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True-regarding DNA-replication:
All of the above
4
Semi conservative
Sister Chromatids are formed.
Follow base pair rule
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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multi
Nipple confusion means?
Ans. (a) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breastRef: OP Ghai 8th ed./153* A problem that may beset a bottlefed baby in which it forgets how to nurse on mother' nipple* Breastfeeding requires far more vigorous mouth and tongue motions and greater muscle coordination than bottlefeeding.* On bottle nipples or even pacifiers, a newborn can forget how to nurse properly.* This confusion can lead to diminished or discontinued nursing. Nipple confusion is usually not a concern after the early weeks, once the baby is nursing well.
1
Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast
Baby not able to suckle with bottle
Baby not able to feed with spoon
Baby not able to feed with paladin
Pediatrics
Newborn Infant - Parent-Infant Bonding
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Which of the following releases single wavelength of energy?
null
4
QTH
PAC
LED
Argon lasers
Dental
null
083d69ba-8d0b-453c-a921-0f5eb17fc21c
single
Enzyme Transketolase requires ?
Transketolase reactions require thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).Coenzyme can be classified according to the group whose transfer they facilitate.a) For transfer groups other than hydrogen :- Sugar phosphate, CoA-SH, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), Pyridoxal phosphate, Folate, Biotin.b) For transfer of hydrogen : - NAD+, NADP+, FMN, FAP, Lipoic acid,Coenzyme Q.
2
FAD
TPP
PLP
FMN
Biochemistry
null
cde502eb-c45b-48ae-ae52-2557bd0c44ac
single
What is seen earliest in USG?
Yolk sac is the first anatomic structure seen within gestational sac. By TVS, it can be seen as early as 5.5week By TAS, it is seen by 7 weeks. Ref:Datta Obs 9e pg 601.
1
Yolk sac
Fetal hea
Chorion
Placenta
Anatomy
General obstetrics
2202281e-136d-4e12-9213-75e16160dda2
single
Tennis Racquet cells
Rhabdomyosarcoma An adjectival description for a relatively elongated cell, lesion, structure or radiological density that is globose at one end and elongated at the other, alike to the device used in game of tennis. Tennis racquet cell: A tennis-racquet-shaped variant of rhabdomyoblast seen in sarcoma botryoides, a form of rhabdomyosarcoma affecting children. The key cell to recognize by routine microscopy is the rhabdomyoblast, a cell with an eccentric round nucleus and variable amounts of brightly eosinophilic cytoplasm. 'Tennis racquet' appearance: A descriptive term for the ping-pong paddle-like thickening of the mesangium in glomeruli affected by Kimmelstiel Wilson disease. Tennis racquet granule: Birbeck granule; Langerhans' granule. A subcellular paicle with a pentilaminar 'handle' and bulbous terminal dilation of unceain significance that is seen by electron microscopy in the antigen-presenting Langerhans cell and in histiocytes. 'Tennis racquet sign (radiology): The description for a finding in a 'blighted ovum' in which the ultrasonically empty gestational sac is compressed (the racquet's 'handle') and adjacent to a surrounding decidual reaction (the 'paddle'); aka Tadpole sign. 'Tennis racquet' spore (microbiology): A descriptive term for the morphology of the subterminal spores in the gram positive Clostridium tetani, as well as in C. diphtheriae.
2
Rhabdomyoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Histiocytoma
Eosinophilic granuloma
Surgery
null
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single
Hidebound disease is:
Systemic Sclerosis: Scleroderma, dermatosclerosis, hidebound disease.
2
DLE.
Scleroderma.
Acrodermatitis enteropathica.
None.
Pathology
null
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Patient with head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without hematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be:
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is used for Increased intracranial or intraocular tension (acute congestive glaucoma, head injury, stroke, etc.): by osmotic action, it encourages the movement of water from brain parenchyma, CSF and aqueous humor; The dose is 1-1.5 g/kg is infused over 1 hour as 20% solution to transiently raise plasma osmolarity. It is also used before and after ocular /brain surgery to prevent the acute rise in intraocular/intracranial pressure. osmotic diuretics are excreted unchanged in the urine ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 572 ) eding
3
Furosemide
Steroids
20% Mannitol
Glycine
Pharmacology
Kidney
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Which is derived from thoracolumbar fascia -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral arcuate ligament o Thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles of back of the trunk, o It is composed of three fascial layers -i) Anterior layer# It is the thinnest layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Laterally it fuses with fascia transversalis and aponeurosis of transversus abdominis# Inferiorly it is attached to iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th rib and extends to transverse process of Lj forming the lateral arcuate ligament of diaphragm.ii) Middle layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Inferiorly it is attached to iliac rest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th ribiii) Posterior layer# It is the thickest layer and attached to spines of lumbar verterae.o Quadratus lomborum is enclosed between anterior and middle layers. Erector spinae (paraspinal muscle) is enclosed between middle and posterior layer.
2
Medial arcuate ligament
Lateral arcuate ligament
Lacunar ligament
Cruciate ligament
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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single
A patient with carcinoma lower 1/3 of oesophagus, receives chemo Radiotherapy and dysphagia shows complete response. What is the next step in management?
- Clinical trials and meta-analyses have shown that a C + surgery regimen could significantly improve the survival of locally advanced esophageal carcinoma patients compared to surgery alone - Endoscopic biopsy, endoscopic ultrasonography, MRI (at various sequences) and PET-CT all had shocomings for evaluating cCR and the therapeutic effect of cCR (concurrent chemoradiation) and nC (Neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy)
3
Reassure
Follow with CT scan every 6 months
Esophagectomy
EUS to look for residual disease
Surgery
Esophagus
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Dennie-Morgan fold is seen in -
dennie morgan fold-accentuated grooves or lines below the lower eyelid margins. seen in atopic dermatitis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2534
4
Dermotomyositis
SLE
Psoriasis vulgaris
Atopic dermatitis
Dental
Dermatitis
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single
Stereotactic radiosurgery is used in which of the following conditions?
