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Hydrogen peroxide is conveed to water and oxygen by enzyme?
Catalase, present in peroxisomes, catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (2H2O2 - O2 + 2H2O). Glutathione (GSH) peroxidases are a family of enzymes whose major function is to protect cells from oxidative damage 2 GSH (glutathione) + H2O2 - GS-SG + 2 H2O. myeloperoxidase conves H2O2 to a highly reactive compound hypochlorite Superoxide dismutase conves superoxide into H2O2 ref robbins basic pathology 9th ed page 15
2
Superoxide dismutase
Catalase
Glutathione peroxidase
Myeloperoxidase
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Hypercalciuria is seen in:
Answer is D (All of the above): Hypercakiuria may be associated with Vitamin D intoxication (hypervitaminosis D), Sarcoidosis and hyperparathyroidism. Causes of Hypercalciuria-associated Nephrolithiasis in Children and Adults Idiopathic hypercalciuria Increased intestinal calcium absorption - Granulomatous disease e.g. sarcoidosis - Hypervitaminosis D - Milk alkali syndrome Increased bone resorption Immobilization e.g. paraplegia and quadriplegia High animal protein diet Systemic acidosis e.g. distal renal tubular acidosis - Adrenocoicotrophic hormone or coisol excess - Primary hyperparathyroidism Decreased renal calcium reabsorption - Barret's syndrome - Chronic loop diuretic administration - X-linked hypercalciuria nephrolithiasis - Familial hypocalcemic hypercalciuria Systemic disease associated with chronic hypercalcemia - Williams syndrome - Primary hyperparathyroidism
4
Hyperparathyroidism
Vit. D intoxication
Sarcoidosis
All
Medicine
null
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multi
Schneider's Ist rank symptoms seen in:
D i.e. Schizophrenia
4
Delusion
Hallusination
Schizoid personality
Schizophrenia
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Killian's dehiscence is seen in -
Between these two parts of inferior constrictor exists a potential gap called Killian's dehiscence. It is also called the gateway to tear as perforation can occur at this site during esophagoscopy. It is also the site for herniation of pharyngeal mucosa in case of the pharyngeal pouch.
3
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Cricopharynx
Vocal cords
ENT
null
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single
Hypsarrythmia in a child is due to-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myoclonic epilepsy Myoclonic epilepsy may be ? i) Infantile spasm or Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome ii) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy Infantile spasm (Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome) o The onset is usually between 3-8 months of life o It is characterized by triad of ? i) Salaam spells (sudden droping of the head & flexion of arms) ii) Mental retardation iii) Hypsarrhythmic pattern of EEG (diffuse high voltage slow spike and chaotic activity) o The spasm occur in clusters usually on waking. o Prognosis for normal mental development is poor. Treatment of infantile myoclonus o ACTH and coicosteroids are given for 2-12 weeks, depending upon resonse. o Vagabatrin is the DOC Now.
3
Grandmal epilepsy
Petitmal epilepsy
Myoclonic epilepsy
Reflex epilepsy
Pediatrics
null
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single
All of the following are adverse effects of thalidomide except :
Thalidomide was banned because of teratogenic effects (phocomelia). Now it has come again in the market for use as an anticancer drug in multiple myeloma and melanoma. Lenalidomide is its more potent and non-teratogenic derivative. Thalidomide most commonly causes sedation and constipation in cancer patients. It can also cause peripheral sensory neuropathy. Two enantiomers of thalidomide (R and S) are present but these are interconvertible in the body, therefore racemic mixture is used.
1
Myocarditis
Constipation
Peripheral neuropathy
Sedation
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Neurotoxin is which snake -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Krait Type of poisoningSnakeVasculotoxicVipersMyotoxicSea snakesNeurotoxicElapids- cobra, Krait, coral
2
Viper
Krait
Sea snake
None
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
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multi
Single gene defect causing multiple unrelated problems is called?
Pleotropism refers to single gene defect causing multiple traits. Penetrance- extent to which a paicular gene or set of genes is expressed in the phenotypes of individuals carrying it Pseudodominance- sudden appearance of a recessive phenotype in a pedigree, due to deletion of a masking dominant gene Anticipation- disease manifestation worsen from 1 generation to next
1
Pleiotropism
Pseudodominance
Penetrance
Anticipation
Pediatrics
Types of Genetic Disorders
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Urinary bacterial count of 105 is insignificant, in the absence of symptoms, in all of the following conditions except -
Significant growth of a Uropathogen in the absence of symptoms is termed Asymptomatic bacteriuria. Urinary bacterial count of 105 is significant in Pregnancy. Pathogens associated with UTI most commonly in pregnancy are most commonly E coli, along with Klebsiella, proteus, enterobacter, staphylococcus saprophyticus. Since Asymptomatic bacteriuria is associated with Preterm delivery and low bih weight, then treatment is prudent choice with drugs like Nitrofurantoin, Trimethoprim (after 12 weeks), Cephalosporins like Cephalexin or penicillin like ampicillin.
1
Pregnancy
Healthy ambulatory male
In a setting of antibiotics treatment
Mid stream clean catch sample.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
5589428e-2bcc-4236-98de-17f5aa5834b8
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Elastomers are
According to Chemistry Chemically, there are four kinds of elastomers: Polysulfide Condensation polymerizing silicones Addition polymerizing silicones Polyether
3
Alginate
Agar
Polyethers
Impression compound
Dental
null
a0728f6c-8d2b-4823-9959-788773e6dd66
single
Cotton fever is due to the abuse of:
COTTON FEVER : Fever developing due to injection of a water extract of the cotton remaining after the heroin supply is used in a "bag"
2
Amphetamine
Heroin
Phencylidine
Cocaine
Forensic Medicine
Drug Abuse
202d763e-20b8-40ce-b440-5fbc875c8df6
single
What causes both destruction of bone and reduction of joint space?
(a)TB in spine involves- 2 Vertebra (Bone) + Disk (Cartilage)- Paradiscal- Anterior (to spinal cord)Note: Involvement of posterior elements and single vertebra is relatively rare in TB.
1
Tuberculosis
Metastasis
Multiple myeloma
Lymphoma
Orthopaedics
TB of the Spine
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multi
The commonest malignant tumour of the lids is
MALIGNANT TUMOURS Basal-cell carcinoma It is the commonest malignant tumour of the lids (90%) usually seen in elderly people. It is locally malignant and involves most commonly lower lid (50%) followed by medial canthus (25%), upper lid (10-15%) and outer canthus (5-10%). Clinical features: It may present in four forms: Noduloulcerative basal cell carcinoma is the most common presentation. It stas as a small nodule which undergoes central ulceration with pearly rolled margins. The tumour grows by burrowing and destroying the tissues locally like a rodent and hence the name rodent ulcer. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-360
1
Basal-cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Melanocarcinoma
Ophthalmology
Tumors
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How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed from the Gut:
null
4
20%
50%
80%
100%
Dental
null
91a52612-02f4-416e-af79-76a08ba16695
single
Point B in the treatment of carcinoma cervix receives the following dose of:
Two important points in the radiotherapy of cancer cervix are
2
7000 cGy
6000 cGy
5000 cGy
10,000 cGy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
09961acd-c3fa-44e2-9e40-fa13b40dae37
single
A 40-year old alcoholic develops cough and fever. Chest X-ray show an air-fluid level in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. The most likely etiologic agent is:
Ans. D. AnaerobesOf the organisms listed, only anaerobic infection is likely to cause a necrotizing process Type III pneumococci have been reported to cause cavitary disease, but this is unusual. The location of the infiltrate suggests aspiration, also making anaerobic infection most likely. The superior segment of the right lower lobe is the one most likely to develop an aspiration pneumonia.
