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Vibrio parahemolyticus is seen in which of the following if undercooked?
Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections are associated with the consumption of raw shellfish, cross-contaminated food, and the exposure of wounds to seawater containing V. parahaemolyticus. It is the cause of numerous outbreaks of foodborne illness where raw or uncooked seafoods are commonly consumed.
2
Crab
v
Prawn
Fish
Microbiology
null
b69dbc81-a767-4ed6-81e1-e7c91cd98122
single
Ankle sprain due to forced inversion of a plantar flexed foot is due to injury to
Ans. a. Anterior talofibular ligament
1
Anterior talofibular ligament
Posterior talofibular ligament
Calcaneofibular ligament
Posterior fibres of deltoid
Surgery
null
bdf2bef7-944e-49c3-bf80-8e2b4c7f1fa7
single
Zones of operation theatre includes all except:
Ans: a-septic zone...Protective Zone: Areas included in this zone are:ReceptionWaiting areaTrolley bayChanging roomClean Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Pre-op roomRecovery roomPlaster roomStaff roomStoreSterile Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Operating SuiteScrub RoomAnesthesia Induction RoomSet up RoomDisposal Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Diy UtilityDisposal corridor
1
Septic zone
clean zone
Protective zone
Sterile zone
Microbiology
null
15c35a7e-b598-42e6-87b3-8546bb831991
multi
A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye, three weeks after sustaining a gun shot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
B i.e. Sympathetic opthalmitis
2
Macular edema
Sympathetic ophthalmia
Optic nerve avulsion
Delayed viterous hemorrhage
Ophthalmology
null
e3d5ef7b-dc97-4ced-af26-70f97d07ea12
single
A 56 year old man is brought to the emergency depament with rapid onset of severe abdominal pain. But physical examination seemed to be out of propoion to his symptom. Acute mesenteric ischemia was diagnosed. What is the MOST common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia?
Acute mesenteric ischemia occurs when prolonged reduction in the splanchnic blood flow occurs. The most common cause is aerial embolism, which accounts for 50% of cases. The emboli most commonly originate from a cardiac source. Most emboli lodge in the superior mesenteric aery (SMA) because of the angle from which it takes off from the aoa. Risk factors for developing the mural thrombi that embolize to the mesenteric aeries include, Myocardial ischemia/infarction Atrial arrhythmias (specifically atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter) Valvular disorders Cardiomyopathies Endocarditis Ventricular aneurysms Ref: Travis A.C., Saltzman J.R. (2012). Chapter 161. Small Bowel Disorders. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine.
3
Aerial thrombosis
Venous thrombosis
Embolism
Non occlusive disease
Surgery
null
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Untrue about acute cholecystitis
(A) Jaundice is the earliest symptom # ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS often begins as an attack of biliary pain that progressively worsens.> Approximately 60 to 70% of patients report having experienced prior attacks that resolved spontaneously.> As the episode progresses, however, the pain of acute cholecystitis becomes more generalized in the right upper abdomen.> As with biliary colic, the pain of cholecystitis may radiate to the interscapular area, right scapula, or shoulder.> Peritoneal signs of inflammation such as increased pain with jarring or on deep respiration may be apparent.> The patient is anorectic and often nauseated.> Vomiting is relatively common and may produce symptoms and signs of vascular and extracellular volume depletion.> Jaundice is unusual early in the course of acute cholecystitis but may occur when edematous inflammatory changes involve the bile ducts and surrounding lymph nodes.> The serum bilirubin is mildly elevated in fewer than half of patients, while about one-fourth have modest elevations in serum aminotransferases (usually less than a fivefold elevation)> The radionuclide (e.g., HIDA) biliary scan may be confirmatory if bile duct imaging is seen without visualization of the gallbladder.> Ultrasound will demonstrate calculi in 90 to 95% of cases
1
Jaundice is the earliest symptom
Mild raise in serum bilirubin level
Right upper quadrant pain
Vomiting is relatively common
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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multi
Fallen fragment sign is a feature of ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Simple bone Simple bone cyst (Solitery/Unicameral bone cyst) Simple bone cyst occurs before the age of 20 years The most common site is proximal humerus (50%)followed by Proximal femur (25-30%). Radiological features are : - Concentric Metaphyseal Expansile lucent (lytic) Well defined border with sclerotic margin Fallen Fragment sign : - Coical fragment of pathological fracture settles in the most dependent poion. Hinged fragment sign : - Sometimes fractured fragment does not separate from adjacent coex.
1
Simple bone cyst
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Giant cell tumor
Fibrous dysplasia
Surgery
null
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multi
The sensation of posterior aspect of tongue is by
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the nerve for both general sensation and taste for the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.The posterior most pa of the tongue is supplied by the vagus nerve through the internal laryngeal branch.The sensory supply of anterior two thirds is lingual nerve where as the taste sensation from the anterior two thirds is carried out by chorda tympani except vallate papillae(pre-trematic branch of first arch). REF.BDC VOL 3,Fifth edition.
1
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Mandibular nerve
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. The patient mentions that she has been unable to exercise much, partially due to severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime. On examination she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Reflexes and skin are normal. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). The patient asks if there is anything else that can be done before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin. What is the best next step?
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) that has gone untreated contributes to increased insulin resistance. This appears to have an additional effect even beyond the common cooccurrence of obesity as in this patient. Treatment of OSA can lead to improvement in glucose control. This patient is obese, has a crowded oropharynx on examination, and has daytime somnolence. Although overnight oxygen saturation monitor may be performed at home as screening, this patient is at high risk of complications of OSA should proceed directly to formal overnight polysomnography. Sleep hygiene is important for patients with sleep disturbance but is not likely to help in this patient with probable severe OSA. Similarly, sedative hypnotic agents such as zolpidem are widely prescribed for sleep but could exacerbate the OSA. Depression should always be explored but there are no clues beyond fatigue to suggest this diagnosis. Low vitamin D levels are generally asymptomatic unless the condition is severe and prolonged and would not affect sleep apnea or glucose control specifically.
4
Educate the patient on sleep hygiene to ensure better rest and more energy.
Prescribe zolpidem as a sleep aid to help her sleep and increase her energy to exercise during the day.
Explore for possible depression as a contributor to the fatigue which is keeping her from exercising.
Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea.
Medicine
Endocrinology
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What is the size of particle is rapid sand filter ?
Rapid sand filter  → 0.4 - 0.7 mm Slow sand filter → 0.2 - 0.3
4
0 .1 mm
0.2
0.5
0.4 to 0.7 mm
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
bedb8767-93fe-4c5c-9fc4-40d34231c208
single
Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by fleas?
Diseases transmitted by fleas include: Plague Endemic typhus Chiggerosis Hymenolepis diminuta. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 719.