STEREOTACTIC RADIOSURGERY - SRS is a non-surgical radiation therapy used to treat functional abnormalities & small tumors of brain - Deliver precisely-targeted concentrated dose of radiation in fewer high-dose treatments to a defined volume in the brain Common uses of Stereotactic Radiosurgery (BAT) - Brain tumor(Benign, malignant, primary & metastatic tumors, single & multiple) - Benign lesions of cranial nerves - Aeriovenous malformations - Trigeminal neuralgia
4
Metastatic brain tumors
Aeriovenous malformations
Trigeminal neuralgia
All of the above
Surgery
CNS Tumors
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In MVP, you would expect the ejection click to be more accentuated and the murmur to move closer the first hea sound in a patient
Anxiety, with an increase in hea rate or decreasing venous return to the hea (standing), causes the click and murmur to occur earlier in systole (closer to S1). Lying down, squatting, sustained hand grip exercise, or passive leg lifting in the supine position increase venous return and cause the click and murmur to occur later in systole (less gravity and more venous return). The diagnosis is best made by echocardiography. -adrenergic blocking agents are frequently used for treatment of supraventricular tachycardias. Calcium channel blockers are also used in symptomatic cases. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1821,1697
1
With marked anxiety
Who is pregnant
Who is passive leg lifting in the supine position
On a beta blocker
Medicine
C.V.S
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Typhoid in first week of illness is best diagnosed by:-
Laboratory diagnosis of typhoid : 'BASU' mnemonic Test of diagnosis Time of diagnosis Remarks Blood culture 1st week Mainstay of diagnosis Antibodies (widal test) 2nd week Moderate sensitivity & specificity Stool culture 3rd week Useful for carries Urine test 4th week Useful for carries
4
Serum widal test
Stool culture
Urine test
Blood culture
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
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Prostaglandin causing renal vasodilation:
B i.e. PGE2 Blood vesselsPlateletsBronchiKidneyUterusPGE2VasodilationVariable effectDilatationVasodilatationRenin releaseContractionSoftening of cervix ContractionSoftening of cervixPFF2aVasodilation-Constriction-PGI2VasodilationAntiaggregatoryDilatationVasodilationRenin release?TXA2VasoconstrictionAggregationConstrictionVasoconstriction-
2
PGD2
PGE2
PGF2
All
Physiology
null
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multi
Cerberus is associated with development of:
The cells in the hypoblast (endoderm) at the cephalic margin of the disc form the anterior visceral endoderm, which expresses head forming genes, including OTX2, LIM1, and HESX1 and the secreted factor Cerberus. Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 5.
1
Head
Lung
Liver
None of the above
Anatomy
null
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multi
In which orthodontic movement utmost control is required
null
1
Intrusion
Extrusion
Tipping
Rotation
Dental
null
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single
Acute onset of cough, stridor and respiratory distress in the absence of fever is suggestive of:
Ans. A. Foreign bodyImmediate symptoms of foreign body inhalation include choking, coughing, increasing respiratory distress or difficulty in speaking.
1
Foreign body
Acute asthma
Aspiration Pneumonia
Primary complex
Pediatrics
Respiratory System
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Erythropoietin in kidney is secreted by
Interstitial cells in paritubular capillaries releoses erythroportin in responce to hypoxia.
3
Juxtaglomerular cells
PCT cells
Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries
Capillaries of glomerulus
Physiology
null
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What is the reason for Thyroid Storm after Total Thyroidectomy?
Ans. (b) Due to Inadequate Preparation of PatientRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition 229* It is a condition of hyperthyroidism accompanied by fever, central nervous system agitation or depression, cardiovascular dysfunction that may be precipitated by infection, surgery or trauma and occasionally by amiodarone administration.* It is common in inadequately prepared patient for surgery, accompanied by excess thyroid hormone release.
2
Due to Rough handling during Surgery.
Due to Inadequate preparation of patient
Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Injury
Parathyroid Damage
Surgery
Thyroid Gland
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True statement about tetracycline is
null
2
Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50s ribosomes in susceptible microorganisms
Tetracyclines have chelating property
Tetracyclines have anabolic activity
Tetracyclines are infrequently responsible for superinfection
Pharmacology
null
1247c2ee-17b5-4b4e-86ad-0bfd30a73e40
multi
'Alien limb' is characteristically seen in:
Coicobasal degeneration (CBD) is a slowly progressive dementing illness associated with severe gliosis and neuronal loss in both the coex and basal ganglia. CBD with unilateral onset presents with rigidity, dystonia, and apraxia of one arm and hand, sometimes called the alien limb when it begins to exhibit unintended motor actions. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 3312.
1
Coico basal degeneration
Diffuse Lewy body disease
Fronto temporal dementia
Alzheimer's disease
Medicine
null
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multi
Baby 20 year old female complains of sudden onset palpitation and apprehension. She is sweating for last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is -
The information in this question are: - 1) Sudden (abrupt) onset, 2) Palpitation, 3) Apprehension, 4) Sweating, 5) Sense of impending doom, 6) Symptoms lasts for few minutes (10 minutes). These are the features of panic disorder.
4
Hysteria
Generalized anxiety disorder
Cystic fibrosis
Panic attack
Psychiatry
null
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single
Which of the following is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat?
Ans: a (Alzheimer's disease) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 215Alzheimer's disease is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat. The rest 3 options are examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases where as Alzheimer's is primarly a degenerative disease (Basal ganglia) resulting in movement disorder.Some examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases:-Huntington's disease -- CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia --CAG(Type 1, 2, 3, 63)Fragile X syndrome -- CGGMyotonic dystrophy -- CTGFrederich's ataxia -- GAA
1
Alzheimer's disease
Fragile X
Huntington disease
Spinocerebellar ataxia Type 2
Pathology
Genetics
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single
Irreversible dementia is caused due to:
Vascular dementia is a cause of progressive dementia due to impaired blood supply to the brain.
4
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Wilson's disease
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
Vascular dementia
Pathology
null
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A 64-year-old man, who is a chronic alcoholic, presents with fever, chills and increasing shoness of breath. The patient appears in acute respiratory distress and complains of pleuritic chest pain. Physical examination shows crackles and decreased breath sounds over both lung fields. The patient exhibits tachypnea, with flaring of the nares. The sputum is thick, mucoidy and blood-tinged. Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of this patient's pulmonary infection?
Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most frequent cause of gram-negative bacterial pneumonia. It commonly afflicts debilitated and malnourished people, paicularly chronic alcoholics. Thick, mucoid (often blood-tinged) sputum is characteristic because the organism produces an abundant viscid capsular polysac-charide, which the patient may have difficulty expectorating.
2
Legionella pneumophila
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pathology
Infectious Lung Disease: Pneumonia
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The protein synthesis site of the cell body of neurons
The nissl bodies are the protein synthesis site in a neuron They are equivalent to rough endoplasmic reticulum Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition ,page number 676
1
Nissl bodies
Dendrites
Axon
All
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Bounderies of anatomical snuff box are all except
Ans. is 'd' i.e., ECU Anatomical Snuffbox Triangular depression on the dorsal and radial aspect of the hand become visible when thumb is fully extended. Boundaries Medial/Posterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. Lateral/Anterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus. Roof Skin and - fascia with beginning of cephalic vein and crossed by superficial branch of the radial nerve. Floor - Styloid process of radius, trapezium, scaphoid and base of 1st metacarpal. Contents - The radial aery.
4
APL
EPL
EPB
ECU
Anatomy
null
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Endemicity of a disease means:
Endemic Is the constant presence of a disease agent in a defined geographical area ; refers to 'usual or expected frequency' of a disease in a population. For instance, common cold is endemic because somebody always has one. Endemic diseases in India are : Measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, peussis, TB, HIV, Cancers, diabetes, hypeension etc. Epidemics can arise from uncontrolled endemics also.
