, Anderson.> Fabry disease, angiokeratoma corporis diffusum and alpha-galactosidase A deficiency) is a rare X-linked recessive (inherited) lysosomal storage disease, which can cause a wide range of systemic symptoms.Full body or localized pain to the extremities (known as acroparesthesia) or Gl tract is common in patients with Fabry disease.Kidney complications are a common and serious effect of the disease; renal insufficiency and renal failure may worsen throughout life.> Cardiac complications occur when glycolipids build up in different heart cells; heart related effects worsen with age and may lead to increased risk of heart disease.> Hypertension (high blood pressure) and cardiomyopathy are commonly observed.mental retardation is rare presentation | 4 | Metachromatic leucodystrophy | Fabry's disease | Tay Sach's disease | All of the above | Pediatrics | Miscellaneous | 326cdfc0-0002-4381-9fe2-ec91af35b2b5 | multi |
Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by | Diagnostic test for thalassemia is Hb electrophoresis. NESTROFT Test - Naked Eye Single Tube Red Cell Osmotic Fragility Test - used for screening for Thalassemia HbA1c - Used to assess long term glycemic control in diabetics (blood sugar control over past 3 months) Target cells - A feature of thalassemia, but not diagnostic Reference : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:342 | 3 | NESTROFT Test | Hb A1c estimation | Hb electrophoresis | Target cells in peripheral smear | Pediatrics | Hematology | 9fa97b8c-d9d3-4693-895c-e9b6afeb31b7 | single |
The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder is | Answer is C (TSH) : The enhanced sensitivity and specificity of TSH assays have greatly improved laboratory assessment of thyroid function - Harrison With rare exceptions a normal TSH level excludes a primary abnormality of thyroid function.- Harrison Approach to thyroid testing: Because TSH change dramatically in response to alteration of free T4 and T3, a logical approach to thyroid testing is to determine first whether TSH is suppressed, normal or elevated - Harrison | 3 | T3 | T4 | TSH | Thyroglobulin | Medicine | null | c8bcda87-63f5-4e44-8614-fe090f9ecabb | single |
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in the treatment of an acute attack of gout? | Gout is a metabolic disease process with abnormal amounts of urates in the body characterized by recurring acute ahritis. The diagnosis is verified by the presence of urate crystals in the fluid of affected joints. Treatment of an acute attack may include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicines or coicosteroids for symptomatic relief. The xanthine oxidase inhibitor allopurinol promptly lowers plasma urate concentration and is helpful in preventing recurrences. The most frequent adverse effect, however, is the precipitation of an acute gouty attack. Ref: Burns C., Womann R.L. (2013). Chapter 44. Gout. In J.B. Imboden, D.B. Hellmann, J.H. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Rheumatology, 3e. | 1 | Allopurinol | Colchicines | Coicosteroids | Indomethacin | Surgery | null | 990b1332-d986-4edc-881b-aab460bd0f50 | multi |
Which is the most common joint involved in thalassemia? | Ans. B. Knee* Most common joint involved in thalassemia is Knee joint.* Most common orthopedic symptom in thalassemia is leg pain. | 2 | Hip | Knee | Shoulder | Ankle | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | 97f6ee3d-dbee-446c-809d-c482e31fd2a3 | single |
The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is: | From the options listed in the question erythromycin is the drug used in the treatment of chlamydial infections in pregnancy. Erythromycin should be given for 7-10days. According to the latest recommendation Azithromycin 1gm as a single dose is the drug of choice in Chlamydia infection during pregnancy. As a prophylaxis to ophthalmia neonatorum 1% erythromycin ointment is applied to the infant's eye soon following bih. Neonatal infection is treated with erythromycin for 14-21days. Ref: Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition, Page 1241 ; Practical Gynecology, 2nd Edition, Page 200 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By DC Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 294-5 | 3 | Tetracycline | Doxycycline | Erythromycin | Penicillin | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | c33d940c-8646-490c-b27d-b5c74e6718dd | single |
