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What is deficient in exclusively breast fed baby ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B o Deficiency of Vitamin B12 may occur in exclusive breastfed infants of mother who is on strict vegetarian diet. Remember following impoant facts ? o Milks from the mother whose diet is sufficient and properly balanced will supply all the necessary nutrients except fluoride and Vitamin D. o The iron content of human milk is low, but most normal term infants have sufficient iron stores for the first 4-6 months. Human milk iron is well absorbed. Nonetheless, by 6 months the breast-fed infant's diet should be supplemented with iron foified complementary foods. o The Vitamin K content of human milk is low and may cause hemorrhagic disease of newborn.
1
Vitamin B
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Proteins
Pediatrics
null
c2840f78-9baf-4c45-8a1d-e6e32faffc3c
single
What is/are true about rat bite -a) Vaccinate with antirabies vaccineb) Give tetanus toxoidc) Rarely need rabies immunoglobulind) Wash with soape) Use antiseptic cream
null
3
abd
acd
cde
ade
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
84db929a-0061-430e-b3b2-215556a719a2
multi
Which of the following does not predispose toabdominal wall dehiscence -
null
4
Faulty technique
Malignancy
Raised intra abdominal pressure
Old age
Surgery
null
2b4138b6-20b8-4a29-b622-3d446e6db962
multi
All are true regarding MEN-I syndrome, except
MEN syndromes are inherited as autosomal dominant disorders.MEN-1 The gene is located on long arm of chromosome 11 (11q13) (Refer: Robbins & Cotran's - Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol II-pg no: 1136-1137)
1
Autosomal recessive
Hyperparathyroidism
Islet cell tumour
Associated with chromosome 11
Anatomy
All India exam
11a5acca-05ba-4da7-a9ff-787e2b5b7048
multi
EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleepa) Alphab) Betac) Deltad) Theta
Stages of sleep and rhythm -        Beta rhythm- Alert, awake, maximum concentration. -        Alpha rhythm- Eyes closed, mind wandering, less attentiveness -        Theta rhythm- Stage 1 NREM -        Sleep spindles, K complex- Stage 2 NREM -        Delta rhythm- Deep sleep (Stage 3 & 4 NREM)   -        Beta Rhythm and occasional reappearance of alpha rhythm- REM
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Physiology
null
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single
Strength of association is given by
Strength of association is given by Odds ratio or Cross product ratio in a Case control study. Odds ratio = ad/bc OR > 1 - Positive association, OR=1 - No association, OR < 1 - Inverse/ negative association. Chi-square test or t-test can only tell whether an association is statistically significant based on p-value, but doesn't give the magnitude of strength of association.
4
p-value
Coefficient of regression
Alpha value
Odds ratio
Social & Preventive Medicine
Case Control Study, Combined Designs
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single
Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis-B infection is made by-
After a person is infected with HBV, the first virologic marker detectable in serum within 1-12 weeks, usually between 8-12 weeks, is HBsAg. Circulating HBsAg precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase activity and clinical symptoms by 2-6 weeks and remains detectable during the entire icteric or symptomatic phase of acute hepatitis B and beyond. In typical cases, HBsAg becomes undetectable 1-2 months after the onset of jaundice and rarely persists beyond 6 months. After HBsAg disappears, antibody to HBsAg (anti-HBs) becomes detectable in serum and remains detectable indefinitely thereafter. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 2540)
3
Presence of HbeAg in serum
Presence of IgM anti-Hbc in serum
Presence HbsAg in serum
Presence of IgG anti-HBc in serum
Medicine
Infection
90bcef2a-5732-43e1-a1c5-1e98e6b14541
single
Which of the following is false regarding Aircraft injuries
Fracture Thoracic spine is most commonly seen spinal injury . It is usually due to hyperflexion injuries due to rapid deceleration when the aircraft strikes the ground. Most of the aircraft accidents occur on landing (35 %) or take off (35 %)
1
Fracture cervical spine is most commonly seen spinal injury
Most of the aircraft accidents occur on landing (35 %) or take off (35 %)
If a door or window breaks during flight, cabin pressure falls and death occurs due to anoxia
Brain lactic acid levels exceeding 200 mg% indicates hypoxia
Forensic Medicine
Regional injuries
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multi
Hara-kiri is death by
Hara- kiri(seppuku) means cutting the belly. This is a ritual suicide formerly practiced in Japan and nearby counties by samurais(warrior class) when disgraced. Stabbing is done as a ceremony. In this type of suicide, in front of an audience, the person stabs himself on the abdomen and produces a large wound to make the intestines come out. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 132
3
Stab in the neck
Stab in the thorax
Stab in the abdomen
Stab in wrist
Forensic Medicine
Special topics
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single
In submandibular gland excision all of the following nerves may be affected except
Ans. (c) Glossopharyngeal nerveRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 780The following nerves are at risk during Submandibular surgery:2 Superficial nerves:* Marginal Mandibular branch of Facial nerve* Rarely Cervical Branch of Facial nerve* 2 Deep Cranial nerves:* Lingual Nerve* Hypoglossal nerve
3
Lingual nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
Surgery
Salivary Gland
ba093c04-1231-4ad0-b9a7-52ae9033bc33
multi
Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes -
Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836
2
Epidemic typhus
Kala-azar
Relapsing fever
Trench fever
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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single
The following is responsible for causing ophthalmia neonatorum on 5-7th day after bih: March 2013 (b)
Ans. B i.e. Herpes simplex virus II Ophthalmia neonatorum Time frame of signs/ symptoms following bih play an impoant role in determining the most likely etiology and subsequent proper diagnosis and treatment Within 48 hours: Chemical conjunctivitis (Typically presents within first 24 hours following bih) & Niesseria gonorrhoe 48-72 hours: Staph. aureus, Strepto. Hemolyticus 5-7 days: HSV-II More than 1 week: C. trachomatis (D-K)
2
Chemical
Herpes Simplex Virus II
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Chlamydia trachomatis
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Molis micrograbhic excision is used for the management of
null
2
Testicular cancer
Penile cancer
Prostate cancer
None of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
The dose of Dapsone at which it does not cause hemolysis?
