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All are used to produce controlled hypotension except
Isoflurane > sevoflurane > desflurane are the inhalational agents of choice for controlled hypotension.
4
Nitroglycerine
Isoflurane
Esmolol
Propofol
Anaesthesia
null
cf506d41-b4a9-406f-8201-ceabaa1ab918
multi
Relative Risk can be obtained from -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coho study
2
Case study
Coho study
Case control study
Experimental study
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
f7d8fa5e-0158-4861-baee-60893e12ab29
single
A 60-year old male has a long 5tanding history of breathlessness lie has been a heavy smoker since the age of 20 years. Physical examination reveals an anxious male who is emaciated, puffing for breath but is not cyanosed. The chest is barrels shaped. An additional clinical finding would be -
From the history and clinical findings,the patient is having chronic obstructive pulmonary disease-emphysematous type.it is characterised by hyperinflation of lungs with low set diaphragm.Breath sounds are typically quiet.Right hea failure and cor pulmonale can occur in severe cases,evident as bilateral pitting pedal edema. Ref:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2156;Davidson's medicine-22nd edition,page no:674.
3
Elevated domes of the diaphragm
Left ventricular hyperophy
Muffled hea sounds
Gynecomastia
Medicine
Respiratory system
557e987f-c745-4911-b42b-f281e69b4e1d
single
All of the following are true about nosocomial infections except
Nosocomial infection occurs in a patient already suffering from a disease and a new infection is set up from another host or another external source. It occurs 48hours after admission or discharge from the hospital. Ref: Ananthanarayan& Paniker&;s textbook of microbiology, 9th edition. Pg no.71
4
May manifest within 48 hours of admission
May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital
Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient's primary conditions
May already present at the time of admission
Microbiology
miscellaneous
85fbdaea-a9ec-4178-8fe5-973bf4d54194
multi
Tumor marker for Ca colon for follow up
Up to a half of all patients with colorectal cancer will develop liver metastases at some point and regular imaging of the liver (by ultrasound and CT scan) and measurement of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is designed to diagnose this early, in order to allow curative metastectomy. Trials of the optimum follow-up pathway have suggested that CEA measurement alone can be as effective as regular imaging.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 1266
1
CEA
CA 125
CA 19-9
AFP
Surgery
G.I.T
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If parents or guardian is not available consent can be taken from teacher or principal under
Loco parentis In an emergency involving children, when their parents or guardian are not available, consent can be taken from the person who is in charge of the child, eg. teacher or the principal of the residential school. They can give consent in the place of the parent. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 385
3
Therapeutic privilege
Emergency doctrine
Loco parentis
Therapeutic waiver
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
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single
True statements about Pneumococcus are all except
The virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae depends on; Capsular polysaccharide, because of its acidic and hydrophilic propeies, protects the cocci from phagocytosis. Capsulated streptococcus pneumoniae are not phagocytosed efficiently in fluid media or exudates, however, they are susceptible to surface phagocytosis, being engulfed against a firm surface, such as a fibrin clot or epithelium. The enhanced virulence of type 3 Streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the abundance of its capsular material. Non-capsulated strains are avirulent. Pneumolysin: a membrane damaging toxin. Cytotoxic, complement activating propeies and is immunogenic. Autolysin: by releasing bacterial components in infected tissues, it may also contribute to virulence. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 226
4
Pneumolysin a thiolactivated toxin, exes a variety of effect on ciliary & PMN's
Autolysin may contribute to the pathogenesis of pneumococcal disease by lysing the bacteria
Anticapsular antibodies are serotype specific
The virulence of pneumococci is dependent only on the production of the capsular polysaccharide
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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multi
Keshan disease is caused by deficiency of:
Ans. C. Selenium* Selenium is a constituent of glutathione peroxidase, an antioxidant in red blood cells and other tissues.* Glutathione peroxidase scavenges free Hydro peroxidases generated during fatty acid oxidation, thus protecting the cell from damage due to free radical formation.* Severe deficiency is the major cause of Keshan disease, which presents as cardiomyopathy in young children. Skeletal myopathies have also been reported.* Mild deficiency is associated with macrocytosis and loss of hair pigment.
3
Thiamine
Zinc
Selenium
Proteins
Pediatrics
Nutrition
5056225e-43a8-4651-91df-a8da4ad13754
single
Postganglionic sympathetic fibres are
The axons of postganglionic neurons are mostly unmyelinated C fibres and terminate on visceral effectors. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:263.
2
A alpha
C
B fibres
A gamma
Physiology
Nervous system
86bb3906-0d25-43c3-97bb-368e87d5b0fd
single
Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia?
Lepirudinis a recombinant preparation of hirudin which acts by inhibiting thrombin directly. It is the recommended drug for treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Ref: Goodman And Gillman's Manual of Pharmacology, 2007, Page 955; Clinical Hematology & Oncology By Bruce Furie, 2003, Page 488.
2
Abciximab
Lepirudin
Warfarin
Alteplase
Pharmacology
null
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single
An 18 years old male reported with chief complaint of sensitivity and deep, dull, radiating pain during chewing. Intra-oral examination showed sparase plague and dental calculus deposits, distolabial migration of the maxillary incisors with diastema formation, mobility of maxillary and mandibular incisors and first molars. Prescribed radiographs showed an arch shaped loss of alveolar bone extending from the distal surface of the mandibular second premolar to the mesial surface of the second molar. There was vertical bone loss in the maxillary incisor region. The host modulation therapy that may be used as adjunctive therapy for this disease is
null
3
Subantimicrobial-dose clindamycin
Subantimicrobial-dose metronidazole
Subantimicrobial-dose doxycycline
Subantimicrobial-dose ciproftoxacin
Dental
null
c43f4178-abb7-40c6-a1ab-dbb3cc44dd94
single
The Sphenopalatine foramen is formed by all of the following structures, EXCEPT:
Sphenopalatine foramen is formed by the junction of the sphenopalatine incisure of the palatine bone with the sphenoid bone, located immediately posterior to the middle turbinate. This is the principal foramen through which branches of the sphenopalatine aery and maxillary nerve pass from the pterygopalatine fossa into the nasal cavity. Ref: Imaging of the Head and Neck, By Mahmood Mafee, Minerva Becker, 2nd Edition, Page 434
1
Vomer
Palatine bone
Sphenoid bone
Sphenopalatine notch
Anatomy
null
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multi
Vitamin, which acts as a hormone is :
null
3
A
C
D
E
Pharmacology
null
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single
MRI is contraindicated in patients with:
Ans. A. Metallic foreign body in eyeApplications of MRI are many, but amongst the commonly imaged parts are brain, spine and musculoskeletal tissues.Contraindications to MRI:a. Cardiac pacemakersb. Intraocular metallic foreign bodyc. Cochlear implantsd. Prosthetic heart valvese. Aneurysmal clipsf. Claustrophobia
1
Metallic foreign body in eye
Sensitivity to dye
Intracranial hemorrhage
Agaro phobia
Radiology
Nervous System
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multi
True about cross section study-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Cross - sectional studieso Cross sectional study is the simplest form of an observational study.o It is also known as prevalence study.o It is based on a single examination of a cross - section of population at one point of timeo Results of this examination can be projected on the whole populationo Cross-sectional study tells about the distribution of a disease rather than its etiology.o Cross-sectional studies can be thought of as providing a snapshot of the frequency and characteristic of a disease in a population at a particular point in timeo Cross-sectional study is more useful for chronic diseaseo As population is studied at once, no follow-up is required.