4
Plague
Endemic typhus
Chiggerosis
Trench fever
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
aaac7037-399e-49cf-9003-121c7d1838fb
single
Fetal blood loss occurs in :
Vasa pre
3
Uterine rupture
Placenta pre
Vasa pre
Circumvallate
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5d5d2d1d-3617-4d0f-a6bc-4266c8dd2a26
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What will be reversible damage?
In this question primarily we talking about asthma= We give salbutamol FEV1 becomes Normal Change of FEV1 before & after giving salbutamol (SABA) should be at least 12% to call it Bronchial Asthma.
2
Fev1 decrease by 50 % by SABA
Fev1 increase by 12% by SABA
Fev1 decrease by 25% by SABA
Fev1 decrease by 5% by SABA
Medicine
COPD and Asthma
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All are true about congenital rubella syndrome, except–
null
2
Cardiac abnormality
Renal anomalies
Deafness
Cataract
Pediatrics
null
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multi
4 drugs in AKT used because -
<p> 4 drugs used in AKT because of decrease in resistance by mutation. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,22nd edition,page no:173. <\p>
1
Decrease in resistance by mutation
Decrease in resistance by conjugation
To cure disease early
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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multi
The child , Makes tower of 9 cubes at age of ____________
Emerging patterns of Adaptive milestones from 1-5years of age 15months Makes a tower of 3 cubes Makes a line with a crayon Inses raisin in a bottle 18months Makes a tower of 4 cubes Imitates scribbling Imitates veical stroke Dumps raisin from a bottle 24months Makes a tower of 7 cubes (6 at 21 mo) Scribbles in a circular pattern Imitates horizontal stroke Folds paper once imitatively 30months Makes a tower of 9 cubes Makes veical and horizontal strokes, but generally will not join them to make cross Imitates circular stroke, forming a closed figure 36months Makes a tower of 10 cubes Imitates construction of "bridge" of 3 cubes Copies circle Imitates cross 48months Copies bridge from model Imitates construction of "gate" of 5 cubes Copies cross and square Draws man with 2-4 pas besides the head Identifies longer of 2 lines 60months Draws a triangle from copy Names heavier of 2 weights Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1
2
24 months
30 months
36 months
48 months
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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Actinomycosis most commonly affects
Facio - cervical Actinomycosis is most common type.
2
Thorax
Facio - cervical region
Liver
Pelvis
Surgery
null
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single
Pseudosulcus in larynx is
Laryngeal pseudosulcus refers to edema of the ventral surface of the true vocal fold that extends from the anterior commissure to the posterior larynx. Patients with pseudosulcus are nearly 2.5 times more likely to have pH-documented Larynopharyngela reflux.
1
Laryngopharangeal reflux
Vocal abuse
Chronic steroid use
Tuberculosis
ENT
Larynx
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Thinnest pa of retina
Foveola High Yield Facts Posterior Pole: Macula + Optic nerve head. Optic disc: 1.5 mm Macula: 5.5 mm (Temporal to optic disc) Fovea - Centralis : Central depressed pa of Macula, 1.5 mm Foveola - 0.35 mm. Thinnest pa of retina after ora serrata. Contains no ganglion cells, only cones.
2
surrounding optic nerve head
Foveola
Fovea
Nasally to fovea
Ophthalmology
Retina
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multi
Absolute contraindications of oral contraceptive pill are all EXCEPT :
Smoking
4
Valvular hea disease
Focal migraine
Breast cancer
Smoking
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5440a27e-7795-47db-813d-025b1843fd20
multi
True statement about obesity -
null
3
Dexenfluramine is drug of choice
Sibutramine is only or epinephrine uptake inhibitor
According to WHO body mass index greater then 25 is overweight
Long term effect of orlistat is known
Medicine
null
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multi
A 22 year old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of the liver on ultrasound examination. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done next –
Lesion in right hepatic lobe with mixed echogenicity on USG suggests the diagnosis of hemangioma. MRI is the most accurate method of diagnosing liver hemangioma and is indicated when liver hemangioma is suspected on USG and the diameter of the lesion is smaller than 2.5 cm. However, MRI is not provided in the options. A second most accurate method of diagnosing liver hemangioma is SPECT RBC scintigraphy (hepatic scintigraphy). It is indicated to confirm the diagnosis when hemangioma is suspected on USG and the diameter of the lesion is greater than 2.5 cm. Suspected hemangioma on USG:- Lesion smaller than 2.5 cm in diameter   → MRI Lesion greater than 2.5 cm in diameter    → hepatic scintigraphy
2
Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
Hepatic scintigraphy
Hepatic angiography
Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver
Radiology
null
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True about Lucio's phenomenon is-
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Ischemic necrosis * Lucio's phenomenon is seen in untreated cases of lepromatous leprosy.Lucio's phenomenon* Lucio's phenomenon is seen in lepromatous leprosy (LL). It occurs in patients who are untreated. Patients develop recurrent crops of large sharply marginated, ulcerative lesions, particularly on lower extrimities. It is due to heavy parasitism of endothelial cell, endothelial proliferation and thrombus formation which lead to ischemic necrosis.
3
Associated with tuberculoid leprosy
Occurs as side effect of treatment of leprosy
Ischemic necrosis
Also known as type 2 Lepra reaction
Skin
Bacterial Infection of Skin
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Anakinrais-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IL 1 antagonist BIOLOGIC RESPONSE MODIFIER (BRMs)* Several recombinant proteins/monoclonal antibodies that bind and inhibit cytokines, especially TNFa or IL-1 have been used succesfully in autoimmune diseases like RA, IBD, psoriosis or scleroderma.A. TNF-a inhibitorsa. Etanercept# It is a recombinant fusion protein of TNF - receptor and Fc portion of human IgG1'# It is administered by S.C. injection.b. Infliximab# It is a chimeral monoclonol antibody which binds and neutralizes TNF-a.# It is given by i.v. route.# It is indicated in RA, psoriotic arthritis, Crohn's disease, Wegener's granulomatosis and sarcoidosis.c. Adalimumab# This recombinant monoclonal anti-TNF antibody.# It is administered by S.C. route.B. IL-1 antagonistAnakinra# It is a recombinant human IL-1 receptor antagonist.# It is less effective than TNF inhibitors.# It is administered by S.C. route.C. T-cell costimulatory blockersAbatacept# It is a fusion protein that combines the extracellular domain of the molecule CTLA4 (CD 154) with the Fc portion of a human immunoglobulin.# It interfere with the interactions between antigen presenting cells and T lymphocytes. Therefore, it affects early stages in the pathogenic cascade of event in RA.D. B-cell depletersRituximab# B-cells are inflammatory cells with multiple functions in the immune response. The depletion of B cells has been shown to be effective in reducing signs and symptoms of RA and in slowing radiographic progression.# Rituximab is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to the CD20 molecule on the B cell surface leading to the removal of B cells from the circulation.
2
TNF a antagonist
IL 1 antagonist
IL 2 antagonist
IL 6 antagonist
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
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single
Excessive sexual desire in females is known as?
