question
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| exp
stringlengths 1
22.5k
⌀ | cop
int64 1
4
| opa
stringlengths 1
287
| opb
stringlengths 1
287
| opc
stringlengths 1
286
| opd
stringlengths 1
301
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | id
stringlengths 36
36
| choice_type
stringclasses 2
values |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Characteristic toxicity of daxorubicin - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cardiotoxicity Anthracvclineso Anthracyclines are anticancer antibiotics and they include Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and Daunorubicin.o The major toxicity of anthracyclines is potentially irreversible cumulative dose related toxicityo They may causes arrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. Because of their carditoxicity these drugs should be avoided in the patient with MI and CHF.o The antracyclines exert their anticancer activity through four major mechanisms -1. Inhibition of topoisomerase II2. Blockade of synthesis of DNA & RNA, and DNA strand scission.3. Alter fluidity and ion transport.4. Generation of semiquinone free radicals and oxygen free radicals - this free radical mechanism is the cause of cardiotoxicity.o This cardiootoxicity can be prevented by using dexrazoxane (a free radical scavenger) and a-tocopherol.o Liposomal forms of these drugs also reduce cardiac toxicity.o Adverse effects - Dose related myelosuppression with neutropenia, dose limiting mucositis, cardiotoxicity (AI 96, 94, AIIMS 93)o Uses of Doxorubicin# Ca Breast# Ca Endometrium# Ca ovary# Ca testicle# Ca thyroid# Ca lung# Hodgkin s disease# Non Hodgkin disease# Sarcomaso Uses of Daunorubicin# It has far narrower spectrum of activity than Doxorubicin# It is mainly used in acute leukemia. | 2 | Pulmonary fibrosis | Cardiotoxicity | Peripheral neuropathy | Hemorrhagic cystitis | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | eb08e6c9-1723-45b4-be7b-30e419a9d40a | single |
Which of the following event occurs during the ovulation phase ? | The activins and inhibins are glycoproteins that belong to the transforming growth factor -b superfamily. They are secreted from granulose cells. FSH induces steroidogenesis (estradiol production) in granulosa cells in the preovulatory phase (follicular phase). Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum occurs at ovulation, till then the oocyte is resting in the prophase of the first meiotic division. This is the reason why the 1st polar body is released along with ovulation. (The second polar body is released after feilisation). Inhibin B has shown increased levels in mid-follicular phase, has a periovular peak, and then declines in luteal phase. Inhibin A is low in follicular phase, reaches a small peak in mid-follicular phase, and increases to reach a peak in luteal phase. Just like inhibin, which is a inhibitory co-molecule of FSH, Activin is also a co-molecule of FSH and is increased when action of FSH is required. i.e. action of FSH is activin mediated. Hence, activin will be highest when the FSH action is maximum in the early follicular phase | 4 | Increase in inhibin A level | FSH induce steroidogenesis in granulosa cells in secretory phase | Activin increases | Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Tests of Ovulation | 88c04c95-080a-4531-a814-bcead4f26455 | single |
The Ames test is a method for detecting | Mutagenesis in bacteria The Ames test is carried out in Salmonella and detects mutations in the bacterial DNA. Because mutagenic potential is associated with carcinogenic risk for many chemicals, the Ames test is often used to claim that a paicular agent may be a carcinogen. However, the test itself only detects mutations. | 4 | Carcinogenesis in rodents | Carcinogenesis in primates | Teratogenesis in any mammalian species | Mutagenesis in bacteria | Surgery | null | c8d76274-6e3b-4098-97fe-ca96618e9133 | single |
Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except | Ureter has three constrictions, which are the most common sites of renal calculus obstruction: at the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ) of the renal pelvis and the ureter as the ureter enters the pelvis and crosses over the common iliac aery bifurcation at the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ) as the ureter obliquely enters the bladder wall Ref - BDC vol2 6e , researchgate.net | 4 | Ureteropelvic junction | Ureterovesical junction | Crossing of iliac aery | Ischial spine | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | 8f920b08-7867-470b-a775-8e219541416a | multi |
Most important muscle which opens mouth is - | Lateral pterygoid depresses the mandible to open the mouth, with suprahyoid muscles. | 1 | Lateral pterygoid | Medical pterygoid | Masseter | Temporalis | Anatomy | null | baf9416d-a62c-4615-9a7b-0ffb6f81fb22 | single |
The most important factor to overcome protein energy malnutrition in children less than 3 years is –a) Supply of subsidised food from ration shopb) Early supplementation of solids in infantsc) Immunisation to the childd) Treatment of anaemia and pneumonia in infant and toddlers | null | 4 | a | c | ac | bc | Pediatrics | null | 8019ed81-e337-4d30-b30b-a0d141ffda5f | single |
Temp of water used to cool the burn wound? | 15ºC is the best temp for cooling burn wound. | 4 | 20ºc | 25ºC | 10ºC | 15ºC | Surgery | null | 052f5a0a-d731-4615-acdb-a34524f67b50 | single |
A male 45 years old presents to the dental clinic with pain in lower back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals carious 36. Root canal treatment done and metal ceramic crown has to be placed. Dentist makes an impression. All of the following are the properties of the material except: | To produce accurate replicas of intra- and extraoral tissues, the impression materials should be:
Sufficiently fluid to adapt to the oral tissues.
Viscous enough to be contained in a tray.
Able to transform (set) into a rubbery or rigid solid in the mouth in a reasonable time (less than 7 min).
Resistant to distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth.
Dimensionally stable long enough to allow one or more casts to be poured.
Biocompatible.
Cost-effective in terms of time as well as the expense of the associated processing equipment.
Key Concept:
The impression material should be resistant to distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth.
Reference: Phillips’ science of dental materials / Kenneth J. Anusavice, Chiayi Shen, H. Ralph Rawls.—12th ed.Page no 152 | 3 | Sufficiently fluid to adapt to the oral tissues | Viscous enough to be contained in a tray | Undergoes distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth | Biocompatible | Dental | null | 748ad136-fb91-49b5-b49d-cc0dec682334 | multi |
Desert rheumatism is caused by: | Ans. C. CoccidioidesSporothrix (Sporotrochosis), Histoplasma (Histoplasmosis), Coccidioides (Desert rheumatism or Valley fever), Paracoccidioides (South American Blastomycosis), Blastomyces (North American Blastomycosis), Talaromycesmarneffei. | 3 | Cryptococcus | Candida | Coccidioides | Chromoblastomycosis | Microbiology | Mycology | bcdde484-d76b-42e0-b67b-8b78e40f2738 | single |
A 40 year old female presented with numerous, nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is | B i.e. Secondary syphilis Secondary syphilis presents with generalized, symmetrical, nonitchy, coppery red maculoppular lesions (+- scales) on trunk, extremities and even palm and solesQ. Oral and genital superficial mucosal erosion (patches) are painless silver-grayQ surrounded by red periphery. And warm, moist, interiginous areas (such as perianal area, vulva and scrotum) show large, hyperophic, coalesced gray-white, highly infections papules (Condylomata lata)Q. | 2 | Psoriasis | Secondary syphilis | Lichen planus | Disseminated candidiasis | Skin | null | 12d863d3-bf65-4f3a-893e-33842561c804 | single |
Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anthropozoonoses Classification of zoonoses 1) Based on direction of transmission : (i) Anthropozoonoses, (ii) Zoonthroponoses, and (iii) Amphixenoses 2) Based on type of life cycle : (i) Direct zoonoses, (ii) Cyclo-zoonoses, (iii) Meta-zoonoses, and (iv) Sporozoonoses. | 3 | Cyclo-zoonoses | Meta-zoonoses | Anthropozoonoses | Sporozoonoses | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 8272ad74-fd58-43e3-8640-fd6e01812272 | multi |
Testicular tumour most sensitive to radiation is- | null | 4 | Teratoma | Lymphoma | Mixed germ cell tumor | Seminoma | Surgery | null | 8ad5fa1e-3c0e-4892-839d-85aa169de40f | single |
A 58 year old male alcoholic with chronic pancreatitis develops a palpable abdominal mass. Ultrasound reveals a 9 cm cystic lesion adjacent to the pancreas. An impoant complication that might occur if this cyst ruptured would be? | The patient most likely has a pancreatic pseudocyst, which is a complication of pancreatitis. Pancreatic pseudocyst is not a true cyst; it is lined by granulation tissue and collagen. It contains pancreatic juices and lysed blood, so rupture would spill the active digestive enzymes onto the adjacent viscera, paicularly the stomach, small intestine, and transverse colon. Digestive action produces potentially severe gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Anaphylactic shock results from massive activation of the IgE-mediated branch of the immune system. Pancreatic secretions do not elicit an IgE response. The classic abdominal cyst that ruptures, producing anaphylactic shock, is a hydatid cyst. Carcinomatosis is widespread serosal spread of a carcinoma, typically due to tumor spillage into a body cavity. Although this may occur with pancreatic mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, this disease is far less likely to occur than is pancreatic pseudocyst in a patient with chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatic pseudocyst is not an infective disease. Although septic abscesses do occur in the abdomen, and may even complicate a pancreatic pseudocyst, the danger of rupture is more associated with tissue destruction by pancreatic enzymes than with infection. Ref: Fisher W.E., Anderson D.K., Bell R.H., Saluja A.K., Brunicardi F.C. (2010). Chapter 33. Pancreas. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | 4 | Anaphylactic shock | Carcinomatosis | Disseminated infection | Intestinal hemorrhage | Surgery | null | bd7fa1d4-b3f2-4a50-9315-054b68938f36 | single |
What is the wavelength of light used in light cure system: | The range is 400-500nm.