4
Prevalence study
Useful for chronic disease
Simple study
All of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiological Study
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multi
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist is
(Losartan) (453-54-KDT) (469-70-BB) (488-KDT6th)I. ACE-Inhibitors - Captropril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, benazepril, ramipril, perindopril (Available in India)* Quinapril, cilazapril, Zolfenopril, fosinopril (Marketed in other countries)II. Angiotensin Antagonists* Losartan, Candesartan and Irbesartan (Available in India)* Valsartan, telmisartan and eprosartan (Marketed elsewhere)
4
Perindopril
Enalapril
Benazepril
Losartan
Pharmacology
C.V.S
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single
Arsenic causes :
A i.e. Rain drop pigmentation
1
Rain drop pigmentation
Basal cell Ca
Alopecia
All
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Part of eukaryotic DNA contributing to polypetide synthesisa) Exonb) Enhancerc) Leader sequenced) tRNAe) ncRNA
Exon (coding protein) : Sequence of a gene that is represented as m-RNA. Enhancer: Are special cis-acting DNA sequences that increase the rate of initiation of transcription of eukaryotic genes by RNA polymerase II. Leader sequence: Sequence at the 5' end of a mRNA that is not translated into protein. Non-coding RNA (nc RNA): Functional RNA that is not translated into a protein. Non-coding RNAs include tRNA, rRNA, Sno RNA, mi-RNA, si-RNA, pi-RNA and long nc RNA like Xist & HOT AIR.
4
ac
a
ad
ab
Biochemistry
null
8ae919dd-e996-4d5e-a221-e70c6f65631e
single
Laminin is seen in -
null
1
Basement membrane
Lens
Bone
Cartilage
Pathology
null
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single
Following are the features of persistent post operative pain except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain present for atleast 3 months Precision does not currently exist in defining persistent post operative pain, however following features are taken into consideration :- Pain that develops after surgical procedure Pain present for atleast 2 months Pain where other causes are excluded Pain from pre surgical problem is exclu
2
Pain that develops after surgical procedure
Pain present for atleast 3 months
Pain where other causes are excluded
Pain from pre surgical problem is excluded
Anaesthesia
null
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multi
Jone's fracture is?
ANSWER: (A) Avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsalREF: APPENDIX-68 below for "ALPHABETICAL LIST OF EPONYMOUS FRACTURES"Jones fracture is avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsal APPENDIX - 68Alphabetical List of Eponymous FracturesFractureDescriptionMechanism of injuryAviators fractureFracture neck of talusDorsiflexionBumper fracturecompression fracture of lateral condyle of tibial (always intra articular)Forced valgus of knee when struck from side by car bumperBoxer's fractureFracture of distal 5th metacarpalPunching solid objectBos worth fractureFracture of distal fibula with posterior dislocation of the proximal fibula behind the tibiaSevere external rotation of the footBennett's fractureIntra-articular fracture of base of first metacarpalAxial load along metacarpal in a partially flexed thumb (Abductor pollids longus pull)Barton's fractureIntra articular distal radius fracture invoking the articular surface with dislocation of the radio carpal jointFall on outstretched handBankart's fractureFracture of anterior glenoid associated with anterior shoulder dislocationExternal rotation and abduction of shoulderColies' fractureDistal radius fracture with dorsal angulation, impaction and radial driftFall on outstretched handCotton's fractureTrimalleolar fracture of ankle Clay shoveller's fractureStress avulsion fracture of Spinous process of C6, C7 or T1Forced hyper flexion of neckCh opart's fracture- dislocationFoot dislocation through talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints with associated fractures, usually after ankle twisting. Treated in a non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks Chauffeur's fractureIntra-articular fracture of radial styloidForced ulnar deviation of the wrist causing avulsion of the radial styloidChance fractureHorizontal fracture of vertebral bodyHyper flexion of spine, seen in car accidents when lap belts xvere usedDuverney fractureIsolated fracture of the iliac wingDirect traumaEssex-LoprestifractureComminuted radial head fracture xvith interosseous membrane disruption and distal radioulnar joint subluxationFall from heightGosselin fractureV-shaped distal tibia fracture extending into the tibial plafond Galeazzi fractureRadius shaft fracture with dislocation of distal radioulnar jointBlow to forearmHolds worth fractureUnstable spinal fracture-dislocation at the thoracolumbar junction Hume fractureOlecranon fracture with anterior dislocation of radial head Hill-Sachs fractureImpacted posterior humeral head fracture occurring during anterior shoulder dislocation Hangman s fractureFracture of both pedicles of C2Distraction and extension of neck (judicial hanging)Jones fractureFracture of base of 5th metatarsal extending into intermetatarsal jointInversion of ankle (pronator brevis pull)Jefferson fractureBurst fracture of 1st cervical vertebraCompression of neckLisfranc fractureFracture dislocation of midfootForced plantar flexion of foot or dropping heavy weight on footLe Forts fracture of the ankleVertical fracture of distal fibula with avulsion of medial malleolus Le Fort fracturesSeries of facial fracturesDirect trauma to faceMoores fractureDistal radius fracture with ulnar dislocation and entrapment of styloid process under annular ligament Monteggia fractureProximal ulna fracture with dislocation of radial headBlow to forearmMarch fractureStress fracture of 2n<1 /3rd metatarsal shaftHeavy or unaccustomed exerciseMalgaignesfractureVertical pelvic fracture through both pubic rami and the ilium or sacroiliac joint with vertical displacementHigh energy impact to pelvis (front to back)MaisonneuvefractureSpiral fracture of proximal fibulaExternal rotation of anklePipkin fracture- dislocationPosterior dislocation of hip with avulsion fracture of fragment of femoral head by the ligamentum teresImpact to the knee with the hip flexed (dashboard injury)Pilon fractureComminuted fracture of distal articular fracture with fibular fracture Pott's fractureBimalleolar fracture of the ankleEversion of ankleRolando fractureIntra articular T or Y shaped Comminuted fracture of base of V metacarpalAxial load along the metacarpal causing splitting of the proximal articular surfaceRunner's fractureStress fracture of distal fibula 3-8 cm above the lateral malleolusRepeated axial stress on fibulaStieda fractureAvulsion fracture of the medial femoral condyle at the origin of the medial collateral ligament Smith's fractureDistal radius fracture with volar displacementFall on outstretched hand with wrist in flexed positionShepherd s fractureFracture of the lateral tubercle of the posterior process of the talus Segond fractureLateral tibial plateau avulsion fracture with anterior cruciate ligament tear| Internal rotation of the kneeSalter-HarrisfracturesFractures involving a growth platevariousTitlaux fractureSalter-Harris III fracture of the tibiaForced lateral rotation of footToddlers fractureUndisplaced spiral fracture of distal tibia in children under 8 years oldLow-energy trauma t often rotational
1
Avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsal
Bimalleolar fracture of the ankle
Burst fracture of 1st cervical vertebra
Avulsion fracture of the medial femoral condyle
Orthopaedics
Injuries of the Foot
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multi
Most common cause for subdural hematoma
Injury to MMA or MMV - Epidural. Rupture of berry aneurysm - SAH.
