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2meo1t
|
Why does the body burn muscle before using fat reserves?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2meo1t/why_does_the_body_burn_muscle_before_using_fat/
|
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"Because parts of your body like your brain or your blood cells are very very dependent on glucose. Even with induced ketosis (which in itself takes 3 days of not eating - your glycogen reservoir is used up about a couple of hours after your last meal) you still need it. Gluconeogenesis, the process of producing new glucose, can not take fatty acids as their substrate, however almost all amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, can be converted to glucose. Functionally skeletal muscles act as a protein storage - you can lose about 50% of the protein content in the muscle without functional loss of the muscle, and thus during the beginning of starvation you lose muscle mass first, then start losing fat while also losing muscles at a decreased rate because of ketosis, and finally when all your fat is used up you start depleting the rest of your muscles at an increased rate until nothing but the cardiac muscle is there to consume. "
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2t9pmh
|
how come babies and young children can fall asleep so fast? are they chemically different than adults?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2t9pmh/eli5_how_come_babies_and_young_children_can_fall/
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"Na, they just have no worries like bills, exams, relationships etc. Ignorance is clearly bliss. ",
"I can fall asleep in 2 min sometimes. I say: \"Time to sleep, good night.\" *brushes teeth and gets to bed* and I am out",
"Babies' and childrens' brains are still developing, so they need more REM sleep than we do. It's not fully understood but sleep is part of the learning process. Here's an [article](_URL_0_) if you're interested."
]
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"http://healthysleep.med.harvard.edu/healthy/matters/benefits-of-sleep/learning-memory"
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||
1q84n4
|
what is laissez-faire economics?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1q84n4/eli5what_is_laissezfaire_economics/
|
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"When the economy is free, or mostly free, from government involvement. This means the transactions between private actors are not forced, nor the actors coerced.",
"Thnk of it as hands off economics. The government does as little as possible. Not just free market but the free-est market. The government wouldn't subsidize anything or create regulations or make standards. This is a economic theory that waxes and wanes but never is fully used by any major government. "
]
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5qoepv
|
drm and how it actually stops pirates instead of just making it more difficult for me to play my movies on my many devices, etc...
|
DRM has been around the block, and eventually removed from music in pretty much every market place, but only increased in invasiveness with movies. Despite this, pirates can circumvent enough DRM schemes that pirated movies are common. Are there quantifiable ways in which it's deceased movie piracy, or is the inconvenience just on me as a purchaser?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5qoepv/eli5_drm_and_how_it_actually_stops_pirates/
|
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"DRM on movies *is* dumb.\n\nWorst case, people can just record their screen while watching a movie legally.\n\nBest case, people just remove it.\n\nIt's only an inconvenience for the legal buyer. Same goes for games (aside from Denuvo, which hasn't been cracked yet and actually has stopped piracy, but it'll be cracked at some point, which even the Denuvo devs admit).\n\nEDIT: I'd like to add there was no big increase in legal sales for Denuvo games.",
"Usually, DRM is not added with the expectation that it will never be broken. It is more commonly used as deterrent to make people less likely to bother getting around it. It increases the level of effort required to get it illegally, and the idea is that it'll increase the effort enough for a significant percentage of potential customers to just buy it instead.\n\nIt is also intended to increase the time between the release of a work, and when it's available illegally. This is often the case for games. The developers know the protection will eventually be broken, but games are the most valuable when they're new, so the longer it takes until the DRM is broken, the more people will just give up waiting for a \"crack\" and buy it instead. Eventually, the price of the game decreases by a lot, and a significant portion of those who are willing to pay for games have already bought the game. At this point, it doesn't matter too much for the developer that the DRM has been broken, as the people pirating it at this point are often people who would never have bought the game anyway.\n\nSome developers have said that having a game that's not possible to pirate for just the first two weeks after release makes a very big difference. The DRM doesn't have to be very long lived for it to be worth the cost of licensing it. Game developers have a business to run, after all. If the cost of DRM leads to a net loss of money compared to not using it, I don't think they would bother."
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h2qqq
|
How is the "RNA World Hypothesis" generally viewed in the scientific community?
|
Hello, /r/askscience!
Just wondering if this hypothesis is generally referenced or relied on often.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/h2qqq/how_is_the_rna_world_hypothesis_generally_viewed/
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"The first paper on it, from 1986, has been cited over 900 times. That's a lot.",
"I don't know how often it is referenced, but I think it is a viable hypothesis of the origin of organisms. ",
"In astrobiology we reference it often and are testing to see if it is viable",
"As far as I know that is considered to be the only hypothesis for origin of life on earth.. People can already make RNA molecules that can ALMOST make themselves. Mechanistically thats the only theory that makes sense too.",
"For readers looking for a little background on the RNA Hypothesis.\n\n_URL_0_\n\n > The RNA world hypothesis proposes that life based on ribonucleic acid (RNA) predates the current world of life based on deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), RNA and protein. RNA is able to both store genetic information, like DNA, and catalyze chemical reactions, like an enzyme protein. It may therefore have supported pre-cellular life and been the first step in the evolution of cellular life.\n\n > The RNA world is proposed to have evolved into the DNA, RNA and protein world of today. DNA is thought to have taken over the role of data storage due to its increased stability, while proteins, through a greater variety of monomers (amino acids), replaced RNA's role in specialized biocatalysis. The RNA world hypothesis suggests that RNA in modern cells is an evolutionary remnant of the RNA world.",
"It's pretty legit, but don't narrow the possibilities down because biology has a way of quickly becoming very... fuzzy."
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7zpetu
|
what is germany doing differently then america where america is trillions of dollars in debt while germany has a several billion dollar surplus?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7zpetu/eli5_what_is_germany_doing_differently_then/
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"In the EU, there is a rule that requires every country to either keep it's debt below 60% of gdp, or actively on decreasing it.\n\nNow, enforcement here has been generally lax, but it tightened up with the financial crisis. Since Germany is above the debt limit (a result of the reunification), they're working on reducing the deficit.\n\n_URL_0_",
"In the US, politicians seem to treat spending and revenue as unrelated concepts. They pass a tax bill, then they pass a spending bill without any real concern over the difference between them. ",
"Not buying bombs from itself at hugely marked up prices\n\nAlso not using those bombs so they have to buy more",
"I suggest you listen to freakonomics podcast. Details nicely why Germany has surplus when trading with china. I will post a link if I can later.",
"Germany paid of it'd ww2 debts. Also much more export. I believe if you take it per capita it is triple the US export. \n\nFewer military spending. \n\nBetter economic basis. As people are generally more safe in their job they don't save as much. Also monopolies are mostly prevented by law. \n\nGigantic export market in the EU that the US has access to but not as much as Germany. ",
"Having a surplus doesn't mean you don't have tons of debt. Comparing \"trillions of debt\" to \"a surplus\" is apples and oranges. Germany has tons of debt as well. ",
"Who does the world owe all this money to?",
"Germany benefits greatly from being in the Eurozone. This gets a little wonky, but if you care about economics continue reading. Eurozone growth is struggling quite a bit (Spain, Italy, France etc. are rather stagnant), but Germany's economy is doing quite well. In a nation with one currency (the US for example) the value of the dollar would increase as the economy expands. A higher valued dollar means it is more expensive to buy American goods, thus American exports would slow down. \n\nIn the case of Germany, the Euro is relatively sluggish and isn't expanding with the rise of the German economy. This means that it is still relatively inexpensive to buy German goods, even though there economy is doing exceptionally well. Meaning they can continue to export like crazy, with an economy that is already booming. This of course has the opposite effect for other Euro nations that aren't doing well, their exports slow with Germany pulling up the currency.\n\nEdit: Your essential point is wrong. They have a budget surplus, they are still in debt. ",
"This is a good podcast to listen to. :)\n\n[_URL_0_](_URL_0_)",
"I believe you are confusing debt/surplus/etc. it’s not uncommon for organizations and even governments to hedge through use of debt. For example, let’s say you are building a new plant in x country which will cost 100M. You as a company has the 100M sitting in an account earning 5% interest. Do you use the 100M to build the complex or get a loan? Generally, if you can borrow the 100M for less than 5% interest than you borrow. If borrowing money will cost more than 5% than you’d most likely use the money sitting in an account or a combination of the two. \n\nLet’s not also forget that money sitting around as surplus may not actually be surplus. The government count have bonds maturing, debt obligations approaching or a wide assortment of other fiscal requirements. In short, it may actually not be extra money just sitting around at all and could be actually obligated. \n\nDespite this, you are correct Germany is doing many things right compared to US. Most citizens don’t get a loan for a home but rather generally save and pay cash or have smaller amounts on loans. They tend to save their money vs spending it on unreserved items. In addition they tend to be a much more transparent culture compared to US. Meaning they are more likely to say it as it is rather than avoiding a situation. This will often lead to a culture being more realistic, honest, and focused on financial aspects compared to US, where we often hide how much we owe on mortgages, credit cards, etc as we aspire to keep up with the Jones. In short, as a culture who is more about calling the kettle black should it be black, they can be more responsive to downturns in economic positions compared to nations who just want to believe all is well, when is not. ",
"Old joke from the 80's, when Japan had some of the role China has now, holding a lot of US debt, and with a trade imbalance:\n\nJapan: We are getting very concerned about your level of debt. Can you maintain it? What are you spending on that it keeps increasing so fast?\n\nUSA: Well, we bought hundreds of MX multi-warhead nuclear missiles, and...\n\nJapan: It's ok. We don't need the money right away.",
"A few others have answered, but having a hudget surplus really doesn't have anything to do with debt.\n\nYou can have a budget surplus this year by cutting some of your bills, but still have a huge amount of student debt. Remember, debt is only really an issue if it's not sustainable.",
"I might have gotten this wrong but I think Germany's national debt is 2 trillion dollars going off of [this](_URL_0_):\n\n1,771,735,100,000 euros which is:\n\n$2,177,940,806,377 \n\nDefinitely might have that wrong though. \n\nSo they're both in trillions of dollars of debt but Germany posted a surplus this/last year. ",
"Let's cut to the chase: Germany has higher taxes. Their citizens agree that it's worth paying more taxes to have shit like healthcare and budget surpluses that can be applied to the national debt. At the same time, they also have a healthy economy with successful industrial, agricultural, and tourism sectors. Big surprise (to conservatives): when you pay for shit, you have less debt.",
"Well we have been spending well north of 600 billion dollars (conservatively) every year on defense since I've been alive. ",
"Essentially America is building and maintaining a military capable of defending and protecting the rest of the world from acts of war, allowing many nations great freedom to put capital that might normally go into defense toward other areas of their economy.\n\nGermany in particular is a great example of this, having been barred during the Geneva Convention from ever building or maintaining a proper military in the future, which has caused their power and global influence to be almost entirely derived from maintaining a robust economy - mostly built upon producing high-end exports and making lucrative trade deals.\n\n(edit: can't type good)",
"They have many social programs to empower their citizens. Every corporate boardroom is required to have one Union representative. Things that America conservatives are brainwashed to fear.",
"Both countries have a sizeable national debt. What is different about Germany is that they have a tiny budget surplus this year whereas the U.S. have a massive budget deficit. This means that this year, Germany's debt shrank, but the U.S.'s debt grew. Those are the facts. It's important to distinguish three concepts:\n\n * national debt: how much money is currently owed (domestically or otherwise). This is not always the best metric, since many countries both issue debt and purchase debt.\n * budget surplus/debt: how much the national debt changes in a fiscal year.\n * trade surplus/debt: often mixed in with these other two concepts, but is mostly orthogonal. It is meaningful, but not in this context.\n\nWhy does Germany have a tiny budget surplus and the U.S. have a massive budget deficit? Politics. For whatever reason, German politicians have temporarily balanced their budgets (I don't expect this to continue). For a variety of reasons, U.S. politicians have done the opposite. I don't know much about German politics, but some of the relevant factors in America:\n\n * Trump recently cut taxes despite us already running a budget deficit. Two motivations presented without comment are to \"starve the beast\", i.e. government can't grow if it can't afford to. And the other is the belief that lower taxes will make the economy healthier, even with increased budget deficits. Again, I'm not going to comment on the wisdom of either of those reasons, it's not relevant here.\n\n * Obama raised spending during the Great Recession, hoping to prevent it from being any worse.\n\nBut ultimately, the cause is political: it's easier for politicians to lower taxes and increase spending than for them to do the reverse, so the system is biased towards those outcomes. This is the main reason I suspect the German situation to be temporary.",
"Not footing the bill for safety and security of the rest of the modern world militarily speaking. ",
"As others have said, you're misunderstanding national debt.\n\nThe US has ~$14.5 trillion in debt, equating to ~$44,900 per person - misleading, but gets the point across for the sake of comparison.\n\nGermany has $3.3 trillion in debt, equating to $40,000 per person.\n\nAs you can see, minimal difference. A lot goes into national debt, and it's fairly complicated (like others stated with things like inter-departmental debt). Keep in mind, too, things like infrastructure needs for a large, sprawling nation like the US compared to the relatively concentrated spread of EU nations, as well as military spending (though EU nations have higher social spending). Very difficult to compare, basically, as countries have different government structures/budgeting/spending priorities/etc.",
"Germany doesn’t pay trillions into their military while the USA is expected to be the worlds bodyguard.",
"The German Economy is an export and manufacturing driven economy, because their economy is organized around producing goods (think Siemens and BMW) and selling them to the Eurozone they run surpluses. The U.S. is a service economy organized around using services and imports to make sure that other countries need to hold on to dollars which makes the dollar the world reserve currency and giving the U.S. crazy amounts of political power. To make every country need the dollar and keep prices low we run deficits. This is a much bigger question than you may have realized, and the post following is about explaining the nature of debt and dispelling some illusions about economies, for example, debt isn't necessarily bad for a government.\n\n 1: Balance sheets. Every economy can be boiled down to three balance sheets: The private balance sheet (Savings minus Investments), The government balance sheet (Tax revenue minus Government spending), and the foriegn sector balance sheet, (Exports minus imports). When you add all these balance sheets together [they equal 0](_URL_1_). This means that if you want the private citizens to make money either foreign countries have to lose money, or the government has to lose money. This is an accounting identity, and this relationship between these three balance sheets is as certain as parallel lines not meeting. Economic organizing basically comes down to two questions, which sector/sectors do you want to run surpluses/deficits, and how do you seek to achieve that?\n\n 2: Government debt isn't necessarily bad. If you (not proverbial you, you the private citizen) run a debt, the problem isn't the debt itself, the worry is that someone will collect on that debt and punish you for failing to service it. With that in mind, we go forward. First, the U.S. owes all its debts in dollars. The U.S prints dollars, as many as it wants for that matter (debt ceiling notwithstanding, [but the debt ceiling is stupid](_URL_0_)). This means that as long as the U.S. debt is calculated in dollars, the U.S. can pay its entire debt to everyone instantly as soon as it wants to. So the problem of servicing a debt is now void, so on to the question of enforcement. Which brave country do you think wants to enforce violent collections on the most powerful army in the history of ever? Nobody, that's suicide, so debt isn't really what you think it is when you print your own money and can murder anyone who bitches about it.\n\n 3: What the U.S. should be scared of. First, the U.S. should be afraid of cutting government spending to resolve the debt. GDP (the size of our economy is calculated by GDP = C+I+G+(X-M). That G is government spending. If you cut government spending the economy shrinks, that's just accounting, that statement is by definition true, parallel lines. Our government debt is mostly composed of money paid out to its citizens. This means if government spending shrinks so does C and I. The U.S. raised government spending after the financial crisis, and it's GDP remained fairly stable. The Greeks and Spanish cut their government spending to appease the German masters, their economies are decimated, the U.S. would have to be run by idiots (it is) to make cutting government spending a priority. Second, the U.S. should fear a destabilized currency. If the dollar becomes unstable it stops being the world reserve currency. If it stops being the world reserve currency it can't pay for everything in dollars, if it can't pay for everything in dollars, debt suddenly matters. The debt ceiling could destabilize the U.S. currency, and the Democrats know the Republicans would kill their own children for political points, so they cave on all negotiations involving the debt ceiling to make sure that our currency never defaults. Runaway inflation could destabilize the currency, but inflation only really happens if labor has unlimited negotiation power (part Republican fear of Unions[if labor has too little negotiating power then people start dying of poverty, there is a balance and the U.S. has a bad habit of swinging to extremes]), or if you owe debt in a foreign currency, see Argentina or post WWI Germany. \n\n 4: How to use taxes to deal with a deficit/debt. If we want to improve our debt to GDP ratio we then we want to increase government revenue through taxes. We saw why we don't want to cut government spending with Greece and Spain. There is a way to figure out which taxes to raise too. Figure out which sector of the economy is least productive, then use high tax rates to force people to spend their money elsewhere. Right now the biggest drag on the U.S. economy [is finance/banking](_URL_2_). For every three dollars that get moved into finance we can expect our economy to slow by about one dollar (see graph one). Finance crashed the world in 2007, and right now companies like Pfizer are using more money on stock buybacks than research and development. Fracking is losing huge amounts of money, and is exclusively being held afloat by huge financial investments. Outsize finance isn't just dangerous in terms of, but its profitability in the short term is literally preventing the development of life saving drugs, green technology, and other innovative necessities from being developed. Raise capital gains tax and you kill fifty birds with one solar powered heat seeking stone."
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378ly5
|
how is it possible that military aircraft like the b-52 are still in service? do they just replace all the computers?
|
Even if they're producing new B-52s, wouldn't they have to redesign them to fit modern radar/electronic warfare/whatever standards and equipment? I'm curious how this would work when the designs date back to the 1950s. Same with the F-16, though it's not quite as old. Thanks!
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/378ly5/eli5how_is_it_possible_that_military_aircraft/
|
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"There are modernization programs to upgrade avionics, weaponry, etc. One of the most extreme examples is the mig-21 which has been flying for quite some time with occasional upgrades to the electronics. ",
"Yes, they upgrade the planes over time. The airframe still meets the needs of the military, so there's no need to go through the long expensive process of designing a new plane. Just retro fit the old ones and make some changes to the designs for new ones being built.\n\nEdited out a fact that was wrong.",
"If it is worth it to perform an upgrade, an upgrade program will be created, funded, designed and implemented. Usually the upgrades will be incremental, with the new equipment going into space that the old equipment occupied.\n\nFor most electronic equipment, this isn't a problem, but it can add some complexity and cost to the design, as you can't necessarily use off the shelf parts (what is known as commercial off the shelf or COTS in the industry). Weight and balance of the aircraft are important concerns, and while modern electronics are usually lighter, adding lots of new capabilities usually comes wtih additional weight.\n\nYou'll typically find that the upgrades (known as \"blocks\") are incremental. This means that aircraft aren't taken out of service for significant periods of time while the upgrades are performed. For more extensive upgrades, particularly upgrades that involve removing and replacing lots of aircraft wiring, they'll slowly rotate airframes out of the fleet to be upgraded during major service phases.\n\nCheck out the wikipedia article on the F-16 to see all the different blocks and variants out there: _URL_0_ \n",
"All of the B-52 airframes date back to 1962 at the youngest. There are revision projects to upgrade the airframes every so often (at the moment, the USAF is upgrading the computers and hardpoints to allow cruise missiles, and they may get an engine upgrade as well). The same applies to virtually all military aerospace projects.\n\nGranted, the B-52 is actually not up for full replacement until 2040, giving the aircraft 90 years in service, which is an *obscenely* long time for an aircraft, and so it is not the norm. The much younger F-15s, F-16s, and F-18s are all going to be phased out for F-22s and F-35s well before we stop flying the BUFFs."
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9r3zpr
|
Is someone trying to develop electric airplanes?
|
Planes flying around make up some of the carbon emissions that speed up climate change. Is anyone trying to design electric planes? What are the major issues with them that we need to solve before it could be possible? Is there even a point to try or would it cause some other possibly bigger problem?
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/9r3zpr/is_someone_trying_to_develop_electric_airplanes/
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"Unless there is an unprecedented breakthrough in battery technology, electric airplanes replacing regular commercial jets isn't something that's going to happen.\n\nThis is due to the fact that fossil fuels have a very high energy density compared to batteries. High end lithium ion batteries clock in at somewhere around the 1 MJ/kg, whereas jet fuel sits around 43 MJ/kg. Even considering the fact that electric engines may be more efficient, this is still a massive difference.\n\nFuel already makes up a very large part of the weight of an aircraft. The Airbus A320, a common short-haul craft can carry up to about 20,000 kg of fuel and has a maximum take off weight of about 68,000 kg. So fully loaded and fueled up, this aircraft already has about 30% of its weight in fuel. If you had to replace the fuel with batteries, the entire aircraft would be many times heavier (which would require more powerful engines and even more batteries to power them, making the thing even heavier).\n\nSo why not use solar panels? That sounds like a decent plan, after all, the Solar Impulse project already demonstrated an aircraft capable of circumnavigating the planet (in multiple stages) powered purely by solar energy.\n\nBut the answer is once again: Not enough energy for commercial purposes. The Solar Impulse aircraft had a wingspan comparable to that of the Airbus A380, the largest passenger plane ever built. But while the A380 can seat up to 800 people, the Solar Impulse craft had room for just 1 person. And while the A380 cruises at 900 km/h, the Solar Impulse had to settle for 90 km/h during the day and 60 km/h during the night.\n\nAnd while the efficiency of solar panels will surely increase with time, this won't be nearly enough to cover the gap.\n\nSo right now, battery or solar powered electrical aircraft are simply not feasible as replacement for commercial jets. And this is not a matter of a few years of R & D, but a very fundamental gap between the amount of energy needed and the amount of energy we can get out of either solar panels or batteries. Fossil fuels are simply too good at what we use them for.\n\nA more realistic approach may be found in the creation of artificial fuels. These fuels could be created in a way that extracts carbondioxide from the atmosphere and while upon burning them, the carbondioxide is released back into the atmosphere, the cycle is a whole would be CO2-neutral. However, producing artificial fuels is currently extremely inefficient and requires a large amount of energy. Once our land-based energy is provided exclusively by clean, renewable sources, we can look at funneling any surplus of clean energy into producing artificial fuels.",
"Light electric airplanes that use solar panels to keep going despite the limitations of energy storage technology exist for personal aviation and sport aviation, but it is extremely hard to scale it up to commercial transport scale. The existing planes are very light single-seaters or two-seaters for which the panels, engines and batteries are sufficiently powerful.",
"[Yes](_URL_1_), but if you go beyond the 'all-electric' 2-seaters used for training (1.5 hour maximum) you still need a combustion engine for power. \n\nIt does have some interesting benefits as the [specific fuel consumption](_URL_0_) of jet engines is horrendous at lower power-settings. \nTaxiing: 40% power setting(-ish). \nTake-off: 100%. \nFlight: 75%. \nDescent: 30%. \n\nWith a smaller engine that runs at 100% during flight, and use batteries for extra power during take-off, you can save some fuel. \n*With electric hub motors you can also taxi on battery power, and re-charge the batteries when using them as electric brakes after landing.* \n \n "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[
"https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Mathias_Bonet/publication/314534297/figure/fig2/AS:470509457547265@1489189604457/The-specific-fuel-consumption-SFC-profiles-of-some-existing-Marine-gas-turbine-engines.png",
"http://www.bbc.com/future/story/20180814-norways-plan-for-a-fleet-of-electric-planes"
]
] |
|
2k0esw
|
are all neutrinos majorana particles?
|
Hi Reddit
I've seen several physics seminars that suggest that neutrinos can behave like Majorana particles, in that they are essentially their own antiparticle, and the operator to create a neutrino can be the same as the operator to annihilate it.
Do all neutrinos behave in this way? If they do, then what does that imply for their lepton number? Is it zero? Does that mean that lepton number is not conserved in beta decay?
I have some knowledge of quantum mechanics, but very little formal education in this area.