4
Strept. pneumoniae
H influenzae
Legionella
Anaerobes
Medicine
Respiratory
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Myoclonus in children is best treated by :
null
2
Clonazepam
Sodium Valproate
Phenobarbitone
Ethosuximide
Pharmacology
null
9ab58cad-4387-4ce8-bfcd-e19fb7062653
single
The antidote of poisoning due to Arninanita muscaria is
D i.e. Atropine Amanita muscaria & Amanita phalloides are poisonous mushrooms with parasympathetic (Cholinergic) symptoms. So AtropineQ is used as antidote in severe cases; but avoided in mild case as it excerhates delirium.
4
Physostigmine
Amyl nitrate
Methylene blue
Atropine
Forensic Medicine
null
dd42a7b8-a020-4c0d-bf74-17392546c167
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Baonella quintana causes:
Ans. is. 'a' i. e., Trench fever
1
Trench fever
Scrub typhus
Endemic typhus
Epidemic typhus
Microbiology
null
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single
The main poion of the ovarian aery, vein, and nerves are carried to and from the ovary by way of the:
The suspensory ligament attaches the ovary to the pelvic wall and carries within its folds the main poion of the ovarian vessels and nerves. The ovarian ligament attaches the inferior pole of the ovary to the uterus. The broad ligament is a double-fold of parietal peritoneum, which hangs over the uterus (mesentery of the uterus) and connects lateral margins of the uterus with the side wall of the pelvis. The mesovarium, the posterior extension of the broad ligament, suppos the ovary and becomes continuous with the serosa (or germinal epithelium) of the ovary. The mesosalpinx, which is the superior limit of the broad ligament, suppos the uterine tube. Some branches of the ovarian vessels lie within the mesosalpinx. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 2. Maternal Anatomy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
1
Suspensory ligament
Ovarian ligament
Broad ligament
Mesovarium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Barr body is absent in -
Ans. is 'b' i. e., Turner Barr body (Sex- chromatin)o It is a densely staining inactivated condensed 'X' chromosome that is present in each somatic cells of female,o It is found in the nucleus.o It is used as a test of genetic femaleness - it is possible to determine the genetic sex of an individual according as to whether there is a chromatin mass present on the inner surface of the nuclear membrane of cells with resting or internment nuclei. Remember following fact and the question will seem very easy.o Chromatid body (Barr body or sex chromatin) is derived from one of the two X-chromosomes which becomes inactivated.o The numer of Barr bodies is thus one less than the number of X-chromosomes.Now see each option one by oneo Kleinefelter's syndrome (XXY) - Two 'X' chromosomes - 1 Barr body (2-1).o Turner syndrome (XO) - one 'X' chromosome -No Barr body (1-1 =0).o Superfemale (XXX) - Three 'X' chromosome -2 Barr bodies (2-1).Note-o Barr body is found in female but :-Kleinefelter syndrome is male with Barr body.Turner syndrome is female without Barr body.
2
Kleinfelter
Turner
Super female
None of the above
Pathology
Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects
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multi
Which of the following is most likely to produce a junctional scotoma
Junctional scotoma is due to lesion at junction of Optic nerve and chiasma. Which is m/c due to meningioma.
1
Meningioma
Craniopharyngioma
Pituitary gland enlargement
All the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Perversion with pain to self: TN 09; Maharashtra 11
Ans. Masochism
4
Transvestism
Fetishism
Sadism
Masochism
Forensic Medicine
null
b0e0db62-2e78-4597-8d7b-66b7fcc63104
single
Which of the following H1 blocker has high anticholinergic activity :
null
2
Cetirizine
Chlorpheniramine
Fexofenadine
Astemizole
Pharmacology
null
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single
In acute inflammation endothelial retraction leads to
ref Robbins 8/e p45,9/ep74 Several mechanisms may contribute to increased vascu- lar permeability in acute inflammatory reactions: * Endothelial cell contraction leading to intercellular gaps in postcapillary venules is the most common cause of increased vascular permeability. Endothelial cell con- traction occurs rapidly after binding of histamine, bra- dykinin, leukotrienes, and many other mediators to specific receptors, and is usually sho-lived (15 to 30 minutes). A slower and more prolonged retraction of endothelial cells, resulting from changes in the cytoskel- eton, may be induced by cytokines such as tumor necro- sis factor (TNF) and interleukin-1 (IL-1). This reaction may take 4 to 6 hours to develop after the initial trigger and persist for 24 hours or more. * Endothelial injury results in vascular leakage by causing endothelial cell necrosis and detachment. Endothelial cells are damaged after severe injury such as with burns and some infections. In most cases, leakage begins immediately after the injury and persists for several hours (or days) until the damaged vessels are throm- bosed or repaired. Venules, capillaries, and aerioles can all be affected, depending on the site of the injury. Direct injury to endothelial cells may also induce a delayed prolonged leakage that begins after a delay of 2 to 12 hours, lasts for several hours or even days, and involves venules and capillaries. Examples are mild to moderate thermal injury, ceain bacterial toxins, and x- or ultraviolet irradiation (i.e., the sunburn that has spoiled many an evening after a day in the sun). Endo- thelial cells may also be damaged as a consequence of leukocyte accumulation along the vessel wall. Activated leukocytes release many toxic mediators, discussed later, that may cause endothelial injury or detachment.
3
Delayed transient increase in permeability
Immediate transient increase in permeability
Delayed prolonged increase in permeability
Immediate transient decrease in permeability
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Aery of anatomical snuffbox?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., RadialAnatomical Snuffbox Triangular depression on the dorsal and radial aspect of the hand become visible when thumb is fully extended. BoundariesMedial/Posterior--Tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.Lateral/Anterior--Tendon of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus.Roof--Skin and fascia with beginning of cephalic vein and crossed by superficial branch of the radial nerve. Floor--Styloid process of radius, trapezium, scaphoid and base of 1st metacarpal.Contents--The radial aery.
1
Radial
Ulnar
Brachial
None
Anatomy
null
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multi
Cysticercosis cellulosae causes infection with
null
3
Taenia saginata
Echinococcus granulosus
Taenia solium
Diphyllobothrium latum
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Which of the following can be given orally?
MESNA ,is a drug used to reduce the undesired side effects of ceain chemotherapy drugs. It is referred to as a "chemoprotectant." and prophylactic agent used to reduce the incidence of ifosfamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis. How this drug is given: As an injection or infusion through the vein (intravenous, IV). This is given with or after the chemotherapy drug has been given. As a pill by mouth. Comes in 400mg tablet size. Recommended that it is taken with strong tasting liquid to mask the taste. If not taken as tablet, solution is made using carbonated beverage, juice or milk. REFERENCE: www.mayoclinic.org, www.chemocare.com
4
Cytosine arabinoside
Cisplatin
Doxorubicin
Mesna
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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This cream is appropriate for all of the following procedures Except
EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) is a eutectic mixture of 5 percent lidocaine and prilocaine that is used to produce anesthesia over intact skin. Its primary use is to produce anesthesia before venipuncture and lumbar puncture. In other settings, this cream has been used for anesthesia of split-thickness graft donor sites, curettage of molluscum contagiosum, cautery of genital was, and myringotomy. EMLA is not recommended for topical anesthesia of lacerations because it induces an exaggerated inflammatory response, thereby damaging host defenses and inviting the development of infection.