3
Injury to middle meningeal artery
Injury to middle meningeal vein
Tearing of cortical bridging veins
Rupture of berry aneurysm
Radiology
null
d8a1a0e1-9add-40e3-9aae-2b9f63ee4463
single
Which of the following is not a features of simple tongue thrust swallowing
null
3
Contraction of facial muscle
Contraction of mandibular elevators
Teeth apart swallow
Anterior open bite
Dental
null
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multi
All of the following statement are true about wiskott Aldrich syndrome except
Ref Robbins 9/e p242;218 Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an X-linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and a marked vul- nerability to recurrent infection, ending in early death; the only treatment is bone marrow transplantation. This is a curious syndrome in that the clinical presentation and immunologic deficits are difficult to explain on the basis of the known underlying genetic defect. The thymus is ini- tially normal, but there is progressive age-related depletion of T lymphocytes in the peripheral blood and lymph nodes, with concurrent loss of cellular immunity. Additionally, patients do not make effective antibody responses to poly- saccharide antigens, and are therefore paicularly suscep- tible to infections with encapsulated, pyogenic bacteria. Affected patients also are prone to the development of malignant lymphomas. The responsible gene encodes a protein (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein) that links several membrane receptors to the cytoskeleton. Although the mechanism is not known, a defect in this protein could result in abnormal cellular morphology (including platelet shape changes) or defective cytoskeleton-dependent acti- vation signals in lymphocytes and other leukocytes, with abnormal cell-cell adhesions and leukocyte migration.
1
It is an autosomal recessive disorder
There is failure of aggregation of platelets in response to agonists
Thrombocytopenia
Patient present with eczema
Anatomy
General anatomy
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If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies
Prevalence = Incidence * Duration of illnessIf incidence is high and prevalence is low compared to the incidence, it means the duration of illness is low.Duration can be low if the disease is fatal or disease is easily curable.Park 23e pg: 62
1
Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
Disease is non-fatal
Calculation of prevalence & incidence is wrong
Nothing can be said, as they are independent
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
69463eaa-d7e4-4c8f-9777-3c877bbaf78d
single
The distance of aoic constriction of the oesophagus from the upper incisor teeth
First constriction, at the pharyngo-esophageal junction, 9 cm (6 inches) from the incisor teeth. Second constriction, where it's crossed by the arch of aoa, 22.5 cm (9 inches) from the incisor teeth. Third constriction, where it's crossed by the left principal bronchus, 27.5 cm (11 inches) from the incisor teeth. Fouh constriction, where it pierces the diaphragm, 40 cm (15 inches) from the incisor teeth. Ref - sciencedirect.com
2
15 cm
22.5 cm
27.5 cm
40 cm
Anatomy
Head and neck
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Acanthosis with intraepithelial vacuolation and hyperpara keratosis is seen in:
null
3
Hairy tongue (Lingua villosa)
Hyperplastic candidiasis
Speckled leukoplakia
Desquarnative gingivitis
Pathology
null
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At autopsy, a patient who had died with acute anuria and uremia is found to have ischemic necrosis of the coex of both kidneys with relative sparing of the medulla. These pathological findings are MOST likely related to which of the following underlying conditions?
Diffuse coical necrosis, as described in this patient, is usually seen in the setting of disseminated intravascular coagulation, typically in the context of overwhelming sepsis. It can also be seen following hypotension combined with vasoconstriction. Multiple myeloma is associated with renal deposition of amyloid protein and damage to both glomeruli and tubules. Adult polycystic kidney disease would produce enlarged kidneys filled with cystic masses. Pyelonephritis would produce inflammation, often most severe in the renal pelvis. Ref: Levi M., Seligsohn U. (2010). Chapter 130. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e.
1
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Multiple myeloma
Polycystic kidney disease
Pyelonephritis
Pathology
null
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multi
Down Syndrome, All are seen except?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., t (11:14) In 95% of cases of Down Syndrome - trisomy of 21 Extra chromosome is of maternal in origin 1% have mosaic with 46 chromosomes o 4% have robesonian translocation. t (13 : 21) t(14:21) t (15 : 21) o Very rarely long arm of chromosome 21 is triplicate (Paial trisomy)
3
t(14 ; 21)
Trisomy 21
t(11 : 14)
t (15 :21)
Pediatrics
null
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multi
In an 8 yr old girl with symptoms of rickets, lab investigations show Serum Calcium 7.2 mg/dl, Serum Phosphates 2.3 mg/dl Alkaline Phosphatase 2420 IU/L. The most probable diagnosis is?
ANSWER: (C) Nutritional RicketsREF: Nelson 17th edition page 2342 Table 691-2Table 691-2 Clinical variants of Rickets and Related ConditionsTypeSerum calcium LevelSerumPhosphorusLevelAlkaline Phosphatase ActivityUrine Concentration of Amino AcidsGeneticsI. Calcium deficiency with secondary hyperparathyroidism (deficiency of vitamin D; low 25(OH) D and no stimulation of higher 1,25 (OH)2 D values)1. Lack of vitamin D a. Lack of exposure to sunlighN orLLE E b. Dietary deficiency of vitamin in DN orLLEE c. CongentialN or LLEE 2. Malabsorption of Vitamin DN or LLEE 3. Hepatic diseaseNorLLEE 4. Anticonvulsive drugsN or LLEE 5. Renal osteodystrophyN or LEEV 6. Vitamin D-dependent type ILN or LE EARII. Primary phosphate deficiency (no secondary hyperparathyroidism)1. Genetic primary hypophosphatemiaNLENXD2. Fanconi syndrome a. CystinosisNLEEARb. TyrosinosisNLEEARc. Lowe syndromeNLEEXRd. AcquiredNLEE 3. Renal tubular acidosis, type II proximalNLEN 4. Oneogenic hypophosphatemiaNLEN 5. Phosphate deficiency or malabsorption a. Parenteral hyperalimentationNLEN b. Low phosphate intakeNLEN III. End-organ resistance to 1.25(OH)2 D31. Vitamin D-dependent type II (Several variants)LL or NEEARIV. Related conditions resembling rickets1. HypophosphatasisNNLPhosphoet- hanolamine AR elevated 2. Metaphyseal dysostosis a. Jansen typeENENADb. Schmid typeNNNNADN = normal; L = low; E = elevated; V = variable; X = X-linked; A = Autosomal; D = dominant; R = recessive; Yes = Y.Rickets may be classified as calcium-deficient or phosphate-deficient rickets. The two types of rickets are distinguishable by their clinical manifestations (Table 691-2)In this case Serum Ca levels are low; Phosphate levels are low, while ALP levels are high.
3
Vitamin D dependant type II
Hypophosphatemic Rickets
Nutritional Rickets
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
Pediatrics
Vitamin D
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single
Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the management of seizure caused by an overdose of a local anesthetic?
null
3
Baclofen
Dantrolene
Diazepam
Tizanidine
Pharmacology
null
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Reilly bodies are seen in?
Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs) are characterized by defective degradation and excessive storage of mucopolysaccharides in various tissues. Hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, lesions of hea valves, subendothelial aerial deposits, paicularly in the coronary aeries, and lesions in the brain, are features that are seen in all of the MPSs. Of the seven recognized variants, only two well-characterized syndromes are discussed briefly here. MPS type I, also known as Hurler syndrome, is caused by a deficiency of a-L-iduronidase. Accumulation of dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate is seen in cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system, in fibroblasts, and within endothelium and smooth muscle cells of the vascular wall. The affected cells are swollen and have clear cytoplasm, resulting from the accumulation of material positive for periodic acid-Schiff staining within engorged, vacuolated lysosomes. Lysosomal inclusions also are found in neurons, accounting for the mental retardation. MPS type II or Hunter syndrome differs from Hurler syndrome in its mode of inheritance (X-linked), the absence of corneal clouding, and often its milder clinical course. Despite the difference in enzyme deficiency, an accumulation of identical substrates occurs because breakdown of heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate requires both a-L-iduronidase and the sulfatase; if either one is missing, fuher degradation is blocked. Diagnosis is made by measuring the level of enzyme in leukocytes. Ref: ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th Ed. pg no: 260
4
Gangliosidosis
Bechet's disease
Gaucher's disease
Hurler disease
Pathology
Nervous system
18dd1d2a-bf2a-4285-82bf-629ccb82dcb2
single
Dehydrogenase in HMP shunt act in oxidative phase to generate which of the following?