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Nymphomania Sexual dysfunction* Sexual dysfunction are characterized by repeated inability to participate in sexual relationship or its unsatisfying nature. Important sexual dysfunctions are: -1. Disorder of sexual desire:- i) Excessive sexual desire - Satyriasis in males and nymphomania in women, ii) Hypoactive sexual desire - Frigidity2. Disorder of sexual arousal (Impotence or erectile dysfunction)# This disorder is characterized by an inability to have or sustain penile erection till the completion of satisfactory sexual activity. One of the important method to distinguish psychogenic impotence from organic impotence is nocturnal penile tumescence & early morning erection which are preserved in psychogenic impotence but not in organic cause of impotence.# Phosphodiesterase-5-inhibitors (Sildenafil, Todafil, vardenafil) are the drug of choice for erectile dysfunction. Other treatment includes PIPE therapy (Papaverine/Phentolamine induced penile erection), Alprastadil (Prostaglandin El), Androgens, and penile prosthesis/vaccume constrictor device. Sensate focus technique is the method in which the aim is to discover on body (excluding genitals) sensate focus, where manipulation leads to sexual arousal.3. Orgasmic dysfunction : - Premature ejaculation : -# Premature ejaculation is defined as ejaculation before the completion of satisfactory sexual activity for both partners.# Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation.# Dapoxetine (A new SSRI) can be used in treatment
1
Nymphomania
Satyriasis
Frigidity
Impotency
Psychiatry
Sexual Disorders
cbe2cecd-1497-40e1-ade3-23ac30c7a06a
single
Sertoli cells in male secrete -
Ans. is 'c1 i.e., MIHo Sertoli cells are stimulated by FSH and secreteAndrogen binding protein (ABP)InhibinMullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) or Mullerian inhibiting hormone (MIH)o Leydig cells are stimulated by LH and secrete androgens (testesterone), dihydrotestosterone, androstendione, dehydroepiandrosterone.
3
Testosterone
Dehydroepiandrosterone
MIH
Progesterone
Physiology
Sex Hormones
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single
Which statement regarding transmission of viral illness through homologous blood transfusion is true?
CMV is harbored in blood leukocytes. While acute CMV infection may cause transient fever, jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly in cases of large blood donor exposures, post transfusion l.CMV infection (seroconversion) is not a significant clinical problem in immunocompetent recipients, and therefore blood is not routinely tested for the presence of CMV Post transfusion non-A, non-S hepatitis, however, not only represents the most frequent infectious complication of transfusion but also is associated with an incidence of chronic active hepatitis up to 16% and an 8 to 10% incidence of cirrhosis or hepatoma or both. The etiologic agent in over 90% of cases of post transfusion hepatitis has' been identified as hepatitis C.
4
The most common viral agent transmitted via blood transfusion is HIV
Blood is routinely tested for CMV because CMV infection is often fatal
The most frequent infectious complication of blood transfusion continues to be viral meningitis
Up to 10% of those who develop post transfusion hepatitis will develop cirrhosis or hepatoma or both.
Unknown
null
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Deformity with decreased carrying angle is
Refer Apleys 9th e p 372 Cubitus varus develops which is reduced carrying angle and Cubitus valgus is increased carrying angle
1
Cubitus varus
Mannus varus
Cubitus valgus
Mannus valgus
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Aery forming anastomosis around surgical neck humerus -
Ans. is'c'i.e., 3rd pa of axillary aeryAnastomosis around surgical neck of humerus is formed by -Anterior circumflex humeral aery.Posterior circumflex humeral aeryBoth are branches of 3rd pa of axillary aery.
3
lst pa of axillary aery
2nd pa of axillary aery
3rd pa of axillary aery
Subclan aery
Anatomy
null
b7405022-cec9-4ccc-9609-b74baa254ed5
single
In which of the following state, a person is mute and akinetic, but can be awakened and even be ale?
Ans.A. StuporStupor refers to a higher degree of arousability in which the patient can be transiently awakened only by vigorous stimuli, accompanied by motor behaviour that leads to avoidance of uncomfoable or aggravating stimuli.
1
Stupor
Delirium
Twilight state
Oneiroid state
Psychiatry
null
5d8cf923-9210-4278-862a-6b6b98f6df09
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The deltoid ligament is a strong ligament. It is attached to all of the following structures, EXCEPT?
Medial collateral ligament (deltoid ligament) attaches to the medial malleolus of the tibia and the navicular, talus, and calcaneus bones. This ligament prevents medial distraction (eversion) and excessive range of motion. It is subdivided into four pas:Tibionavicular pa attaches the margin of the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring ligament).Tibiocalcaneal pa attaches to the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus bone.Posterior tibiotalar pa attaches to the medial side and medial tubercle of the talus.Anterior tibiotalar pa attaches to the medial surface of the talus.
2
Medial malleolus
Medial cuneiform
Spring ligament
Sustentaculum tali
Anatomy
null
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multi
The major purpose of Randomization in clinical trials is to -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment
4
Facilitate double blinding
Help ensure that the study subjects are representative of general population
Ensure that the groups are comparable on baseline characteristics
Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3724bb10-56e5-4b67-8e4a-29bfaed6725f
multi
Which of the following is an indor air-pollutonts-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbon dioxide Important indoor air pollutantsPOLLUTANTSSOURCESRespirable particlesTobacco smoke, Stove, Aerosol sprays.Carbon monoxideCombustion equipment, Stove, Gas heaters.Nitrogen dioxideGas cookersCigarettesSulphur dioxideCoal combustionCarbon dioxideCombustion, respirationFormaldehydeParticle board, Carpet adhesives, Insulation.Other organic vapours(benzene, toluene, etc)Solvents, adhesives, resin products, aerosol sprays.OzoneElectric arcing, UV light sourceRadon and "daughters"Building materialAsbestosInsulation, Fire proofingMineral fibersAppliances
1
Carbon dioxide
HCN
Methan
Perfluoro carbons
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
e379d1ec-9b0b-41c5-8551-cfb4e7146d48
single
Which of the following is a feature of Vit B12 deficiency anemia?