2
Venipuncture
Laceration repair
Lumbar puncture
Myringotomy
Anaesthesia
Anaesthesia of special situations
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Not a fungal infection is:
Ans: A (Mycoses fungoides) Ref: Rook's Dermatology, 8th ed.Explanation:Mycosis Fungoides/Sezary SyndromeMycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome are different manifestations of a tumor of CD4+ helper T cellsClinically, the cutaneous lesions of mycosis fungoides typically progress through three somewhat distinct stages, an inflammatory premycotic phase, a plaque phase, and a tumor phaseHistologically, the epidermis and upper dermis are infiltrated by neoplastic T cells, which often have a cerebriform appearance due to marked infolding of the nuclear membrane.Sezary syndrome is a variant in which skin involvement is manifested as a generalized exfoliative erythroderma.In contrast to mycosis fungoides, the skin lesions rarely proceed to tumefaction, and there is an associated leukemia of "Sezary" cells with characteristic cerebriform nuclei.The tumor cells express the adhesion molecule CLA and the chemokine receptors CCR4 and CCR10Transformation to aggressive T-cell lymphoma occurs occasionally as a terminal event.FUNGAL INFECTIONSNatural defence against fungiFatty acid content of the skinpH of the skin, mucosal surfaces and body fluidsEpidermal turnoverNormal floraPredisposing factorsTropical climate, Manual labour populationLow socioeconomic status. Profuse sweatingFriction with clothes, synthetic innerwearMalnourishment, Immunosuppressed patientsHIV, Congenital Immunodeficiencies, patients on corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs. DiabetesFungal Infections: ClassificationSuperficial cutaneous:Surface infections eg. P.versicolor, Dermato- phytosis. Candidiasis, T.nigra, PiedraSubcutaneous:Mycetoma, Chromoblastomycosis, SporotrichosisSystemic (opportunistic infection)Histoplasmosis, CandidiasisOf these categories, Demiatophvtosis, P.versicolor, Candidiasis are common in daily practicePityriasis versicolorEtiologic agent: Malassezia furfurClinical Features:Multiple, discrete, discoloured, macules.Fawn, brown, grey or hypopigmentedPinhead sized to large sheets of discolourationSeborrheic areas, upper half of body: trunk, arms, neck, abdomen.Scratch sign positiveWood's Lamp examination: Yellow fluoro-scenceKOH preparation: Spaghetti and meatball appearanceCoarse mycelium, fragmented to short filaments 2-5 micron wide and up to 2-5 micron long, together with spherical, thick-walled yeasts 2-8 micron in diameter, arranged in grape like fashion.TreatmentTopical:Ketoconazole. Clotrimazole. Miconazole, Bifonazole, Oxiconazole, Butenafine.Terbinafine. Selenium sulfide. Sodium thiosulphateOral:Fluconamg 4(X)mg single doseKetoconazole 2(X)mg OD x I4daysGriseofulvin is NOT effective.Hypopigmentation will take weeks to fadeScaling will disappear soonPityrosporum folliculitisEtiology: Malassezia furfurAge group: Teenagers or young adult malesClinical features: Itchy papules and pustules, scattered on the shoulders and back.Treatment: Oral Itraconazole, Ketaconazole, Fluconazole or topical Ketoconazole shampoo.Tinea nigra palmarisEtiology: Exophiala werneckiiClinical features: Asymptomatic superficial infection of palms; deeply pigmented, brown or black macular, non-scaly patches, resembling a silver nitrate stain.Treatment: Topical Econazole. Ketoconazole. Benzoic acid compound, Thiabendazole 2% in 90% DMSO or 10% Thiabendazole suspension.Black piedraEtiology: Piedraia hortaeClinical features: Hard, dark, multiple superficial nodules: firmly adherent black, gritty, hard nodules on hairs of scalp, beard, moustache or pubic area, hair may fracture easily.Treatment:Shaving or cutting the hair.Terbinafine, Benzoic acid compound ointment, 1:2000 solution of mercury perchlorideWhite piedraEtiology: Trichosporon beigeliiClinical features:Soft, white, grey or brown superficial nodules on hairs of the beard, moustache, pubic areas. Hair shaft weakened and breaks.Treatment: Shaving or cutting the hair. Responses to topical antifungals, azoles and allvamines have been reported but are unpredictable.DermatophytosisMycology:Three genera:Microsporum, Trichophyton, EpidermophytonThrive on dead, keratinized tissue - within the stratum comeum of the epidermis, within and around the fully keratinized hair shaft, and in the nail plate and keratinized nail bed.Tinea capitisEndothrix and EctothrixMost common - trichophyton violaceumVarieties:Non inflammatoryGray patchBlack dotSeborrheic dermatitisInflammatoryFavusKerion. agminate folliculitisNon inflammatory Tinea capitis:Black dot/Grey patchBreakage of hair gives rise to 'black dots*Patchy alopecia, often circular, numerous broken-off hairs, dull greyWood's lamp examination: green fluorescence (occasional non-flu ore scent cases)Tinea capitis: Kerion, agminate folliculitisInflammatory varietyMicrosporum,Trichophyton verrucosum. Trichophyton mentagrophytesPainful, inflammatory boggy swelling with purulent discharge.Hairs may be matted, easily pluckableLymphadenopathyCo-infection with bacteria is commonMay heal with scarring alopeciaTinea capitis: FavusInflammatory varietyKashmirTrichophyton schonleiniiYellowish, cup-shaped crusts develop around a hair with the hair projecting centrally.Extensive patchy hair loss with cicatricial alopeciaTinea facieiErythematous scaly patches on the faceAnnular or circinate lesions and indurationItching, burning and exacerbation after sun exposureSeen often in immunocompromised adultsTinea barbaeRingworm of the beard and moustache areasInvasion of coarse hairsDisease of the adult maleHighly inflammatory, pustular folliculitisHairs of the beard or moustache are surrounded by inflammatory' papulopustules, usually with oozing or crusting, easily pluckablePersist several monthsTinea corporisLesions of the trunk and limbs, excluding ringworm of the specialized sites such as the scalp, feet and groins etc.The fungus enters the stratum corneum and spreads centrifugally. Central clearing results once the fungi are eliminated.A second wave of centrifugal spread from the original site may occur with the formation of concentric erythematous inflammatory rings.Classical lesion:Annular patch or plaque with erythematous papulovesicles and scaling at the periphery with central clearing resembling the effects of ring worm.Polycyclic appearance in advanced infection due to incomplete fusion of multiple lesionsSites: waist, under breasts, abdomen, thighs etc.Tinea crurisItchingErythematous plaques, curved with well demarcated margins extending from the groin down the thighs.Scaling is variable, and occasionally may mask the inflammatory changes.Vesiculation is rareTinea mannumTwo varieties:Non inflammatory: Dry, scaly, mildly itchyInflammatory: Vesicular, itchy Tinea pedisWearing of shoes and the resultant macerationAdult males commonest, children rarelyPeeling, maceration and fissuring affecting the lateral toe clefts, and sometimes spreading to involve the undersurface of the toes.Varieties:Interdigital typePapulosquammous ('moccasin foot')Vesiculo-bullousTinea UnguiumDirty, dull, dry, pitted, ridged, split, discoloured, thick, uneven, nails with subungual hyperkeratosis Different types described depending on the site of nail involvement and its depth.Distal and lateral onychomycosesProximal subungual onychomycosesWhite superficial onychomycosesTotal dystrophic onychomycosesTreatment: RingwormTopical: Bifonazole. Ketoconazole Oxiconazole, Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Butenafine, Terbinafine.Vehicle: Lotions, creams, powders, gels are available.CANDIDIASISCausative organism:Candida albicans, Candida tropicalis, Candida pseudotropicalisSites of affection:Mucous membraneSkinNailsCandidiasis : MucosalOral thrush:Creamy, curd-like, white pseudomembrane, on ery thematous baseSites:Immunocompetent patient: cheeks, gums or the palate.Immunocompromised patients: affection of tongue with extension to pharynx or oesophagus; ulcerative lesions may occur.Angular cheilitis (angular stomatitis / perleche): Soreness at the angles of the mouthVulvovaginitis (vulvovaginal thrush): Itching and soreness with a thick, creamy white dischargeBalanoposthitis:Tiny papules on the glans penis after intercourse, evolve as white pustules or vesicles and rupture.Radial fissures on glans penis in diabetics. Vulvovaginitis in conjugal partnerCandidiasis - FlexuralIntertrigo: (Flexural candidiasis)Erythema and maceration in the folds; axilla, groins and webspaces.Napkin rash:Pustules, with an irregular border and satellite lesionsCandidiasis: FlailChronic Paronychia:Swelling of the nail fold with pain and discharge of pus.Chronic, recurrent.Superadded bacteria! infectionOnychomycosis:Destruction of nail plate.Treatment of candidiasisTreat predisposing factors like poor hygiene, diabetes, AIDS, conjugal infectionTopical:Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Ketoconazole. Ciclopirox olamineOral:Ketoconazole 200mg, Itraconazole 100-200mg and Fluconazole 150mg
1
Mycoses fungoides
Tinea nigra Palmaris
White Piedra
Black Piedra
Skin
Cutaneous Manifestations of Microvascular Occlusion Syndromes
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single
Antisocial personality is seen with :
A i.e. Drug abuse
1
Drug abuse
Paranoid schizophrenia
OCN
None
Psychiatry
null
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multi
All are viral causes of PUO except:
Ans: d (Leptospirosis) Ref: Harrison, 16 ed, p. 116, 17th ed, p. 132A quite straight forward question. The answer is leptospirosis because it is not a viral cause of PUOPUO: (Pyrexia of unknown origin)Definition:Temperature >38.3(IC on several occasionsOrA duration of fever of >3 weeksOrFailure to reach a diagnosis despite I week of inpatient investigationClassic PUOFever with 3 outpatient visitsOr3 days in the hospital without elucidation of a causeOr1 week of intelligent and invasive work upNosocomial PUOA temperature of more than or equal to 38.3degC develops on several occasions in a hospitalized patient who is receiving acute care and in whom infection was not manifest or incubating on admission.Neutropenic PUOTemperature more than or equal to 38.3degC on several occasions in a patient whose neutrophil count is <500/ml or is expected to fall to that level in 1 or 2 days.HIV associated PUOTemperature more than or equal to 38.3ftC on several occasions over a period of >4 weeks for outpatients or > 3 days for hospitalized patients with HIV infection.