.
2
NADP+
NADPH
FAD+
FADH
Physiology
All India exam
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single
A 47-year-old man with type II diabetes repos for his 6-month checkup. His doctor prescribes a daily 30-minute routine of walking at a brisk pace. During aerobic exercise, blood flow remains relatively constant to which of the following organs?
Cerebral blood flow at rest is about 750 mL/min and remains unchanged during any grade of muscular exercise. During exercise, coronary blood flow is increased by four to five times with 100% O2 utilization. Renal blood flow is also decreased by 50-80% in severe exercise. During strenuous exercise muscle blood flow can increase up to 20 times, i.e. about 50-80 mL/ 100 g/min muscle tissue.
1
Brain
Hea
Kidneys
Skeletal muscle
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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single
The most frequent symptom of gastric diverticulum is
null
1
Epigastric pain
Haematemesis
Vomiting
Pain relieved by food
Surgery
null
127715a6-86d6-49b2-ba40-40d52adb8dae
single
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except
null
1
Saliva
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Sexual intercourse
Microbiology
null
4a1713a7-d0ba-4155-94df-1f739953a673
multi
The conversion of a fatty acid to an active fatty acid is catalysed by which of the following enzymes?
Fatty acids must first be converted to an active intermediate before they can be catabolized. This is the only step in the complete degradation of a fatty acid that requires energy from  ATP.  In  the  presence  of  ATP and coenzyme A, the enzyme acyl-CoA synthetase (thiokinase) catalyzes the conversion of a fatty acid (or FFA) to an “active fatty acid” or  acyl-CoA, using one high-energy phosphate and forming AMP and PPi . The PPi is hydrolyzed by inorganic pyrophosphatase with the loss of a further high-energy phosphate, ensuring that the overall reaction goes to completion. Acyl-CoA  synthetases  are  found  in  the  endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, and inside and on the outer membrane of mitochondria. HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed page no. 224
1
Acyl-CoA synthetase
Enoyl CoA hydratase
Thiolase
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
56204bd2-d55e-453a-99b3-b395c09c4bec
single
In which of the following structure of central nervous system the major autonomic reflex centers are found?
The medulla oblongata, commonly called the medulla, is located at the level of the foramen magnum. It serves as the major autonomic reflex center that relays visceral motor control to the hea, blood vessels, respiratory system, and gastrointestinal tract. It possesses the nuclei for the glossopharyngeal, vagal, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves (CNN IX, X, XI, and XII, respectively). Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 16. Brain. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
2
Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Anatomy
null
8d70e5d6-db12-4842-8dcb-c329178f12ab
single
Similar features between cerebral abscess and cerebral infarct -
Causes of acquired cerebral palsy may include1,2: Brain damage in the first few months or years of life. Infections, such asmeningitis or encephalitis. Problems with blood flow to the brain due to stroke, blood clotting problems, abnormal blood vessels, a hea defect that was present at bih, orsickle cell disease. A cerebral infarction is an area of necrotic tissue in the brain resulting from a blockage or narrowing in the aeries supplying blood and oxygen to the brain Refer robbins 1258 and 1263
2
Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Heal by collagen formation
lways develop from emboli from other site
Pathology
Nervous system
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single
Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be treated by: September 2007
Ans. A: Radioiodine Follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC) is a well-differentiated tumor. In fact, FTC resembles the normal microscopic pattern of the thyroid. FTC originates in follicular cells and is the second most common cancer of the thyroid, after papillary carcinoma. Follicular and papillary thyroid cancers are considered to be differentiated thyroid cancers; together they make up 95% of thyroid cancer cases. Papillary/follicular carcinoma must be considered a variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma (mixed form), and Huhle cell carcinoma should be considered a variant of FTC. Despite its well-differentiated characteristics, follicular carcinoma may be ovely or minimally invasive. In fact, FTC tumors may spread easily to other organs. The prognosis is better for younger patients than for patients who are older than 45 years. Patients with FTC are more likely to develop lung and bone metastases than are patients with papillary thyroid cancer. The bone metastases in FTC are osteolytic. Older patients have an increased risk of developing bone and lung metastases. The initial treatment for cancer of the thyroid is surgical. The exact nature of the surgical procedure to be performed depends for the most pa on the extent of the local disease. A total thyroidectomy is performed if the primary tumor is larger than 1 cm in diameter or if there is extrathyroidal involvement or distant metastases. Clinically evident lymphadenopathy should be removed with a neck dissection. If the primary tumor is less than 1 cm in diameter, a unilateral lobectomy might be considered. About 4-6 weeks after surgical thyroid removal, patients must have radioiodine to detect and destroy any metastasis and any residual tissue in the thyroid.
1
Radioiodine
Surgery
Thyroxine
Observation
Surgery
null
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single
Contraindications of ergometrine is -
Ans: C
3
Diabetes mellitus
Excessive post-partum hemorrhage
Heart disease
Anaemia
Unknown
null
23fec214-6c81-46b6-945d-5642993d8533
single
Hypercalcemia in ECG is diagnosed by-
The main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia is shoening of QT interval In severe hypercalcaemia, Osborn wave (J waves) may be seen Ventricular irritability and VF arrest has been repoed with extreme hypercalcaemia Increased PR interval and tall T waves are not seen in hypercalcemia Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1523
2
Increased QT interval
Decreased QT interval
Increased PR interval
Tall T waves
Medicine
C.V.S
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multi
A 8-year-old male had non-blanching rashes over the shin and swelling of the knee joint with haematuria +++ and protein +. Microscopic analysis of his renal biopsy specimen is most likely to show –
This child has → i) Rash              ii) Arthritis (swelling of knee joint)                        iii) Haematuria All these suggest the diagnosis of Henoch Schonlein purpura HSP is characterized by deposition of IgA in the mesangium.
3
Tubular necrosis
Visceral podocyte fusion
Mesangial deposits of IgA
Basement membrane thickening
Pediatrics
null
28e30827-5825-4c53-adf8-cb62076d785a
single
FIGLU excretion test is used for assessment of deficiency of -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Folic acid Assessment of folate deficiencyo Following tests are used for assessment of folate deficiency.Blood levelNormal level in scrum is about 2-20 nanogram/mJ and about 200 micorgram.'ml of packed cells.Histidine load test or FIGLU excretion test :- Histidine is normally metabolized to formimino glutamic acid (FIGLU) from wrhich formimino group is removed by THF. Therefore in folate deficiency, FIGLU excretion is increased in urine.AICAR excretion In purine nucleotide synthesis the 2nd last step is the addition of C2 with the help of N10-formyl THF. This step is blocked in folate deficiency and the precursor, i.e., amino imidazole carboxamide ribosyl-5-phosphate (AICAR) accumulates and is excreted in urine.Peripheral blood picture Macrocytosis, tear drop cells, hvpersegmented neutrophils, anisopoikilocvtosis.
3
VitaminBn
Niacin
Folic acid
Pyridoxin
Biochemistry
Vitamins
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single
100. A Patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal joints and is a known case of chronic renal failure. This is due to accumulation of:
Ans. b. Uric acid The underlying basis of gouty ahritis is increased serum uric acid level. Most common joint involved in gout: Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal jointsQ Precipitation of monosodium urate crystalsdeg into the joints is the underlying basis for these urate crystals is increased total body urate levels
2
Rh factor
Uric acid
Serum urea
HLA B27 typing
Medicine
null
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single
Amount of water lost in stools
Normal" Output: 1400-2300 mL/d Urine: 800-1500 mL Stool: 200 mL-250mL Insensible loss: 600-900 mL (lungs and skin). (With fever, each degree above 98.6degF adds 2.5 mL/kg/d to insensible losses; insensible losses are decreased if a patient is undergoing mechanical ventilation; free water gain can occur from humidified ventilation.)Ref: <a href="
2
50ml
200ml
300ml
350ml
Physiology
G.I.T
f2e24e1b-c934-4c9a-ba71-47cd774d66dc
single
Cerebral angiography was performed by
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Egas Moniz
4
Sir Walter Dandy
George Moore
Seldinger
Egas Moniz
Medicine
null
be2f6d10-fca3-4dcd-bc90-78659afdc865
single
Which of the following is used for acute variceal bleeding?