2
Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
Is constantly present in a population
Exhibits seasonal pattern
Is prevalent among animals
Social & Preventive Medicine
Time Distribution, Epidemics
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Sulfasalzine is used in: March 2011
Ans. C: Ulcerative Colitis The mainstay of drug therapy for mild and moderate ulcerative colitis is sulfasalazine and other aminosalicylic acid (ASA) compounds and coicosteroids Sulfasalazine It is a sulfa drug, a derivative of mesalazine (also called 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA) Sulfasalazine is used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It is also indicated for use in rheumatoid ahritis and used in other types of inflammatory ahritis (e.g. psoriatic ahritis) where it has a beneficial affect. It is often well tolerated compared to other DMARDS. It is usually not given to children under 2 years of age. It yields the metabolite sulfapyridine which gives rise to side-effects such as agranulocytosis and hypospermia. The other metabolite of sulfasalazine, 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) is attributed to the drug's therapeutic effect. Therefore, 5-ASA and other derivatives of 5-ASA, are now usually preferred and given alone (as mesalazine), despite their increased cost, due to their more ourable side-effect profile. Sulfasalazine, and its metabolite 5-ASA, are poorly absorbed from the gut.
3
Gout
Irritable bowel disease
Ulcerative colitis
Idiopathic osteoahritis
Pharmacology
null
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True about sentinel surveillance is: March 2011
Ans. B: Supplements routine notification Sentinel surveillance helps in supplementing notified cases (those given through routine surveillance system- passive and active) Sentinel surveillance It is the collection and analysis of data by designated institutions selected for their geographic location, medical specialty, and ability to accurately diagnose and repo high quality data. For example, district hospitals may be required to repo specific conditions such as bacterial meningitis in order to quantify the burden of disease due to Haemophilus influenzae type b. Generally, sentinel surveillance is useful for answering specific epidemiologic questions, but, because sentinel sites may not represent the general population or the general incidence of disease, they may have limited usefulness in analyzing national disease patterns and trends.
2
Continuous oversight of activities
Supplements routine notification system
Beneficial for malaria surveillance
Keeps a check over health in border regions
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Paget's disease of the nipple is
Paget's disease of the nipple is superficial manifestation of an intraductal breast carcinoma. The malignancy spreads within the duct up to the skin of the nipple and down into the substance of the breast. It mimics eczema of nipple and areola. In Paget's disease, there is a hard nodule just underneath the areola, which later ulcerates and causes destruction of nipple. Histologically, it contains large, ovoid, clear Paget's cells with malignant features. Paget's hyperchromatic cells are located in rete pegs of epidermis containing intracellular mucopolysaccharides as clear halo in cytosol. Reference : page 533 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
1
Superficial manifestation of underlying breast Ca
Galactocele
Eczema
All of the above
Surgery
Urology
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One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy
ref Robbins 9/e p173 Matetnal disomy is associated with disorders like prader Willi syndrome, angelman syndrome.
1
Prader Willi syndrome
Angelman syndrome
Hydatidi form mole
Klinefelter syndrome
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Continuous murmur is seen in all the following except:
Answer is D (Peripheral Pulmonary Stenosis) The 'num:11r of pglmonary stenosis is harsh systolic ejection murmur typically preceded by a systolic ejection sound. It is not a continuous murmur. Continuous murmurs result from continuous flow between a high pressure and low pressure area that persists through the end of systole and beginning of diastole. Common Causes of continuous murmurs Systemic aeriovenous fistula Q (congenital /acquired) Coronary aeriovenous fistula Q Anomalous origin of Left coronary aery from pulmonary aery Communication between sinus of valsalva and right side of hea e (i.e.Ruptured sinus of valsalva into right side of hea) Coarctation of Aoa : Continuous murmur in the back Patent Ductus Aeriosus e (PDA) Surgically created shunts e.g. Blalock-Tausig shunt
4
Aoic sinus of valsalva rupture
Coarctation of Aoa
AV malformations
Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
Medicine
null
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Looser's zones is seen in – a) Osteoporosis b) Hyperparathyrodismc) Osteomalacia d) Renal osteodystrophye) Paget's disease
Looser's zone or pseudofracture is pathognomonic for osteomalacia, However, it may occur rarely also in Paget's disease, Fibrous dysplasia, Hyperparathyroidism, Renal osteodystrophy, Hyperphosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.
1
bcde
abd
abcd
acde
Radiology
null
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Acquired blue blindness is a feature of
Acquired Colour Blindness Acquired blue colour defect (blue blindness) : It may occur in old age due to increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens. It is owing to the physical absorption of the blue rays by the increased a.ambercoloured pigment in the nucleus. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-305
3
Disease of optic nerve
Disease of macula
Increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens
All of the above
Ophthalmology
Neuro-ophthalmology
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Most common cause for meningitis in adults: September 2009
Ans. D: Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults of age over twenty years, accounting for nearly half of the cases. N. meningitidis accounts for nearly 25% of the cases. Staph.aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci are impoant causes of meningitis that occurs following neurosurgical procedures.
4
H.Influenzae
N.meningitidis
Staph.aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Medicine
null
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False statement about post-dural puncture headache (PDPH):
Post Dural puncture Headache Pathophysiology - CSF leak - ICP |es - Traction on nerve fibres originating from piamater Site - Occipital > Frontal > Retrorbital Duration - 7-10 days Pathognomic sign - Change in posture aggravates headache Predisposing conditions - Dura cutting needle (spinal needle)* Most commonly seen with 22G Quincke needle Wide bore needle * Multiple attempts * Pregnancy (In pregnancy dura mater is very fragile- venous engorgement fragility increases chances of PDPH is more) Note- Early ambulation never predispose to PDPH
4
Breach of dura
Onset of headache is usually 12-72 hours following procedure
Commonly occipito - frontal in location
Headache is relieved in sitting standing position
Anaesthesia
FMGE 2018
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A 7 years old child from Bihar is having hypo pigmented anaesthetic patch on his face. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Recurrent scaly hypopigmented macule on the face of a child - P. alba Recurrent scaly hypopigmented macule on the face of an adult - P. versicolor Resident of the endemic zone with an anaesthetic patch over face - Indeterminate leprosy
1
Intermediate leprosy
Pityriasis alba
Nevus anemicus
Nevus achromicus
Dental
null
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discoverd by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Robe koch Scientist Associated with Fracastorius Proposed a contagium vivuin (cause of infectious disease) Von Plenciz Suggested that each disease is caused by a separate agent Augustino Bassi Earliest discovery of pathogenic microorganism Davaine and Pollender Observed anthrax bacilli in blood of animal Louis Pasteur Father of microbiology (Also see above explanation) Robe Koch Father of medical microbiology Discovered M. tuberculosis and V cholerae Introduced staining techniques methods of obtaining bacteria in pure culture on solid media Suggested Koch's postulate Joseph Lister Father of Aseptic surgery Proved that sepsis could be prevented by Hand hygiene Antony Van Leeuwen hoek Invented microscope (Father of compound microscope) Father of Bacteriology Edward Jenner Father of Immunology Peyton Rous Isolated virus causing sarcoma in fowl Von Behring & Kitasato Described antibody
2
Louis pasteur
Robe koch
Lister
Jener
Microbiology
null
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single
Which of the following is used for abdominal pregnancy
Studdiford criteria : To diagnose the abdominal pregnancy Both the tubes and ovaries are normal without any recent injuries Absence of uteroperitoneal fistula Presence of pregnancy related exclusively to the peritoneal surface and young enough to eliminate the possibility of secondary implantation following the primary nidation in the tube. Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 177.