Thanks.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2k0esw/eli5_are_all_neutrinos_majorana_particles/
|
{
"a_id": [
"clgqm6x"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"We don't know yet if neutrinos are Majorana particles, but if they are, then all of them are, because they are excitations of the same field.\n\nIf neutrinos are Majorana, then the lepton number is not conserved. It is easy to see this if you consider a pair production of a neutrino and an antineutrino. Since neutrinos are leptons, they *must* by definition have a lepton number L of 1. But if antineutrinos are the same as neutrinos, they also must have a L of 1, so the total sum is L=2, where previously it was zero! That means that L is not conserved in this case."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
2xqv6a
|
would it be possible to change a planet's atmosphere, terrain, etc enough to make it capable of supporting life
|
For example if a few thousands years down the road we stumbled upon a planet that was exactly like earth except it had an atmosphere with a deadly amount of carbon dioxide in it could we simply plant some trees and make it livable?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2xqv6a/eli5would_it_be_possible_to_change_a_planets/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cp2k0lm",
"cp2k17l",
"cp2k7kh"
],
"score": [
2,
3,
2
],
"text": [
"Yes. There have been pretty detailed discussions of how to terraform Venus, Mars, and some of Jupiter's moons for Human life. The problem in most cases is the cost - they are almost always immensely complicated and long-term plans (on the order of centuries if not millenia). But it's certainly possible, and probably worth doing for our species.",
"The process that you are referring to is called Terra forming. Theoretically it would be possible, though at current times, we struggle just to manage maintaining little national parks. The process of changing another planets atmosphere without drastically changing it too much might be more than we could ever manage.",
"Others have answered the plausibility for other planets, but you might not know that this has actually happened on Earth already! The atmosphere of the early Earth did not have oxygen, and when it built up as a result of photosynthetic bacteria (similar to modern algae), it [killed a big chunk of the life on Earth](_URL_0_)."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Oxygenation_Event"
]
] |
|
6xdyo1
|
why are americans needing to crowdfund disaster relief efforts whenever they occur (katrina, sandy, harvey)? does the us really not have money aside for such things?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6xdyo1/eli5_why_are_americans_needing_to_crowdfund/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dmf4yjb",
"dmf50mc",
"dmf6nn7",
"dmf6p2f"
],
"score": [
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8,
5,
2
],
"text": [
"It is there, it's just not quite as large as it needs to be, and many times the fund is kind of a, here is food and water and shelter you're Good, they ask for money to rebuild their home and lives not just survive in a tent",
"America does have disaster relief funds. They cover life saving basics. But yeah, the US has a venomous hatred of social safety nets and lack a ton of services other countries have. \n\nIf you are hurt during a disaster you will get free treatment to stop you from bleeding and get you safe, but after that you pay your own. If you lose a house there is usually some disaster relief but the cost of it is mostly private insurance, if you lived in an apartment you are largely just on your own. etc. ",
"Yeah, it is ridiculous.\n\nIt also becomes a lot less efficient since the tasks are distributed across so many entities. We have oversupply of some aid, massive undersupply on other things, and huge gaps that aren't being addressed by anyone.\n\nAlso note that if you go to many charities, f.ex the Red Cross Harvey site, there is one heck of a lot of information about how you can donate or volunteer, but exceedingly little information (if any) about how you can get help. \n\nI don't know how much of the donated aid will actually come to those affected. The general consensus here in Houston seems to be:\n\n- Harris County / Mayor Turner have done an amazing job\n- Gov Abbott has done a super job of being clear and specific about what Texas needs\n- The biggest heroes are ordinary citizens who are mostly rolling up their sleeves, pushing out the boats, responding to requests for help in oh so many ways.\n- The schools, small churches, mosques have gone out of their way to help people (the mega-churches less so).\n- The small and local charities have really been amazing.",
"I have a feeling that much of that relief effort is based on reducing the feelings of impotence that those of us witnessing the events associated with Harvey from afar feel. I know that I sleep better knowing that the $50 I donated is helping those affected by the storm...even though it's clearly only a drop in the bucket. Additionally, while taxpayers usually end up paying for the majority this stuff via appropriation bills in the long run, there's little immediate response set up beyond the very basics to ensure survival - so the things that maintain the cultural standard of living that the victims are used to are often not immediately forthcoming short of crowdfunding sources."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
53qv7g
|
why do bathroom scales give incorrect readings when placed on carpet?
|
I've constantly scoffed at suggestions that bathroom scales will give an incorrect reading when placed on carpet, however I tried this for myself and found that carpet actually gave a reading a few Kg's higher than when the scales were on a hard surface. Surely the carpet is applying an equal and opposite force to feet of the scales, so why the error?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/53qv7g/eli5_why_do_bathroom_scales_give_incorrect/
|
{
"a_id": [
"d7vgk1l",
"d7vq4vj"
],
"score": [
3,
2
],
"text": [
"bathroom scales us a spring if they're mechanical or a load cell that's basically a spring with a little electronic sensor on it if they're digital. the spring deflects when you stand on it, and the readout is a gauge that measures the deflection of a spring and displays it in units you can understand.\n\nif you place it on carpet, theres a chance that the bottom of the scale, rather than the feet of the scale which are connected to the springs (or which actually are the load cells if you're using digital), could contact the carpet and some of the weight will be distributed to the bottom of the scale rather than directly to the springs. if you're 200 pounds, and you place the scale on carpet, the actual floor of the scale instead of the feet could be soaking up some of the weight because it's resting on the carpet. if the floor of the scale takes 40 pounds, then the other 160 will be transfered through the feet into the springs/load cells and the scale will read out 160 instead of 200. ",
"When sitting on a carpet the scale tends to tilt. When you stand on the top plate the spring will flex forming a < shape, depending on which side the scale measures you may appear heavier or lighter than you really are. You can replicate this on a hard surface by standing on the edge on the scales and tilting the top plate instead."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
2k20s4
|
when i want to type an apostrophe, i would hit the key next to the enter key on my keyboard and get this character ' but why does this alternate character ’ show up in text that i have copied off the web? are they meant to be used interchangeably?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2k20s4/eli5_when_i_want_to_type_an_apostrophe_i_would/
|
{
"a_id": [
"clh7kfm"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"The prevailing wisdom is ' should be used for feet or minutes, while the curlier ’ should be used as a quote or apostrophe."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
1rckb4
|
what happened at dunkirk, and why are the french held in unfavorable light in regards to it?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1rckb4/eli5_what_happened_at_dunkirk_and_why_are_the/
|
{
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"text": [
"The BEF (British Expeditionary Force) was holding its own but the French forces to their south fell back. This put the BEF in danger of being surrounded and cut off so they had to fall back. They fell back to Dunkirk where over 300k British soldiers were rescued, minus their heavy equipment, by a flotilla of navy and civilian ships. The saving of so many troops enabled the UK to remain in the fight but the loss of so much heavy equipment meant that they were a bit more lightly armed than they wanted to be for a while. \n\nGoering, commander of the Luftwaffe (Air Force), stated that his aircraft could destroy the British at Dunkirk, so Hitler ordered the Heer (army) to hold. His Wehrmacht (military) commanders had been worried that the Heer was being overextended and was in danger of being cut off if the French or British launched a counter attack so Goering's boast provided a needed excuse to get the Heer to stop and regroup. The RAF (Royal Air Force) fought the Luftwaffe in the skies over Dunkirk and prevented them from destroying the BEF. However, a lot of the fighting took place in cloud cover and so the soldiers on the ground thought they were being mercilessly attacked by the Luftwaffe and believed that the RAF did nothing to help them. ",
"The BEF (British Expeditionary Force) was forced to fall back after the German attack through the Ardennes reached the English Channel splitting the BEF, the Belgian Army and part of the French Army was trapped and cast asunder from the rest of the French army (which was south of the Somme iirc).\n\nThe push forced these Northern forces back and, in order to save the BEF it was ordered to fall back on the Channel ports and evacuate - of these Dunkirk was the only port open which the BEF, together with parts of the French army, fell back on. It was about this stage that non-combatants and non-essentials were evacuated.\n\nWhen this happened the Belgians (until their surrender) and the BEF held the right flank and the French most of the rest of the line. This then got smaller and the French army took over more of the line to hold it.\n\nThe evacuation took place mostly from a jetty on the port which was suitable for large warships to get into. Men also went on the beaches and even up to their necks in water - this leads to the famous little ships of Dunkirk which does what it says on the tin: small ships, crewed by civilians from all over the South coast of Britain including London picked up men off the beaches and sailed them either to waiting warships or back to England often under air attack. \n\nTowards the end of the evacuation French troops were also evacuated in part because most of the BEF had gone and also for political reasons. \n\nFor reasons unknown to this day Hitler halted his Panzers and left the job to Goering and the Luftwaffe. The RAF's home squadrons - which were desperately needed for the inevitable defence of Britain - fought to keep the German planes from the beaches but because of both cloud cover and the need to shoot the bombers down before the reached the beach (for obvious reasons) meant this battle went largely unseen by the troops leading to accusations of the RAF not helping. Of course some ships were sunk\n\nOn June 4th the remnants of Dunkirk surrendered, most of the troops captured were French but approximately 330,000 British and French troops made it safely to England to continue the fight.\n\nI am not sure why the French are held in an unfavourable light regarding the evacuation of Dunkirk, their troops fought very bravely and very well considering the situation their country was in and the defeatism that abounded. If it weren't for the French there would have been far fewer troops evacuated",
"To most historians the French get a fair amount of credit for Dunkirk (as other posters have said) popular culture just gives the French a lot of stick for falling so quickly given their relative military strength at the start of world war two. ",
"The French (first army if I am correct) holding action at Lilee made te evacuation at Dunkirk possible.\n\nat the time, many believed that tanks could not drive through Ardennes.\ntherefore, allies defense plan assumed a replay of WW1. That's why the French lost. \n\n",
"France has long suffered considerable slagging over the 1940 Battle of France as a whole, but I've never encountered any specifically related to Dunkirk. ",
"Are you British, or perhaps American? Where have you heard that the French \"are held in unfavorable light\" over Dunkirk? I'm French and just learned that the British went home at Dunkirk after the French lost the war."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
6i0g3k
|
how do companies perform background checks on prospective employees?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6i0g3k/eli5_how_do_companies_perform_background_checks/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dj2jzao"
],
"score": [
5
],
"text": [
"For most private companies, it is typically a check of your references, your past employers, your criminal convictions, a credit check, and/or a social media search.\n\nFor a government job, it can include a thorough criminal check, including criminal records beyond convictions that are not publically available. It can also include an investigator going around interviewing friends, neighbors, and coworkers."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
82blbf
|
why is tanning viewed as attractive when any kind of tanning is bad for you?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/82blbf/eli5why_is_tanning_viewed_as_attractive_when_any/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dv8vjfr"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"Pale skin used to be fashionable because tans were a sign of being someone who worked outdoors with manual labour, whereas paleness indicated a level of luxury.\n\nConversely, these days people are typically lumped into office/shop/inside jobs so having a tan implies a life of luxury like going on holiday and such.\n\nIt's socially attractive, not hard coded."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
3raxvc
|
If Jordan is a mostly Sunni country, why is it a big deal that the king can trace his lineage back to the prophet Mohammed, pbuh?
|
Or is it just a fun coincidence?
In school, I was taught that the Shia Muslims cared about primogeniture and inheritance from the prophet, but the Sunni Muslims didn't think it mattered.
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3raxvc/if_jordan_is_a_mostly_sunni_country_why_is_it_a/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cwmpi2v",
"cwmra8x"
],
"score": [
3,
2
],
"text": [
"The Shia/Sunni divide was mainly a debate about who should lead the faithful after Muhammad's death (which then lead to further splits on mainly judicial and interpretive issues).\n\nSo while the Sunni do not believe that the leader of the faithful must be a descendant of Muhammad, his family does still have a special status in Islam, it's an issue of prestige. The Royal family of Jordan doesn't use it to justify their rulership over Jordan or the Islamic religion, it's a just an aspect of prestige which they use to their advantage to gain respect. ",
"\"the Sunni Muslims didn't think it mattered\"\n\nThat's not entirely true. The house of the prophet was and is still revered and respected even if the descendants of Ali (who were direct descendants of Muhammad through Fatima) have a particularly special place in Shia Islam. See, for instance, these enormous calligraphic medallions of Hassan and Hussein in the Hagia Sophia in Istanbul: [LINK](_URL_0_) (NB: There are of course other reasons why a huge empire, even a Sunni one, might want to include these names, not least when they counted so many Shia as subjects, but the point on respect of the House of the Prophet stands.)\n\nDescent from the house of the prophet has also traditionally been accompanied by honorifics in Sunni Islam, namely the terms Sayyid and Sharif, which could be translated as \"Sir/Lord\" and \"Honorable/Noble\" respectively.\n\nInheritance law (like primogeniture) is a good analogy for the dispute over the early succession to the Prophet but doesn't really capture the entire issue, not least because primogeniture was not a custom or tradition in pre-Islamic Arabia and was not established as such by Muhammad etc. etc. Rather, the custom, and this is attested to in the later Hadith, was succession through the tribe. So the kinship relationship is critical, but lineal descent is less important.\n\nAs I mentioned this is perhaps most famously reflected in the [\"Hadith of the Twelve Successors\"](_URL_1_) in Sahih Muslim (and others) where Muhammad says that all of his twelve successors will be from Quraysh. This is a well-attested Sunni Hadith, although the extent to which its been kept is in dispute. The Ottoman Caliphs were certainly not \"of Quraysh\", though various Islamist movements that have sought to reestablish a Caliphate in contemporary times do hold that as a critical qualifying criterion.\n\nSo that's the place of the house of the prophet in Sunnism generally, so how about the Hashemite dynasty in particular?\n\nRemember that though they are now Kings of Jordan, the Hashemites' original position was as the Sherif's of Mecca which included rulership of most the Hejaz. Hashemite rule of this province goes back centuries, although not necessarily as a formalized position. Here the terminology gets a bit confusing, because the Abbasid dynasty were \"Hashemites\" insofar as they were part of the Banu Hashim, the descendants of Muhammad's great grandfather Hashim.\n\nTo say that \"the Hashemites were the Sharifs or Emirs of Mecca\" is therefore a little weird, because all that really means is that the most prominent clan of the most prominent tribe in a city in which that tribe had maintained power still maintained power. Nor was this position of Sharif or Emir strictly lineal. In the Ottoman period it was not uncommon for the Emirs to step in and put some cousin or uncle or other Hashemite into the position, but being of the clan of Banu Hashem, with direct descent from Muhammad, was still the main qualifier which lent both tribal authority for peoples living there (as it had always done) as well as a claim that by their descent they were uniquely qualified to be guardians of Mecca and Medina rather than some other group of leaders.\n\nThe modern Jordanian Hashemite dynasty, as \"the Hashemites\" is quite a late development. The current king's great-great grandfather Hussein was appointed Emir of Mecca late in life following a complicated period in which a series of cousins and uncles were appointed to the Emirate by the Ottomans. At the last minute, a distant cousin was likewise considered for the position before the Ottomans settled on Hussein.\n\nFollowing the Arab revolt, Hussein's eldest son Ali was set to inherit the Hejaz, his second son Abdullah was made king of Transjordan, and Faisal was given Iraq.\n\nHussein himself would claim the Caliphate after it was abolished by Ataturk, however the Saudi conquest of the Hejaz, Hussein's deposition and the decision of his sons not to press for the title of Caliph scuttled that. Nonetheless, to circle back, his claim to the Caliphate, his religious leadership of Islam during the Arab revolt, these were all in part predicated on his spiritual position as a descendant of Muhammad in addition to his more straightforward tribal power base.\n\nIt's these descendants of Abdullah who are the ruling Hashemites to this day.\n\nUnfortunately I can't speak to how much this descent from the prophet has been used in 20th century Jordanian legitimation or politics by current ruling family. Other than the official name of Jordan being \"the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan\" I think the basic answer is not very much. Not to break the 20 year rule, but it's not a feature that I see brought up very often in contemporary Jordanian politics, in contrast with, say, the centrality of the Saudi claim of being \"Protectors of the Two Holy Places\" (i.e. Mecca and Medina).\n\nedit: great-great grandfather, not great-grandfather, I forgot about Talal ibn Abdullah for a second!"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[
"https://drscdn.500px.org/photo/87927463/m%3D2048/8b3c533453070c2704450541caeb4feb",
"http://sunnah.com/muslim/33/5"
]
] |
|
1hks9o
|
Can anyone help u/nochains identify some Nazi memorabilia?
|
User u/nochains opened a safe that appears to contain some Nazi military medals/awards and is looking for assistance identifying them. X-post from /r/history but I thought people here might find it interesting. _URL_0_
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1hks9o/can_anyone_help_unochains_identify_some_nazi/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cavaaai",
"cavaxii",
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"score": [
5,
5,
2
],
"text": [
"Those are *Kragenspiegel* (collar patch) from a SS uniform, specifically from [*SS-Totenkopfverbände*](_URL_0_). These were units tasked with the administration of concentration camps.\n\n[SS-Scharführer in Mauthausen](_URL_1_)",
"The second one is most likely fake. It's a Warschauschild (warsaw shield). The Wehrmacht was in the habit to give out such shields (to be worn on the left sleeve) to commemorate important battles or campaigns (e.g. Crimea, Narvik). That shield was never awarded and the production dies were destroyed in an air raid. *If* it is real that would make it *extremely* rare. ",
"I can't vouch for the authenticity of any of it, but I can help identify the symbols and organizations. The three diamond-shaped pins are the logo of the [Hitler Youth](_URL_0_). I'm not sure why the one in the middle has black panels and not red, it could signify something particular within the HJ. \n\n\nFarther down, the badges that say \"Geheime Staatspolizei.\" Literally translated in means Secret State Police, but we all know the organization by its shortened name, the Gestapo (**Ge**heime **Sta**ats**po**lizei). "
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://imgur.com/a/zlpjy"
] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SS-Totenkopfverb%C3%A4nde",
"http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/11/Bundesarchiv_Bild_192-025%2C_KZ_Mauthausen%2C_SS-Scharf%C3%BChrer.jpg"
],
[],
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hitler_youth#Flags_of_the_HJ_and_its_branches"
]
] |
|
8i06cv
|
what determined the age groups for ratings on media such as movies, games and tv shows?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/8i06cv/eli5_what_determined_the_age_groups_for_ratings/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dynwpgb"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"This is not a perfect answer, but it paints a picture on how these standards are influenced by social norms, history, politics and so on _URL_0_"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://youtu.be/6cNZIGLPe1M"
]
] |
||
24gd28
|
How do our skin cells stay together so that they form a solid surface?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/24gd28/how_do_our_skin_cells_stay_together_so_that_they/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ch6yvjz"
],
"score": [
8
],
"text": [
"Skin cells -- formally, [squamous epithelial cells](_URL_0_) -- form [interlocking pieces](_URL_2_), kind of like puzzle pieces, that are held together by protein structures called [desmosomes](_URL_1_) -- sort of intercellular velcro. The surface isn't really all that solid either; it's fairly porous, but many layers of cells deep, so it all holds together."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Squamous_epithelial_cell",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Desmosome",
"http://www.vetmed.vt.edu/education/curriculum/vm8054/Labs/Lab4/IMAGES/eoithelium%20simple%20squamous%20surface%20copy.JPG"
]
] |
||
2uj3ed
|
Was Martin Luther (the reformist) sexist?
|
I have heard that Martin Luther was a sexist (by our standards at least) but was he any more sexist than your every day priest in his time or is it only but our standards that he was sexist? And did he add anything that we would consider sexist to Christianity?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2uj3ed/was_martin_luther_the_reformist_sexist/
|
{
"a_id": [
"co8zpya"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"Judging historical figures against modern morality and norms is generally not a good idea. Specifically in regards to sexist ideas, the overwhelming majority of historical figures prior to the mid 20th century would be considered sexist just by adhering to the beliefs of their times."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
179tet
|
Whats known about the pre-Christian religions in Poland? What happened to them?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/179tet/whats_known_about_the_prechristian_religions_in/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c83mbwy",
"c83sxu8"
],
"score": [
10,
10
],
"text": [
"To add to this question. Lithuania was the last country in Europe to give up Slavic Paganism ~1000AD(?). When did other countries do so and were they official transitions or simply the effects of missionary work?\n\nEDIT: thank you all for the responses!",
"We have a vague understanding of the pagan religions in the area before the arrival of Christianity in the 900's. We know of the existence of a number of gods, such as the god of thunder (the modern Polish word *piorun*, meaning lighting bolt, comes from his name), and we also know that the cult of the fertility goddess was quite widespread in the region (it has even been speculated that the popularity, both current and historical, of the cult of the Virgin Mary in Poland was simply a continuation of this tradition). We also know that most of the gods were believed to have three or four heads, and consequently, within ancient Slavic temples stood three or four sided obelisks, with each side having carved on it a separate face. Unfortunately, nearly all of such statures, along with their temples and associated artifacts, were made out of wood, which does not survive well in the wet Polish climate. Consequently, only a single example of the above-mentioned obelisks has been found in Poland (although others have been found in other countries). hat, combined with the lack of a Slavic written language, means that most of our knowledge of the tradition of the time is based off of third-party sources and analysis of linguistics.\n\nAfter the baptism of Mieszko I, usually regarded as the first ruler of what is considered Poland, the area under his control became officially Catholic, although the pagan traditions were practiced for centuries afterwards to some degree, and some even exist is some small way in modern Polish culture. \n\nWhile it is true that the Teutonic Knights carried out a series of crusades in the area, by this time Poland had become thoroughly Christianized, and was not initially subject to the Teutonic attacks. In fact, the Teutonic Order had initially been invited into the area by the Polish royalty to help fight pagans in the east. However, over time, as the Teutonic Order became more powerful and more entrenched in the region, tensions increased between the Order and Poland to the point where the Knights launched something of a holy war against Poland, supposedly to purge it of paganism, among other things. After the disastrous battle at Grunwald (known as the battle of Tannenburg in Germany), the core of the Order was destroyed, and the Knights ceased to be a significant power.\n\nEDIT: added details"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
e6c8eg
|
why aren’t there drug dealers for insulin?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/e6c8eg/eli5_why_arent_there_drug_dealers_for_insulin/
|
{
"a_id": [
"f9p5af8"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"Insulin is harder to produce. If I remember right it is made with engineered yeast or bacteria."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
3p8bbz
|
What about black and white film makes it easier than color film?
|
Essentially what I'm asking us why it was invented first instead of color film being invented straight away.
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/3p8bbz/what_about_black_and_white_film_makes_it_easier/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cw4nnei",
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],
"score": [
3,
7
],
"text": [
"If you are interested in a historical perspective, we're doing a joint AMA with /r/AskHistorians on 10/22 on the History of Science! I encourage you to pop by and ask your question about the history of film there as well! ",
"There are a couple reasons we couldn't really have jumped straight to color film.\n\n\nOne is that early photographic film was sensitive only to blue-green, blue, violet, and ultraviolet - so we had no way of recording red light. We could never make full-color pictures without a dye sensitive to red light.\nAnother reason is that color photography is really complicated. Before there were one-part color films, you had to take three different photographs, with a different filter and light detector each time, and combine them later on. There were cameras that did this automatically, but fundamentally you still had three copies of each picture that you had to manually combine later on.\n\n\nKodachrome, which was the first modern color film, combining all these colors into a single piece of film, required a lot of chemical development. It took a long time for people to figure out how to stack the film. You had to make sure each layer was exposed to its proper type of light, and that it didn't react with the other layers - and then you also had to figure out how to develop the film properly!\nThe final version of Kodachrome film had six layers: from top to bottom, blue-sensitive (with yellow dye coupler); yellow filter; blue-green sensitive (with magenta dye coupler); blue-red sensitive (with cyan dye coupler); acetate base; antihalation (light-absorbing) backing. And I won't list the processing steps because there were 17 of them. And this is the final, refined version - the original process was even more complicated.\n\n The reason the light-sensitive/dye coupler thing is opposite colors is this: the way color film works is by first creating three black-and-white images and then converting each of those images into dye. The basic way black-and-white film works is that when the silver halide on the film is exposed to light, it is converted into metallic silver, and the amount converted depends on the amount of light it receives. The dye couplers, in the conversion process, use this metallic silver to convert into colored dye - so that particular image, instead of being black-and-white, becomes shades of (e.g.) red. The key thing to remember when we make the original exposure, we're creating a negative.\n\n\nThat should make it clear why the filters are the way they are. Let's look at the top layer: blue-sensitive, with yellow dye coupler. Because the top layer is blue-sensitive, it reacts only with blue light, turning black/creating metallic silver where there's a lot of blue. Because blue and yellow light are opposites, we want our negative to be yellow everywhere where the image is actually blue. So the yellow coupler combines with the metallic silver to make yellow dye where the film detected blue light. That's why we combine opposite light sensitivity in the film with dye colors in the coupler - because we're making a negative image, not a positive image.\n\n\nThen when we actually print our image, we make another exposure through the negative - and because, as I said before, the film darkens in response to more light, we're back to the real colors we wanted: the negative is very dark where there was a lot of light; so when we project through it onto the print, the print will receive very little light; so the print will stay light, just like the original scene."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
3vthdu
|
4d shapes
|
I recently had a lecture on how 4D shapes can have 3D shadows just like how 3D objects have 2D shadows.