Ans. A. Octreotide.The medical management of acute variceal hemorrhage includes the use of vasoconstricting agents, usually somatostatin or Octreotide. Vasopressin was used in the past but is no longer commonly used. Balloon tamponade (Sengstaken- Blakemore tube or Minnesota tube) can be used in patients who cannot get endoscopic therapy immediately or who need stabilization prior to endoscopic therapy. Control of bleeding can be achieved in the vast majority of cases; however, bleeding recurs in the majority of patients if definitive endoscopic therapy has not been instituted. Octreotide, a direct splanchnic vasoconstrictor, is given at dosages of 50-100mg/h by continuous infusion.
1
Octreotide
Oxytocin
Somatotropin
Dexamethasone
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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single
Lateral wall of mastoid antrum is related to ?
MacEwen's triangle or suprameatal triangle overlies the lateral wall of mastoid antrum. It is bounded above by supramastoid crest, anteroinferiorly by posterosuperior margin of external auditory canal and posteriorly by a tangent drawn from zygomatic arch.
2
Superficial temporal aery
External auditory canal
Emissary vein
Meningeal aery
Anatomy
null
af1e3f67-b69d-41fe-9da6-016626e5ae8e
multi
Most important receptor involved in chemotherapy induced vomiting is :
null
2
Histamine H1 receptor
Serotonin 5–HT3 receptor
Dopamine D2 receptor
Opioid µ receptor
Pharmacology
null
466d8c54-6b94-474d-820b-2f4f821cea0f
single
Hagemann factor is involved in: March 2009
Ans. B: Intrinsic pathway Hageman factor is factor XII, also known as glass factor. The initial reaction in the intrinsic system is conversion of inactive factor XII to active factor XII (XIIa). This activation, which is catalyzed by high-molecular-weight kininogen and kallikrein, can be brought about in vitro by exposing the blood to electronegatively charged wettable surfaces such as glass and collagen fibers. Activation in vivo occurs when blood is exposed to the collagen fibers underlying the endothelium in the blood vessels. Active factor XII then activates factor XI, and active factor XI activates factor IX. Activated factor IX forms a complex with active factor VIII, which is activated when it is separated from von Willebrand factor. The complex of IXa and VIIIa activate factor X. Phospholipids from aggregated platelets (PL) and Ca2+ are necessary for full activation of factor X.
2
Extrinsic pathway
Intrinsic pathway
Fibrinolysis
None
Physiology
null
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multi
Respiratory centre depression is caused by all exceptaEUR'
Strychnine Strychnine is a respiratory stimulant, itfant, it stimulates all pas of CN.S. -In strychnine poisoning the person is not able to breathe but it does not occur due to respiratory centre depression instead it is caused by spasm of the diapharm and thoracic muscles. Respiratory depression with opioids is well known. Barbiturates Wray also cause respiratory depression at high doses (depresses the medullary respiratory centre). Gelesmium The young root of gelesmium is used to prepare homeopathic remedy. The roots have analgesic, antispasmodic, diaphoretic hypnotic, mydriatis, nervine, sedative and vasodilator propeies. It is a powerful depressant of the central nervous system, deadening pain. It is said to suspend and hold in check muscular irritability and nervous excitement with more force and power than any know treatment. Excessive dose of gelesmium causes: ? - Respiratory depression (due to depression of medullary centre) - Giddiness - Double vision - Paralyze the spinal cord - Almost complete loss of muscular power and death should not be recommended .for patients with hea disease, hypotension.
2
Opium
Strychnine
Barbiturates
Gelsemium
Surgery
null
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multi
An 18-year-old boy presented with repeated epistaxis and there was a mass arising from the lateral wall of his nose extending into the nasopharynx. It was decided to operate him. All of the following are true regarding his management except
TREATMENT OF NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA Surgery:- Surgical excision is the treatment of choice though radiotherapy and chemotherapy singly or in combination have also been used. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-248,249
3
Requires adequate amount of blood to be transfused
A lateral rhinotomy approach may be used
Transmaxillary approach used
Transpalatal approach used
ENT
Pharynx
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multi
Bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is
Pneumococcus is the only bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis.
3
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus hemolyticus
Pneumococcus
Pseudomonas
Ophthalmology
null
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single
In the cou of law, professional secrecy can be divulged under: MAHE 11
Ans. Privileged communications
2
Doctrine of Common Knowledge
Privileged communications
Res ipsa loquitor
Therapeutic privilege
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
"Cruising" is a developmental milestone attained at the age of:
Cruising is attained by 10-11 months "Cruising" is an action in which a child pulls to the standing position and then scuffles around holding onto a piece of furniture. Ref: Ghai Essentials Pediatrics 9th edition Pgno: 43
2
8 months
10 months
13 months
15 months
Pediatrics
Growth and development
b3e5d16e-6ac4-450c-9729-b7d1b6af526e
single
Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action –
On this, there is controversy in different books :- According to Goodman & Gilman, Pancuronium is the longest acting. According to Lee Pipecuronium is the longest acting. Some books have given Doxacurium as longest acting (KDT, Ajay Yadav) You are lucky as you have got only one amongst these three. For this question doxacurium is the answer for sure.
4
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium
Anaesthesia
null
2fde25f4-6b21-488b-a86f-66b243d37b43
single
Superior rib notching is not associated with which of the enlisted conditions?
.
3
Hyperparathyroidism
Marfan syndrome
Blalock-Taussig shunt
Systemic lupus erythematosis
Medicine
All India exam
f7393b48-aae3-416a-9da5-7ae5c80a2dfa
single
Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures is:
null
1
Valproic acid
Phenytoin
Ethosuximide
Carbamazepine
Pharmacology
null
36bb5b4e-8023-4d20-94d3-3832aa1ed43d
single
Amniocentesis conducted during genetic counseling of a pregnant woman reveals a fetal adenosine deaminase deficiency. This autosomal recessive immunodeficiency is usually associated with which of the following?
Immunodeficiency disorders can be categorized according to whether the defect primarily involves humoral immunity (bone marrow derived, or B lymphocytes) or cellular immunity (thymus derived, or T lymphocytes) or both. Swiss-type hypogammaglobulinemia, ataxia-telangiectasia, the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, and severe combined immunodeficiency disorders all involve defective B-cell and T-cell function. Infantile X-linked agammaglobulinemia is caused chiefly by deficient B-cell activity, whereas thymic hypoplasia is mainly a T-cell immunodeficiency disorder.The fetus represented has severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) characterized by defects in early stem cell differentiation. As a result, B cells and T cells are both defective, immunoglobulins are very low, and tonsils and lymph nodes are absent.