Doses of dapsone less than 50mg in normal healthy persons cause no hemolysis.Ref: Goodman Gillman 12th ed. Pg: 1564
1
50mg
200mg
300mg
500mg
Pharmacology
Antibiotics
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single
Capsid of viral structure is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Protein coat around nucleic acid Structure of viruso The extracellular infectious virus particle is called as the virion.o The virion consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.o The capsid with the enclosed nucleic acid is known as the nucleocapsid.o Two kinds of symmetry are encountered in the capsid -a) Icosahedral (cubical)b) Helicalo Virion may be enveloped or nonenveloped (naked).o Envelope is lipoprotein in nature, lipid is derived from host cell, while protein is virus coded.
2
Extracellular infectious particle
Protein coat around nucleic acid
Envelop around a virus
None of the above
Microbiology
Properties of Virus
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multi
A 23-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, malaise, abdominal pain and myalgias. Workup reveals that the patient has polyaeritis nodosa. Which of the following is associated with this form of vasculitis?
Although the significance remains unclear, 30% of patients with polyaeritis nodosa have serum antibodies to the hepatitis B virus. Arsenic is associated with the development of angiosarcoma. Chlamydia pneumonia has been implicated in the development of atherosclerosis. KSHV, HHV-8, causes Kaposi sarcoma in individuals infected with human immunodeficiency virus.
3
Arsenic
Chlamydia pneumonia
Hepatitis B virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Pathology
Vasculitis
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single
Graft for myringoplasty-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Temporalis fascia o Graft material used for myringoplasty are :i) Temporalis fascia (most common)iii) Tragal cartilageii) Perichondrium from the tragusiv) Veino Sometimes, homografts such as dura, vein, fascia and cadaver tympanic membrane are also used.[?][?] Dhingra 36
1
Temporalis fascia
IIiacus fascia
Colles fascia
Iliotibial band
ENT
Operative Surgery
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single
Auzpitz sign is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriasis Various bed side tests and signs associated with psoriasis :-1. Grattage test :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (due to trapping of air).2 Auspitz's sign :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (like in grattage test). If scrapping is continued further, a glistening white membrane (Bulkely's Membrane) appears. On removing this membrane, punctate (pin point) bleeding becomes visible, referred to as auspitz's sign.3. Woronoffs ring: - Occasionally a hypopigmented ring is seen surrounding the lesion, k/a woronofFs ring. Mostly associated with treatment with topical steroids.
1
Psoriasis
LichenPlanus
Alopeciaaerata
Lichensclerosus
Skin
Psoriasis
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True about CLL is -a) Can present as acute leukaemiab) Diagnosed in routine blood testc) Leukocytosisd) More T lymphocytes seen
null
1
bc
c
ac
ad
Medicine
null
6e78e063-d3d7-40b7-9632-613305abec98
multi
Moth eaten bone is seen in which of the following ?
Moth eaten pattern - Areas of destruction with ragged borders - Implies more rapid growth More likely chance of malignancy - Example Multiple Myeloma Metastasis Ewing&;s Sarcoma ref : maheswari 9th ed
2
Osteoid osteoma
Multiple myeloma
Eosinophilic granuloma
Chondromyxoid fibroma
Orthopaedics
Tumors
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single
A patient with multiple myeloma and serum ca2+15mg/dl ; the treatment -a) Oral pamidronateb) Less than 15mg/dl serum calcium dose not causes symptomsc) Mithramycind) Glucocorticoids
null
2
abc
acd
bc
bde
Medicine
null
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single
A 68-year-old male musician presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of colicky abdominal pain and massive vomiting of 4-hour duration. Examination shows an elevated WBC of 13,200 with a HCT of 45%. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are normal. An erect film of the abdomen reveals dilatation of the stomach with distended loops of bowel. What is his clinical diagnosis?
Mechanical obstruction implies a barrier that impedes progress of intestinal contents. Complete mid or distal small-bowel obstruction presents with colicky abdominal pain, more marked abdominal distention but with vomiting that is less frequent and occurs at a later stage than that of proximal jejunal obstruction.
