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Trials stage for experimentation of adverse drug reaction in large scale population is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Long-term adverse effects on large number of patients -f Phase IV clinical trial. | 4 | I | II | III | IV | Pharmacology | null | 16a21d38-aedb-4249-af8c-4c80172f6106 | single |
Blue vire technology is used in | VorTEX uses M wire NiTi | 2 | VorTEX | VorTEX Blue | D3XF | Twisted Blue | Dental | null | b4cfbd2a-a8f8-4eee-b1ae-e93d49fe8c33 | single |
Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia? | drugs used for hyperkalemia- IV calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol, thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics New drug patiromer was recently approved for the treatment of hyperkalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:323 | 4 | Salbutamol | Calcium gluconate | Sodium bicarbonate | Magnesium sulphate | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | 53683db2-c3eb-4327-8571-41da03dcc705 | single |
Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycated crytallins Diabetic cataract Senile cataract tends to develop at an earlier age and more rapidly than usual in diabetic subjects. The lenses of an adult diabetic are said to be in the same condition as a non-diabetic who is 15 years older. In diabetic adults, coin- pared to non-diabetics, cataracts are more prevalent, are dependent on the duration of diabetes and progress more rapidly. The mechanisms are believed to be glycation, carbamylation of crystallins and increased oxidative damage. True diabetic cataract is a rare condition occurring typi- cally in young people in whom the diabetes is so acute as to disturb grossly the water balance of the body. A large number of fluid vacuoles appear under the anterior -td posterior pas of the capsule, initially manifesting as myopia and then producing a diffuse opacity which at this stage is reversible. The lens then rapidly becomes cataractous, with dense, white subcapsular opacities in the anterior and posterior coex resembling a snowstorm- 'snowflake' cataract. Fine, needle-shaped polychromatic coical opacities may also form. With appropriate treatment to control hyperglycaemia, the rapid progression to mature cataract may be arrested at this stage. | 1 | Glycated crytallins | Calcified crystallins | Glycated fibrillins | Calcified fibrillins | Ophthalmology | null | e8565503-0dee-4c8d-9bf3-ca2c6decdb95 | multi |
All the drugs have anti-androgenic effects except | Progesterone had mild androgenic effects except for 3rd gen progesterones which are devoid of androgenic effects Flutamide,nilutamide and bicalutamide are androgen antagonists. Finasteride and dutasteride 5 alpha reductase inhibiters Spironolatone is androgen receptor antagonist Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg 595 | 1 | Progesterone | Dutasteride | Flutamide | Spironolactone | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | 54d437cf-bb99-430f-a3f5-4d8c8cbcc1d2 | multi |
Whooping cough is caused by? | Ans. (b) B.pertisusRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-148 | 2 | C.dipthera | B.pertussis | M.catarrhalis | S.pneumonea | Microbiology | Bacteria | 211cdc24-35da-4067-8018-3fa79cd63a4e | single |
UPSIT is used for testing: | The University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT): A far superior test to other assessments is the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT). It is highly recommended for the evaluation of a patient with smell disorder. This test utilizes 40 forced-choice items that feature microencapsulated scratch-and-sniff odors. | 1 | Olfaction | Hearing | Vision | None of the above | ENT | null | 80d237ca-32b4-451c-a4e2-07d72869fd4a | multi |
A patient at 28 weeks pregnancy presents with low grade fever, malaise, vomiting since 1 week. On examination she is icteric, Her Hb is 10 gm%, bilirubin is 5 mg/dL, SGOT and SGPT at 630 and 600 with normal platelet count. Most probable cause of her jaundice is | Patient here has presented with prodrome of viral hepatitis. Investigations to diiferentiate various causes of jaundice in pregnancy are IHCP AFLP HELLP Viral hepatiis Bilirubin (mg/dL) 1-5, direct 2-10, direct <2 >5 SGOT/ SGPT <200 <1000 <500 500-3000 ALP Raised Normal Normal Normal/raised Platelets Normal low Low Normal Prothrombin time Normal Prolonged prolonged prolonged | 2 | IHCP | Viral hepatitis | Hyperemesis gravidarum | HELLP syndrome | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy | 26979b55-e4f1-4c54-aef5-5ad49216f5c1 | single |
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is: | A i.e. Oral griseofulvin Tenia capitis is most commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans; and never caused by Epidermophyton as it does not involve hair. It presents with localized non-cicatrial (mostly) alopecia, itching, scaling with or without boggy swelling of scalp & easily pluckable hair. Tinia capitis is diagnosed by potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mounts of hair & scale and treated by griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is used systemically only for dermatophytosis, it is ineffective topically. It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea requiring systemic therapy. Griseofulvin has no role in treatment of Tinea versicolar & candida. | 1 | Oral griseofulvin therapy | Topical griseofulvin therapy | Shaving of the scalp | Selenium sulphide shampoo | Skin | null | aa630a6b-699a-4750-8710-02107f8762ce | single |
Causes of diffuse hyperpigmentation include all of the following except? | Busulfan administration Busulfan, cyclophosphamide, 5-fluorouracil, and inorganic arsenic induce pigment production and cause diffuse hyperpigmentation Nelson's syndrome Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to bilateral adrenalectomy Addison's disease Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to destruction of adrenal coex and low coisol Hermanksy- Pudlak syndrome Autosomal recessive disorder which results in oculo-cutaneous albinism (decreased pigmentation), and bleeding problems due to a platelet abnormality (platelet storage pool defect) | 4 | Busulfan administration | Nelsons syndrome | Addison disease | Hermansky-Pudlak Syndrome | Medicine | Disorders of Adrenal Gland | c2c6e421-af34-4f5a-b456-ddc818061d2f | multi |
HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiform is: | Ans. C. HLA B8a. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a disease characterized by erythematous vesicular or bullous lesions and severe itching. The disease most commonly occurs between 20-40 years of age and men are more commonly affected. IgA is deposited in the reticular dermis of the uninvolved skin suggesting an immune etiology.b. More than 90% of patients express the HLA B8/DRW3 and HLA DQW2. It is also associated with gluten sensitive enteropathy. Polymorphism of the eruption (erythematous blotches or stain, grouped vesicle or bullae) and intense itching are characteristic features of the disease.c. The attacks last for weeks or months with intervals of partial remission over a period of years. General health of the patient is unaffected except due to sleeplessness caused by irritation or secondary infection. Although any part of the body may be involved but mucous membranes are involved only in 1% of the cases.d. Distribution is usually bilateral and symmetrical and forearms, thighs, inter-scapular region and buttocks beings most commonly involved. Dapsone is the drug of choice and is given 50mg 1-4 times a day orally.e. Most of the patients are controlled by 100mg daily dose but the require pent varies from time to time. The effect of dapsone is dramatic and rapid with all signs disappearing in 48 hours.f. However, the treatment must be continued indefinitely as it is suppressive and not curative. It is also necessary to treat the patient with a gluten free diet because this reduces the dose of drug required to suppress the eruption. | 3 | HLA A5 | HLA B27 | HLA B8 | HLA A28 | Skin | Autoimmune Skin Disorders | b56428ee-670b-4741-85af-166ef32a37e4 | single |