4
Humoral Immunity - Normal; Cellular Immunity - Normal
Humoral Immunity - Normal; Cellular Immunity - Deficient
Humoral Immunity - Deficient; Cellular Immunity - Normal
Humoral Immunity - Deficient; Cellular Immunity - Deficient
Microbiology
Immunology
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multi
Breast feeding is not contraindicated if:
Breast feeding is not contraindicated if the mother has hepatitis B infection. Infants routinely receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine if mother is HBsAg positive. No delay in initiation of breastfeeding is required. Contraindications of Breastfeeding: Donot Breastfeed Infant factors Classic galactosemia maternal factors Human T-cell lymphocyte virus (HTLV) infection Ebola virus infection PCP/Cocaine abuse Donot breastfeed (Temporarily) Donot give expressed breastmilk (Temporarily) Maternal factors: Brucellosis Undergoing Diagnostic imaging with radiopharmaceuticals Active herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection with lesions on the breasts Donot Breastfeed (Temporarily) Can give expressed breastmilk Maternal factors Untreated, active tuberculosis active varicella infection Alcohol consumption and smoking are not contraindications of breastfeeding. However, smoking and alcohol consumption should be discouraged Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 322
2
Mother has active infection of herpes on breast
Mother has hepatitis B infection
Mother has tuberculosis
Mother is on Chemoprophylaxis for leukemia
Pediatrics
Nutrition
faf81b4a-82cc-4265-97b9-7e7b0bf95de0
single
In the absence of any clear history of trauma, this radiograph done in a patient of shoulder pain most likely suggests:
Ans. B Calcific tendinitisCalcific density is seen adjacent to the greater tuberosity of humerus - mostly this is within the supraspinatus tendon and seen in chronic calcific tendinitis.
2
Shoulder dislocation
Calcific tendinitis
Acromioclavicular dislocation
Hill Sachs lesion
Radiology
Miscellaneous
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single
Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is -
Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is - Pneumococcus
1
Pneumococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Meningococcus
H. influenzae Type b
Pediatrics
Impoant Bacterial Diseases in Children
4412465a-c74b-4d9c-bc6c-e43bcdae6e5d
single
Rhinoscleroma occurs due to
Rhinoscleroma The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis Frisch bacillus, which can be cultured from the biopsy material. The disease is endemic in several parts of the world. In India, it is seen more open in northern than in the southern parts. Biopsy shows infiltration of submucosa with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells & Russell bodies. There two are diagnostic features of the disease. The disease starts in the nose & extends to nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea & bronchi. Mode of infection is unknown. Both sexes of any age may be affected.
2
Auto immune cause
Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis infection
Inflammatory cause
Mycotic infection
ENT
null
299849b7-e793-4ae2-b9c9-ae6c20240177
single
High heat obturation technique is
null
4
thermofill
ultrafill
sectional filling
obtura II
Dental
null
14090e12-308d-4377-9c88-dbdf1446ab93
single
Nerve which loops around submandibular duct?
Submandibular duct It is 5 cm long duct and runs forwards on hyoglossus, between lingual and hypoglossal nerves. At the anterior border of the hyoglossus muscle it is crossed by lingual nerve which loops around it. It opens into the floor of mouth, on the summit of the sublingual papilla at the side offrenulum of tongue.
2
Mandibular nerve
Lingual nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Anatomy
null
3d71bd8e-bf54-48cb-8b61-ab2695f77276
single
How soon after feilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation?,
The blastocyst begins implantation by day 5 after feilization.
4
Within minutes
By 12 hours
By day 1
By day 5
Anatomy
Development period- week 1,2,3,4
76ec3c2e-3f0b-4b9d-ba3d-f2596a12b1b2
single
The thickness of the distobuccal flange must be adjusted to accommodate all of the following except:
null
3
Ramus
Coronoid process.
Temporalis
Masseter
Dental
null
a4ba7d67-f882-4cb0-b196-209814b0fde0
multi
In a pregnant women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated on X-ray by :
Gas in vessels
4
Increased flexion
Overlapping of cranial bones
Spalding's sign
Gas in vessels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5f88e3f2-7619-4cd7-a796-1c0a6f8bc78a
single
Average duration of function of primary dentition
Average duration of function of primary dentition is 6 yrs while maximum duration is 10 years.
1
6 years
8 years
10 years
12 years
Dental
null
386fa6cb-ab0b-4197-a359-849e64a89037
single
A patient comes with 6 weeks amenorrhoea and features of shock-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ectopic pregnancy Clinical features of ectopic pregnancyo Classical triad is abdominal pain (100%), amenorrhea (75%) & vaginal bleeding (70%).o Amenorrhea usually of short period (6-8 weeks)o Abdominal pain it is acute, agonising & colicky. Located in lower abdomen: unilateral, bilateral or may be generalised.Sometimes the pain may also be referred to shoulder,o Vaginal bleeding may be slight & continuous,o Vomiting & fainting attack.Signso General look (diagnostic)- Patient is quite & conscious, perspires & looks blanched,o Pallor - Severe & proportionate to the amount of internal haemorrhageo Features of shock - Rapid & feeble pulse, hypotension cold & clammy extremities.o Abdominal examination (lower abdomen) - tense, tumid, tender. No mass felt. Shifting dullness present. Muscle guard is usually absento Pelvic examination - Less informative. Vaginal mucosa is blanched white uterus may b normal in size or bulky. Extreme tenderness on fornix palpation or on cervical movements. The uterus floats as if in the water.
1
Ectopic pregnancy
H. Mole
Twin pregnancy
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Tubal Pregnancy
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multi
The carrying capacity of any given population is determined by its
Limiting resource Carrying capacity : The suppoable population of an organism, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available within an ecosystem is known as the ecosystem is known as the ecosystem's carrying capacity for that organism RRefers to the number of individuals who can be suppoed in a given area within natural resource limits, and without degrading the natural social, cultural and economic environment for present and future generations For human population more complex variables (Sanitation, medical care) are sometimes considered as pa of necessary infrastructure Below carrying capacity, population typically increase ; While above, they typically decrease May depend on a variety of factors including food availability ; water supply, environmental condition and living space Ref: internet (Wikipedia)
4
Population growth rate
Bih rate
Death rate
Limiting resource
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
442459c9-6d37-4f7b-a8ab-8b77be1b544c
single
FNAC is the IOC is given below thyroid conditions except
FNAC is the IOC for most of thyroid disorder except Anaplastic carcinoma. Thyroid lymphoma & Reidel's thyroiditis where "tru - cur biopsy" is the investigation of choice.
3
Papillary carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
None of the above
Surgery
null
6fe5a684-db90-485b-8fb9-6284298c4e9b
multi
The treatment of choice for hydatiform mole with a uterine size of 28 weeks is:
Management of vesicular mole/complete mole Suction evacuation (also do a gentle curettage with a sharp curette) Do USG after a week to rule out retained bits Do CXR to rule out metastasis HCG follow up
1
Suction evacuation
Intra -amniotic saline followed by oxytocin
Evacuation by misoprostol and Mifepristone
Methotrexate administration
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!)
a56ed05e-ede5-4500-a7da-1880aa1af829
single
Which of the following is true regarding olazapine except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Less epileptogenic action than phenothiazine o Clozapine and olanzapine are most epileptogenic antipsychotics. o Olanzapine blocks multiple monoaminergic (D2, 5-HT2, al, a2) as well as muscarinic and H1receptors. o It causes weight gain o It causes little rise in prolactin level.
