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Which of the following are also called as "Ghost cell tumors"?
Primary CNS lymphomas are also called as "Ghost cell tumors" as they show quick resolution after initiation of steroids.
3
Medulloblastoma
Acoustic neuroma
Primary CNS lymphoma
Glioblastoma
Surgery
null
751093a5-e766-411a-aaef-19d29a537dae
multi
Which of the following eating disorder is most common?
Binge eating disorder is the most common eating disorder followed by Bulimia nervosa and Anorexia nervosa.
3
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia Nervosa
Binge eating disorder
All have same prevalence
Psychiatry
null
3c314cfb-ac08-4bce-beac-947f1d5be4d3
multi
Risk factor for suicide in depression are all except:
Risk factor for suicide : Increased Risk Decreased Risk Male sex (men successfully commit suicide three times more often than women) Female sex (although women attemptsuicide three times more oftenthan men) A plan for suicide (e.g., decision to stockpile pills) No plan for suicide A means of committing suicide (e.g., access to a gun) No means of suicide Sudden appearance of peacefulness in an agitated, depressed patient (he has reached an internal decision to kill himself and is now calm) Taking pills or poison, Slashing one's wrists Note- Males have higher suicide risk than females. Please remember that females make more suicide attempts than males, however males complete suicide more commonly than females. This difference is mostly due to method used, males tend to use more lethal methods such as gun and hence are more likely to complete suicide. History of previous suicide attempts has the highest predictive value for future attempts.
1
Female
Male > 45 years
Child with conduct disorder
Family history
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
e732fdf0-676b-48d6-b5af-e4921eb12ab0
multi
30 year male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with
Anti-endomysial antibody The clinical features are suggestive of celiac sprue0. The typical symptoms of celiac sprue are weight loss, chronic diarrhoea, abdominal distension, growth retardation anemia. Raised liver enzymes is not mentioned in many text books including Harrison. But according to C.M.D.T. 'Mild elevation of aminotransferases are seen in upto 40% of patientsdeg " Impoant points about the diagnosis of celiac sprue Small intestinal biopsy in celiac sprue demonstrates characteristic features but it is not specific for the diagnosis of celiac sprue. It can be seen in tropical sprue also. Serological tests helpful in the diagnosis of celiac sprue are - Anti endomysial antibody (Anti EMA) - Anti tissue (t) transglutaminase antibody Anti (t) TGA A negative test excludes the diagnosis of celiac sprueQ The diagnosis of celiac sprue still rests upon - Clinical demonstration of malabsotptioni2 - Demonstration of intestinal lesion by small bowel biopsyo - Unequivocal improvement in both symptoms and mensal histology on gluten with drawl from the diets'. Antimitochondrial antibody Antimitochondrial antibody testing is done for primary biliary cirrhosis. The points against the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis. - It typically presents in middle aged females. - initial clinical manifestations of the disease are - Pruritus -Fatigue - Characteristic elevation of alkaline phosphatase Antismooth muscle antibody Antismooth muscle antibody testing is done for autoiminune hepatitis Antoimmune hepatitis is common in young women. The usual presentation is an acute attack of hepatitis.
2
Antimitochondrial antibody
Anti-endomysial antibody
Anti-smooth muscle antibody
Antinuclear antibody
Surgery
null
a822906a-35c1-4869-a209-fe731d11aa32
single
The radiopaque structure shown in the box is most likely:
The genial tubercles (also called the mental spine) are located on the lingual surface of the mandible slightly above the inferior border and in the midline. They are bony protuberances, more or less spine-shaped, that often are divided into a right and left prominence and a superior and inferior prominence.  They attach the genioglossus muscles (at the superior tubercles) and the geniohyoid muscles (at the inferior tubercles) to the mandible. They are well visualized on mandibular occlusal radiographs as one or more small projections. Their appearance on periapical radiographs of the mandibular incisor region is variable; often they appear as a radiopaque mass (3 to 4 mm in diameter) in the midline below the incisor roots. Lingual foramen is a radiolucent structure seen in the midline. Ref: White and Pharoah, pg-144,145
2
Lingual foramen
Genial tubercle
PCD
None of the above
Radiology
null
6e49b985-d944-4fc8-bfba-b80928672658
multi
Subconjunctival cyst is seen in QUESTION REPEATED
Parasitic cysts such as subconjuctival cyst is seen in Cysticercosis . Hydatid cyst and filarial cust are not infrequent in development countries. Common cystic lesions of conjunctiva are : Congenital cystic lesions Lymphatic cysts of conjunctiva Retention cysts Epithelial implantation cyst (traumatic cyst) Aqueous cyst Pigmented epithelial cyst Parasitic cysts Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 92
2
Toxoplasmosis
Cysticercosis
Leishmaniasis
Chagas disease
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
66e4edc0-b678-4e1a-b0dc-f8269a6b7992
single
ACTH is increased in all except
Adrenocoicotrophic hormone; hormone produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that stimulates the secretion of coisol and other hormones by the adrenal coex. Also called adrenocoicotropin, coicotropin.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-368
3
Exercise
Emotions
Evening
Tumors
Physiology
Endocrinology
00962d4c-bdda-47f8-bff7-34a90163e27e
multi
Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level
Hemiazygos vein crosses from left to right at the level of T8, after piercing the left crus of diaphragm while ascending.
1
T8
T10
T12
T6
Anatomy
null
58154b06-bd9a-4ed7-9a93-e1cf06d68a81
single
Deposition of Anti ds DNA Ab in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in:
Answer is A (SLE): Antibodies against double stranded DNA (Anti, ds DNA) and Sm antigen (Anti Sm) are highly specific and viual!;' diagnostic of SLE - Robbins
1
SLE
Good pasture
Scleroderma
Raynauds disease
Medicine
null
2a2e3811-4ea2-4c38-80e9-35422df68a49
single
Index of potency of general anesthesia
Minimal alveolar concentrationIt is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individualsIt is the measure of potency of inhalation Gas.(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 162 - 163)
1
Minimum alveolar concentration
Diffusion coefficient
Dead space concentration
Alveolar blood concentration
Anaesthesia
All India exam
e336226b-1657-490c-b691-354961a21794
single
Test of detecting damage to cochlea -
As discussed earlier absolute bone conduction test is a tuning fork test in which bone conduction of the patient is compared with BC of the examiner after occluding the external auditory meatus of both patient and examiner Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. Hence, ABC test is used to detect damage to cochlea. Rinne’s test                                             — Measure air conduction Weber’s test Caloric test – assesses vestibular function
4
Caloric test
Weber test
Rinne's test
ABC test
ENT
null
20d865bb-413d-43c7-8cb2-73e4ef76e1f1
single
Drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is?