I really cant get around visualising it
We know that a 4D cube has 32 edges and 16 corners, but how are they laid out?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3vthdu/eli5_4d_shapes/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cxqi7yw",
"cxqig02"
],
"score": [
2,
2
],
"text": [
"There is no reason you need to or should be able to visualize it.\n\n4D shapes are entirely a mathematical construct. Just understand what they are/what properties they have.",
"I don't really understand this concept well enough to thoroughly explain it, but I'll provide an example that helps me visualize it. Imagine a perfect 2D plane. A flat sheet like a piece of paper will work well enough. Now place your finger perpendicular to the plane. Move your finger down through the plane. At any moment in time, a 2D slice of your finger is present in this 2D plane. Now, try imagining a 4D sphere. It's a tough thing to do. I apply the same thinking as with the finger example. The 4D sphere is just outside of our 3D space. The 4D sphere enters our 3D space as an infinitely small 3D sphere. As the 4D sphere is pushed further into our space, the 3D sphere we see gets larger and larger, until the diameter of the 3D sphere equals some dimension of the 4D sphere. Then, as it continues through our space, the 3D sphere appears smaller and smaller until it pops out of existence in our realm. \n\nLike I said, I hardly understand this concept, so I apologize if all I did was confuse you further. But this helps me picture it. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
33hotn
|
What were the religious beliefs of the Varangian Guard and how did they interact with the religion of the Byzantine Empire?
|
Were Varangians Orthodox? Norse? Did it vary from person to person, or was there instead some institution demanding them to heed a certain faith? Did their faith change over the course of the Byzantine Empire?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/33hotn/what_were_the_religious_beliefs_of_the_varangian/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cqlbcjr"
],
"score": [
103
],
"text": [
"The Varangian Guard originated as settlers and emigres from Northern Europe who traveled southwards and sold their services as mercenaries to the wealthy nobles around the Volga River, the Caspian Sea, and the Black Sea. \n\nThroughout the history of the later Byzantine Empire the emperor became more and more dependent on these recruits from various feudal states in Northern Europe. One example given by M. R. Dawkins (1947):\n > In 1195 Alexios III, Angelos, alarmed by the threats of the emperor Henry IV, sent three Varangians with golden bulls to ask help of each of the three Scandinavian kings.\n\nAlthough the Varangian Guard levied troops from all over Europe, from many different religious traditions, the mercenary-bodyguards swore their service to the emperor. The Byzantine Emperor justified himself as the defender of Christ by claiming that he was the successor the first Christian emperor of Constantinople, Constantine. \n\nSo since the role of the Emperor was primarily that of defending Constantinople from rulers who were not the successors to Constantine, or who did not have the defense of the Eastern Orthodox church as their priority, [then his personal army would follow this same Christian constitution](_URL_1_). \n\nThe fact that these recruits spoke different languages doesn't necessarily mean that they brought their local traditions to Constantinople, the religious center of the Byzantine Empire. Ecclesiastical figures in Constantinople even translated the Greek liturgy into Danish, Slavonic, English, and Persian so that the Varangians could participate in Byzantine ceremonies (see Dawkins- Later History of the Varangian Guard).\n\nOne classic example of a Northern European/viking noble selling his service to the Byzantines is [Harald Hardrada](_URL_0_), who reigned as King of Norway after amassing enough wealth via plunder while commander of the Varangian Guard. Although he was a secular prince who claimed the thrones of Denmark, England, and later Norway, Harald spent ten years as a Byzantine military commander in Sicily and the Holy Land. There, he led the Byzantine assault against the Arabs and helped protect/gain concessions for Christian pilgrims heading towards Jerusalem.\n\nDespite championing the Byzantine Crusader cause, it is argued by byzantinist Halvor Tjønn that once Harald arrived in Kievan Rus after serving the Varangian Guard, he sold military secrets to the Rus regarding the defenses of Constantinople that directly led to the Rus' attack on Constantinople in 1042.\n\nHere you can sort of see how the religion of the Varangian Guard combined two phenomena from the High Middle Ages--the religious military order and the soldier-of-fortune. Scandinavian warriors were being handpicked to serve in the court of the successor of Constantine and fight to prevent the non-Christian domination of the Holy Land, but at the same time they retained their language, could not inherit land in the Byzantine Empire, and often sold their services to other nobles along [the Black Sea/Volga River trade network](_URL_2_).\n\nSo to summarize the Varangian Guard (the badass elite Russian-Viking bodyguards of the Byzantine Emperor) adopted the beliefs and liturgical practices of Constantinople because that was where they were employed.\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harald_Hardrada#In_Byzantine_service",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Varangian_Guard#Function",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trade_route_from_the_Varangians_to_the_Greeks"
]
] |
|
7tjfkv
|
How would blood react in extreme cold (-40 c or less)? Would it clot up faster, would it flow normally, or would it just freeze?
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/7tjfkv/how_would_blood_react_in_extreme_cold_40_c_or/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dtdeoiu"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"From my understanding, the blood plasma would freeze, even though it’s freezing point is lower than pure water. The RBCs would rupture die to water forming ice crystals inside of it and expanding. WBCs would act the same. \nAll of that would happen if it was just exposed to the environment directly. \nWhile still inside you, however, there are still the thermoregulation processes happening. It might take longer for it to freeze inside of the body and death would probably occur due to the brain experiencing hypothermia before the blood freezes so. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
plwtb
|
Why did the North Koreans not choose to revolt during and after the event of the N.K. Famine?
|
For every nation there was a final straw, but for the North Koreans what implications forced those people to not choose to revolt against Kim? For most I've heard, people didn't revolt because they couldn't, they didn't revolt because they didn't * want to*.
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/plwtb/why_did_the_north_koreans_not_choose_to_revolt/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c3qeg8h",
"c3qeofz"
],
"score": [
5,
9
],
"text": [
"Because as far as the general populace is concerned their problems aren't a result of the leadership's actions.",
"They blamed others for it ~ specifically they blame the United States. The North Korean propaganda machine is strong and has instilled in the heads of the populace that the American imperialists are out to get North Korea and are responsible for even the smallest things such as lights flickering. The cult of Kim Il Sung and Kim Jong Il was very strong as they saw that they could do no wrong for their country. It's a very sad country. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
88loh4
|
How developed are the chicks inside eggs when they're laid?
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/88loh4/how_developed_are_the_chicks_inside_eggs_when/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dwma7p0"
],
"score": [
5
],
"text": [
"It takes just a little [over 1 day](_URL_1_) after a chicken's egg has been fertilized (or not) until the egg is laid. At that point, the yolk of a fertilized egg contains a [blastoderm](_URL_2_) of a few dozen cells. It is just enough to tell if an egg [is fertilized or not](_URL_0_) to the naked eye.\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://static-blog.mypetchicken.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/02/fertvsunfert.jpg",
"https://www.backyardchickens.com/threads/once-bread-how-long-until-hens-will-lay-fertilized-eggs.734291/",
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blastoderm"
]
] |
||
67e46x
|
why is it more difficult for a lefty batter to hit a lefty pitcher, then a right handed batter to hit a right handed pitcher
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/67e46x/eli5why_is_it_more_difficult_for_a_lefty_batter/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dgpqc15",
"dgpqkcv"
],
"score": [
2,
2
],
"text": [
"Practice. \n\nAt the end of the day there are far more right handed pitchers to practice against than left handed pitchers. \n\n",
"It's not. It's easier for either to hit the opposite, so easier for lefty to hit righty, and vice versa. The reason is that you get to see the ball closer to the center of your vision and for slightly longer than with a righty vs. a righty, or a lefty vs. a lefty. Say you're a righty, and you're facing a righty pitcher. When he releases the ball it's first going to appear in the upper left of your peripheral vision. When a lefty releases the ball it will first appear slightly up, but much closer to the middle of your vision, which is of course much more precise than your peripheral. It's only a fraction of a second, but considering the tiny amount of time a batter has to decide to swing or not, even that tiny bit can really make a difference. Edit: grammar"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
2eefn7
|
why does ingesting grapefruit and grapefruit juice interfere with my anti-anxiety medication?
|
Hello all, just started taking buspirone and I noticed on the warning label that I should avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Why and how does that effect a medicine that works on my neurotransmitters?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2eefn7/eli5_why_does_ingesting_grapefruit_and_grapefruit/
|
{
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"cjyo59o",
"cjyolst",
"cjyouu1",
"cjyq8jr",
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"cjyre6d",
"cjyt1zv",
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"text": [
"I've come to the conclusion that grapefruit is a drug. And has drug interactions.",
"It affects how effectively your body absorbs the medication.",
"Grapefruit, or more specifically an enzyme in grapefruit, makes it hard for your body to eliminate the drug from your body at a regular pace.\n\nThis makes the drug build up in your body to the point of being toxic.",
"I'm surprised I have not heard of people abusing grape fruits with their meds to increase their high somehow.",
"There are a group of enzymes known as CYP450, and are responsible for the breakdown (metabolism) of a lot drugs. \n\nOther drugs and food stuffs can interact with these enzymes, either speeding the metabolism up (by promoting the body to increase the number of a particular enzyme) or slowing down the breakdown / reducing the number enzymes that breakdown a particular drug\n\nThis happens because some drugs or food stuffs promote new enzymes to be made. Others damage the current enzyme population rendering them unable to metabolise by damaging the enzyme protein which is known as denaturing an enzyme. This requires your body to make more enzymes to replace the damaged ones which takes time.\n\nGrapefruit juice is an inhibitor of some of these CYP450 enzymes, and as such, less metabolism of drugs can occur. In extreme circumstances, this can lead to overdose as the body does not have the capability to remove drugs from itself. \n\nIn ELI5 style - Say the body has some miners within itself (enzymes) that fall ill and can't work if they are given grapefruit juice. These miners are responsible for taking out things the body is given, such as medicine. If there are less miners, less medicine can be removed and so more remains for the body to use. This can harm the body as drugs are developed to be active for only so long, so warning labels are placed on meds.\n\nTL;DR: Grapefruit juice stops the body from breaking down some drugs, potentially to the point of overdose or toxicity.",
"Enzymes in your liver break down a lot of different kinds of drugs. Grapefruit juice contains some compounds that inhibit the same enzymes. Drugs are designed to be broken down in a set amount of time so interfering with the enzymes can cause additional side effects.",
"I've always wondered the same thing about my immunosuppressant medication. So odd to see a \"no grapefruits\" warning on the bottle.",
"Side note: I believe the goal is less than a quart a day of grapefruit juice",
"If you drink some grapefruit juice in the morning before your coffee, you will notice the coffee's effects last longer.",
"Maybe because you've seen [this] (_URL_0_) video before?",
"Buspirone made my heart race like crazy and would make me severely dizzy for about 20 minutes once I took it. I hope you don't suffer from too many side effects.",
"The same goes for fexofenadine (Allegra.)"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[
"https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oM2PwriqOjc"
],
[],
[]
] |
|
15recj
|
For tidal power generation, what is the prime source of energy that is being tapped? Is it the potential energy between the earth and the moon? If so, is tide power slowly pulling the moon into the earth?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/15recj/for_tidal_power_generation_what_is_the_prime/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c7p7k8e"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"Tides are caused by the Earth spinning relative to the Moon. Friction between water and land slows the Earth very slightly. So the energy used is the kinetic energy of the Earth.\n\nWe will not move the Moon, instead by dampening the waves (if you will excuse the pun) we are slowing the Earth in its spin very slightly."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
3g86ds
|
how/why putin is not considered a dictator? (or at least the head of an authoritarian regime?)
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3g86ds/eli5_howwhy_putin_is_not_considered_a_dictator_or/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ctvrn6i"
],
"score": [
7
],
"text": [
"Putin is indeed considered a dictator in some political circles, and his policies and media utterances are looking a lot like fascism. However, there are diplomatic reasons why politicians use more moderate language. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
mwoaw
|
Is it possible to program an unbeatable chess algorithm?
|
Essentially, is it possible to construct an algorithm that can always beat an opponent, and does the answer depend on if the computing power is unlimited or not?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/mwoaw/is_it_possible_to_program_an_unbeatable_chess/
|
{
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"c34h9gk"
],
"score": [
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2,
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27,
16,
2,
2,
27
],
"text": [
"This might be better suited for /r/chess. But you may want to read into the concept of a [solved game](_URL_0_). A game is considered \"solved\" if there is an algorithm like you describe that will always lead to a win. Tic tac toe, for instance, is solved. So is checkers.\n\nAs of now, chess is NOT solved (although it is *partially* solved for several endgame scenarios with few pieces). There is some debate as to whether or not it is possible to solve chess, see links [here](_URL_1_) and [here](_URL_2_).",
"Theoretically - yes, given unlimited computational power. It should be possible to check every possible set of moves which your opponent could play, and essentially work out the entire game before it even starts. Something like this was done for checkers, and it was discovered that when both players play perfectly, the match ends in a draw.\nIt is unknown whether the same holds for chess (ie. whether it is always possible for white/black to win, or if two perfect players will end in a draw).The amount of computation required to check every possible set of moves in chess is astronomical, however. It is expected that there are between 10^43 and 10^50 possible positions of pieces on a chess board, it is impractical to check every single one of these.\n",
"It is guaranteed that an algorithm exists which either:\n\n(A) Won't lose. (Can play forever without losing). (Not possible if rules against repeated positions).\n\n(B) Will always be able to force a tie, if not winning.\n\n(C) Can always win.\n\nThe algorithm could be slightly different depending on whether it goes first or second, and may also effect which possibility it is.\n\nFor a naive algorithm, computing power would matter. (It would be rather massive, larger than our universe supports).\n\nFor a non-naive algorithm, it is entirely possible that one could be made. (But no such luck thus far).\n\nDeep Blue can consistently beat Grand Masters at chess, so for all *practical* purposes, it's possible. (Though a smarter computer than Deep Blue *could* still be constructed).",
"There is an algorithm, but it requires monstrous computational resources. Chess is a zero-sum, deterministic, two player, perfect information (i.e no hidden moves/partial observability) game (or a Markov Game if you prefer). You can use the minmax algorithm to solve such games. The minmax algorithm is an implementation of the minmax Solution Concept for 2-player games of perfect information. Effectively, you are continuously trying to \"imagine\" non-losing futures, while at the same time assuming that your opponent will chose the worst possible move for you. \n\nIn theory one could possibly solve the game once (using minmax), and keep a huge database for all positions, alongside the ``value'' of each position. You can do that in Tic-tac-toe.\n\nIn practice the state space of chess is massive, which limits the depth of the search tree. Thus, usually, from each state in the game, the minmax algorithm is run, but it terminates prematurely after some \"imagined moves\" (``plies''). There is an evaluation function at each state, which will basically tell you how good that state is even if it is not an endgame (either through a database or learned using evolution/reinforcement learning)\n\nBecause the evaluation functions we have for Chess are superhuman, Game A.I research has moved to GO (for games of perfect information) and poker (for games of imperfect information)\n\nIAMA Game A.I. Ph.d Student\n\n\nEDIT - spelling\n \nEDIT 2 - Beating your opponent means not losing. Actively trying to win (through for example modelling your opponent) is actually harder for machines. \n",
"This might be better suited for /r/chess. But you may want to read into the concept of a [solved game](_URL_0_). A game is considered \"solved\" if there is an algorithm like you describe that will always lead to a win. Tic tac toe, for instance, is solved. So is checkers.\n\nAs of now, chess is NOT solved (although it is *partially* solved for several endgame scenarios with few pieces). There is some debate as to whether or not it is possible to solve chess, see links [here](_URL_1_) and [here](_URL_2_).",
"Theoretically - yes, given unlimited computational power. It should be possible to check every possible set of moves which your opponent could play, and essentially work out the entire game before it even starts. Something like this was done for checkers, and it was discovered that when both players play perfectly, the match ends in a draw.\nIt is unknown whether the same holds for chess (ie. whether it is always possible for white/black to win, or if two perfect players will end in a draw).The amount of computation required to check every possible set of moves in chess is astronomical, however. It is expected that there are between 10^43 and 10^50 possible positions of pieces on a chess board, it is impractical to check every single one of these.\n",
"It is guaranteed that an algorithm exists which either:\n\n(A) Won't lose. (Can play forever without losing). (Not possible if rules against repeated positions).\n\n(B) Will always be able to force a tie, if not winning.\n\n(C) Can always win.\n\nThe algorithm could be slightly different depending on whether it goes first or second, and may also effect which possibility it is.\n\nFor a naive algorithm, computing power would matter. (It would be rather massive, larger than our universe supports).\n\nFor a non-naive algorithm, it is entirely possible that one could be made. (But no such luck thus far).\n\nDeep Blue can consistently beat Grand Masters at chess, so for all *practical* purposes, it's possible. (Though a smarter computer than Deep Blue *could* still be constructed).",
"There is an algorithm, but it requires monstrous computational resources. Chess is a zero-sum, deterministic, two player, perfect information (i.e no hidden moves/partial observability) game (or a Markov Game if you prefer). You can use the minmax algorithm to solve such games. The minmax algorithm is an implementation of the minmax Solution Concept for 2-player games of perfect information. Effectively, you are continuously trying to \"imagine\" non-losing futures, while at the same time assuming that your opponent will chose the worst possible move for you. \n\nIn theory one could possibly solve the game once (using minmax), and keep a huge database for all positions, alongside the ``value'' of each position. You can do that in Tic-tac-toe.\n\nIn practice the state space of chess is massive, which limits the depth of the search tree. Thus, usually, from each state in the game, the minmax algorithm is run, but it terminates prematurely after some \"imagined moves\" (``plies''). There is an evaluation function at each state, which will basically tell you how good that state is even if it is not an endgame (either through a database or learned using evolution/reinforcement learning)\n\nBecause the evaluation functions we have for Chess are superhuman, Game A.I research has moved to GO (for games of perfect information) and poker (for games of imperfect information)\n\nIAMA Game A.I. Ph.d Student\n\n\nEDIT - spelling\n \nEDIT 2 - Beating your opponent means not losing. Actively trying to win (through for example modelling your opponent) is actually harder for machines. \n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solved_game",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First-move_advantage_in_chess#Solving_chess",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solving_chess"
],
[],
[],
[],
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solved_game",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First-move_advantage_in_chess#Solving_chess",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solving_chess"
],
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
1508ch
|
Does the ovary that releases the egg rotate every month during ovulation? Can an ovary accidentally release multiple eggs?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1508ch/does_the_ovary_that_releases_the_egg_rotate_every/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c7i2pkb"
],
"score": [
6
],
"text": [
"Which ovary releases the egg per month is [apparently random](_URL_0_). That link describes the process by which this occurs, but if it was **TL;DR:** Hormones stimulate the growth of follicles across both ovaries, but usually one side outpaces the other. Sensitivity to the ongoing hormone release communicates loss of the race to the other follicles, and the \"winner\" releases an ovum that month. \n\nMultiple eggs are sometimes released; this is one of the causes of twinning. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://medicguide.blogspot.com/2009/07/do-two-ovaries-alternate-which-one-of.html"
]
] |
||
2sih7a
|
why are there no full bulletproof body armours, or why are they not being used?
|
Often I see an officer with just chest armour, or a soldier with armour and a helmet. But I never see a full suit. It's pretty logical to shoot between the eyes in such cases, because that's the weak spot. Why not wear bulletproof suits so (almost) nothing can kill you? Yes it might be heavy and slow, but at least you don't die as quickly.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2sih7a/eli5_why_are_there_no_full_bulletproof_body/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cnpqkgg",
"cnpqrkx",
"cnpr17n"
],
"score": [
3,
3,
2
],
"text": [
"You would more or less have to look like this:\n\n_URL_0_\n\nAnd that's very very heavy, and very very cumbersome. Imagine wearing this suit hours and hours, every day, for years and years. It just can't be done. \n\nPlus, you'd be giving up a whole load of other safety measures, like being able to see properly, run away from a bad situation, pursue suspects through environment, drive properly...\n\nIn addition to this, this isn't what most police would want to look like. They want to be humans serving their community, not walled in behind armor which screams 'I am afraid of this neighborhood'.",
" > It's pretty logical to shoot between the eyes in such cases, because that's the weak spot\n\nGood luck making that shot though. If you don't aim centre mass, chances are you're going to miss completely. If you're aiming for a tiny zone on the face, you're generally shit out of luck.",
"If you're wearing armour to stop a pistol bullet, a rifle bullet will kill you. If you're wearing armor to stop a rifle bullet, a grenade or IED or mortar will still kill you. \n\nBullet resistant armor only prevents the bullet from killing you. There's a whole range of difference between comfortably walking around and dead. Getting shot with bullet resistant armor once will still be like getting punched by mike Tyson. And it can still crack ribs and it will definitely bruise. Each time armor is hit, its slightly compromised. Wearing armor won't save you if you're standing in front of a machine gun with 1000rounds, or even if you get shot 100 times. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://img4.wikia.nocookie.net/__cb20100201053918/bioshock/images/e/ec/Bouncer_Rendered_Model.png"
],
[],
[]
] |
|
2qbgbz
|
why do amazon's prices fluctuate so drastically?
|
Sometimes a product will be really cheap and then the next day it could be more expensive than other competitors. Sounds like supply/demand but the fluctuation seems too 'real time' for that to be the cause.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2qbgbz/eli5_why_do_amazons_prices_fluctuate_so/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cn4ksig",
"cn4rbtl"
],
"score": [
5,
2
],
"text": [
"Vendor with the cheap price sold out, and it automatically displays the next lowest price from the other vendors ",
"[Amazon adjusts prices 2.5+ million times daily using algorithms](_URL_0_)"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[
"http://qz.com/157828/amazon-changes-its-prices-more-than-2-5-million-times-a-day/"
]
] |
|
4x6ahd
|
why do almost all police cars have the same wheels/rims?
|
I noticed recently that a lot of police cars have wheels that look like [this] (_URL_0_), and then I realized that almost every police car I've seen has the same or very similar wheels.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4x6ahd/eli5_why_do_almost_all_police_cars_have_the_same/
|
{
"a_id": [
"d6cv7s8",
"d6cv8a5",
"d6cva8n",
"d6cvxkl",
"d6d1ogb"
],
"score": [
2,
2,
2,
2,
2
],
"text": [
"Most US police forces buy cars specifically made for the police force or buy cars in fleets. This means police generally buy multiple cars of the same car model. \n\n",
"Often times it's because they're the lowest, base-model, steel rims available for that model car. They're the cheapest and most durable rims, and they can buy them in bulk for very little money. ",
"Compatibility. It doesn't make sense to buy say 50 squad cars and have say 4 different rim designs/tire sizes. If all your units have the same rims and same size tires now you can buy in bulk when they inevitably get smushed on a curb. Also black steel rims tend to be cheaper and more durable than alloys.",
"Because looks are far, far down the list of priorities for fleet vehicles. Cost effectiveness, durability, and maintenance friendliness are way, way out front.",
"The wheels used on police vehicles are meant for heavy duty use. What you see is missing is the wheel cover hub cap. Police vehicle wheels they are normally steel wheels for hard driving and obstructions where a alloy wheel would crack. \n\nThe other reason they don't have wheel covers and have many holes is for dissipating heat. In a police pursuit or racing to a call under heavy braking generates a massive amount of heat that creates brake fade and reduces the effectivness of the brakes and holes in the wheels and without wheel covers will allow heat to escape.\nOn later model Impala police vehicles the two holes on the lower front bumper where fogs lights would be is actually a pipe that forces moving air onto the brake rotor to cool it down . This also why performance brake rotors have holes drilled in them\n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://m.imgur.com/5Ct9Uui"
] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
ktxz3
|
How do physicists prove the existence of subatomic particles?
|
Hey guys, maybe I should have read about this myself, but well without trying very hard, I can't understand what I'm reading. I'm a molecular biologist and yes I can grasp the atomic theory. But, how do you know that subatomic particles like quarks, neutrinos, etc exist?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/ktxz3/how_do_physicists_prove_the_existence_of/
|
{
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"c2n74md",
"c2n7hid",
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"c2n7hid"
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"score": [
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"text": [
"It really depends on the particle in question. For instance, the existence of the neutrino was first made obvious when it was noticed that in beta decay (a neutron decaying to a proton + electron), the electron emitted could have a range of energies/momenta, whilst the proton remains fairly stationary/with well understood energy. Conservation of energy and momentum is therefore only possible if there's some other almost undetectable particle emitted carrying the rest of it, which turns out to be the neutrino. In this case (as opposed to quarks, see below), experiments first showed the existence of something we didn't understand, opening the way for theory to explain it.\n\nOnce a particle type is found to exist, research into how it fits into the mathematical framework may reveal expected properties. Testing these expected properties can show whether or not the particle works as expected, and can verify our understanding of it. \n\nQuarks are an example of coming across the particle by a different method. As I understand it, the idea was originally a mathematical abstraction which helpfully explained various features of the detectable hadrons. There was no consensus as to whether the idea was physically meaningful for a while, but eventually quarks were directly(ish) detected via deep inelastic scattering, essentially firing particles such as electrons extremely fast at hadrons. The scattering patterns for a quark-based hadron and a hadron with no constituents are different, so by measuring the result we were able to see that the mathematical quark abstraction actually directly describes the nuclei. Thus, in this case, theory came first, made predictions, and experiment could verify these to confirm the theory.\n\nIn both cases, of course, theories have continued to develop in conjunction with increasingly complex experiments, leading to a more and more detailed understanding of how the particles behave. There are still many questions left unresolved, theorised particles that have not been detected (such as, most famously, the Higgs boson), and detected particles which don't seem to fit the characteristics of particles we already know about (i.e. dark matter, though whether it's actually particles seems to have not reached consensus).\n\n(Disclaimer: I'm not a particle physicist, this post is made of wikipedia + my non-specialist understanding)",
"[Here is an image of tracks in a bubble chamber](_URL_0_). As you can see, identifying the entire decay chain in any set of tracks is challenging. Using machine-driven, pattern-matching algorithms helps tremendously. \n\nIn the end, all we can see at particle detectors (ATLAS, CMS, CDF, D0, etc.) are tracks. By collecting all the different kinds of tracks, and creating a taxonomy, we eventually build an underlying theory of quarks, leptons, and bosons. ",
"It really depends on the particle in question. For instance, the existence of the neutrino was first made obvious when it was noticed that in beta decay (a neutron decaying to a proton + electron), the electron emitted could have a range of energies/momenta, whilst the proton remains fairly stationary/with well understood energy. Conservation of energy and momentum is therefore only possible if there's some other almost undetectable particle emitted carrying the rest of it, which turns out to be the neutrino. In this case (as opposed to quarks, see below), experiments first showed the existence of something we didn't understand, opening the way for theory to explain it.\n\nOnce a particle type is found to exist, research into how it fits into the mathematical framework may reveal expected properties. Testing these expected properties can show whether or not the particle works as expected, and can verify our understanding of it. \n\nQuarks are an example of coming across the particle by a different method. As I understand it, the idea was originally a mathematical abstraction which helpfully explained various features of the detectable hadrons. There was no consensus as to whether the idea was physically meaningful for a while, but eventually quarks were directly(ish) detected via deep inelastic scattering, essentially firing particles such as electrons extremely fast at hadrons. The scattering patterns for a quark-based hadron and a hadron with no constituents are different, so by measuring the result we were able to see that the mathematical quark abstraction actually directly describes the nuclei. Thus, in this case, theory came first, made predictions, and experiment could verify these to confirm the theory.\n\nIn both cases, of course, theories have continued to develop in conjunction with increasingly complex experiments, leading to a more and more detailed understanding of how the particles behave. There are still many questions left unresolved, theorised particles that have not been detected (such as, most famously, the Higgs boson), and detected particles which don't seem to fit the characteristics of particles we already know about (i.e. dark matter, though whether it's actually particles seems to have not reached consensus).\n\n(Disclaimer: I'm not a particle physicist, this post is made of wikipedia + my non-specialist understanding)",
"[Here is an image of tracks in a bubble chamber](_URL_0_). As you can see, identifying the entire decay chain in any set of tracks is challenging. Using machine-driven, pattern-matching algorithms helps tremendously. \n\nIn the end, all we can see at particle detectors (ATLAS, CMS, CDF, D0, etc.) are tracks. By collecting all the different kinds of tracks, and creating a taxonomy, we eventually build an underlying theory of quarks, leptons, and bosons. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[
"http://i.imgur.com/lY7s1.gif"
],
[],
[
"http://i.imgur.com/lY7s1.gif"
]
] |
|
6vildx
|
Did the Romans discover South America?
|
So I remember reading a while ago that (put your tin foil hats on) the Romans discovered Brazil/South America, but the Brazilian government covered the wreckage in cement because they didn't like how it changed history.