4
EBV
CMV
HIV
Leptospirosis
Medicine
Infection
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In disaster management following are practiced except
Disaster Management includes three aspects: 1. Disaster impact and response: Search, rescue, and first-aid * Field care * Triage * Tagging * Identification of the dead 2. Rehabilitation or recovery: * Water supply * Basic sanitation and personal hygiene * Food safety * Vector control 3. Mitigation: Measures designed either to prevent hazards from causing disaster or to reduce the effects of the disaster. This also includes preparedness for any impending disasters or in disaster-prone areas. Ref: Park 24th edition
3
Triage
Rehabilitation
Mass vaccination
Disaster response
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
0059bce5-2cb2-4b4e-9c08-ab9e4063db97
multi
A patient having cystic medial necrosis with necrotising aeritis is suffering from?
Cystic medial degeneration . Smooth muscle loss . Fibrosis . Inadequate ECM synthesis . Accumulation of increasing amounts of amorphous proteoglycans Robbins 9 th edition page no. 345
4
Kawasaki disease
Temporal aeritis
Malignant hypeension
Aooaeritis
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
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single
A 27 year old female having a family history of autoimmune disease presents with the complaints of a skin rash and recurrent joint pains 3 months after delivering a baby. She is most likely to have which of the following disorders?
Acquired factor VIII deficiency Muscle and soft tissue bleeds are common. Bleeding into a joint results in severe pain and swelling, as well as loss of function, but is rarely associated with discoloration from bruising around the joint. Life-threatening sites of bleeding include bleeding into the oropharynx, where bleeding can obstruct the airway, into the central nervous system, and into the retroperitoneum. Mixing studies -used to evaluate a prolonged aPTT or PT. -to distinguish between a factor deficiency and an inhibitor. In this assay, normal plasma and patient plasma are mixed in a 1:1 ratio, and the aPTT or PT is determined immediately and after incubation at 37degC for varying times, typically 30, 60, and/or 120 min. -With isolated factor deficiencies, the aPTT will correct with mixing and stay corrected with incubation. With aPTT prolongation due to a lupus anticoagulant, the mixing and incubation will show no correction. -In acquired neutralizing factor antibodies, the initial assay may or may not correct immediately after mixing but will prolong with incubation at 37degC.
4
Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
Functional platelet defect
Acquired Factor VIII inhibitors
Pathology
Clotting factor
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Commonest cause of cataract
D i.e. Age related Radiation cataract is caused by exposure to almost all types of radiation energy such as infrared or heat (in glass-blowers or glass-workers, and iron-workers), irradiation caused by X-rays, gamma-rays or neutrons (in workers in atomic energy plant, survivors of atomic bomb and in patients inadequately protected during treatment for malignant conditions near eye) and sunlight (especially the ultraviolet A and UV-B components). Microwave radiation has shown to cause cataract in animals. But MRI has no radiation exposure. - Cataract may be caused by chloroquine, coicosteroids, copper metabolism error (Wilson's disease), Calcium decrease (hypocalcemia or hypoparathyroidism or parathyroid tetany), galactosemia, hypo glycemia and diabetes mellitusQ. (Mn- CG=Cataract G) Cataract is the most common cause of blindness in India Q. Senile cataract or age related cataract is the commonest type of acquired cataract Q affecting equally persons of either sex usually above the age of 50 years. Overall incidence of acquired cataract is more than congenital.
4
Hereditary
DM
Trauma
Age related
Ophthalmology
null
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All are metabolic causes of liver disease except
Ans. is 'a' i.e., HistiocytosisMetabolic liver diseases can be classified into 3 categories:Manifestations due to hepatocellular necrosis: Galactosemia, hereditary fructose intolerance, tyrosinemia type I, Wilson disease, Hemochromatosis and al -antitrypsin deficiency.Cholestatic jaundice :Al -antitrypsin deficiency, Byler's disease, cystic fibrosis, Niemann-Pick disease and some disorders of peroxisome biogenesis.Hepatomegaly (disorders with liver damage & storage diseases ): Glycogen storage diseases, cholesteryl ester storage disease and, when associated with splenomegaly, lysosomal storage diseases (eg:- Gaucher disease).
1
Histiocytosis
Hemochromatosis
Gaucher's disease
Wilson disease
Pediatrics
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Not be cultured in Sabouraund's agar -
null
4
Blastomyces
Coccidiodes
Sporotrichum
Rhinosporidium seeberi
Microbiology
null
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The most common type of intussusception?
Ans. a (Ileocolic) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 114).ACUTE INTUSSUSCEPTION# Telescoping/invagination of one portion of the gut within an immediately adjacent segment; invariably it is the proximal into distal bowel. An intussusception is composed of three parts: the entering or inner tube; the returning or middle tube; and the sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).# most common in children, where it occurs in an idiopathic form with a peak incidence at 3-9 months.# Seventy to 95% of cases are classed as idiopathic. It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum may be the initiating event. This is due to weaning/viral infection.# Ileocolic type is otherwise most common and the colocolic variety is common in adults.# C/F: Intermittent sudden spasmodic abdominal pain, the 'red currant' jelly stool, palpable lump, feeling of emptiness in the right iliac fossa (the sign of Dance) and Empty RIF sign.# Ultrasonography is preferred over Barium enema today.# Ultrasound shows the mass with pseudokidney apperance or a target lesion or a bowel mass-like'doughnut sign.# A barium enema may diagnose by demonstrating signs like the claw sign and the coiled spring appearance.# Hydrostatic reduction is contraindicated in the presence of obstruction, peritonism or a prolonged history (greater than 48 hours) and is unlikely to succeed where a lead point is likely. It is successful in 50% of cases with a recurrence rate 5%.# Surgery is required where hydrostatic reduction has failed or is contraindicated. Reduction is achieved by squeezing the most distal part of the mass in a cephalad direction. Do not pull. In difficult cases the little finger may he gently inserted into the neck of the intussusception to try and separate adhesions (Cope's method).# In the presence of an irreducible or gangrenous intussusception the mass should be excised in situ and an anastomosis or temporary end stoma created.
1
Ileocolic
Colocolic
Ileoileal
Retrograde
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
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Holdswoh classification of thoracolumbar spine fracture is based on how many columns of spine?