Which virus can cause hemorrhage - | Adenovirus causes Acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children and generalized exanthem. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | 2 | Parvovirus | Adenovirus | HPV | Coronavirus | Microbiology | Virology | 7c4484cb-3400-4421-804e-eff019039d41 | single |
Residual volume of lung in an average adult male is: (Repeat) | AnsL C (1.2 L) Ref: Davidson, 21st ed, pg 651Explanation:Refer Medicine 2013 question explanation.TLC: Volume of air in the lungs following maximal inspiration ( N= 5-6L)FVC: Maximum amount of air exhaled following maxima] inspiration ( N= 4.8L)VT: Volume of air entering and leaving lungs during normal respiration ( N+ 500 ml)RV: Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiratory' effort (1.2L)FRC; Volume of air within the lungs at the end of normal respiration (2.5-3L)FEV: Volume of air exhaled in a given time during a forced vital capacity effort | 3 | 3.0 L | 0.9 L | 1.2 L | 1.9 L | Medicine | Respiratory Function | 14e68a28-4e89-4467-8a0b-0099bf31f5c7 | single |
Scrofula is a tuberculosis of: | null | 2 | Skin | Lymphnode | Spine | Lungs | Medicine | null | a6f34d32-c56f-4339-9ebc-00726cc9e4aa | single |
The commonest teeth involved in transposition are: | null | 2 | Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor | Maxillary canine and first premolar | Maxillary 1st premolar and 2nd premolar | Maxillary canine and lateral incisor | Dental | null | 1960f57f-7561-4de1-a267-24eeef8f4535 | single |
A 30 year old person met with a roadside accident. On admision his pulse rate was 120/minute, BP was 100/60 mmHg. Ultrasonagraphy examination revealed laceration of the lower pole of spleen and haemoperitoneum. He was resuscitated with blood and fluid. Two hours later, his pulse was 84/minute and BP was 120/70 mm Hg. The most appropriate course of management in this case would be- | null | 4 | Exploring the patient followed by splenectomy | Exploring the patient followed by excision of the lower pole of spleen | Splenorrhaphy | Continuation of conservative treatment under close monitoring system and subsequent surgery if further indicated | Surgery | null | d9e3512a-cb34-460b-8045-60083ae8387c | single |
Most potent analgesic agent among following | Ans. a. Nitrous oxide above options, most potent analgesic agent is Nitrous oxide. "Nitrous oxide- 50:50 nitrous oxide and oxygen has revolutionized it as analgesic agent; it has been used as an analgesic agent in obstetric surgeries; dental procedures; in acute trauma; burn dressings and cardiac pain as well."- Wiley and Churchill-Davidson A Practice of Anesthesia 7/e p536 Miller says "Nitrous oxide produce analgesia that is in pa because of release of proenkephalin derived family of endogenous opioids Physical propeies of N20 It is colourless, non-irritating and sweet smelling Boiling point is -89degC. Critical temperature is 36.5degCdeg which is a.bove room temperature, therefore it can be kept in liquefied state. Stored as liquid in blue color cylindersQ 35 times more soluble than nitrogen Remember: Anesthesia with No analgesia HalothaneQ Only analgesia N20Q Profound analgesia KetamineQ Best/maximum analgesia TrileneQ | 1 | Nitrous oxide | Nitric oxide | CO2 | Oxygen | Anaesthesia | null | 3b332f26-5d8e-4b75-8eb5-aeddeed72dd1 | single |
Stye is other name of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hordeolum externum o Acute infection of Zeis (Moll) glando Acute infection of tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)o Chronic infection of tarsal gland (Meibonium gland)-Stye (Hardoleum externum)- Hardoleum internum -Chalazion | 3 | Chalazion | Hordeolum internum | Hordeolum externum | None of the above | Ophthalmology | Anomalies in the Position of Lashes and Lid Margin | c2ce9c2f-a113-464f-87c9-b79c47a28302 | multi |
All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, EXCEPT | (C) Negative symptoms PROGNOSTIC FEATURES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA GoodBadHistoryPrevious psychiatric HistoryNoPresentFamily HistoryNegativePositiveFamily History +ve ofMood disordersSchizophreniaPreuproid adjustmentGoodPoorWork HistorySteadyUnsteady / UnemployedMartial statusMarriedUnmarriedSocial SupportGood (High social class)Poor (low social class)Precipitating factorsObvious, transientUnknown / chronicsClinical presentationOnsetAcuteInsidiousAge of onsetLateEarlyDuration of symptomsShortLongSymptomsPositiveNegativeMental stateGeneral AppearanceConfusionAssaultiveAffectDepressedBlunted / flatThinkingParanoid (or) CatatonicOCD / disorganisedTESTSFunctioning (CNC)NormalImpairedCT ScanNormalStructural abnormalityCourse TypeUndulatingChronic | 3 | Late onset | Married | Negative symptoms | Acute onset | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | fc3316cb-d9ad-484c-a77f-a120bbc671f4 | multi |
The carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by all, EXCEPT: | Many systemic conditions are strongly associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). These conditions may directly or indirectly affect microcirculation, pressure thresholds for nerve conduction, nerve cell body synthesis, and axon transpo or interstitial fluid pressures. Peurbations in the endocrine system, as observed in individuals withdiabetes, acromegaly and hypothyroidism and in women who are pregnant, are linked to CTS. Conditions affecting metabolism (eg, alcoholism, renal failure with hemodialysis, mucopolysaccharidoses) also are associated with CTS. | 2 | Hypothyroidism | Tuberculosis | Pregnancy | Acromegaly | Surgery | null | c3199e7e-3cd5-4dbe-8ba6-48f7ce32ec47 | multi |
Tentative cut is a feature of? | D i.e. Suicidal attempt | 4 | Fall from the height | Homicidal assault | Accidental injury | Suicidal attempt | Forensic Medicine | null | 9727639c-a3c4-4506-96c7-4cab7fe2ad7e | multi |
A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test. The causative organism is : | Paul Bunell test is the standard diagnostic procedure of infectious mononucleosis which is caused by EBV.
Paul Bunell test detects heterophile antibody.
Paul Bunell test
In this test inactivated serum (56 0 C for 30 minutes) in doubling dilutions is mixed with equal volumes of a 1% suspension of sheep erythrocytes.
An agglutination titre of 100 or above is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis.
For confirmation, differential absorption of agglutinins with guineapig kidney and ox red cells is necessary
The Paul Bunell antibody develops early during the course of infectious mononucleosis, and disappears within two months.
False positive : In patient with lymphoma hepatitis, malaria connective tissue disease
Remember :
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (+)ve infectious mononucleosis is EBV.
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (–) ve infectious mononucleosis is CMV.