But if question has been asked for specific wavelength then 474nm is more appropriate. | 2 | 400nm | 474nm. | 500nm | Any of the above. | Dental | null | c6c09df1-73cf-4647-860f-1a12e243765b | multi |
Signs and symptoms usually develop within 15-30 minutes of strychnine ingestion. What is the fatal dose of strychnine? | Strychnine poisoning: It is an alkaloid derived from the seeds of the tree Strychnos nux-vomica. The potentially fatal dose of strychnine is approximately 50-100 mg (1 mg/kg) and fatal period is 1-2 hours. Strychnine competitively antagonizes glycine, an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by postsynaptic inhibitory neurons in the spinal cord. Muscular stiffness and painful cramps precede generalized muscle contractions, extensor muscle spasms, and opisthotonus. Death usually is caused by respiratory arrest that results from intense contraction of the respiratory muscles. Ref: Nordt S.P. (2012). Chapter 145. Strychnine. In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e. | 3 | 10-15 mg | 20-40 mg | 60-100 mg | 100-120 mg | Forensic Medicine | null | bbdd68bc-4f89-4524-9983-1a4d85b735b8 | multi |
Which of the following drugs decreases the effect of levodopa- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vit. B complex Interactions of levodopa Pyridoxine abolishes the therapeutic effect by enhancing peripheral decarboxylation of levodpa. Less levodpoa is thus available to cross BBB, to be conveed into dopamine in dopaminergic neurones in CNS Phenothiazines, butyrophenones, and metoclopramide reverse therapeutic effect by blocking DA receptors. The antidopaminergic domperidone blocks levodopa induced nausea and vomiting without abolishing its antiparkinsonian effect, because domperidone does not cross the blood brain barrier. Reserpine abolishes levodopa action by preventing entry of DA into synaptic vesicles. Nonselective MAO inhibitors: prevent degradation of peripherally synthesized DA and NA hypeensive crisis may occur. Atropine and other anticholinergic drugs have additive antiparkinsonion action, but retard its absorption more time is available for peripheral degradation Efficacy of levodopa may be reduced. Note : Pyridoxine is a component of vit B complex. | 3 | Carbidopa | MAO inhibitors | Vit. B complex | COMT | Pharmacology | null | 01eefdd6-df22-4655-9d65-a240d34ec725 | single |
Which of the following contraceptives can prevent a pregnancy when used alone after an act of unprotected intercourse? | Emergency contraceptives IUCD: Can prevent implantation up till 5th day of unprotected inter-course Progesterone only pill: LNG 1.5 mg :can reduce tubal motility , make endometrium 'Out of Phase" for implantation of embryo Combined Pill: the Yuzpe regimen can prevent embryo implantation since the estrogen component makes the endometrium unreceptive. Mifepristone, Antiprogestin, RU 486, prevents implantation Ulipristal acetate: SPRM: Selective progesterone receptor modulator | 4 | Copper IUCD | Progesterone or Combined oral contraceptives | Mifepristone | All of these can work if used within 3 days of Unprotected Intercourse | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | 388717ef-39af-45e8-9ea1-eff3b567ffa0 | multi |
First pit and fissure sealant: | null | 1 | Novaseal | Newseal. | Selfseal | Highseal | Dental | null | 44a378ee-b30d-4dd0-b6cc-f99dc530ab69 | single |
All except one are true about spinothalamic tract | Anterior spinothalamic tract joins medial lemniscus. | 3 | Spinothalamic tract relays in ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus | Lateral Spinothalamic tract forms spinal lemniscus | Lateral spinothalamic tract joins medial lemniscus | Lateral spinothalamic tract carries sensations of pain and temperature, anterior spinothalamic tract carries sensations of crude touch and pressure | Anatomy | null | 353fd696-949b-42b6-a932-b68e48169889 | multi |
Hypercalciuria is seen in - | <p>Primary hyperparathyroidism is a generalized disorder of calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism due to an increased secretion of PTH. The elevation of circulating hormone usually leads to hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. There is great variation in the manifestations. Patients may present with multiple signs and symptoms, including recurrent nephrolithiasis, peptic ulcers, mental changes, and, less frequently, extensive bone resorptionHypercalcemia in vitamin D intoxication is due to an excessive biologic action of the vitamin, perhaps the consequence of increased levels of 25(OH)D rather than merely increased levels of the active metabolite 1,25(OH) 2 D (the latter may not be elevated in vitamin D intoxication). 25(OH)D has definite, if low, biologic activity in the intestine and bone. The production of 25(OH)D is less tightly regulated than is the production of 1,25(OH) 2 D. Hence concentrations of 25(OH)D are elevated severalfold in patients with excess vitamin D intakeIn patients with sarcoidosis and other granulomatous diseases, such as tuberculosis and fungal infections, excess 1,25(OH) 2 D is synthesized in macrophages or other cells in the granulomas.Indeed, increased 1,25(OH) 2 D levels have been repoed in anephric patients with sarcoidosis and hypercalcemia. Macrophages obtained from granulomatous tissue conve 25(OH)D to 1,25(OH) 2 D at an increased rate. There is a positive correlation in patients with sarcoidosis between 25(OH)D levels (reflecting vitamin D intake) and the circulating concentrations of 1,25(OH) 2 D, whereas normally there is no increase in 1,25(OH) 2 D with increasing 25(OH) D levels due to multiple feedback controls on renal 1a-hydroxylase(harrison 18 pg 3108)</p> | 4 | Hyperparathyroidism | VitD intoxication | Sarcoidosis | All | Medicine | Endocrinology | c5fc1bce-ada0-498a-a2e0-34a1d38782a1 | multi |
Following anatomical changes predisposes to angle closure glaucoma except: March 2007 | Ans. B: Flat cornea Angle closure glaucoma is caused by contact between the iris and trabecular meshwork, which in turn obstructs outflow of the aqueous humor from the eye. Predisposing factors include sho eye, small corneal diameter, a shallow anterior chamber, and a relative anterior positioning of the lens-iris diaphragm. These all lead to a very narrow space at the angle of the anterior chamber. In over half of all cases, prolonged contact between iris and TM causes the formation of synechiae (effectively "scars"). These cause permanent obstruction of aqueous outflow. Diagnosis is made from physical signs and symptoms: very highly raised intraocular pressure,pupils are veically oval and mid-dilated and unresponsive to light, cornea edematous (cloudy), reduced vision, redness, pain. Once any symptoms have been controlled, the first line (and often definitive) treatment is laser iridotomy. This may be performed using either Nd:YAG or argon lasers, or in some cases by conventional incisional surgery. In early to moderately advanced cases, iridotomy is successful in opening the angle in around 75% of cases. In the other 25% laser iridoplasty, medication (pilocarpine) or incisional surgery may be required. | 2 | Small cornea | Flat cornea | Anterior chamber shallower | Sho axial length of eyeball | Ophthalmology | null | f7809cc9-8123-4bc7-a1b0-22b56e2f8cb1 | multi |
Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy : | "A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion, and it to the M/C benign tumor diagnosed during pregnancy." A benign cystic teratoma is synonymous to dermoid cyst. REF : gynecology book of shaw 17th | 3 | Serous cystadenoma | Mucinous cystadenoma | Dermoid cyst | Theca lutein cyst | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | 36f1ff34-aa98-4957-a5d0-bf285ddc86b9 | single |
Per TCA with 3 NADH and 1 FADH2, generates how many ATP- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 9 o One N ADH produces 2.5 ATP and one FADH2 produces 1.5 ATP. Thus 3 NADH and 1 FADH2 will produce 9 ATP.o There is production of ATP at substrate level also. Thus total 10 ATP molecules are produced per cycle.Energetics of TCA cycles iKreb's cycle)o One turn of the TCA cycle, starting with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the starting molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2[?]5 ATPs and therefore, 12[?]5 ATPs are produced when starting compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle,o Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from starting. Recent experiments shoiv that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2[?]5 ATPs and FADH produces T5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.o Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per moleeule of glucose wrhen it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method ofATP formationNo of ATPs gained perglucose (new calculation)No of ATPs As per old calculationPathwayStepEnzymeSource Glycolysis1 Hexokinase.Minus 1Minus 1Do3Pbosphofructoki nase-Minus 1Minus 1Do5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2 = 53x2=6Do61,3-BPG kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Pyruvate to-PyruvateNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Acetyl CoA Dehydrogenase TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Do4Alpha keto giutarate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Do6Succictnate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1-5x2= 32x2=4Do8Malate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2=710 minus 2=8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction=5 =6Generation in citric acid cycle=20 =24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole=32 =38 | 2 | 6 | 9 | 12 | 15 | Biochemistry | Kerbs Cycle | 23bbeaa8-bf60-4ab5-a9cb-270f7941006e | single |
"Microabscess of munro" is seen in: | Ans: b (Psoriasis) Ref: Pavithran's textbook of dermatology, p. 14,15Micro abscess of Munro is seen in psoriasis.PsoriasisType IType IIHeriditaryStrong HLA association (HLA CW6)Severe course and early onsetArthropathy more common.SporadicHLA unrelatedMild course and late onsetThe most important locus for psoriasis susceptibility is Psors 1 (psoriasis susceptibility locus on chromosome 6p 21.3.T cells(helper) are fundamental in activating the disease process. The trigger to their activation may be conventional antigens or bacterial superantigens.Histopathology of psoriasis# Parakeratosis# Micro munro abscess-collection of neutrophils in stratum comeum# Spongiform pustules of Kogoj-aggregates of neutrophil in stratum spinosum.# Acanthosis with regular elongation of rete ridges-camel foot appearance.# Edema of dermal papillae with dilated & tortuous capillaries.Treatment of choice for generalized pustular psoriasis & psoriatic erythroderma is-Acetretin | 2 | Lichen planus | Psoriasis | Pityriasis rosea | Tbberous sclerosis | Skin | Papulosquamous Disorders | 1c234ae9-23fb-4f5d-b49d-96e0cb9a8a78 | single |
Lipopolysaccharide structure is characteristic of - | Endotoxins heat stable lipopolysaccharides which form an integral pa of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria . Their toxicity depends on the lipid component. They are released only by the disintegration of the cell wall. They cannot be toxoided. They are poor antigens and their toxicity is not completely neutralized by the homologous antibodies. they are active only in relatively large doses. Ref Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no 74. | 2 | Exotoxin | Endotoxin | Both | None | Microbiology | general microbiology | 915a350d-3061-4491-b862-985ba3c33f91 | multi |
A 60-year-old nursing home resident presents with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath and cough. The lung examination reveals right basilar crackles. The chest x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. Sputum culture grows methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Select the most appropriate isolation precaution. | There are four types of isolation precautions that can be implemented in health care settings. Any given patient might require more than one type of precaution. Standard precautions apply when interacting with any patient, regardless of the diagnosis. They include hand washing before and after contact with every patient and the use of gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection when contact with open sores, blood, or body secretions is anticipated. Contact precautions reduce the risk of spreading microorganisms that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact. They include private room placement of the patient and the use of gloves and gowns when in contact with the patient or the immediate environment. Contact precautions are indicated in patients colonized or infected with MRSA, vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), and C difficile.Droplet precautions limit the transmission of infections that are carried in respiratory droplets (>5 mm in size) such as influenza and meningococcal meningitis. Droplet precautions include placing the patient in a private room and asking health care professionals to use surgical masks within 3 ft from the patient. Airborne precautions reduce the risk of airborne particulate (particles less than 5 mm in size) transmission of infectious agents such as tuberculosis. The patient is placed in a private negative-pressure room with high-efficiency masks, such as the N95 mask, worn by all health care professionals upon entering those rooms. The patient has health care-associated MRSA pneumonia and requires contact precautions. | 2 | Standard precautions | Contact precautions | Droplet precautions | Airborne precautions | Medicine | Infection | 76557ef7-5214-427a-8413-90a88070addc | single |
Transcripton is inhibited by: | A i.e. Actinomycin | 1 | Actinomycin D | Amanitin | Chloramphenicol | Streptomycin | Biochemistry | null | 0ecf9413-7f94-4e99-9b8a-04a2117f03fa | single |
In preanaesthetic evaluation of airway anesthesiologist wrote Mallampati grade III. What does it signify- | null | 2 | Full view of soft palate uvula, tonsillar pillars | View of Soft palate and hard palate | Only hard palate | Full view of soft palate, uvula, fauces, tonsillar pillars | Anaesthesia | Pre Anesthetic Evaluation | 3283dbec-c8d4-44ec-ac12-bfbc29e3a684 | multi |
Triage is – | Triage
When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adopted.
The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies.
Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.
Higher priority is granted to victims whose immediate or long-term prognosis can be dramatically affected by simple intensive care.