Answer- A. TwoHoldswoh,s proposed two column concept of thoracolumbar spine fractureAntetior column : Consists veebral body, annulus fibrous, Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligamentsposterior column: Consists of veebral arch (pedicle, facets, laminae) and posterior ligaments (ligamentum flavum,interspinous and supraspinus ligament)
1
Two
Three
Five
Four
Surgery
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Chvostek’s sign is elicited by
The Clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia are mostly due to neuromuscular irritability.  The patients complains of paresthesias which are typically perioral or of the hands and feets  Tetany is the classic manifestation of hypocalcemia, the manifestations are :  Corpopedal Spasm o Laryngospasm o Seizures Latent tetany occurs which can be manifested by Chvostek sign and  Trousseau sign Electrocardiographic manifestations The classic E.C.G. change with hypocalcemia is prolonged corrected QT interval Other possible E. C. G. findings are o Prolonged ST interval o Peaked T waves o Arryhtmmias Heart block (hypocalcemia may impair cardiac contractility and decrease blood pressure) GI. T manifestations o Intestinal cramps and malabsorption NOTE: Corpopedal spasm: o Contraction the muscels of the hand and feet. The wrists are flexed and fingers extended, with the thumbs adducted over the palms. Chvostek sign: Tapping the facial nerve anterior to the external auditory meatus elicits a twitch of the upper lip or entire mouth. This is not a very specific sign because it is positive in about 10% of patients without hypocalcemia. Trousseau sign:  A blood pressure cuff is inflated slightly above the systotic blood pressure for more than 3 minutes. Corpopedal spasm occurs if hypocalcemia is present as a result of the ischemia of motor nerves.
2
BP cuff in arm for 5 minutes
Facial nerve stimulation by tapping over the parotid
Tapping over extensor pollicis brevis
Tapping over flexor retinaculum
Medicine
null
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All of the following may be used to differentiate Central Retinal Venous Occlusion (CRVO) from ocular Ischemic syndrome due to carotid artery stenosis, Except –
Dilated retinal vein is seen both in CRVO and ocular ischemic syndrome; therefore, this feature cannot differentiate these two. However, in CRVO vein is tortuous while in ocular ischemic syndrome it is non-tortuous. Retinal artery perfusion pressure is decreased in ocular ischemic syndrome and is normal in CRVO. Ophthalmodynamometry shows low ophthalmic artery pressure in ocular ischemic syndrome and normal to high pressure in CRVO.
1
Dilated retinal vein
Tortuous retinal vein
Retinal artery pressure
Opthalmodynamometry
Ophthalmology
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The commonest clinical pattern of basal cell carcinoma is -
• Locally invasive carcinoma, arises from the basal layer of the epidermis • MC type of skin cancer • 90% of BCC are seen in the face, above a line from the corner of mouth to lobule of ear. • MC site: Nose >Inner canthus of the eye, also known as Tear cancer. Types of BCC • Nodular: MC type of BCC, characterized by small slow growing pearly nodules, often with telengiectatic vessels on its surface. Central depression with umbilication is a classic sign. • Pigmented: Mimic malignant melanoma • Cystic • Superficial
1
Nodular
Morpheaform
Superficial
Keratotic
Surgery
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single
The origin of ovaries from
null
1
Genital ridge
Genital tubercle
Wolffian duct
Miillerian duct
Anatomy
null
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Hyperprolactinemia is a side effect of
null
4
Bromocriptine
Levodopa
Amantadine
Metoclopramide
Pharmacology
null
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Rose-waaler test is
It is rapid slide haemagglutination test for detection of rheumatoid factor.
2
Precipitation test
Passive agglutination test
Neutralisation test
Complement fixation test
Microbiology
null
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single
Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is :
Methotrexate
1
Methotrexate
Progesterone
Oestrogen
Adriamycin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A class C diabetic patient delivers at term, it is impoant to check her blood sugar levels immediately postpaum, since there may be a decrease in the insulin requirements of diabetic patients. This can be paly explained by :
Decrease in plasma chorionic somatomammotropin
3
Increased food intake
Decreased activity
Decrease in plasma chorionic somatomammotropin
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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True about third hea sound is-
The third hea sound (S 3 ) occurs during the rapid filling phaseof ventricular diastole. It can be a normal finding in children,adolescents, and young adults; however, in older patients it signifieshea failure. A left-sided S 3 is a low-pitched sound best heard overthe left ventricular (LV) apex. A right-sided S 3 is usually betterheard over the lower left sternal border and becomes louder withinspiration. A left-sided S 3 in patients with chronic hea failure ispredictive of cardiovascular morbidity and moality. Interestingly,an S 3 is equally prevalent among hea failure patients with andwithout LV systolic dysfunction.Harrison's principle of internal medicine,20edition,pg no.1554
3
Present in constrictive pericariditis
Absent in aoic aneurysm
Absent in MS
Present in cardiac yamponade
Medicine
C.V.S
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Large way vegetation are characteristic of?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., SABE
2
SLE
SABE
Both
None
Pathology
null
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Not a content of sphenopalatine fossa
null
3
Maxillary Artery
Maxillary nerve
Mandibular nerve
Pterygopalatina ganglion
ENT
null
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Anomalies of oral cavity most commonly found in which stage
null
1
Embryonic
Period Of Fertilization
Period Of Fetus
None
Anatomy
null
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Drug of choice for treatment of intermediate uveitis is
Treatment for Intermediate uveitis : Intravitreal or Posterior Subtenon's Steroid injections : Triamcinolone acetonide Steroids may also be given by subconjuntival route or by Subtenon's route
3
Cycloplegics
Analgesics
Steroids
Antibiotics
Ophthalmology
Uveitis
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single
Primary bile acid is?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chenodeoxycholic acid Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid (derived from chenodexoxycholic acid). Glycine and taurine conjugates of these bile acids are called as bile salts. For example, cholic acid is a bile acid, and its glycine conjugate (glycocholic acid) is a bile salt.
3
Deoxycholic acid
Lithocholic acid
Chenodeoxycholic acid
None
Biochemistry
null
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multi
Which β1 selective blocker is used in glaucoma:
null
3
Levobunolol
Timolol
Betaxolol
Carteolol
Pharmacology
null
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single
What diagnosis is suggested by these spirography findings?
Answer A. Intrathoracic localized obstructionAn intrathoracic localized obstruction is demonstrated on spirography. The patient underwent flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy, which revealed nearly complete (greater than 90%) occlusion of the distal trachea by a vascular mass. The patient recovered after endoscopic laser ablation of the mass.
1
Intrathoracic localized obstruction
Fixed inspiratory obstruction
Pneumothorax
Restrictive lung disease
Medicine
Respiratory
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Which is a yeast like fungi: September 2007
Ans. B: Candida Yeast like fungi grow paly as yeast and paly as elongated cells resembling hyphae.The latter form a pseudomycelium. Candida albicans is a pathogenic yeast-like fungus.
2
Cryptococcus
Candida
Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Microbiology
null
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single
Which one of the following variants of renal cell carcinoma has the worst prognosis -
null
4
Papillary
Tubuloalveolar
Chromophobe
Sarcomatoid
Pathology
null
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Observation of yeast cells with multiple budding in tissue in the form of a “the shape shown in below pictomyograph ” is highly suggestive of
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis causes paracoccidioido­mycosis. It is a dimorphic fungus that exists as a mold in soil and as a yeast in tissue. The yeast is thick­walled with multiple buds ("ship's wheel" appearance), in contrast to Blastomyces dermatitides, which has a yeast with a single bud that has a broad base. Histoplasma capsulatum occurs as an oval budding yeast inside macrophages, whereas Coccidioides is a spherule in tissue, with many endospores within the spherule. Sporothrix, a dimorphic fungus from vegetation, is introduced into the skin and forms a local pustule or ulcer with nodules; round or cigar-shaped budding yeasts are seen in tissue specimens.
3
Blastomycosis
Cccidiodomycosis
Paracoccidiodomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Unknown
null
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Which of the following is the most significant component of a behavioral program developed to help a mother deal with a child having oppositional defiant disorder?
Positive reinforcement of promoting desirable behaviours through rewards is the most significant component of the program used to deal with ODD.
1
Positive reinforcement
Punishment
School suspension
Strict parenting
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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single
Most common cause of leukocoria in newborn is
.