Clinical manifestations of Vitamin B12 deficiency: Haematological: Macro-ovalocytes, Hypersegmentation of neutrophils. Neurological: Demyelination in peripheral nerves and spinal cord B12 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia due to folate trap The peripheral smear given below shows hypersegmented neutrophil and macro-ovalocytes
4
Hypersegmented neutrophils
Macro-ovalocytes
Megaloblastic anemia
All of the above
Pathology
FMGE 2019
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multi
Rate of involution of uterus is: March 2011
Ans. C: 1.25 cm per day During the first 24 hours after delivery, the level of the uterus remains constant; thereafter there is a steady decrease in height by 1.25 cm (half inch) in 24 hours, so that by the end of 2^d week, the uterus becomes a pelvic organ Remember: Puerperium period: 6 weeks after delivery Involution of uterus is complete by: 6 weeks Uterus becomes a pelvic organ: 2 weeks after the delivery MC cause of puerperal infection: Streptococcus MC route of puerperal infection: Direct spread
3
0.75 cm per day
1 cm per day
1.25 cm per day
1.5 cm per day
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The CSF findings in TB meningitis include –
CSF in T meningitis Low sugar                   o Predominant cells --> Lymphocytes           o Opening pressure is elevated High protein                o Very low chloride
2
High sugar + low protein
Low sugar + high protein and Lymphocytosis
High sugar + high chloride
Low sugar + high protein and Lymphopenia
Pediatrics
null
baa1e1b0-69fe-4f63-a7d7-55ddb0cd7558
single
All are true about Dermatitis herpetiformis EXCEPT:
Lesions have epidermal bullae REF: Fitzpatrik dermatology 6th ed p. 558-73 Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is an intensely pruritic, papulovesicular skin disease characterized by lesions symmetrically distributed over extensor surfaces (i.e., elbows, knees, buttocks, back, scalp, and posterior neck). Almost all DH patients have an associated, usually subclinical, gluten-sensitive enteropathy , and >90% express the HLA-B8/DRw3 and HLA-DQw2 haplotypes. DH may present at any age, including childhood; onset in the second to fouh decades is most common. The disease is typically chronic. Biopsy: Small intestine shows paial villus atrophy Skin lesions show sub-epidermal bullae and papillary tip abscess , IgA in papillary tips (on DIF) Treatment: Dapsone and gluten free diet
2
The lesions are intensely itchy
Lesions have epidermal bullae
IgA in Papillary tips
Associated with gluten enteropathy
Skin
null
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multi
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus. To determine the antral perforation what to do from the following
null
1
Blow air through the nose with nostrils closed
Probe the socket to check for perforation
Enlarge the orifice to retrieve the root piece
All of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura. There was a history of URTI 2 weeks back. On examination, there was no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from:
Ans. (c) ITP(Ref: 9th/pg 657-658; 8th/pg 667-668)A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura with a history of URTI 2 weeks back and there is no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from ITP. For complete discussion on ITP; Refer to pretext of this chapter.
3
ALL
Acute viral infection
ITP
Aplastic Anemia
Pathology
Bleeding Disorders
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multi
Which of the following sympathetic receptors acts as vasoconstriction and vasodilatation:
(Ref: Katzung 14th ed. pg. 145-47)Alpha 1 and Beta 2 receptors present at blood vessels causing vasoconstriction and vasodilatation respectively.Sympathetic receptors, their location, function and G protein.ReceptorLocationFunctionG-Proteina1BV, smooth muscle, Salivary glandsVasoconstriction Increase secretionGqa2Presynapse Beta pancreatic cellBrake/Inhibit NA releaseDecrease insulin releaseGib1Heart JG cellInc Heart rate Renin releaseGsb2LungsSmooth muscle LiverBronchodilatation Relaxation of smooth muscles GlycogenolysisGsb3Adipocyte Detrusor muscleLipolysis, thermogenesis Bladder relaxGs
3
Alpha 1 and Alpha 2
Alpha 1 and Beta 1
Alpha 1 and Beta 2
Beta 1 and Beta 2
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
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single
H pylori is associated with of the following except?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased risk of adenocarcinoma of esophagus Diseases associated with H. Pylori infection Duodenal ulcer Gastric ulcer Chronic superficial gastritis Chronic atrophic gastritis Gastric adenocarcinoma Lymphoproliferative disease (MALT) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
4
Increased risk of peptic ulcer disease
Increased risk of gastric lymphoma
Increased risk of antral gastric carcinoma
Increased risk of adenocarcinoma of esophagus
Pathology
null
66799604-150b-43d9-a80b-f2f1183cc54a
multi
Hormone replacement therapy (H) is indicated in:
H Indications symptomatic women who suffer from oestrogen defeciency(therapeutic) high risk cases for menopausal complications like cardiovascular disease,osteoporosis,stroke,alzheimers disease,colonic cancer(prophylactic) premature menopause,spontaneous or following surgery(tubectomy,hysterectomy) gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents(therapeutic0 women demanding H as prophylaxis. SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:70,16 th edition
2
women with breast cancer
Osteoporosis
women with uterine cancer
previous history of thromboembolic episode
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Menopause and HRT
6341b0d7-1872-4896-99c8-e069115a71de
single
Haemostasis in scalp wound is best achived by -
null
1
Direct presure over the wound
Catching and crushing the b;,=.eders by haemostats
Eversion of galea aponeurotica
Coagulation of bleeders
Surgery
null
d3b9771e-a92d-4b12-aba0-503c70f41a2b
single
A young male patient presents with LDL 600mg/dl, triglycerides 140 mg/dl. What would be the most likely finding on physical examination
A i.e. Tendon Xanthoma
1
Tendon xanthoma
Planar xanthoma
Lipemia retinalis
Tuberoeruptive xanthoma
Biochemistry
null
90a225ff-c13f-4122-be84-6a845d507174
single
Which of the following can be prevented by screening -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ca cervix o This question is tricky one and is different from previous one. o In this question examinar is asking about the cancers which can be prevented by screening. o The cancers, which have well known precancerous condition, can be diagnosed and treated at pre-cancerous stage to prevent the development of cancer : - i) Cervix --> CIN ii) Colon ---> Polyp o On the other hand, in previous explanation, examinor had asked about the cancers for which survival can be prolonged by screening. This is done by early diagnosis and treatment of cancer which has already been developed. o So, two different questions can be framed : ? 1) Screening can increase the survival (screening is useful) in : - Colon (Colorectal) carcinoma Breast Carcinoma } Greatest Cervical carcinoma Prostate carcinoma l Moderate Kidney carcinoma 2) Screening can prevent Colon carcinoma Cervical carcinoma Breast, Prostate and kidney cancers cannot be prevented by screening, however, the survival rate can be increased by screening which caught them in early stage.
1
Ca cervix
Ca breast
Ca prostate
Ca Lung
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a580c38a-c307-41f6-96de-79a69bac897a
single
A 25 year male presented with nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, Na+ level is 125 meq/L. Treatment start with
(Give hypotonic saline) (758- 61 - CMDT- 08) (277-79, 2223-2224-Hl7th)* Treatment consist of replacement of lost volume with isotonic or half normal (0.45%) saline or lactated Ringer *s infusion in hypovolemic Hypotonic Hyponatremia* Asymptomatic hyponatremia - water restriction, 0.9% saline Demeclocycline. Fludrocortisone, selective renal vasopressin V2 antagonists (conivaptan. Mozavaptan, tolvaptan)* Hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia - water restriction Diuretics and V2 antagonists. Hypertonic (3%) saline
1
Give hypotonic saline
Ultra centrifugation
Haemodialysis
High protein diet
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
20d215b8-3d20-4860-9c89-2fe06e2c242e
single
Beta-2 microglobulin is a marker for?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma * Serum b2 microglobulin is increased in multiple myeloma and is the most important prognostic factor and can substitute for staging.* b2 Microglobulin level:a) < .004g/L - Median survival of 43 months.b) .004 g/L - Median survival of only 12 months.