Intravenous Adrenaline REF: Harrison's Internal Medicinel7th ed> Chapter 311. Allergies, Anaphylaxis, and Systemic M astocytosis Anaphylaxis: Treatment Mild symptoms such as pruritus and uicaria can be controlled by administration of 0.3 to 0.5 mL of 1:1000 (1.0 mg/mL) epinephrine SC or IM, with repeated doses as required at 5- to 20-min intervals for a severe reaction An IV infusion should be initiated to provide a route for administration of 2.5 mL epinephrine, diluted 1:10,000, at 5- to 10-min intervals, volume expanders such as normal saline, and vasopressor agents such as dopamine if intractable hypotension occurs. When epinephrine fails to control the anaphylactic reaction, hypoxia due to airway obstruction or related to a cardiac arrhythmia, or both, must be considered Oxygen alone a nasal catheter or with nebulized albuterol may be helpful, but either endotracheal intubation or a tracheostomy is mandatory for oxygen delivery if progressive hypoxia develops. Ancillary agents such as the antihistamine diphenhydramine, 50 to 100 mgIM or IV, and aminophylline , 0.25 to 0.5 g IV, are appropriate for uicaria-angioedema and bronchospasm, respectively. Intravenous glucocoicoids, 0.5-1.0 mg/kg of medrol, are not effective for the acute event but may allete later recurrence of bronchospasm, hypotension, or uicaria.
2
Subcutaneous Adrenalin
Intravenous Adrenaline
Steroids
Atropine
Surgery
null
7e0a8fcb-233f-425f-82fa-25630399e124
single
A 30-year-old woman presents with a heart murmur. There is a history of recurrent episodes of arthritis, skin rash, and glomerulonephritis. Blood cultures are negative. Laboratory tests for antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA are positive. Which of the following is the most likely cause of heart murmur in this patient?
In patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, endocarditis is the most striking cardiac lesion, termed Libman-Sacks endocarditis. Nonbacterial vegetations are seen on the undersurface of the mitral valve close to the origin of the leaflets from the valve ring (Libman-Sacks endocarditis). There is fibrinoid necrosis of small vessels with focal degeneration of interstitial tissue. Rheumatic fever (choice E) is not commonly associated with ANAs seen in this case.Diagnosis: Systemic lupus erythematosis
1
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
Mitral valve prolapse
Myocardial infarct
Mitral valve prolapse
Pathology
C.V.S
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single
Third hea sound is seen in all except
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1448 The third hea sound (S3 ) occurs during the rapid filling phase of ventricular diastole. It can be a normal finding in children, adolescents, and young adults; however, in older patients, it signifies hea failure. A left-sided S3 is a low-pitched sound best heard over the left ventricu- lar (LV) apex. A right-sided S3 is usually better heard over the lower left sternal border and becomes louder with inspiration. A left-sided S3 in patients with chronic hea failure is predictive of cardiovascu- lar morbidity and moality. Interestingly, an S3 is equally prevalent among hea failure patients with and without LV systolic dysfunction
2
Athletes
Mitral stenosis
Constrictive pericarditis
LVF
Anatomy
General anatomy
635250c1-d8ab-4ea1-a687-0e5251fb8f71
multi
All the following drugs act on ionic channels except:
null
2
Nicotine
Insulin
Glibenclamide
Diazepam
Pharmacology
null
0aecc7ed-6788-41a2-b9c1-7d6e9348dd92
multi
A distinguishing characteristic of a maxillary first premolar that identifies it as right or left is the:
null
2
Height of the lingual cusp
Mesial inclination of the lingual cusp
Flattened area beneath the contact on the distal surface
Greater length of the mesial cusp ridge on the Lingual cusp
Dental
null
bf284845-7bde-46e9-a64e-df8109610179
single
Most common site of perforation of tympanic membrane in acute suppurative otitis media is:
In acute suppurative otitis media, 85% of cases show a small perforation in antero-inferior quadrant of pars tensa. Perforations in this location were associated with smooth margins, good drainage of pus, and a orable clinical course. Hence this area is termed as "perforation zone". Only 15% of perforations occurred in other locations, most typically the posterior-superior quadrant.
2
Anterior superior quadrant
Anterior inferior quadrant
Posterior superior quadrant
Posterior inferior quadrant
ENT
null
d0b7b43c-3568-48d0-9154-4d448ad66789
single
EBV (epstein barr virus) causes all except: September 2005 & March 2013
Ans. C: Pancreatic carcinoma Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) causes infectious mononucleosis as a primary disease. The virus infects more than 90% of the average population and persists lifelong in peripheral B-lymphocytes. The virus is produced in the parotid gland and spread the oral route. Serology suggests that the Epstein-Barr virus might be involved in the causation of two neoplastic diseases of humans: African Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Whereas the development of the lymphoma has an even better linkage with chromosomal rearrangements, nasopharyngeal carcinoma shows a unique association with Epstein-Barr virus It is also associated with causation of glandular fever and lymphoma
3
Glandular fever
Burkitt's lymphoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Microbiology
null
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multi
TRUE/FALSE about features of Pyloric stenosis: 1. Hypokalemic alkalosis 2. Peristalsis right to left 3. Commonly caused by carcinoma stomach 4. Retention vomiting is present 5. Commonly females are affected
Hyperophic pyloric stenosis is more common in males. Male : female incidence is 4:1. Peristalsis is seen from left to right across the upper abdomen. Retention vomiting means vomiting due to any mechanical obstruction occurring usually hours after ingestion of a meal. In hyperophic pyloric stenosis the vomiting usually occur 10 to 30 min after the feed. Ref: Nelson 17/e, Page 1229
3
1,2,3 true & 4,5 false
1,2,5 true & 3,4 false
1 true 2,3,4,5 false
All are true
Surgery
null
77f01062-f83f-4c72-b45d-20da538c0886
multi
Among the following longest acting ocular beta-blocker is:
Betaxolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker which can be used for the treatment of glaucoma.
1
Betaxolol.
Timolol.
Cartiolol.
Metoprolol.
Pharmacology
null
91ff342c-da25-4cb6-a845-a424819eef1a
single
All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except:
Severe hearing loss is not the chief presenting complaint in malignant otitis externa. A patient of malignant otitis externa presents with: Severe, unrelenting, deep-seated otalgia, temporal headaches, purulent otorrhea, possibly dysphagia, hoarseness, and/ or facial nerve dysfunction. The pain is out of propoion to the physical examination findings. Marked tenderness is present in the soft tissue between the mandible ramus and mastoid tip. Granulation tissue is present at the floor of the osseo-cailiginous junction. This finding is viually pathognomonic of malignant external otitis. Rest of the options i.e. pseudomonas is the M/C cause, granulation tissue seen on superior wall of the external auditory canal and esr used for follow up are correct.