Malignant hypehermia is caused by | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Succinylcholine + halothane | 1 | Succinylcholine + halothane | Propranolol | Lidocaine | Bupivacaine | Anaesthesia | null | 86d28be8-e596-467b-ad3b-f9fd9a4d4496 | single |
In indentation tonometry: | Ans. Lower scale readings are obtained in high intraocular pressure | 2 | Plunger indents a hard eye more than a soft eye | Lower scale readings are obtained in high intraocular pressure | Low scleral rigidity gives high reading of intraocular pressure | All of the above | Ophthalmology | null | b2c5523c-93c3-4e50-aa2b-2b05c1c58acd | multi |
Umbilical aery is a branch of | Anterior division of internal iliac aeryA pa of Umbilical aery persists as superior vesical aery and remaining aery becomes obliterated forming medial umbilical ligament. | 3 | Coeliac aery | Superior mesenteric aery | Anterior division of internal iliac aery | Posterior division of internal iliac aery | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | ae089b5b-42c2-4fd8-92eb-6dfbd02faaa0 | single |
Which one of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus | (D) Nuchal edemaINCIDENCE OF MAJOR & MINOR DEFECTS/MA Trisomy 21NormalLikelihood ratio for isolated marker* Nuchal Fold33.5%0.6%9.8* Short humerus33.4%1.5%4.1* Short femur41.4%5.2%1.6* Hydronephrosis17.6%2.6%1.0* Echogenic focus in heart28.2%4.4%1.1* Echogenic bowel13.3%0.6%3.0* Major defect21.4%0.65%5.2 | 4 | Echogenic foci in heart | Hyperechogenic bowel | Choroid plexus cysts | Nuchal edema | Radiology | Miscellaneous | 56abe362-8b87-48c7-9f9b-743a3e54394a | single |
Proper technique of endotracheal intubation involves: March 2012 | Ans: B i.e. Flexion of the neck and extension of the atlanto-occipital joint Optimal head and neck positioning while intubation is obtained by flexion of the neck and extension of the atlanto-occipital joint | 2 | Flexion of neck | Flexion of the neck and extension of the atlantooccipital joint | Extension of the neck | Extension of the neck and flexion of the atlantooccipital joint | Anaesthesia | null | d31c893b-c738-43b3-8b25-7322204bf152 | single |
Which animal is used to test pathogenicity in Cryptococcus neoformans? | CD1-cryptococcus D strain-infected mice were examined for survival and fungal loads in either brain or lung during the course of infection. Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 565 | 1 | Mice | Guinea pig | Rabbit | Monkey | Microbiology | mycology | 985e5759-85f7-4159-a88e-b34cf58d1bff | single |
A 10 year old boy complains of discoloration of upper front teeth. He was on tetracycline therapy few years ago and also gives a history of chronic productive cough. General physical examination shows increased chest diameter and clubbing of fingers. USG findings are suggestive of cystic degeneration of pancreas. Which of the following statements is FALSE with regard to the given clinical situation? | Cystic Fibrosis
The genetically altered protein affects exocrine gland function. The defective exocrine gland function leads to microobstruction of the pancreas, which results in cystic degeneration of the pancreas and, ultimately, a digestive enzyme deficiency producing malabsorption of nutrients.The defective gene products cause abnormal water and electrolyte transport across epithelial cells, which results in a chronic disease of the respiratory and gastrointestinal system, elevated levels of electrolytes in sweat, and impaired reproductive function.In the lungs, retention of mucus occurs.
