jbp123/hello · Datasets at Hugging Face

instruction stringlengths 1 84	input stringlengths 1 85	output stringlengths 1 83
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?	(a) 1 and 2	(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3	(d) 3 only	14. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?	1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the	CPCB has been created by an executive order of the
Government.	2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps	reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and	wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.	Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only	(b) 2 only	(c) Both 1 and 2
15. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statement is not	correct?	(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains
only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission,	alteration or regulation of any tax.	(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the
Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of	India.	(c) A Money bill is concerned with the appropriation of
moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.	(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of	money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of
2019 TEST PAPER	1. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s	right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19	(b) Article 21	(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29	2. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the	transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared
null and void?	(a) Third Schedule	(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule	(d) Twelfth Schedule	3. Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927,	forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown	on the forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest	Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,	bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest	Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows	ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?	(a) 1 and 2 only	(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only	(d) 1, 2 and 3	4. Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India	introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime	Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th	Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative	of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?	(a) 1 only	(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2	(b) Neither 1 nor 2	5. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of
India during the prime ministership of	(a) Jawaharlal Nehru	(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi	(d) Morarji Desai	6. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the
following statements :	1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any	central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be	called into question by the Supreme Court of India.	Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only	(b) 2 only	(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2	7. With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or	limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act
as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers	under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?	(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India
while discharging its duties can not be challenged in any	court of law.	(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the
exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament.	(c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the	President of India can declare Financial Emergency
without the counsel from the cabinet.	(d) State Legislatures can not make laws on certain matters	without the concurrence of the Union legislature.
1. The motion to impeach a judge of the Supreme Court of	India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha	as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what	constitutes “incapacity and proved misbehaviour” of the	judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the	judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the	judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up	for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by	each house of the parliament and supported by a majority
of total membership of that house and by not less than	two-thirds of total members of that House present and	voting.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?	(a) 1 and 2	(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only	(d) 1,3 and 4	9. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor
should be an eminent person from outside the State and	should be a detached figure without intense political links or	should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)	(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)	(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the	Constitution (2000)	10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959	exempts several posts from disqualification on the	grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.	3. The term “Office of Profit” is well-defined in the	Constitution of India.
(b) 3 only	(c) 2 and 3 only	(d) 1, 2 and 3
11. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in	India, consider the following statements:	1. The Governor makes a customary address to members of
the house at the commencement of the first session of the	year.	2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the
particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that	matter.	Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only	(b) 2 only	(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2	12. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you	accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers	(b) Absence of restraint	(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.	13. Consider the following statements about “the Charter Act of	1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in	India except for trade in tea and trade with China.	2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the
Indian territories held by the Company.	3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British	Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?	(a) 1 and 2 only	(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only	(d) 1, 2 and 3	14. In India, which of the following review the independent
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament	2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees	3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission	5. NITI Aayog	Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2	(b) 1, 3 and 4	(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5	15. Consider the following statements:	1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)
is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of	India.	2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive
markets for gas.	3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the	Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?	(a) 1 and 2 only	(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only	(d) 1, 2 and 3	Answers
2010 TEST PAPER	1. b	2. b
3. d	4. b	5. a
6. b	7. d	8. c
2011 TEST PAPER	1. c	2. c
3. d	4. b	5. c
6. b	7. d	8. a
9. d	10. d	11. a
12. b	2012 TEST PAPER	1. c
2. d	3. a	4. a
5. b	6. d	7. c
8. b	9. c	10. c
11. b	12. a	13. c
14. c	15. a	16. c
17. c	18. a	19. c
1. b	2. b	3. a
4. b	5. b	6. b
7. c	8. d	9. b
10. c	11. a	12. c
13. c	14. d	15. c
16. d	17. d	18. c
2014 TEST PAPER	1. c	2. b
3. d	4. d	5. b
6. c	7. c	8. b
9. b	10. a	11. c
12. c	13. b	2015 TEST PAPER
1. c	2. b	3. b
4. a	5. d	6. d
7. a	8. c	9. d
10. a	11. d	12. d
13. c	14. b	15. d
2016 TEST PAPER	1. b	2. d
3. b	4. d	5. b
6. d	2017 TEST PAPER	1. b
2. a	3. c	4. c

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

14. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the

CPCB has been created by an executive order of the

Government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps

reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts

whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and

wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

15. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statement is not

correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains

only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission,

alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the

Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of

India.

(c) A Money bill is concerned with the appropriation of

moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of

money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of

2019 TEST PAPER

1. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s

right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 25

(d) Article 29

2. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the

transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared

null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

3. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927,

forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown

on the forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest

Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,

bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest

Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows

ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements :

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India

introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime

Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th

Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative

of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

5. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of

India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai

6. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the

following statements :

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any

central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be

called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or

limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act

as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers

under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India

while discharging its duties can not be challenged in any

court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the

exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the

President of India can declare Financial Emergency

without the counsel from the cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures can not make laws on certain matters

without the concurrence of the Union legislature.

1. The motion to impeach a judge of the Supreme Court of

India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what

constitutes “incapacity and proved misbehaviour” of the

judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the

judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the

judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up

for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by

each house of the parliament and supported by a majority

of total membership of that house and by not less than

two-thirds of total members of that House present and

voting.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1,3 and 4

9. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor

should be an eminent person from outside the State and

should be a detached figure without intense political links or

should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the

Constitution (2000)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959

exempts several posts from disqualification on the

grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term “Office of Profit” is well-defined in the

Constitution of India.

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in

India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to members of

the house at the commencement of the first session of the

year.

2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the

particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that

matter.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you

accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

13. Consider the following statements about “the Charter Act of

1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in

India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the

Indian territories held by the Company.

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British

Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. In India, which of the following review the independent

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5

15. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of

India.

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive

markets for gas.

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the

Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answers

2010 TEST PAPER

1. b

2. b

3. d

4. b

5. a

6. b

7. d

8. c

2011 TEST PAPER

1. c

2. c

3. d

4. b

5. c

6. b

7. d

8. a

9. d

10. d

11. a

12. b

2012 TEST PAPER

1. c

2. d

3. a

4. a

5. b

6. d

7. c

8. b

9. c

10. c

11. b

12. a

13. c

14. c

15. a

16. c

17. c

18. a

19. c

1. b

2. b

3. a

4. b

5. b

6. b

7. c

8. d

9. b

10. c

11. a

12. c

13. c

14. d

15. c

16. d

17. d

18. c

2014 TEST PAPER

1. c

2. b

3. d

4. d

5. b

6. c

7. c

8. b

9. b

10. a

11. c

12. c

13. b

2015 TEST PAPER

1. c

2. b

3. b

4. a

5. d

6. d

7. a

8. c

9. d

10. a

11. d

12. d

13. c

14. b

15. d

2016 TEST PAPER

1. b

2. d

3. b

4. d

5. b

6. d

2017 TEST PAPER

1. b

2. a

3. c

4. c