1
Studiford criteria
Speigelberg criteria
Rubins criteria
Rotterdam criteria
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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Commonest stomach tumour which bleeds ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Leiomyosarcoma
3
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous carcinoma
Lei om yosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Surgery
null
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Farber&;s disease is due to the deficiency of
Farber disease (also known as Farber&;s lipogranulomatosis, ceramidase deficiency, "Fibrocytic dysmucopolysaccharidosis," and "Lipogranulomatosis" is an extremely rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease marked by a deficiency in the enzyme ceramidase that causes an accumulation of fatty material sphingolipids leading to abnormalities in the joints, liver, throat, tissues and central nervous system. Normally, the enzyme ceramidase breaks down fatty material in the body's cells. In Farber Disease, the gene responsible for making this enzyme is mutated. Hence, the fatty material is never broken down and, instead, accumulates in various pas of the body,
1
Ceraminidase
Sphingomyelinase
Glucocerebrosisase
Neuraminidase
Biochemistry
miscellaneous
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Which of the following configuration is used in designing an RPD with Kennedy — Class II edentulous arch?
null
2
Bilateral
Tripod
Quadrilateral
Unilateral
Dental
null
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A specific test for gout is -
Demonstration of intracellular monosodium urate crystals (MSU) in synovial fluid from affected joint is diagnostic of gout.
2
Raised serum uric acid level
Raised uric acid in synovial fluid of joint
Raised urea level
Raised urease enzyme level
Orthopaedics
null
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single
In severe cases of anterior uveitis whole circle of pupil gets adhered to lens capsule resulting in:
Seclusio pupillae/ring synaechiae/annular synaechiae is seen in severe iritis or recurrent uveitis, in which whole circle of pupillary margin becomes tied down to the lens capsule. It can lead to secondary angle closure glaucoma. Note: Occlusio pupillae/blocked pupil occurs when exudation in uveitis is extensive. They organize across the entire pupillary area and opaque fibrous tissue fills the pupillary area. Festooned pupil: Pupil dilatation with atropine leads to failure of dilation of adhered segments resulting in irregularly shaped pupil. Pupil will be miotic and sluggishly reacting in uveitis. Ref: Parson's diseases of the eye, 21st edition, page no: 230
2
Occlusio pupillae
Seclusio pupillae
Festooned pupil
Mydriatic pupil
Ophthalmology
null
08831171-0348-4306-9e41-3095409611e6
single
In RMNCH+A Staegy, what is plus ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adolescent health The RMNCH+A strategy is based on provision of comprehensive care through the five pillars, or thematic areas, of reproductive, maternal, neonatal, child, and adolescent health, and is guided by central tenets of equity, universal care, entitlement, and accountability. The "plus" within the strategy focusses on :Including adolescence for the first time as a distinct life stage.Linking maternal and child health to reproductive health, family planning, adolescent health. HIV, gender, preconception and prenatal diagnostic techniques.Linking home and community-based services to facility-based care.Ensuring linkages, referrals, and counter-referrals between and among health facilities at primary (primary health centre), secondary (community health centre), and teiary levels (district hospital).
1
Adolescent health
Reproductive health
DPT Vaccination
Newborn health
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b259b28b-4d42-41fa-9a39-97d7b8b7dcb4
single
Infection/ inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
D. i.e. Penile urethra Penile (spongy) urethra of male mostly drain to deep inguinal lymph nodes
4
Isthmus of uterine tube
Inferior pa of anal canal
Big toe
Penile urethra
Anatomy
null
9c681901-587b-446e-82a4-31d8f3e60ee6
multi
Peripheral resistance is decreased in which type of shock -a) Hypovolemic shockb) Neurogenic shockc) Septic shockd) Cardiogenic shock
Septic shock has already been described → in hyperdynamic stage there is vasodilation and  ↓ TPR. Neurogenic shock Neurogenic shock occurs when there is Neurological injury as occur in head trauma or high cervical cord injury or cephalad migration of spinal anaesthesia. Interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input occurs that causes vasodilatation, decreased heart rate and Cardiac output and shock. Then what is the difference between neurogenic shock and hyperdynamic stage of septic shock ? In septic shock, there vasodilatation ( ↓ TPR) due to NO with associated reflex sympathetic activity that increases heart rate and cardiac output. On the other hand, in neurogenic shock there is decreased sympathetic drive that leads to decrease in all, i.e., peripheral resistance, cardiac output and heart rate.
4
a
c
ac
bc
Pathology
null
8625ed41-d265-497a-8128-5d0f1837aae2
single
Antifungal used as cancer chemotherapeutic agent is :
null
1
Flucytosine
Nystatin
Voriconazole
Terbinafine
Pharmacology
null
51a7145f-56e0-430d-9525-30470ed2e655
single
A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back pain of 3 weeks in duration. Radiologic studies reveal several discrete lytic lesions in the lumbar back and pelvis. Laboratory studies show elevated serum levels of alkaline phosphatase. Serum calcium, serum protein, and peripheral blood smears are normal. Aspiration biopsy of a pelvic lesion shows keratin-positive cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Multiple lytic lesions associated with keratin-positive cells strongly suggest metastatic bone cancer. Metastatic carcinoma is the most common tumor of bone, and skeletal metastases are found in at least 85% of cancer cases that have run their full clinical course. The vertebral column is the most commonly affected bony structure. Tumor cells usually arrive in the bone by way of the bloodstream. Some tumors (thyroid, gastrointestinal tract, kidney, neuroblastoma) produce mostly lytic lesions. A few neoplasms (prostate, breast, lung, stomach) stimulate osteoblastic components to make bone. The other choices are not keratin positive.Diagnosis: Metastatic bone cancer
2
Chondrosarcoma
Metastatic carcinoma
Osteochondroma
Osteosarcoma
Pathology
Osteology
59101bd7-d67f-485f-8e90-6477f59694b9
single
Preventable causes of Mental Retardation are
Cretinism is congenital iron deficiency syndrome which can be preventable by intake in required amounts. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
Downs
Phenylketonuria
Cretinism
Cerebral palsy
Pediatrics
Central Nervous system
ef15f52d-dc57-45ca-8c4a-6b53211213a8
single
Medial border of Hesselbach's triangle is formed by:
Ans. (b) Linea semilunarisRef: Gray's 41st edn/1080-81; Keith L Moore clinical anatomy 4thed/ 193-4# HESSELBACH'S TRIANGLE* Medial border: Lateral margin the rectus sheath, also called linea semilunaris* Superolateral border: Inferior epigastric vessels* Inferior border: Inguinal ligament, sometimes referred to as Pouparts ligament.
2
Linea alba
Linea semilunaris
Inferior epigastric artery
Conjoint tendon
Anatomy
Abdominal Wall
389452f0-5f7b-4f38-ab3c-c6d78c028202
single
Which of the following are ineffective against gram negative bacteria?
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic used in the prophylaxis and treatment of infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria. Cefixine is an oral third generation cephalosporin antibiotic. It has good activity for gram-negatives. Metroridozole is highly active against gram-negative anaerobic bacteria, such as B. fragilis, and gram-positive anaerobic bacteria, such as C. difficile. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, used to treat many types of bacterial infections, paicularly those caused by Gram-negative organisms.