It sounds insane and like complete nonesense, but there is this:
_URL_1_
_URL_0_
The guy who purpotedly found it was put under investigation for selling artifacts he took from the Brazilian coast, which it says in the article, but I don't know if this means he is necessarily lying about what he found.
Can someone shed some light on this?
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6vildx/did_the_romans_discover_south_america/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dm0io7i",
"dm0jd0w"
],
"score": [
8,
49
],
"text": [
"Did the Romans have ships capable of crossing the Atlantic?",
"The short answer is there is no historical evidence for any sort of substantial or prolonged contact between Rome and the Americas; that is to say, there is no surviving account of an expedition to there and back again, nor any significant, confirmed material evidence of trade or exchange between the two regions prior to the Norse colonization at Vinland in the 10th century. There are some discussions on [Pre-Columbian Contact in the FAQ](_URL_3_), but nothing specifically discussing Romans.\n\nThe slightly longer answer is that there has been substantial interest in possible pre-Columbian transatlantic contact between Europe and the Americas for decades, and there are some isolated artifact discoveries which are ambiguous but might suggested one-time or occasional contact. A good example of this kind of thing is the [\"Roman figurine\" discovered at Calixtlahuaca](_URL_4_) - warning, the page will make your eyes bleed, but the significant point put forward by Dr. Michael E. Smith there is:\n\n > The “Roman figurine” supposedly excavated at Calixtlahuaca was not documented using standard archaeological procedures. Excavator José García Payón did not publish professionally adequate descriptions of any of his excavations at the site. After his death, two posthumous reports were issued (García Payón 1979; 1981), but these contain very little specific information on the excavations or individual contexts. The “Roman figurine” cannot be considered well documented according to the normal standards of archaeological practice. [...] These problems of data reporting affect more than just the “Roman figurine” from Calixtlahuaca. The lack of documentation applies to nearly all of the finds from García Payón’s fieldwork. While these problems do not invalidate the “Roman figurine” as a potentially valid Precolumbian find, their implication is that it is impossible today to reconstruct the archaeological context of the find. It certainly cannot be claimed that this find is “well documented” or that it comes from “a good archaeological context.” The excavation of the “Roman figurine” fails to meet even the minimum standards of archaeological reporting.\n\nThis is really more of an archaeological point - identifying artifacts and their proper context *and documenting the process of discovery* can be difficult and frustrating - but it bears repeating here because its exactly the situation we have to deal with when looking at the claims here. Historians have to follow a similar process when they evaluate evidence, trying to trace the provenance of document evidence and evaluating its reliability.\n\nFor the \"amphorae\" discovered in the Bay of Guanabara in Brazil in particular, the best version of the popular account is [Treasure Lost at Sea: Diving to the World's Great Shipwrecks](_URL_1_) by \nRobert and Jennifer Marx. Robert F. Marx is well-known as a diver - and also a treasure-hunter who has made several claims about pre-Columbian contact with the Americas, and author or co-author of a number of non-fiction works on the subject. The details of the jars claim, however, are not verifiable - there's been no formal, documented excavation or survey of the underwater site; no published results of independent examination of the artifacts; nor to the best of my knowledge has Marx presented his finds to academic publication - although he did publish [\"Romans in Rio?\"](_URL_0_) (PDF) in *Oceans* in 1984. [The Fringe of American Archaeology: Transoceanic and Transcontinental Contacts in Prehistoric America](_URL_2_) (PDF) claims at least one account that an attempt by an expert in Roman antiquities to view the jars was denied. Even assuming Marx was operating in good faith - and his moderate claim of a single Roman ship-wreck rather than any sort of ongoing exchange stands out in his father - the lack of documentation of the find, and inability for independent analysis and confirmation of the recovered jars, makes them unreliable as a point of evidence."
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://www.nytimes.com/1985/06/25/science/underwater-exploring-is-banned-in-brazil.html?mcubz=0",
"http://www.nytimes.com/1982/10/10/world/rio-artifacts-may-indicate-roman-visit.html?mcubz=0"
] |
[
[],
[
"http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=2&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0ahUKEwjquN-Au-3VAhUCJiYKHWlXBiwQFgguMAE&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.ssssllc.net%2Fwordpress%2Fwp-content%2Fuploads%2F2009%2F08%2FRomans-in-Rio.pdf&usg=AFQjCNHL93qR5jQOqGB_OFtMvF9S2C3oBA",
"http://www.worldcat.org/title/treasure-lost-at-sea-diving-to-the-worlds-great-shipwrecks/oclc/55982453",
"http://www.scientificexploration.org/docs/17/jse_17_1_kehoe.pdf",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/nativeamerican",
"http://www.public.asu.edu/~mesmith9/tval/RomanFigurine.html"
]
] |
|
23vppo
|
what do scalpers do with unsold tickets?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/23vppo/eli5_what_do_scalpers_do_with_unsold_tickets/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ch10nl8"
],
"score": [
5
],
"text": [
"They generally don't have unsold tickets. After the event starts they will likely drop the price to get rid of them to any bargain shoppers still hanging around."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
azvlsq
|
how do researchers get schedule 1 substances for studies?
|
[deleted]
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/azvlsq/eli5_how_do_researchers_get_schedule_1_substances/
|
{
"a_id": [
"eiaelds"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"From regulated suppliers, for example \n\n_URL_0_"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://www.tocris.com/products/dl-mdma-hydrochloride_3027"
]
] |
|
1tch1o
|
if bank check security features have been developed after decades of check fraud how can we now take pictures of checks to deposit them?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1tch1o/eli5if_bank_check_security_features_have_been/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ce6kh29",
"ce6mfvp"
],
"score": [
2,
2
],
"text": [
"Balance of risk of fraud vs attracting customers. And u can only deposit 1000 max with a photoed check",
"Even if some one gets a fake check into there account it will be caught eventually (usually within 2 days) and the money will be removed from said account. If the money is already spent, the bank will make sure you pay it latter. If you don't it will go to collections and ruin your credit rating.\n\nEdit: a word"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
63sth2
|
Are all tetrahedral molecules non polar?
|
I sort of understand how dipoles work, but the vectors are confusing me. Are all linear, trigonal planar and tetrahedral molecules non polar? Also, are all bent and trigonal pyramidal molecules polar? Thank you!
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/63sth2/are_all_tetrahedral_molecules_non_polar/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dfwpm1c",
"dfx3wcc"
],
"score": [
10,
7
],
"text": [
"It's more about the symmetry of the charges than the geometry that determine whether something is polar. For example water is bent and it is polar but it's not just the fact that it's bent that let's you say aha its polar. You need to consider electronegativity. Oxygen's electronegativity is much higher than hydrogen's. That means oxygen is partially negative because it schlorps some of the electron density from hydrogen. That leaves the hydrogen's partially positive. Thus when you look at the bent shape you see the ends are positive and the middle bit is negative. If you draw a line through the negative charges and then draw a line through the positive charges you can clearly see the polarity vector goes from one of these to the other. Thus water is polar.",
"Tetrahedral molecules *that have the same species at each corner of the tetrahedron*, methane or CCl4, will be nonpolar because of its symmetry.\n\nBut if corners of the tetrahedron have different electronegativities, the molecule will be at least somewhat polar- how much so depending on the constitutents. Comparing CH3F to CCl3F, you would expect CH3F to be more polar, as there's a larger difference in electronegativities between H and F than between Cl and F.\n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
26fx5d
|
what does full development/maturity of the human brain really mean?
|
I was told a persons brain is not fully developed/matured until the age of 25. If this is true, what exactly does full maturity imply?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/26fx5d/eli5_what_does_full_developmentmaturity_of_the/
|
{
"a_id": [
"chqo36x",
"chqombj",
"chqskyh",
"chrc6eu"
],
"score": [
3,
10,
6,
2
],
"text": [
"25 is the age for men. Women mature slightly earlier.\n\nThis refers specifically to frontal lobe development, which doesn't finish until the body is firmly done with puberty.",
"Generally it means that the person becomes less impulsive and weighs risks.",
"Development in the brain occurs by laying down connections between neurons. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher thinking such as planning, consequence consideration, and other abstract intellectual functions. To do these well, this area must be connected to every other area of the brain, which means all the neurons have to make axons (long finger-like strands) to touch nearly all the other neurons. \n\nOnce all connections have been made, the brain is \"fully matured\".\n\nEditted: a word",
"As others have mentioned, it has to do with making neural connections in the frontal lobe, specifically the anterior association area. This functional area in your brain relies on feedback from your daily experiences, social cues, good/bad responses to different situations, etc. A younger individual simply has experienced less, thus has given less feedback to this area of the brain. As a result, younger individuals may be less inhibited, make poorer choices/judgements in certain situations, and/or behave inappropriately in some circumstances. Their brain hasn't yet learned what to do, but it will!"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
56wol3
|
why do most perishables expire in exactly 24 hours, one month, one year, etc? is this a coincidence or are they just rounding up/down, and if so then what validates expiration?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/56wol3/eli5_why_do_most_perishables_expire_in_exactly_24/
|
{
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2,
12,
2,
3,
2
],
"text": [
"They do no such thing. I have never had perishable expire in just 24 hours, and I rarely ever see any that expire in exactly a month. If they last more than 2 months they are not perishables so no perishable expires at a year. ",
"Expiration dates are an estimate, on the low side, for legal purposes rather than some kind of hard classification. You can legally sell something like bologna for seven days after the vacuum packing is removed. If you sold it after eight days it would probably still be fine though the taste might be off, and past that it's increasingly likely to be growing mold or bacteria or something. If I get sick off meat I bought that had just been opened by the retailer (who did due diligence checking for problems before they sold it) then it's the manufacturer's fault and they take the heat. If I get sick and it turns out the meat was expired, it's the retailer's ass in the fire. If it was under expiration but the retailer should've known it was bad then it might be their ass anyway.\n\nExpiration dates aren't meant to be scientifically accurate since perishing isn't super predictable, it's not like meat has a half life or something. They're meant to establish a safe maximum threshold past which the meat is too likely to be spoiled for it to be safely sold. Sometimes a loaf of bread will keep for weeks after the expiration no problem. Sometimes it'll have mold on it the day after you open it.",
"Expiration dates are determined by the FDA (or your national equivalent) and are often set earlier than they need to be by the manufacturer.\n\nTo \"validate\" if something's expired, use your eyes, nose and common sense. Be especially careful with eggs, meat or certain kinds of mushrooms, as those may become unsafe to eat without noticably changing taste or texture when stored improperly and/or for too long. Salt, on the other hand, doesn't go bad at all if stored properly, but still gets an expiration date under some jurisdictions.",
"Over here in Germany the expiration date does not necessarily tell you about the safety of the food but also about taste, form and feeling when you chew the food (\"haptics\"?). So it's an estimate to guarantee the \"freshness\" and not necessarily if it's safe to consume.",
"Experation dates does not mean that it goes bad at that date. It means that this product is guaranteed to not spoil by this date. \nNaturally the date is a lowball estimate and may last for much longer. Other stuff got a experation date by law like Eggs (Europe) but last much longer than the date stamped on them. Infact my granny will not bake anything unless the eggs are 5 weeks past experation and she make the best pancakes/cakes ever."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
aeimh9
|
How do we designate stellar areas?
|
Just some curiosity about the correct terms.
If you're speaking about a planet it's: Earth in the Sol system.
How do we differentiate locations on moons of planets?
Is it "Moon base 6 on Luna near Earth?"
Or "Moon base 6 in the Earth neighborhood?"
& #x200B;
|
askscience
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/aeimh9/how_do_we_designate_stellar_areas/
|
{
"a_id": [
"edpja78",
"edpl2ul",
"edpouau",
"edrb1ou"
],
"score": [
10,
17,
2,
2
],
"text": [
"Since each planet and moon has a unique name, wouldn't it be enough to say \"Base 6, Luna, Sol system, Milky Way galaxy, Laniakea Supercluster\"? I mean, it doesn't seem relevant if the base is on a moon or a planet, as long as you know the name of the celestial body. Perhaps you're asking whether there is an official naming standard, in which case my answer doesn't apply.",
"I don't think there's any standard, since there's no need for one yet. All the moons in our solar systems are named, so we can use those, and we can't detect moons of exoplanets yet (we might have one or two, but not enough for much of a naming system, amd certainly none where we know anuthing about surface features). I'd guess that we'll just use normal astronomy names, ie an id number based on the project that detected it once we start finding more.",
"We don't because we don't have to as others have mentioned, but if we did, the most likely system would be the same one we use for planets. They'd simply be numbered depending on their orbital distance.\n\nSo Io is Jupiters first moon the same way Mercury is Sols first planet. Locations in space beyond that are meaningless as everything is constantly moving. Not just the moons around the planets, or the planets around the sun, but the sun around the galaxy, and the galaxy around the universe. Add on top of this that the expansion of the universe and trying to identify a single location in space is basically pointless and impossible.\n\n[Here is a visual representation of the suns orbit around the galaxy.](_URL_0_). As you can see, most peoples idea that the planets are circling around the Sun isn't really the whole truth. What's actually happening is they are being dragged along by the suns gravity well as it itself flies through space.\n\nI think it makes it a bit clearer why trying to identify a region of space is pointless, because wait a second and whatever was there will be somewhere else, and the distance from that object to any other object will have changed, and not even uniformly. Our sun might be catching up with another star but falling behind one that's travelling faster while being overtaken by one behind.",
"Celestial bodies have unique names*. There's no need to specify that Titan orbits Saturn which orbits the Sun because there's only one Titan.\n\nFeatures *on* celestial bodies do not always have unique names, so the name of the body and possibly a region in it may need to be given, if it's not made obvious by context. For example there are about 20 places called Birmingham on Earth and one on the Moon too.\n\nIn cases where a celestial body doesn't have a 'special' name, generic naming schemes are well established. Exoplanets are named after their parent star followed by a lowercase letter, planets being named in order of discovery starting with b. Moons are named after their parent planet followed by Roman numerals, starting with I, again in order of discovery. Such names thus include information about their parent planet and star.\n\n*Some planets or moons share names with asteroids, but strictly speaking the names of asteroids include the number. For example \"Europa\" is the moon of Jupiter while \"52 Europa\" is the asteroid."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[
"https://i.imgur.com/NVov6VA.gif"
],
[]
] |
|
2y5zy8
|
How bright does the Earth's core glow?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2y5zy8/how_bright_does_the_earths_core_glow/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cp78l5r"
],
"score": [
6
],
"text": [
"Assuming black-body radiation. Since Earth's core temperature is quite close to Sun's surface temperature (both around 6000 K), imagine standing on the surface of the Sun.\n\nOr to put it into perspective, we can use the brightness data from [the wikipedia page on Sun.](_URL_0_) It says the luminance is about 1.88 gigacandela per square meter. Comparing it with the brightness of smartphone and computer screens (200-400 cd/sq. m), Earth's core is **5-10 million times** brighter than your laptop screen. Just imagine setting your screen brightness to 1 billion%."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sun"
]
] |
||
1sgv7u
|
Is it possible to bring a dead cell/tissue back to life without using any kind of living cells/tissues?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1sgv7u/is_it_possible_to_bring_a_dead_celltissue_back_to/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cdxiw0b"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"Exactly what do you mean? On the cellular/molecular level, the definition of \"life\" gets a bit dodgy. \n\nThere are some ways your question could be answered \"yes,\" though. Humans are brought \"back from the dead\" after brain death. \n\nThings like cells, bacteria, and simple organisms can be cryogenically frozen (which is more or less \"dead\") and then thawed and brought up to be relatively healthy."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
1v6pc8
|
difference between angel investors and venture capitalists
|
Is it to do with:
- stage of investment
- magnitude of investment
- type of advice given
Thank you.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1v6pc8/eli5_difference_between_angel_investors_and/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cep83me"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"Angel Investors generally provide the capital to get a venture off the ground. Legal startup costs, proposals, grants applications and such. Venture capitalists provide the funds necessary to launch and sustain the venture until it can generate revenue by itself.\n\nAngels generally have more risk and get a larger share of the venture, but put up less money then the VC. Venture capitalists provide the lions share of the operating costs, and generally get a good percentage of the company. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
54nsec
|
if you killed someone on the four corners monument, which state's laws would you be prosecuted with?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/54nsec/eli5if_you_killed_someone_on_the_four_corners/
|
{
"a_id": [
"d83e6mn"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"[Slightly NSFW.](_URL_0_) \n \nSince it's a serious crime that is inter-state, the federal government will likely step in. \n \nAlso, it's a national monument and in Indian Reservation territory, even more reason for it to be the FBI. \n \nDouble also, simply searching Google about this (\"four corners jurisdiction\") brought up an ELI5 post about this as the top result."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://youtu.be/AY4FP7U88ds?t=1m4s"
]
] |
||
1kavqo
|
I'm debating with someone about the Big Bang, they are saying it can't be true because of the Law of the Conservation of Angular Momentum.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1kavqo/im_debating_with_someone_about_the_big_bang_they/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cbn2gn3",
"cbn2l9v",
"cbn2xp2",
"cbn4f3a",
"cbnam9n"
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"score": [
3,
12,
6,
8,
2
],
"text": [
"Can you provide more information as to how they believe it contradicts the Big Bang?",
"Nothing about the big bang theory contradicts conservation of angular momentum. Without more explanation of their argument, we can't really give you a better explanation than that.",
"This is a very old argument made by Kent Hovind and his ilk; generally it brings up Venus. \n\nWhomever you're debating probably isn't interested in a rational discussion, he just wants to purport Creation *Science*.",
"Sam Harris once said,\n\n\"Water is two parts hydrogen and one part oxygen. What if someone says, “Well, that’s not how I choose to think about water.”? All we can do is appeal to scientific values. And if he doesn’t share those values, the conversation is over. If someone doesn’t value evidence, what evidence are you going to provide to prove they should value it? If someone doesn’t value logic, what logical argument could you provide to show the importance of logic?\"\n\nIn other words, why bother. \n\nBut here's a [takedown of Hovind's bullshit](_URL_0_):\n\n\"That (the 'violation' of the Law of Conservation of Angular Momentum) would have been a good point by Kent, if only planets were the direct result of the Big Bang, and if only we knew for sure that the point of singularity was spinning, and if only we knew that angular momentum applied to the laws of physics back then. But the Big Bang didn’t just turn into spinning planets. So what can make up for some of the planets and moons in our solar system that are spinning backwards? Rogue planets that get in orbit with another celestial body is a perfect explanation. You think that all of our planets were just remnants of our stars leftover matter that wasn’t consumed? Also, a great impact by another celestial body can definitely change its rotation. Shouldn’t Kent know this after teaching 15 years of high school science?\"\n\nOne last, but critical point. Non-scientists frequently misunderstand or intentionally misuse \"Scientific Laws.\" Scientific theories are at the top of scientific principles, because they describe a mechanism and can predict future events. The theory of evolution could help us predict what happens to organisms with global warming, for example.\n\nScientific laws differ in important ways from scientific theories. Laws don't propose a mechanism or explanation of phenomena. Laws are a simple distillation of repeated observations of a natural phenomenon, so they cannot predict the future (or in fact, they cannot give much information on the past). Scientific laws are limited to analyzing phenomena resembling those already observed, and can be found to be false when extrapolated to future events, past events, or even another part of the universe.\n\nSo, as you can read below, there are many reasons why there are many reasons that this \"law\" isn't consistent. Because religious types think in black/white arbitrary absolutes, and scientific laws don't mean what they think they mean.\n\nAnd once again I violate tl;dr. I apologize, but I hate making nuanced answers in a few sentences. I am physically incapable of doing it. Slap me silly.",
"\n\nThis has been removed because posting personal theories on /r/AskScience is strongly discouraged.\n\nFor more information regarding this and similar issues, please see the [FAQ.](_URL_0_.)\n\nThis has been removed because the question is too broad or too vague. If you’re still curious, please conduct some basic research and resubmit a more specific question.\n\nFor more information regarding this and similar issues, please see the [FAQ.](_URL_1_.)\n\n\n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[
"http://www.skepticreport.com/sr/?p=352"
],
[
"http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/wiki/index#wiki_posts_about_personal_theories_are_discouraged",
"http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/wiki/index#wiki_make_questions_as_specific_as_possible"
]
] |
||
zuw03
|
A question about voyager entering intergalactic space
|
I apologise if this question is a bit silly, but I've been thinking on it a while. I love astronomy but I'm not as scientifically literate as I wish to be.
Our sun is travelling at 220 miles a second in orbit around our galactic centre. So, is there any chance that once voyager completely leaves the solarsystem that we will simply speed off into space leaving it in the middle of nowhere? or will it be dragged along relative to us for our entire orbit of the galaxy?
Thanks.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/zuw03/a_question_about_voyager_entering_intergalactic/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c67xkqf"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"As HoldingTheFire says, the velocity is basically the vector sum of the earths movement and the movement relative to earth. So, it will indeed be dragged along relative to us, unless it hits something which is unlikely."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
geybv
|
What would happen to you if you were to consume 5lbs of sugar all at once?
|
This came up in [another reddit discussion](_URL_0_); what would happen to you if you were to consume 5lbs of sugar, in a very short timeframe? Assume that the person in question has a healthy diet both before and after the sugar consumption; this is all about the acute effects, not chronic effects.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/geybv/what_would_happen_to_you_if_you_were_to_consume/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c1n3d5d",
"c1n3gze"
],
"score": [
6,
12
],
"text": [
"The LD50 of sucrose in rats is 30g/kg. Five pounds of sugar is about 2268 grams. You'd hit the LD50 at about 75lbs of body weight.\n\nThe LD50 in rats is per [wikipedia.](_URL_0_) Not being an expert, I can't do much with this information. I just don't know enough about the rat/human LD50 equivalencies and what have you.",
"Some possibilities:\n\n5 lbs may overwhelm the absorption maxima in the gut leading to watery diarrhea due to an osmotic solute in the large intestine. Depending on the water loss, typical dehydration responses would begin.\n\nSay gut motility halted to a point that all of the sugars were absorbed and dumped into the blood. Huge amounts of glycogen and fatty acids would be synthesized and glucose absorption by cells would increase under the affect of insulin. \n\nIf the amount of glucose in the blood overwhelms the absorption maxima in the kidney then glucose would escape in the filtrate and appear in the urine. Urine output would increase due again to an osmotic solute in the filtrate pulling water into the urine.\n\nBasically you would see what would be seen on a daily basis for a poorly controlled diabetic. So we have established that there will probably be a marked increase in water loss. Lets look at some possible acute effects.\n\nSevere dehydration leads to hypotension and probably some other forms of hemodynamic compensation, shunting of blood away from certain organs. Altered consciousness happens due to an abnormal metabolic balance in the body. this abnormal balance results in acidosis in the blood due to the products of glucose metabolism and you will see quick, deep and labored breathing to compensate for this.\n\ntl;dr - same effects of an acute diabetic patient: metabolic acidosis (possibly ketoacidosis), rapid deep breathing, increased urinary output, possible watery diarrhea, altered consciousness."
