jbp123/hello · Datasets at Hugging Face

instruction stringlengths 1 84	input stringlengths 1 85	output stringlengths 1 83
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be	amended.	3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance
Bill.	4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different	procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance	Bill can be rejected by it.	(a) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3	(d) 1, 3 and 5	Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given	below the lists.	31. List-I List-II
A. Token Cut Motion 1. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by	B. Economy Cut a specified amount.”	Motion 2. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by
C. Policy Cut Motion ‘1.”	3. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by	‘100.”
4. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to	‘1.”	5. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to
‘100.”	Codes: A B C	(a) 5 1 2
(b) 5 3 1	(c) 3 1 4	(d) 3 5 2
32. List-I (Terms) List-II (Defined by)	A. Consolidated Fund of India 1. Article 110	B. Money Bill 2. Article 267
C. Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266	D. Contingency Fund of India 4. Article 265	5. Article 112
Codes: A B C D	(a) 4 1 5 3	(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 2	(d) 3 1 5 2	Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.	(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.	(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.	(d) A is false but R is true.	33. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure
from the Consolidated Fund of India.	Reason: The expenditure “charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is	not subject to the vote of Parliament.
34. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the	Parliament. Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is	based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.
35. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.	Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.	36. Assertion: The expenditure “charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is
not subject to the vote of Parliament. Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory	payment.	37. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:
(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the	states.	(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid to
the states out of the consolidated Fund of India.	(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Account	of India.
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interest	of sound finance.	38. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making
power is not correct?	(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.	(b) Laid down in Article 123.
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of	the Parliament.	(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.
39. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:	1. All India Federation	2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre	4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states	(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3	(c) 2, 3 and 4	(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as	prescribed by:	(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.
(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.	(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.	(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India
41. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?	(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861	(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919	42. The features of Indian federal system are:	1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers	3. Independent judiciary	4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written Constitution	(a) 2, 3 and 5	(b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5	(d) 1, 3 and 5	43. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?
(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.	(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre and	states.
(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.	(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.	44. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election	(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy	(c) 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states
(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government	45. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and	on like grounds as:
(a) Chairman of the UPSC	(b) Supreme Court Judge	(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha	46. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:	(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871	(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861	(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882
47. Dyarchy was introduced by:	(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909	(b) Government of India Act of 1919
(c) Government of India Act of 1935	(d) Independence Act of 1947	48. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?
(a) Dyarchy at the Centre	(b) All-India Federation	(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) Dyarchy in the provinces	49. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first	time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council
(a) 24th amendment	(b) 42nd amendment	(c) 44th amendment
(d) 54th amendment	50. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:	(a) Switzerland
(b) USA	(c) Russia	(d) Canada
51. Who said the “Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary	federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”	(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jennings	(c) B.R. Ambedkar	(d) K.C. Wheare
52. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?	1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.	2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.	4. He can be removed by the President on his own.	5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state
governments.	(a) 1, 4 and 5	(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5	(d) 3, 4 and 5	53. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
1. He is appointed by the President.	2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.	3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.
4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.	5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.	(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5	(c) 2, 4 and 5	(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
53. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:	1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.	2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.	4. The state must compulsorily implement them.	5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5	(b) 1, 3 and 5	(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
55. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India	by:	(a) Government of India Act of 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861	(c) Pitts India Act of 1784	(d) Charter Act of 1833
56. Which is incorrectly matched?	(a) Prohibition of Discrimination— Article 15	(b) Right to Association—Article 19.
(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.	(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies— Article 32.	57. Who characterises Indian Union as “a federation with a centralising
tendency?”	(a) B.R. Ambedkar	(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Ivor Jennings	(d) Granville Austin	58. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British
Government?	(a) Charter Act of 1858	(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784	(d) Charter Act of 1833	59. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:
1. They are enforceable in the court of law.	2. These rights are absolute.	3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.	5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.	(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5	(c) 1 and 3	(d) 1, 3 and 5
60. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:	(a) 41st amendment	(b) 44th amendment
(c) 46th amendment	(d) 42nd amendment	61. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:
(a) Prime Minister	(b) President	(c) Finance Minister
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General	62. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:	1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.	4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-	General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.	(a) 1, 3 and 4	(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 5	(d) 1, 3 and 5	63. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?
1. Supremacy of Constitution	2. All-India services	3. Single citizenship
4. Independent judiciary	5. Bicameral legislature	6. Integrated judiciary
(a) 1, 4 and 5	(b) 1, 5 and 6	(c) 2, 3 and 6
(d) 2, 3 and 4	64. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:	1. Independent judiciary.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.	3. A written Constitution.	4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.	(a) 2, 3 and 4	(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5	(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5	65. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures	(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures	(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state	Legislative Assemblies	66. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?
(a) Charter Act of 1833	(b) Regulating Act of 1773	(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Pitts India Act of 1784	Matching Pattern	Match List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes given
A. Bicameral system 1. Government of India Act of 1935	B. Legislative devolution 2. Indian Councils Act of 1861	C. Separate electorate 3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Provincial autonomy 4. Indian Councils Act of 1892	5. Minto-Morely Reforms.	Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 2 3 1	(b) 3 4 5 1	(c) 3 2 5 1
(d) 5 4 3 1	68. List-I List-II	A. Equality in Public employment 1. Article 29
B. Minorities rights 2. Article 21	C. Right to personal liberty 3. Article 23	D. Right against exploitation 4. Article 16
5. Article 25	Codes: A B C D	(a) 5 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 5 1	(c) 3 2 5 1	(d) 5 4 3 1
69. List-I List-II	A. Withholding of assent 1. Qualified veto	B. Overridden by an ordinary majority 2. Pocket veto
C. Taking no action on the bill 3. Absolute veto	D. Overriden by a higher majority 4. Suspensive veto	5. Majority veto
Codes: A B C D	(a) 3 4 2 1	(b) 4 3 2 5

2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be

amended.