Moribund patients who require a great deal of attention, with questionable benefit have the lowest priority. | 2 | Treating the most serious cases | Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource | Cautery burns | Treating mentally ill patients | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 7703cf98-9a64-4041-a77d-cb85f2f541f2 | multi |
All of the following are true in respect of hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE), except: | Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE) It is caused by an inherited deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor that results in excessive activation of the early components of the complement system and production of vasoactive mediators. Angioneurotic edema is classically non-pitting in nature. Uicaria(hives) may develop simultaneously, pruritus is not present. In severe cases, stridor of the airway occurs, with gasping or wheezy inspiratory breath sounds. It is an autosomal dominant disorder. | 4 | Deficiency of C1 inhibitor (C1INH) | Uicaria | Pruritus is usually absent | Autosomal recessive disorder | Pathology | Complement system | 6bfa33f9-ad6f-4223-bd13-faee82bdbb87 | multi |
A 63-year-old bartender presents at his physician's office complaining of a painful sore on his tongue. On examination, it is found that he has an ulcerated lesion on his tongue and a mass in the submandibular gland triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis? SELECT ONE. | The tip of the tongue drains into the submental lymph nodes, whereas, the side of the tongue drains into the submandibular lymph nodes. | 2 | Lymphoma | Squamous cell carcinoma | Metastatic skin cancer | Benign mixed tumor | Surgery | Oral Cavity | cd88e21a-473a-4182-a3e4-c2d1f0fc7cd1 | single |
Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, except: | Colle's fascia does not contribute to the Urogenital Diaphragm. It is attached posteriorly to the posterior border of the urogenital diaphragm but does not form pa of this diaphragm. Ref: BDC, Volume 2, 4th Edition, Page 332; Grants Method of Anatomy, 11th Edition, Page 244; Gray's Anatomy, 36th Edition, Page 563 | 3 | Deep transverse Perineus | Perinial membrane | Colle's fascia | Sphincter Urethrae | Anatomy | null | f9b9c94a-c2ec-4012-8570-0f958d5159b8 | multi |
Stuart instrument gnathoscope is: | null | 3 | Non-adjustable articulator. | Semi adjustable articulator. | Fully adjustable articulator. | None | Dental | null | 9f653c6b-a97a-454f-bbbe-3bbdb88ae9b5 | multi |
Child with Type I Diabetes. What is the advised time for fundus examinations from the time of diagnosis? | Screening for diabetic retinopathy To prevent visual loss occurring from diabetic retinopathy a periodic follow-up is very impoant for a timely intervention. The recommendations for periodic fundus examination are as follows : First examination, 5 years after diagnosis of type 1 DM and at the time of diagnosis in type 2 DM. Every year, till there is no diabetic retinopathy or there is mild NPDR. Every 6 months, in moderate NPDR. Every 3 months, in severe NPDR Every 2 months, in PDR with no high-risk characteristics. Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 280 | 1 | After 5 years | After 2 years | After 10 years | At the time of diagnosis | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | 6370d224-85d3-4d59-bfa1-0549735dd448 | single |
Most sensitive test for H pylori is- | <P>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *biopsbiopsy unease test is cheap,quick ,specific(95%) and sensitivity (85%)</p> | 2 | Fecal antigen test | Biopsy urease test | Serological test | Urea breath test | Medicine | G.I.T | c84528f1-f2b2-4a83-b7e3-1be433b899b0 | single |
Which one of the following is not a green house gas ? | null | 1 | Carbon monoxide | Methane | Nitrous oxide | Water vapour | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | a6490944-6122-4698-91d3-3be9e029c632 | single |
Cushing syndrome is characterized by all except * | Cushing&;s syndrome characterised by centripetal obesity , hypeension, fatigability, weakness, edema , glucosuria( Harrison 17 pg 2254) | 1 | Hypoglycemia | HT | Proximal myopathy | Centripetal obesity | Medicine | Endocrinology | 9c850b9e-6896-4fea-a10c-a40c386b50e8 | multi |
Ligation of the common hepatic aery will compromise blood flow in | Rt. Gastric aeryarises from common hepatic aery andRt. Gastroepiploic aeryarises fromgastroduodenal aerywhich is a branch of common hepatic aery. Therefore,ligation of common hepatic aerywill lead to impaired blood supply inRt. Gastric aeryandRt. Gastroepiploic aery. Left gastric aery arises from CT. Sho gastric aeries arise from splenic aery. | 4 | Right and Left gastric aery | Right gastric and sho gastric aeries | Right gastroepiploic and sho gastric aeries | Right gastric and right gastroepiploic aery | Anatomy | NEET Jan 2020 | 367f2590-d02c-400d-a24e-62f07f9c3a83 | single |
Typhoid investigation of choice in 1st week | (A) Blood culture # Typhoid investigation of choice code 'BASU'> 'B' i.e. Blood culture in the first week (Better is Bone Marrow culture)> 'A' i.e. Antibodies (Widal) in the second week> 'S' i.e. Stool culture in the third week> 'U' i.e. Urine culture in the 4th week> Widal test shows diagnostic titre for S. typhii usually after 7 to 10 days of the illness - 2nd week> Positivity with Widal test is maximum in third week.> Widal - The agglutinins tested by the Widal test appear by the end of the first week. The titre increases steadily till the third or the fourth week, after which it declines gradually.> Maximum titre is found in third week.> Blood culture- They are positive in approximately 90% of cases in the first week of fever, 75% of cases in the second week, 60% in the third week and 25% thereafter till the subsidence of pyrexia. Test of choice in first week.> Stool culture - Salmonellae are shed in the faeces throughout the course of the disease and even in convalescence, with varying frequency. So a positive fecal culture may occur in carriers as well as in patients. Thus the test is not very useful for a recent infection.> Urine culture - Salmonellae are shed in the urine irregularly and infrequently. Cultures are generally positive only in the second and third weeks and then only in about 25% of cases. | 1 | Blood culture | Widal test | Stool culture | Urine culture | Microbiology | Misc. | 2afc9066-405a-492b-853a-563be05d8967 | single |
In T.B/ a ‘case’ is” | null | 3 | Cough | Mantoux positive | Sputum positive | X-ray positive | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 47621d9e-75f4-4063-89af-689adf96ea46 | single |
A series of posters which are continuous and gives an idea about a subject is called: | Ans: d (Flip chart) Ref: Park, 19h ed, p. 717Flip chart- They consist of a series of charts, each with an illustration pertaining to the talk to be given. They are meant to be shown one after another. The message on the chart must be brief and to the point.Flannel graph- A piece of rough flannel or khadi fixed over a wooden board provides a background for displaying cut out postures, graphs and other illustrations.Exhibits- Objects, models, specimen, etc convey a specific message to the viewer. | 4 | Flannel graph | Exhibit | Model | Flip chart | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Education & Health Planning | 13770ca2-ab13-4fb0-9063-e529942cfc84 | multi |
Perforation of stomach is more common due to ingestion of - | Stomach perforation is more common with H2SO4. | 2 | Nitric acid | Sulphuric acid | Hydrochloric acid | Carbolic acid | Forensic Medicine | null | 0c7ccf96-2f53-4cc1-92b9-9ad5727c9124 | single |
Which of the following inflammatory mediator doesn't cause fever: | Pyrogens A pyrogen is a substance that induces fever. These can be either internal (endogenous) or external (exogenous) to the body. The bacterial substance lipopolysaccharide (LPS), present in the cell wall of some bacteria, is an example of an exogenous pyrogen. Endogenous Pyrogens IL 1 TNF PGs Depyrogenation may be achieved through filtration, distillation, chromatography, or inactivation. | 1 | Nitric oxide | Prostaglandin | IL-1 | TNF-alpha | Pathology | null | eda17337-84cb-4657-bf5a-0ee53af11dd0 | single |
Brown tumour is seen in | Brown's tumour: This is an expansile bone lesion, a collection of osteoclasts. It commonly affects the maxilla or mandible, though any bone may be affected. Commonly seen in Hyperpathyroidism Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 313. | 1 | Hyperparathyroidism | Hypoparathyroidism | Hypothyroidism | Hypehyroidism | Orthopaedics | Tumors | 843bdf04-a802-42e3-bcaa-4da85a4ad02d | single |
The technique for accurate quantification of gene expression is | PCR Real-time PCR Traditional PCR For accurate quantification of the amount of initial DNA in the reaction Detects the DNA by electrophoresis at the end-point of the reaction | 3 | Nohern blot | PCR | Real-Time Reverse Transcriptase PCR | Reverse Transcriptase PCR | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | 3151783f-6288-4824-a09a-7abfa85fdbb8 | single |
A patient presents to the doctor with diplopia when looking towards the right. On examination, he is unable to move his right eye laterally past the midline. Damage to which of these nerves would produce this clinical presentation? | Clinical Presentation is of impaired abduction of one eye (right eye) d/t damage of VI nerve. Lateral rectus is paralysed | 1 | Abducent nerve | Trochlear nerve | Optic nerve | Oculomotor nerve | Medicine | Myasthenia Gravis and Muscular dystrophy | e495dbdf-d02e-4521-800a-8efe5652f0e6 | multi |
Who was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide? | Sanger was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide. Mature insulin consists of the 21-residue A chain and the 30-residue B chain linked by disulfide bonds. Frederick Sanger reduced the disulfide bonds, separated the A and B chains, and cleaved each chain into smaller peptides using trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin.
Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 29 | 2 | Pehr Edman | Frederick Sanger | John Kendrew | Oakley Fulthrop | Biochemistry | null | c8b01303-b011-42c7-8f59-bde3f4a0854f | single |
Indications of circumcision are all except: | Indications of Circumcision Phimosis Religion (Jews and Muslims) Paraphimosis Balanitis or balanoposthitis Recurrent UTI BXO (balanitis xerotica obliterans) | 3 | Balanoposthitis | Religious beliefs | Peyronie's disease | Paraphimosis | Surgery | Urethra and penis | 312aad7e-ec53-492c-83c7-c4df7ec4fe11 | multi |
The arrow marked structure is which part of corpus callosum: | Ans. D. SpleniumThe arrow marked structure is splenium of corpus callosum. | 4 | Rostrum | Genu | Body | Splenium | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | 4d551e8e-a274-4906-979e-f4634303ec9e | multi |
Cytosolic cytochrome C plays an impoant function in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e. ApoptosisMechanism ofApoptosiso Apoptosis is induced by a cascade of molecular events that may be initiated in distinct ways but culminate in the activation of caspases.o Caspases are central to the pathogenesis of apoptosiso The process of apoptosis is divided into two phasesi) Initiation phase --> During this phase caspases become catalytically activeii) Execution phase --> During this phase caspases act to cause cell death. | 1 | Apoptosis | Cell necrosis | Electron transpo chain | Cell division | Pathology | null | 4960bf3c-c50d-4980-b9b5-d438221a1db2 | single |
Trigeminal nerve has how many nucleus? | Ans. C.4Trigeminal nerve has four nuclei - 3 sensory and 1 motor nucleus.The sensory nucleus is divided into three parts, from rostral to caudal (top to bottom):a. The mesencephalic nucleusb. The chief sensory nucleus (or "main sensory nucleus" or "principal nucleus")c. The spinal nucleus | 3 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | 191286fd-7564-4cb8-a6e6-bcd68395b12b | single |
The deformity of tibia in triple deformity of the knee is? | Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation REF: Apley's 8th ed p. 42 Triple deformity of knee consists of flexion, posterior subluxation of tibia and external rotation of tibia Treatment: ATT, Ahrodesis Causes: TB, Rheumatoid ahritis | 2 | Extension, Posterior subluxation & external rotation | Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation | Flexion, posterior subluxation & internal rotation | Extension, Anterior subluxation & internal rotation | Surgery | null | ea9fb68f-419c-49f2-afdd-70bf2f887538 | single |
Dates are rich source of - | In dates calcium present is 120mg,vitamin C is 3,carotene is 44mg per 100mg of datesREF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 581 | 1 | Calcium | Iron | Vit C | Carotene | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | 06b2dc5c-f116-4fab-af5d-d1a871ead700 | single |
Punishment for issuing false ceificate - | Sec 197 IPC: Issuing or signing the false ceificate Imprisonment up to 7 years. Ref: Dr. K.S. Narayan Reddy's Synopsis Of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 29th edition, Chap 3, Page-31. | 4 | 4 years | 5 years | 6 years | 7 years | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | 4ec3d9d4-5ffd-480b-8d09-6da1c6c56a59 | multi |
What is the most common site of origin of thrombotic pulmonary emboli? | An embolus is a detached intravascular mass that has been carried by the blood to a site other than where it was formed. Emboli basically can be thrombotic or embolic, but most originate from thrombi. These thromboemboli, most of which originate in the deep veins of the lower extremities, may embolize to the lungs. | 1 | Deep leg veins | Lumen of left ventricle | Lumen of right ventricle | Mesenteric veins | Pathology | null | 89be0dc2-dd3f-4f6f-96c8-ac2a0b756003 | single |
FDA approved antifungal treatment of mucormycosis? | Amphotericin B Deoxycholate is the only FDA approved drug for mucormycosis.Ref: Harrison 18th/pg 1663 | 2 | Liposomal Amphotericin | Amphotericin B deoxycholate | Amphotericin B taurocholate | Voriconazole | Pharmacology | Antibiotics | 68df4129-d0e0-4870-bb70-85973c2d81db | single |
Which of the following nipple discharge is most probably; physiological: | Ans. (b) B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ductsRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition page 864* Bilateral milky discharge is from physiological lactation All other secretions may be pathological. | 2 | B/L spontaneous discharge | B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ducts | U/L bloody discharge | U/L bloody discharge with squeezing from a single duct | Surgery | Breast | b3fc662b-c03c-4aad-890a-c3a29c8d82b2 | single |
Hallmark of breast malignancy on mammography? | Ans. c (Clusters of microcalcification) (Ref Graingerys Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 2239)Diagnostic mammography verses screening mammography# Diagnostic mammography should not be confused with screening mammography, which is performed after a palpable abnormality has been detected. Diagnostic mammography is aimed at evaluating the rest of the breast before biopsy is performed or occasionally is part of the triple-test strategy to exclude immediate biopsy.# Subtle abnormalities (like clustered microcalcifications, densities , and new or enlarging architectural distortion) that are first detected by screening mammography should be evaluated carefully by compression or magnified views.Mammographic features of breast cancer- "Irregular" "Spiculated" margins (of the mass) is most common feature- Architectural distortion- High density lesion 0- clusters of pleomorphic "Microcalcifications" is pathognomonic sign (may be seen in 30% cases of invasive carcinoma and 95% of cases of DCIS ).- Others:# "sunburst" appearance.# True radiolucent halo is almost always benign.# Fat-containing lesions are never malignant. 0# Granular calcification (amorphous, dot-like/elongated, fragmented, grouped very close to each other) and casting calcification (fragmented cast of calcification within ducts) favour malignancy.# Ultrasound features of breast cancer- Spiculations- Taller than wide- Angular margins- Acoustic shadowing- Branch pattern- Markedly hypoechoic- Calcifications- Duct extension- MicrolobulationEducational Points about Mammography# Screening tool of choice for Ca breast.0# Cannot substitute biopsy.# Every female after the age of 40 yrs should undergo annual mammography screening.# If during screening a lesion with "low index" of suspicion for Ca is encountered, follow-up every 6 months should be done.# If while screening a lesion with "high index" of suspicion for Ca is found, stereotactic core biopsy should be done.# Radiation (X-ray) energy used is less than even a chest radiograph.# 'Target material" or anode in mammography X-ray tubes should be made up of molybdenum or rhodium (not tungsten as it produces higher energy x-rays than that of Mb).# K-edege X-ray filters are used.# "Mean/average glandular dose per mammography should be < 0.2 mGy or 0.02 cGy (optimum dose per mammo should be 0.1 mGy or 0.01 cGy).# In young females mammography is not a good screening tool because young breast are more dense, i.e., glandular tissue is more than fatty tissue in young females.# MRI is screening tool of choice for Ca breast in young females, especially in those with positive family history or for who are BRCA1 &/or 2 gene carriers.# Triple assessment consists:- Clinical examination (palpation)- Mammography# The BIRADS (Breast Imaging Reporting and Dictation System) lexicon was developed by the American College of Radiology to provide a clear and concise way to report mammographic result.# MRI is more sensitive than mammography for DCIS.Sr. noType of calcificationBreast disease1.Coarse irregular 'popcorn'Benign lesions like fibroadenoma calcification2.Egg shell calcificationTraumatic fat necrosis3.Tentacles, spiculesScirrhous Ca4.Fine, irregular, polymorphic (clusters of) microcalcificationsCa breast (Scirrhous Ca, intraductal Ca)5.Needle shapedPlasma cell mastitis6.Crescentic or 'tea cup' likeMicrocysts7.Amorphous lumpsFat necrosis and scars8.Fine, smooth, punctate, spherePapilloma, sclerosing adenosis, epithelial hyperplasiaDIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS OF FAT-CONTAINING BREAST LESIONSQ# Lipoma# Oil cyst# Galactocele = fluid with high lipid content (last phase)# Hamartoma# Traumatic fat necrosis (cyst)# Focal collection of normal breast fat | 3 | Low density lesion | Smooth margins | Clusters of microcalcification | Popcorn calcification | Radiology | Obstetrics And Gynaecology | d42a5a04-3ef1-4bf5-a3a1-2c22d3b7df66 | multi |
Not intravenous Anasthetic agent | D i.e. Cyclopropane | 4 | Ketamine | Thiopantone | Etomidate | Cyclopropane | Anaesthesia | null | 7f2cf9d8-4c80-4c60-a04d-a515fdbebe0c | single |
Computed Tomography (CT scan) is least accurate for diagnosts of: | D i.e. 1 cm size Gall stones CT scan has a very limited role in diagnosis of gall stone (Cholelithiasis) as only a minority (20-60%) of gall bladder stones are visibleQ which show calcification. Most (70%) stones are cholesterol stones and 93% of them are radiolucent). CT scan, however, can evaluate complications such as pancreatitis, pericholecystic fluid, abscess or perforation. Ultrasound is the most accurate modality for the diagnosis of gall bladder stonesQ, which appear as echogenic foci producing acoustic shadows. Stone mobility is also identified (although not essential for making diagnosis). Small stones are differentiated from small polyps by the demonstration of mobility or the presence of an acoustic shadow. Non visualization of gall bladder on US may be d/t previous Acoustic Shadow cholecystectomy, nonfasting, abnormal gall bladder position, emphysematous cholecystitis or because the gall bladder' is filled with stones. The latter can be identified by double-arc shadow sign = hypoechoic line between two echogenic lines in gall bladder fossa (i.e. 2 parallel curved echogenic lines seperated by a thin anechoic space with dense acoustic shadowing distal to the deeper echogenic line). - CT scan is one of the most accurate procedure in detection of lesions in pancreas (including tail), retroperitoneum (eg paraaoic lymph nodes) and liver (focal lesions like aneurysm, hemangioma etc). | 4 | 1cm size Aneurysm in the Hepatic Aery | 1cm size Lymph node inthe para-aoic region | 1cm size Mass in the tail of pancreas | 1cm size Gall stones | Radiology | null | d08cf83f-9769-4daa-959e-9a969e7e9316 | multi |