1
Complete proximal intestinal obstruction
Incomplete proximal intestinal obstruction
Complete ileal obstruction
Incomplete ileal obstruction
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
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single
Mandibular complete denture should cover retromolar pad because
null
4
More surface area gives better retention
Provides border seal
Resists movement of denture base
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
A 40-year-old male patient presented to the dermatology OPD with complaints of a characteristic rash over the face along with fever, ahralgia and moderate chest pain. Patient gave history of using some drug for 3 months. On examination, there was no CNS involvement. Lab findings revealed normal urine r/m studies and normal RFTs. ANA and anti-histone antibody titres were found to be raised. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely implicated in the above disease: -
This is a case of Drug induced Lupus. More common in females. Presents with the characteristic malar skin rash. Along with serositis, most commonly pleuritis. Kidney and CNS are rarely involved. Titres of anti-histone Abs are increased. It is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. It is associated with HLA-DR2 Image A shows Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction Image B shows Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction Image C shows Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
4
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<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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multi
There are 20 amino acids with three codons in spite of the no of amino acids could be formed is 64 leading to that an amino acid is represented by more than one codon is called:
Ans. B. Degeneracy(Ref: Harper 31/e p395)Genetic Code--Salient features of Genetic CodeTriplet Codon: Each amino acid is represented by triplet sequence.Degenerate (Redundant)--More than 1 codon represent a single amino acid. Degeneracy of the codon lies in the 3rd Base.Nonoverlapping-- Reading of genetic code do not involve overlapping sequence.Unambiguous--A codon can represent only one amino acid.Universal--A specific codon represent a specific amino acid in all the species.Exception to this rule-Codons of Mitochondrial DNAInitiator codon#In eukaryotes--AUG codes for Met#In Prokaryotes--AUG codes for N-Formyl MethionineTerminator Codons#UAG--Amber#UGA--Opal#UAA--OchreWobbling PhenomenonThe base pairing at the 3rd nucleotide between the anticodon in the tRNA and Codon in the mRNA is not stringently regulated.
2
Transcription
Degeneracy
Mutation
Frameshift
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
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multi
All of the following muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve, EXCEPT?
The muscles of the tongue, with the exception of palatoglossus, are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. Palatoglossus is supplied the pharyngeal plexus.
1
Palatoglossus
Genioglossus
Geniohyoid
None of the above
Anatomy
null
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multi
Hemagglutinin, (Anti-A and Anti-B) are which type of antibodies?
Ans. B. IgM. (Ref. H-17th/pg. 708-709; Wintrobe's clinical hematology 13th/ pg. 979)Isohemagglutinins, substances that agglutinate the red blood cells of others of the same species, are also found in humans. Thus, there are four main blood groups, which differ with respect to two antigens, A and B, in the red blood cells and two isohemagglutinins, anti-A and anti-B, in the serum. Thus, in humans, type O has neither antigen but both agglutinins, type A has A antigen and anti-B.# Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM and do not pass through the placenta.
2
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Medicine
Blood
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single
Which of the following method is used for HIV pre-test and post-test counselling?
In HIV the patient has to visit ICTC (Integrated Counselling and Testing Centre); Where a private counselling session is done. It holds valid for both pre-test and post-test counselling.
1
Individual approach
Group approach
Mass media
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
A patient tries to make a fist but the index and middle finger remain partially extended. The nerve most probably involved is
Answer: (a) Median nerve.MEDIAN NERVE INJURY* When the median nerve is severed in the elbow region, flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of the lst-3rd digits is lost and flexion of the 4th and 5th digits is weakened.* Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd digits is also lost.* Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits is not affected because the medial part of the FDP is supplied by the ulnar nerve.* The ability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd digits is affected because the digital branches of the median nerve supply the 1st and 2nd lumbricals.* Thus, when the person attempts to make a fist, the 2nd and 3rd fingers remain partially extended (hand of Benediction).* Thenar muscle function (function of the muscles at the base of the thumb) is also lost, as in carpal tunnel syndrome.* When the anterior interosseous nerve is injured, the thenar muscles are unaffected, but paresis (partial paralysis) of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus occurs.* When the person attempts to make the "okay" sign, opposing the tip of the thumb and index finger in a circle, a "pinch" posture of the hand results instead owing to the absence of flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger (anterior interosseous syndrome)
1
Median nerve
Musculo-cutaneous nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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multi
30 year old female comes with visual defects, breast engorgement and Amenorrhea. Investigation of choice is
This is likely to be a case of pituitary adenoma. The most common pituitary adenoma causing the symptoms is prolactinoma.
2
CT brain
Serum prolactin
Biopsy
Mr angiography
Medicine
null
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single
A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be:
C i.e. Biopsy
3
Tzank smear
KOH preparation
Biopsy
Sabourad's agar
Skin
null
a8d7fbb9-26e2-44f2-a0ea-4d39b591b1cf
single
Which is the most common primary malignancy of hea ?
Myxoma is the most common primary neoplasm of hea (30- 50%). 75% of cardiac myxomas develop in the left atrium. Histologically, it is composed of a myxomatous stroma with large stellate cells mixed with multiWnuleated cells and covered with endothelium. Unusual benign tumors of hea are fibroma, lipoma, angioma, teratoma and cysts. Reference: Schwa'z Principles of Surgery 9e chapter 21.