3
ESR is used for follow up after treatment
Granulation tissues are seen on superior wall of the external auditory canal
Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint
Pseudomonas is the most common cause
ENT
null
d5fd61d7-6ae6-476b-8e4c-bacf59ae8290
multi
Patients with diabetes frequently report changing visual acuities when their glucose levels are chronically high. Which of the following could explain the fluctuating acuity with high blood glucose levels?
Fluctuating levels of sugars and sugar alcohols in the lens can cause fluctuating visual acuity. With high blood glucose, there would be increased levels of sorbitol in the lens. The lens does not contain mitochondria and cannot use the TCA cycle/electron transport chain to generate energy. Galactitol causes the same problems as sorbitol, but galactitol is derived from galactose, whereas sorbitol is produced from glucose. The patient has high glucose levels, so galactitol would not be expected to accumulate in the lens. Macular degeneration affects the retina, but in this case, it is the lens that is the affected tissue. Reducing fructose levels in the lens would reduce sorbitol levels, which would ease the visual acuity problem, not make it occur.
1
Increased sorbitol in the lens
Decreased fructose in the lens
Increased oxidative phosphorylation in the lens
Macular degeneration
Biochemistry
Carbohydrates
894609c1-46cf-4987-9fbf-d12bd75b2122
multi
Sudden death, right sided hea failure (cor pulmonale or cardiovascular collapse occur when ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 60% or more of pulmonary aery is obstructed with emboli
3
Small pulmonary embolism
Massive pulmonary embolism
60% or more of pulmonary aery is obstructed with emboli
End aery obliteration
Pathology
null
53e20937-608f-4ec7-a4b9-9a6e1374f951
multi
All the following statement about clozapine are true except -
Clozapine It blocks D4, 5-HT, and α-adrenergic receptors. Despite of anticholinergic property, it causes hypersalivation. It also blocks H1-histaminic receptors. The important side effects are agranulocytosis & myocarditis. It can induce seizures even in nonepileptics. It causes weight gain and precipitation of diabetes. It does not produce extrapyramidal side effects.
4
It is used in schizophrenia
May precipitate seizure
May cause agranulocytosis
Extrapyramidal side effects are seen
Psychiatry
null
315ab04d-95e5-4f94-83fd-48266b7ed082
multi
Snowstorm appearance on ultrasonography is seen in-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Molar pregnancy * "Snow storm appearance" or "bunch of grapes appearance" is characteristic of H. mole.
4
Hydatid cyst
Pyogenic liver abscess
Ectopic pregnancy
Molar pregnancy
Radiology
Obstetrics And Gynaecology
a03362d1-4d2d-40d5-b09c-ea44fa8e4099
single
Which of the following region of spine is most commonly affected in rheumatoid ahritis?
Rheumatoid ahritis principally involves atlantoaxial joint of cervical spine. Atlantoaxial involvement of the cervical spine result in compressive myelopathy and neurologic dysfunction. Rheumatoid ahritis does not affect thoracic and lumbar spine except in unusual circumstances. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 321.
1
Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Lumbar spine
Sacral spine
Medicine
null
c9ae6998-ab3f-4868-9f5d-bf45d8f8b1df
single
Compared to hydrocoisone, maximum glucocoicoid activity is seen in ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dexamethasone
3
Coisone
Prednisolone
Dexamethasone
Methylprednisolone
Pharmacology
null
3eff8e3e-b66c-4351-b334-8a031e7b41e0
single
All are causes of primary amenorrhea EXCEPT
Sheehan's syndrome Post paum pitutary necrosis. Occurs as a result of ischemic pituitary necrosis due to severe postpaum hemorrhage Presents as failure to lactate or to resume menses (Secondary amenorrhea) Other presentation: genital and axillary hair loss, asthenia and weakness, fine wrinkles around the eyes and lips, signs of premature aging, dry skin, hypopigmentation and other evidence of hypopituitarism.
2
MRKH syndrome
Sheehan's syndrome
Kallmann's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
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multi
Minimum interval between 2 live vaccine immunization -
Ans. is 'b1 i.e., 4 weeks Basic principle of immunezationMinimum 4 week interval recommended between 2 live vaccine adminstration except OPVand oral thyphoid.Two or more killed vaccine may be administrated simultaneously or at any given internalA live and killed vaccine given simultaneously but at different site.If immunisation status unknown, give age appropriate vaccineMixing of vaccine in same syringe not recommendedLive vaccine should be avoided in AIDS,
2
2 weeks
4 weeks
6 week
8 weeks
Pediatrics
Preventive Measures
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single
Opsnins is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., C3a Opsonin o A Substance capable of enhancing phagocytosis. o Complement (C3a) and antibodies are the two main opsonins.
1
C3a
1gM
Carbothydrate binding proteins
Selections
Pathology
null
914fae32-f8af-45be-866d-24e38ae2ede0
multi
Gottrons sign is seen in?
null
2
Lupus erythematosus
Dermatomyositis
Scleroderma
Bells palsy
Medicine
null
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single
Validity includes
null
1
Sensitivity and specificity
Precision
Acceptibility
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1c5be3a2-ca0c-42da-961e-87b2a4a3c0ac
multi
With a sensitive test, hCG can be detected in maternal serum or urine by ------ after ovulation?
Detection of hCG in maternal blood and urine is the basis for endocrine assays of pregnancy. Syncytiotrophoblasts produce hCG in amounts that increase exponentially during the first trimester following implantation. With a sensitive test, the hormone can be detected in maternal serum or urine by 8 to 9 days after ovulation. The doubling time of serum hCG concentration is 1.4 to 2.0 days. (Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
2
3 to 4 days
8 to 9 days
12 to 14 days
20 to 21 days
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
5ba819f6-2242-4bcb-86cc-09aaad347566
single
Normal respiratory minute volume is?
Ans. (a) Tidal Volume X Respiratory RateRef: Ganong 25th ed. 1629RMV: Respiratory minute volume: 500ml X 12 breaths/ min= 6L
1
Tidal volume X Respiratory Rate
Tidal volume/ Respiratory Rate
TLC/ Respiratory Rate
FRC/ Respiratory Rate
Physiology
Mechanics of Respiration
54c6a634-8f38-4073-be46-b8604d020d35
single
Which of the following is known as the "guardian of the genome"-
The discovery of the tumor suppressor protein known as p53, and the process of uneahing its functions came about as a result the effos of thousands of scientists around the globe. In p53: The Gene that Cracked the Cancer Code, science writer Sue Armstrong takes a fresh look at the exciting breakthroughs and disappointing setbacks that characterized this endeavor. The result, according to reviewers Anna Mandinova and Sam W. Lee, is a brilliant narrative that captures the enthusiasm and excitement of scientific discovery, as well as the daily struggles and challenges faced by cancer researchers.