3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance

Bill.

4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different

procedures.

5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance

Bill can be rejected by it.

(a) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 5

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given

below the lists.

31. List-I List-II

A. Token Cut Motion 1. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by

B. Economy Cut a specified amount.”

Motion 2. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by

C. Policy Cut Motion ‘1.”

3. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by

‘100.”

4. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to

‘1.”

5. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to

‘100.”

Codes: A B C

(a) 5 1 2

(b) 5 3 1

(c) 3 1 4

(d) 3 5 2

32. List-I (Terms) List-II (Defined by)

A. Consolidated Fund of India 1. Article 110

B. Money Bill 2. Article 267

C. Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266

D. Contingency Fund of India 4. Article 265

5. Article 112

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 1 5 3

(b) 2 1 5 4

(c) 4 1 5 2

(d) 3 1 5 2

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure

from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: The expenditure “charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is

not subject to the vote of Parliament.

34. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the

Parliament. Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is

based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.

35. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.

Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.

36. Assertion: The expenditure “charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is

not subject to the vote of Parliament. Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory

payment.

37. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:

(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the

states.

(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid to

the states out of the consolidated Fund of India.

(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Account

of India.

(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interest

of sound finance.

38. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making

power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.

(b) Laid down in Article 123.

(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of

the Parliament.

(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.

39. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:

1. All India Federation

2. Provincial Autonomy

3. Dyarchy at the Centre

4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as

prescribed by:

(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.

(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.

(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.

(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India

41. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919

42. The features of Indian federal system are:

1. Division of powers

2. Separation of powers

3. Independent judiciary

4. Leadership of the Prime Minister

5. A written Constitution

(a) 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 5

43. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.

(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre and

states.

(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.

(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.

44. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election

(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy

(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government

45. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and

on like grounds as:

(a) Chairman of the UPSC

(b) Supreme Court Judge

(c) Attorney General of India

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

46. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871

(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882

47. Dyarchy was introduced by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909

(b) Government of India Act of 1919

(c) Government of India Act of 1935

(d) Independence Act of 1947

48. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

(a) Dyarchy at the Centre

(b) All-India Federation

(c) Provincial autonomy

(d) Dyarchy in the provinces

49. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first

time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council

(a) 24th amendment

(b) 42nd amendment

(c) 44th amendment

(d) 54th amendment

50. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:

(a) Switzerland

(b) USA

(c) Russia

(d) Canada

51. Who said the “Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary

federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”

(a) Granville Austin

(b) Ivor Jennings

(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) K.C. Wheare

52. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.

3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.

4. He can be removed by the President on his own.

5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state

governments.

(a) 1, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

53. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

1. He is appointed by the President.

2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.

3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.

4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.

5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

53. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.

3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.

4. The state must compulsorily implement them.

5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

55. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India

by:

(a) Government of India Act of 1858

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(c) Pitts India Act of 1784

(d) Charter Act of 1833

56. Which is incorrectly matched?

(a) Prohibition of Discrimination— Article 15

(b) Right to Association—Article 19.

(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies— Article 32.

57. Who characterises Indian Union as “a federation with a centralising

tendency?”

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) K.C. Wheare

(c) Ivor Jennings

(d) Granville Austin

58. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British

Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858

(b) Regulating Act of 1773

(c) Pitts India Act of 1784

(d) Charter Act of 1833

59. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

1. They are enforceable in the court of law.

2. These rights are absolute.

3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.

4. They are available only to Indian citizens.

5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 5

60. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:

(a) 41st amendment

(b) 44th amendment

(c) 46th amendment

(d) 42nd amendment

61. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Finance Minister

(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General

62. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.

3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.

4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-

General.

5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 5

63. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?

1. Supremacy of Constitution

2. All-India services

3. Single citizenship

4. Independent judiciary

5. Bicameral legislature

6. Integrated judiciary

(a) 1, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 5 and 6

(c) 2, 3 and 6

(d) 2, 3 and 4

64. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:

1. Independent judiciary.

2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

3. A written Constitution.

4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.

5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

65. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures

(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures

(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies

(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state

Legislative Assemblies

66. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?

(a) Charter Act of 1833

(b) Regulating Act of 1773

(c) Charter Act of 1853

(d) Pitts India Act of 1784

Matching Pattern

Match List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes given

A. Bicameral system 1. Government of India Act of 1935

B. Legislative devolution 2. Indian Councils Act of 1861

C. Separate electorate 3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

D. Provincial autonomy 4. Indian Councils Act of 1892

5. Minto-Morely Reforms.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 2 3 1

(b) 3 4 5 1

(c) 3 2 5 1

(d) 5 4 3 1

68. List-I List-II

A. Equality in Public employment 1. Article 29

B. Minorities rights 2. Article 21

C. Right to personal liberty 3. Article 23

D. Right against exploitation 4. Article 16

5. Article 25

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 2 3 1

(b) 3 4 5 1

(c) 3 2 5 1

(d) 5 4 3 1

69. List-I List-II

A. Withholding of assent 1. Qualified veto

B. Overridden by an ordinary majority 2. Pocket veto

C. Taking no action on the bill 3. Absolute veto

D. Overriden by a higher majority 4. Suspensive veto

5. Majority veto

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 4 3 2 5