2
Rabdomyosarcoma
Myxoma
Fibroma
Lymphoma
Surgery
null
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single
A 50-year-old male with 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hour urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard the progression of the renal disease -
null
2
Hydrochlorthiazide
Enalapril
Amiloride
Aspirin
Medicine
null
7ba5deeb-89f2-4339-bca7-854383f3e45d
single
A case of 32 weeks of pregnancy with cornual placenta with breech presentation, treatment of choice is :
Wait & Watch
1
Wait & Watch
External cephalic version
Elective C. S.
Vaginal breech delivery
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4970113a-16b4-4966-946d-249f72224a03
single
Hyper parathyroidism is characterised by the following except
Clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism Patients with PHPT formerly presented with the 'classic' pentad of symptoms Kidney stones Painful bones Abdominal groans Psychic moans Fatigue oveones Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno :1560
4
Generalised osteoporosis
Renal calculi
Hypercalcemia
Osteosclerosis
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
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multi
Preferred method of contraception for a female with family H/O ovarian cancer :
OCPs reduce ovarian cancer. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 368 Table no 33.4
3
POP
Cu IUCD
OCP
Barrier method
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraception
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single
Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is
Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children Gastroenteritis Mesenteric adenitis Meckel's diveiculitis Intussusception Henoch-Schonlein purpura Lobar pneumonia Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209
2
Gastroenteritis
Mesentric lymphadenopathy
Intussusception
Meckel's diveiculitis
Surgery
G.I.T
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single
Which of the following drugs is to be immediately stopped in a patient of diabetes with HTN and serum creatinine level of 5.6 mg?
ANS. AMetformin is contraindicated in patients with high creatinine because of the risk of lactic acidosis.# Specific side effects of OHAMetformin1. GI symptoms2. B12 deficiency3. Lactic acidosis (especially in patients with high creatinine, liver failure, alcoholism, cardiorespiratory insufficiency)Piogiitazone1. Unsafe in Renal failure, Liver failure, cardiac failure2. Increased risk of bladder cancer3. OsteoporosisDPP-4 inhibitors1. Upper respiratory tract infection2. Renal toxicity (Vildagliptin is hepatotoxic)(Safest DPP-4 inhibitor in renal failure is linagliptan)(asked in Nov AIIMS 2016 and May 2017)SGLT2 inhibitors1. UTI2. Risk of bladder cancer
1
Metformin
Insulin
Metoprolol
Linagliptin
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
a43e96de-c7cb-4446-87b0-bcec3cd9d378
single
Actinomycete is the source of which of the following anti microbials ?
null
1
Tetracycline
Polyene
Aztreonam
Colistin
Pharmacology
null
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single
Large unilateral hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in female. Which of the following best explain the etiology for it?
Image shows large U/L hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in young female: segmental vitiligo. Vitiligo Segmental Non segmental Unilateral along dermatome Localised Generalised Focal: few mucosal: mucosa -Vulgaris - MC, B/L symptoms - Acrofacial (including hand and face) - Universalis >90% Etio: Autoimmune condition - Antibody formed destroy melanocytes Neurogenic hypothesis - It is only valid for segmental type The image shown above in question is of Segmental vitiligo Self-destruct theory of Lerner - Given for vitiligo It states that the oxidative stress which is going on in body causes destruction of melanocytes. If question would be about Vitiligo or B/L type, answer would be Autoimmune hypothesis. If there is family history of Vitiligo , answer would be Genetic factors
2
Autoimmune hypothesis
Neurogenic hypothesis
Genetic factors
Self destruct theory of Lerner
Dental
Hypo Pigmentary Disorders
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single
The layer of the cornea once destroyed does not regenerate is:
Ans. Bowman's membrane
2
Epithelium
Bowman's membrane
Descemet's membrane
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
A 59-year-old man complains of progressive weakness. He reports that his stools are very dark. Physical examination demonstrates fullness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show iron deficiency anemia, with a serum hemoglobin level of 7.4 g/dL. Stool specimens are positive for occult blood. Colonoscopy discloses an ulcerating lesion of the cecum. Which of the following serum tumor markers is most likely to be useful for following this patient after surgery?
Colorectal cancer is asymptomatic in its initial stages. As the tumor grows, the most common sign is occult blood in feces, especially when the tumor is in the proximal portion of the colon. Chronic, asymptomatic bleeding typically causes iron-deficiency anemia. Adenocarcinomas of the colon usually express CEA, a glycoprotein that is released into the circulation and serves as a serologic marker for these tumors. CEA is also found in association with malignant tumors of the pancreas, lung, and ovary. AFP (choice A) is expressed by hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors. Chromogranin (choice D) is expressed by neuroendocrine tumors. Chorionic gonadotropin (choice C) is secreted by choriocarcinoma.Diagnosis: Colon cancer
2
Alpha-fetoprotein
Carcinoembryonic antigen
Chorionic gonadotropin
Chromogranin
Pathology
Neoplasia
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single
Succinylcholine is sho acting due to
Succinylcholine is rapidly metabolized in plasma by pseudocholinesterase. Ref Katzung 12th ed.