1
p53
Mdm2
p14
ATM
Pathology
General pathology
df268a80-d2bd-485d-b300-44402ea14358
single
Which of the following hormone does not act through c-AMP:
GH
4
FSH
Progesterone
Estrogens
GH
Physiology
null
bcd0de8a-e3b6-4e41-846f-e4614db6dff7
single
Not a feature of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome is
Features of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome include Mental retardation.
2
Sensorineural hearing loss
Norma IQ
Vitiligo
Hyperpigmentation
Ophthalmology
null
540c4efb-7e68-4c70-a6c8-08f010ce5384
single
Most common site for carcinoid tumor in the abdomen
.CARCINOID TUMOUR It commonly occurs in appendix (65%), ileum (25%), other pas of GIT and rarely bronchus, testis, ovary. In the small intestine, carcinoids are most often seen within the terminal 2 feet of the ileum. * They arise from the enterochromaffin cells (Kulchitsky cells) found in the crypts of Lieberkuhn. * These cells are capable of APUD (Amine precursor uptake and Decarboxylation) and can secrete vasoactive peptides. * Carcinoid syndrome is seen in 40% of patients. * Carcinoid in appendix is usually single. But commonly it causes luminal obstruction and so presents with features of appendicitis. Common site is at tip/distal 2/3. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 812
1
Appendix
Liver
Intestines
Pancreas
Surgery
G.I.T
aef65d29-b71c-44cf-beca-5d3c0979343c
single
Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly?
NSAID'S Inhibit COX enzyme reversibly, Except Aspirin which is an irreversible inhibitor of this enzyme . Alprostadil -PGE1 and prednisolone do not inhibit cox enzyme .
3
Alprostadil
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Prednisolone
Pharmacology
Hematology
ab94cdbd-bc8a-46c7-b31c-ca7dde667157
single
All of the following are bullous lesions except -
Primary blistering disorder Intraepidermal → Pemphigus vulgaris, P. foliaceous, P. vegetans, P. erythematosus. Subepidermal → Bullous pemphigoid, Dermatitis herpe4formis, Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
3
Pemphigus vulgaris
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Atopic dermatitis
Pemphigoid
Dental
null
c8ce661f-7f22-47a3-8768-235ade9a6171
multi
Holt Gram syndrome is characterized by
null
1
ASD
VSD
TGA
AR
Medicine
null
9a22bd5f-d573-45fd-9371-fc71cd5204bd
single
Not a dietary source of vit. B12-
Ans. is 'c' ie. Soyabean Vit B12 is present in foods of animal origin and is not present in foods of vegetable sources.
3
Fish
Meat
Soya bean
Liver
Biochemistry
Nutrition & Digestion
603728a8-eccd-49fd-bb3a-58448a1d5bd7
single
Intussusception is associated with:
Ref: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Chapter 66 Intestinal Obstruction Pages 1191-12 & Donald A, Antonio!i, " Gastrointestinal Autonomic Nerve Tumors, expanding the spectrum of gastrointestinal stromal tumors," Arch Pathol Lab Med: 1989: 113: 831-833.Explanation:IntussusceptionInvagination of an intestinal segment (the intussusception) into the next distal part of the intestine forms a sheath around it (the intussuscipiens) producing a form of intestinal obstruction called 'intussusception'.The most common cause is hypertrophy of the Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum from an antecedent viral infection.The hypertrophied lymphatic patch becomes drawn into the lumen of the terminal ileum and is moved progressively into the ascending and transverse colon.Other predisposing factors includePolypsMeckel's diverticulumBenign tumors like lipomaLeiomyomaMalignant tumors such as lymphoma which may act as lead points for intussusception.GI lipomas, most common in the ileum, are single intramural lesion, submucosal in location and usually small.One portion of the gut becomes invaginated within an immediately adjacent segment: almost invariably, it is the proximal into the distal.The condition is encountered most commonly in children, with a peak incidence between 5 and 10 months of age.About 90% of cases are idiopathic but an associated upper respiratory tract infection or gastroenteritis may precede the condition.It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum.Weaning, loss of passively acquired maternal immunity and common viral pathogens have all been implicated in the pathogenesis of intussusception in infancy.Children Pathological lead pointsMeckel's diverticulumPolypduplication,Henoch-Schonlein purpuraAppendixAdult cases lead pointA polyp (e.g. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)A submucosal lipomaother tumoursPathologyAn intussusception is composed of three parts:The entering or inner tube (intussusceptum)The returning or middle tube:The sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).The part that advances is the apex, the mass is the intussusception and the neck is the junction of the entering layer with the mass.An intussusception is an example of a strangulating obstruction as the blood supply of the inner layer is usually impaired.The degree of ischaemia is dependent on the tightness of the invagination, which is usually greatest as it passes through the ileocaecal valve.Intussusception may be anatomically defined according to the site and extent of invagination.In most children, the intussusception is ileocolicIn adults, colocolic intussusception is commonIntussusceptionMost common in childrenPrimary or secondary to intestinal pathology, e.g. polypMeckel's diverticulumIleocolic is the commonest varietyCan lead to an ischaemic segmentRadiological reduction is indicated in most casesThe remainder require surgery
1
Submucous lipoma
Subserosal lipoma
Intramural lipoma
Serosal lipoma
Surgery
Intestinal Obstruction
8970609a-1e5d-4156-a297-d2eb1155be02
single
'Shrinking lung' is a feature of
Shrinking lung syndrome (SLS) is a rare complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) characterized by unexplained dyspnea, a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests, and an elevated hemidiaphragm.. This disorder is seen primarily during the later stages of SLE Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 533
2
Rheumatoid ahritis
SLE
Systemic scleoris
Polymyosities
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
A 40 years old patient who has been consuming cannabis regularly for last 20 years comes to you in withdrawal. What is the most frequently seen withdrawal symptom?
