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(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
70. List-I List-II
A. Third Schedule 1. Allocation of seats in Upper
B. Ninth Schedule House
C. Fourth Schedule 2. Disqualification on Grounds of
D. Tenth Schedule defection
3. Validation of certain acts
4. Languages
5. Forms of affirmations
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 5 1
(c) 3 2 5 1
(d) 5 4 3 1
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
71. Assertion: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.
Reason: The President is the titular head of the state while the council of
ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.
72. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall
not be eligible for re-election to that office. Reason: No person shall be
eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a
member of the House of People.
73. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the
election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided
by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. Reason: Parliament
may, by law, regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of
a President or a VicePresident.
75. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals with:
(a) Recruitment matters
(b) Promotion matters
(c) Disciplinary matters
(d) Recruitment and all service matters
76. Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public
Service Commission?
(a) President of India
(b) Parliament of India
(c) UPSC
(d) State Governors
77. The origins of UPSC can be traced to:
(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1919 Act
(c) 1930 Act
(d) 1947 Act
78. The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of Personnel
(d) Parliament
79. The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public
institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:
(a) President of India
(b) Central Ministry of Personnel
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
80. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:
(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
81. Who is regarded as the “Father of All-India Services?”
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Patel
82. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:
(a) An order of the President
(b) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An act of Parliament
(d) A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
82. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have
held office under the Government of India or of a state at least for five
years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five
years or until they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are
determined by the Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India.
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 4 and 5
84. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative
Tribunal are correct?
1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.
3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil
procedure.
4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as
Central Services and Central Government posts.
5. It was setup in 1985.
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 3
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
85. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration.
Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.
86. Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by
President. Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.
87. Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to
their disadvantage during their tenure. Reason: The independence of the
Public Service Commission has to be maintained.
88. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the
UPSC.
Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by
President.
89. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?
1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
90. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj
are:
1. Creation of a two-tier system
2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions
4. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
5. If superceded, elections must be held within one year
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
91. District Judges are appointed by:
(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(d) The Governor of state
92. Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the
recommendation of:
(a) Speaker
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Governor
93. According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should
be:
(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad
(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
94. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:
(a) Democratic-decentralisation
(b) Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development
(d) Community development programme
95. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the
order):
(a) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(c) Rajashtan and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
96. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:
(a) District Collector
(b) Governor of the state
(c) Law Minister of the state
(d) High Court of the state
97. Which of the following is a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions?
(a) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
98. “The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them
with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units
of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:
(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
99. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:
1. Article 356 2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
100. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act provided for the
appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?
(a) 4th Amendment
(b) 7th Amendment
(c) 11th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment
101. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority
either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates
includes:
(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister
(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister
(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
(d) Only the Cabinet Ministers
102. In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the
President can:
1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including
the High Court.
2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable
under the authority of the Governor.
3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the
High Court.
4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable
under the authority of the parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
103. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:
1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council
of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly
and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 4 and 5
104. Panchayati Raj is a system of:
(a) Local government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Rural local self-government
105. Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act on
municipalities?
1. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion of their population
(to the total population) in municipal Area.
2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.
3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided
by the State Governor.
4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban area.
5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for women, excluding the
number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 2
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
106. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the
pleasure of the Governor.
Reason: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
107. Assertion: Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ‘Magna
Carta’ of local government.
Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ‘father of local self-government in
India.’
108. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the Constitution gives a constitutional
status to the Gram Sabha.
Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of
the Gram Sabha.
110. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. Reason: The Governor of a state shall be appointed by the
President India.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists.
111. List-I List-II
A. Deliberative organisation 1. Commissioner
B. Formal head 2. Standing Committee
C. Management 3. Mayor
D. Executive body 4. Council
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
112. List-I (States) List-II (Governor’s special
responsibilities)
A. Madhya Pradesh 1. Law and order
B. Gujarat 2. Administration of tribal areas
C. Nagaland 3. Development of backward
D. Assam areas
4. Minister for Tribal Welfare
5. Hill Areas Committee working
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
113. List-I List-II (Setup on)
(Committees)
A. G.V.K. Rao 1. Panchayati Raj institutions
Committee 2. Revitalisation of PRIs for democracy and
B. Balvantray development
Mehta 3. Existing administrative arrangements for Rural
Committee Development and Poverty Alleviation