3
Rapid excretion
Poor absorption
Rapid hydrolysis
None of the above
Pharmacology
All India exam
3fdd9920-307f-462b-9646-922879a8051f
multi
Spermicide acts by -
CHEMICAL METHODS of contraception In the 1960s, before the advent of IUDs and oral contraceptives, spermicides (vaginal chemical contraceptives) were used widely. They comprise four categories. a) Foams : foam tablets, foam aerosols b) Creams, jellies and pastes squeezed from a tube c) Suppositories inseed manually, and d) Soluble films - C-film inseed manually. The spermicides contain a base into which a spermicide is incorporated. The commonly used modern spermicides are "surface-active agents" which attach themselves to spermatozoa and inhibit oxygen uptake and kill sperms. The main drawbacks of spermicides are : (a) they have a high failure rate (b) they must be used almost immediately before intercourse and repeated before each sex act (c) they must be introduced into those regions of the vagina where sperms are likely to be deposited, and (d) they may cause mild burning or irritation, besides messiness. The spermicide should be free from potential systemic toxicity. It should not have an inflammatory or carcinogenic effect on the vaginal skin or cervix. No spermicide which is safe to use has yet been found to be really effective in preventing pregnancy when used alone. Therefore, spermicides are not recommended by professional advisers. They are best used in conjunction with barrier methods. Recently there has been some concern about possible teratogenic effects on foetuses, following their use. However, this risk is yet to be confirmed. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 546-547
1
Release of acrosomal enzymes
Lysis of cell membrane
Glucose uptake inhibition
Vaginal enzyme alteration
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
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single
Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is
Ans. is a i.e. CO2 CO2 is the gas used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy. Other option is N20. But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and suppos combustion. Also know : Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is veress needle. Flow Rate of CO2 for creating pneumoperitoneum 200 -- 2000 ml/min and pressure between 15 -- 25 mm of Hg.
1
CO2
SO2
N2
O2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Absolute Contraindication for the Use of OCPs is:
Absolute contraindications of OCP'S: - C - Cancers - L - Liver diseases - U - Uterine bleeding - T - Thromboembolism - C - Cardiovascular diseases - H - Hyperlipidemia - Preganancy Also remember, Long-standing or complicated diabetes (with microvascular complications) is absolute contraindication. Grade I hypeension is relative contraindication and Grade II is absolute. Simultaneous use of some anti-epileptics is relatively contraindicated .
1
Thromboembolism
Hypeension
Diabetes
Epilepsy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Natural Methods, Barrier Methods, IUDs, OCPs
5ade7921-5b2d-4880-ade4-c2032830a9f4
single
Magnesium sulphate potentiates the hypotensive action of -
ans-B
2
Methyldopa
Nifedipine
Enalapril
Hydralazine
Unknown
null
b7590de5-81ee-465a-89c4-49b2aa49069a
single
A new born girl not passed meconium for 48 hrs, has abdominal distention and vomiting, Initial investigation of choice would be
bowel obstruction with an absent caecal gas shadow in ileocolic cases. A soft tissue opacity is often visible in children. A barium enema may be used to diagnose the presence of an ileocolic intussusception (the claw sign) Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1196
3
Manometry
Genotyping for cystic fibrosis
Lower GI contrast study
Serum trypsin immunoblot
Surgery
G.I.T
37a1b25b-93aa-4fc3-99f4-aa7a828d48ad
single
Non Oliguric Acute Renal Failure is typically associated with
Answer is A (Aminoglycoside toxicity): Oliguric phase of ATN is asociated with Hyponatremia and not hypernatremia Hyponatremia results from expansion of ECF volume due to dimnished water excretion and excessive administration of free water (volume overload)
1
Aminoglycoside toxicity
Contrast Induced Nephrotoxity
Hemolytic Uremic syndrome
Glomerulonephritis
Medicine
null
e1947d68-839c-4983-aefc-c3c136338dda
multi
Which of the following is a true statement regarding Enterobacteriaceae:
Ans. (c) Shigella does not ferments mannitol "Members of enterobacteriaceae rcduce nitrates to nitrites, form catalase but not oxidase." Enterobacteriaceae: lmpoant features Features Escherichia Salmonella Shigella Motility by peritrichous flagella + + - Gas from glucose + + - Acid from lactose + - - Acid from sucrose d - - Growth in KCN - d - lndole + - d MRA/VP + + + Citrate - + - H2S - + - Urease - - - Phenylalanine deaminase (PPA) - - - Arginine dehydrolase d + - Lysine decarboxylase + + - Omithine decarboxylase d + d (d = result different in different species or strains) Remember: - Polar flagella: Vibrio, pseudomonas, legionella, spirilla, campylobacter, H. pylon, spirochetes. - V. parahemolytic produce both polar and peritrichous flagella.