Children with cystic fibrosis have a high incidence of tooth discoloration when systemic tetracyclines are taken during tooth formation. With the advent of alternative antibiotics, the incidence of tooth discoloration is decreasing. The incidence of dental caries in children with cystic fibrosis is low secondary to long-term antibiotic therapy, buffering capacity of excess calcium in the saliva, and pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy. There is a high incidence of mouth breathing and open-bite malocclusion associated with chronic nasal and sinus obstruction. Patients with cystic fibrosis may prefer to be treated in a more upright position to allow them to clear secretions more easily. The use of sedative agents that interfere with pulmonary function should be avoided, and the patient’s physician should be contacted before nitrous oxide–oxygen sedation is used in a patient exhibiting evidence of severe emphysema. | 4 | There is high incidence of open bite malocclusion in such patients. | These patients should preferably be treated in a more upright position. | The use of sedative agents that interfere with pulmonary function should be avoided. | The incidence of dental caries in these patients is high. | Dental | null | 16960a19-981f-4840-ae52-08495d1b577c | multi |
Mifepristone is not used in: | In case of threatened aboion ,patient presents with amenorrhoea followed by painless vaginal bleeding,but may sonetimes accompained by mild abdominal cramps and backache. Treatment modalities include hormobe therapy with natural progesterone is sometimes given on an empirical basis,anti D is given ,if patient is Rh negative,follow up with ultrasound is essential to detect progression to missed aboion. mefipristone is used in the other given options. Refet page 145 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. | 1 | Threatened aboion | Fibroid | Ectopic pregnancy | Molar pregnancy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | 29d127c6-12f3-41e1-9f33-e9181c476ed3 | single |
Endoscope tube is sterilized by- | null | 1 | Glutaraldehyde | Formalin | Autoclaving | Boiling | Microbiology | null | 918d1af4-1661-4a50-8f87-e2a8c1a7ec31 | single |
Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes which of the tissue changes? | Ochronosis is the bluish black discoloration of ceain tissues, such as the ear cailage and the ocular tissue, seen with alkaptonuria. Alkaptonuria is a rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder caused by deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase. This deficiency results in accumulation and deposition of homogentisic acid (HGA) in cailage, causing the characteristic diffuse bluish black pigmentation. These affected connective tissue become weak and brittle with time, leading to chronic inflammation, degeneration, and osteoahritis. Ref: Textbook of Ohopaedics and Trauma By GS Kulkarni, 2009, Page 197; Clinical Paediatric Dermatology By Thappa, 2009, Page 156; Differential Diagnosis in Internal Medicine: From Symptom to Diagnosis, 2007, Page 347 | 1 | Ochronosis | Tyrosinemia | Albinism | Tyrosinosis | Biochemistry | null | 0981a1f5-c8ec-433e-a8c0-5ab90e5af6b2 | single |
Vidian nerve is- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nerve of pterygoid canal * Greater petrosal nerve joins the deep petrosal nerve to form vidian nerve (nerve to pterygoid canal) and carries secretomotor fibres to the lacrimal gland, nasal gland, Palate gland and pharyngeal gland after relaying in pterygopalatine ganglion. | 3 | Mandibular nerve | Deep petrosal nerve | Nerve of pterygoid canal | Lesser petrosal nerve | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | ac6de9dc-ff07-4ad0-a80d-2f9c07e18922 | single |
Longest diameter of fetal skull is? | Ans. (d) Mento verticalRef : D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 94-97DIAMETERS OF SKULL* The antero-posterior diameters of the head which may engage are:DiametersMeasurment (In Cm)PresentationSuboccipito-bregmatic9.5 cmVertexSuboccipito-frontal10 cmVertexOccipito - frontal11.5 cmVertexMento-vertical: extend from mid-point of chin to the highest point on the saggital suture14 cmBrowSubmento-vertical11.5 cmFaceSubmento-bregmatic9.5 cmFace * The transverse diameters which are concerned in the mechanism of labor are# Biparietal diameter - 9.5 cm: extends between two parietal eminences.# Super-subparietal - 8.5 cm# Bitemporal diameter: 8 cm# Bimastoid diameter - 7.5 cm | 4 | Occipito frontal | Submentobregmatic | Suboccipito frontal | Mento vertical | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis | 4429d82c-a733-4050-b1ad-2f06acb3da94 | single |
Ethambutol causes | Refer Katzung 10/e p774 KDT 6/e p 742 Ethambutol causes retobulbar neuritis It can result in red green colour blindness | 1 | Retro bulbar neuritis | Deafness | Red urine | Peripheral neuritis | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | 5372f5ff-529c-4573-8a6f-bdc17382ca4d | single |
Most common cause of mediastinitis is - | null | 2 | Tracheal rupture | Esophageal rupture | Drugs | Idiopathic | Medicine | null | c9444f82-6da9-4b47-8c10-bc5fddbe0545 | single |