4
It causes marked anti-muscarinic action
It causes weight gain
It causes mild increase in prolactin
Less epileptogenic action than phenothiazine
Pharmacology
null
07cb5ee5-8bc4-4519-a3ca-58d3f8d7552c
multi
Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to :
Glomerulus As the name implies ju.aglomerulus apparatus (JGA) lies at hilum of glomerulus Juxtaglornerulus apparatusThe juxtaglomerular apparatus is a microscopic structure in the kidney, which regulates the function of Lech nephron. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is named for its proximity to the glomerulus: it is found between the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle and the returning distal convoluted tubule of the same nephron. This location is critical to its function in regulating renal blood flow and glomerular.filtration rate.The three microscopic components of the apparatus are the macula densa, extraglomerular mesangial cells (lacis cells), and juxtaglomerular cells.Juxtaglomerular cellJuxtaglomerular cells (JG cells, also known as granular cells) are the site of renin secretion.The JG cells are found in the media of afferent aerioles of the glomerulus and act as an intro-renal pressure sensor Lowered pressure leads to decreased pressure on the JG cells stimulating renin secretion. Renin then acts to increase systemic blood pressure (while maintaining GFR) the resi angiotensin systemMacula densaAt the point where the afferent aeriole enters the glomerulus and the efferent leaves it, the tubule of the nephron touches the aeriole of the glomerulus from which it arose.At this location, which marks the sta of the distal convulation, there is the modified region of tubular epithelium called the macula densaThe macula densa senses sodium chloride concentration in the distal tubule of the kidney and secretes a locally active (paracrine) vasopressor which acts on the adjacent afferent aeriole to decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR), as pa of the tubuloglomerular feedback loop. Specifically, excessive filtration at the glomerulus or inadequate sodium uptake in the proximal tubule / thick ascending loop of Henle brings fluid to the distal convoluted tubule that has an abnormally high concentration of sodium. Na/K/2C1 cotranspoers move sodium into the cells of the macula densa. The increased Na+ conc. triggers a signal that causes constriction of the afferent aeriole thus reducing the GFRLacis cells or extraglomerular mesangial cellsThe function of the extraglomerular mesangial cells remains somewhat mysterious. They contain actin and myosin, allowing them to contract when stimulated by renal sympathetic nerves, which may provide a way for the sympathetic nervous system to modulate the actions of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. In addition, extraglomerular mesangial cells are strategically positioned between the macula densa and the afferent aeriole, and may mediate signalling between these two structures
4
Proximal convoluted tubule
Ascending loop of Henle
Descending loop of Henle
Glomerulus
Anatomy
null
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single
Founder effect describes the distribution of diseases on the basis of
In population genetics, the founder effect is the loss of genetic variation, and/or occurrence of genetic disorders when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 888
3
Occupation
Environment
Genetics
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
a883f952-fb16-4893-b66a-a3106b15c35e
multi
A patient with parkinsonism suddenly presented with trembling, dizziness and upward reeling of eyes. It may be due to -
null
1
Oculygyric crisis
Cholinergic crisis
Cerebrellar infarct
Cerebral infarct
Medicine
null
6bd91b10-5806-41ae-919c-a8300fc68579
single
In Maroteaux- Lamy syndrome, the enzyme deficient is?
Ans. A (Arylsulfatase B). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/ Chapter 361. Lysosomal Storage Diseases) Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome (MPS type VI) is due to deficiency of N-acetyl galactosamine (arylsulphatase B enzyme). Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS) Disorder Enzyme Deficiency Stored Material Inheri- tance Neuro- logic Liver Spleen Enlarge- ment Skeletal Dysplasia Ophthal- mologic Hemato- logic Unique Features MPS I, Hurler -L-lduroni- dase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate AR Mental retardation Mental retardation None + + + ++++ Corneal clouding Vacuola- ted lympho- cytes Coarse facies; cardiovas- cular involve- ment; joint stiffness MPS II, Hunter Iduronate sulfatase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate X-linked Mental retardation, less in mild form + + + ++++ Retinal degene- ration, no corneal clouding Granula- ted lympho- cytes Coarse facies; cardiovas- cular involve- ment; joint stiffness; distinctive pebbly skin lesions MPS III, Sanfi- lippo A =Heparan -N-sulfa- tase. B=N-Acetyl -alpha-glu- cosamini- dase. C=Acetyl- CoA: Alpha -glucosa- minide N-acetyl- transferase. D=N-Acetyl glucosa- mine-6- sulfate sulfatase. Heparan sulfate AR Severe mental retarda- tion + + None Granula- ted lym- phocytes Mild coarse facies MPS IV A, Morquio N-Acetyl- galactose mine-6- sulfate sulfatase Keratan sulfate Chondroi- tin-6 sulfate AR None + ++++ Corneal clouding Granu- lated neutro- phils Distinctive skeletal deformity; odontoid hypopla- sia; aortic valve disease MPS IV B, Morquio Beta- Galacto- sidase AR None +- + + + + MPS VI, Marote- aux-Lamy Arylsulfa- tase B Dermatan sulfate AR None + + + + + + Corneal clouding Granula- ted neutron phils and lym- phocytes Coarse facies; valvular heart disease MPS VII Beta-Glu- curoni- dase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate AR Mental retardation, absent in some adults + + + + + + Corneal clouding
1
Arylsulfatase B
Glucosidase
Hydroxylase
b-glucuronidase
Unknown
null
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Following accidental intra-aerial injection of thiopentone, which should not be done?
Thiopental slows the activity of your brain and nervous system. Thiopental is used to help you relax before you receive general anesthesia with an inhaled medication.Thiopental may be used for other purposes not listed in this medication guide.
1
Remove the needle
Intra -aerial heparin
Intra-aerial papaverine
Do a stellate ganglion block
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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Not seen in Neuroblastoma is -
null
3
Diarrhoea
Proptosis
Splenomegaly
Bone involvement
Surgery
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Bih weight triples at: Odisha 11
Ans. 1 year of age
2
9 months of age
1 year of age
2 years of age
2.5 years of age
Forensic Medicine
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A 7 year old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals Grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of Hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is TRUE?
A young girl presenting with generalized edema, significant proteinuria, absence of hematuria and hyaline and fatty casts is most likely to be suffering from Minimal change disease (Lipoid nephrosis), the most common type of Nephrotic Syndrome. In patients with Minimal change disease, C3 levels are normal and renal biopsy does not show any significant abnormalities except obliteration of epithelial foot processes. Therefore, No IgG Deposits or C3 deposition on renal biopsy is the best answer. Ref: Essential Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Pages 446, 450
1
No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on Renal biopsy
Her C3 levels will be low
IgA Nephropathy is the likely diagnosis
Alpo's syndrome is the likely diagnosis
Pediatrics
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What is the cardiothoracic ratio in children is -
“The cardiac silhouette occupies 50-55% of the chest width. Cardiomegaly is present when the cardiothoracic (CT) ratio is more than 55%” he CTR is measured on a PA chest x-ray and is the ratio of maximal horizontal cardiac diameter to maximal horizontal thoracic diameter (inner edge of ribs / edge of pleura). A normal measurement should be <0.5(50%).
3
30-35%
40-45%
50-55%
60-65%
Pediatrics
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Which ophthalmological investigation is being performed on the patient?
Ans. (c) Direct ophthalmoscopyThe only confusion (if any) should be with Retinoscopy, as both the instruments look the same, but retinoscopy is usually performed from a distance of 1 meter.