Fetal hea can be detected earliest with trans-vaginal sonography at (from the last menstrual period | 46 days | 4 | 35 days | 38 days | 53 days | 46 days | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | fe10cfb8-060c-499a-bf7a-af52adb9b4b6 | single |
NO is synthesized by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Arginine * Nitric oxide, also called endothelium-derived-relaxing factor (EDRF), is formed from amino acid arginine, by the action of the enzyme NO synthase, which is cytosolic.ArginineNO synthase-------Citrulline + NO | 4 | Uracil | Aspartate | Guanosine | Arginine | Physiology | General | fbef921b-9d5d-4de1-82c5-a5af4c3cbfda | single |
The serum concentration of which of the following human Ig is maximum: | IgG | 1 | IgG | IgA | IgM | IgD | Microbiology | null | 896d2131-ff4f-4c9e-8caf-f66de89c020f | single |
All the following are maternal adverse outcomes which are increased in women with threatened aboion except: | Adverse Outcomes That are Increased in Women with Threatened AboionMaternalPerinatalPlacenta prePPROM & PROM Placental abruptionPreterm bihManual removal of placentaLow bih weightCesarean deliveryFetal growth restrictionFetal and neonatal feath(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 4 | Placenta pre | Placental abruption | Manual removal of placenta | Gestational diabetes | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | 043e59d9-f32d-4479-b10a-a6f22f7e5c0d | multi |
A 12 year old male patient complains of pain in upper front teeth region and gives a history of fall while playing 30 minutes ago. Intra oral examination reveals intrusion of maxillary right central incisor by 2 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? | The treatment for a permanent tooth with a closed root end, and intruded less than 3 mm, is to allow the tooth to erupt without intervention. If no movement is evident after 2 to 4 weeks, the tooth may be repositioned either orthodontically or surgically before ankylosis can take place. If the tooth is intruded 7 mm or more, the tooth is repositioned surgically and stabilized for 4 to 8 weeks by means of a flexible splint. In most instances the pulp will become necrotic with intrusive injuries in teeth with complete root formation. Root canal treatment should be initiated, with calcium hydroxide as a temporary canal- filling material, 2 to 3 weeks after stabilization.
The treatment for an intruded permanent tooth with incomplete root formation is to allow it to erupt spontaneously. If no movement is seen within a few weeks, orthodontic repositioning should begin. If the tooth is intruded 7 mm or more, the tooth can be repositioned surgically and stabilized by means of a flexible splint. Endodontic therapy is often required, however, and the tooth should be monitored closely while a decision on endodontic therapy is pending. | 1 | Observe and allow the tooth to erupt without intervention. | Repositioned surgically and stabilized for 4 to 8 weeks by means of a flexible splint with endodontic intervention. | If no movement is evident after 2 to 4 weeks, the tooth may be repositioned either orthodontically or surgically with endodontic intervention. | If no movement is evident after 2 to 4 weeks, the tooth may be repositioned either orthodontically or surgically without endodontic intervention. | Dental | null | a0bfc6c8-0bd3-4847-83ab-2f6d53612e78 | multi |
Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is: | Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder. However, it must be remembered that benzodiazepines can cause dependence. The other drugs which can be used include SSRIs buspirone and venlafaxine. | 1 | Alprazolam | Buspirone | Venlafaxine | Beta - blockers | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | a708c39a-b8ee-4a4d-9726-7667101f37a1 | single |
Arlts line is seen in | Arlts line is a linear scarring on the upper palpebral conjunctiva in patients of trachoma REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 69 | 4 | Vernal keratoconjunctis | Pterygium | Ocular pemphigoid | Trachoma | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | 932f3bf1-7e93-421e-9aa9-e6e69711a487 | single |
Squeeze technique is used for? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Premature ejaculation * Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation. | 2 | Retrograde ejaculation | Premature ejaculation | Erectile dysfunction | UTI | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | a0da453b-7aa2-4b9c-b8ec-4b1b199435fe | single |
A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is | Surgery is required, and the operation can be performed the perineal or the abdominal approaches. An abdominal rectopexy has a lower rate of recurrence,As an abdominal procedure risks damage to the pelvic autonomic nerves, resulting in possible sexual dysfunction, a perineal approach is also usually preferred in young men. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1225 | 1 | Abdominal rectopexy | Delerom's procedure | Anterior resection | Goodsall's procedure | Surgery | G.I.T | 4ae9e117-b6e3-4eeb-9335-e4bbf743faec | multi |
The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is: | Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4.
This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment.
It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those with twins or those who have received generous amounts of intravenous fluids and in patients with chorioamnionitis.
Patient presents with respiratory distress, bilateral rales on auscultation of the lungs, pink frothy sputum, and typical X-ray picture.
Patients receiving IV beta-adrenergic drugs should be monitored continuously with pulse oxymeter to anticipate the development of pulmonary edema. | 1 | Ritodrine | Nifedipine | Indomethacin | Atosiban | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | c74cd94a-75eb-4a1c-9019-420e7d94e183 | single |
Influenzae virus belongs to which family? | Ans. (b) OrthomyxovirusRef: Appendix-141 for viruses classification | 2 | Paramyxovirus | Orthomyxovirus | Bunyaviridae | Togaviridae | Microbiology | Virology | 1505775f-141a-4481-ae30-e9cb74d410f4 | single |
Composition of toned milk is approximately close to: | Toned milk is a blend of natural milk and made up milk. It contains 1 pa water, 1 pa natural milk and 1/8 th pa of skimmed milk powder. It has composition almost equivalent to cow milk. Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584 | 1 | Cow | Buffalo | Human | Goat | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 2862835b-d210-4435-b5e4-7d0a40e9c673 | single |
Noble prize for sequencing insulin aminoacid sequence & molecular structure was given to: | B i.e. Sanger | 2 | Banting & Macleod | Sanger | Charles Best | Paul Berg | Physiology | null | c9c58ad2-64f1-454b-a5a8-a0f8956216d4 | single |
Several weeks after surgical dissection of her left axilla for the removal of lymph nodes for staging and treatment of her breast cancer, a 32-year-old woman was told by her general physician that she had "winging" of her left scapula when she pushed against resistance during her physical examination. She told the physician that she had also experienced difficulty lately in raising her right arm above her head when she was combing her hair. In a subsequent consult visit with her surgeon, she was told that a nerve was accidentally injured during the diagnostic surgical procedure and that this produced her scapular abnormality and inability to raise her arm normally. What was the origin of this nerve? | The long thoracic nerve was injured during the axillary dissection, resulting in paralysis of the serratus anterior. The serratus anterior is important in rotation of the scapula in raising the arm above the level of the shoulder. Its loss results in protrusion of the inferior angle ("winging" of the scapula), which is more obvious when one pushes against resistance. The long thoracic nerve arises from brachial plexus roots C5, C6, and C7. The upper trunk (C5,C6) supplies rotator and abductor muscles of the shoulder and elbow flexors. The posterior division of the middle trunk contains C7 fibers for distribution to extensor muscles; likewise, the posterior cord supplies extensors of the arm, forearm, and hand. The lateral cord (C5, C6, and C7) gives origin to the lateral pectoral nerve, the musculocutaneous nerve, and the lateral root of the median nerve. There is no sensory loss in the limb in this patient; injury to any of the other nerve elements listed here would be associated with specific dermatome losses. | 3 | The upper trunk of her brachial plexus | The posterior division of the middle trunk | Roots of the brachial plexus | The posterior cord of the brachial plexus | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | 24e6e46a-91bb-4c8d-9047-170fe6250e05 | multi |