3
Motility is by polar flagellum
Glucose is not fermented by all members of the family
All members are oxidase positive
Nitrate reduction negative
Microbiology
null
90e2fe75-e30b-45e4-ac5f-ee3970355538
multi
Heberden done denotes involvement of
In osteoahritis of hand:Distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden's nodeProximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard's node(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127)
1
Distal inetrphalangeal joint
Proximal interphalangel joint
Metacarpophalangeal joint
Metatarsophalangeal joint
Orthopaedics
All India exam
a7d5134f-931f-4d5f-8297-0b4dd2decfa2
single
APGAR score includes all except
Sign 0 points 1 point 2 points Heart rate Absent < 100 bpm > 100 bpm Respiratory effort Absent  Slow, irregular Good, crying Muscle tone Flaccid  Some extremity flexion active motion Reflex irritability No response Grimace Vigorous cry Color  Blue, pale Body pink, extremities blue Completely pink
1
Tendon reflexes
Colour
Muscle tone
Respiratory effort
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
264a44ef-4862-4258-b7fb-e71df8fa7d0a
multi
The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual coex is most sensitive for the stimulus of
From the lateral geniculate nucleus, a magnocellular pathway and a parvocellular pathway project to the visual coex. The parvocellular pathway, from layers 3-6, carries signals for color vision, texture, shape, and fine detail. The parvocellular pathway also carries color opponent data to the deep pa of layer 4.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition
1
Color contrast
Luminance contrast
Temporal frequency
Saccadic eye movements
Physiology
Nervous system
34360764-9c31-430d-af9f-eaeff03305d6
single
Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year -
- for children between 4-8 years, the dose of chloroquine per day is 300 mg. - 2 tablets of chloroquine 150mg base is provided. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:264 <\p>
2
150 mg
300 mg
450 mg
600 mg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
86495f0a-d350-4ad5-ad94-bf6d17d75836
single
Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to malignancy:
As discussed in the preceding text: Endometrial hyperplasia is of the following four varieties: Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells. Logically speaking least chances of malignant transformation are with simple hyperplasia without atypia and maximum chances are with complex hyperplasia with atypia. Chances of Progression to Carcinoma: Type of hyperplasia Simple without atypia - 1%° Complex without atypia - 3%° Simple with atypia - 8%° Complex with atypia - 29-30%° Thus, from the table, it is reaffirmed that minimum chances of progression to carcinoma are with simple hyperplasia without atypia ( also called as cystic glandular hyperplasia )and maximum chances of carcinoma are with complex hyperplasia with atypia.
3
0.10%
2%
1%
10%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
3ffb46b3-0bd5-4ba7-ae83-f063254b6288
single
The chestnut coloured fungal cells known as muriform bodies are seen in:
Muriform cells are also called chromo/medlar/copper penny/ sclerotic bodies. They are chestnut/golden brown colored fungal cells found mainly in giant cells in infiltrate of chromoblastomycosis. Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Page 36.75.
3
Sporotrichosis
Phaeohyphomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Lobomycosis
Skin
null
dbf043d1-9d17-4ba6-9227-3685a54c68e4
single
FALSE statement about Hallucinations
(C) Sensory organs are not involved # Hallucination is a perception in the absence of external stimulus that has qualities of real perception.> It is perception without stimuli.> It is independent of will of the observer.> It occurs in inner subjective space i.e. sensory organs are not involved.> It is a vivid sensory perception but not very well defined as a true sense perception and imagery.
3
Perceived as not real
Appears to be coming from external world
Sensory organs are not involved
It occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
268a45d1-61a6-4b17-8e06-fb8b47ec33ae
multi
All of the following skin changes are associated with Diabetes Mellitus except
Salmon patch is associated with "Sturge - Weber" syndrome.
4
Acanthosis Nigricans
Granuloma annulare
Necrobiosis lipiodica
Salmon patch
Dental
null
68ec3585-8901-47f0-ac07-02990c89c9cd
multi
A young boy presented with high fever shows clinical features suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease. Treatment of choice is:
The macrolides (especially azithromycin) and the respiratory quinolones are now the antibiotics of choice and are effective as monotherapy. Compared with erythromycin, the newer macrolides have superior in vitro activity, display greater intracellular activity, reach higher concentrations in respiratory secretions and lung tissue, and have fewer adverse effects. Ref: Sabria M., Yu V.L. (2012). Chapter 147. Legionella Infections. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
2
Amoxicillin
Azithromycin
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Pharmacology
null
fb7e2b07-0378-4f65-82d3-82911042d1f2
single
Which of the following is/are bile acids?
Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid (derived from chenodexoxycholic acid). Glycine and taurine conjugates of these bile acids are called as bile salts. For example, cholic acid is a bile acid, and its glycine conjugate (glycocholic acid) is a bile salt. Bile salts = Sodium or potassium + Amino acid (glycine or taurine) + Bile acids (Cholic acid or chenodeoxycholic acid) So, Bile salts are : - Sodium + glycine + cholic acid = Sodium-glyco-cholic acid (sodium-glyco-cholate) Sodium + taurine + cholic acid = Sodium-tauro-cholic acid (Sodium-tauro-cholate) Sodium + glycine + chenodeoxycholic aicd = Sodium-glyco-chenodeoxycholate Sodium + taurine + chenodeoxycholic acid = Sodium-tauro-chenodeoxycholate o Similarly potassiun bile salts are potassium-glycocholate, potassium-taurocholate, potassium-glycochenodexoxycholate, and potassium-tauro-chenodexoxycholate.
4
Cholic acid
Lithocholic acid
Deoxycholic acid
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
a6c49d2c-4e9a-4535-bc40-18201e6fcbd4
multi
In leprosy neural involvement occurs in what percentage of patients
A chronic granulomatous disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, principally affecting peripheral nerves and skin. Nerve involvement is seen in all cases of leprosy. The cardinal signs are: 1. Hypopigmented/hypoanaesthetic patches 2. Peripheral nerve thickening 3. Skin slit smear(AFB).