– Heterophile (–) ve IM also caused by toxoplasmosis, Listeria, non-infectious stimuli. | 1 | EBV | Herpes virus | Adeno virus | Cytomegalovirus | Microbiology | null | 84bb22ea-eb0c-4e14-8c87-ed1342f5efd2 | single |
Which type of haemorrhoids is treated by the injection of sclerosing agent? | Injection sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice of internal hemorrhoids. It helps in reducing the size of the hemorrhoids and stop it from bleeding. A solution containing either quinine and urea or phenol is used as the sclerosing agent. Hemorrhoids are swollen veins around the anus and in the rectum that may protrude from the anus. Patients presents with itching, burning, pain, swelling, irritation and bleeding per rectum. Bleeding is bright red in colour and is associated with bowel movements. Ref:Bailey and Love's Sho Practise of Surgery, 24th Edition, Page 1255. | 2 | External haemorrhoids | Internal haemorrhoids | Prolapsed haemorrhoids | Thrombosed haemorrhoids | Surgery | null | c08898f8-1435-4b47-8e11-5485cfc8fe3f | single |
Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following | Ureteric injury has an incidence of 0.1-1.5% of all pelvic surgery The highest risk is for Weheim Radical hysterectomy since this surgery involves stripping of the ureteric fascia and that can compromise the ureteric blood supply and hence a devascularisation injury. | 3 | Anterior colporraphy | Vaginal hysterectomy | Weheim hysterectomy | Abdominal hysterectomy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endometrial Carcinoma and Hysterectomy | d2c006cc-ab7a-4fb0-a136-a56389060d18 | single |
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by: September 2012 | Ans. A i.e. Chlamydia | 1 | Chlamydia | LGV | Syphilis | Gardnella vaginalis | Skin | null | 38ecdd98-df6f-411d-be4c-55c9c0351809 | single |
X-ray proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is: | "Fibrous dysplasia of proximal femur has shepherd crook deformity". | 2 | Blade of grass deformity | Shepherd crook deformity | Chicken wire appearance | Corduroy appearance | Orthopaedics | Ohopedics Oncology | 4d36c77c-6b44-4c1b-8958-8eaca910d120 | single |
Which is the initial Imaging modality of choice for Insulinoma? | For PETs in the pancreas, EUS is highly sensitive, localizing 77-100% of insulinomas, which occur almost exclusively within the pancreas. Tests for location of pNET: Somatostatin Receptor Scintigraphy is the initial imaging modality but is less available. Helical CT scan has a sensitivity of 82-94%. Gadolinium based MRI has sensitivity of 85%. If above scans are negative, then Endoscopic ultrasound will be able to pick up the insulinoma which is usually <1.5 cm in size. If all the above tests turn negative then calcium stimulated angiography can be used to localize the tumor. The intra-aerial calcium test also allows differentiation of the cause of the hypoglycaemia and indicates whether it is due to an insulinoma or a nesidioblastosis. | 4 | USG | CT abdomen | Somatostatin Receptor Scan (SRS) | E.U.S | Medicine | Disorders of Adrenal Gland | 8e92e460-98d9-4709-82eb-dc613ac32980 | single |
Prostate is supplied by: | Ans: A (Sympathetic + Parasympathetic) Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 40th edition, pg.1245Explanation:The superior hypogastric plexus conveys the sympathetic nerves from the pre-ganglionic fibres are derived from LI and L2The parasympathetic fires are derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves which convey preganglionic fibres from S2, S3 & S4. They are secretomotor to the glands.The somatic pudendal nerve supplies the external urethral sphincterNerves containing neuropeptide Y and vasointestinal polypeptide (VIP) are localized in the subepithelia] connective tissue, in the smooth muscle layers of the gland, and in the walls of its blood vessels. | 1 | Sympathetic + Parasympathetic | Parasympathetic | Sympathetic | None | Anatomy | Male Genital System | 59429376-b4be-4af9-b035-c7a411764c38 | multi |
Consider the following statements about Jacuzzi syndrome and mark the true statement . | Jacuzzi syndrome :- It is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa This condition arises due to inflammation of hair follicles (haiub folliculitis). It is usually self limiting condition . It can be extremely painful or itchy condition . | 2 | It is caused by Pneumococcus . | It is also known as hot tub folliculitis . | It is progressive illness . | It is always a painless condition . | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | d58861b2-6284-4da2-9e76-695c3dea6bfa | multi |
Resistance to ciprofloxacin is due to: | Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 1016* Ciprofloxacin is one of the fluoroquinolones along with norfloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, spartloxacin, etc.* MOA of quinolones: The quinolone antibiotics target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.* The quinolones inhibit gyrase-mediated DNA supercoiling at concentrations that correlate well with those required to inhibit bacterial growth.* Mutations of the gene that encodes the A subunit of the gyrase can confer resistance to these drugs. | 4 | Transduction | Transformation | Conjugation | Mutation | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | 18fbc52c-b20e-4e34-b38a-1192d9bb0afb | single |
Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse the irreversible step in glycolysis | Glycolysis Site of occurrence Cytosol Aerobic glycolysis Glucose - Pyruvate ; 8 ATP Anaerobic glycolysis Glucose - Lactate ; 2 ATPReaction occurring in aerobic conditions only Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate - 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate Inhibitors Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphateIodo acetate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Arsenite Enolase Fluoride Glycolysis TCA cycle Malate shuttle ( Liver , Hea , Kidney )38 ATP / 32 ATP ( new )Glycolysis TCA cycle Glycerophosphate shuttle ( Brain , White skeletal muscles )36 ATP / 30 ATP ( new )Irreversible reactions Reactions Enzymes Glucose - Glucose-6-phosphateHexokinase Fructose-6-phosphate - Fructose-1,6,bisphosphatePhosphofructokinasePhosphoenolpyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase Oxidative / Substrate level phosphorylation Reactions Enzymes 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate - 3 phosphoglyceratePhosphoglycerate kinase Phosphoenol pyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase Harper's illustrated Biochemistry , 30th ed , page 172 | 2 | Hexokinase | Phosphoglycero kinase | Pyruvate kinase | Phosphofructokinase | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | b367b9cf-ff74-48e3-a093-c058682b4633 | multi |
All are affected in Graft-Versus host reaction : | Lung Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host. Graft versus host disease occurs most commonly in the setting of allogenic bone marrow transplantation but may also follow transplantation of solid organs rich in lymphoid cells (e.g. the liver) or transfusion of unirradiated blood. Recipients of bone marrow transplants are immunodeficient because of either their primary disease or prior treatment of the disease with drugs or irradiation. When such recipients receive normal bone man-ow cells from allogenic donors, the immunocompetent, T cells present in the donor marrow recognizes the recipient's HLA antigen as foreign antigen and react against them. Both CD4+ and CD8+T cells recognize and attack host tissues. In clinical practice GVH can be so severe that bone marrow transplants are done only between HIA matched donor and recipient. Acute GVH disease occurs within days to weeks after allogenic bone marrow transplantation. Although any organ may be affected, the mayor clinical manifestation results from involvement of the immune system and epithelia of the skin, liver and intestines. Involvement of the skin in GVH disease is manifested by a generalized rash leading to desquamation in severe cases. Destruction of small bile ducts gives rise to jaundice and mucosal ulceration of the gut results in bloody diarrhoea. Immunodeficiency is a frequent accompaniment of GVH disease the immunodeficiency may be a result of prior treatment, myeloablative preparation for the graft, a delay in repopulation of the recipient's immune system and attack on host's inunune cells by grafted lymphocytes. Affected individuals are profoundly immunosuppressed and are easy prey to infections. Although many different types of organisms may infect patients, infection with cytomegalovirus is paicularly impoant. | 4 | Skin | >G.I.T | >Liver | >Lung | Pathology | null | 6e3a0771-c097-4d3e-95eb-2014f45d9280 | multi |
A dens in dente is usually caused by: | null | 3 | An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue | Denticle formation within the pulp tissue | A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation | A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth. | Pathology | null | b5f9f3bb-7342-4ce3-a996-11c7e8b3bea8 | multi |
A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be: | B i.e. Atracurium You might be thinking that this Q has never been asked, but think a while and try to understand that around which concept the Q is based. In other words, they are trying to ask that which muscle relaxant will not require reversal? I think now you need no explanation - In pancuronium reversal is often required d/ t its longer duration of action - Ve/Ro-curonium seldom require reversal unless repeated doses have been given - In atracurium & cis-atracurium reversal is mostly not required due to its unique feature of spontaneous non eyzmatic degradation (Hoffmann elimination) Q. | 2 | Pancuronium | Atracurium | Rocuronium | Vecuronium | Anaesthesia | null | 062db933-3632-4c3f-8822-ffe12b939cd2 | single |
In a perfect smile, the ratio of width to height of maxillary incisor is: | null | 1 | 8:10 | 6:08 | 10:14 | 20:25 | Dental | null | eaf9ff19-57b6-4215-9647-887d1883d8a6 | single |
Which of the Hepatitis B Virus serological marker indicates the first evidence of Hepatitis B infection? | null | 4 | Anti-HBs | Anti-HBc | HBeAg | HBsAg | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | cc2b7e6b-0cf8-4057-a15d-6e4e7ef49c1e | single |
Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in | Adenoidectomy contraindicated in 1. Bleeding disorder 2. Acute infection of upper respiratory tract 3. Cleft palate or submucous palate Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 431 | 3 | SOM | CSOM | Bleeding disorder | None | ENT | Diagnostic and operative ENT | c6c0cc00-6f53-4e2d-a9b8-67177369ffca | multi |
Diagnosis in a ten year old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is | Nasopharyngeal fibroma/Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a major cause for recurrent epistaxis in adolescent males. It is testosterone dependent. Benign tumour but locally invasive Ref - PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat, 6th edition | 3 | Antrochoanal polyp | Hemangioma | Angiofibroma | Rhinolith | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | e805ad44-6f84-4e4e-8d52-bdbe959caebe | single |
Watson-Jones approach is done for? | (d) Hip replacement- Watson-Jones operation is anterolateral approach to the hip joint.There are four commonly used approaches to the hip joint:- Anterior or Smith-Peterson- commonly used to access the hip in cases of suspected septic arthritis - Anterolateral or Watson-Jones- is used for hemi or total hip arthroplasty - Direct lateral or Hardinge - Posterior or Southern approach | 4 | Neglected club foot | Muscle paralysis | Valgus deformity | Hip replacement | Orthopaedics | Congenital Talips Eqino Varvs (C.T.E.V.) | cb97fa3d-0934-4156-a50e-67066127ca0f | single |
A bullet fired form a gun is not released. It is ejected out with the subsequent shot. It is known as - | If during firing, the bullet remains in the barrel; during subsequent firing two bullets, one behind the other are projected out → called as Tandem bullet. | 4 | Dum dum bullet | Rocketing bullet | Ricochet bullet | Tandem bullet | Forensic Medicine | null | c2c15c69-0256-4e18-9a76-415acf181cc3 | single |
To notify a slide as AFB negative minimum how many fields should be checked? ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., 100 | 2 | 20 | 100 | 50 | 200 | Microbiology | null | afc3ccd6-a5e9-4731-9ccf-3dde8d7e5d39 | single |
N-myc gene amplification is seen in which of the following tumors? | N-myc amplification seen in neuroblastoma.