Mechanism of action of dipyridamole - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenosine reuptake inhibition o Dipyridamole is a powerful coronary dilator; increases total coronary flow by preventing uptake and degradation of adenosine. Remember o Dipyridamol potentiates the action of PG12. | 1 | Adenosine reuptake inhibition | Increases PGI, | Inhibits cycloxygenase | None | Pharmacology | null | 50943f9e-5734-4e4e-bc97-92f14df5c08d | multi |
Antisera are prepared from | AntiseraIs a material prepared in animalsPassive immunization was achieved by the administration of antisera or antitoxins prepared from horsesAdministration of antisera give rise to serum sickness and anaphylactic shock(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, pg no:112) | 4 | Guinea pig | Rabbit | Rat | Horse | Pathology | All India exam | acd00099-3c84-4338-b38f-0c4c38df9810 | single |
Which of the following is secondary level of prevention: March 2005 | Ans. D: Cervical pap smear checking The levels of prevention: Primordial prevention is prevention of the emergence/development of the risk factors in countries/population in which they have not yet appeared. e.g. obesity and hypeension prevention Primary prevention methods are used before the person gets the disease. Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring. So primary prevention reduces both the incidence and prevalence of a disease. Encouraging people to protect themselves from the sun's ultraviolet rays is an example of primary prevention of skin cancer. Secondary prevention is used after the disease has occurred, but before the person notices that anything is wrong. A doctor checking for suspicious skin growths is an example of secondary prevention of skin cancer. The goal of secondary prevention is to find and treat disease early. In many cases, the disease can be cured. Secondary prevention can be defined as action which halts the progress of a disease at its incipient stage and prevents complications. The specific interventions are early diagnosis (e.g. screening tests, case finding programmes) and adequate treatment. Teiary prevention targets the person who already has symptoms of the disease The goals of teiary prevention are: Prevent damage and pain from the disease - Slow down the disease - Prevent the disease from causing other problems (These are called "complications.") - Give better care to people with the disease - Make people with the disease healthy again and able to do what they used to do Developing better treatments for melanoma is an example of teiary prevention. Examples include better surgeries, new medicines, etc. | 4 | Prophylactic drug administaion | Admitting disabled child in special schools | Vaccination | Cervical pap smear checking | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | a0856131-6e08-429a-93e8-dcb92030f20f | single |
Which of the following is a rare occurrence | null | 2 | Enamel meet cementum at a point | Enamel overlaps cementum | Cementum overlaps enamel | Both never meet | Dental | null | 6cfdfee6-7e0c-4fdb-96ce-7b852ca060d3 | multi |
Perfusion pressure is | Perfusion pressure is arterial pressure minus venous pressure. | 3 | Arterial pressure | Venous pressure | Arterial–venous pressure difference | Pressure in left ventricle | Physiology | null | 93cf086e-88f0-4787-a348-79c1b868f7f0 | single |
A study comparing the behavioral and developmental changes in a normal brain with a damaged brain is: | Ans. a. Neuropsychology (Ref: www.wikipedia.org/Neuropsychology)A study comparing the behavioral and developmental changes in a normal brain with a damaged brain is Neuropsychology.'Clinical neuropsychology is the application of neuropsychological knowledge to the assessment, management, rehabilitation of the people who have suffered illness or injury (particularly to the brain), which has caused neurocognitive problems.'NeuropsychologyNeuropsychology studies the structure and function of the brain as they relate to specific psychological processes and behaviours.The term neuropsychology has been applied to lesion studies of brain in humans.Clinical neuropsychology is the application of neuropsychological knowledge to the assessment, management, rehabilitation of the people who have suffered illness or injury (particularly to the brain), which has caused neurocognitive problems. | 1 | Neuropsychology | Neurodevelopmental psychology | Child psychology | Criminal psychology | Psychiatry | Cognitive Development | 935efc93-2251-4ee0-b71a-bd7e2c447c19 | single |
Bleeding from peptic ulcer most commonly involve | Bleeding peptic ulcer MC indication for operation and principal cause of death in PUD patients The most significant hemorrhage occurs when duodenal or gastric ulcers penetrate into branches of the gastroduodenal aery or left gastric aery, respectively Incidence of peptic ulcer bleeding decreased over past decade, but Moality was stable for both gastric and duodenal ulcer bleeding, higher in patients of advanced age Cause of death: Multiple system organ failure (not the exanguinating hemorrhage) Treatment Irrigation with room temperature saline to lyse red cells in an effo to return clear fluid and to allow for the performance of endoscopy Figure of eight suture to Ligate the gastroduodenal aery. A 'U' stich is placed in the base to occlude pancreatic branches of the gastroduodenal aery Truncal vagotomy and pyroplasty is the most frequently used operation for bleeding duodenal ulcer Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1202-1203 | 1 | Gastroduodenal aery | Left gastric aery | Splenic aery | Sho gastric aery | Surgery | G.I.T | b10e65c8-8ab8-4df7-9836-2b565266775b | single |