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://www.reddit.com/r/IAmA/comments/genxr/ama_request_someone_who_has_ignored_all_the/c1n1uk5"
] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median_lethal_dose"
],
[]
] |
|
10urcp
|
the concept of qualia.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/10urcp/eli5_the_concept_of_qualia/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c6gvkzh"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"Basically, it's the belief that every person perceives things differently. For example, when we're little, we're taught that a certain color is red. You and I both agree that that color is called red. When we see it at a traffic light, we both know when to stop because we both know that as red. But what if what I see as red and what you see as red are totally different? What if what I see as red is brown to you? [Wikipedia](_URL_0_) describes it as \"the way things seem to us,\" meaning that each of us may perceive red (or maroon in the case of your username) to be something very different. The basis for qualia, unfortunately, is uncertainty - we don't really know if what we perceive is the same or completely different."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qualia"
]
] |
||
3jacmg
|
what is the difference between "all of our servers are busy" and "we took too long to make this page" error pages on reddit?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3jacmg/eli5_what_is_the_difference_between_all_of_our/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cunlb9l"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"From our standpoint as users, nothing at all. From Reddit's standpoint, one of them means the backend computers told them \"sorry too busy\" and the other means that the backend didn't respond at all."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
1kp812
|
Why did Israel give back the conquered territories of the six day war?
|
In a neutral tone, can you explain how could Israel alone , won the six day war against the Arab nations and why did they give back the conquered territories ?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1kp812/why_did_israel_give_back_the_conquered/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cbrdblt"
],
"score": [
4
],
"text": [
"As for why they won, a few points:\n\n1. Momentum. Israel attacked after Egypt advanced into the Sinai, without waiting for the actual attack. This allowed the IAF to effectively control the air over the Middle East throughout the war, making Arab advances difficult.\n* Better planning. This is from memory, but I believe Israel had already mapped out an advance through the Sinai from the Sinai Conflict in the 50s, allowing them to advance quickly and in an unexpected direction.\n* Better quality of forces. I can only find the first page of [this report](_URL_0_), but it indicates that Israel's forces were simply better.\n\nAnyway, on to why they gave back territory.\n\nFirst off, they didn't give back all of them. First, the Sinai. It was returned to Egypt in the 70s as part of a peace agreement with Egypt. The Yom Kippur War showed that Israel wouldn't always be hugely dominant as they had been in '67. Perhaps more importantly, improved international status by ending a major war was a significant foreign relations victory. Israel got the Sinai as a buffer, since it's a DMZ. Any Egyptian advance through it will give Israel plenty of time to react, as they did in 1967, when Egypt kicked out peacekeepers from the DMZ and began to advance through it. The Sinai is big enough to be an effective buffer, and Israel's foreign policy goals made it worth giving up the territory, which was very sparsely inhabited with Israelis.\n\nIn the North, Israel didn't give up territories exactly. They pulled back to the ceasefire lines from their positions near Damascus. Doing so ended the war on that front (eventually, the cease-fire took a couple tries to stick), and Israel didn't really lose anything.\n\nThe handoff of Gaza and parts of the West Bank is within this subreddit's time limit mostly. It's a rather different phenomenon, since territory isn't being returned to the countries that had it before, but turned over to partial Palestinian sovereignty."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://www.cia.gov/library/center-for-the-study-of-intelligence/csi-publications/csi-studies/studies/vol49no1/html_files/arab_israeli_memo.jpg/image.jpg"
]
] |
|
19s76j
|
why don't dogs' paws get extremely cold in the snow?
|
My dog loves the snow, and the cold doesn't seem to bother him at all. How is this possible?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/19s76j/eli5_why_dont_dogs_paws_get_extremely_cold_in_the/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c8qtzob",
"c8qvjcw",
"c8qwu2v"
],
"score": [
7,
3,
2
],
"text": [
"I've heard that the pads of dogs and cats paws can get frost bitten and extremely dry. So they recommend putting booties on dogs if the temperature is incredibly low and lotion on their paws or something to keep them from getting too chapped",
"Their paws afford them similar protection to the shoes you wear. As opposed to the sole of a shoe, they have what is essentially heavily calloused skin on the pads of their feet. ",
"The thick skin, fur and claws help, as do the fat pads inside them (it freezes slower than bloodier tissue like muscles and adds some insulation), but the real answer is a special system of blood vessels. There are many, many blood vessels in dogs' feet and they are consequently very close to each other, so that when the blood in one gets cold, fresh, hot blood coming from the heart in a nearby one can warm it up, preventing the foot from ever getting too cold and preventing cold blood from going to any other areas of the body.\n\nIts not unlike the way that penguins keep their feet warm, and suggests that dog evolved from a species that lived in a cold climate.\n\n_URL_0_\n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[
"http://www.bbc.co.uk/nature/16426276"
]
] |
|
5ry0ff
|
Who were the marine paratroopers?
|
[deleted]
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5ry0ff/who_were_the_marine_paratroopers/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ddb4pic"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"In May 1940, the acting director of the Division of Plans and Policies, U.S. Marine Corps, issued a memo asking for ideas about the employment of parachute troops. The training of groups of Marines to become paratroopers began in October 1940, and continued at a snail's pace; the 1st Parachute Battalion took nearly a year and a half to constitute its three companies, and was only at 60 percent of its TO & E strength by March 1942. The 2nd Parachute Battalion was formed (as the 2nd Parachute Company, later redesigned Company A, 2nd Parachute Battalion) on March 22, 1941, and the 3rd Battalion on September 16, 1942; the 3rd Battalion reached full strength far quicker than the other two due to improved training, being fully constituted within four months, by the end of December 1942. The three battalions were eventually organized into the 1st Marine Parachute Regiment. The \"Paramarines\" never actually dropped into combat, (as the Marine Corps lacked the number of transport aircraft needed to do so) but fought as ground troops in operations conducted in 1942 and 1943 at Gavutu, (August 1942) Tanambogo, (Augustt 1942) Guadalcanal, (September 1942) Choiseul, (October 1943) and Bougainville (November 1943) Four parachute operations were planned, but never executed;\n\n * Capturing Villa airfield on Kolombangara Island, planned for July 1943; the island was cut off via naval means and the Japanese evacuated it in September and October 1943 \n\n * Capturing Kahili and Kara airfields on Bougainville, planned for September 1943\n\n * Capturing the town of Kavieng on the island of New Britain, planned for April 1944\n\n * Capturing the Japanese seaplane base at Rekata Bay, Santa Isabel island; (in the Solomon Islands) the island was cut off and the Japanese evacuated the base in September 1943\n\nIt was eventually decided that Marine special units were not worth the upkeep cost; the Paramarines were disbanded on December 30, 1943, and the other Marine special operations unit, the Marine Raiders, also ceased to exist on February 29, 1944.\n\nSources:\n\n*U.S. Airborne Units in the Pacific Theater 1942–45*, by Gordon L. Rottman\n\n[*Silk Chutes and Hard Fighting: U.S. Marine Corps Parachute Units in WWII*](_URL_0_), by Lieutenant Colonel Jon. T. Hoffman, U.S. Marine Corps Reserve"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.marines.mil/Portals/59/Publications/Silk%20Chutes%20and%20Hard%20Fighting%20-%20U.S.%20Marine%20Corps%20Parachute%20Units%20in%20WWII%20%20PCN%2019000314700.pdf"
]
] |
|
6c4xt8
|
why do 3rd party travel sites often list rooms as available at hotels that claim they are fully booked?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6c4xt8/eli5_why_do_3rd_party_travel_sites_often_list/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dhrwqfm",
"dhs3udc"
],
"score": [
3,
2
],
"text": [
"Because hotels often sell their vacant rooms to third part distributors for a discounted rate as to forgo the risk of not being able to fill them. \n\nIf I have 100 vacant rooms available for next weekend, I know I am unlikely to fill them all, so I sell them at a discount to a third party who will then make them available on popular travel booking sites. ",
"Some of the third parties contracts include an \"allotment\" of a certain number of rooms. Meaning that the hotel has to guarantee this allotment even if its fully booked. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
1ik1yd
|
How was (or is) the authenticity of holy relics in the Catholic Church determined?
|
It seems like it would be almost impossible to verify if a holy relic was actually what it was said to be, especially before modern-day testing techniques. It can't have been as simple as "Hey guys, I found the toenail of St. John!", surely?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1ik1yd/how_was_or_is_the_authenticity_of_holy_relics_in/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cb5a3uz"
],
"score": [
11
],
"text": [
"(N.B. this is my first time posting in this subreddit. I've tried my best to follow the rules, but any advice on improvement would be graciously welcomed, thank you)\n\nFirst off, I notice you use the past tense, so let me clarify something really quick before jumping into the rest of my answer: the Catholic Church still has relics. In fact, every Catholic Church in the world has at least one, usually two, or sometimes even more contained within the cavity on the Altar. In fact, in order for the consecration of the Altar to be valid, there must be at least one relic from a martyr, and specifically, this relic, as must the others contained within the Altar must be First Class relics (part of the physical body) of the martyr; two martyr's relics, however are ideal.\n\nIn the Catholic Church, there are three classes of relics, numbered first through third:\n\n* First Class relics are either directly associated with the life of Christ (True Cross, Lance of Longinus, the Holy Prepuce, etc) or the physical remains of a saint.\n* Second Class relics are items that saints wore or frequently used (book, crucifix, rosary, etc). A relic taken from the saint's clothing is referred to as \"ex indumentis\", literally \"from the clothing.\"\n* Third Class relics are items, usually cloth, that have touched a First or a Second Class relic.\n\nCanon Law forbids the selling of sacred relics.\n\nObviously those relics from the time of Christ are very difficult to verify scientifically, so many are accepted on faith, though they are from time to time, tested when new technology becomes available; the most common example is Shroud of Turin, which while never confirmed by the Church to be a relic, would be a First Class relic if confirmed.\n\nThose relics taken from the body of saints are generally easier to confirm, particularly among modern saints whose graves are more likely to be well marked. In fact, as part of the canonization process, relics are taken during before the person can be named Venerable (One is named a Servant of God, then Venerable, then Blessed, and only then a Saint). Those relics, taken by the Church directly are more likely than not, valid.\n\nSecond Class relics are also confirmed with some ease. Upon exhuming the body, any fabric that the person is wearing would automatically be considered a Second Class relic. Items belonging to the person might be more difficult, unless they were buried, say, with their Rosary, but not altogether impossible to verify.\n\nThird-Class relics are the odd duck, as they are not part of, or directly associated with the saint in question, but just something that has touched a relic of the First or Second class, so it would be a bit more difficult to verify the authenticity of these relics. This class of relics are generally the type that a private person may have (personally, I have two on my rosary, one of Saint Thomas More, and one of Saint Benedict).\n\nAs to the exact process of authentication, one source I found([American Catholic](_URL_0_)), in order for a relic to be publicly venerated, it must be sealed in a receptacle must be accompanied by a certificate of authentication that is signed by one of the members of the Congregation for Saints or the local bishop of the place where the saint lived. Without this, the relic cannot be used for public veneration.\n\nSuggested Reading on the subject:\nPontificale Romanum for the specifics on relics used in the consecration of an altar.\nCode of Canon Law (1981) for legal limitations on the use of relics\n\nFor more in-depth theological analysis, I'd recommend checking out /r/Catholicism where the good folks there are always willing to explain matters in depth. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.americancatholic.org/messenger/jan1998/Wiseman.asp"
]
] |
|
67k0p6
|
why is there usually a little 9 next to the gas price?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/67k0p6/eli5_why_is_there_usually_a_little_9_next_to_the/
|
{
"a_id": [
"dgqzqas",
"dgr0fje"
],
"score": [
2,
2
],
"text": [
"I'm no expert but I believe that it's a well known rhetoric in social economics that people are naturally attracted to X.99 prices as opposed to X.00 prices. ",
"The price at gas stations is almost always with 9/10 of a cent. So it's actually 3.499 per gallon. People ignore the 9/10th of a cent because it sounds inconsequential. For the gas station this can mean an extra few hundred bucks a week. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
effwm6
|
Why were top loading/side loading machine guns like the Madsen and MP-18 popular for a time then fall out of use?
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/effwm6/why_were_top_loadingside_loading_machine_guns/
|
{
"a_id": [
"fc0fq2f"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"Top-loading machineguns like the Madsen and the plethora of designs we see in WW2 (ZB.26, Bren, Type 99, FM 24/29, etc) were intended for fire from static positions using the bipod. Being light machineguns, they were crew-served weapons, and doctrine of the time across most armies had the gunner's assistant responsible for magazine changes. Underside-mounted magazines often left the ground in the way and interfered with loading. Top mounted magazines also had the benefit of allowing the gunner to keep a lower profile, as there was no longer a magazine that needed ground clearance. No magazine on the bottom allowed for the bipod to be shorter while still allowing for a decent vertical field of fire.\n\nSide-mounted magazines offered a lot of the benefits of top-mounted, but were more common on submachineguns and other non-crew-served weapons. Here the benefits were very similar - the shooter could have a very high capacity magazine without having it interfere with their ability to go prone. The big problem here often ended up being balance. The weight of the ammunition and magazine hanging off one side of the gun made it awkward to hold, even in submachineguns like the MP-18 and Sten, where the weight of the ammunition and mags was fairly low. \n\n & #x200B;\n\nUltimately, the shift to underside-mounted magazines was something that didn't really seem to have the same kind of clear, consistent reasoning that influenced a lot of other firearms-related decisions. We'd see top-mounted magazines stick around postwar with many powers for some time. The British stand out in particular, as they opted to update the Bren to the L4 model to accept 7.62 NATO ammunition instead of adopting the L2-model FAL, which was intended to serve the same role. Compared to the L2 in Canadian and Australian service, the L4 Bren was significantly better suited to the role of light machinegun. Another notable case was the Stoner 63 - a Vietnam-era design that included an automatic rifle variant with a vertically-mounted magazine.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nThe shift to underside-mounted magazines for machinegun use tended to follow two trends - a shift towards automatic-rifle variants of the standard service rifle (RPK, FALO/L2) and a shift towards belt-fed machineguns for smaller-unit use (FN MAG, PKM, M60) As far as side-mounted magazines for submachineguns go, I'm not familiar enough with them to really give an answer. One thing to note is that submachineguns in general began to fall out of regular use after WW2, and where they remained they tended to fall into very niche roles where the benefits of a side-mounted magazine may not have mattered anymore."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
azhytg
|
“World War II in colour” is amongst the most famous modern documentaries covering the War, but does it have any glaring historical inaccuracies?
|
I was intending on recommending it to a younger family member in order to provide an overview of the Second World War, but I wanted to make sure it was accurate at first, as I’ve made mistakes on that front before.
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/azhytg/world_war_ii_in_colour_is_amongst_the_most_famous/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ei8xzyg"
],
"score": [
73
],
"text": [
"I'm going to focus on Episode 2: Lightning War. \n\nI wouldn't say that both of these are 100% false, but they are inaccuracies that play into pretty standard tropes of the war that remove some of the nuance that I think is necessary in studying the conflict.\n\n The episode details what it calls Blitzkrieg doctrine and it is the usual score. Tanks mass in their own formations, combine with air and artillery to strike at vulnerable points in a line, bypass strong points, and encircle formations on an operational level and not just a tactical one. While Operation Barbarossa in 1941 and later campaigns in the USSR certainly called for this, Blitzkrieg was more of a development of the older German \"Bewegungskrieg\" or \"war of movement.\" Going back to the Prussians and Frederick the Great, the doctrine was to encircle enemies and do concentric attacks. The way popular media, including this documentary portrays the German Army makes it seem like the 1941 Wehrmacht was the 1939 Wehrmacht. Even in 1941, most of the Wehrmacht was powered by horse and not internal combustion. For Poland, Max Hastings gives the number at 400,000 horses and 200,000 overall vehicles in the invasion. Hastings even uses the word \"blitzkrieg,\" and while the new type of fighting was formidable, I really believe it is important to stress that was a doctrine in development and would not reach its full capacity until later.\n\nThe second is the nature of Polish cavalry. While detailing the state of the Polish military situation, it shows clips of Polish Uhlans with lances, yes... but notice those rifles slung across their backs and grenades and other modern weapons? Everyone loves the lances and the legend is the legend. This documentary certainly isn’t the only one. Heinz Guderian in his memoirs mentions it and claims that the Polish cavalry had \"in ignorance of the nature of our tanks, [the Poles] had charged them with swords and lances and suffered tremendous losses.\" The same Poles who had the 7TP and multiple tankettes, though they did not mass them in the German manner. \n\nWilliam Shirer claims to have seen the results of the \"Horses against tanks, the cavalryman's long lance against the tank's long barrel.\" \n\nWhen actually discussing it, the documentary does say \"legend has it\" that cavalry attacked tanks. That could be worse, I'll give it that. Max Hastings does argue that there are two occasions where Polish cavalry and German Panzers fought, though his account is jumbled. He states that \"a squadron hurled itself at full gallop at the village of Kaluszyn, strongly held by the Germans\" and that \"out of 85 horsemen who attacked, only 33 afterwards rallied.\"\n\nHe finds an account mentioning lances from a distance from a Lance-Corporal Hornes who says \"we saw new unfamiliar contours... agile horses with bobbing heads, ridden by Polish Uhlans in their khaki uniforms, long lances held with one end in the stirrup and the other slung from the shoulder... our machine guns opened fire.\" The film footage shows that this was riding formation and not necessarily attack formation since we can also see the carbines and grenades. It is also from a German account, and while we can't discount those, we have to take it as a grain of salt considering the nature of Nazi views on any Eastern enemies.\n\nSo, at best, relying on German sources, there were two times where this happened, and one was a small attack of fewer than 100 men on a town. \n\nThe most likely origin of this myth/exaggeration is the famous account of Krojanty on September 1st.\n\nAt Krojanty, Polish Uhlans in the number of 250 men were indeed ordered to charge in desperation... against infantry... AND THEY WON. They scattered a German battalion, only to be ambushed by German armored cars as they pursued. The armored cars cut down and scattered the charge, which again, was already in progress and was proving successful. News crews, famously Italian in one case, saw parked mechanized vehicles, dead horses with sabers and lances, and filled in the blanks.\n\nSo to sum up, was \"blitzkrieg\" and the 1939 Wehrmacht impressive for its time... well obviously. It beat Poland in a month! Does the documentary summarize Blitzkrieg into something that is a bit of an exaggeration without making connections to earlier or later developments... I would argue it does.\n\nIt isn't the worst source in how it covers Polish cavalry, but \"legend says\" and then regurgitating an old myth isn't ideal. \n\nSources:\n\nMax Hastings \"Inferno: The World at War\"\n\nHeinz Guderian \"Panzer Leader\"\n\nWilliam Shirer \"Rise and Fall of the Third Reich\"\n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
mzek7
|
why devices like ipods or zunes die quicker depending on how loud they output music
|
I know they have to work harder to output at louder volumes, but why/how exactly do they work harder?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/mzek7/eli5_why_devices_like_ipods_or_zunes_die_quicker/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c3531qq",
"c3531qq"
],
"score": [
7,
7
],
"text": [
"The device needs to make a 'prominent' signal.\n\nBasically, it's converting electricity into sound energy. A louder sound energy needs more energy to produce.\n\nLouder sounds needing more energy is intuitive too. Making things move needs energy since you're affecting the world with physical motions. If you want to make it more faster than you need to affect the world more and so it costs more energy. Sound is the same, you are affecting the world so if you want more of an effect then you need more energy.\n\nImagine if you were using a trampoline to make squeaky noises. If you wanted a louder or more frequent squeaky noise, all other things equal, you need to either jump harder or jump faster.",
"The device needs to make a 'prominent' signal.\n\nBasically, it's converting electricity into sound energy. A louder sound energy needs more energy to produce.\n\nLouder sounds needing more energy is intuitive too. Making things move needs energy since you're affecting the world with physical motions. If you want to make it more faster than you need to affect the world more and so it costs more energy. Sound is the same, you are affecting the world so if you want more of an effect then you need more energy.\n\nImagine if you were using a trampoline to make squeaky noises. If you wanted a louder or more frequent squeaky noise, all other things equal, you need to either jump harder or jump faster."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
|
18yb1i
|
common forms of democratically electing officials.
|
I always here about how bad the first-past-the-post system is or how gerrymandering is corrupt but what other forms of elections are there and how do they work? Which one would be the best to represent the opinions of Americans?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/18yb1i/eli5_common_forms_of_democratically_electing/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c8j339n"
],
"score": [
3
],
"text": [
"The truth is that there's no *best* way to run an election. There's several different ways, but each of them has advantages and disadvantages and many will work for some countries better than they will for others. There's also an argument to be made that we don't always want the government to represent the wishes of the people because sometimes the people want what's bad for them. Some people would argue that instead we want a government that represents the best interests of the people.\n\nThe way the US currently uses is called a winner take all, single member district, first past the post system. What that means is that we divide each state up into smaller regions and each region votes on one person who they want to represent their region. (that's the winner take all, single member district part) The winner of the election is whoever gets the most votes at the end of the election. (the first past the post part)\n\nThis system has a lot of advantages. It's easy to understand, it's actually pretty easy to predict, and the way we have it set up in the US does a pretty good job of representing the really diverse regional interests the US has.\n\nWhat may or may not be a downside (depending on who you ask) is that the single member district, first past the post system is that it it's pretty well guaranteed that you'll end up with a two party system. Rather than explain why that happens, I'm going to link you to [a video](_URL_0_) that gives a really good explanation of the mechanics. (I will caution that while his explanation of the mechanics of why a two party system happens is really good, I don't necessarily agree with his conclusions, but that's another post entirely)\n\nThe other issue is that it does open up the potential for gerrymandering, which is generally accepted as a bad thing. In order to have districts someone has to decide where the district lines are drawn. In the US, that's up to the state legislatures which will have political agendas they will try to advance by drawing the districts in such a way that their party wins more elections. I would hesitate to call it corruption though, because as long as the districts meet certain requirements, the state legislatures are free to draw them however they want. One way to prevent gerrymandering is to appoint a non-partisan commission to draw district lines and have the legislature just rubber stamp that map. \n\nSince this is already a wall of text, I'll explain the next form of election in a reply to this post."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://youtu.be/s7tWHJfhiyo"
]
] |
|
2zld7s
|
what is the actual story behind the theory that the us invaded the middle east for oil?
|
Whenever discussing the middle east with any of my friends/acquaintances someone always brings up the fact that we only invaded the middle east for oil. Its become such commonplace, that people will say such a statement with literally no knowledge of what they're saying whatsoever. So what is the actual story behind this statement, and does it hold any truth. If it does, how big of a factor is oil in the war in the middle east?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2zld7s/eli5_what_is_the_actual_story_behind_the_theory/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cpjy7lb",
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4,
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"text": [
"There is no story.\n\nThe trade of oil is important to the economy. If it were to stop, there would be chaos. This is why the US has a massive oil storage (so that in the event of a temporary disruption, the economy won't come grinding to a halt).\n\nInstability in the middle east causes threat to the trade of oil. In some cases (I.e. Sadam Hussein lighting Kuwait's oil pumps on fire during the first Gulf War) the threat is pretty direct. In other cases (I.e. ISIS taking over areas of Iraq where oil is produced) the threat is less direct but still noteworthy.\n\nWhile it's important to realize that this is a factor, stating that this is the sole or primary factor for going to war is usually incorrect, or at least a conclusion drawn too easily. It is, as you said, a cliché, and most people who state this have nothing to back it up other than \"well Joe at my office said so, and he's really smart.\"\n\nThere are, after all, easier ways to acquiring and securing oil than going to war.",
"It was a stated goal of the administration that stability of the region is important. It does not take a genius to realize that means the flow of oil. \n\nAdditionally, the administration claimed the oil would \"pay for the war\". Which almost seems like thats what they meant. War. For. Oil.",
"Here's a theory I've heard (I don't claim to know this is true, but it is interesting):\n\nIn the mid '70s, the US negotiated with Saudi Arabia that in exchange for selling them specific types of arms and other considerations, they would sell the oil in dollars. Because of the sheer number and size of transactions, it made it so that the US could basically print money without restriction without hurting the economy, because there would always be a place for those dollars to go. When other oil producers saw that deal, they joined in. This became known as Petrodollars.\n\nFlash forward to 1990, Saddam Hussein invades Kuwait, then announces he is selling his oil in Dinar, not Dollars. The US invades, saying it is stopping the aggression, but really to stop Kuwaiti oil from being sold in something other than Dollars and radically limit Saddam's ability to sell in Dinar (through sanctions)\n\nFlash forward again to 2002. Because of the impact of debt crisis and the war in Afghanistan, the fed is starting to print money at a rate that potentially threatens the US economy. Iraq is still selling their oil outside of Dollars (now Euro) and because the sanctions have lessened, they are selling quite a bit of it. GWB invades (beacuse of all those \"weapons of mass destruction\") and topples the regime, and suddenly that oil is flowing, once again in Dollars."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
1oj944
|
how are tv shows such as "bar rescue", or any of the home renovation/makeover shows able to afford these huge and i would assume expensive renovations?
|
I can't imagine that advertising revenue and companies giving them free products can support them 100%. Do the owners of these bars agree to pay for a portion of it once they become profitable?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1oj944/eli5_how_are_tv_shows_such_as_bar_rescue_or_any/
|
{
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2
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"text": [
"I'm sure it's like extreme makeover where sure, you get it for free but then they get stuck with the taxes on everything. There's a lot of money made in commercials and endorsements though. Plenty enough to cover the part they pay",
"The short answer is that these places are built/renovated by set builders, not contractors. In other words, done cheaply to look good on TV, but not to last. From there, it's like any other show with a per episode set budget -- which is much cheaper than a per episode \"build a real building\" budget.",
"It costs $3 Million per episode to make Breaking Bad. These home makeover shows aren't going to have nearly the same audience size (although Extreme Makeover Home Edition did seem to have pretty large ratings), but doing a $50,000 renovation is nothing compared to the cost to produce popular drama shows.",
"Like game shows, they are actually pretty check to make.\n\nWhen you consider a top rated show like *How I Met Your Mother* or *NCIS* pays out millions per episode in actors salaries. You have a show with no actors, no writers, no sets, just a nobody for a host (sorry Jon) and a camera crew, a $100K remodel is pretty cheap."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
4ulyaw
|
what's with so many movies/tv shows using the same coffee cups?
|
[this](_URL_0_) is the one I'm talking about. so many tv shows use coffee cups with that design on them. off the top of my head Law and order, CSI, burn notice and Central Intelligence all use them. Why?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4ulyaw/eli5_whats_with_so_many_moviestv_shows_using_the/
|
{
"a_id": [
"d5r3ayr"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"[Here's a brief history.](_URL_0_). The cup does have a name.\n\nSimply put, it's recognizable and simple. Movies often include the Wilhelm Scream as well, for no other reason than it's a tradition. Like games have Easter Eggs, so do movies. In fact, if you watch many famous directors' films, you'll find that they constantly fit stuff like this in.\n\nIn reality, it also makes it easier. Why design a cup for every different kind of shot? They can't use name brands, even for small chains, because those are trademarked. If a company tries to use a design, like the famous wave cups everyone remembers from the 90s, people make money off those too. It's simpler to stick with one design. Most likely, those shows are all funded by a similar parent company, if not one. It's easier to agree to one cup than multiple.\n\nEdit: It's a famous cup anyway, and practically timeless. If they used a cup from say, Starbucks, you'd be able to date it more easily."