1
Multiple Myeloma
Mycosis fungoides
B-Cell lymphoma
Mantle cell lymphoma
Pathology
Blood
cd66ffab-b469-4ab6-b703-7f9591da88ad
single
An individual is said to be 'overweight' if his BMI is in the range of
null
4
24.0 - 26.9
24.0 - 27.9
25.0 - 28.9
25.0 - 29.9
Medicine
null
e1530532-f96f-4cfd-ac15-b6c5d275938c
single
Immunohistochemistry marker of histiocytosis X
.
1
CD1a
CD57
CD3
CD68
Pathology
All India exam
62f5d1b5-b07c-4055-81a5-2205db432874
single
True abour Herpes virus
HSV encephalitis though rare is most common sporadic acute viral encephalitis in most pas of the world. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:469
1
HSV 1 causes encephalitis
EBV affects
CMV is always symptomatic
Herpes zoster is not activated
Microbiology
Virology
250f55e1-4ced-47ad-8e18-a762caf2cfc7
multi
Huhle cells seen in ?
Ans. is `b' i.e., Hashimoto ThyroiditisPathological features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 1. Cross featuresDiffuse symmetrically enlarged thyroidAlthough the gland is symmetrically enlarged, the accentuation of lobulations may make the gland appear lobular on gross examination.Capsule is intactCut surface is pale, yellow firm and lobulated.2. Microscopic featuresAtrophy of thyroid follicles (atrophic follicles)Extensive lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate with abundant small lymphocytes and plasma cells with destruction of follicles.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) - The surviving follicular epithelial cells are commonly transformed into large cells with abundant pink cytoplasm and are known as Huhle cells.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) is also known "oxyphilic change" in epithelial cells and is considered the hallmark of Hashimoto's thyroiditis.Varying degree of fibrosis and foci of squamous metaplasia within atrophic follicles.Interstitial connective tissue is increased and may be abundant.
2
Papillary carcinoma
Hashimoto Thyroiditis
Granulomatous thyroiditis
Thyroglossal cyst
Pathology
null
2dfb2fe9-bc49-4ea8-bf1b-202b1145c491
single
A gravida 3 female with kilo 2 previous 2nd trimester aboion presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of cervix Most appropriate management would be:
Ans. is d i.e. Apply MC Donald stitch In this question : A gravida 3 female is presenting with 2 previous 2nd trimester losses and with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks of gestation which means that the patient has incompetent cervix. Management of this condition as discussed in previous question is application of Mc Donald stitch Women who may have incompetent cervix and require treatment can be divided into 4 groups : Extra Edge Women presenting with acute presentation of incompetent cervix i.e. ? Complain of Pelvic / Rectal pressure of recent onset Increased mucous vaginal discharge. No contractions Remember * Most common factors associated with failure of rescue cerclage are -- Nulliparity -- Prolapsed membranes -- WBC > 14,000/mm3. -- CRP > 4 mg /dl -- Cervical dilatation > 4 cm -- Cervical length < 0.5 cm Contractions present
4
Administer dinoprostone and bed rest
Administer misoprostol and bed rest
Apply fothergill stretch
Apply McDonald stitch
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e219e5e2-9c2f-4fa1-baba-94fe6c0c11d5
single
Remnant of rostral neuropore is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Lamina terminalisThe cranial open end of neural tube is called as rostral (anterior) neuropore which closes on or before day 26 giving rise to lamina terminalis of brain.
3
Septum transversum
Ligamentusteres
Lamina terminalis
Cerebellum
Anatomy
null
4f829ae3-a8ea-4f69-840a-210b1033d3d8
single
patient having inguinal mass likely diagnosis ?
Lymphatic drainage of anal canal is through the mesorectal (also known as inferior rectal) nodes to the inguinal and femoral nodes. Anal cancers are more likely to produce inguinal adenopathy, with internal iliac adenopathy also occurring when the tissues near the anorectal junction are involved. ref : bailey and love
1
anal ca.
prostate ca.
testiclar ca.
penile ca.
Surgery
All India exam
ba1d41c2-0475-48e9-bb81-7df2eac73af2
single
All of the following are poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin's disease, Except:
Answer is A (Younger age) Lymphocyte depletion subtype, presence of mediastinal disease and systemic manifestation are all established poor prognostic factors Stomach involvement reflects advanced stage of disease and is likely to be associated with a poor prognosis.
1
Younger age
Systemic manifestations
Lymphocyte depletion
Mediastinal disease
Medicine
null
3319d90c-7b84-4500-acff-2d15e65913ee
multi
Which of the following is not the criteria for diagnosis of Metabolic syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome/Syndrome X: Central obesity: Waist circumference >102cm in males,>88cm in females. Hyperiglyceridemia: >150mg% Low HDL cholesterol: <40mg%I(male), <50mg% (female) Hypeension: >130/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose >100 mg% / previously diagnosed type 2 diabetes. NOTE:Raised LDL is NOT a feature of Metabolic syndrome.
4
Hypeension
Central obesity
Hyperiglyceridemia
High LDL
Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
797c702f-9803-4b31-b3c6-4b1b42d5cf72
single
A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for the purpose of a study. This type of sampling is termed as:
Cluster samples may be chosen where individuals fall naturally into groups or clusters. In the above scenario, a sample of the clusters is chosen at random, and then a random sample of units is chosen from within this selection of clusters. The villages are naturally formed groups or clusters in the region. Ref: Encyclopaedic Companion to Medical Statistics, Editors Brian S. Everitt and Christopher R. Palmer, Second Edition; Oxford Handbook of Medical Statistics, By Janet L. Peacock, Philip J. Peacock, Oxford University Press 2011, Page 55.
3
Simple Random sampling
Stratified sampling
Cluster Sampling
Systematic Sampling
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
709b6efb-d722-49b1-86d3-e41243f83f36
single
Life span of mosquito is?