Post transplant lymphoma is ? | B cell Nearly 1 to 20% of people who receive a solid organ transplant develop a lymphoma. - Lymphomas have also been repoed (though less .frequently) after bone-marrow transplants .for other disorders. Why does it happen? - Post-transplant lymphomas are almost always related to infection by the Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). - Infection by the Epstein Barr Virus causes a transformation of B-cells which becomes cancerous. In normal individuals other cells of the immune system can tackle the EBV infection, but for organ transplants high doses of drugs that suppress the immune system must be administered. With nothing to control the infection, the chances of developing lymphomas increase. The two main factors that determine the chances of getting lymphoma are: How much immunosuppressive treatment is required - The more the immunosuppression, the more the chances of EBV infection. The status of EBV serology of the recipient of the transplant - If this individual has previously been infected by EBV the chances are that the body remembers the infection and the blood already has called antibodies that can identify and kill the virus. Clinical features Post-transplant lymphomas are usually different .from the usual Non-Hodgkin lymphomas. While most patients have involvement mainly of lymph nodes, other organs are very commonly affected as well. These include the brain, lungs and the intestines. The transplanted organ can also get involved. Treatment Whenever possible, immunosuppressive treatment has to be reduced or stopped. In those who have small and localized disease, surgery or radiation may be attempted. If not, the first line of treatment is usually Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that specifically targets lymphoma cells. Only when this. fails is chemotherapy attempted. Chemotherapy is deferred until necessary as in paially immunosuppressed individuals, chemotherapy may fuher increase the risk of infections. In those who develop lymphomas after bone marrow transplants, donor leukocyte transfusions can be highly effective. Prognosis of Post transplant lymphomas In general, non-Hodgkin lymphomas occurring after organ transplants have a poorer outcome than other NHLs. Around 60-80% of the victims ultimately succumb to their lymphoma. Involvement of brain has poor prognosis | 2 | T cell | B cell | Null cell | NK cell | Surgery | null | bd6532f4-2b73-4d11-89e0-62fab8726242 | single |
The following insulin can be given intravenously? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Regular insulin o All preparations are administered by S.C. route except regular insulin which can be given | 4 | Protamine zinc insulin | Ultra lente insulin | Semi lente insulin | Regular insulin | Pharmacology | null | 0dbb238f-db5f-4372-b689-79519f31f7f5 | single |
What is the net ATP's formed in glycolysis? | ATP formation in glycolysis: Reaction Catalyzed by Method of ATP Formation ATP per mol of Glucose Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Respiratory chain oxidation of 2 NADH 5 Phosphoglycerate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Pyruvate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Total 9 Consumption of ATP for reactions of hexokinase and phosphofructokinase -2 Net 7 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 18. Glycolysis & the Oxidation of Pyruvate. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 2 | 5 | 7 | 10 | 15 | Biochemistry | null | 95402f8f-9fc6-4fbe-b0bf-0b93e29ec537 | single |
Megaloblastic anemia, glossitis, pharyngeal ulcers, and impaired immunity. For each disorder above, select the dietary deficiency that is likely to be responsible. | Folate deficiency can occur from a number of etiologies including poor intake or absorption; in high-demand diseases such as sickle cell; and in inborn errors of metabolism. It can also be seen in conjunction with a variety of medication uses including high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), methotrexate, and phenytoin. Deficiency results in megaloblastic anemia, glossitis, pharyngeal ulcers, and impaired immunity. | 1 | Folate deficiency | Thiamine deficiency | Niacin deficiency | Vitamin D deficiency | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | d6b152b3-2f1c-456e-b088-89c7a688d88d | multi |
Tamsulosin belongs to | The mainstay of treatment for LUTS due to BPH is a1-adrenergic receptor blockers.a-adrenergic receptors are the most common adrenergic receptors in the bladder, and a1 is the most common subtype in the lower urinary system, prostate, and urethra. The action of a1 blockers is to relax the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate and to reduce outflow resistance. (Prazosin)This class of drugs has become progressively more selective to the a1 subtypes, and many now target the a1asubtype receptor specifically. (Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin)The most common side effects of these drugs are dizziness related to ohostasis, retrograde ejaculation, and rhinitis.The second category of pharmacologic therapy is the 5a-reductase inhibitors that target the glandular component of the prostate. These drugs block the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate and subsequently reduce the prostate volume, thereby reducing outflow resistance. (Finasteride, Dutasteride)Sabiston 20e pg: 2108 | 2 | 5a-reductase inhibitors | a1a receptor blockers | a1a receptor agonist | 5a-transferase inhibitors | Surgery | Urology | 2684a5b9-ae21-4e5c-b8f4-57af48761299 | single |
Krukenberg adenocarcinoma of the ovary can occur as a result of metastases from all except- | Metastatic gastrointestinal & breast neoplasm to ovary are referred to as krukenberg tumors and are characterized by bilateral metastasis composed of mucin-producing signet-ring cells.
The primary sites are → Stomach (most common), Pancreas, Colon, Gall bladder, Breast. | 3 | Stomach | Breast | Liver | Pancreas | Pathology | null | 7337300c-9dda-47ab-a11b-d90393654d18 | multi |
All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except: | It is AFP-negative, but patients typically have elevated neurotensin levels, normal liver function tests, and no cirrhosis. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 580, 15th Edition, Page 590 and 18th Edition, Pages 784-785; Concise Pathology, 2nd Edition By Para Chandrasoma, Clive Roy Taylor, Page 650. | 3 | More common in females | Better prognosis than HCC | AFP levels always greater than 1000 | Occur in younger individuals | Surgery | null | 009c363a-0b34-4788-90a2-cfcc721883d1 | multi |
A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is which of the following? | Urea breath test is a test with high sensitivity and specificity for Helicobacter pylori. It is a non-invasive test used to diagnose and confirm elimination of H.pylori infection. Ref: Davidson's principles and practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 22, Page 886; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 947; 16th Edition, Page 1755, 887 | 2 | Rapid urease test | Urea breath test | Endoscopy and biopsy | Serum anti H.Pylori titre | Medicine | null | 7c886df8-fcfd-4a58-abc1-bb457169a4d0 | single |
BRCA-1 postive women have ____% increased risk of breast carcinoma | Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pg no :514-515 Sabiston 20th edition pgno: 832 | 4 | 10 | 20 | 40 | 60 | Anatomy | Endocrinology and breast | 3c819270-3cb0-4760-9776-8c4d79c35a15 | single |
Structures in the portal triad are all except: | Ans. B. Hepatic veinThe hepatic lobules are small divisions of the liver defined at the microscopic (histological) scale. The hepatic lobule is a building block of the liver tissue, consisting of a portal triad, hepatocytes arranged in linear cords between a capillary network, and a central vein.A portal triad is a distinctive arrangement within lobules. It consists of the following structures:a. Hepatic arteryb. Portal veinc. Bile duct | 2 | Hepatic artery | Hepatic vein | Portal vein | Bile duct | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | 0dac301f-8874-4292-9164-3e794bb9eeb4 | multi |
Enzyme used in PCR is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Taq polymerase PCR is a method of enzymatic amplification of a target sequence of DNAe.It is sensitive, selective (specific) and extremely rapid means of amplifying any desired sequence of double stranded DNAe, which can be as sho as 50-100 base pairs (bp) and as long as 10 kbp.In PCR, the DNA to be amplified is replicated by DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus (Taq). Taq polymerase is use because it is thermostable0, not denatured at a temperature upto 95degC (in PCR DNA is to be heated to 94deg-95deg C for separation of strands).For amplifying a desired DNA sequence in DNA, we have to know sho flanking sequences on either side of the target segue nce so that complementary primers can be prepared.Primers0 are the synthetic oligonucleotides of 20-35 sequence, which have sequence complementary to flanking sequence, i.e. sequence of flanking region of target DNA sequence.Primers are amplified to produce desired sequence of DNA. | 2 | Reverse transcriptase | Tag polymerase | RNA polymerase | None | Biochemistry | null | 711e4df3-e0c5-4c62-98f7-d0dc37d23035 | multi |
In depression , there is deficiency of: | Ref: Katzung 14th ed. Monoamines like serotonin and nor-adrenaline are deficient in depressive patients, therefore reuptake inhibitors of these monoamines are used for treatment of depression. | 1 | 5-HT | Acetylcholine | Dopamine | GABA | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | 2a1cecb3-2d8b-484b-bf5d-bd2f14b2c71d | single |
The subcostal angle during pregnancy is: | The lower ribs flare out,the subcostal angle increases from 68deg to 103deg,the transverse diameter of the chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises by about 4 cm in pregnancy. Refer page no 80 of text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition. | 3 | 85deg | 95deg | 105deg | 75deg | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | fa17097e-1697-4408-95f1-d7a74f1a8a06 | single |
Rickety rosary seen in all except – | Rachitic (Rickety) rosary
The prominent knobs of bone at costochondral junctions of rickets patient is known as rachitic rosary or beading of ribs.