Irritability is the most common cannabis withdrawal syndrome Withdrawal symptoms- Irritability Depressed mood Sleep disturbances Headache
3
Yawning
Seizures
Irritability
Tremors
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
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True regarding comparison values of cow and human milk are all except: March 2012
Ans: D i.e. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose Comparison of human and cow link Protein in human milk is 1.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 3.2 Calcium in human milk is 28 mg, whereas in cow milk it is 120 mg Minerals in human milk is 0.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 0.8 g Lactose in human milk is 7.4 g, whereas in cow milk it is 4.4 g
4
Human milk has comparatively less of protein
Human milk has comparatively less of calcium
Human milk has comparatively less of minerals
Human milk has comparatively less of lactose
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antitoxin Treatment of diphtheria . Administration of diphtherial antitoxin is the most impoant element in the treatment of respiratory diphtheria. . The primary goal of antibiotic therapy is to eradicate C. diphtheriae. Drugs currently used are erythromycin or procaine penicillin G. alternatives are rifampicin or clindamycin. Prophylaxis of diphtheria . Diphtheria can be controlled by immunisation. The objective of immunisation is to increase protective level of antitoxin in circulation. Three methods of immunisation are available : 1) Active immunisation By administration of toxoid, either formal toxoid or adsorbed toxoid. It is the best method for prevention. . Usually intramuscular injection is given. . Provide herd immunity. . Primary immunization consists of 3 doses at four weeks interval. 2) Passive immunisation . By subcutaneous injection of antitoxin (antidiphtheric serum (ADS)). . This is an emergency measure to be employed when susceptibles are exposed to infection. 3) Combined immunization . Ideally, all cases that receive ADS prophylactically should receive combined immunisation. . This consists of administration of toxoid in one arm and antitoxin in the other.
1
Antitoxin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Microbiology
null
d7ec1307-7179-47c0-b398-82a286b6eee3
single
Which of the following drug is not needed to be present in tubular lumen for diuretic action?
Aldosterone receptor antagonist Osmotic diuretics Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Thiazides spironolactone, eplerenone inhibit the aldosterone channels located on the basal side cells of collecting tubule, so they are not secreted in lumen. They filter across the glomerulus and in the nephron it will attract water, so it needs to come in the lumen They are also filtered in the tubule and inhibit carbonic anhydrase They are also fitered in lumen and they inhibit the Na+ Cl- channels in the DCT So the answer is '4'.
4
Chlohiazide
Acetazolamide
Mannitol
Eplerenone
Pharmacology
Kidney
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A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
Ans. (A) Organophosphate poisoning(Ref: Katzung 12/e p110)These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.Features of Organophosphate poisoning:* Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia* Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea* CNS symptoms: Temors, giddiness, ataxia, coma* Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands
1
Organophosphate poisoning
Datura poisoning
Opioid poisoning
Pontine hemorrhage
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
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single
Mid day meal programme comes under ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ministry of education
2
Ministry of Social Welfare
Ministry of education
Ministry of Human Resources Developments
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are
The HMP shunt pathway has oxidative and non-oxidative phases. During the oxidative phase, glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized with the generation of 2 molecules of NADPH, and one molecule of pentose phosphate, with the liberation of one molecule of CO2. During the non-oxidative phase, the pentose phosphates are converted to intermediates of glycolysis.
2
NADH and pentose sugars
NADPH and pentose sugars
Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars
Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose
Physiology
null
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Propronolol is useful in all except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Parkinsonian tremor o Propranolol inhibits the tremors which are due to overactivity of adrenergic system b 2-receptor), e.g. in thyrotoxicosis. o But, parkinsonian tremor and intention tremor are not due to sympathetic overactivity --> b -blocker has no role. b -blockers are DOC for HOCM and for controling the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.
2
Atrial flutter
Parkinsonian tremor
Thyrotoxicosis
HOCM
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________
Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categories based on urgency such as emergency, urgency, scheduled, elective) Neonatal blood transfusion may be needed. Vagos method: It is a management technique used in Umbilical cord prolapse, where Foley catheter is placed and the bladder provides upward pressure on the fetus, thus alleting the compression on the cord. Ref: DC Dutta&;s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 301
3
Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum
Rapid induction and delivery by forceps
Immediate LSCS
Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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Risk factor for bladder carcinoma is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Schistosoma hematobium Risk factors for ca of BladderCigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts for about 50% of bladder cancers.Occupational exposures to chemicalso The following compounds mav be carcinogenic # 2 naphthylamine-combustion gases and soot from coal# 4-aminobiphenyl-chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons# 4-nitrobiphenyl-certain aldehydes such as acrolein# 4-4-diaminobiphenyl (benzidine)-aniline dyes# 2-ami- 1-naphthol o Occupation reported to be associated with increased risk of bladder cancer# Autoworkers-metal workers# Painters-textile worker# Truck drivers-dye workers# Drill press operator-petrol workers# Leather workers-rodent exterminators & sevage workersSchistosoma haemotobium - Its a risk factor for both transitional cell ca & squamous cell ca.Drugs such as phenacetin & chlornaphazineCyclophosphamide therapyPelvic irradiationo Vitamin A supplements appear to be protective.
2
Clonorcis sinensis
Schistosoma hematobium
Plasmodium
None
Surgery
Bladder Cancer
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most coomon benign tumor of parotid gland?
Pleomorphic Adenoma : Epithelial Components Tubular and cord-like arrangements Cells contain a moderate amount of cytoplasm Mitoses are rare Stromal or "mesenchymal" Components Can be quite variable Attributable to the myoepithelial cells Most tumors show chondroid (cailaginous) differentiation Osseous metaplasia not uncommon Relatively hypocellular and composed of pale blue to slightly eosinophilic tissue. ref : bailey and love 27th ed
1
pleomrophic adenoma
wahins tumor
mucoepidermoid tumor
adenoid cystic tumor
Surgery
All India exam
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single
All are example for randomised control trials except-
.the major type of randomised controlled trials includes, 1.clinical trials 2.preventive trials. 3.risk factor trials 4.cessation experimnts 5.trial of aetiological agents. 6.evaluation of health services. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 82
1
Natural experiments
Clinical trials
Risk factor trials
Preventive trials
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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multi
Stain used for the diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma
.
1
Myeloperoxidase
Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
Non specific esterase
Neuron specific esterase
Anatomy
All India exam
bc1682e3-8a3f-43a9-98cb-a3b205d357e3
single
Six penny bruise is seen in ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation Six penny bruiseThese are discoid shaped bruises of about 1 cm in diameter resulted from fingeip pressure usually seen in neck region because of manual strangulation. These are called six penny bruise because of resemblance with six penny.
1
Manual strangulation
Hanging
Pedestrian injury
Head injury
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is not a Deep Lymphoid tissue
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT): Small numbers of lymphocytes may be present almost anywhere in the body, but signifi cant aggregations are seen in relation to the mucosa of the respiratory, alimentary and urogenital tracts. These aggregations are referred to as MALT. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the respiratory system: In the respiratory system the aggregations are relatively small and are present in the walls of the trachea and large bronchi. The term bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT) is applied to these aggregations. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the alimentary system: This is also called gutassociated lymphoid tissue (GALT) and includes Peyer's patches of ilium, adenoids (located in the roof of pharynx), lingual tonsils in posterior 1/3rd of tongue, palatine tonsils and lymphoid nodules in vermiform appendix. REF : Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, Seventh edition, pg.no., 127, 128.