3
Retinoscopy
Indirect ophthalmoscopy
Direct ophthalmoscopy
Oblique illumination test
Ophthalmology
Retina
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Phase 1 biotransformation includes ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduction Types of biotransformation reactions Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified : A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by : Oxidation Hydrolysis Decyclization Reduction Cyclization The new metabolite may retain biological activity or it may be an inactive metabolite. Oxidation is the most impoant metabolizing reaction. The most impoant enzyme for oxidation reaction is cytochrome P450. B. Synthetic (phase H or conjugation) reaction Metabolism involves union of the drug with one of several polar (water-soluble) endogenous molecules that are products of intermediary metabolism, to form a water-soluble conjugate which is readily eliminated by kidney or, if the molecular weight exceeds 300, in the bile. Phase II metabolism almost invariably terminates biological activity, i.e. metabolites are usually inactive. o Reactions are Acetylation Glutathione conjugation Neucleotide synthesis Glucuronide conjugation Sulfate conjugation Glycine conjugation Methylation
1
Reduction
Acetylation
Sufate conjugation
Methylation
Pharmacology
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True about central nystagmus is
Nystagmus is central when the lesion is in the central neural pathways. It cannot be suppressed by optic fixation. The direction of nystagmus is changing and is non-fatiguable. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition)
4
Changing direction
Not suppressed by optic fixation
Horizontal or veical
All of the above
ENT
Ear
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Most common site of primary carcinoma in a case of Krukenberg tumor is:
Krukenberg tumor is secondaries to the ovary, it is most commonly from the CA Stomach (usually adenocarcinoma of gastric pylorus). Other primary sites are breast cancer, appendix, colon, small intestine, rectum gall bladder, biliary tract. Firm to solid waxy consistency and it is bilateral in 90% cases Signet ring cells are seen Most often present in bilateral ovaries, consistent with metastatic nature
2
Gallbladder
Stomach
Breast
Ovary
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ovarian Tumors and Vulvar cancer
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Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in :
All of the above
4
Trisomy 18
Twin pregnancy
Neural tube defect
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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ASA grading is to assess?
Ans is 'c' i.e. risk factors * ASA is the simplest and most widely used system for describing patient's physical status to assess the risk factors before anaesthesia.* Brain dead patient is ASA grade-2.American society of anaesthesiologist (asa) classification* ASA classification is for the Preoperative assessment to quantify the risk for patients who require anaesthesia for surgery. This is the simplest and most widely used system for describing patient's physical status (Rajasthan 01). Based on physical status, the patients are classified into six categories. The morbidity and mortality ishighest in grade V patients and minimum is grade I patients.ASA GradePatient conditionASA 1Normal healthy patient (no physical or mental illness)ASA 2Mild systemic disease not limiting functional activity(mild heart disease, DM Mild hypertension, Anemia, Old age, obesity, mild chronic bronchitis)ASA 3Severe systemic disease that limits activity but not incapaciating (Angina,Severe DM, cardiac failure)ASA 4Severe systemic disease that is life-threatening(Marked cardiac insufficiency; presistent angina; severe renal, respiratory or hepatic insufficiency)ASA 5Moribund patient who is not expected to survive whthout operationASA 6Brain dead patient (for organ donation)
3
Cardiac status
Respiratory status
Risk factors
Mental status
Anaesthesia
Preoperative Assessment & Monitoring
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Dapoxetine is specifically developed for?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Premature ejaculation Dapoxetine Dapoxetine is the first compound developed specially for the treatment of premature ejaculation (PE) in men 18-64 years old. Dapoxetine works by inhibiting the serotonin transpoer, increasing serotonin's action at the post synaptic cleft, and as a consequence promoting ejaculatory delay. As a member of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) family, dapoxetine was initially created as an antidepressant. However, unlike other SSRIs, dapoxetine is absorbed and eliminated rapidly in the body. Its fast-acting propey makes it suitable for the treatment of PE but not as an antidepressant.
3
Depression
Psychosis
Premature ejaculation
Anxiety disorder
Pharmacology
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In chronic alcoholics which the following enzymes are inhibited-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycogen phosphorylase kinase Alcohol effects on Carbohyrate metabolism* Ethanol adversely affects the carbohydrate metabolism in skeletal muscle.* Chronic alcohol intake is associated with an increase in glycogen concentration in skeletal muscles because of incapacity to degrade glycogen due to partial inhibition of glycogen phosphorylase kinase at glycogenolysis and by decrease in pyruvate kinase activity at glycolysis.* Activities of the glycolytic enzymes phosphofructokinase and lactate dehydrogenase are not affected.
1
Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
Phosphofructokinase
Lactate dehydrogenase
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Medicine
Alcohol
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Post traumatic stress syndrome is due to -
REACTION TO STRESS AND ADJUSTMENT DISORDERS This category in ICD-10 consists of disorders which are temporally related to an exceptionally stressful life event ( acute stress reaction and post-traumatic stress disorder) or a significant life change (adjustment disorders) immediately before the onset of illness. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.111
4
Head injury
Cardiovascular Disease
Minor stress
Major life threatening events
Psychiatry
Anxiety disorders stress disorders and grief
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Body dysmorphic disorder can be associated with all except
BDD (Body dysmorphic disorder) is a body-image disorder characterized by persistent and intrusive preoccupations with an imagined or slight defect in one's appearance. People with BDD can dislike any pa of their body, although they often find fault with their hair, skin, nose, chest, or abdomen. People with BDD commonly also suffer from anxiety disorders such as social anxiety disorder, as well as other disorders such as depression, eating disorders, or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
2
Bulimia nervosa
Mania
OCD
Anxiety
Psychiatry
All India exam
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All are associated with EBV except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Epidermodysplasia Epstein - Barr Virus (EBV) . Belongs to Herpes viruses family. . Infection is most common in early childhood, with a second peak during late adolescence. . Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is usually a disease of young adults. . EBV is transmitted by saliva (oral secretions) of infected person. . Intimate oral contact, as in kissing is the predominant mode of transmission causes kissing disease. . The virus enter the pharyngeal epithelial cells and B cells through (CR 2 / or CD21) receptors. . Memory B Cells are the reservoir of EBV: Clinical Manifestations :Most primary infections are asymptomatic . Causes an acute self limited illness ---> Infectious mononucleosis (Glandular fever) . Incubation period 4-8 weeks . Age groups young adults . Most common symptom of IMN is sore throat . Most common sign is lymphadenopathy . Most common complication --> meningitis/encephalitis
4
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Oral hairy leukoplakia
Epidermodysplasia
Microbiology
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The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
Incidence rate is defined as 'the number of NEW cases occurring in a defined population during a specific period of time.' Disease prevalence refers specifically to all current cases(old and new) existing at a given point in time or over a period of time in a given population. Although referred to as a rate, prevalence rate is really a ratio. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 68, 69
3
Both are rates
Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
Both are not rates
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis ?
Wolman disease is a congenital disease characterized by an impaired metabolism of the fats (lipids). It is the most severe type of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The lysomal acid lipase deficiency causes a buildup of lipids (fats) in body organs and calcium deposits in the adrenal glands. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
2
Adrenal hemorrhage
Wolman's disease
Pheochromocytoma
Addison's disaease
Pediatrics
Metabolic disorders
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Hyperparathyroidism (in 80% cases), pancreatic islet cell tumors, and pituitary adenomas are seen in:
null
1
Men 1 (Wermer)
Men 2A (Sipple)
Men 2B
All of the above
Surgery
null
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Perifasicular atrophy of muscle fibres is seen in?
A distinctive feature of dermatomyositis is atrophy and degeneration of myofibres at the periphery of fasicles (perifasicular) which occurs even in the absence of inflammation.
1
Dermatomyositis
Steroid myopathy
Inclusion body myositis
Viral myositis
Pathology
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In rural area, cattle sheds should be ..... away from the houses ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 25 feet Rural housing In rural areas, the 'approved' standards may be lower than in towns. The following minimum standards have been suggested : There should be at least two living rooms. Ample verandah space may be provided. The built-up area should not exceed one-third of the total area. There should be a separate kitchen with a paved sink or platform for washing utensils. The house should be provided with a sanitary latrine. The window area should be at least 10 percent of the floor area. There should be a sanitary well or a tube well within a quaer of a mile from the house. It is insanitary to keep cattle and livestock in dwelling houses. Cattle sheds should be at least 25 feet away from dwelling houses. A cattle shed should be open on all sides; an area 8 fit 4 fit is sufficient for each head of cattle. There should be adequate arrangement for the disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage.
4
5 feet
10 feet
20 feet
25 feet
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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