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(d) The Fundamental Duties
3. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against
Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and
mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the
Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
5. Which of the following statements is/ are true of the
Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these
duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. In the context of India, which one of the following is the
correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society
and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of
the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the
State.
7. Which principle among the following was added to the
Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment
to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to
workers
8. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive
Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function.
2. Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be
filed by
(a) Anyone residing in India.
(b) A resident of the constituency from which the election is
(c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral
roll of a constituency.
(d) Any citizen of India.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the
winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the
votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution
of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the
majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the
Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
12. Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election
schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-
elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to
splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
13. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences
of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian
federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre
and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal
representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating
units.
15. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise
in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
16. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions
of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the
following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of
Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the
President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of
government is that
(a) The executive and legislature work independently.
(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) The head of the government cannot be changed without
election.
19. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings
out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the
Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard
to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by
day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring
collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the
Government whose hold over the people is in a state of
decline.
20. In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the
constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the
laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative
enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements
given earlier in similar or different cases.
21. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into
activity
(a) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and
(c) A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) A band of dedicated party workers.
22. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence
of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
2018 TEST PAPER
1. In the federation established by the Government on India Act
of 1935, Residuary Power were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
2. Consider the following statements :
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or
domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or
omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to
Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the
Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the
above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment
to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in
Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment
to the Constitution
4. With reference to the election of the President of India,
consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to
State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more
than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/ are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
5. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the
Governor of a State any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a
State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the
following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports
to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules,
sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by
the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate
his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the
Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the
Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. If the President of India exercises his power as provided
under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be
exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
9. Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the
Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot
be examined by any court and no judgement can be
made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the
opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was
recognized for the first time in1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of
75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the
Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate
relationship between law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
12. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of
the “Rule of Law”?
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for
appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be
required to possess the minimum qualification laid down
by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a
candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test
conducted in accordance with the National Council of
Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions
are directly under the State Governments.