C-myc amplification - Burkitt's lymphoma
L-myc amplification - lung carcinoma | 3 | Burkitt's lymphoma | Small cell lung carcinoma | Neuroblastoma | All of the above | Pathology | null | 64db11fe-2f9b-4a5b-8a00-d7a49bbedec7 | multi |
Minimum angle of resolution when visual acuity is 6/6 | Answer-A. 1 min of arcVisual acuity is the first test performed after taking history.Measurement of the central visual acuity is essentially an assessment of function of the fovea centralis.An object must be presented so that each poion of it is separated by a difinite interval, known as minimum angle of resolution (MAR). Customarily, this interval has become one minute of an arc.The test object should subtends an angle of five minutes of an arc. | 1 | 1 min of arc | 5 min of arc | 10 min of arc | 15 min of arc | Ophthalmology | null | 40999861-2dcd-4ff3-89e5-c5328ac7faea | single |
Pigmented "muddy brown" granular cast is characteristic of | AKI from ATN due to ischemic injury, sepsis, or ceain nephrotoxins has characteristic urine sediment findings: pigmented "muddy brown" granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts. These findings may be absent in more than 20% of cases Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1805 | 2 | Prerenal ARF | Ischemic or nephrotoxic ATN | Postrenal ARF | Chronic renal failure | Medicine | Kidney | 3c103424-fa8e-47d0-9533-85a8c9ed4138 | single |
A 35-year-old hypertension patient. CXR shows? | Ans. (c) Coarctation of aorta. | 3 | Left ventricular hypertrophy | Pulmonary artery hypertension | Coarctation of aorta | Cor pulmonale | Radiology | Cardiac and Pericardiac Imaging | 371aa6db-6e82-460f-92f4-cb7d5302827d | single |
7Which is the most prominent spinous process? | C7 is most prominent spinous process seen at the neck region just above T 1 veebrae BD CHAURASIA HUMAN ANATOMY Vol 3 | 2 | T1 | C7 | C6 | L5 | Anatomy | General anatomy | 550be516-3a36-465d-8ffd-b9ca47f342a4 | single |
Phase 4 clinical trial is carried out: | null | 2 | Before the marketing approval of a drug | After a drug is marketed | For drugs used in rare diseases | For drugs used in pediatric patients | Pharmacology | null | 339e3abc-9e6c-497e-8c02-8cabbcb14b35 | single |
If a fracture, gives the pattern of the striking surface of the weapon it is called | Signature fracture This is a depressed comminuted fracture produced by an object with a small striking surface and will give the pattern of the striking surface of the weapon which caused it like a hammer, butt of a rifle, etc. The weapon which caused the injury can be identified. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 163 | 4 | Comminuted fracture | Ring fracture | Pond fracture | Signature fracture | Anatomy | Special topics | 61ee5d5b-a825-45ff-806c-7de6b7e3b1d9 | multi |
Which of the following is not used in diagnosis of insulinoma - | null | 4 | 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels | C peptide levels | Insulin/glucose ratio | D-xylose test | Medicine | null | e582dc54-cfe0-4df2-a9f4-63329a66858e | single |
Crude birth rate is a simplest measure of fertility because it includes | Crude birth rate : Number of live births in a year per 1000 mid-year population.
CBR is simplest indicator of fertility : Total mid-year population is not exposed to child bearing thus it doesnot give true idea of fertility of a population. | 1 | Mid year population | Total population | Live births only | Pre-term births | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 3a8e7aa5-55e3-4312-8dd6-e177633a5173 | single |
which layer of cornea helps in maintaining hydration OF stroma of cornea | REF : AK KHURANA 7TH ED | 2 | Descement membrane | Endothelium | Epithelium | stroma | Ophthalmology | All India exam | ef53cda0-a03b-4af9-a073-a1a259c73515 | single |
Palpable purpura is caused by | palpable purpura is due to deposition of immune complexes at the site, seen in HSP,Ahritis, gut vasculitis,glomerulonephritis, bacterial endocarditis, gonococcaemia,meningococcaemia and rocky mountain spotted fever. Page no.309. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | 4 | HSP | PAN | Microscopic polyangitis | All of the above | Dental | Autoimmune skin disorders | 5ec2edf6-b8d6-4749-adb8-b59edea3d6a0 | multi |
Amount of calories and protein given to a pregnant women under ICDS is | null | 1 | 500kcals and 35g protein | 200kcal and 10g protein | 500kcal and 10g protein | 350kcal and 25g protein | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | ad8bb65c-78a2-4a2d-a02d-54da5e687b59 | single |
Tricyclic antidepressant are contraindicated in: | Due to anticholinergic action, TCAs should be avoided in glaucoma These agents block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, urine retention, constipation); they are contraindicated in patients with glaucoma. | 1 | Glaucoma | Brain tumor | Bronchial asthma | Hypeension | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | cdbfb887-d897-43b8-86df-d21d3543c82b | single |
With DMPA, the next injection may be taken latest by: | DMPA is effective for 13 weeks. It has grace period of 4 weeks, which means that this woman can get her next injection before completed 17 weeks. If she comes later than 17 weeks, then she will be given injection but will have to use backup for next 7 days, as injections would take time to become effective. | 4 | 12 weeks | 13 weeks | 15 weeks | 17 weeks | Social & Preventive Medicine | Other FP Methods and New Initiatives in Family Planning | 16880d89-b7b5-4219-b75d-cb5470b9947e | single |
Regarding furosemide true statement is: | Ans. (A) Acute pulmonary edema is an indication(Ref: Katzung 10/e p250)Furosemide possesses vasodilatory action which is responsible for quick relief in LVF and pulmonary edema (used i.v.). It can be used orally as well as parenterally. | 1 | Acute pulmonary edema is an indication | Acts on PCT | Mild diuresis | Given only by parenteral route | Pharmacology | Diuretics and Antidiuretics | ef501e13-e970-49b5-a16c-bc29cd12da9a | multi |
During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest which of the following anaesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory arrest that also provides cerebral protection? | (B) Thiopental Sodium # Uses of Thiopentone Sodium:> Induction of anaesthesia;> Maintenance of anaesthesia for short procedures;> Basal narcosis by rectal administration;> Treatment of status epilepticus;> Reduction of intracranial pressure;> Fordiagnostic operative neurological procedures. | 2 | Etomidate | Thiopental Sodium | Propofal | Ketamine | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous | b0ec7a67-4379-4bd5-9e8b-d27e75dffec5 | single |
Neonatal fat necrosis resembles which of the following – a) Post steroidal panniculitisb) Erythema induratumc) Lipodermatosclerosisd) Lupus panniculitis | I think there is printing mistake in this question. There should be except in this question. In that case answer will be erythema induratum.