3
Cefixime
Metronidazole
Vancomycine
Gentamycine
Pharmacology
null
757be73f-e0fc-4d08-89e6-b60cf98e500e
single
Ator fracture is -
Fracture neck of talus results from forced dorsiflexion of the ankle. Typically this injury is sustained in an aircraft crash where the rubber bar is driven forcibly against the middle of the sole of the foot (ATOR&;s fracture), resulting in forced dorsiflexion of the ankle, the neck being a weak area, gives way. Reference - Essential ohopaedics- Maheshwari -5th edn pg no 166.
1
Fracture neck of talus
Fracture scaphoid
Fracture calcaneum
Fracture 5th metatarsal
Orthopaedics
Management in Orthopedics
b71eccc6-e106-4e49-bc48-b43c3011965b
single
A 4-month-old child presents with excessive irritability & crying, unexplained hyperpyrexia, vomiting, difficulty feeding for last 15 days. On admission he has rigidity & visual inattentiveness; CT scan brain shows the following finding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Bilateral basal ganglia calcification is seen on CT brain in Krabbe disease. Fuher,Globoid cells are seen in microscopic exmaination,which is a diagnostic feature. C/F: Irritability, muscle weakness, feeding difficulties, episodes of fever without any sign of infection, stiff posture, and delayed mental and physical development. As the disease progresses, muscles continue to weaken, affecting the infant's ability to move, chew, swallow, and breathe. Affected infants also experience vision loss and seizures. Alexander disease- hypodensity of white matter, frontal lobe predominance Metachromatic Leukodystrophy- tigroid appearance on MRI Adrenoleukodystrophy- Hyperintense signal changes in parieto-occipital region & splenium of corpus callosum on MRI
2
Alexander disease
Krabbe disease
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
Adrenoleukodystrophy
Pediatrics
Lysosomal Storage Diseases
c178af37-f2a7-4cd1-bb63-25b185556035
single
Raynaud’s syndrome occurs in all of the following except:
null
3
SLE
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Cryoglobulinemia
Surgery
null
f441f664-fec4-4970-b4b4-f5f7a4b61158
multi
NVBDCP includes ail except?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chikungimya o National Vector Borne Disease control programme (NVBDCP) includes 6 vector borne diseases- Malaria Dengue Filaria Kala azar JE Chikungunya fever 1. Chickungunya has been included now Health programmes In India o Since India become indepedent, several measures have been undertaken by National Government to improve the health of the people. o Prominant among these measures are the NATIONAL HEALTH PROGRAMMES which have been launched by the central Government for control/eradication of the communicable diseases, improvement of environmental sanitation, raising the standard of nutrition, control of population and improving rural health. National Health Programmes curently working in India : - National vector Borne Disease Control Programme - Malaria, Dengue. Filaria, JE, Kala-azar. National leprosy eradication programme. Revised National TB control programme. National programme for control of blindness. National iodine deficiency disorders control programme, National menal health programme National AIDS control programme National cancer control programme UP National Programme for prevention & control of deafness. Piolet Progamme on prevention & control of DM, CVD, & deafness. National tobacco control programme RCH programme
4
Malaria
Filarial
Kala azar
KFD
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Programmes in India
dacfdced-7048-4713-bf0f-0c461fca2bb5
multi
The usefulness of the technique of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is explained by which of the following?
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is a method used to lessen severe, chronic pain by overly stimulating the involved neurons. This is thought to trigger inhibitory interneurons in lamina II of the spinal cord, thereby paially blocking the transmission of pain impulses. These interneurons are considered to be "gatekeepers", that can, to some degree, isolate the peripherally generated signals from the brain. Allodynia is the term used for the perception of pain following a normally innocuous stimulation of a mechanoreceptor. Central pain, such as that caused by thalamic lesions, is pain that originates at the level of the brain rather than in the periphery. Referred pain is the perception of pain initiated in one body site (typically an internal organ) as being localized to another body site (frequently on the more superficial pas of the body). An example is that of diaphragmatic pain, which may be referred to the top of the shoulder. The phenomenon occurs because both internal organs and more superficial structures may arise from, and consequently be innervated by, the same dermatome.
3
Allodynia
Central pain
Gate theory of pain
Referred pain
Physiology
null
39438e31-fc04-4304-ab78-64715d578a1a
multi
Which is must for prothrombin time?
Prothrombin time test - Time needed for plasma to clot after addition of tissue thromboplastin and Ca2+ ions.
1
Thromboplastin
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Fibrin
Pathology
null
e598be7f-b11a-462f-97ee-7141f4b00ce1
single
Fluroacetate inhibits -
B i.e. Aconitase
2
Citrate synthetase
Aconitase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
0e0f0ba9-d515-449c-88cb-80739366e834
single
Following angiography findings are most likely seen in which condition:
Ans. B. PANImage shows angiographic vascular pathologya. Most probably it is seen in PAN (Polyarteritis nodosa)b. It is medium vessel vasculitis of renal & visceral vessels sparing the pulmonary circulationc. In PAN, small aneurysms are strung like the beads of arosary known as Rosary sign.
2
Kawasaki
PAN
Takayasu
Giant cell arteritis
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
460bbef5-309c-470c-a12f-e9e29117d465
single
What is the approximate stress caused by polymerisation shrinkage of composite?
null
2
1 Mpa
5 Mpa
15 Mpa
30 Mpa
Dental
null
1f8f09e6-1e87-40a4-b1e0-b6d2e8f31adf
single
Axillary hair growth is caused by?
Testosterone REF: Ganong's 22nd ed p. 430 Secondary sexual hair production in both man and woman is under control of androgens
1
Testosterone
Estrogen
Prolactin
Estrogen in women and androgens in man
Physiology
null
be60c527-3987-4ffe-950d-b174f23602b0
single
Neuronophagia is seen in -
null
2
Amoebic encephalitis
Poliomyelitis
Tuberculer meningoencephalitis
Cerebral malaria
Medicine
null
b0fc9dda-c040-46dc-ba33-47b233cd9ba0
single
A pulmonary disorder causes the alveoli to break down and coalesce into large air spaces. The lungs also lose elasticity and compliance is increased. A person who suffers from this disease will have
null
1
Increased dead air space
Increased vital capacity
Decreased PCO2 in the blood
Decreased anteroposterior diameter
Medicine
null
cb5449fb-7ed9-49ea-a700-5a9d4e4303f3
single
Triglycerides are maximum in
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Chylomicrons [Ref: Chatterjee & Shinde Biochemistry 6/e, p 338 (T21.2); Harper 26/e, p 206;Maximum content of TG's is seen in - Chylomicrons*Maximum content of exogenous TG's is seen in - Chylomicrons*Maximum content of endogenous TG's is seen in - VLDL*Maximum cholesterol is seen in - LDL*Chylomicrons are the lipoprotein particles lowest in density and largest in size, and contains the highest percentage of lipids and the smallest percentage of proteins. VLDLs and LDLs are successively denser, having higher ratios of protein to lipid. HDL particles are the densest.Composition of the lipoproteinsLipoproteinSourceDiameter (nm)Density (g/mL)CompositionMain Lipid ComponentsApolipoproteinsProtein (%)LipidChylomicronsIntestine90-1000<0.951-298-99TriacylglycerolA-I, A-II, A-IV,l B-48, C-I, C-II, C-III, EChylomicron remnantsChylomicrons45-150< 1.0056-892-94Triacylglycerol, phospholipids,cholesterolB-48, EVLDLLiver (intestine)30-900.95-1.0067-1090-93TriacylglycerolB-100, C-I, C-II, C-IIIIDLVLDL25-351.006-1.0191189Triacylglycerol, cholesterolB-100, ELDLVLDL20-251.019-1.0632179CholesterolB-100HDLLiver, intestine,VLDL, chylomicrons20-251.019-1.0633268Phospholipids, cholesterolA-I, A-II, A-IV, C-I, C-II, C-III, D,2 EHDL1HDL210-201.063-1.1253367HDL35-101.125-1.2105743PreP-HDL3<5>1.210 A-IAlbumin/free fatty acidsAdipose tissue >1.28199-1Free fatty acids 1 Secreted with chylomicrons but transfers to HDL.Associated with HDL2 and HDL3 subtractions.3Part of a minor fraction known as very high density lipoproteins (VHDL).