4
MALT
GALT
BALT
DLT
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
On ECG, ST segment elevation is seen in all of the following conditions except: March 2012
Ans: D i.e. Hypocalcemia ECG changes and conditions ST elevation may signify myocardial infarction, pericarditis or left ventricular aneurysm QT prolongation may occur with congenital long QT syndrome, low potassium, low magnesium, low calcium etc.
3
Left ventricular aneurysm
Acute pericarditis
Myocardial infarction
Hypocalcemia
Medicine
null
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Patient presented with loss of sensations in the lateral three and a half fingers. Which of the following will be an additional finding in this patient?
This is the case of median nerve injury; sensation is lost over area supplied by median nerve. Findings: Injury or compression of median nerve at wrist (e.g. Carpal tunnel syndrome) can be tested by 1. Pen test for abductor pollicis brevis there is inability to touch the pen kept above the palm by thumb abduction 2. Ape thumb deformity (In median nerve palsy, the thumb is adducted and laterally rotated and lies in same plane as rest of finger, due to unopposed action of extensor pollicis longus (radial nerve) and adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve). 3. Loss of opposition 4. Sensory loss lateral 3 1/2 of digits and 2/3rd palm (autonomous zone is tip of index and middle finger) 5. Loss of sensation over thenar eminence 6. Anterior dislocation of lunate may cause median nerve compression.
1
Opponens paralysis
Loss of sensation on hypothenar eminence
Atrophy of adductor pollicis
None of the above
Orthopaedics
Nerve Injuries - 1
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. In myocardial infarction, early light microscopic change is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Waviness of fibres
1
Waviness of fibres
Necrosis of fibres
Round cell infiltration
None
Pathology
null
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multi
Infections transmitted from man to animals is known as
null
2
Anthropozoonoses
Zooanthroponoses
Zoonoses
Amphixenosis
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
The small intestine is characterized by basal crypts and superficial villi (Figure below). Where does cell division take place?Schematic representation of villi and crypts of Lieberkuhn
Small-bowel turnover can be measured in rats by autoradiographic studies in which turnover of cells located in the crypts migrate along the villus toward the tip over a 2- to 3- day period. Intestinal villous mucosa undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia whenever an increased food load continuously enters the small intestine.
2
Submucosa
Crypts
Villi
Small-bowel lumen
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
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Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic hea disease show all of the following features, except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitheloid cell
2
Anitschkow cells
Epitheloid cells
Giant cells
Fibrinoid necrosis
Pathology
null
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multi
Rituximab is used in all except
Ans. is 'b' i.e. PNH Cancer cells express a variety of antigen.These antigens can be targeted by certain antibodies which are specifically directed towards those antigens. The antigen antibody reaction leads to death of the cancer cells.Antibodies {monoclonal antibodies) are now being prepared by immunizing mice against human tumour cells and obtaining.The antibodies so obtained have a short-half life and induce human anti-mouse antibody immune response. They are usually chimer zed or humanized when used as therapeutic reagents.Presently several monoclonal antibodies have received FDA approval for t/t of tumours. These includeRituximabAlemtuzumabTrastuzumabMechanism of action of the monoclonal antibodies:-The clinically relevant mechanism of action is not clear but certain other reasons have been postulated which areAntibody dependent cellular toxicityComplement dependent cytotoxicityDirect induction of apoptosisRituximabRituximab is a chimeric antibody that targets CD 20 B cell antigen.CD-20 is present on the cells from Pre-B cell stage and is expressed on 90% of B cell neoplasms.Rituximab is the first monoclonal antibody to receive FDA approval.It is primarily used in the t/t of lymphomas.Binding of Rituximab to CD20 generates transmembrane signals that produce autophosphorylation and activation of serine/tyrosine protein kinases.Uses of RituximabLymphoma (B cell lymphomas)Low grade lymphomasMantle cell lymphomasRelapsed aggressive B cell lymphomasChronic lymphocytic leukemiaSLE (Harrison 17th/e p 2082 Fig. 313.3)(used in patient with severe SLE)Rheumatoid arthritisRituximab has shown benefit in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis refractory to anti TNF agentsRituximab has been approved for the treatment of active rheumatoid arthritis when combined with methotrexate.
2
NHL
PNH
RA
SLE
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
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multi
Following are true about case control study except-
Case control studies often retrospective studies are common first approach to test causal hypothesis. In recent years, case control study has emerged as a permanent method of epidemiological investigation. Both exposure and outcome has occurred before the study. Study proceeds backwards from effect to cause. It uses a control or comparison group to suppo or refute an inference Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 79
2
Retrospective study
Risk factor is present but not outcome
Both outcome and risk factors have occured
There is not risk to people in study
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme
Cyclooxygenase is a "Suicide Enzyme""Switching off " of prostaglandin activity is paly achieved by a remarkable propey of cyclooxygenase--that of self-catalyzed destruction; that is, it is a "suicide enzyme." Fuhermore, the inactivation of prostaglandins by 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase is rapid. Blocking the action of this enzyme with sulfasalazine or indomethacin can prolong the half-life of prostaglandins in the body.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 23; Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids & Eicosanoids
1
Cyclooxygenase
Lipooxygenase
5-nucleotidase
Thrombaxane synthase
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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Depolarizing muscle relaxant –
null
1
Scoline
Ketamine
Halothane
Atracurium
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Which of the following disease modifying anti–rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) is the drug of first choice ?
null
1
Methotrexate
Gold compounds
D-penicillamine
Anakinra
Pharmacology
null
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single
The predominant symptom/sign of pheochromocytoma is:
Answer is D (Episodic Hypeension): The predominant manifestation of Pheochromocytoma is Hypeension which classically presents as Episodic Hypeension (Sustained Hypeension and Ohostatic Hypotension may also be seen). 'The dominant sign is Hypeension. Classically patients have episodic hypeension, but sustained hypeension is also common' - Harrison
4
Sweating
Weight loss
Ohostatic hypotension
Episodic hypeension
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is best suited to diagnose acute apical periodontitis
null
1
Percussion
Thermal tests
Electric pulp tests
Anaesthetic test
Dental
null
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single
Which of the following statements concerning the lateral horn of the spinal cord is true
It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers Lateral horns carry the autonomic neurons Posterior horns have sensory & anterior horns have motor neurons.