Neonatal fat necrosis, post-steroidal panniculitis, Lipodermatosclerosis and lupus panniculitis belong to same group, i.e. Mostly lobular panniculitis without vasculitis.
Erythema induratum belongs to other class, i.e. Mostly lobular panniculitis with vasculitis. | 3 | abc | ad | acd | bde | Dental | null | d271c97e-fde5-49e2-b61d-166058eca9f2 | single |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding PROPOFOL ? | Ketamine is safe in porphyria. | 2 | It is used in day care anesthesia | It is contraindicated in porphyria | Commercial preparation contains egg extract | It does not cause airway irritation | Anaesthesia | null | a2cdaace-15bf-4028-8fd6-2fe652470d71 | multi |
First clinical feature of cerebello-pontine angle tumor is ? | Answer- B. Loss of corneal reflexAbsent corneal reflex is the earliest sign of cerebellopontine (CP) angle tumors like acoustic neuroma. | 2 | Reduced lacrimation | Loss of corneal reflex | Hoarseness of voice | Exaggerated tendon reflexes | Surgery | null | 82931b21-d013-43f3-8b5c-ef3511c09481 | single |
A 5-year-old boy comes with overnight petechial spots 2 weeks back he had a history of abdominal pain and no hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis is – | Petechial spots without hepatosplenomegaly in a 5-year-old boy suggest the diagnosis of ITP.
About other options
Acute leukaemia
Acute leukaemia will give features of involvement of all the three lineages i.e.
anaemia (erythrocyte involvement)
fever (due to neutrophil involvement)
bleeding (due to platelet involvement)
Moreover, splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy are usually present in Acute leukaemias.
Aplastic anaemia
Aplastic anaemia too will present with features, characteristic of involvement of all the three lineages i.e. severe anaemia, fever bleeding. | 3 | Aute lymphatic leukemia | Aplastic anemia | Idiopathic thrombocytopenis purpura | Acute viral infection | Pediatrics | null | c90a2bc3-d7b5-4b0b-bc4d-3d73e312f106 | single |
Bevacizumab is used for treatment of carcinoma of: | The use of bevacizumab (a monoclonal antibody to VEGF) was recently approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in metastatic breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel chemotherapy. This approval was based on results from a phase III trial by the Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group. The group's E2100 trial showed that when bevacizumab was added to paclitaxel chemotherapy, median progression-free survival increased to 11.3 months from the 5.8 months seen in patients who received paclitaxel alone Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 17. | 1 | Breast | Stomach | lung | None of the above | Surgery | null | 03f9d7f7-e479-43cc-b5fe-9b154a52bc8e | multi |
Zero order kinetics is shown by which drug - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Theophylline 1 o Drugs showing zero/pseudo-zero order kinetics :# Phenytoin# Tolbutamide# Theophylline# Warfarin# Alcohol# Salicylates (Aspirin) | 2 | Digoxin | Theophylline | Phenobarbitane | Etomidate | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | 208c8dfe-a772-49a0-aba0-ded7d7fd038f | single |
Homer's syndrome consists of- | D i.e. Miosis and ptosis Homer's syndrome presents with - ENopthalmos Q, Ptosis Q, Anhidrosis, Loss of ciliospinal reflexes Q, MiosisQ (Mnemonic - "NO-PALM") Way of remembering - all things are decreased whether it be the size of pupil (miosis), or proptosis of eye (enopthalmos), or palpebral size (ptosis), or unilateral loss of sweating (anhidrosis), or reflexes (loss of ciliospinal reflexes). | 4 | miosis and endopthalmos | miosis and exopthalmos | miosis and proptosis | miosis and ptosis | Ophthalmology | null | 77f64b2b-ee99-4de6-99ff-2d1afb33dbff | single |
When is this gross motor milestone attained by a child? | The given picture shows a child creeping upstairs, that comes at around 15 months age; Another impoant milestone that appears at around 15 months age is Jargon speech | 3 | 6 months | 12 months | 15 months | 24 months | Pediatrics | Impoant Motor Milestones | 199f259d-96d3-41c2-ab65-b2f197b9e065 | single |
Which one of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant? | Isoxsuprine, magnesium, ritodrine, salbutamol, and terbutaline to some extent, atosiban, calcium channel blockers could act as uterine relaxants or tocolytics Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | 2 | Isoxsuprine | Dopamine | Salbutamol | Terbutaline | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | 1593ebaf-98c7-4ef9-9d4d-42c9256c4388 | single |
An example of a preventive antioxidant is: | Antioxidants fall into two classes:
Preventive antioxidants, which reduce the rate of chain initiation. ex: Catalase and other peroxidases such as glutathione peroxidase.
Chain-breaking antioxidants, which interfere with chain propagation. ex: Superoxide Dismutase, Uric Acid, Vitamin E (Most powerful).
Key Concept:
Catalase falls into preventive anti-oxidants which reduce the rate of chain initiation.
Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition. | 1 | Catalase | Tocopherol | Superoxide dismutase | Urate | Biochemistry | null | 708505d4-4b0f-4318-8357-b98f309b06ef | single |
Daily loss of Iron per day in a healthy adult male is | null | 2 | 0.06 mg | 0.6 mg | 60 mg | 600 mg | Pathology | null | d3c60f05-6e90-4e51-972c-214bf57febf8 | single |
Characteristic of exudative fluid is - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cellular debris Types of edema fluidIn edema, the fluid accumulated in interstitial fluid may be either a transudate or an exudate. Exudate is an inflammatory fluid that contains high protein content, cellular debris, and specific gravity >1.020. It occurs due to increased vascular permeability.Transudate contains low protein (mostly albumin) with specific gravity < 1.012.It is an ultrafiltrate of plasma that results from hydrostatic or osmotic imbalance between intravascular and extravascular compaments despite normal vascular permeability | 4 | Low protein content | Specific gravity < 1.012 | Normal vascular permeability | Cellular debris | Pathology | null | 9c03246d-2a4e-4a7a-88ab-8f5fc6c46c3c | single |
A 30 yrs old gentleman after sustaining road traffic accident present in emergency with BP 100/60 mmHg, Pulse 120 min and C.T. shows splenic laceration at inferior border. after 2 units of blood transfusion, patients conditions are - BP 120/70 mmHg and pulse 84/min; the next line of management is - | null | 3 | Laparotomy | Splenorrhaphy | Continue the conservative treatment and take subsequent measures on monitoring the pt. | Splenectomy | Surgery | null | a4c4fe6b-4189-408a-ac7d-ddb17b135d08 | single |
Largest turbinate is | Conchae or turbinates are the curved bony projections directed downwards and medially.Below and lateral to each concha is the corresponding meatus.From above downwards the conchae are superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae. Sometimes a 4th concha, the concha suprema is also present. Superior and middle nasal conchae are projections from the medial surface of the ethmoidal labyrinth.Inferior concha is an independent bone. The superior concha is the smallest and the inferior is the largest in size. Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck and brainVishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no255. | 2 | Superior | Inferior | Middle | All are of the same size | Anatomy | Head and neck | e36f1466-0658-47ae-ad2e-c9b0d9ba34da | multi |
The following statments are true for negri bodies except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., They do not contain rabies virus antigen | 4 | They are pathognomic of rabies | They are found in the brain | They are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies | They do not contain rabies virus antigen | Microbiology | null | 50dd2953-7b13-49b4-bb4f-bb4da425b6c5 | multi |
Complications of tuberular meningitis include all except- | null | 2 | Hydrocephalus | Cortical venous thrombosis | Cerebral Artery Thrombosis | Cranial Nerve Palsy | Medicine | null | 322ac080-3d88-498f-8887-d1e20f3c0efe | multi |
HIV transmission to the newborn is most commonly and effectively by | Ans. b (Vaginal delivery). (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th/pg.38, 1082)MATERN AL-FETAL/INFANT TRANSMISSION# The predominant cause of HIV infection in children is transmission of the virus from the mother to the newborn during the perinatal period.# The majority of cases of mother-to-child (vertical) transmission of HIV-1 occur during the intrapartum period.# Exposures, which increase the risk of mother-to-child transmission, include -- Vaginal delivery,- Preterm delivery,- Maternal bleeding, and# Trauma to the fetal skin.# Perinatal HIV transmission can be most accurately correlated with measurement of maternal plasma HIV RNA burden.# In the absence of prophylactic antiretroviral therapy to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery, and to the fetus following birth (see below), the probability of transmission of HIV from mother to infant/fetus ranges from 15- 25% in industrialized countries and from 25-35% in developing countries.# In developed countries, current recommendations to reduce perinatal transmission of HIV include- universal voluntary HIV testing and counseling of pregnant women,- antiretroviral prophylaxis with one or more drugs in cases in which the mother does not require therapy for her HIV infection,- combination therapy for women who do require therapy,- obstetric management that attempts to minimize exposure of the infant to maternal blood and genital secretions, and- avoidance of breast-feeding.# Certain studies have demonstrated that truncated regimens of zidovudine alone or in combination with lamivudine given to the mother during the last few weeks of pregnancy or even only during labor and delivery, and to the infant for a week or less, significantly reduced transmission to the infant compared to placebo.# Short-course prophylactic antiretroviral (ARV) regimens, such as a single dose of nevirapine given to the mother at the onset of labor and a single dose to the infant within 72 h of birth, are of particular relevance to low- to mid-income nations because of the low cost and the fact that in these regions perinatal care is often not available and pregnant women are often seen by a health care provider for the first time at or near the time of delivery.# Indeed, short-course ARV regimens have now been used for several years in developing nations for the prevention of mother-to-child transmission. | 2 | LSCS | Vaginal delivery | Perinatal | Breast feeding | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | f588a6e8-4f5b-4372-a417-d6dabcfacbcb | single |
A patient presents with headache for one hour on awakening, associated with nasal stuffiness and reddening of eye. Suggestive of | (A) Cluster headache # Cluster headache (CH) is an idiopathic syndrome consisting of recurrent brief attacks of sudden, severe, unilateral periorbita pain> Attacks of CH are typically short in duration (5-180 min) and occur with a frequency from once every other day to 8 times a day, particularly during sleep. As opposed to migraine, CH is not preceded by aura, affording patients little or no warning.> Pain generally is described as excruciating, penetrating, and not throbbing.> It may radiate to other areas of the face and neck but is typically periorbital.> It may be triggered by stress, relaxation, extreme temperatures, glare, allergic rhinitis, and sexual activity.> CH rarely is triggered by ingestion of specific foods, although tobacco or alcohol products may precipitate an attack.> An attack of CH is a dramatic event during which the patient may be extremely restless. In desperation, CH patients may rock, sit, pace, or bang themselves against a hard surface.> The association of prominent autonomic phenomena is a hallmark of CH. Such signs include ipsilateral nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, lacrimation, conjunctival hyperemia, facial diaphoresis, palpebral edema, and complete or partial Horner syndrome (which may persist between attacks). Tachycardia is a frequent finding.> A distinctive CH face is described as follows: leonine facial appearance, multifurrowed and thickened skin with prominent folds, a broad chin, vertical forehead creases, and nasal telangiectasias.> Persons affected by CHs often are tall and rugged-looking. | 1 | Cluster headache | Tension headache | Migraine | All of the above | Medicine | Miscellaneous | f90c2ea0-83e0-40e4-8e4f-44da91897d4e | multi |
Actinomycosis is a | null | 2 | Aerobic bacterial disease | Anaerobic bacterial disease | Aerobic fungal disease | Anaerobic fungal disease | Microbiology | null | fae31830-511d-4800-b067-f9e20c5fddd7 | single |
Hematuria during labour in previous is sign of - | Ans. is a i.e. Impending rupture of scar Now friends - here in the question it is asked specifically that hematuria is seen in a patient with previous LSCS during labour - which indicates impending rupture of scar? "There are no reliable signs of impending uterine rupture that occurs before labor, although the sudden appearance of gross hematuria is suggestive. Here in this questions obstructed labor is not given in the options, but even if it was given, I would have still opted for impending scar rupture as the question is specifically asking, in a case of previous LSCS. | 1 | Impending rupture of scar | Urethral trauma | Prolong labour | Sepsis | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | 1f976616-c259-4834-8aa2-8ba19fd0ca06 | single |
All the following statements are true for influenza viruses except: | Influenza viruses show following features: 1. Influenza viruses are spherical or filamentous,posses helical symmetry, enveloped paicles 80-120 nm in diameter. 2. Influenza virus is composed of a characteristic segmented single-stranded RNA genome, a nucleocapsid, and an envelope. 3. The viral genome is a single-stranded antisense RNA. The genome consists of an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which transcribes the negative-polarity genome into mRNA. 4. The genome consists of eight segments. These segments code for different proteins which are NS1, NS2, NP, M1, M2, M3, HA, and NA. 5. Two types of spikes or peplomers project from the envelope: (a) the triangular hemagglutinin (HA) peplomers and (b) the mushroom-shaped neuraminidase (NA) peplomers. | 2 | Helical symmetry | Single stranded non segmented RNA | Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes present | RNA dependent RNA polymerase | Microbiology | Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses) | 0cc43bbf-b8c2-4b1d-bd37-7c7e4ee2cc04 | multi |