4
30%
60%
90%
100%
Dental
Mycobacterial Infections
40752f7b-4da5-4712-995f-7bf5bf5c6bc7
single
Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorders?.
Ans--b. Fibromyalgia (Ref Harrison 19/e p2238. 18/e p122. 2849: Kaplan and Sada'ock!s Synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p276; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p104-105)Fibromyalgia is not a specific somatoform disorder, it has organic basis behind its pathologysomatic like is a generic term first used in DSM III for a group of disorders charactrized by physical symptoms that are not explained by organic factors (i.e. for syndromes of presumed psychological origin)."
2
Somatization disorder
Fibromyalgia
Chronic fatigue syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome
Psychiatry
null
a2a829d0-0ecb-4770-bc70-b33e9ccbec42
single
Fluoride helps in
Fluoride helps in denon and reduces tooth decay, Flourine is oen called a two edged sword Excess intake →Causes Endemic fluorosis Inadequate →Causes dental caries
2
Vision
Dentition
Myelinaon
Joint stability
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1f9cbcee-3eb2-41ba-8bc1-cb08b11520be
single
The epithelium is absent in lens on
There is no posterior epithelium, as these cells are used up in filling the central cavity of lens vesicle during The epithelium development of the lens.
2
Anterior surface
Posterior surface
Anterior pole
At zonular attachment
Ophthalmology
null
d9ee13f9-8619-4d69-aef9-1e1fd007c70d
single
Bronchus is the site of pathological changes for all of the following diseases, except:
Emphysema occurs at the site of acinus, the anatomical site for the rest of them is the bronchus.
4
Chronic bronchitis
Asthma
Bronchiectasis
Emphysema
Pathology
Obstructive Lung Disease
d4e173a2-cc76-42f2-b6ac-e1af0f9ace87
multi
Systemic infection is caused by all fungi except
Dermatophytes are a group of fungi that infect only superficial keratinised tissue without involving the living tissue. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition
3
Cryptococcus
Histoplasma
Dermatophytes
Paracoccidioides
Microbiology
mycology
8bf00790-fd54-4e53-8dd7-fe3ea6b51078
multi
Which cyclooxygenase plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity?
Cyclooxygenase 1- plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity The beneficial effects of NSAIDs on tissue inflammation are due to inhibition of COX-2 S/E of NSAIDs: GI mucosal ulceration and renal dysfunction- due to inhibition of the COX-1 isoform. Highly COX-2-selective NSAIDs- provide the beneficial effect of decreasing tissue inflammation & minimizing toxicity in the GI tract. Selective COX-2 inhibitors have had adverse effects on CVS, leading to increased risk of myocardial infarction.
1
Cyclooxygenase 1
Cyclooxygenase 2
Cyclooxygenase 3
Cyclooxygenase 4
Medicine
Malabsorbtion Syndrome
4695473e-a66d-4dc0-89c0-4699cc3bfc4e
single
True about miliary tuberculosis -a) Occurs following primary reactivationb) Occurs following secondary reactivationc) Both primary and secondary reactivation d) Commonly affects liver, kidney and spleen
null
4
ab
bc
acd
abc
Medicine
null
bfcbb610-d8fa-403f-a714-b7d7a6528fa7
multi
Bruxism is: NEET 13
Ans. Grinding of teeth during sleep
3
Walking during sleep
Nocturnal enuresis
Grinding of teeth during sleep
Sleep apnea
Forensic Medicine
null
6e556a1a-8fed-4f3e-9d05-24d3cc128501
single
Absence of corkscrew glands is seen in
Ans. D. Metropathia hemorrhagicaEndometrial histology - secretory phasea. The characteristic feature of endometrium in Metropathia hemorrhagica is cystic glandular hyperplasia.b. Another important feature is absence of secretory endometrium with absence of corkscrew glands.c. Endometrium is usually thick and polypoidal.d. Thin polypi project into the uterine cavity.
4
Halban's disease
Polycystic ovarian disease
Irregular ripening
Metropathia hemorrhagica
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Obs)
41f370e3-deda-4c23-9577-ababa1a8800a
single
In HIV window period indicates:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 579 and 8th/e, p. 578)* It takes 2 - 8 weeks to months for antibodies to appear after infection. This period, from infection to appearance of antibodies is called as window period.* During this period patients is seronegative, i.e., serological tests (ELISA and Western blot) are negative.* The individual may be highly infectious during this period.
2
Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
Time period between infection and minimum multiplication of the organism
Time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the organism
Microbiology
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
6e3bbdfd-b181-4f52-808a-ef68f3eed266
single
Microstructure of cobalt chromium alloy in cast condition is
null
3
fibrous
homogeneous
inhomogeneous
amorphous
Dental
null
5ffe8bb9-23b9-4122-8512-a52903af14ac
multi
Rule of Hasse is used to determine: DNB 09; Punjab 10; NEET 13
Ans. Age of fetus
1
Age of fetus
Height of an adult
Race of a person
Identification
Forensic Medicine
null
ee4dc738-594e-4ba3-abfa-fd99fc5bc6a4
single
All are signs of inoperability of carcinoma of cervix except
Contraindications of Pelvic Exenteration Extra pelvic spread of the disease with distant metastasis to lungs, liver and bones Women with comorbid conditions Urethral obstruction, Sciatic pain, Unilateral leg edema Ref: D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:349
1
Carcinoma of cervix extending toParametrium
Presence of extrapelvic metastasis
Involvement of bladder
Extensive infiltration of vagina
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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multi
Early age of sex is risk factor for
Ans. A. Carcinoma cervixEarly Coitarche (early age of first intercourse) is a risk factor for carcinoma cervix.