1
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Biochemistry
Cholesterol and Lipoproteins
5126f908-5636-43ae-befd-a3c60abcdd36
single
A 55 years lady presented with sudden onset of severe pain in the eye with, Shallow anterior chamber. Treatment of choice is
(1/V mannitol & Acetazolamide): (242-Nema 6th edition; 244-Khurana 5th/e)It is a case of Acute primary angle closure glaucomaImmediate medical therapy to lower IOP1. Systemic hyper osmotic agents* Intravenous mannitol (1 gm 1 kg body weight)* Oral hyperosmotics eg glycerol2. Systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eg acetazolamide3. Topical antiglaucoma drugs -* Beta blocker - 0.5% timolol or 0.5% betaxolol* Alpha adrenergic agonist eg. brimonidine - 0.1 - 0.2%* Prostaglandin analogue eg - latanoprost - 0.005%Intensive miotopic (Pilocarpine 2%) therapy is not advised now a day4. Analgesics and anti-emetics5. Compressive gonioscopy6. Topical steroid eg - prednisolone acetate 1% or dexamethasone* Laser iridotomy is the treatment of choice for the management of early acute PACG* *** Prophylactic laser iridotomy should be performed on the fellow asymptomatic eye as early as possible as chances of acute attack are 50% in such cases
2
Atropine
I/V mannitol & Acetazolamide
Atenolol
Steroids I/V
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
2358d503-ba38-4962-96a3-f562d47b95d1
multi
Which of the following structure passes through the triangular interval of the arm?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radial nerve RegionBoundariesContentsUpper triangular space of armSuperior: Teres minorInferior : Teres majorLateral: Long head of tricepsCircumflex scapular arteryLower triangular space of armSuperior: Teres majorMedial: Long head of tricepsLateral; Shaft of humerusRadial nerveProfunda brachii vesselsQuadrangular space of armSuperior: Teres minor, subscapularis, joint capsuleInferior :Teres majorMedial: Long head of tricepsLateral: Surgical neck of humerusAxillary nervePosterior circumflex humeral vessels
1
Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar Nerve
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
a72a3592-5628-4457-8a9d-99d21b195bd6
single
What is the function of DNA ligase ?
Ans. is 'b* i.e., Seals the single strand nick between the .......... ProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucieotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand binding proteinsPrevent premature reannealling of dsDNADNA ligaseSeals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand
2
Unwinding (denaturation) of dsDNA to provide an ssDNA template
Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand
Initiation of DNA synthesis and elongation
Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
Biochemistry
DNA Replication
fc63a9c7-7582-4fa0-aab7-60f59bed1bc5
single
Most common organ affected in blast injury:
Lungs
2
Liver
Lungs
Nervous tissue
Skeletal system
Forensic Medicine
null
abb49e0c-2fae-4259-aefd-bc3aa65b0303
single
The cyclical flexion and extension motions of a leg during walking result from activity at which level of the nervous system?
The spinal cord has the intrinsic circuitry in the form of central paftern generators to produce the basic motions of walking.
4
Cerebral coex
Cerebellum
Globus pallidus
Spinal cord
Physiology
All India exam
a2b6d667-4418-4fed-8bb4-067449bdcada
multi
Auerbachs plexus is present in the -
All of the above
4
Colon
Esophagus
Stomach
All of the above
Anatomy
null
7e8cdeba-c05b-4122-a61c-71b3b5b3b69f
multi
A person of 60 years age is suffering from myositis ossificans progressive. The usual cause of death would be:
C i.e. Lung disease
3
Nutritional deficiency
Bed sore
Lung disease
Septicemia
Surgery
null
10bab94e-6537-4408-9023-61049290c80e
single
A 29-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with abdominal pain. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen demonstrates a large hematoma of the right liver with the suggestion of an underlying liver lesion. Her hemoglobin is 6, and she is transfused 2 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma. Two hours after staing the transfusion, she develops respiratory distress and requires intubation. She is not volume overloaded clinically, but her chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following is the management strategy of choice?
The patient has TRALI or transfusion-related acute lung injury which manifests as respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates not due to volume overload. The treatment of choice is respiratory suppo, including mechanical ventilation, as needed. The major risk factor for TRALI is transfusion of any plasma-containing blood products from multiparous female donors. Other complications of transfusions and their treatments include: (1) allergic reactions such as rash and fever--mild reactions are treated with an antihistamine; (2) transfusion-associated circulation overload (TACO) which occurs in patients with underlying hea failure who receive large volume transfusions--the treatment is administration of diuretics; and hemolytic reactions--diagnosis is made by a positive Coombs test and treatment is to stop the transfusion and identify the responsible antigen to prevent future reactions. There is no evidence that the patient has pneumonia or any other indication to perform bronchoscopy or to sta antibiotics.
4
Continue the transfusion and administer an antihistamine
Stop the transfusion and administer a diuretic
Stop the transfusion, perform bronchoscopy, and sta broad-spectrum empiric antibiotics
Stop the transfusion and continue suppoive respiratory care
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous
3d38919b-c151-4f05-97e2-8bb90e4ee93d
multi
All are absolute contraindication of OCP except:
Ans. D. EndometriosisOCP are contraindicated in pregnancy, hepatic renal failure, thromboembolic disorder, breast CA, hypertension, diabetes. But in case of endometriosis, it regulates the irregular bleeding which is non-contraceptive use of OCP.
4
Pregnancy
Thromboembolic disorder
Hepatic failure
Endometriosis
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
26a8ae0c-ec74-4613-80a8-e64bae766023
multi
Which of the following is not a part of ransons score?
null
4
Amylase
Lipase
ALT
None of the above
Surgery
null
e1c883ab-4c8a-4369-8ae0-8acdf635cdc5
multi
Which of the following statement on microalbuminuria is not true?