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://coffee.gurus.net/wp-content/uploads/2010/02/NYC_coffee_cup_499.jpg"
] |
[
[
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anthora"
]
] |
|
5hpyet
|
how does google maps know if there is "an accident on i-85 s is causing 30 min delays"?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5hpyet/eli5_how_does_google_maps_know_if_there_is_an/
|
{
"a_id": [
"db20pwx",
"db20zyr"
],
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2
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"text": [
"Google pays for access to official government traffic info, in addition to crowd sourced info like Waze. ",
"They have access to official Department of Transportation cameras and reporting\n\nThey have access to local news reporting\n\nAnd, due to the fact they now own Waze, they have crowd sourced reporting"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
1s88h5
|
Economics after the French revolution
|
Hey guys i really need help. I have debate on if the French revolution was worth the human cost in terms of economics. Everything i have read has said it was a failure. What can i argue?
Argument: The French evolution was worth it economically
Thanks!
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1s88h5/economics_after_the_french_revolution/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cduxtxl"
],
"score": [
5
],
"text": [
"Is this a homework question? It says in our rules:\n\n > Our users aren't here to do your homework for you, but they might be willing to help. Remember: AskHistorians helps those who help themselves. Don't just give us your essay/assignment topic and ask us for ideas. Do some research of your own, then come to us with questions about what you've learned. This is explained further in [this [META] thread](_URL_0_).\n\nYou can also consider asking the helpful people at /r/HomeworkHelp. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/y7f8f/meta_schools_in_a_brief_reminder_of_our_homework/"
]
] |
|
401lb1
|
Why wasn't Hanover incorporated into the UK?
|
From George I to William IV there was a personal union, so why was there never a political union?
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/401lb1/why_wasnt_hanover_incorporated_into_the_uk/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cyqtgfk"
],
"score": [
7
],
"text": [
"I actually have written about this topic a bit before: _URL_0_ \n\nThe thing to remember is that there was a personal union, not a political union, although Hanover's foreign policy and government in exile were at different periods run out of London. Hanover was a possession of the crown, but had its own independent existence. The kings of Britain were only also kings of Hanover after 1814; before that they possessed it as electors. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://m.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3jbpyk/britains_role_in_running_hannover/"
]
] |
|
dptmv8
|
how do recruitment agencies, such as lucas group, work in terms of finding you a job? do you pay them from your future salary, or are they even legit?
|
I recently separated from the navy a couple weeks ago and I'm trying to find a job. On linkedin I keep getting messages from recruiters like Lucas group who I guess will find me a job I fit into. The problem is whenever I try to research about them I'm just bombarded with their ads. And reviews I find, even the critical ones just seem like bad personal experiences. Theres nothing to tell me how agencies like them work or make money. Is it a good idea to let them help me find a job?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/dptmv8/eli5_how_do_recruitment_agencies_such_as_lucas/
|
{
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"f5yexyr",
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"score": [
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2,
2
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"text": [
"Agencies like this are paid a fee by the company they have been contracted by. They will help you prepare your resume, highlight your skills and send you for interviews they have set-up with the contracted companies. If they say that you have to pay them, or owe them a part of the wage then it’s not legit.",
" I have never worked with Lucas Group specifically but I have worked with other agencies like Adecco and Express. Basically, companies pay these places to act as a hiring department. They fill positions assigned to them by the employeer. The agency will take a percentage of your paychecks for a period of time. (It ended up being about 12 dollars a check for me.) Usually 6 months or 90 days or until you're hired.\n\n A lot of those agencies have a wide selection so you can pick to a degree, the kind of work you want. There are some perils though, some places never hire the temp work really is temp work and you end up moving jobs a lot. Some are temp- to hire. So you start out at a reduced salary with the idea that after the agencies payment period is up you become an actual employee. But this doesn't always happen. And sometimes the work is really tedious or hard labor.\n\n I have been with my current company for 5 years and I went through a temp agency. I have everything I wanted in a job and I love it. The trick is to be kinda picky. Its an agencies job to find you a GOOD job don't take the first thing they offer if you hate it. \n\nGood luck hope this helps!",
"I worked with the Lucas group when I separated. They placed some buddies of mine in jobs. I did not end up staying with them. They had some cult like hoops they want you to jump through, reading books and writing reports and going to group meetings and stuff. They say it’s to condition you to the civ job world way of doing things and verify your commitment. My buddies did it all and got the jobs and most of them hated it, so make sure you are getting a good fit. It is free, they send a lot of spam. There are some other mil recruiters around that act more normal.\n\nEdit: just searched r/veterans and there are some posts there from more than 90 days ago about Lucas. I can’t get a link on my phone to paste here"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
1oz9q3
|
How did people of different religions interact in the ancient world? For example, how did the Roman adherents feel about Egyptian beliefs? Was there religious controversy?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1oz9q3/how_did_people_of_different_religions_interact_in/
|
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"Using Herodotus as a source, the Ancient Greeks seemed to have viewed other polytheistic religions as being pretty much equivalent to their own. Sure, other cultures might worship in a different manner, not worship some gods, but, you know, no big deal. Here's some stuff from Herodotus' Histories, Book 2:\n\n > \"It is at Heliopolis that the most learned of the Egyptians are said to be found. I am not anxious to repeat what I was told about the Egyptian religion, apart from the mere names of their deities, for I do not think that any one nation knows much more about such things than any other; whatever I shall mention on the subject will be due simply to the exigencies of my story...\" (2.3)\n\n > \"They also told me that the Egyptians first brought into use the names of the twelve gods, which the Greeks took over from them, and were the first to assign altars and images and temples to the gods, and to carve figures in stone. They proved the truth of most of these assertions...\" (2.5)\n\nTangent on Ethiopia:\n\n > \"The inhabitants worship Zeus and Dionysus alone of the gods, holding them in great honour. There is an oracle of Zeus there, and they make war according to its pronouncements, taking from it both the occasion and the object of their various expeditions\" (2.29).\n\nBack to Egypt:\n\n > \"The statues of Isis show a female figure with cow's horns, like the Greek representations of Io...\" (2.41)\n\n > \"...Not all Egyptians worship the same gods— the only two to be universally worshipped are Isis and Osiris, who, they say, is Dionysus\" (2.42)\n\n > \"The Thebans and those who follow them explain the origin of their custom of abstaining from the sacrifice of sheep by a story of Heracles, who, they say, wished above all things to see Zeus. Zeus, however, was unwilling that his wish should be gratified. Heracles persisted, and Zeus had to devise a means of getting out of the difficulty. His plan was to skin a ram and cut off its head; then, holding the head before him and covering himself in the fleece, he showed himself to Heracles. This story explains why the Egyptians represent Zeus with a ram's head— a practice which has extended to the Ammonians... So far as I can see, the Ammonians took their name too from this circumstance; for Amun is the Egyptian name for Zeus.\" (2.42).\n\nAnyway, I'll keep editing more quotes in, but, as you can see, religion was really not a point of conflict with Egypt at all, at least from a Greek perspective. They could identify common ground and assume that everyone was more or less worshipping the same guys. And then keep in mind that Macedonians had already taken over rule in Egypt by the time the Romans were in power, so, I'm guessing it also wasn't an issue then.\n\n\nWhat about other cultures? The Persian Empire actually offered pretty complete religious freedom, which was great, and they're pretty praised in the Judeo-Christian tradition for freeing the Israelites from the rule of the Babylonians. In contrast, the Roman Empire insisted that Jews put up statues of the Emperor in their temples, which they refused, leading to war. But other than that the Romans were pretty inclusive too.\n\nOne of the problems with Judaism in the ancient world was just that it became so monotheistic. All these polytheistic cultures, as we saw above, could pretty much find common ground, and nothing in their religions prohibited some other culture from having another new god. But Judaism goes and insists that their god is the *only* god, and everyone else is just wrong. Or, at least, that the Jews should have no other gods before God. So the Old Testament contains stories saying that members of other religions sacrificed children to idols, and contests showing that God's powers are real while everyone else's either don't exist or are weaker. And conversely, the Jewish/Roman historian Josephus wrote an account in the 1st century that tells us that Jews were also being accused of human sacrifice by Egyptians. Human sacrifices [that never really took place] all around!",
"For the most part, the Romans did not run into conflict with other polytheistic religions. The logic behind this was that, more or less, they believed that the gods represented in other religions were the same as their own, just with different names. \n\nThis was a big part of why they ran into trouble with monotheistic religions. They could not understand the idea that the Jewish/Christian God was not only NOT the same as Jupiter, but that the jewish/Christian populations believed that their God was the only one, and the Romans were wrong.",
"I'm actually doing a bit if work on this now. Although the Romans did not precisely divide the world up into discrete religions as we do now, they most certainly saw differences in rites, practices, and what I suppose you could call frameworks of interpretation. This was very often, although not always, more or less exactly correlated with their views on ethnic distinctions. So it wasn't so much that Egyptian religion was weird and mystical so much as the Egyptians themselves are. Although again, this is far from absolute.\n\nEgypt in particular is an interesting case because it was perhaps the most successful area of the Mediterranean at preserving its unique iconographic style through the Hellenistic and Roman periods. Furthermore, the style was exported, and stereotyped Egyptian figures are fairly common on talismans, invocations, amulets, etc.",
"Augustus writes in his *Res Gestae* that he banned the Cult of Isis in an attempt to honour traditional Roman beliefs, Judaism was also frowned upon under Augustus' reign, but other polytheistic religions were generally allowed to carry on doing things their own way. ",
"Greece and Rome were pretty open to other polytheistic religions. From what I remember from my classes Greece had a couple mystery cults that were always around that worshiped gods from other countries. The two I can think of immediately are Isis of Egypt and Mithras from Persia. Actually the Isis cult lasted long after the fall of Egypt.\n\nAs for Rome, they were just as open and saw a lot of the Greek gods being a variation of their own, which is how you get Zeus=Jupiter, etc. I think one of their only unique gods that didn't exist in Greece was Janus, the god of beginnings. The month of January was named after Janus.\n\nI think the big troublemaker was monotheism, Egypt had a period of monotheism under the reign of Amenhotep IV. He worshiped a sun disc called Aten. It was extremely unpopular and was thrown out after Amenhotep passed.\n\nAs for accusations of human sacrifice, I remember hearing that sacrifice was that dirty little secret that a lot of religions don't want to admit to ever doing, but was likely a thing very early on. Some of the earliest ancient religions worshiped skulls (first human skulls, later bear skulls). People would keep them in their homes, and there were signs of trauma which implies that they were killed.\n\nSorry to keep things brief, I can expand later when I'm not sitting in class."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
d1c67c
|
Did an Ionian Crusade happen?
|
Hello!
I'm reading a book called The Latin Hegemonies of Medieval Europe by Constantine Cyprios, talking about all the Latin states established after 1204.
In the chapter about the County of Cephalonia, the author states that Matteo Orsini, the count, came to be at odds with his suzerain, the king of Sicily. The author claims that in order for this to be solved, Orsini turned to the Pope who solved the issue in Orsini's favour.
Afterwards, the author states that to please the Pope, Orsini was made to organise a crusade to Palestine called the Ionian Crusade. I have searched the internet for this and found nothing. Can anybody give me any sources?
Thanks a lot!
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/d1c67c/did_an_ionian_crusade_happen/
|
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"Do you have any more information about this book? I can't seem to find anything about it, but I imagine it might be in Greek?\n\nIn any case, Matteo (or Maio) is a rather enigmatic figure. It's not clear that he was really an Orsini, or where he was from. He may have just been some random irate that took advantage of the Fourth Crusade to seize Cephalonia, Corfu, Ithaka, and Zakynthos. He took the side of whoever would support him, whether Genoa, the pope, or Venice. It's certainly possible that while he was under papal protection, the pope asked him to go on crusade to the Holy Land, but that doesn't necessarily mean he did, or that there would necessarily be any record of it if he did.\n\nDoes the book mention any medieval sources for this information?"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
4ny6w3
|
How much did the Mashal plan, and things like it contribute to the recovery of Europe and Japan post WWII?
|
I've often heard about the importance of the U.S. in rebuilding these countries after WWII, but always have really wondered to what degree it really contributed to their recovery. It sounds reasonable, but I'm always skeptical especially when it comes to stuff like this where patriotic fervor can cloud historical fact. Thanks in advance to anyone who can help shed some light on this topic!
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4ny6w3/how_much_did_the_mashal_plan_and_things_like_it/
|
{
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"It was quite helpful. While it only constituted roughly 5% of the GDP of the areas in which it was rolled out, as a morale boost, it had a tremendous effect. America emerged from the war with a GDP worth about 45% of the world's. It was largely untouched by bombs (Pearl Harbor and the Aleutians aside), had immense industrial capacity that had grown ever since it began supplying the Allies in 1940, and had claimed most of the world's gold reserves through its loans to the Allied powers starting in 1914. Thus, in 1945, when Europeans could very easily see the [world as having ended](_URL_0_), America's Marshall Plan came as an amazing assurance that everyone would get through this together.\n\nIn addition, it can't be overstated how important the private sector was in post-war reconstruction. Remember, Marshall Plan aid was to be used for the purchase of American goods, since America had developed such industrial capacity during the war that by 1945 & 6, without the demands of Total War, America was already slipping into a recession predicated on overproduction. So the Marshall Plan was meant to be a government subsidy to domestic corporate interests in a way that would also revive a strong European standard of living (read: consumption).\n\nBefore the war, American companies such as Woolworth's and Gillette had made inroads into the European market. But after the war, domestic European companies had been displaced and disrupted, and, perhaps most importantly, social mores of who shops where for what had been destroyed by the apocalyptic struggle. So American corporations were given carte blanche to show up with mass produced consumer items, available to all levels of society. This combined with populations who were fed up with war and demanded real change, especially in terms of quality of life. American advertising also played a huge role, convincing people that cheaply manufactured American products like refrigerators were not just the playthings of the aristocracy, but readily accessible material goods that were not just luxuries, but necessities of modern life.\n\nThe Marshall Plan is laughably small when seen today ($103 Billion in 2015 USD; compare that to our previous couple wars or bailouts), but its main purpose was to jumpstart various industries and really whole economies which had been halted while the continent devoured itself in war. That said, it truly was a terrifically successful plan which benefited most people whom it affected. From the Greek farmers who got their Missouri mules to French perfume makers who had their factories rebuilt and their customer base expanded to the wider populations of Europe and America to the American manufacturers and their employees who could count on well off Europeans to buy their products, the Marshall Plan shows how a stimulus, if executed correctly, can transform and revivify a totally destroyed society.\n\nSources:\nPaul Kennedy, *Rise and Fall of the Great Powers* \nVictoria de Grazia, *Irresistible Empire*: This is where all my info on consumption came from. Sorry if that was in a different direction than you were hoping, but I've been reading this book recently and it's a truly tremendous history on how America came to occupy a commercial and cultural hegemony in the 20th and 21st century"
]
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|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.worldfuturefund.org/wffmaster/Reading/war.crimes/World.war.2/killingcivilian.jpg"
]
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|
2sino3
|
How does the elemental composition of 'average' planets change over a universe's lifetime?
|
Since heavy elements (i.e. anything other than H and He) need stars to produce them, and can only be incorporated into planets after that star has died, the proportion of heavy elements has definitely increased since the beginning of the universe. So my question is this: How are the ratios of elements that make up typical rocky planets throughout the universe expected to change as the universe ages? And will this result in considerably different conditions such as surface gravity and development of life?
The reason I ask is actually because of the world of Avatar (the one with airbending and fewer giant blue people). The world in which it is set seems to be smaller than ours by a considerable margin, but with apparently the same surface gravity and extremely high availability of platinum.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2sino3/how_does_the_elemental_composition_of_average/
|
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"I think the answer to your question is kind of tricky, since it is a fantasy universe, you could say the planet has a platinum core for magical reasons. \n\nIn the real universe, iron is the heaviest element in any abundance because anything heavier is formed by relatively rare events like supernova explosions. Iron is the heaviest common element because it is the last layer in stars and does not undergo fusion. \n\nThe material that makes up planets in our solar system is not a homogeneous mixture either. Consider Mercury, which has a very large iron core for its size. [Despite that large iron core, it has about the same density of Earth because it is a smaller size and therefore doesn't compact it down.](_URL_0_) So, the composition doesn't really have a huge effect on gravity as the size does. If the rest of the universe is similar to our solar system, then it's unlikely for a habitable, smaller world to have the same gravity as Earth.",
"There was a [Scientific American article](_URL_0_) which said that the ratio of heavier elements to hydrogen will increase in interstellar dust clouds due to supernova explosions sending heavier elements outward. Because of this, in the far future, stars will cough up more planets, including planets that are small and rocky, like Earth. Quote from article:\n\n > Despite the diminishing rate of star formation, perhaps half or two thirds of all the planets that will ever exist have yet to be born.\n\nIn addition, stars will be smaller, because of less available hydrogen to form new stars. Smaller stars are not a problem though for life (the habitable zone will just be closer to the star), so in the far future the universe will be more hospitable for life, because there will be more habitable planets. Quote from article:\n\n > At first, the proliferation of planets does not seem promising for life. Most of the stars of the far future will be much less massive and less luminous than the sun. Fortunately, even a low-mass, dim star can allow life to flourish. A star with as little as one one-thousandth of the sun's luminosity can maintain temperatures that allow liquids to exist on close-in planets, satisfying what seems to be a requirement for living things to exist.\n\nAnd more:\n\n > Planets should not only grow generally more common but also be enriched in the stuff of life. In addition to requiring a liquid bath, life on Earth, as well as almost all other forms of life that scientists speculate about, depends on the existence of carbon, nitrogen and oxygen. As time goes on, the increasing relative abundance of these elements should yield planets more hospitable to life. Therefore, as star formation steadily diminishes, every newborn star should appear with a progressively greater probability of lighting one or more potential life-bearing planets. Some of these new stars will have the low masses and tiny luminosities that allow them to last for hundreds or thousands of billions of years (not that such immense lifetimes seem necessary for the origin and evolution of life). However full or empty of life the universe may be today, it should teem with more abundant and more varied forms of life in the future.\n\nEDIT: got access to article. Can add in more details.",
"People have talked about multiples of billions of years into the future. Let's push it towards 10^1500 years from now.\n\nFor those of you reading this on Alien Blue, and you can't see the superscript, that was ten to the power of one thousand five hundred. A 10 with 1,500 zeroes after it.\n\nThanks to cold fusion occurring via [quantum tunnelling](_URL_0_), all the light nuclei in ordinary matter will eventually fuse into iron-56 nuclei (see the answer by /u/doughcastle01 for why the universe has this drive to become this isotope of iron, the most abundant form of the element in the universe). Fission and alpha-particle emission should make heavy nuclei also decay to iron, leaving stellar-mass objects as cold spheres of iron, called [iron stars](_URL_1_). It's all down to something called nuclear binding energy, which you can [read about here.](_URL_3_) FE-56 is the point in matter like the bottom of a curve. It's matter's natural resting state after enough time.\n\nThat's all assuming a future without proton decay. The idea of proton decay is [totally hypothetical](_URL_2_), and recent experiments at the Super-Kamiokande water Cherenkov radiation detector in Japan gave lower limits for proton half-life, at 90% confidence level, of 6.6×10^33 years via antimuon decay and 8.2×10^33 years via positron decay. Newer, preliminary results estimate a half-life of no less than 1.29×10^34 years via positron decay. Again: Alien Blue readers will miss that I was talking about 10 to the 33rd and 34th power of years. Our universe is less than 1.4 x 10^10 years old.",
"The unfortunate answer is that we don't really know, at least for the majority of the periodic table. Galactic chemical evolution is a very active research topic in astronomy. Now with regards to planets, we have a fairly good idea that the Galaxy is not well mixed with regards to a lot of the planet building elements (see: _URL_0_) and this means for quite a bit of diversity in terrestrial planet composition (my area of research). So while temporally the average elemental weight of the Galaxy gets heavier (although minute amounts if you take H and He into account), spatially the Galaxy may be \"clumpy.\" "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.universetoday.com/13992/composition-of-mercury/"
],
[
"http://www.scientificamerican.com/article/could-life-survive-in-the-universe-s-far-distant-future/"
],
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_tunnelling",
"http://arstechnica.com/civis/viewtopic.php?f=26&amp;amp;t=1224905",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proton_decay",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuclear_binding_energy"
],
[
"http://www.aanda.org/articles/aa/abs/2012/09/aa19401-12/aa19401-12.html"
]
] |
|
e29rnk
|
Did medieval cities have addresses like we do today?
|
Let's say you have a relative in some other city and he invited you to visit. You never were in said city, so how would he tell you where exactly is his house? Would it be "next to the bakery, 3rd building to the south with green door" or did they use street names and house numbers?
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/e29rnk/did_medieval_cities_have_addresses_like_we_do/
|
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"This being the European Middle Ages, the land where people spelled their name however they felt like that particular day (Beutler, Buetler, Beutlerin, Buttler, Bettlerein, Bütler...), it should not come as a surprise that addresses were likewise, shall we say, *less than systematic.*\n\nA good example might be University of Paris financial records from the 14th century, tracking where some of the students and teachers live. What's not visible from the record itself is that medieval cities were divided into sections (sometimes \"quarters,\" although rarely precisely 4) that had names. Sometimes they might actually be descriptive--a Dyers' Quarter might actually host most of the dyer population, since they needed good water access--but not necessarily.\n\nThe most important thing for addresses seems to have been street name. However. Not all addresses have them! Some students' residences are described as \"by the gate of [p]\" or \"next to the monastery of [q].\"\n\nAnd then there's that frustrating bit in Eric Jager's excellent *Blood Royal* (a.k.a. CSI:Medieval Paris), where he keeps talking about the House of the Virgin Mary and the House of the Shepherds (or whatever; I'm spitballing) and it seems very serious and formal. No, he's basically talking about apartment buildings. \n\nJust like businesses were marked off by symbols (think today's barber's pole or blue-and-green pharmacy cross), non-commercial buildings often had their own name. Surviving examples, and written evidence like the manuscripts Jager used, denote a statue or mold set into a recess in the building's wall. I always think of the *Fellowship of the Ring* chapter: \"At the *Sign* of the Prancing Pony\". (As Middle-Earth is NOT the Middle Ages, however, Tolkien felt and deserved to feel free to give it whatever literacy rates he wanted).\n\nI hope that helps clarify things a little!",
"To piggyback off of the answer by /u/sunagainstgold - medieval and early modern Middle Eastern cities were also divided into named neighborhoods (usually called محله/mahalla), the number and exact boundaries of which changed over time. As houses lacked specific addresses, someone seeking out a specific building or a specific person would have to resort to asking people for directions, but this was more reliable than it sounds. Neighborhoods were small enough, and communal bonds were tight enough, that any given inhabitant of a neighborhood would likely know of most other inhabitants of the neighborhood, or at the very least would know whom to ask in order to find out. This can be observed in the Sharia court records of the Ottoman period, in which one might find someone's dwelling described as follows: \"a house located in Lala Pasha Neighborhood, bounded on two sides by a public road, on one side by the house of Shaykh Muhammad ibn Shaykh Ahmed, on another side by the house of Sinan Ağa,\" with the expectation that everyone would be familiar with who those people were and where they lived such that they could use them as reference points to spatially orient themselves. Or even more explicitly: \"a house in Lala Pasha neighborhood, the boundaries of which are well known.\"\n\nStreet names were quite rare, although if this differs from Europe it may be because the design of Middle Eastern cities often entailed narrow, winding streets not meant for vehicles to be able to pass through (Anatolia partially excepted, wheeled vehicles were almost entirely replaced by animal transport in the Middle East between Late Antiquity and the 19th century). On the other hand, buildings intended for public use could have proper names, including those founded by private persons. For example, I've encountered in 17th-century Ankara both a \"Hook Inn\" (*Çengâl Hânı*) and a \"Copper Inn\" (*Bakır Hânı*), the latter equipped with \"a coffeehouse and sixteen shops.\" Houses could be described in reference to such buildings, or in reference to other landmarks, natural or otherwise."