1
Congenital cataract
Toxocara infection
Retinoblastoma
CMV infection
Pathology
All India exam
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single
Which of the following is the site of bladder injury in abdominal hysterectomy is :
Posterior wall
2
Anterior wall
Posterior wall
Medial wall
Lateral wall
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Paul -Bunnell test is positive in:
null
1
Infectious mononucleosis
Multiple myeloma
Malignant nerves
Rubella
Pathology
null
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A 10 year old child with aggressive, self mutilating behavior and poor concentration is brought with presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Child's presentation is most likely due to the deficiency of which enzyme?
The child in the question stem is showing features of Lesch nyhan syndrome caused by deficiency of HGPase. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is an enzyme responsible for the formation of hypoxanthine to inosoic acid and guanine to guanylic acid. This enzyme deficiency can present in a complete form only in boys and is transmitted through sex linked mode of inheritance. Leschnyhan syndrome is a severe form of this enzyme deficiency resulting in mental retardation, compulsive mutilating behavior and choreoathetosis. In addition to the above, patients exhibit hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria as well as signs of gouty ahritis and uric acid stone disease. Treatment consist of dietary reduction of purines, increased fluid uptake, alkalinization of urine to pH 6.6 with potassium citrate. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Urology By A. Barry Belman, Page 1231;Inherited Metabolic Diseases: A Guide to 100 Conditions By Steve Hannigan, Page 85; Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapters 359, 361
1
HGPase
Adenosine Deaminase
APase
Acid Maltase
Biochemistry
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A 56 year old man has been having bloody bowel movements on and off for the past several weeks. He repos that the blood is bright red, it coats the outside of the stools, and he can see it in the toilet bowl even before he wipes himself. When he does so, there is also blood on the toilet paper. After fuher questioning, it is asceained that he has been constipated for the past 2 months and that the caliber of the stools has changed. They are now pencil thin, rather the usual diameter of an inch or so that was customary for him. He has no pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The combination of red blood coating the stools and a change in bowel habit and stool caliber spells out cancer of the rectum in someone in this age group. Anal fissure is typically seen in young women who have very painful bowel movements with streaks of blood. Pain is the dominant symptom in this condition. Cancer of the cecum leads to anemia and occult blood in the stools, but the blood is rarely seen. If it is, the entire stool is bloody. Fuhermore, there is no change in bowel habit or stool caliber when the tumor is so proximal in the colon. External hemorrhoids hu and itch, but they rarely bleed. Ref: Chang G.J., Shelton A.A., Welton M.L. (2010). Chapter 30. Large Intestine. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.
3
Anal fissure
Cancer of the cecum
Cancer of the rectum
External hemorrhoids
Surgery
null
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single
What is the best procedure to control external hemorrhage in an event of accidental injury?
Direct firm pressure applied over the bleeding area or the involved aery at a site that is proximal to the wound is the best way to control external hemorrhage. A firm pressure dressing is applied and the injured pa is elevated to stop venous and capillary bleeding if possible. If the injured area is an extremity it should be immobilized first. A tourniquet is applied to an extremity only as a last reso when the external hemorrhage cannot be controlled in any other way and immediate surgery is not feasible. The tourniquet should be applied proximal to the wound and tied tightly enough to control aerial blood flow. Ref: Brunner and Suddah's Textbook of Medical-Surgical, Volume I, Page 2162
2
Elevation
Direct pressure
Proximal tourniquet
Aery forceps
Surgery
null
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5day baby full term breast fed with bilirubin 14mg Idl weight is 2700g what should be done next ?
Age Min TSB to sta phototherapy 24hrs > 10mg 1dL 48hrs >13mg 1dL 72hrs >15mg1dL 96hrs and beyond >18mg1dL Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Normal newborn care
Phototherapy
Exchange transfusion
stop breastfeeding
Pediatrics
All India exam
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single
The paradoxical response of GH release to TRH is seen in -
TRH stimulates the secretion of prolactin as well as TSH, Normally it does not affect growth hormone secretion but in acromegaly TRH induced growth hormonal stimulation Occurs. Note: "In prolactinomas paradoxical response of TRH to prolactin occurs". In normal individuals, TRH stimulates prolactin release Where as in prolactinomas There is little or no rise in prolactin in response to TRH.
2
Prolactinoma
Acromegaly
Malnutrition
Pitutary adenoma
Medicine
null
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single
How many mm from the limbus is the safest site of intravitreal injection?
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 171)Intravitreal injection (distance from Limbus)For aphakics-3mmFor pseudophakes-3.5mmFor phakics-4mm
3
1-2 mm
2-3 mm
3-4 mm
4-5 mm
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
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single
Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyel-CoA?
FAD The key enzymatic step of fatty acid syn thesis is the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to form malonyl-CoA. The carboxyl of biotin is covalently attached to an E-amino acid group of a lysine residue of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. The reaction occurs in two stages. In the first step, a carboxybiotin is formed: HCO3- + biotin-enzyme + ATP CO2 - biotin-enzyme+ ADP + Pi In the second step, the CO2 is transferred to acetyl CoA to produce malonyl CoA: CO2-biotin-enzyme + acetyl CoA malonyl CoA+ biotin-enzyme None of the other cofactors listed are involved in this reaction.
4
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Acyl carrier protein (ACP)
Biotin
FAD
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is not consider to be a slow viruse diseases -
kuru,scrapie,&CJD Are caused by slow virus REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557
4
Kuru
Scrapie
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Sarcoidosis
Microbiology
Virology
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single
Sleepwalking occur in which stage of sleep -
Sleep walking (somnambulism) is seen in stage 3 & 4 of NREM sleep.
3
REM
NREM stage
NREM stage 3 or 4
Can occur in any stage of NREM sleep
Psychiatry
null
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single
Which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy:
B i.e. Ventimask Ventimask or venturimasks are high flow or fixed performance (performance not affected by changes in patient's tidal volume and respiratory rate) oxygen delivery devicesQ delivering accurate oxygen concentration
2
Nasal Cannula
Venturi mask
O2 by T-piece
SO2
Anaesthesia
null
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House Brackmann scale is for which nerve?
null
1
Facial nerve
Trigeminal
Optic
Hypoglossal
Anatomy
null
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Nerve supply of tip of nose
Nerve supply General sensory nerves derived from the branches of trigeminal nerve are distributed to whole of the lateral wall: Anterosuperior quadrant is supplied by the anterior ethmoidal nerve branch of ophthalmic nerve. Anteroinferior quadrant is suplied by the anterior superior alveolar nerve branch of infraorbital continuation of maxillary nerve. Posterosuperior quadrant is supplied by the lateral posterior superior nasal branches from the pterygopalatine ganglion. Posteroinferior quadrant is supplied by the anterior palatine branch from the pterygopalatine ganglion REF.BDC VOL.3,FIFTH EDITION
1
Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of
Inferior orbital nerve
Buccal br of mandibular nerve
Orbital of maxillary n
Anatomy
Head and neck
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The scoring given in periodontal index for gingivitis is
null
2
1
2
4
6
Dental
null
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Features of carcinoma penis include all except: March 2007
Ans. C: Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion Following as risk factors for penile cancer: Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, smoking, smegma, phimosis, treatment of psoriasis, age, and AIDS. The other etiologic factor most commonly associated with penile carcinoma is poor hygiene. Lichen sclerosus (also known as balanitis xerotica obliterans) may also be a risk factor. Symptoms Redness, irritation and a sore or a lump on the penis. Pathology Precancerous Dermatologic Lesions Carcinoma in Situ (Bowen Disease, Erythroplasia of Queyrat) Invasive Carcinoma of the Penis A Squamous cell carcinoma usually originating in the glans or foreskin is by far the most common type, occurring in 9 out of 10 cases. Staging The stages are assessed as follows: Stage I - Cancer has only affected the glans and/or foreskin. Stage II - Cancer has spread to the shaft of the penis. Stage III - Cancer has affected the penis and surrounding lymph nodes. Stage IV - Cancer has moved beyond the groin area to other pas of the body. Recurrent - Cancer that has returned after treatment. The most common treatment is one of five types of surgery: Wide local excision - The tumor and some surrounding healthy tissue are removed Microsurgery - Surgery performed with a microscope is used to remove the tumor and as little healthy tissue as possible Laser surgery - laser light is used to burn or cut away cancerous cells Circumcision - cancerous foreskin is removed Amputation (penectomy) - a paial or total removal of the penis, and possibly the associated lymph nodes. This is the most common and effective treatment. Radiation therapy is usually used adjuvantly with surgery to reduce the risk of recurrence. With earlier stages of penile cancer, a combination of topical chemotherapy and less invasive surgery may be used. More advanced stages of penile cancer usually require a combination of surgery, radiation and chemotherapy.