Macrocytic anaemia in children is produced by all except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Copper deficiency Morphology of RBC o Normal human red blood cells are biconcave discs (diskocytes) with a.mean diameter of about 7.5 m. o The hemoglobin of red cells is located peripherally, leaving an area of central pallor equal to approximately 30-35% of diameter of the cells. o Cells of normal size and normal hemoglobin content (color) are termed normocytic and nonmochromic. o When red cells diameter is greater than 9 mm, they are referred as macrocytes. o When red cells diameter is less than 6 mm, they are referred as microcytes. o Variation in size of RBCs is known as anisocytosis. o Variation in shape of RBCs is known as poikilocytosis. Causes of macrocytosis o Causes of megaloblastic anaemia : Vitamin B deficiency : Decrease intake - Inadequate diet, vegetarianism. Impaired absorption : Intrinsic factor deficiency Pernicious anaemia Gastrectomy Malabsorption states Diffuse intestinal disease eg Lymphoma, systemic sclerosis. Heal resection, ilitis Competitive parasitic uptake eg. fish tape worm infestation. Bacterial over growth in blind loops and diveicula of bowel. Increased requirement: pregnancy, hypehyroidism, disseminated cancer. Folic acid deficiency : Decreased intake : inadequate diet, alcoholism & infancy Impaired absorption e.g. malabsorption state Intestinal diseases Anticonvulsants, OCP. Increased loss: haemodialysis Increased requirement : Pregnancy, infancy, disseminated cancer & markedly increased haemoptysis. Impaired use : folic acid antagonist. Other causes of megaloblastic anemia Thiamine deficiency Hereditary orotic aciduria Congenital dyserythropetic anemia Pyridoxine deficiency Di-Gueglielrno syndrome Hypothyroidism | 3 | Thiamine deficiency | Orotic acideueia | Copper deficiency | Liver disease | Pediatrics | null | 50681a5d-7f76-45cf-acec-0ae1f90be392 | multi |
Lateral Medullary Syndrome involves all of the following cranial nerves, Except: | Answer is D (XII CN): Cranial Nerve XII is involved in the Medial medullary syndrome and not in Lateral medullary syndrome. Lateral Medullary Syndrome involves the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve and its tract (CN V); Vestibular nuclei (CN VIII); Nucleus Ambiguous (IX, X, XI) and fibers of the cranial nerves IX and X. Cranial Nerves involved in Lateral Mediallary syndrome: V, VIII, IX, X, XI | 4 | Vth CN | IXth CN | Xth CN | XII CN | Medicine | null | 5d91f850-5ef8-48bb-a9cc-454a319e447f | multi |
Bivalent meningococcal vaccine is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., A C Two type of meningococcal vaccine develop Unconjugated polysaccharide vaccine. Conjugated group C vaccine. Polysaccharide vaccines Internationally marketed meningococcal polysaccharide vaccines are o Bivalent (A and C), Trivalent (A, C and W-135) Tetravalent (A, C, Y and W-135). The vaccines are purified, heat-stable, lyophilized capsular polysaccharides from meningococci of the respective serogroups. A protective antibody response occurs within 10 days of vaccination. In schoolchildren and adults, one dose of these polysaccharide vaccines appears to provide protection for at least 3 years, but in children under 4 years of age the levels of specific antibodies decline rapidly after 2-3 years. | 2 | A Y | A C | C y | A W-I35 | Pediatrics | null | 3f2f30a9-5c4f-4db7-9933-13a683d791be | single |
All of the following organization have their head quarter at Geneva except | null | 1 | UNICEF | WHO | ILO | None | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | b445b76d-ac16-42f5-88da-c9b4568a7490 | multi |
A patient has extremely enlarged palatine tonsils. You suggest surgical removal of the tonsils, but you do explain that there is a small risk of the surgery, which may result in which of the following? | The palatine tonsil sits in the lateral wall of the oropharynx in the palatine arch posterior to the palatoglossus muscle and anterior to the palatopharyngeus muscle. In the bed of the palatine tonsil runs the glossopharyngeal CN (IX) that carries afferent information back to the brain regarding both general sensation and the special sense of taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue. The glossopharyngeal nerve is at risk for being cut during tonsillectomy. The ability to taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is not at risk because that information is carried by the lingual nerve, below the tongue. The ability to protrude your tongue is provided by innervation from the hypoglossal nerve, which innervates all the intrinsic tongue muscles and lies below the tongue and is not a risk. Neither the ability to open your jaw wide nor to move your jaw from side to side is controlled by the mandibular division of the trigeminal CN (V), which does not course near the palatine arch and would not be at risk. | 4 | Loss in the ability to taste salt in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue | Loss in the ability to protrude her tongue, thus limiting her ability to lick an ice cream cone | Weakness in the ability to open her mouth fully when eating an apple due to damage to the innervation to the lateral pterygoid muscle | Loss in the ability to taste in the posterior one-third of the tongue and perhaps some difficulty in swallowing | Unknown | null | 61d3a8c2-b431-4f0c-a93a-c331d03081ec | multi |
A per NFHS III data, the wealthiest state is: | Delhi has the highest percentage of population (70%) in the highest quintile of wealth index, followed by Goa (55%). States with low wealth index include Chhattisgarh and Orissa. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 639. | 1 | Delhi | Haryana | Punjab | Goa | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | e5c3b933-b83b-4958-8d85-36b0df103ff4 | single |
Calcification is best detected by - | Calcification is best detected by CT scan. | 3 | X-ray | USG | CT scan | MRI | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | 8a8bbee3-1643-49cb-80bf-ce2b5dc26bc2 | single |
A 9 year old girl was admited for dialysis. On laboratory examination her potassium levels were 7.8 mEq/L. Which of the following would quickly lower her increased potassium levels - | null | 2 | IV calcium gluconate | IV Glucose and insulin | Oral kayexalate in sorbitol | IV NaHCO3 | Medicine | null | e378f41d-27cf-41ba-b577-630f46627607 | single |
A 3-day-old male has a noticeably small mandible. A CT scan and physical examinations reveal hypoplasia of the mandible, cleft palate, and defects of the eye and ear. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely produce such symptoms? | The listed symptoms are typical of first arch syndrome because the first arch normally gives rise to muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, malleus, and incus. Abnormal development of the second arch would affect the muscles of facial expression, the stapes, and parts of the hyoid bone. Abnormal development of the third pharyngeal arch would affect only the stylopharyngeus and parts of the hyoid bone. Abnormal development of the fourth and sixth arch would affect various muscles and cartilages of the larynx and pharynx and would not produce the hypoplastic mandible characteristic of first arch syndrome. | 1 | First arch | Second arch | Third arch | Fourth arch | Anatomy | Head & Neck | b0db7678-d4d6-4201-b2d6-c1917154c718 | multi |
Both antibody dependent and independent complement pathway converge on which complement component? | null | 1 | C3 | C1q | C8 | C1r | Microbiology | null | 7474fb77-a4a0-4d31-87d9-3e4064bde12e | multi |
A 70-year male utters same answers to all questions. He is suffering from | Same answers to all questions' can be seen in schizophrenia, mania and organic brain disease also but the age factor in this question is pointing more towards organic brain disease like dementia. Hence option C is more appropriate answer among the given options. Reference: The peak ages of onset of schizophrenia are 10 to 25 years for men and 25 to 35 years for women.About 90 percent of patients in treatment for schizophrenia are between 15 and 55 years old. Onset of schizophrenia before age 10 years or after age 60 years is extremely rare. The age of onset for bipolar I disorder ranges from childhood (as early as age 5 or 6 years) to 50 years or even older in rare cases, with a mean age of 30 years. The mean age of onset for major depressive | 3 | Mania | Schizophrenia | Organic brain disease | Convulsions | Psychiatry | Symptoms and signs in psychiatry and classification | e45dae80-605d-4607-840d-88b3f6ae54fa | multi |
Onset of post spinal headache is usually at hours after spinal anesthesia | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 12 - 72 | 3 | 0 - 6 | 12-Jun | Dec-72 | 72 - 96 | Anaesthesia | null | a56763bc-c352-4c23-b642-a21d9e8ab352 | multi |
A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The infective form of parasite for humans is the - | Enterobius vermicularus mainly affects children. The gravid female worm lays ova around the anus ,causing itching especially at night .The ova are often carried to the mouth on the fingers & so re-infection or human to human infection takes place. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1120 | 2 | Filariform larvae | Embryonated egg | Adult female | Adult male | Medicine | Infection | d5d4974a-df75-4137-9cd7-6ee47853675b | single |