]
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|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
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|
1u7d1e
|
Were there any Roman stone castles?
|
When you think of Roman architecture, you generally picture marble columns and villas, or perhaps walls and roads. Did they build any massive stone castles?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1u7d1e/were_there_any_roman_stone_castles/
|
{
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"Yes, of course. The great [Theodosian Land Walls](_URL_0_) of Constantinople are perhaps the most notable examples of Roman achievement in fortifications. Many technical innovations in Western castle construction came after experiences in the East, on crusade.",
"The Romans built many great stone forts. \n\nThe word \"castle\" is usually used to refer to the private fortified residence of a noble (though not always, there are Royal Castles, and castles of the military orders as well as the castles of nobility in Medieval times). The Romans did not build many (any?) of these types of \"castles\".\n\nSome Roman stone forts still exist. Portchester Castle in Hampshire, England, is a well preserved example. (The Roman fort was re-purposed as a castle in Medieval times, and a Medieval stone keep built in one corner of the old Roman fort). The outer walls, built of stone by the Romans were the walls built to create a fort to defend the \"Saxon Shore\" of Britain against Saxon incursions."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Walls_of_Constantinople"
],
[]
] |
|
inp4f
|
Is plant breeding and animal domestication considered evidence of evolution?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/inp4f/is_plant_breeding_and_animal_domestication/
|
{
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"text": [
"Yes. Although the primary force of evolution driving changes in domesticated organisms is artificial selection rather than natural selection (at least initially). "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
3so9jm
|
what is the difference between a sponsorship and an advertisement?
|
My local public radio always says that it is a "commercial free radio platform," and yet has several sponsorships that they introduce after every music block. I'm not complaining; I love my public radio. I'm just unclear on the difference.
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3so9jm/eli5what_is_the_difference_between_a_sponsorship/
|
{
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"text": [
"What you're referring to is more frequently called underwriting. \"Underwriting\" and \"sponsoring\" can usually be used interchangeably (some organizations draw distinctions, though), but the FCC sets the rules for broadcasters and they call it underwriting. \n\nWhen you pay for an advertisement, you are paying for some amount of airtime and can have the station play pretty much anything you want that doesn't otherwise violate general broadcast rules.\n\nWhen you underwrite a program, you give money to the program to support it generally in exchange for recognition that you are an underwriter. There are much greater limitations on what qualifies as recognizing an underwriter. I don't have a list of all the rules on me, but generally you can't make any calls to action (that's why you always hear \"more information at _URL_0_\" instead of \"go to _URL_0_ to find out more\"), give price information, induce people to make specific purchases, or make qualitative claims about products. \n\nYou've probably noticed most sponsor recognition announcements on NPR state the company's slogan, something about how the company likes public radio, a positive bit about the company's history, and then tell you where to find out more information about the company. The reason they follow that formula is that it gives a good impression of the company without violating FCC rules on underwriting."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"www.xyz.com"
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|
1z77ky
|
Why were book titles of the 19th and 18th century so long, as well as give away the plot?
|
I think the most notable example that comes to mind is Robinson Crusoe, whose full title is:
*The Life and Strange Surprizing Adventures of Robinson Crusoe, Of York, Mariner: Who lived Eight and Twenty Years, all alone in an un-inhabited Island on the Coast of America, near the Mouth of the Great River of Oroonoque; Having been cast on Shore by Shipwreck, wherein all the Men perished but himself. With An Account how he was at last as strangely deliver'd by Pyrates.*
But 12 Years a Slave does a similar thing, its title being
*12 Years a Slave Narrative of Solomon Northup, citizen of New-York, kidnapped in Washington city in 1841, and rescued in 1853, from a cotton plantation near the Red River in Louisiana.*
Was this how the plots of books were advertised back then? And if so, why do they essentially spoil the entire plot?
small hanger question, why did "pyrates" change to "pirates" over time?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1z77ky/why_were_book_titles_of_the_19th_and_18th_century/
|
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"We discussed this quite a bit in my 18th Century British Novel class. You're on the right track with advertising. The long titles got people interested and piqued their curiosity. Also, keep in mind that the 18th century marked the very beginnings of the novel itself. Up until then, there were none. There were epics and romances, but not novels as we know them now. Many of those in the upper class viewed them as not worthy of their time, and many authors of the first novel were writing for the growing middle class, which was becoming literate in large numbers for the first time. \n\nSomeone else will probably have a better answer. I'd love to read it. \n\nAs far as the spelling change you mentioned, I'd say that could just be attributed to language evolution. That was pretty common (and still is). But someone at /r/linguistics would definitely be able to answer that one more specifically. It likely has to do with vowel shifts, but I'm not a linguist.",
"Well, with *12 Years a Slave*, it was a true story that was in the papers. By providing all that information, people could be more certain that that was the story they'd read about in the paper. So it was advertising of a sort. And with *Robinson Crusoe*, that was somewhat based on a true story [of Alexander Selkirk]--a true story that had piqued the interest of the public. The long title may have served to remind people of that original tale. On the other hand, novels of that time didn't necessarily have such long titles. They needed to convey the propriety of the book quickly, though. Certain books would not have been considered proper for an unmarried woman, for example. *Tom Jones* was entirely fictional, published in 1749, and had the full title *The History of Tom Jones, a Foundling*. A pretty short title that nevertheless showed it might be risque. But each chapter had a really long title that often mocked the convention of long titles, as the chapter titles told in detail what was going to happen in the chapter, or else were titled things like \"Containing LIttle or Nothing\" or \"Being the Shortest Chapter in this Book.\"",
"You also have to remember that most novels started out serialized back then. Novels would be published one chapter at a time in magazines, journals, or even newspapers, so one novel might be serialized for a year or more in a magazine before it was actually finished. One reason for the extra-long titles would be to pique the attention of new readers and give them a synopsis of the plot, so they wouldn't be completely lost.",
"On a tangential note, early films did the same thing, with text placards that would delineate the scene yet to unfold.",
"There isn't a really good answer as to *why* titles were so long. They could just as easily ask us why our titles now are so short. That being said, there are a few considerations that could help us to understand why they did it so differently than us. I'm just building on what dark_haired_girl pointed out so well, that the novel had to find ways to promote itself in a time before it asserted its cultural dominance in the 19th century.\n\nAlso, your question should really be about pre-modern (generally 17th century) and 18th century books, because the 19th century had generally ended the practice of these long-winded titles. As I pointed out [here](_URL_0_) the serialized novel in the 19th century could not afford to have such long titles, since space in the newspaper or magazine was very precious. The 19th century was also the beginning of standardized printing practices that allowed for a \"trade binding\": a book cover with art and promotional material. I always use the beautiful example of the [Hetzel editions of Jules Verne](_URL_1_) to show how very commercial the book cover business had become by the mid 19th century. The 18th century hadn't yet adopted these advertising practices, so the interest of books had to be explained in plain language on the first page. \n\nPeople at the time fully understood that the long titles were basically secondary description around the title itself. No one referred to Robinson Crusoe as \"The Life and Strange Surprizing Adventures of Robinson Crusoe, Of York, Mariner etc. etc\". Even when the title was something short(ish) like \"Candide, ou l'optimisme\" (\"Candide, or Optimism\") from 1759, no one would have thought to call Voltaire's book \"Optimism,\" as they all knew the real title was \"Candide.\" \n\nTo give you a better idea of how these titles functioned, take a closer look at Candide. Even though its title isn't as rambling as others in the 18th century, its chapter divisions truly are. The first beings with \"How Candide was raised in a beautiful castle, and how he was chased from it.\" This isn't really a chapter \"title,\" it's more of a table of contents. The book is announcing to you what you'll be encountering in this part of the book. You might also recognize this practice in Don Quixote (or any number of other pre-19th century books), which begins each of its chapters with a run-down of its contents. Now, we're back in familiar territory. Contemporary readers would not at all find it strange that a book would provide you with a table of categorical divisions, with some sort of indication of what each division contains. In fact, many publishers require books to have a table of contents. The practice is less-prevalent with novels, but it's still not unheard of. \n\nThe long titles served the same purpose as these chapter introductions: they prepared the reader to encounter the book. They gave the reader a good idea of what to expect, and in doing so, presented itself as a desirable thing to read. You say that this spoils the plot, but they usually tried to avoid giving specifics away. In your example of Robinson Crusoe, that last line - \"strangely delivr'd by Pyrates\" - actually doesn't explain anything. It poses more questions that it answers. Why did the pirates free him? How did he negotiate with them? How did he manage to stay alive? \n\nRobert Darnton wrote a lot about the history of the book in the 18th century. His book \"The Business of the Enlightenment: a Publishing History of the Encyclopedie 1775-1800\" is a great start. Gerard Genette's \"Seuils\" is a good French-language theoretical framework that deals with a book's \"thresholds\": its title, the book's binding, the table of contents. If you read French, Genette's book is a real pleasure. Finally, if you ever need a reason to learn French, do it so you can read \"Histoire de l'édition française\" (dir: Roger Chartier), which is a four-volume series of essays on the history of the book in France. Never have I seen such a monumental book in a relatively new field. "
]
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|
42mbd9
|
why is being on your tippy toes so important to ballet?
|
[/r/GetMotivated/42l1q1/!](_URL_0_)
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/42mbd9/eli5_why_is_being_on_your_tippy_toes_so_important/
|
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"Pointe technique (French: [pwɛ̃t tɛknik]) is the part of classical ballet technique that concerns pointe work, in which a ballet dancer supports all body weight on the tips of fully extended feet. A dancer is said to be en pointe when the dancer's body is supported in this manner, and a fully extended vertical foot is said to be en pointe when touching the floor, even when not bearing weight. Pointe work is performed while wearing pointe shoes, which employ structural reinforcing to distribute the dancer's weight load throughout the foot, thus reducing the load on the toes enough to enable the dancer to support all body weight on fully vertical feet.\n\n**Pointe technique resulted from a desire for female dancers to appear weightless and sylph-like**. Although both men and women are capable of pointe work, it is most often performed by women. Extensive training and practice are required to develop the strength and technique needed for pointe work."
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zrp2w
|
Wednesday AMA | World War One, Early 20th C. English Literature
|
Sorry to be a few minutes late in starting, but I'll be here all day!
I am a part-time professor in the English department at a large Canadian university.
My professional focus is the literature of the Great War, and I have a number of ongoing projects related to this. The one that governs my work generally is the degree to which my discipline has selectively and imperfectly incorporated the history of the war into how we teach its attendant literature, whether it be the memoirs of Sassoon or Graves, the novels of Remarque or Harrison, or the poetry of Rosenberg or Owen. The project to which I'm currently giving most of my time involves the study of the British propaganda agencies at Wellington House (under Charles Masterman) and Crewe House (under Lord Northcliffe), with a particular focus on how each employed mainstream authors -- like Rudyard Kipling, Arthur Conan Doyle, H.G. Wells, and so on -- in the production of propaganda material for use at home and abroad.
This work has generated a deep interest for me in the history of the war generally, and the continued study of it pretty much animates my life, at this point.
Beyond that, my area of specialization is the literature of the early 20th century (primarily in a British context), and I'd be delighted to get some questions about that too.
So, I'm here to discuss the First World War, English literature (from all periods, really), being a part-time professor, being at the intersection of disciplines, and pretty much anything else you might have on your mind. Just try me!
**EDIT:** I'm letting a few questions accrue while I eat lunch, but will begin to answer them shortly. I have a feeling there are going to be a lot of them, so upvote the ones you most want to see answered first!
**EDIT 2:** My answers sometimes take a long time to write, so please forgive the sluggishness of my output, here. Nevertheless, it is my hope (o god) to answer every question throughout the day.
**EDIT 3:** Wow, questions coming in thick and fast! I'm doing my best to get to all of them, so thanks for your patience. Best practice would be to just take them in order, but I've found it easier to just do them as they catch my eye, so to speak. My apologies to those who asked questions early but have still yet to receive an answer.
**EDIT 4:** Taking a short break for supper, but will be back soon! And yes, I am still determined to answer every question, fool that I am -__-
**EDIT 5:** Still answering away; the last one was supposed to be short but turned into the longest yet, alas. It's coming along!
**FINAL EDIT:** Alright! I will try to answer all existing questions, but any new ones that come in might not be so lucky. It's 8:30PM EST here and I've got a class to teach tomorrow, so I need to start focusing on that instead. Thanks very much to everyone for your contributions!
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/zrp2w/wednesday_ama_world_war_one_early_20th_c_english/
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"Ok. So there's this comedian, can't recall him name though, who talked about the reasons behind WW1. He had a narrative going linking supposed German railroad ambitions between Berlin and Baghdad and abundance of oil in \"Mesopotamia\". Then he went on to describe WW1 as the invasion of Iraq by Brittain. \n\nDo you know this comedians name? Also; is any of this remotely true? ",
"I don't know what it's like in other countries, but when I was in school - in the English system - our English Lit classes made a clear cut distinction between pre-1914 and post-1914 literature. Well, we didn't specifically study 'post-1914' literature, but there was a 'pre-1914' module, which was Victorian literature really, I suppose. I was always curious as to why this distinction was made. \n\nPerhaps it is an artificial distinction for the sake of making the teacher's/student's lives easier, but my question is, how did the nature of British literature change following the First World War?",
"Hello, and thanks for doing this AMA! Here are my questions:\n\n1. What were soldiers going into battle told about the reason they were going to war? Was it just \"beating back the Hun who's threatening our way of life\"? How politically conscious was the average soldier? Is there any example of WW1 soldier's diaries where they contemplate their actions and wonder what it is they're fighting for?\n\n2. In one of my courses about Israeli history, we discussed the public's reactions to the victory of the six-day war. Mainly, tons of euphoric victory albums displaying pictures of victories soldiers and captured enemy soldiers, and reactionary albums dealing with the mental trauma of the soldiers seeing their friends dying before them. Did such a thing exist in post WW1 literature? That is, how did contemporary writers \"digest\" the war experience? Can several \"waves\" or types of reaction be observed? How has this way of looking at WW1 changed as the world got closer and closer to WW2?\n\n3. In another course we've seen \"Paths of Glory\" by Kubrick while discussing WW1. Have you seen the movie, and, if so, How well does it represent the actual events in the trenches of WW1? \n\nOnce again, thanks for the AMA, looking forward to getting answrs.",
"I recently read \"Marching as to War\" by Pierre Burton, who comments a bit on WWI propaganda. His most eye-opening statement for me was how tightly controlled Canadian media was at the time, at times with Canadian censors deleting stories already approved by their British counterparts. Is this accurate?",
"As a senior in English at a uni in the us,I would like to know how you got into this field. My school doesn't have a WWI period researcher, so I haven't been able to get any kind of research experience as an undergrad, but I'd like to find out more about it, especially on WWI poetry. \n\nSo to put it more clearly\n* what kind of degrees/work did you do before that led to this?\n* how plentiful are professorships in great war field?",
"How accurate is Pat Barker's *Regeneration Triology* about Sassoon's life and about the psychiatric methods of Dr. Rivers?",
"Thanks for the AMA. I have two questions.\n\n1. How serious was the threat of those early U-Boats to the western alliance perceived? Could they truly brought England to her knees, or were they simply an extreme annoyance?\n\n2. If America had not intervened, what did the French and English leaderships anticipate happening? Did they think they would lose? Would they have been open to an armistice even sooner than actually happened? And did they know the German economy was close to collapse? ",
"Favourite piece of wartime literature?",
"How did the great war affect Canadian literature? ",
"I've read and read and I still have a difficult time retaining knowledge about the first world war. It still seems so foreign and confusing. Whereas the second world war seems so obvious and simple. I can picture and reference tons of pop culture, movies, names, battles, antagonists, protagonists, dates and so on from the second world war, but almost nothing from the first unless I really sit down and think about it, and even then I am just trying to remember things I read instead of having any actual confidence in what I am recalling. \n\nWhy do you think there is such a disparity between the way the two wars are taught, recalled, referenced? Is it because the second world war had a greater impact on American culture than the first? Is it because the second had a larger global impact than the first? \n\nYou have devoted so much of your time to WW1. Pretend I am a new student. What would you say to inspire me to attain comparable WW2 knowledge? I truly want to understand and appreciate WW1 better. It just won't stick. Thank you very much ",
"Why was there such a huge outpouring of literature during WW1 in a way that there wasn't in other conflicts of the time, like the Boer or Crimean wars. Was it just because of conscription widening the number of soldiers, or was there more to it than that? Is it even true, or just a commonly misheld conception? **edit: Just realised I didn't specify that I meant the literature was coming from the front line, or from soldiers, rather than simply people writing at the same time.**\n\nWhy do you think there's so little contemporary literature that deals with WW1, in contrast to WW2? ",
"I'm curious, what was the reaction among the public and common soldiers to tanks showing up during the war?\n\nWhile a WWI battlefield certainly wouldn't be a pleasant sight -- likely even more so than most other wars, a giant, mechanized metal box seems completely alien given that cavalry was still in mass use at the war's start. It seems like the perfect thing to trigger rampant bewilderment and speculation.",
"I conducted a research project in undergrad on Charles Mangin's _La force noire_ (1910) and the use of West Senegalese troops in France during World War I - specifically how their presence altered the French discourses of masculinity and of the \"citizen-soldier.\" This is a popular topic in French history, but I'm less familiar with the other national contexts. \n\nTo what extent was there a public or literary debate about the use of colonial natives - either as soldiers or as laborers - to aid the war effort in Britain? Did large numbers leave the periphery and take up temporary residence in the metropole, as happened in France? And did this have any effect on the national dialogues regarding citizenship and/or social roles?",
"I am very curious about what I call \"minorities\" in war, i.e. contributions in manpower done by countries which are not often in the spotlight or seen as main belligerents. My main question is regarding the soldiers from British West Indies. Together with the larger contingents of soldiers from overseas colonies, in particular India, there was a contingent of soldiers from the colonies of British West Indies participating on the Western Front - how much information are there available of their actions and history? What is the modern day remembrance of their participation? ",
"Why do you think all the \"serious\" writers in the post-war era (Heller, Pynchon, etc) looked to break away from pre-war literature as far as possible?",
"I know it's not *English* literature, but what is your stance on Ernst Jünger's \"In Stahlgewittern\"/\"Storms of Steel\"?\n\nThere are a *lot* of radically different interpretations and valuations ranging from appraisal to sheer disgust, especially in Germany. Some treat it as an anti-war novel, some as a precursor of Nazism. I would love to hear an opinion by an expert!",
"OK - I'll bite. I'm very curious about A. Conan Doyle's propaganda material. I'll also ask you about an author I've currently been reading a lot of Johh Buchan. As far as I can tell he was writing stories about England's valiant and brave WWI solders battling evil Germans_during_ WW1. Was he part of a concerted effort, or just a strong patriot?",
"As a Cold War guy I tend to like to lean back on my game theory a bit. It has occured to me (and no doubt others, but I've never bothered to look it up) that much of WWI had a Nash Equilibrium of \"hunker down in our trenches and shell the hell out of each other.\"\n\nIn other words, once both sides had drawn up trenches and the myth of offensive advantage was dispelled by bitter experience, there seems to have been little meaningful incentive to attack. The winning strategy, at least in terms of causing your opponent the maximum number of casualties while losing the least yourself, seems to have been to sit tight, patrol your defenses, and wait to be attacked.\n\nYet, this seems not to have happened all that much. Throughout the war both sides had a sort of fixation on an \"over the top\" attack which would route the enemy and win them the war.\n\nWhy? What drove both sides to continue to grind away with infantry charges despite their horrific costs?",
"What is your opinion of the Canadian historian D J Goodspeed ? He wrote a good biography about Eric Lundendorff, and his 1977 book \"The German Wars 1914-1945\" have been influntial to me. I realize his work is more than thirty years old, but is there some other reason why his two important books seem to have fallen by the way-side ?",
"Ages ago, I came across a rumour that the US entered the war because the US were concerned that their loans to the British would not be repaid if the Germans won.\n\nThe rumour ran that after Wilson was so horribly cold shouldered at Versailles a congressional committee of enquiry, or some such, was set up to investigate why the US got involved and came to this conclusion.\n\nA conclusion that was discreetly buried shortly after it was made.\n\nHave you come across this rumour?\n\nCould there be any substance to it?\n",
"If you were to pick one movie scene older or classic to show to high school students to show them what trench warfare on the Western Front was like, what would it be? Currently I plan on showing the \"over the top\" scene from Paths of Glory, but I was wondering if you had another favorite scene?",
"This is a fantastic AMA, I'm definitely going to read every response after dinner!\n\nFor now, though, I've got one question - what's the significance of a commission? I often see the word used in literature about the war, and in history texts - as in, so-and-so got a commission. I understand that upper class men received commissions, and that commissions were given to officers, but the whole delineation between commissoned/enlisted/etc has always confused me, and it's never explained properly in any book I've read recently. \n\nThanks so much for this! "
]
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fjoop6
|
How popular were Jainism and Buddhism across the Indian subcontinent around 769 AD?
|
If you play Crusader Kings 2 that date may be significant for you, because it’s the earliest start date available. The Indian subcontinent was only relatively recently added to the game and hasn’t received nearly as much love as other regions.
A notable feature of the landscape is that Jainism is portrayed as extremely popular and widespread with Buddhism similarly to a lesser extent. In contrast, Hinduism is shown as less popular with the people and geographically isolated but very popular with the ruling class.
So is this anywhere near accurate?
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/fjoop6/how_popular_were_jainism_and_buddhism_across_the/
|
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"While it's hard to speak with certainty for this time period in particular, it's unlikely Jainism was the dominant belief system in India at this time. A more convincing argument could be made for Buddhism as the dominant tradition among the ruling class, while the faith of the people had likely remained eclectic.\n\nThe period in question (\\~769 CE) falls within a relatively poorly documented period in North Indian history. The political turmoil following the death of Emperor Harshavardhana (c. 590–647 CE) of the Vardhana Dynasty led to a roughly 150 year gap in extensive contemporary writing. By contrast, the reign of Emperor Harshavardhana is among the most extensively documented in Indian history, with surviving records from multiple sources. The most important of these are the *Harshacharita* (\"The Deeds of Harsha\"), written by his court poet Bannabhatta, and the writings of the Chinese monk Xuanzang, who visited the court of Harsha and travelled extensively through India. A contrasting text roughly dating to after this fallow historic period is the *Shankara Digvijaya*, detailing the exploits of the Hindu philosopher Adishankara (born c. 788 CE). Overlaying these texts gives us some context for the religious makeup of India during the period in questions.\n\nIt's worth remembering that the faith of the lay public probably remained eclectic, drawing from disparate traditions, and moving fluidly across them. The ruling elite patronized religious institutions of all faiths, and this seemed to be reflected among the public. For example, decorative panels offered at Buddhist stupas demonstrate that Hindu merchants were also keen to seek the blessings of the Buddha. Emperor Harsha's court poet Banabhatta records Harsha as a devout Shaivite, while Xuanzang notes him to be a devout Buddhist. Both sources record Harsha donating generously to holy men regardless of their tradition. Xuanzang records a yearly charitable event for monks. While four days each were set aside for Hindu and Jain monks, 16 days were set aside for the Buddhist monks. It's unclear if the disparity was due to imperial favouratism, or simply reflects a skew in the number of holy men from each tradition. If Banabhatta is to be believed that Harsha was a devoted Hindu, then Xuanzang's record of the number of days would suggest that the Buddhist monks were much more numerous in the empire. This version of events is also supported by the concerns of writings of the traditions themselves. For example, the Hindu texts composed leading up to this period (The age of the Sutras) are devoted to apologia for their own philosophical school, and polemics against other philosophical schools, including other Hindu schools and the Buddhists (and to a lesser extent, the Jains). Contrast this with the writings of the Buddhists during the same period, and they are relatively unconcerned with the Hindus, who are treated as a philosophically spent force. The force of the arguments are reserved against rival Buddhist schools. Whether this is the blossoming of Buddhist commentary writing in general, or reflects the headspace of Buddhist writers as chiefly occupied with the heresies of other nominal Buddhists is anybody's guess.\n\nIf we now incorporate the religious landscape as laid out in the late 8th century *Shankara Digvijaya*, the Buddhists are established as the dominant religious tradition in the country. Shankara's writings are aimed towards solving the theological arguments raised by the Buddhists, and they are his chief rivals. It's also likely that the cultural importance of the Buddhists as an opposing force is overblown in the *Digvijaya*, to further enhance the cache associated with Shankara for defeating them. Nevertheless, when the *Digvijaya* was composed in the generation following Shankara, it wouldn't make sense to prop up the Buddhists as the chief rivals if they hadn't been a major force within living memory. This disparate sources of evidence would suggest that the Buddhists had been a major religious tradition at least upto the 8th Century CE. This time period also represents a major shift in the Buddhist schools in Northern India at the time, with the Theravada school losing out to Mahayana, and eventually Vajrayana.\n\nNone of these sources hold the Jains as a significant political or cultural power during this time period. While they were significant *communities* of Jains in South India, I am unfamiliar with a widespread Hindu or Buddhist engagement with them, though I could be mistaken."