The significance of microalbuminuria: Microalbuminuria is the finding of albumin in the urine not detectable by the urine dipstick which is sensitive to protein concentration > 1gm%. It precedes the decline in GFR and indicates the presence of renal and cardiovascular complications. Annual screening for microalbuminuria will allow the identification of patients with nephropathy at a point very early in its course. Definition of abnormalities in albumin excretion Category 24-hr-urine albumin (mg/24h) Dipstick analysis Spot collection (ug/mg creatinine) Normal Microalbuminuria Clinical albuminuria <30 30-299 >300 Negative Negative, trace, 1+ 1+ to 3+ <30 30-299 >300
2
Cannot be detected by routine lab tests
Urine protein less than 30-299 pg/day is called microalbuminuria
Microalbuminuria is an independent risk factor for cardiovascular risk in diabetic patients
Microalbuminuria is the earliest marker of diabetic nephropathy.
Medicine
Nephrology
19ee31a1-5165-4a5f-af13-84ee7062ff12
multi
Which of the following antigens are associated with cicatricial pemphigoid?
Cicatricial Pemphigoid: Autoimmune blistering disease associated with autoantibodies directed against basement membrane zone target antigens. Autoantibodies of IgG subclass, particularly IgG4, are associated with CP. IgA antibodies have also been detected. The two major antigens associated with CP are bullous pemphigoid antigen 2(BPAG2) and epiligrin (laminin-5).
1
BPAG2 and epiligrin
HLA DR5 and HLA B8
HLA DR52 and HLA DR3
HLA DQB2
Pathology
null
66219d6f-18e1-4d72-99a3-a0c61e277f89
single
Local anaesthetics act by-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Na channel inhibition inside gate o Local anesthetics act by inhibiting Na+ channels from inside.Mechanism of action of LAo Local anaesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all part of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage.o Thus not only sensory but motor impulses and autonomic control is also interrupted,o Mechanism of action# Normally Na+ channel in axonal membrane has following phases :LAs prolong the inactive state - channel takes longer to recover - refractory period of the fiber is increased.LAs first penetrate the axonol membrane to come inside and then their active species (cationic form) bind to Na+ channel from inside.Cationic form (active form) is able to approach its receptor only when the channel is open at the inner face - So resting nerve is resistant to block as Na+ channels are not activated and cationic form is not able to approach its receptor.So blockade develops rapidly when the nerve is stimulated repeatedly.Degree of blockade is frequency dependent - greater blockade at higher frequency of stimulation.Exposure to higher concentration of Ca+2 reduces inactivation of Na+ channels and lessens the block.o Order of blockade of fibres B > C > Ad > Aa, b & g (Autonomic > Sensory > Motor). Order of recovery is in reverse order.o Among sensory afferent order of block is : Temperature (cold before heat) > Pain > touch > deep pressure,o When applied to tongue, bitter taste is lost first followed by sweet and sour, and salty taste last of all.o Myelinated nerves are blocked earlier than nonmyelinated,o Smaller fibres are more sensitive than larger fibres.
1
Na channel inhibition inside gate
Na channel inhibition outside gate
K channel inhibition inside gate
K channel inhibition outside gate
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia)
da50b434-53c9-4330-b171-e93f8ed2c634
single
Which of the following proteins binds with free hemoglobin in the plasma -
null
2
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Pre-albumin
Ceruloplasmin
Pathology
null
84b48e7b-92d5-4a06-a9ab-e6f501769fbb
single
38 years old Mala has Pap smear suggestive of HSIL.Colposcopy directed biopsy can reveal all, EXCEPT:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CIN-1 * As per Bethesda system:# Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (L-SIL) = CIN I# High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) = CIN II/CIN III/CIS
1
CIN-1
CIN-2
CIN-3
Cainsitu
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
56b15f4d-6a33-42ee-ab9e-011a7b9e6d1d
multi
Mikulicz and russel bodies are characteristic of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rhinoscleroma o Biopsy of rhinoscleroma show's infiltration of submucosa writh plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies. The latter two are the diagnostic features of the disease,Rhinoscleromao The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatisor Frisch bacillus ^ which can be cultured from the biopsy material. The disease is endemic in several parts of world. In India, it is seen more often in northern than in the southern parts. Biopsy shows infiltration of submucosa with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells & Russell bodies. The latter two are diagnostic features of the disease. The disease starts in the nose & extends to nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea & bronchi. Mode of infection is unknown. Both sexes of any age may be affected.
1
Rhinoscleroma
Rhinosporidiosis
Plasma cell disorder
Lethal midling granuloma
ENT
Nose and PNS
b33b9fc0-c517-4f35-ac53-4e3dd4251ef9
single
Neurotransmitter in striatal pathway is?
The nigrostriatal pathway or the nigrostriatal bundle (NSB), is a dopaminergic pathway that connects the substantia nigra with the dorsal striatum (i.e., the caudate nucleus and putamen). Dopaminergic neurons of this pathway synapse onto GABAergic neurons. Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, especially in the spinal cord, brainstem, and retina. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter and is found in all bilateral animals, where it mediates gut movements and the animal's perceptions of resource availability Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2765
4
Glutamine
Glycine
Serotonine
Dopamine
Medicine
C.N.S
a5ed5279-5bad-405b-bee6-7ba071121859
single
Which of the following pathways does not occur in mitochondria
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in cytoplasm. Beta Oxidation occurs in mitochondria. Heme synthesis and Urea cycle occur both in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
3
Beta oxidation
Urea cycle
Fatty acid synthesis
Heme synthesis
Biochemistry
null
911e5564-6383-428f-9beb-63acb5cefa9e
single
The above shown device is used for:
The above shown device is NST. The nonstress test measures the fetal hea rate in response to fetal movement over time. The term "nonstress" means that during the test, nothing is done to place stress on the fetus. If two or more accelerations occur within a 20-minute period, the result is considered reactive or "reassuring." A reactive result means that for now, it does not appear that there are any problems. A nonreactive result is one in which not enough accelerations are detected in a 40-minute period.
2
Gestational age assesment
Non-stress test
Fetal aerial doppler
Detect progression of labour
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance
5b84a6f9-a25e-49b6-b159-d85dc8d75ffb
multi
Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of a large population?
null
3
PMA index
Gingival index
Periodontal index
Sulcus bleeding index
Dental
null
9c3f887a-df4c-4395-9984-c82a4fdf69dd
single
True about tongue cancer:
Ans. (c) MC site is on Lateral marginRef. Bailey & Love 26th ed. 713-14TONGUE CANCER* MC site is middle of lateral border or ventral aspect of the tongue.* MC histological type is squamous cell carcinoma.* MC complaint: Mid-irritation of tongue.* MC associated risk factors are tobacco and alcohol.* MC variety is ulcerative.* ONLY 30% patients present with cervical node metastasis.* The intrinsic tongue musculature provides little restriction to tumour growth, thus it may enlarge considerably before producing symptoms.* Presents as painless mass or ulcer that fails to heal after minor trauma.
3
Most common type is adenocarcinoma
Cervical lymph node metastasis is universally present
MC site is on Lateral margin
Slurring of speech is a common complaint
Surgery
Oral Cavity
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Gottron’s papules Seen in?