Child admitted with meningitis. Examination reveals gram negative diplococci. History of previous similar infection is present with same organism. Which of the following should be suspected? | Ans: A (Complement deficiency) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th edition, 2008, Chapter 136, pg: 911 and Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th editionExplanation:Defects in Complement SystemHost DefectDisease or Therapy Associated With DefectCommon Etioiogic Agent of InfectionC3* Congenital liver disease* SLE* Nephrotic syndrome* S. aureus* S. pneumoniae* Pseudomonas spp* Proteus spc.C5* Congenital* Neisseria spp.* Gram-negative rodsC6,C7,C8* Congenital,* SLE* Neisseria meningitidis* N. qonorrhoeaeAlternativepathway* Sickie cell disease* S. pneumonia* Salmonella spp. | 1 | Complement deficiency | Immunoglobulin deficiency | T cell | 8 cell | Unknown | null | 94629f44-0289-4926-a894-50171a3a65f8 | single |
Non coding RNAs are: | A, B, C, i.e. siRNA, miRNA, tRNANoncoding (nc) RNAs are all RNAs that do not encode protein. They are also called non protein coding (npc) RNA, non-messenger (nm) RNA, small (s) RNA, and functional (fl RNA. The gene (DNA sequence) from which a nc-RNA is transcribed as end product is called non coding RNA gene or RNA gene.Non coding (nc) RNAs include ribosomal (r) RNA, transfer (t) RNA, small nuclear (sn) RNA, small nucleolar (sno) RNA, sca RNA, small temporal (st) RNA, micro (mi) RNA, small interfering (si)RNAQ, pi RNA, rasi RNA, line RNA, antisense RNA, and long nc RNAs like Xist & HOTAIR,Messenger (m) RNA is a coding RNA. | 4 | siRNA | miRNA | tRNA | All | Biochemistry | null | b13fa39b-62c9-4877-b6e5-c1b386861443 | multi |
All of the following is true about achalasia cardia except- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Males are affected more than the females * Achalasia cardia is a motor disorder of the esophageal smooth muscle in which the LES does not relax normally with swallowing, & the esophageal body undergoes nonperistaltic contractions. (Primary peristalsis is absent or reduced).* The pathogenesis of Achlasia is poorly understood.* It involves:# Neurogenic degeneration either idiopathic or due to infection. The degenerative changes are either intrinsic (degeneration of ganglion cells of Aurebach'smyentric plexus) or extrinsic (extraesophagealvagus nerve or the dorsal motor nucleus of vagus)# Pharmacologic studies suggest dysfunction of inhibitory neurons containing nitric oxideand vasoactive intestinal polypeptide in the distal esophagus (LES). The cholinergic innervation of the LES is intact or affected only in advanced disease.* Asa result of the abnormality, the LES fails to relax, primary peristalsis is absent in esophagus which dilates. As the disease progresses the esophagus becomes massively dilated and tortuous.Clinical findings# Both sexes are equally affected # May develop at any age but peak years are from 30 to 60.# Classical clinical symptom is progressive dysphagia for both solids and liquids. Dysphagia is worsened by emotional stress and hurried eating.# Regurgitation and Pulmonary aspiration occur because of retention of large volumes of saliva and ingested food in the esophagus.# Esophagitis with ulceration may occur with chronic retention of food.# Pain is infrequent in classical achlasia but a variant called vigrous achlasia is characterized by chest pain and esophageal spasms that generate non-propuloine high-pressure waves in the body of the esophagus.Diagnosis# Chest x-ray - shows absence of gastric air bubble, an air-fluid level in the mediastinum in the upright position representing retained food in oesophagus.# Barium swallow - shows dilated esophagus with tapering narrowing in the terminal end of esophagus described as 'birds' beak' appearance. Fluoroscopy shows loss of normal peristalsis in the lower two thirds of esophagus.# Endoscopy may be done to rule out any secondary cause of achlasiaeg. carcinoma, stricture at LES.Manometry# It's the most confrmatory investigation# it is able to distinguish between various forms of motor disorders of esophagus# Manometric characteristics of Achlasia* Incomplete lower esophageal sphincter relaxation (< 75% relaxation)* Elevated LES pressure* Loss of primary peristaltic waves in the esophageal body, but disorganized muscular activity may be present.* Increased intraesophageal baseline pressure relative to gastric baseline.* Cholecystokinin (CCK) which normally causes a fall in the sphincter pressure, paradoxically causes contraction of the LES (the CCK test). This paradoxical response occurs because, in achlasia the neurally transmitted inhibitory effect of CCK is absent owing to the loss of inhibitory neurons. | 2 | Lower esophageal sphincter does not relax normally | Males are affected more than the females | Absence of gastric air bibble is a sign seen on X-ray | Manometry is the most confirmatory investigation | Surgery | Oesophagus | 1dab90a8-f70c-433e-aac7-9eb65f9dcaae | multi |
Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty? | Types of Tympanoplasty Wullstein classified tympanoplasty into five types . Type I Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane which is repaired with a graft. It is also called myringoplasty. Type II Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane with erosion of malleus. Graft is placed on the incus or remnant of malleus. Type III Malleus and incus are absent. Graft is placed directly on the stapes head. It is also called myringostapediopexy or columella tympanoplasty. Type IV Only the footplate of stapes is present. It is exposed to the external ear, and graft is placed between the oval and round windows. A narrow middle ear (cavum minor) is thus created to have an air pocket around the round window. A mucosa-lined space extends from the eustachian tube to the round window. Sound waves in this case act directly on the footplate while the round window has been shielded. Type V Stapes footplate is fixed but round window is functioning. In such cases, another window is created on horizontal semicircular canal and covered with a graft. Also called Fenestration operation. Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition, page 30. | 4 | Type - 2 | Type - 3 | Type - 4 | Type - 5 | ENT | Diagnostic and operative ENT | 5fe6b0be-96aa-40dd-b1fe-278f019af66d | single |
External Cephalic Version (ECV) is contraindicated in all of the following , EXCEPT? | ECV -Absolute contraindications : Placenta pre Multifetal gestation Severe contracted pelvis - Relative contraindications Early labor oligohydramnios or rupture of membranes structural uterine abnormalities fetal growth restriction prior abruption | 2 | Twins | Flexed breech | Premature Rupture of membranes | Previous abruption | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management | 9763004d-12e1-47d2-9aca-84d92a81c335 | multi |
The external urethral sphincter is located in which of the following regions? | The external urethral sphincter is the voluntary sphincter composed of skeletal muscle, the sphincter urethrae muscle. This muscle, along with the deep transverse perineal muscle, are in the deep perineal space and form the muscular layer of the urogenital diaphragm. The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle in the neck of the bladder. The internal and external sphincters are both open during micturition. During ejaculation, the external sphincter is open and the internal sphincter is closed. | 4 | Ischiorectal fossa | Extrapeoneal space | Retropubic space | Deep perineal space | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | b980912a-a874-4aee-8904-510c8fca188f | single |
Neurotransmitter released in response to raised blood pressure: | Ans. A. AcetylcholineWhenever blood pressure rises, there is reflex stimulation of baroreceptors. These release Ach and depress the heart. | 1 | Acetylcholine | Adrenaline | Dopamine | Nor-adrenaline | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | eddbc9e8-174f-49a7-8823-2ad55950c8db | single |
A 43-year-old man is hit in the face with a baseball bat and presents to the emergency department with massive facial swelling, ecchymosis, and an elongated face. There is mobility of the middle third of the face on digital manipulation of the maxilla. What is the likely diagnosis? | The physical findings are characteristics of a Le Fort III fracture (Figure below). In this injury, the fracture passes through maxilla and nasal bones and above the zygomatic bone.Classic Le Fort fracture patterns | 3 | Lambdoid injury | Odontoid fracture | LeFort III fracture | Palatal split | Surgery | Trauma | 5f114658-03b5-4e65-8899-536cf718b503 | multi |
Ovary develop from: | Ans. is b, i.e. Genital ridgeRef: Dutta Gynae 8th/ed, p38Male and female derivatives of embryonic urogenital structures.Part of female genital systemOriginates fromOvaryGenital ridgeFallopiantubesUterus CervixUpperpartofvagina [?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?] Mullerian/paramesonephric ductLower part of vaginaSinovaginal bulb/urogenital Sinus | 2 | Mullerian duct | Genital ridge | Genital tubercle | Mesonephric duct | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malformation of the Female Generative Organs | 1e259266-70f7-4b47-9298-cd0827bfb831 | single |
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