]
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1lbwu4
|
how you become eligible to be knighted and the process that follows
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1lbwu4/eli5_how_you_become_eligible_to_be_knighted_and/
|
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"I thought you had to be british, and have done something the queen recognized as worthwhile for the country (business, sport, celebrity, etc)",
"The most common Order of Chivalry is The Most Excellent Order of the British Empire, which has five \"ranks.\" From highest to lowest, these are:\n\n1. Knight Grand Cross or Dame Grand Cross of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (GBE), limited to 300\n1. Knight Commander or Dame Commander of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (KBE or DBE), limited to 845\n1. Commander of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (CBE), limited to 8,960\n1. Officer of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (OBE)\n1. Member of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (MBE)\n\nGBE and KBE/DBE automatically make the recipient a knight (male) or a dame (female), which allows them to use the title \"Sir [Name]\" or \"Dame [Name].\" Note that these honorifics are used only before the first name, so you would, e.g., refer to Sir Patrick Stewart or Sir Patrick, but never Sir Stewart.\n\nAs part of the British honours system, membership in the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire is a **means of rewarding individuals' personal bravery, achievement, or service to the United Kingdom and the British Overseas Territories**. All members of the order are appointed by the current British monarch, who is Sovereign of the Order. Typically, they do this under the advice of the governments of Britain and the Commonwealth. No more than 858 Officers and 1,464 Members may be appointed per year.\n\nOther Orders of Chivalry include the Order of the Garter and the Order of the Thistle. Some Orders of Merit also come with an honorary knighthood at their highest ranks. Men may also be knighted separately from membership in one of these orders, giving them the rank of Knight Bachelor (Kt).\n\nOnly citizens of the United Kingdom and Commonwealth can be full members of these orders. Foreigners are considered honorary members only, and while they may use the letters after their name, they do not take the title of \"Sir\" or \"Dame.\"",
"How to be knighted\n\nStep 1) Be from the UK\nStep 2) Be at the very top of your profession and contribute to charity. A lot of musicians, actors and businesspeople would not of got their knighthood solely because of their profession; you do need to give a lot of your time and money to charity.\nStep 3) A committee acting on behalf of the queen will select you for a knighthood. Often you will have another title beforehand such as an MBE. See it as an upgrade.\nStep 4) Congrats. You get to visit Buckingham palace and kneel before the queen as she taps your shoulders with a sword.\nStep 5) you are now known as Sir Insomniac-Olympics\nStep 6) Nothing changes apart from every conversation you will ever have starts with \"Do I call you Sir..\"\nStep 7) If you get into politics then you can become a Lord. So as Lord Insomniac-Olympics you will sit in the House of Lords and discuss politics with other Lords and Baronesses (Female equivalent). The only power you have as a Lord is to delay legislation passed by the House of Commons which is the British government.\n\nThat's my basic understanding as a Brit, hope that helps.",
"Most excellent? Is this a 90s frathouse?",
"How to qualify for British honours. \n\nStep 1: Exist. \n\nThat's pretty much it. \n\nTo actually be made a member you have to be nominated, and to be able to use \"Sir\" or \"Dame\" you need to be a commonwealth citizen. The more more influence you have, the more important your contribution to something the more likely you are to get a better offer. If you helped found the british nuclear weapons programme, you go to the top of the list, the Order of the Garter, and you get to hang out once a year with the Royalty who are in the Order of the Garter for being royalty, and other people who have done super awesome stuff. If you did something in Entertainment expect to be a Knight Bachelor, and not in a specific order. \n\nThe most conceptually straightforward path to a knighthood is to be in the senior leadership of the British armed forces, or a Judge in England or Wales, although senior leadership in the armed forces does not guarantee a knighthood.. \n\nThe life peerages, i.e. the Lords, (barons, viscount earls, marquees, Dukes), are significantly more confusing. It was, until relatively recently conceptually striaghtforward, you either inherited the title, or a title was created for you, and you got a seat in the house of lords, and the title was passed down (if it was hereditary, or not if it wasn't). \n\nNow... not so clear. \n\nThere were, are, and will be Lords from the Church of england, but only a small number of them. But everything else is pretty much up in the air, lords reform has been on the books for a century and is a creeping mess of complex wrangling. There are life peers, hereditary peers, peers who don't show up who are likely to to lose their seats but maybe not their titles, there are some who lost their seats but not titles etc. etc. etc. \n\n"
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
tqy5s
|
Why do bags of chocolate inflate in the freezer?
|
I've noticed that bags of chocolate chips and andes mints tend to inflate and become pressurized in the freezer. The cold temperature should cause gas to lose volume, not gain it. The only thing I can think of is that chocolate is giving off some gas.
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/tqy5s/why_do_bags_of_chocolate_inflate_in_the_freezer/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c4p2etp"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"it contains water."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
3cblnr
|
why did different species of leaves evolve to be different? especially if they are from the same place, what's the point?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3cblnr/eli5_why_did_different_species_of_leaves_evolve/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cstzv8n"
],
"score": [
4
],
"text": [
"Things don't evolve 'because of a point,' evolution is a random process that occurs generation to generation. Natural selection tends to favor beneficial outcomes, which makes it look 'after the fact' like things have evolved specifically to fit their circumstances. \n\nSince the species you are referencing aren't the *same* species, they don't share the mutations amongst themselves from generation to generation, which means unless there's a strong selective pressure against it, you can see divergence of form. Basically, there's not some sort of 'leaf shape cop' going around and eliminating the changes."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
30yqy2
|
To what extent were Nelson's manoeuvres at the Battle of Trafalgar influenced by the tactical genius of Admiral Ackbar?
|
So, yeah, basically, how much were Nelson's tactics at the Battle of Trafalgar influenced by the works and actions of Admiral Ackbar? Just looking at the Ackbar Slash (_URL_0_), it looks like too much of a co-incidence that Nelson came up with his tactics independent of Admiral Ackbar? Would the works of Ackbar have been available to Nelson and the Royal Navy?
|
AskHistorians
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/30yqy2/to_what_extent_were_nelsons_manoeuvres_at_the/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cpx115x",
"cpx2is2",
"cpx4jij"
],
"score": [
3,
3,
3
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"text": [
"The tactics of the Rebellion are built more on speed than the perfidious Nelson. The Rebellion did not have the level of ship building nor material advantage to fight a large and lumbering opponent. I would argue that their tactics are more based off of the Danes fTom The Gunboat War rather than Nelson.",
"What is going on",
"The Ackbar Slash has been disputed by some as a post-hoc description of the tactics utilized at the Battle of Endor.\n\nTo understand why this might be the case, we should first examine the order of battle at Endor. \n\nIn his *Treatise on Intergalactic Warfare and Tactics*, Admiral Ackbar boasts his vehement support of the doctrine in which the collective firepower of the allied fleet would focuses their weapons on a specific, single target of importance. He further illustrates that in realizing that they had been lured into a trap and surrounded by the forces of the Empire, he turned to the advice of one of his subordinates, one Lando Calrisisan of Corlellia. \n\nBeing of Corellia, Lando's experience with the Naval Academy there had impressed upon him the importance of maneuvering to the enemy's disadvantage. In *New Republic*, Calrissian is quoted as having stated that when confronted with a superior force, it would generally be a superior alternative to place your own forces as close to the enemy as possible, in an attempt to disrupt the enemy's movement and ability to simply trade ship-for-ship using their superior numbers to win the day (in a worst-case scenario, for the larger force).\n\nI think perhaps we give too much credit to Ackbar and not enough to Calrissian, but the facts are that when combining Ackbar's strategy of concentrated firepower and Calrissian's strategy to close as close as possible, the Empire simply lacked the ability to respond adequately to the Rebel Fleet's rapid advance, underestimating their discipline in close-quarters as well (*Warfare and Tactics* 66).\n\nAs we saw later in Nelson's maneuver at Trafalgar, Nelson had actually slightly modified his earlier tactic from the Battle of the Nile (coined, \"crossing the T\") in favor of splitting his force into two lines, and running them through the French battle lines instead. In Nelson's case, this was in part due to the large number of assembled ships, and the weather gauge being against him. He had to approach the enemy whilst taking fire from the French broadsides while unable to return fire himself until his fleet had closed the distance and passed through the French lines.\n\nThis maneuver actually more closely resembles Calrissian's tactical suggestion at Endor than it does Ackbar's. That's not to dismiss Ackbar however, as the concentration of firepower was often key in the age of sail to whether down ships rapidly by focusing their fire on them one at a time, rather than spread their canon-shot amongst multiple ships (where possible).\n\nI suppose with any question of this nature the \"exact extent\" is a subjective judgement, but it remains apparent that Nelson's tactics were influenced by the Rebel Fleet's actions at the Battle of Endor. Whether that is more attributable to Ackbar, Calrissian, or both (my opinion), is up to you."
]
}
|
[] |
[
"http://starwars.wikia.com/wiki/Ackbar_Slash"
] |
[
[],
[],
[]
] |
|
8zz6c5
|
what is the difference between movies and films? also directors and filmmakers?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/8zz6c5/eli5_what_is_the_difference_between_movies_and/
|
{
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"score": [
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24,
4,
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2,
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"text": [
"I forgot who said it but .... “a movie , you see and forget about in a day or even an hour after leaving the cinema. While A film, is a movie that you see and you think about weeks , months or even years after seeing it and it’s meaning is still more relevant to you than ever.”\n\nA director is a certain specialization of a filmmaker. Like although all directors are considered filmmakers . Not all filmmakers direct. The term filmmakers is more broad while the term directors is specific. ",
"I'm pretty sure that a movie and a film for the most part are just two different words for the same thing. I guess if you really want to break it down you could say films can be of any length, like a short film, and a movie is generally thought of as a full length feature.\n\nAlso, the majority of mainstream movies are no longer shot on film like the used to be...\n\nBasically, unless you delving into it, most normal people just use them interchangeably.",
"Different people use these terms in different ways, and that doesn't necessarily mean that those uses are right or wrong. Personally, I use 'director' and 'filmmaker' completely interchangeably. My use of the other pair is more nuanced: To me, all movies are films and all films are movies, but if I'm talking about taking one seriously as a text and thinking about the most useful way to read it, I'm more likely to call it a film. Whereas if I'm just talking about watching one for mindless entertainment, I'm more likely to call it a movie. ",
"I always thought movie was American and film was British English. \n\nUltimately the same thing, but more common to say one thing in one country than the other.",
"\"Movie\" and \"film\" are just different words for the same thing. \n\nThough \"director\" and \"filmmaker\" can be used interchangeably, a filmmaker is understood to be anyone who is creatively responsible for the making of a film. Hence the plural \"the filmmakers\" when referring to the team behind the movie. An analogy here would be \"novelist\" and \"writer\"—one is a specific term, the other is a broader category.",
"I’m a professional film director and can answer your second question.\n\nAlmost everyone on a film set considers themselves filmmakers from the actors, camera operators, makeup artists, electrical crews, producers, even the accountants and catering crews. They are all equally important to making a film. If there was a job that could be sacrificed trust me the producers would have sacrificed it. Everyone is vitally important to making the film. \n\nA film director is a specific job. He’s usually like the captain of the ship. He or she steers the actors and crew through the journey of making a film. He usually has final say on set but he could be overruled by a producer. A producer is generally considered a directors boss and a producer could fire a director. They is why you’ll see directors often become producers as well so they have more control and are protected from firing. \n\nRegarding the difference between a movie and a film.. there isn’t really a difference in terms of contracts and the process of filming. There are some other terms we use that classify films on level for legal and money reasons but they wouldn’t make much sense to you. "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[],
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
tgfni
|
If the moon was covered in a mirror like material would it look like a second sun?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/tgfni/if_the_moon_was_covered_in_a_mirror_like_material/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c4mdxxe"
],
"score": [
7
],
"text": [
"No, in the same sense that a reflecting metal ball under a lamp does not look like a second lamp."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
||
4g8dre
|
During WW1 & 2, how were senior ranks in the new divisions filled?
|
It's not like armies had loads of Major Generals lying around in case they had a war, did they rapidly promote existing officers or have a selection process? This question could apply to non commissioned officers as well
|
AskHistorians
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4g8dre/during_ww1_2_how_were_senior_ranks_in_the_new/
|
{
"a_id": [
"d2ffb8o",
"d2fljbt"
],
"score": [
12,
2
],
"text": [
"During WWII, most, if not all, of the commanders of the new infantry and armored divisions (on paper, major generals, but brigadier generals did serve as acting division commanders often) were career officers that had begun their military experience fighting on the ground as enlisted men or low-grade officers in World War I, or had commanded outfits stateside. Most were over 50 years old. Immediately before the war, many had risen to command battalions and regiments, or were even assistant division commanders. In general, division commanders *were* promoted or selected from existing high-grade officer ranks, and many did advance quite quickly, two or three ranks in the span of two years. By virtue of command experience and length of service, they would not be overwhelmed by this. Only the best officers were selected to command divisions. \n\nWhen a [new division was to be activated](_URL_0_), the general officers (division commander, assistant division commander, artillery commander) were selected by Army Ground Forces Headquarters. The G-1 (manpower and personnel) section of the Army Ground Forces compiled a list of officers (not necessarily general officers yet) by efficiency rating that were already in the active Army and were eligible for promotions or transfers to such a position. This list was given to Lieutenant General Lesley McNair, head of the Army Ground Forces, who looked over it and made his nominations for division commanders to the War Department. The G-1 section picked the other positions off the list, subject to McNair's approval. The G-1 section also controlled the flow of division officers into their respective training schools, and then to the division's camp.\n\nThe G-3 (operations) section of the Army Ground Forces was responsible for facilitating and providing the general manpower strength to the new division, designating a camp for the division to train at, and informing all relevant agencies that needed to provide personnel and equipment for a new division that one was being activated. \n\nLower-grade officers like lieutenants were selected through training at Officer Candidate Schools and graduation from college ROTC programs. Before a division was to be activated, the officers underwent training relevant to their specific branches in order to best train the men they would command in their new division when it was activated. Noncommissioned officers generally advanced through promotion and training outcomes; all rifle squad leaders were \"bumped up\" from Sergeant to Staff Sergeant in mid-1943. Transfers during the training period and, later in the war, \"stripping\" of divisions that were stateside for want of replacements to send overseas diminished the cohesion of the divisions, who were supposed to stay together from day one of training until their first combat.\n\nSource:\n\n[*United States Army in World War II (The Army Ground Forces); The Procurement and Training of Ground Combat Troops*](_URL_1_), by Robert R. Palmer, Bell I. Wiley, and William R. Keast (Historical Section, Army Ground Forces)",
"John Bourne has a good lecture [here] (_URL_1_) about 'hiring and firing' in the British Expeditionary Force in WWI. I'd also recommend that you read his essay on Australian and British general officers in WWI in this collection [here] (_URL_0_). \n\nEDIT:\n\nThe bulk of the General Officers in the British and Commonwealth forces in WWI had served in their countries professional army prior to the war, either Regular Army in Britain or militia forces in Canada, Australia, etc. It appears that in the case of the British Army, the War Office kept a roster of senior officers who might be eligible to command forces in the future, and there were also officers who acted as 'talent scouts,' essentially, to add new names to the list if need be."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4etfvl/how_exactly_were_troops_mobilized_in_ww2/",
"http://www.history.army.mil/html/books/002/2-2/CMH_Pub_2-2.pdf"
],
[
"http://www.army.gov.au/~/media/Files/Our%20history/AAHU/Conference%20Papers%20and%20Images/1998/1998%201918%20Defining%20Victory.pdf",
"https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qSOHzMjobvs"
]
] |
|
5ywv4z
|
why were the the bodies of those who died of a fatal dose of radiation at the chernobyl disaster still considered toxic and buried in zinc lined coffins?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5ywv4z/eli5_why_were_the_the_bodies_of_those_who_died_of/
|
{
"a_id": [
"detiss1",
"detiuof",
"detix99"
],
"score": [
2,
3,
2
],
"text": [
"Radioactive fallout \n\nWhen Chernobyl exploded it not only sent out massive amounts of radiation but also massive amounts of radioactive material (fallout) which landed in the surrounding area rendering everything it touched (including human bodies) radioactive. ",
"Two things.\n\nFirst, they probably got radioactive material from the accident site all over themselves. It's not just radiation that's escaping, it's also actual physical radioactive material that can contaminate body and clothes. This what they mean by nuclear fallout. So it's not like a bullet-riddled body, but more like a gun-riddled body, and those guns still shoot occasionally.\n\nSecond, one specific kind of radiation, neutron radiation, can actually make materials it hits radioactive. Neutron radiation is produced in nuclear reactors, and although it's hard to say whether it'd be still produced after the meltdown, it depends, it's possible that they were exposed to it. Then it'd be more like bullet fragments inside a body growing into loaded guns.\n\nThose analogies were unexpectedly gross. ",
"1. Their skin was contaminated by fallout\n\n2. They may have inhaled radioactive material which will continue to decay\n\n3. Neutron bombardment can cause materials that were not previously radioactive to become radioactive."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[]
] |
||
16oruo
|
Does a prism divide beyond the visible spectrum? Beyond what we consider light? Where does the effect end, and what causes it to stop dividing the electromagnetic spectrum?
|
So we can all see that a prism will divide white light into the individual color spectrums, I'm guessing this effect extends to ultraviolet and infrared wavelengths, but is this the end of the prism effect? Does it divide further into the electromagnetic wavelengths, and if so how far and what causes it to finally no longer be able to divide spectrum?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/16oruo/does_a_prism_divide_beyond_the_visible_spectrum/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c7xxpfn"
],
"score": [
9
],
"text": [
"Yes, this was actually how infrared radiation was discovered: someone (~~I forget who~~ William Herschel) noticed that a thermometer in the path of the refracted light would still heat up even if it was below the red part. Ultimately it is determined by the wavelength-dependent index of refraction. For very high* and very low wavelengths the index is pretty close to 1.0. You can see some sample data for glass [on the right here](_URL_0_). And [here](_URL_1_) is an example graph over a similar range.\n\n*not 100% sure on that, someone correct me if I'm wrong."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.ispoptics.com/PDFs/PDFCatalog/page14.pdf",
"http://www.dow.com/cyclotene/images/refractive_wavelength.gif"
]
] |
|
1s9fhf
|
the difference between client, server, and driver.
|
It seems like everytime you need electronics to talk to eachother one of these things must facilitate. What is the difference between the three? (or more if I missed one that is similar)
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1s9fhf/eli5_the_difference_between_client_server_and/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cdv8ofu"
],
"score": [
2
],
"text": [
"Client and Server are related to each other. In the simplest terms, a client is an application that takes input, sends data to a Server to be processed, gets returned information, and presents the output.\n\nA driver, on the other hand, is something related to hardware. It basically contains a mapping/translation so that an operating system can communicate with hardware. To greatly oversimplify, if you have two printers and one expects data to be output as < page size > < colour layer > < black layer > , another expects < color layer > < black layer > < page size > , and a third wants < full image layer > < page size > , their appropriate drivers will translate the raw data before it leaves the operating system."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
1kgtrw
|
how do/did pirate radio stations get shut down?
|
When an unauthorized broadcast gets shut down or prosecuted, how did they locate the broadcaster?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1kgtrw/how_dodid_pirate_radio_stations_get_shut_down/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cbosrdj"
],
"score": [
4
],
"text": [
"Probably using a dish antenna, like satellite TV uses, and triangulation. The antenna picks up signal strongest from where it is pointing at, so they take three readings from three different places and trace the lines back to the source. Assuming that the signal is all they have to go on, this might take several tries, as the method is inaccurate from a long way off. But if they have some other clues that they could use to guess the general location of the broadcaster, then the amount of tries drops to as few as one."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
|
9w8tc9
|
why do some religions prohibit contraceptives?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/9w8tc9/eli5_why_do_some_religions_prohibit_contraceptives/
|
{
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3,
2,
2,
2
],
"text": [
"Answer. Math. More children = more faithful followers. Like learning a language children are going to be the most receptive and impressionable. ",
"I grew up Mormon. While I don't think it was prohibited, it was very frowned upon. The reasoning I heard was that Good commanded Adam and Eve to multiply. Contraceptives go against that because you aren't having kids. ",
"The official stance of LDS church on birth control...\n\n\"Decisions about birth control and the consequences of those decisions rest solely with each married couple.\"\n\n_URL_0_",
"Jehovah’s witness don’t condemn the use of contraceptive at all.\n\nCatholics, on the other hand...\nThey justify it by « only god is allowed to have a say on life », the same argument is used on topics such as euthanasia, suicide, abortion etc. ",
"I've heard it's more about how they believed babies were made, and what they thought of women. \n\nThey used to believe that every man's sperm was a child, ready to be born, and the wan was just a carrier for the man's child. \n\nSo if you spilled your seed in the ground, your killing a baby. \n\nThey've taken this of course, and used it as a point t of control over women's bodies, with the excuse that \"God said so\". "
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[],
[
"https://www.lds.org/topics/birth-control?lang=eng"
],
[],
[]
] |
||
17j3lc
|
how do different waves travel long distances without any distortion? (ex:radio, wi-fi, cellphones, space transmissions)
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/17j3lc/eli5_how_do_different_waves_travel_long_distances/
|
{
"a_id": [
"c85yk4e",
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5,
2
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"text": [
"Layman's version: There is distortion. Engineers make sure devices use enough power to overcome distortion.\n\nAdvanced: Engineers make a link budget that adds transmitter power output and antenna gains. Losses are included such as free space loss, attenuation, atmospheric lens loss, radome (or other enclosure), and so on. Free space loss is a big factor and it depends on frequency and distance. The further away you are, the greater the loss of power.\n\nSo it just needs to be powerful enough for the receiving antenna to pick up the signal at a certain distance.",
"As aeroalex mentions, yes, there is always *some* distortion when a wave travels any distance in the real world, but there are two other useful points to make.\n\nFirst, we can't see through wood, but infrared goggles can just fine. A given material might be transparent at one frequency and opaque at another. Many materials which are opaque in the visible are transparent for radio waves.\n\nSecond, even if a radio wave comes across an object that is opaque for the radio wave, the object might be too small to cause much difficulty. As a general rule, for an object in the path of a wave to really disrupt / distort that wave, the object needs to have a size at least as large as the wavelength of the wave.\n\nFM radio has a wavelength around 10 meters, so to really disrupt it, you'd need a pretty large object that was also opaque to radio waves."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[],
[]
] |
||
1ocm6g
|
Do we know exactly which molecules fit in all our neurotransmitter receptors?
|
Whether a molecule will activate a specific receptor depends on its shape, and the shape of the receptor. Do we know enough about all the different shapes and receptors that exist, that we make a comprehensive list of all the molecules that will fit in which receptors?
If not, why not?
|
askscience
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1ocm6g/do_we_know_exactly_which_molecules_fit_in_all_our/
|
{
"a_id": [
"ccqvg90"
],
"score": [
8
],
"text": [
"No, there are a hell of a lot. We know a lot about a lot of them, which you can find (many of) on _URL_0_ the protein data bank. The thing is, because there are so many, and you have to crystallise each one to run xray crystallography on it to find out it's structure, or NMR on some smaller ones, it takes a lot of time. We'll get there, eventually."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[
"http://www.rcsb.org/pdb/home/home.do"
]
] |
|
2sc3ct
|
. will reclassification of internet as a utility have ramifications for personal privacy and government surveillance?
|
Specifically, if internet is classified under Title II, will it pave the way for more government interference, monitoring, and data mining?
Is there precedent under other telecommunications under Title II?
|
explainlikeimfive
|
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2sc3ct/eli5_will_reclassification_of_internet_as_a/
|
{
"a_id": [
"cno39l2"
],
"score": [
4
],
"text": [
"It doesn't seem like there'd be *more* government monitoring, since they are already monitoring it as deeply as technically feasible.\n\nThe classification would not make a difference in that regard. The government already has laws governing how and when it can monitor your traffic. ISPs do not stand in their way."
]
}
|
[] |
[] |
[
[]
] |
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