DERM ATOM MYOSITIS: DM is a distinctive entity identified by a characteristic rash accompanying, or more often preceding muscle weakness. √ Heliotrope rash: The rash may consist of a blue-purple discolouration on the upper eyelids with edema √ Gottron's sign: A flat red rash on the face and upper trunk and erythema of the knuckles with a raised violaceous scaly eruption. √ Gottron's papules: Discrete erythematous papules overlying the metacarpal and interphalangeal joint √ The erythematous rash can also occur on other body surfaces, including the knees, elbows, malleoli, neck and anterior chest (often in a V sign), or back and shoulders (shawl sign), and may worsen after sun exposure. √ In some patients, the rash is pruritic, especially on the scalp, chest, and back. √ Dilated capillary loops at the base of the fingernails are also characteristic. The cuticles may be irregular, thickened, and distorted, and the lateral and palmar areas of the fingers may become rough and cracked, with irregular, "dirty" horizontal lines, resembling mechanics hands.
3
SLE
MTCD
Dermatomyositis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Dental
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A 67-year-old man with an 18-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine physical examination. His temperature is 36.9 C (98.5 F), his blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and his pulse is 82/minute and regular. On examination, the physician notes a non tender, pulsatile, mass in the mid-abdomen. A plain abdominal x-ray film with the patient in the lateral position reveals spotty calcification of a markedly dilated abdominal aoic walI. Following surgery, the patient is placed on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of continued progression of his atherosclerotic disease. A bile acid sequestrant is added to interrupt enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. Which of the following agents was MOST likely prescribed?
Cholestyramine and colestipol are bile acid sequestrants that bind bile acids in the intestine, thereby interrupting enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. This has an indirect effect to enhance LDL clearance and lower lipids in the blood. Atorvastatin and lovastatin are lipid-lowering drugs that competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, an early step in cholesterol biosynthesis. Clofibrate and gemfibrozil are fibric acid derivatives that may increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase. Ref: Bersot T.P. (2011). Chapter 31. Drug Therapy for Hypercholesterolemia and Dyslipidemia. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
2
Atorvastatin
Cholestyramine
Clofibrate
Gemfibrozil
Pharmacology
null
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Patient says he hears music every time when someone touches his thumb. This is an example of
Functional hallucination : Here the stimulus and perecption are in same modality. v/s Reflex hallucination : Here the stimulus and pereception are in different modality.
1
Reflex hallucination
Functional hallucination
Visual hallucination
Extra campine hallucination
Psychiatry
null
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Epipharynx is also called-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasopharynx Epipharvnx / Nasophavnxo The part of the pharynx that lies above the soft palate; anteriorly it opens into the nasal cavities through the choanae;inferiorly, it communicates with the oropharynx through the pharyngeal isthmus; laterally it communicates withtympanic cavities through pharyngotympanic (auditory) tubes.
1
Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx
Hypopharynx
ENT
Anatomy and Physiology of Pharynx
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Red man syndrome is caused by which drug:
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that releases histamine leading to "Red man syndrome"
3
Linezolid
Clindamycin
Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Pharmacology
null
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DOC for migraine prophylaxis -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propranolol Treatment and prophylaxis of migraineo For aborting an acute attack of migraine, sumatriptan (or any other triptan) is the drug of choice. Other drugs used for treatment are NSAIDs, ergotamine and dihydroergotamine, and intranasal butorphanol.o For Prophylaxis, Beta-blocker (propranolol) is the drug of choice. Other drugs used for prophylaxis are tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), calcium channel blockers (cinnarizine, verapamil), serotonine antagonists (methysergide, cyproheptadine), MAO inhibitors and anticonvulsants (valproate, topiramate, gabapentine), fluxetin, onabotulinum toxine A, pepaverine andphenalzine.
1
Propranolol
Valproate
Topiramate
Ethosuxamide
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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The percentage of copper in high copper alloy is:
null
3
10-12%
0 -6%
13-30%
20 -30%
Dental
null
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Which ligament transfers weight from peripheral to axial skeleton?
The gap anteriorly is filled by a syol bursa. The coracoclavicular ligaments have a vital role to play in movements of the pectoral girdle. The conoid ligament limits anterior movement of the scapula with respect to the clavicle. The trapezoid limits posterior movement between these two bones
1
Coracoclavicular ligament
Acromio-clavicular ligament
Ligament of Bigelow
Stemo-clavicular ligament
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Most common cause of stridor after birth:
(c) Laryngomalacia(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 481; Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 333)Laryngomalacia, which is the most common congenital anomaly of the larynx, is the most common cause of congenital laryngeal stridor.Vocal cord palsy is the 2nd most common cause of congenital stridor. Laryngeal web, a rare malformation can also lead to stridor.Laryngeal papilloma is the most common benign tumour of the larynx in children. Here also the child presents with stridor. In laryngeal papilloma there is additionally hoarseness of voice as it involves the vocal cord, whereas in laryngomalacia which is supraglottic the cry of the child is normal. Also laryngeal papilloma is seen in children from 2 to 5 years whereas laryngomalacia disappears by 2 years of age.
3
Laryngeal papilloma
Laryngeal web
Laryngomalacia
Vocal cord palsy
ENT
Congenital Lesions and Stridor
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"Corner sign of park" is feature of:
Ans. A. ScurvyScurvy-Radiographic findings:1. Osteoporosis2. Pencil thin cortex3. Wimberger's sign4. Trummerfeld zone of rarefaction5. Corner sign of Park6. Line of Frankel7. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
1
Scurvy
Rickets
Battered baby syndrome
Sickle cell disease
Radiology
Skeletal System
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Not true regarding retinal anatomy
Layer in contact with vitreous is internal limiting membrane Foveal Avascular Zone- * No blood vessels in this zone * Geometric centre is centre of macula & Fixation point * Impoant landmark in FA * Ora serrata > Foveola: Thinnest pa of retina * Posterior Pole: Macula + Optic nerve head * Optic disc approx: 1.75 mm (H), 1.90 mm (V) * Macula: 5.5 mm (Temporal to optic disc) * Fovea - Centralis : Central depressed pa of Macula, 1.5 mm Foveola - 0.35 mm. * Thinnest pa of retina after ora serrata. * Contains no rods, only cone are there that are covered by internal limiting membrane * The axons are arranged horizontally and are called Henles layer
2
Most of the layers of retina are absent at foveala
The layer of retina in contact with vitreous is retinal pigment epithelium
Posterior pole consists of optic nerve head and macula
Fovea has a zone where there is no blood supply
Ophthalmology
Retina
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Septum secundum arises from -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Primitive atrium o The primitive atrium is divided into left and right atria by interatrial septum which is formed by fusion of septum primum and septum secundum. The sequnece of events are as follows# Septum primum arises from the roof of common atrium (primitive atrium) and grows caudally towards septum intermedium (fused AV cushions).# Foramen primum is formed between free border of growing septum primum and fused AV cushions (septum intermedium).# Shortly afterwards the septum primum fuses with septum intermedium (fused AV cushions), obliterating foramen primum# Foramen secundum is formed by degeneration of cranial part of septum primum.# Septum secundum grows caudally to the right of septum primum and overlaps the foramen secundum. The passage between septum primum and septum secundum is called foramen ovale. After birth, foramen ovale closes by fusion of septum primum with septum secundum. Failure of fusion of these two septa results in patent foramen ovale.
3
Bulbus cordis
Primitive ventricle
Primitive atrium
Sinus venosus
Anatomy
Pericardium & Heart
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