A female developed brown macule on the cheek, forehead and nose after exposure to light following delivery of a baby, the diagnosis is | Answer is B (Chloasma): Patient has a characteristic 'brown' macule on cheek, with no history suggestive of any systemic involvement, with positive history of delivery of a baby suggesting pregnancy. | 2 | SLE | Chloasma | Photodermatitis | Acne rosacea | Medicine | null | 371f286d-8379-498b-87ea-2ee56f2a3df0 | single |
Which of the following drugs have maximum capacity to lower serum triglyceride levels? | Fibrates: maximum capacity to lower serum triglyceride levels. Statins: Max. LDL lowering capacity ANTI-DYSLIPIDEMIC AGENTS Group Mechanism Drugs Special points Statins HMG CoA reductase inhibition Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin Max LDL lowering capacity Fibrates Stimulation of PPAR-alpha Clofibrate Fenofibrate Gemfibrozil Max TG lowering capacity Bile acid sequestrants Binds bile acids in GIT Cholestyramine Colestipol Cholesevalam Safe in pregnancy and children Ezetimibe Inhibit intestinal cholesterol absorption Ezetimibe Given with statins Nicotinic acid Inhibit lipase Niacin Max HDL increasing capacity | 1 | Fibrates | Statins | Niacin | Ezetimibe | Pharmacology | Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia | 9be3cf83-0f3e-4d9b-b6d3-d0a21c94de49 | single |
Which of the following is not a Sarcolemmal P proteins? | Perlecan is a large multidomine proteolycan that binds to and cross links many ECM components and cell surface molecules Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:8,9,10 | 4 | Sarcoglycan | Dystrophin | Dystroglycan | Perlecan | Physiology | General physiology | e756791f-bb97-4080-a14a-e44151dfb28b | single |
An alcoholic was found to be dead by cardiac arrest due to hydrocution. Hydrocution is: | Hydrocution or Immersion syndrome or Submersion inhibition: Death results from cardiac arrest due to vagal inhibition as a result of, Cold water stimulating the nerve endings of the surface of the body Water striking the epigastrium Cold water entering eardrums, nasal passages, and the pharynx and larynx which cause stimulation of nerve endings of the mucosa Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th edition, Page 324. | 3 | Electrocution in water | Dry drowning | Drowning in cold water | Postmoem immersion | Forensic Medicine | null | bb8a3ac8-133b-4d43-960c-bafbf985797e | single |
In lag screw technique, what is the function of counter-sink? | To flush the obliquely place screw head with the rest of the proximal cortex, countersink is made that acts as a receptacle for engaging the end of screw head. | 1 | Assures appropriate receptacle for screw head | It is the hole made in the distal fragment that engages the screw threads | It is the hole made in the proximal segment that does not engage the screw threads | It is non functional | Surgery | null | 06516a95-23a9-4b53-bd31-4eea6e9ef274 | single |
Aplastic anaemia is common with | null | 1 | Chloramphenicol | Cephalosporin | Tetracycline | Penicillin | Pathology | null | 3965851f-3090-4671-912b-7665b052e09d | single |
Father of serial extraction philosophy in USA is | null | 2 | Kjellgren | Nancy | Dewel | Hotz | Dental | null | cd0b697f-3518-48dc-802f-5fc1a44bf87e | single |
Coffee bean sign is a radiologic finding in which of the following abdominal condition? | Volvulus refers to torsion of the bowel. It most commonly occurs in the sigmoid colon or caecum of constipated elderly adults who have redundant loops of colon on a long mesentery and are therefore at risk of the colon twisting around its mesenteric axis. Coffee bean sign is a radiologic feature of sigmoid volvulus which occur when two grossly distended loops of bowel are closely apposed their compressed medial walls forms a central cleft resembling o coffee bean. Other abdominal X ray features of volvulus are: Grossly distended inveed U shaped loop of sigmoid colon extending from the pelvis to the diaphragm with a curved inner colonic wall. RUQ pointing loop suggests sigmoid volvulus and LUQ pointing loop suggests cecal volvulus. Loss of haustral folds due to distention. Ref: Radiology at a Glance By Rajat Chowdhury, page 43. | 2 | Ileocaecal TB | Sigmoid volvulus | Ulcerative colitis | Crohn's disease | Radiology | null | 667f41c0-9c18-4576-82d9-3469aacaa066 | single |
WRONG about ileum as compared with jejunum is | Jejunum has long and sparse vasa recta as compared to ileum. Jejunum are thick walled and peritoneal windows are transparent as compared to ileum. Peyer patches are present in ileum which are absent in jejunum. Jejunum have 1 or 2 rows of aerial arcades whereas ileum have 4 to 5 aerial arcades Ileum have sho club shaped villi. Ileum have more fat in mesentry. | 2 | Sho club shaped Villi | Long vasa recta | More lymphoid nodules | More fat in mesentery | Anatomy | Small and Large intestine | 7de409bf-cd0a-429d-bd32-cc73478b5fe4 | single |
Mammalian Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except – | Protein synthesis is a cytoplasmic process.