2
It contains postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
. It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers
It gives rise to a spinothalamic tract
It is present at all spinal cord levels
Surgery
null
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multi
Which one of the following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor -a) IgAb) IgDc) IgMd) lgG
B cells display immunoglobulin molecules on their surface. These immunoglobulins serve as receptors for a specific antigen, so that each B cell can respond to only one antigen or a closely related group of antigens. All immature B cells carry Ig M immunoglobulins on their surface and most also early Ig D. Combination of cell membrane bound Ig M or Ig D with the corresponding antigen leads to specific stimulation of the B cells - either activation and cloning to produce antibody, or suppression. B cells also have surface receptors for the Fe portion of inununogloblins and for several complement components.
2
a
bc
ac
ad
Microbiology
null
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single
Which of the following is an anticoagulant drug ?
null
4
Heparin
Ximelagatran
Fondaparinux
All of these
Pharmacology
null
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multi
The following marker is used to assess the monoclonality in T-cells -
Molecular analysis of the rearrangement in T cell population can distinguish polyclonal lymphocyte proliferations from monoclonal expansions. Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition pg no 100:
2
Kappa and Lambda chain
TCR gene rearrangement
CD
CD34
Pathology
General pathology
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All are features of septic tank except:
SEPTIC TANK: Is a water-tight masonary tank into which household sewage is admitted for treatment Is a satisfactory method of disposing liquid and excreta wastes from individuals dwellings, small groups of houses or institutions which have &;adequate water supply but donot have access to a public sewerage system&; Design features of a septic tank: Ideal retention period: 24 hours Steps of purification in a septic tank: Anaerobic digestion: Takes place in septic tank proper Aerobic oxidation: Takes place in sub-soil (outside septic tank) Ref: Park 25th edition &; Pgno: 797
1
Ideal retention period-48 hours
Minimum capacity-500 gallons
Aerobic oxidation takes place outside
Sludge is solids setting down
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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multi
a patient of age 65 years , who is obesity of bmi >40 , known diabetic and hypeensive .patient complaints of breathlessness , excessive sleeping during morning time with headache and with mood swings, what is drug that helps in resolving the symptoms ?
OSA-obstructive sleep apnea #Pathophysiology of OSA Tissue laxity and redundant mucosa Normal Anatomic abnormalities * Decreased muscle tone with REM sleep """&;"&;n * Airway collars, * Desaturation ( 02 ) * Arousal with restoration of airway * Sleep Fragmentation leading to Hypersomnoien, * Clinical features of Obstructive Sleep Apnea: #Excessive daytime sleepiness #Morning headache #Cardiopulmonary dysfunction -- hypeension -- cardiac arrhythmias -- hea failure #Impaired memory and concentration #Reduced intellectual ability #Disturbed personality and mood . *The dominant symptoms of OSA are excessive sleepiness, impaired concentration and snoring. Pharmacologic therapy * Modafinil is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in patients who have residual daytime sleepiness despite optimal use of CRAP. * Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor agents such as paroxetine (Paxil) and fluoxetine (Prozac) have been shownto increase genioglossal muscle activity and decrease REM sleep (apneas are more common in REM), although this has not translated to a reduction in AHI in apnea patients ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
4
salbutamol
amoxitine
phenylephrine
modafinil
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
in census literacy rate is assessed by:
Ans: C (Ability to read and write) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park. 22nd edition. page no 44 7Explanation:Census is conducted once in 10 years in India.Literacy rate is assessed those above 7 years ageIn census it was first used in 1991 censusA person who can read and write with understanding in any language is considered as literateA person who can merely read but cannot write is not considered literate
3
Attended literacy classes for one year
Ability to write signature
Ability to read and write
Attended schooling
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography
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Influenza virus has?
Influenza virus jad ss RNA , it is segmented& exists ad right piece REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.497
4
5 segments of SS RNA
8 segments of ds DNA
8 segments of ds DNA
8 segments of ssRNA
Microbiology
Virology
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single
Chignon is:
A vacuum is applied (usually 0.2 kg/cm2 for vacuum extraction of a baby). The scalp is sucked into the cup and an artificial caput is produced. This chignon usually disappears in a few hours.
2
Cephal hematoma
Artificial caput
Scalp laceration
Excessive moulding
Unknown
null
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single
Gerlach tonsil is
A collection of lymphoid tissue is present in the nasopharynx, behind the tubal opening. It is called the tubal tonsil, also known as Gerlach tonsil. It is continuous with the lateral pa of the pharyngeal tonsil. In Waldeyer's lymphatic ring, the most impoant aggregations are the right and left palatine tonsils. Posteriorly and above there is the pharyngeal tonsil; laterally and above there are the tubal tonsils, and inferiorly there is the lingual tonsil over the posterior pa of the dorsum of the tongue. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
3
Palatine tonsil
Lingual tonsil
Tubal tonsil
Nasopharyngeal tonsil
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
Structure related to deltopectoral groove ?
Ans. is b' i.e., Cephalic veinDeltopectoral groove is a groove between deltoid muscle and pectoralis major muscle. It is traversed by cephalic vein
2
Axillary aery
Cephalic vein
Baselic vein
Radial nerve
Anatomy
null
8b575402-dd62-4075-8a4e-bafb9dcf577a
single
Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :
D i.e. Naevus anemicus
4
Becker naevus
Freckles
Nevus Ito
Nevus anemicus
Skin
null
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single
Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is -
The patient presents with hyperextension deformity of the knee.
4
Varus
Valgus
Flexion
Hyperextens ion
Orthopaedics
null
5e57ed8d-d38b-40d0-8de1-6577d29b0167
single
Puscher retinopathy is seen in patients with -
Putscher's retinopathy is a disease where pa of the eye (retina) is damaged. Usually associated with severe head injuries, it may also occur with other types of trauma, such as long bone fractures, or with several non-traumatic systemic diseases. However, the exact cause of the disease is not well understood. There are no treatments specific for Puscher's retinopathy, and the prognosis varies. The disease can threaten vision, sometimes causing temporary or permanent blindness.
3
Complication of chronic pancreatitis
Occlusion of anterior retinal aery
Head trauma
Diabetes mellitus
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
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single
Mutation in which of the following gene is found in Marfan's syndrome?
Marfan's syndrome is caused by recurrent de novo missense mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene. Fibrillin1 is a large glycoprotein that is a structural component of microfibrils. Fibrillin 1 is found in the zonular fibers of the lens, in the periosteum and elastin fibers of aoa. Defect in fibrillin gene accounts for the manifestations of marfans syndrome such as ectopia lentis, arachnodactyly and cardiovascular problems. Mutation of fibrillin 2 gene on chromosome 5 lead to causation of congenital contractural arachnodactyly.
