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5. d
6. a
7. b
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. d
13. b
14. d
15. b
16. d
17. d
18. c
19. c
20. a
21. a
22. a
2018 TEST PAPER
1. b
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. c
6. b
7. a
8. b
9. a
10. b
11. b
12. c
13. b
14. b
15. c
2019 TEST PAPER
1. b
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. b
8. c
9. c
10. a
11. a
12. d
13. a
Appendix VIII Practice Questions on Indian Polity
(General Studies—Prelims)
1. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is
invariably from the members of ruling party?
(a) Committee on Public Undertakings
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Delegated Legislation
2. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the
members of Parliament?
(a) Question Hour
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Half-an-hour discussion
(d) Short duration discussion
3. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:
(a) Committee on Assurances
(b) Committee on Delegated Legislation
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Estimates Committee
4. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a
matter of public importance?
(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Short duration discussion
(d) Adjournment motion
5. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
6. The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:
(a) Orissa
b. Bihar
(c) Punjab
d. Maharashtra
7. The correct statements about zero hour includes:
1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the houses of Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the houses of Parliament.
3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior notice.
4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour in both the houses
of Parliament.
5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 5
8. The correct statements about calling attention notice are:
1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent
public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?
1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of
the House.
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of
urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
10. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference
between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of
enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose,
whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement
of Fundamental Rights.
2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court
cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas
high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of
Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the
Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
11. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support
(a) 80 Members
(b) 140 Members
(c) 160 Members
(d) 50 Members
12. Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?
1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in
India is same. Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can
issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and
Quo warranto.
14. Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to
the people.
Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular
sovereignty.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists.
15. List-I (Writs) List-II (Literal meanings)
A. Mandamus 1. “By what warrant or authority’
B. Habeas Corpus 2. “We command’
C. Quo warranto 3. “To be certified’
D. Certiorari 4. “You may have the body” or “To
have the body of’
Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
16. List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)
A. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme 1. Article 13
Court 2. Article 226
B. Suits against government 3. Article 300
C. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court 4. Article 32
D. Source of the power of judicial 5. Article 166
review
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 5 4 3 2
17. The final work of UPSC in recruitment process is:
(a) Selection
(b) Appointment
(c) Certification
(d) Placement
18. The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined
by:
(a) President of India
(b) Constitution of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the following codes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of
civil servants.
Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.
20. Assertion: A member of All-India Service can appeal against the order of a
State Government to the President of India.
Reason: Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil servant cannot be
removed or dismissed by any authority which is subordinate to the authority
by which he was appointed.
21. The Vote on Account is passed:
(a) After the voting of demands
(b) Before the general discussion
(c) After the general discussion
(d) Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion.
22. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:
1. General discussion
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Finance Bill
4. Voting of the demands for grant
5. Presentation to legislature
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
23. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along
with the budget?
1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget
2. A summary of demands for grants
3. An Appropriation Bill
4. A Finance Bill
5. The economic survey
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in
the Parliament?
(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India.
(c) It should relate to more than one demand.
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.
25. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C &
AG vests with:
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) National Development Council
26. The word “Budget” is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India:
(a) Art. 266
(b) Art. 112
(c) Art. 265
(d) None
27. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.
4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14
5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 5
(d) only 1
28. Which of the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated
Fund of India?
1. Allowances of the Chairman of Lok Sabha.
2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and
redemption of debt.
3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.
4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any arbitration tribunal.
5. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and
AuditorGeneral
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
29. The correct statements about Public Account of India are:
1. The public account is the fund to which all public moneys received by or
on behalf of the government are credited.
2. No legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
3. Legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
4. All public moneys, other than those credited to the Consolidated Fund of
India, which are received by or on behalf of the government are credited
to the Public Account of India.
5. It is operated by executive action.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 4
30. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be
amended.