Fatty acid synthesis starts with the production of Acetyl Co A within the mitochondria .
β-oxidation of fatty acid oxidation also occurs in mitochondria .
Mitochondrial DNA synthesis occurs within the mitochondria . Protein synthesis Process whereby DNA encodes for the production of amino acids and proteins. This process can be divided into two parts:
1. Transcription
Before the synthesis of a protein begins, the corresponding RNA molecule is produced by RNA transcription. One strand of the DNA double helix is used as a template by the RNA polymerase to synthesize a messenger RNA (mRNA). This mRNA migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. During this step, mRNA goes through different types of maturation including one called splicing when the non-coding sequences are eliminated. The coding mRNA sequence can be described as a unit of three nucleotides called a codon.
2. Translation
The ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognized only by the initiator tRNA. The ribosome proceeds to the elongation phase of protein synthesis. During this stage, complexes, composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to the appropriate codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon. The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA. Amino acids are added one by one, translated into polypeptidic sequences dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA. At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete polypeptide from the ribosome. One specific amino acid can correspond to more than one codon. The genetic code is said to be degenerate. | 4 | Fatty acid synthesis | DNA synthesis | Fatty acid oxidation (β-oxidation) | Protein synthesis | Unknown | null | 45397293-4be1-40c0-b0b6-521085dc34ea | multi |
Cluster headache is characterized by all, except: | Answer is A (Affects predominantly females) : Cluster headache affects predominantly males. Men are affected 3 times more often than women. | 1 | Affects predominantly females | Unilateral headache | Onset typically in 20-50 years of life | Associated with conjunctival congestion | Medicine | null | 51ad7498-e67c-489d-9372-7003d935e92b | multi |
Which of the following is an approach in health education: | Approaches in Health Education:
Regulatory approach
Service approach
Educational approach
Primary Health Care approach | 4 | Regulatory approach | Service approach | Educational approach | All of the above | Dental | null | 3c4a75e8-6bc1-4bc7-8fe5-d4d89672194d | multi |
Blood supply of breast: | A i.e. Internal thoracic aery; B i.e. Lateral thoracici aery; C i.e. Inter costal aery | 4 | Internal thoracic aery | Lateral thoracic aery | Intercostal aery | All | Anatomy | null | 5c2000d8-e073-4ce4-80a4-81ea457a9b18 | multi |
Which of the following is involved in transpo of large molecules from cytoplasm to the cell nucleus?(2018) | Clathrin mediated endocytosis is responsible for the internalization of many receptors and the ligands bound to them--including, for example, nerve growth factor(NGF). Rafts and caveolae,are involved in cholesterol regulation and transcytosis. Ref:- Ganong, pg num:-46, 47 | 1 | Calthrin | Caveolin | Flotillin | Impoins | Physiology | General physiology | 0c9047e5-b926-442d-b636-60c2f4852de8 | single |
The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6- phosphatase deficiency is | Purine overproduction and hyperuricemia in von Gierke disease (glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency) occurs secondary to enhanced generation of PRPP precursor, i.e. ribose-5-phosphate (a pentose).
In glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate cannot be converted to glucose. Accumulated glucose-6-phosphate is then metabolized via HMP shunt, which in turn generates large amounts of ribose-5-phosphate, a precursor of PRPP. The increased synthesis of PRPP then enhances de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides. | 1 | More formation of pentose | Decreased availability of glucose to tissues | Increased accumulation of sorbitol | Impaired degradation of free radicals | Biochemistry | null | 2c2fac42-cd92-43b1-b6aa-7ed8c9e3cdee | single |
Heimlich valve is used for drainage of | The Heimlich valve(flutter valve)is a small one-way valve used for chest drainage that empties into a flexible collection device & prevents return of gases or fluids into the pleural space.The heimlich valve is less than 13 cm long and facilitates patient ambulation. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:1116. | 1 | Pneumothorax | Hemothorax | Emphyema | Malignant plural effusion | Surgery | Cardio thoracic surgery | 6b781930-2bde-424b-9658-fa0b73086482 | single |
A 47 year old alcoholic presents with acute upper left abdominal pain with pain on palpation. The pain is referred to his back. Lab results reveal a low serum calcium level. His hypocalcemia probably reflects which of the following? | The patient most likely has acute pancreatitis, which is commonly caused by either alcoholism or impaction of a small gallstone in the common bile duct. Acute pancreatitis causes the release of many digestive enzyme precursors, which are then conveed to the active form in the damaged tissues. These enzymes degrade the adipose tissue around the pancreatic lobules, producing enzymatic fat necrosis. As pa of this process, many free fatty acids are produced that can bind as soaps with extracellular calcium in chemical equilibrium with serum calcium. This will often cause a significant decrease in serum calcium levels. Caseous necrosis is seen in granulomata produced by infection with M. tuberculosis. Coagulative necrosis preserves the outlines of cells in affected tissue. This common type of necrosis is seen in the hea following an infarct. Gangrenous necrosis is massive necrosis associated with loss of vascular supply, and is generally accompanied by bacterial infection. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 1. Cellular Pathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | 3 | Caseous necrosis | Coagulative necrosis | Enzymatic fat necrosis | Gangrenous necrosis | Pathology | null | 2e5ef67d-2a49-4c8a-ac19-ce68f946f3dc | single |
Not true about Vi polysaccharide vaccine of typhoid- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Given at birth Antityphoid vaccineso Two safe and effective vaccines are licensed and available1) The Vi polysaccharide vaccine (TYPHIM Vi Vaccine)# It contains purified Vi capsular polysaccaride from Ty2 strain.# It is given as single dose by subcutaneous or intramuscular route.# It confers protection 7 days after the injection.# To maintain protection, re-vaccination is recommended every 3 years.# It is given in individuals PS2 years of age (not given < 2 years of age).# The vaccine can be co-administered with other vaccines relevant for international travellers, e.g. yellow fever and hepatitis A.# The vaccine has no serious systemic or local side effects. There is no major contraindication, except for hypersensitivity.2) The Ty 21 a Oral vaccine (TYPHORAL Vaccine)# It is an orally administered live attenuated vaccine.# It contains > 109 viable organisms of live attenuated Ty 21a strain which lacks enzyme UDP-galactose-4- epimerase (Gal E mutant).# Vaccine is administered on 1, 3 and 5th day, Le. a 3-dose regimen.# Vaccine conferes the protection 7 days after the last dose.# The recommendation is to repeat the series (3 doses) every 3 years for people living in endemic areas and every year for individuals travelling from non-endemic to endemic countries.o The 'old' heat killed phenol extracted whole cell vaccines are not used now because of strong side effects. These vaccines were monovalent (contains S. typhi), bivalent (contains S. typhi and S. paratyphi A), and TAB vaccine (contains S. typhi, S. parathyphi A and S. paratyphi B). | 3 | Single dose is given | Revaccination at 3 years | Given at birth | Given subcutaneously | Microbiology | Enterobecteriaceae | e8c2242d-9009-4827-8101-d0c5653db213 | multi |
True about Rheumatic carditis - | Ans. is `d' i.e., Pancarditis Rheumatic carditis Seen in 40-60% of patients. o Usually seen within 3 weeks. o It is a pancarditis involving all the three layers --> Myocardium, endocardium & Pericardium. o Rheumatic carditis is the only manifestation of acute RF that has the potential to cause long term disability and death. o The diagnosis of rheumatic carditis requires presence of one of the following. Organic cardiac murmurs not present previously. Cardiomegaly Congestive hea failure Pericarditis | 4 | Only endocarditis | Only myocarditis | Only Pericarditis | Pancarditis | Pediatrics | null | e9035180-5452-481d-b478-cc0fc7ac295e | multi |