Under orable conditions of temperature and food supply, the life cycle from the egg to adult is complete in 7-10 days. Normally the adult mosquito lives for about 2 weeks. The males are generally sho-lived Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg
2
1 week
2 weeks
1 month
1 year
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
1a71f0a7-1287-4972-a6f3-eab66233d69f
single
Air forced, or sucked in to the connective tissue and facial spaces are known as?
null
3
Empyema
Asphyxia
Emphysema
Aspiration
Pathology
null
11bd1a25-26d7-4491-b473-109e06a08a0b
single
A patient with long standing constipation enters a clinical research study. After a complete physical examination,a small intraluminal balloon is inseed through the anus to the rectum. Transducers are also inseed to measure internal and external anal sphincter pressures. Inflation of the rectal balloon causes the external anal sphincter to contract, but the internal anal sphincter, which exhibits normal tone, fails to relax and the urge to defecate is not sensed. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
The defecation reflex that is evoked when the rectum is distended involves three responses: 1) the internal anal sphincter relaxes, 2) the external anal sphincter contracts, and 3) a conscious urge to defecate is perceived. This neural reflex involves the pelvic nerve, which provides the parasympathetic preganglionic innervation to the internal anal sphincter (composed of smooth muscle) and also carries the sensory afferent information from the rectum to the spinal cord, and the pudendal nerve, which carries the somatic efferent inputs to the external anal sphincter (composed of skeletal muscle). In the patient described above, the pelvic nerve is most likely damaged since neither the reflex relaxation of the internal anal sphincter nor the urge to defecate is evoked by rectal distention. Damage to the internal anal sphincter would most likely cause resting tone to be low and, if anything, lead to fecal incontinence rather than constipation. Fuhermore, damage to the internal anal sphincter could not explain the failure of the appearance of the urge to defecate. The external anal sphincter appears to function normally since distention of the rectum evokes the expected contraction. The normal contraction of the external anal sphincter also suggests that the pudendal nerve is intact. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 12. Pelvis and Perineum. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
3
Internal anal sphincter
External anal sphincter
Pelvic nerve
Pudendal nerve
Anatomy
null
ccb2241d-793e-402b-a02b-163370198d06
multi
Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of Gall stones:
Contraindications for medical management are: 1. Radio-opaque concretions 2. Gallstones >20mm in diameter 3. Non opacified gall bladder 4. Acute &/or chronic cholecystitis 5. Complications of gallstones 6. Poor patient compliance In carefully selected patients with a functional GB and with radiolucent stones of <10 mm diameter medical management has been useful. Ref: Gallstone disease in the elderly By Giuseppe Del Favero, Pilotto, F. Di Mario, Page 61; Harrison's 16th/1884
1
Radio-opaque stones
Radioluscent stones
Normal functioning gall bladder
Small stones
Medicine
null
32d03fc4-2e47-4b43-a151-070c5052a3f4
multi
Cremasteric muscle is supplied by:
A. i.e. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
1
Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
Lateral femoral nerve
Ilio-inguinal nerve
Anatomy
null
b817e041-479b-4667-99e3-0de31f108fe4
single
Most common malignant tumor of kidney in children is:
Wilms' tumor is the most common primary malignant tumor of the kidney in children. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
3
Renal cell carcinoma
Mesoblastic nephroma
Wilm's tumour
None of the above
Surgery
null
2c850273-b081-45ae-8117-f66963fd1619
multi
Breast milk at room temperature stored for
Breast milkCan be stored at room temperature for 8-10 hoursIn a refrigerator for 24 hoursIn a freezer for 3 months(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 286 - 290)
2
4 hrs
8 hrs
12 hrs
24 hrs
Pediatrics
All India exam
f01e7ee2-e9b0-429a-b81f-cc46ddd9ce5a
single
Excitatory Neurotransmitters are :
D i.e. Glutamate
4
Acetyl choline
Glycine
GABA
Glutamine
Physiology
null
bf64e5a9-4079-41e2-ad7a-cc2e47a38727
single
Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs in
Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs usually due to striking the closed hand against a firm surface(Boxer's fracture) occurs in boxers. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 179
4
Hangman's fracture
Jefferson's fracture
Greenstick fracture
Boxer's fracture
Anatomy
Special topics
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single
The state of social dysfunction is called as:
"Sickness" refers to a state of social dysfunction. "Disease" is a physiological/psychological dysfunction. "Illness" is a subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well.
3
Illness
Disease
Sickness
Unwell
Social & Preventive Medicine
Other Key Definitions & Concepts
15321dfc-4259-4d7a-a821-fbb57168daf6
multi
KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of:
Ans: A (Descemet's membrane) Ref: BASAK Essentials of Ophthalmology. 5th edition, pg no 163Explanation: (See the following table)In KF ring, the copper deposits are seen in the vertical meridian (6 &12o'clock position) in the early stages.It is seen in all Wilson's patients if CNS is involvedWith penicillamine therapy . it disappears.Other manifestations of Wilson's disease are sunflower cataract & defective accommodation.
1
Descemet's membrane
Epithelium
Endothelium
Stroma
Ophthalmology
Cornea
a234c907-fa4b-4fb7-819d-e446843dde47
single
A patient of rectal carcinoma found to have tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues, and two enlarged lymph nodes. How will you manage the patient?
Stage of rectal cancer in the given scenario- Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues- T3 Two enlarged lymph nodes- N1b Thus, making it stage 3 Management of rectal cancer according to its stage- Stage Management Tis Polypectomy I Segmental resection II Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection III Preoperative chemoradiation followed by surgical resection IV Palliation, metastatectomy
3
Surgery only
Surgery + Adjuvant chemotherapy
Preoperative chemoradiation followed by surgical resection
Palliative chemoradiation
Surgery
Rectum and anal canal
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multi
The primary lateral incisors begin to calcify about the:
null
3
4th month of life
4th month in utero
41/2 month in utero
5th month in utero
Dental
null
469cdc85-6559-448d-8f07-424e8ddc436f
single
True about vagal nuclei are all except?
Ans. is'd'i.e., Spinal trigeminal nucleus is not a vagal nucleus(Ref: 'Functional and chemical anatomy of the afferent vagal system". Autonomic Neuroscience. 85 (I-3): I-17.)The vagus nerve includes axons which emerge from or converge onto four nuclei of the medulla.They are present deep in the medulla in the floor of the 4th ventricle.
4
There are 4 vagal nuclei
They are found in the floor of 4th ventricle
Nucleus Ambiguous is a vagal nucleus
Spinal trigeminal nucleus is not a vagal nucleus
Anatomy
null
ff22622b-49f4-4d15-acd4-2473c7855095
multi
Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes?
In the given question there is enlargement of local lymph nodes near the infected wound. Histologically:- Presence of Macrophages, Lymphocytes, Lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of Plasma cells. It is because the antigens from the wound are going to be drained to the lymph node. These antigens will cause B cell activation, once the B cell are going to be activated, they are going to get conveed into the Plasma cell and that is responsible for causing enlargement of the lymph node. Therefore, after any kind of infection or any kind of inflammation the reactive lymph node enlargement will occur and this is explained on the basis of Antigen stimulation.
1
Antigen stimulation
Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
Tumour transformation
Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
Pathology
Basic Concepts
25d670fc-4958-4e5c-9906-99ff737f4a08
single
Which one of the following antibacterial antibiotics are not recommend for lactating mothers ?