The knobs create the appearance of large beads under the skin of the rib cage, hence the name by analogy with the beads of a rosary.
Differential diagnosis of enlargement of costochondral junction (Rosary) --> Rickets, Scurvy, Chondrodystrophy | 4 | Rickets | Scurvy | Chondrodystrophy | Syphilis | Pediatrics | null | 387dbab7-913f-442f-a989-2fec48896ffd | multi |
Drug commonly used in t/t of endometriosis - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., GnRH [Ref: Shaw's Gynae 15th/ e p. 473) Both B and C are correct. However- Commonly used is B. Treatment of endometriosis Asymptomatic minimal cases:- Observe for 6-8 months & investigate infertility Symptomatic cases:- Drug treatment OCPs Mirena lUCD Progesterone Androgens GnRH analogues Aromatase inhibitors (eg:- letrozole) RU-486 Minimal invasive surgery (Laproscopy) Destruction by cautery, laser vaporization Excision of cyst Adhesiolysis Presacra! neurectomy LUNA (laproscopic uterosacral nerve ablation) C) Surgery (laprotomy) Incision of chocolate cyst & removal of lining Salpingo-oophorectomy Hysterectomy & unilateral or bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Excision of scar endometriosis | 2 | LH | GnRH analogues | MPA | FSH | Unknown | null | 4b431f3b-aa06-46f8-b9ba-a5b2069ddcd7 | single |
The physiological change occurs in a cardiac muscle cell when there is plateau phase of action potential is: | The transmembrane action potential of single cardiac muscle cells is characterized by, Rapid depolarization (phase 0) Initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) Plateau (phase 2) Slow repolarization process (phase 3) that allows return to the resting membrane potential (phase 4). The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels (the Na+ current, INa). The inactivation of Na+ channels contributes to the rapid repolarization phase. Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels (the Ca2+ current, ICa) produces the plateau phase, and repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels. Ref: (2012). Chapter 29. Origin of the Heabeat & the Electrical Activity of the Hea.In Barrett K.E., Boitano S, Barman S.M., Brooks H.L. (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | 2 | Influx of Na | Influx of Ca2+ | Influx of K+ | Closure of voltage gated K channels | Physiology | null | d16c817a-d794-4f0d-921c-cd46260e44f3 | single |
All of the following are principles of tendon transfers except | Answer- B. The line of pull must be straightAdequate strengthThe tendon chosen as a donor for transfer must be strong enough to perform its new function in its altered position.Selecting an appropriate motor is impoant because a muscle will lose one grade of strength following transfer. Do not transfer muscle that has been reinnervated or muscle that was paralyzed and has returned to function. | 2 | There should be no contracture at the joint | The line of pull must be straight | One tendon must do one function only | A muscle power less than 3 can also be used | Surgery | null | 1c1438f8-a53f-4344-9b04-d6aef6c45b20 | multi |
Which of the following procedure is not done in CHC? | Care of routine and emergency cases in surgery Care of routine and emergency cases in medicine 24-hour delivery services,including normal and assisted deliveries Essential and emergency obstetric care Full range of family planning services including laparoscopic services Safe aboion services Newborn care Routine and emergency care of sick children Other management including nasal packing,tracheostomy,foreign body removal (refer pgno:907 park 23 rd edition) | 4 | Aboion | Blood transfusion | Caesaran section | Urine microscopy and culture sensitivity | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | 454e0232-51d4-4716-a4be-77cf79de52c4 | single |
Which of the following is not an indication of amniocentesis for chromosomal anomaly detection? | Ans, is a, i.e. Gestation diabetesRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 647; Fernando Arias 3/e, p 46, 47; COGDT 10/e, p 107, Williams Obs. 23/e, p 299, 300Amniocentesis or chorionic villi sampling should be offered to the following class of patients:-Singleton pregnancy and maternal age 35 years or above.-Twin pregnancy at age over 31 years of pregnancy.-Previous chromosomally abnormal child.-Three or more spontaneous abortions.-Patient or husband with chromosome anomaly.-Family history of chromosome anomaly.-Possible female carrier of X-linked disease.-Metabolic disease risk (because of previous experience or family history).-NTD risk (because of previous experience or family history).-Positive second-trimester maternal serum screen or major fetal structural defect identified by USG. | 1 | Gestation diabetes | Previous Down's child | Maternal age more than 35 | Parents with chromosomal anomaly | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in Obstetrics | a8a2f5fe-e22a-4ea7-9292-df1dc87f615d | single |
Multiple painful ulcers over glans without in duration is suggestive of – | Chancre, LGV, Donovanosis Indurated ulcer (firm induration).
HSV Non-indurated ulcer.
Chancroid → Can be both either Non-indurated or soft induration (but there is no firm induration, therefore usually considered as non-indurated). | 3 | LGV | Granuloma inguinale | Chancroid | 2° syphilis | Dental | null | 8f335e06-3180-4f20-b679-c84e66f8027f | single |
Which view is best for viewing hollow viscus perforation | The PA erect abdominal radiograph is often obtained in conjunction with the AP supine abdominal view in the acute abdominal series of radiographs. When used together it is a valuable projection in assessing air fluid levels, and free air in the abdominal cavity. Ref: Internet | 1 | Erect | Supine | Right lateral | Left lateral | Surgery | G.I.T | dfd79457-cb55-4120-876a-0c8b5c8df84e | single |
A child presents with massive hemetemesis and systemic hypotension. He has no fever or other significant history. Examination reveal massive splenomegaly but no hepatomegaly. Likely diagnosis is | Answer is D (Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis): NCPF is suspected in a patient presenting with symptoms of poal hypeension with: YOUNG AGE Moderate/Large Splenomegaly NO FEATURES SUGGESTIVE OF LIVER CELL FAILURE -No Jaundice (uncommon) - No Ascitis (uncommon) - No Hepatomegaly (uncommon) - No Stigmata of liver cell failure (uncommon) Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis is a condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of the 1 ver (mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusuoidal) causing wide variation in the normal architecture but there is no true cirrhosis. NCPF is the most impoant causes of intrahepatic non cirrhotic poal hypeension in India | 4 | Hepatocellular carcinoma | Bleeding duodenal ulcer | Oesophageal varices | Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis | Medicine | null | cea76f00-c75d-498c-baf5-b24a22f45b6b | single |
Initial treatment of keloid | Answer- B. Intralesional steroidIntralesional injection of steroid (Triamcinolone acetate) is now recommended as the first line of t/t for keloid. | 2 | Topical steroid | Intralesional steroid | Excision | Radiotherapy | Surgery | null | 63689d44-95bd-45db-bbbf-b6aa59bfb122 | single |
Edema feet is not a feature of: | Ans. A. Conn syndromea. In Conn syndrome there is profound hypokalemia that leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.b. Although excess of sodium is reabsorbed due to high amount aldosterone, but excess of water is lost. Hence edema feet is not a feature in Conn syndrome. | 1 | Conn syndrome | Hypothyroid | CHF | Nephrotic syndrome | Medicine | Endocrinology | 63d9496b-f572-4dd7-8863-fda99f500dd1 | single |
Not the signs of accidental injury in a child: CMC (Vellore) 10 | Ans. Subdural hematoma | 1 | Subdural hematoma | Abrasion on the knees | Swelling in the occiput | Bleeding from the nose | Forensic Medicine | null | b1b27cac-4175-44da-95e7-091b8c0139b0 | single |
Ash leaf maculae is found in : | A i.e. Tuberous sclerosis | 1 | Tuberous sclerosis | Neurofibromatosis | Lymphangioma | None | Skin | null | 2dc3be2f-c446-4c40-8a26-875f952c4a48 | multi |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.