3
Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodes
Surgery is the treatment of choice
Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion
Circumcision provides protection
Surgery
null
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multi
A 60-year-old male, chronic smoker, presented with fatigue and chest pain. On examination, there was inset left eyeball with drooping upper left eyelid and reduced left pupil size. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this condition?
Most tumors of the apex of the lung are adenocarcinomas Pancoast tumors - apical lung tumors in the superior pulmonary sulcus tend to invade the neural structures around the trachea, including the cervical sympathetic plexus. Involvement of sympathetic fibers gives rise to severe pain in the distribution of the ulnar nerve and Horner syndrome. Features of Horner syndrome are: S Sympathetic Injury A Anhidrosis M Miosis P Ptosis L Loss of ciliospinal reflex E Enophthalmos
1
Squamous cell carcinoma involving the apex of his left lung
Adenocarcinoma involving left mainstem bronchus
A small-cell carcinoma involving the hilum of his left lung
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma involving the left lower lobe
Pathology
Lung Tumor
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multi
A patient died during surgery. The relatives allege that death was due to negligence. According to a recent Supreme Cou judgment, doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only if:
Ans. c. There is gross negligence A physician can be charged with criminal negligence in Section 304 A, when a patient dies from the effects of anesthesia during, an operation or other kind of treatment, if it can be proved that the death was the result if malicious intention, or gross negligence. "Section 304-A deals with criminal negligence. Criminal negligence occurs when the doctor shows gross lack of competence or inaction, gross recklessness or wanton indifference to the patient's safety, or gross negligence in the selection and application of remedies. It involves an extreme depaure from the ordinary standard of care." Inadveent Negligence (Accidental negligencel: Inadveent negligence can be called simple negligence. In this case, the harm done is neither foreseen nor willed Corporate Negligence: It occurs when a health care corporation failed to perform those duties, it owes directly to a patient or anyone else to whom it may extend. If such a duty is breached and patient is injured due to result of the breach, the organization can be held under the theory of corporate negligence. Res Ipsa Loquitur: Latin meaning of phrase is-the things or facts speaks for itself. This rule is applied when the following conditions are satisfied: That in the absence of negligence the injury would not have occurred ordinarily. That doctor had exclusive control over injury producing instrument or treatment That the patient was not guilty of contributory negligence.
3
There is corporate negligence
Negligence is from inadveent error
There is gross negligence
It falls under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor
Forensic Medicine
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Localization in insulinoma is best with -
The insulinoma might be localized by noninvasive means, using ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI techniques. An indium-111 pentetreotide scan is more sensitive than ultrasound, CT, or MRI for detection of somatostatin receptor positive tumors, but not a good diagnostic tool for insulinomas. An endoscopic ultrasound has a sensitivity of 40-93% (depending on the location of the tumor) for detecting insulinomas. Sometimes, angiography with percutaneous transhepatic pancreatic vein catheterization to sample the blood for insulin levels is required. Calcium can be injected into selected aeries to stimulate insulin release from various pas of the pancreas, which can be measured by sampling blood from their respective veins. The use of calcium stimulation improves the specificity of this test. During surgery to remove an insulinoma, an intraoperative ultrasound can sometimes localize the tumor, which helps guide the surgeon in the operation and has a higher sensitivity than noninvasive imaging tests. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg840
4
Contrast computerized tomography
Margnetic resonance imaging
Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy
Selective angiography
Medicine
G.I.T
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The nerve mediating pain of External hemorrhoids is:
-External hemorrhoids --> present below pectinate line , painful bleeding is present --> pain carried by Inferior Rectal Nerve (branch of pudendal nerve). -Internal haemorrhoids --> present above pectinate line --> painless bleeding is its feature.
2
Hypogastric nerve
Inferior rectal nerve
Pelvic splanchnic nerve
Sympathetic plexus
Anatomy
Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum
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Myelin sheath in the central nervous system is formed by
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelination in the CNS. In the PNS, Schwann cells form the myelin sheath. The process of myelination begins before bih and is not complete until a year or more after bih. (Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of neuroanatomy, second edition, pg- 19)
3
Schwann cell
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Protoplasmic astrocytes
Anatomy
Brain
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Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with?
A. i.e. Scleroderma Raynaud's phenomenon (i.e. cold/vibration/emotional stress-exposure Vt pallor --> cynosis & finally erythemaQ of digits, ear & tip of nose) is almost always present (along with skin sclerosis) and is often earliest featureQ of Systemic sclerosis (Scleroderm). It may precede extensive skin & internal organ involvement by week-months (in diffuse SS) to years (in limited cutaneous SS).
1
Scleroderma
Leukemia
Lung infections
Hepatosplenomegaly
Skin
null
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multi
ESR is raised in -a) Sickle cell anaemiab) Multiple myelomac) Acute myocardial Infarctiond) Angina pectoris
null
1
bc
c
ac
ad
Pathology
null
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single
True statements are all except:
1.) The gene encoding for MHC molecules are clustered on small segment of chromosome 6. 2.) MHC II molecules are present on all the APC's (Antigen Presenting Cells), and Monocyte are type of Antigen Presenting cell. 3.) Class III is present adjacent to Class I and Class II. 4.) Class III encodes for complement protein.
4
Chromosome six has the genes for MHC
Genes encoding complement proteins are located adjacent to class I
Monocytes have MHC II antigens on their surface
Class III does not encode complement
Pathology
Basic Concepts
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multi
Hypothyroidism is caused by which of the following anti-tubercular drug -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS Adverse effects of para-amino salicylic acid (PAS) --> Anorexia, nausea, epigastric pain, rashes, goiter (hypothyroidism), fever, malaise, liver dysfunction, and blood dyscrasias. Adverse effects of ethionamide :Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hepatitis, optic or peripheral neuritis, metal disturbances and blood dyscrasias.
1
PAS
Ethionamide
Cycloserine
Pyrazinamide
Pharmacology
null
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During growth cycle of a child, usually at what age childhood ends and adolescence stas?
WHO/UN definitions: Adolescent - 10-19 years Youth - 15-24 years Young people - 10-24 years Ref: Ghai essential pediatrics, 6th edition, Page 66.
2
8 years
10 years
12 years
16 years
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Which of the following can lead to infiltration of ear lobules, loss of nails and resorption of distal phalanges?