Infective dose of salmonella typhi ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 103-106 bacilli In human volunteer experiments, the infective dose was found to be 103-106 bacilli. | 3 | 10 bacilli | 1000 bacilli | 103-106 bacilli | 1010 - 1012 bacilli | Microbiology | null | e0c1998a-cf88-429b-bc8d-7561b4f6e7b6 | single |
Following are tests to confirm blood stains except | To find out whether the stain is blood or Not: 1. Catalytic color test Phenolphthalein test Oho-toluidine test Benzedine test 2. Crystal test Hemin crystal test(Teichmann's test) Hemochromogen crystal test(Takayamma test) Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 317 | 3 | Phenolphthalein test | Takayamma test | Florence test | Teichmann's test | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | ce050908-63b2-4815-989b-c8e038dd88db | multi |
Following are true of transferable drug resistance except : | Drug Resistance 1. Transferable drug resistance cannot be prevented by use of drug combinations. Drug combinations are used to get synergistic effect of antibiotics on pathogens in serious diseases. 2. Antimicrobial resistance can be of two types:-* Intrinsic Resistance: It is the innate ability of a bacterium to resist a class of antibiotics* Acquired Resistance: It is the emergence of resistance in bacteria, by acquiring the drug resistant genes either by - (i) Mutational or by (ii) Transferable drug resistance 3. Transferable drug resistance: * Multiple drug resistance at the same time* High degree resistance* Cannot be overcome by drug combinations* Virulence not decreased* Resistance is transferable to other organisms- Spread by: horizontal spread (conjugation, or rarely by transduction/transformation) 4. Transfer of plasmids during conjugation is responsible for the spread of multiple drug resistance among bacteria. -The plasmid responsible for drug resistance consists of two components, namely, F and a resistance determinant (r) for each of the several drugs. -Transferable drug resistance occurs widely among pathogenic as well as commensal bacteria of humans and animals. Plasmid is also responsible for production of colicins, the antibiotic-like substances lethal to other Gram-negative bacteria. -The plasmid that encodes for production of colicins is known as col factor and is also transferred by conjugation. | 3 | Multiple drug resistance simultaneously | Virulence of bacteria same | Prevented by drug combinations | Very high degree of resistance | Microbiology | General Microbiology (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics) | b3b6d560-b40b-47fa-8447-32db5bf6d60a | multi |
A 40-year-old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which of the following is the best choice of treatment for him? | Ans. (a) Excision of tumorRef: Schwartz 10th Edition Page 678* It is a non-chromaffin paraganglioma* 10% have family history* FNAC and Biopsy are contraindicated* Carotid Angiogram shows - LYRE sign* Excision of the tumor is the treatment of choice.* It rarely metastasize and growth is very slow hence in old age no need of surgery.* Complications of Excision:# Most common nerve injured: Superior Laryngeal Nerve# First bite syndrome: Pain with mastication# Baroreceptor failure if both side carotid body tumor is excised (Wide fluctuations in BP happens) | 1 | Excision of tumor | Radiotherapy | Chemotherapy | Carotid artery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor | Surgery | Miscellaneous | 9a8daf09-c05b-46ae-8757-e7f1419bf696 | multi |
CD4 is a marker for? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., T - cells o See above explanation. | 4 | Stem cells | All leukocytes | B - cells | T - cells | Pathology | Cells and Tissues of Immune System | 854c1cb0-67cc-4ce6-af71-c1e9dfe6740c | multi |
Neonatal complications of the fetus in a diabetic include all the following except : | Omphalitis | 4 | Hypoglycemia | Polycythemia | Hypocalcemia | Omphalitis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 3446d087-7da7-4920-8306-5d162d45d0c9 | multi |
Pneumactocele is commnly found in case of- | Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia can present with progressive dyspnoea,dry cough & fever.Chest X ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrate spreading out from hilar region.High resolution CT is more sensitive,showing typical 'ground-glass 'interstitial infiltrates.Pneumatocoeles can occur and may rupture,resulting in a pneumothorax.Treatment is with high dose co-trimoxazole,together with adjunctive steroids. Reference:Davidson's Medicine-22nd edition,page no:400. | 1 | Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia | Staphylococal pneumonia | Klebsiella pneumonia | Pseudomonas pneumonia | Medicine | Respiratory system | 35bb356a-20a4-4965-a56b-e20cde619f47 | single |
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