Chloroquine, proguanil, and mefloquine are considered compatible with breastfeeding. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention indicates that atovaquone may be used during breastfeeding where the infant weighs at least 5kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
Cephaslosporins
Anti tubercular drugs
Quinolones
Aminoglycoside
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
cf0d13de-51aa-4aa3-98bd-112f6acac032
single
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
With respect to cancer, when tumor cells divide rapidly their telomeres often shorten. Such telomeres  (usually detected in leukocytes because of ease of obtaining them) have been implicated as a risk  factor for many, but not all, solid tumors (eg, breast cancer).  Short telomeres appear to be of predictive value regarding the progression of chronic inflammatory diseases (such as  ulcerative colitis and Barrett esophagus) to cancer. The activity of telomerase, the main enzyme involved in synthesizing telomeres, is frequently  elevated in cancer cells, providing one mechanism for overcoming telomere shortening.  Selective  inhibitors of telomerase have been considered as possible drugs for treating cancer, but have not as  yet been translated into successful clinical usuage. Key Concept: Telomerase is the main enzyme that is seen elevated in cancer cells. Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition.
3
DNA reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
Telomerase
DNA polymerase
Biochemistry
null
744c1ab4-dfbe-4098-bc5e-e846640856fe
single
Essential WHO criteria for polycythemia vera?
null
1
Tyrosine kinase JAK2 V617F and other mutations
Low levels of erythropoietin levels
Thrombocytosis
Increased MCV
Medicine
null
83732ced-8ad0-493f-9acb-f2ef86fff83a
single
"Reward pathway" is associated with
(A) Nucleus accumbens# NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, pleasure, and reward and reinforcement learning, and hence has significant role in addiction.
1
Nucleus accumbens
Nucleus ambiguous
Dentate nucleus
Substantia nigra
Medicine
Miscellaneous
c51c4278-1071-420f-92a4-7d9e0baeaca9
single
Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts?
Ans. is d, i.e. HPV 6Ref: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p619"Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital warts." - Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p67Genital Warts:* Genital warts are lesions created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11).* They display various morphologies and appearances ranging from flat papules to the classic verrucous, polyphytic lesions, termed "condyloma acuminata".* Sites: External genital warts may develop at sites in the lower reproductive tract, urethra, anus, or mouth.* Diagnosis: They are typically diagnosed by clinical infection, and biopsy is not required unless co-existing neoplasia is suspected. HPV serotyping is not required for routine diagnosis.Treatment:* Condyloma acuminata may remain unchanged or resolve spontaneously.* Effect of treatment on future viral transmission is unclear. However, many women prefer removal, and lesions can be destroyed with sharp or electrosurgical excision, cryotherapy, or laser ablation. In addition, very large, bulky lesions may be managed with cavitational ultrasonic surgical aspiration.Medical Management of Genital Warts:* Topical 5-percent imiquimod cream (immunomodulator)* Podophyllin (antimitotic agent)* Trichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Bichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Intralesion injection of interferonNote: Intralesion injection of interferon has high cost, is painful and is inconvenient to administer, So this therapy is not recommended as a primary modality and is best reserved for recalcitrant cases.Therapy of choice: No data suggest the superiority of one treatment. Thus in general treatment should be selected based on clinical circumstances and patient and provider preferences.
4
HPV 16
HPV 18
HPV 31
HPV 6
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Carcinoma Cervix
1cad8398-611f-4100-8b4c-c8c113e66b6c
single
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is –
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma.
4
Gemistocytic
Fibrous
Protoplasmic
Pilocytic
Ophthalmology
null
a192cfc9-e0fa-4ca2-b411-d65e4d79b655
single
License to blood bank is given by:
Drugs controller General of India GUIDELINES FOR OPENING AND LICENSING OF BLOOD BANK Blood Bank: - Blood bank means, a centre within an organisation or an institution for collection, grouping, cross-matching, storage, processing and distribution of Whole Human Blood or Human Blood Products from selected human donors. Licensing policy and legal framework for Blood Banks:? An adequate legal framework has been provided in Schedule X B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act/Rules published in The Gazette of India: Extraordinary (Pa II-Sec.3 (i) which stipulates mandatory testing of blood for Blood transmissible Diseases, including HIV. The rules provide for adequate testing procedures, quality control, standard qualifications and experience for blood bank personnel, maintenance of complete and accurate records, etc. The Drugs Controller General (India) is the Central Licence Approving Authority whereas the regulatory control remains under the dual authority of the State and the Central Government. The blood banks under the Act require a manufacturing licence.
1
Drugs controller General of India
Director General of Health Services
Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research
Director General Blood Bank Services
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1c979ff4-1058-41eb-8d14-bbd339e4bf99
single
Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in
NON NEOPLASTIC POLYPSPOLYPSLOCATIONHISTOLOGICAL TYPERISK OF MALIGNANCYASSOCIATED LESIONSHyperplastic polypscolonHyperplastic colonic epithelial celssRareJuvenile polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachHamaomasrarePeutz jeghers syndromeJejunum(mainly)hamaomasrarePigmentation in the mouth.tumours of the ovary, breast, endometrium, and pancreas.NEOPLASTIC POLYPSTubular adenomatous polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachadenoma1-3%Villous adenomasLarge intestineadenoma40%Familial polyposis coliLarge intestineadenoma100%Gardner's syndromeLarge and small intestineadenoma100%Bone and soft tissue lesions, ampullary cancer, congenital hyperophy of pigment epitheliumTurcot's syndromeLarge intestineadenoma100%Brain tumors(Ref: Harrison's 18/e768,769,7770)
2
Peutz-Jegher's polyp
Familial polyposis coli
Juvenile polyposis
Hyperplastic polyp
Medicine
All India exam
4bb4e158-6349-412c-b907-fe6639638608
single
The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about:
The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about 12. Only in crusted (Norwegian) scabies are large numbers of mites present. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition Pg 38.37.
2
2
12
16
24
Skin
null
96a821c7-4e75-44cb-be99-385adef32da6
single
A patient is trying to make a fist, but can only paially flex Index and Middle finger. Which nerve is damaged most probably:
Median nerve injury leads to 'Benediction hand deformity', as observed in this patient. Hand of benediction occurs as a result of prolonged compression or injury of the median nerve at the forearm or elbow. Note: The answer can't be Anterior Interosseous Nerve, because in that case, Flexor digitorum superficialis (intact median nerve supply) will be functional and patient can do flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint.
1
Median
Ulnar
Radial
Anterior interosseous nerve
Anatomy
Nerve supply, Nerve Lesions
7193a65c-1b2e-404e-81c8-84a36de2ef47
multi
What is the total dose of Vitamin - A given under national immunisation schedule
1 lac IU @ 9 months age. 2 lac IU every 6 months therefter, till the age of 5 years.