Ans. B. Lepromatous leprosy. (Ref. Harrison's 18th/pg. 1362)LEPROSYSpecific symptoms vary depending on the type of leprosy.# Tuberculoid leprosy: A rash appears, consisting of one or a few flat, whitish areas. Areas affected by this rash are numb because the bacteria damage the underlying nerves.# Lepromatous leprosy: Many small bumps or larger raised rashes of variable size and shape appear on the skin. There are more areas of numbness than in tuberculoid leprosy, and certain muscle groups may be weak. Much of the skin and many areas of the body, including the kidneys, nose, and testes, may be affected due to heavy bacillary infiltration.# Borderline leprosy: Features of both tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy are present. Without treatment, borderline leprosy may become less severe and more like the tuberculoid form, or it may worsen and become more like the lepromatous form.Lepromatous leprosy# There are countless disseminated macules and/or skin nodules, with blurred outlines and sometimes joining to form larger plaques.# No tendency to central healing is seen and there is no hypopigmentation, although sometimes a "copper colour" is present. The infiltrated skin nodules do exhibit less or no anaesthesia, but numbness develops in the hands and feet.# The skin infiltration may lead to diffuse skin thickening, chiefly of the ears, lips and forehead.# Infiltration of the mucosa leads to chronic rhinitis with epistaxis, septum perforation and destruction of the nasal cartilages. The tongue is thickened and there may be hoarseness.# The upper incisors become loose and often drop out. There is often loss of the eyebrows (madarosis) and eyelashes. The central portion of the forehead (frontalis muscle) is more affected than the lateral portions. The sensory loss on the forehead can be quite marked (since the skin is relatively cool) but at the hairline, there tends to be an abrupt increase in the sensitivity to pinprick.# Testicular atrophy leads to gynaecomastia. The nerves are not severely thickened, but involvement of the nerves is extensive, generalised, gradual and symmetrical.# The consequences of this loss are evident later in the disease and sensory dysfunction, rather than motor defects, are foremost. Deep tendon reflexes are preserved for a long time, which distinguishes this diseases from many other neuropathies (except amyloidosis).# Vibration sense and position sense remain intact for a long time. With progression of the disease, the motor branches of small nerves are invaded, so that there is distal atrophy, especially in the hands.Clinical Features of TestTT FormLL FormSkin lesionsNumberOne or fewNumerousSensationAbsentNot affectedSurfaceDry or scalyShinyHair growth in lesionsAbsentNot affectedNerve enlargementCutaneous nervesommonNot enlargedLarger peripheral nervesVery rareSymmetrilcally enlargedENL reactionDoes not occurCommonLepromin testStrongly positiveNegativeBacillary index05 or 6Skin histology Granuloma cellEpithelioidFoamy histiocyteLymphocytes++++/-Dermal nervesDestroyedEasily visiblePrognosisGoodPoor
2
Tuberculoid leprosy
Lepromatous leprosy
Indeterminate leprosy
Any of the above
Skin
Bacterial Infection of Skin
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multi
One of the following molecules acts as a mobile electron carrier in the respiratory chain
Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 13; The Respiratory Chain & Oxidative Phosphorylation
4
Ubiquinone
FADH2
FeS
Cytochrome b
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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multi
Symptom of hypoglyemia is -
Ref - Davidsons 23e p739
1
Sweating
Bradycardia
Chest pain
Breathlessness
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
True about DNA structure
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) stores information for the synthesis of specific proteins. DNA has deoxyribose as its sugar. DNA consists of a phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base. The structure of DNA is a helical, double-stranded macromolecule with bases projecting into the interior of the molecule. These two strands are always complementary in sequence. One strand serves as a template for the formation of the other during DNA replication, a major source of inheritance. This unique feature of DNA provides a mechanism for the continuity of life. The structure of DNA was found by Rosalind Franklin when she used x-ray crystallography to study the genetic material. The x-ray photo she obtained revealed the physical structure of DNA as a helix. DNA has a double helix structure. The outer edges are formed by alternating deoxyribose sugar molecules and phosphate groups, which make up the sugar-phosphate backbone. The two strands run in opposite directions, one going in a 3' to 5' direction and the other going in a 5' to 3' direction. The nitrogenous bases are positioned inside the helix structure like "rungs on a ladder," due to the hydrophobic effect, and stabilized by hydrogen bonding.
3
Purines are adenine and guanine & pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine
Waston and Crick discovered structure in 1973
Deoxyribose - phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside
Mainly consists of left handed helix
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
cecfbe5e-53ac-4425-ace0-b9e6888ec441
multi
A 36-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. She has one child of 7 years. USG shows a single 3x3 cm submucosal fibroid. Hemoglobin is 10.5 gm/dl. What is the best treatment option for her?
Ans. is c, i.e. Hysteroscopic myomectomyThis patient is having heavy menstrual bleeding due to fibroid, i.e. she is symptomatic and hence management has to be done. Best management in fibroid is surgery. Since she is only 36 years and has one child We will go for myomectomy.Submucous fibroid <5cm, should be removed hysteroscopically. [?] Best management is hysteroscopic myomectomy.
3
GnRH injection
UAE
Hysteroscopic myomectomy
Laparoscopic myomectomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
458f0a76-b21f-4abc-976a-f387e0e73052
multi
All of the following are true about dermatitis herpetiformis except:
IgA antibodies are seen against TTG.
3
Severe itchy skin lesions over extensor surfaces
Most of the patients have underlying coeliac disease
It is characterized by IgE anitbodies against TTG : Tissue transglutaminase
Dapsone is the drug of choice
Dental
null
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multi
Delta bilirubin is ______ bilirubin _____ bound to albumin.
Delta bilirubin or biliprotein is the fraction of conjugated bilirubin that is covalently bound to albumin. This is responsible for the lab finding of persistent hyperbilirubinemia even after the disappearance of jaundice in cases of obstructive jaundice. -Chromatographic fractionation of serum bilirubin: a bilirubin unconjugated bilirubin b bilirubin bilirubin monoglucuronide g bilirubin bilirubin diglucuronide d bilirubin albumin bound conjugated bilirubin
1
Conjugated, covalently
Unconjugated, non-covalently
Conjugated, noncovalently
Unconjugated, covalently
Biochemistry
HAEM synth and porphyrias
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single
Cushing syndrome as paraneoplastic syndrome is seen with all malignancies, EXCEPT:
Paraneoplastic Syndrome Ectopic Hormone Typical Tumor Hypercalcemia of malignancy Parathyroid hormone-related protein Squamous cell (head and neck, lung, skin), breast, genitourinary, gastrointestinal 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D Lymphomas Parathyroid hormone Lung, ovary Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) Renal, lung Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion Vasopressin Lung, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, ovary Cushing's syndrome Adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH) Lung (small cell, bronchial carcinoid, adenocarcinoma, squamous), thymus, pancreatic islet, medullary thyroid carcinoma Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-827
4
Bronchial carcinoid
Thymus
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Papillary carcinoma thyroid
Medicine
null
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multi
Prevention of emergence of risk factor is -
It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared.
1
Primordial prevention
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Blalock Taussig shunt consists of subclan aery (br. of aoa) and pulmonary aery anastamosis. This inturn actually establishes a shunt between the aoa (Via the subclan aery) and the pulmonary aery. Management of T.O.F. Medical Management Limited to management of complications and correction of anemia. Surgical Management o Consists of anastomosing a systemic aery with pulmonary aery to increase the pulmonary blood flow. These shunts are : Blalock - Taussig shunt Subclan aery - Pulmonary Aery anastomosis. Pott's shunt Descending Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Waterston's shunt Ascending Aoa to right pulmonary Aery
1
Aoa to pulmonary aery
Aoa to pulmonary vein
Subclan aery to pulmonary vein
Subclan vein to aery
Pediatrics
null
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single
Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through:
Accessory meningeal artery is a branch of 1st part of Maxillary artery.  It enters the cranium by passing through foramen ovale. It supplies meninges and infratemporal fossa.
4
Foramen lacerum
Foramen rotundum
Foramen spinosum
Foramen ovale
Anatomy
null
29aaa99a-67f9-4f0b-ba26-e99403633ff9
single
The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except
Thyroglossal cysts are the most common cause of midline neck masses. Can occur anywhere along the path of the thyroglossal duct, from the base of the tongue to the suprasternal notch (in the midline) Treatment must include excision of the whole thyroglossal tract, which involves removal of the body of the hyoid bone and the suprahyoid tract through the tongue base to the vallecula at the site of the primitive foramen caecum, (not incision and drainage) This operation is known as Sistrunk's operation and prevents recurrence Source : Bailet and Love Pg: 702
3
Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life
The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice
The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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A 10 year old child develops hematuria after 2 days of diarhoea. Blood film shows fragmented RBCs. Which of the following is likely diagnosis-
null
3
Acute pyelonephritis
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
Haemolytic uremic syndrome
Haemolytic crises
Medicine
null
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