3
Collagen I
Collagen IV
Fibrillin I
Fibrillin II
Pathology
null
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single
The best time of extraction in pregnancy is
null
2
First trimester
Second trimester
Third trimester
None of these
Surgery
null
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multi
Select inappropriate statement regarding Cholera
Cholera: - Caused by Vibrio cholera - ELTOR - MC subtype in India now. - Route of transmission - FECO-ORAL ROUTE - I.P - 1-2 days - Clinical feature: Rice-watery diarrhea - It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Groups Antibiotic of choice for cholera Adults Doxycycline Children Azithromycin Pregnancy Azithromycin Chemoprophylaxis Tetracycline
3
Incubation period 1-2 days
Rice - watery diarrhoea
Azithromycin is treatment of choice in adults
It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally
Social & Preventive Medicine
Intestinal Infections, Worm Infestations
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A 34-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of weakness and fatigue. There is no history of drug or alcohol abuse. A CBC shows megaloblastic anemia and a normal reticulocyte count. Further laboratory studies reveal vitamin B12 deficiency Anemia in this patient is most likely caused by which of the following?
Autoimmune gastritis refers to chronic, diffuse inflammatory disease of the stomach that is restricted to the body and fundus and is associated with other autoimmune phenomena. This disorder typically features diffuse atrophic gastritis, antibodies to parietal cells and the intrinsic factor, and increased serum gastrin due to G-cell hyperplasia. Immunologic destruction of parietal cells and antibody targeting of intrinsic factor interfere with intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 . As a result, all lineages of bone marrow precursors show asynchronous maturation between the nucleus and cytoplasm (megaloblastic cells), and the peripheral blood displays megaloblastic anemia. Megaloblastic anemia that is caused by malabsorption of vitamin B12 , occasioned by a deficiency of the intrinsic factor, is referred to as "pernicious anemia." The other choices are not causes of pernicious anemia.Diagnosis: Autoimmune atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia
2
Acute erosive gastritis
Autoimmune gastritis
Helicobacter pylori gastritis
Menetrier disease
Pathology
G.I.T.
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single
Circumduction test is used for
Ref : essential ohopaedic maheshwari 9th ed
2
Anterior shoulder instability
Posterior shoulder instability
Inferior shoulder instability
Either of above
Orthopaedics
Anatomy and physiology of bone and fracture healing
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multi
What is true for fixed prosthesis?
null
3
It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum compressive strength and low tensile strength
It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum compressive strength and low shear strength
Cement is weakest phase in fixed prosthesis
Increased thickness of cement will cause less flaw compared to small thickness
Dental
null
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multi
Pulled up cecum is seen in
Pulled up conical caecum is the finding seen in ileocaecal TB in Barium study X ray (enteroclysis followed by barium enema or barium meal follow through X ray) Reference : page 584 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
3
CA colon
Carcinoid
Ileocaecal tuberculosis
Crohn's disease
Surgery
Urology
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single
Sturge weber syndrome is associated with –a) Port wine stainb) Cavernous hemangiomac) Lymphangiomad) hemangiosarcoma
Clinical feature of Sturge-weber's syndrome  Unilateral facial nerves (port-wine stain) on upper face and eye lid. Cavernous hemangioma Seizures --> Focal tonic-clonic and contralateral to the site of nerves. Hemiparessis Transient stroke like episodes Visual defects Buphthalmos and glaucoma -k Same side. Mental retardation Pheochromocytoma
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Pediatrics
null
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single
Concentration of which is inversely related to the risk of coronary hea disease
Role of LDL and HDL Recent studies have shown that atherogenic significance of the total cholesterol concentration must be viewed with restrictions. From numerous studies, it is now concluded that LDL is the carrier of 70 percent of total cholesterol and it transpos cholesterol to tissues and thus is most potential atherogenic agent. On the other hand, an increase of second cholesterol-rich class HDL is not associated with 'risk' at all. An inverse relation between CHD and HDL concentration has been found. A raised HDL concentration is beneficial and protective against CHD. This protective mechanism is explained by the following two mechanisms operating in parallel: * "Reverse transpo" of cholesterol from peripheral tissues into the Liver by way of HDL which thus reduces the intracellular cholesterol content (scavenging action of HDL). * Control of catabolism of TG rich lipoproteins. High HDL concentrations are associated with a faster elimination from the plasma of TG rich lipoproteins and their atherogenic intermediate.Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no: 441
3
VLDL
LDL
HDL
None
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
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multi
Residual ridge resorption is:
null
1
Directly proportional to the anatomic factor.
Indirectly proportional to the force.
Directly proportional to the damping effect.
Directly proportional to the bone-forming factors.
Dental
null
88faa6c7-3a35-4635-b1fa-c5658f3fa1f3
single
What is the most common site of an accessory spleen?
Splenunculi- single or multiple accessory spleens MC site: near the hilum of the spleen > behind the tail of the pancreas The remainder are located in the mesocolon, greater omentum or the splenic ligaments. Significance- failure to identify and remove these at the time of splenectomy may give rise to persistent disease
4
Greater curvature of the stomach
Gastrocolic ligament
Splenocolic ligament
Splenic hilum
Surgery
Spleen
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single
Linitis plastica is a feature of -a) Hiatus herniab) Chronic gastric ulcerc) Lymphoma of stomachd) Diffuse carcinoma stomach
Linitis plastica Involvement of a broad region of the gastric wall or entire stomach by diffuse stomach cancer cause linitis plastica. It is also known as Brinton's disease. The appearance of stomach is like leather bottle. The other cause of linitis plastica are : Lye ingestion     Sarcoidosis              Metastatic infiltration of stomach Non -hodgkin lymphoma of stomach Syphilis
4
ab
bc
bd
cd
Pathology
null
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single
The time duration for functioning of corpus luteum after ovulation in a nonpregnant female is:
Following ovulation, the corpus luteum develops from the remains of the dominant or Graafian follicle in a process referred to as luteinization. The human corpus luteum is a transient endocrine organ that, in the absence of pregnancy, will rapidly regress 9 to 11 days after ovulation. Luteolysis results from decreased levels of circulating LH in the late luteal phase and decreased LH sensitivity of luteal cells. Luteolysis is characterized by a loss of luteal cells by apoptotic cell death. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 3. Implantation, Embryogenesis, and Placental Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
2
5 days
10 days
14 days
30 days
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Today vaginal sponge failure rate is?
Ans. (b) 9%Ref: Appendix-115 for "METHODS OF CONTRACEPTION"
2
5%
9%
16%
20%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Non-Hormonal - Barrier Methods
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