2
16 Lac IV
17 Lac IV
18 Lac IV
20 Lac IV
Medicine
null
a2fcbed8-9d0d-4217-8e91-b4103451516b
single
False about pioglitazone?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate Pioglitazone has insulin sensitizing action, i.e., enhancing the effect of cinilating insulin. Therefore, insulin is neces? sary for the action of Pioglitazone, and it does not lower blood glucose in persons that lack endogenous insulin. o Pioglitazone is selective agonist for the nuclear PPAR-y which enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes. o Pioglitazone is contraindicated in CHF. Metabolism of Pioglitazone o Pioglitazone is extensively metabolized by hydroxylation and oxidation in liver. o Multiple CYP isoforms are involved in the metabolism of pioglitazone. The cytochrome p450 isoforms primarily involved are CYP 2C8 (major) and CYP3A4 (to a lesser degree).
4
It PPARy agonist
Metabolized in liver
Not given in case of diastolic dysfunction
It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate
Pharmacology
null
0df577be-d8a1-48f3-9739-86fb7f843b6e
multi
Glutathione peroxidase contains ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Se
2
Cu
Se
Fe
Hg
Biochemistry
null
5f96cedb-2ac4-45ae-afd9-85764ed3af97
single
Oliguric phase of ARF is characterized by A/E
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypokalemia
4
Chest pain
Acidosis
Hypeension
Hypokalemia
Medicine
null
695ed886-56c3-4db3-9052-c2f951075512
single
I/V contrast is not used in -
In myelography the contrast agent is injected into the subarachanoid space.
4
CT scan
MRI
IVP
Myelography
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
b336ba52-abcc-4b89-8d28-2027b8516b38
single
All the following are true about branchial cyst except:
Ans: A (It occurs at lower 2/3rd of sternocleido-mastoid) Ref: Bailey & Love '5 Short Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, pg. 728Explanation:Branchial cyst is located at the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border.BRANCHIAL CYSTAetiopathologyDevelops from the vestigial remnants of the second branchial cleftLined by squamous epithelium.Contents - thick, turbid fluid full of cholesterol crystals.Clinical FeaturesPresents in the upper neck in early or middle adulthood.At the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border.Soft, fluctuant swellingTransillumination may be presentMay be difficult to palpate in early stages because of soft consistency.ComplicationsMay get infected-becomes erythematous and tender may be difficult to differentiate from a tuberculous abscess.InvestigationsUltrasound neckFine-needle aspirationTreatmentComplete surgical excision.Surgery is best done when the lesion is quiescent.Technical DetailsAnterior aspect of the cyst is easy to dissect.Passes backwards and upwards through the bifurcation of the common carotid artery as far as the pharyngeal constrictors.It passes superficial to the hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves, but deep to the posterior belly of the digastric.These structures and the spinal accessory nerve are at risk of injury during surgery.
1
It occurs at lower 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid
It is lined by squamous epithelium
It develops from remnants of 2nd branchial cyst
Usually presents in early or middle adulthood
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Neck)
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Old age pigment is?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lipofuscin o It is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.Lipofuscino It is an insoluble pigment, also known as I and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.o Its importance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.o It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is particularly prominent in the liver and heart of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia,o On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location. In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.o Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy
3
Hemosiderin
Melanin
Lipofuscin
Bilirubin
Pathology
Cellular Aging
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In a patient only HBs Ag is positive ins serum, all other markers are negative, This indicates -
Presence of only HBsAg indicate immunisation. REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&548
4
Acute hepatitis
Chronic active hepatitis
Persistent carrier
Hepatitis B vaccination
Microbiology
Virology
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A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of shortness of breath. During physical examination it is noted that there is wide splitting in her S2 heart sound. Which of the following valves is/are responsible for production of the S2 heart sound?
The S2 heart sound refers to the second (dub) heart sound. This sound is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves. The closure of mitral/bicuspid and tricuspid valves produce the first S1 (lub) heart sound.
2
Mitral valve
Pulmonary and aortic
Aortic and mitral
Tricuspid
Anatomy
Thorax
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All of the following are grievous injuries except -
Facial bum (causing disfiguration), fracture and emasculization are grievous injuries.
2
Facial burns
Avulsion of nail
Fracture of bone
Emasculation
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Edward Jenner died in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1823 o Edward Jenner was born on 17 may 1749 and died on 26 January 1823. o Edward Jenner discovered samll pox vaccine in 1796, which was the first ever vaccine to be discovered. o Edward Jenner also coined the term 'vaccine'.
3
1749
1775
1823
1920
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Causes of exudative retinal detachment
C i.e. Harada's syndrome
3
Central retinal aery detachment
Hypeensive retinopathy
Harada's syndrome
All
Ophthalmology
null
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Not true about pituitary gland ?
Ans. is'b'i.e., Coicotrophs are acidophilicPituitary gland is situated in sella turcica.Anterior pituitary develops from Rathke's pouch and posterior pituitary develops from infundibular process from diencephalon.Coicotroph are basophils.ADH is secreted from posterior pituitary.
2
Lies in sella turcica
Coicotrophs are acidophilic
ADH is secreted by posterior lobe
Anterior lobe is developed from Rathke's pouch
Physiology
null
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multi
Which of the following flipped pattern of LDH is seen in myocardial infarction:
In normal person, LDH-2 is more than LDH-1 in serum. BUT in myocardial infarction, LDH-1>>LDH-2. This is known as Flipped ratio of LDH in Myocardial Infarction. ADDITIONAL EDGE ON ISOENZYMES OF LDH: LDH-2 is raised in haemolytic anemia. (LDH-2 is mainly found in blood (Both WBC and RBC; WBC conc. > RBC conc.)
1
LDH 1>2
LDH 2> 1
LDH 3>4
LDH 5> 4
Biochemistry
Enzyme uses
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All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis (AFS), EXCEPT:
The diagnostic criteria for allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS) are the presence of characteristic allergic mucin, type I hypersensitivity (eosinophilic-lymphocytic inflammation), absence of fungal invasion, immuno-compromised individuals and radiological confirmation (areas of high attenuation on CT scan).
2
Areas of High Attenuation on CT scan
Orbital invasion
Allergic Eosinophilic mucin
Type I Hypersensitivity
ENT
null
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multi
The couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the
Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eight (subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957
1
Hepatic veins and poal vein
Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
Poal vein and biliary ducts
Poal vein and hepatic aery
Anatomy
G.I.T
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single
Rollover phenomenon in audiometry is seen in
Roll over phenomenon:- it is seen in retro cochlear hearing loss . With increase in intensity above paicular level phonetically balanced score (PB score) falls rather than maintain a plateau as in cochlear type of sensineural hearing loss .
2
Cochlear lesions
Retro-cochlear lesions
Lesion in inferior colliculus
Lesion in medial geniculate body
ENT
Ear
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single
Diffuse mesothelioma is seen with -
- asbestos enters the body by inhalation and fine dust may be deposited in the alveoli. - the dust deposited in the lungs causes pulmonary fibrosis leading to respiratory insufficiency and death. - it also causes mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:807 <\p>
1
Asbestos
Arsenic
Tobacco use
TB
Social & Preventive Medicine
Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health
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