1
Carcinoma cervix
Carcinoma vulva
Carcinoma vagina
Carcinoma ovary
Pathology
null
74602b4d-95a2-4ff5-956f-66f05fc8a7d0
single
Pressure volume loop is shifted to left side in
Ans. (c) Aortic stenosis(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.540)In aortic stenosis,PV loop is shifted to left sideVentricular systolic pressure increases to overcome the stenosisThere is increase in End systolic volumeStroke volume decreases
3
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Congestive cardiac failure
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
7630c720-7e2b-47a5-bb18-6735d984008a
single
A 15-year-old girl in a rural community has swollen, painful lymph nodes in her right axilla. Physical examination reveals multiple scratches on her right arm with a papule associated with one of the scratch marks. She states that the scratches occurred about 5 days ago. What type of animal is the most likely source of the infection?
This patient has the classic symptoms of cat scratch disease caused by the bacillus Baonella henselae. The disease is self-limited with the onset of symptoms occurring 3-10 days following an inoculating scratch. The organism can be isolated from kittens, typically less than 1 year of age, or from fleas. A history of a new kitten in the house and the papule at the site of a scratch with regional painful adenopathy defines the classic scenario. Chickens can harbor Salmonella spp. producing a gastroenteritis or enterocolitis. Chicken guano is also a orable environment for the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. The mycelial phase thrives in the rich soil. The human disease is a granulomatous infection involving the lungs and mimicking tuberculosis. Dogs or puppies carry Capnocytophaga canimorsus as pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. Infections from licking or biting range from a self-severe infections are those with asplenia, alcoholism, or hematologic malignancies. This organism is also associated with cat bites, but the patient develops cellulitis and fulminant septicemia, especially in asplenic patients. Pasteurella multocida is another pathogen that colonizes the nasopharynx and gastrointestinal tract of cats and dogs. Cats have the highest rate of colonization (50-90%), followed by dogs (50%), swine (50%), and rats (14%). P. multocida most commonly causes a localized soft tissue infection or cellulitis after an animal bite, but systemic symptoms may be present in about 40% of the cases. These symptoms include osteomyelitis, septic ahritis, or tenosynovitis. Horses and horse manure have been associated with a pulmonary oppounistic infection with cavitation caused by Rhodococcus equi that resembles tuberculosis in immunocompromised patients. Burkholderia mallei (the cause of glanders) is characterized by non-caseating granulomatous abscesses of skin, lymphadenopathy, and pronounced involvement of the lungs. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 20. Gram-Negative Rods Related to Animal Sources (Zoonotic Organisms). In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e.
1
Cat or kitten
Chicken
Dog or puppy
Horse
Microbiology
null
63ed130c-20d9-4f4a-b6be-cfc50c0a1d28
single
Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity:
Being developed in the dorsal mesogastrium, the spleen projects into the greater sac surrounded by peritoneum of the original left leaf of the dorsal mesogastrium. It lies at the left margin of the lesser sac below the diaphragm, and its diaphragmatic surface is moulded into a reciprocal convexity. Its hilum lies in the angle between the stomach and left kidney, each of which impresses a concavity alongside the attached the splenic vessels. Ref: Last's Anatomy: Regional and Applied By Chummy S. Sinnatamby, 2011, Chapter 5.
1
Greater sac
Paracolic gutter
Left subhepatic space
Infracolic compament
Anatomy
null
52ec8fa6-2268-4c51-84ef-5dbab844861b
single
All are true regarding Mumps, EXCEPT
null
4
Incubation period 18-21 days
Extensive tissue damage
Multiplies in respiratory epithelium
Spreads through Stenson's duct to Parotid gland
Medicine
null
4ee25691-f87e-4608-a9b6-335343b4fd9f
multi
A 6 years old boy presented with Complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high-grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. Which of the following will not be helpful for functional imaging of brain?
Brain perfusion study using perfusion agents like Tc-99m HMPAO, i.e., Tc-9W6HMPAO brain SPECT is indicated in acute cerebral infarct imaging before evidence of CT/MRI pathology, when positive findings are seen with 1 hour of event. Brain metabolic rate and functional activity study by using 18F –FDG PET is indicated in focal epilepsy prior to seizure. MDCT is not useful for functional studies of brain.
1
MDCT
SPECT imaging
Interictal 18F-FDG PET
Video EEG with Ictal 99mTc- HMPAO study of brain
Unknown
null
0fcbd6b9-bf81-4a34-b3b4-e40e7d7c928a
single
Phocomelia is best described as:
ANSWER: (A) Defect in development of long bonesREF: Goodman Gillman manual of pharmacology and therapeutics 2008 edition page 897, http:// en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PhocomeliaPhocomelia is lack of development of proximal part of limb. The distal part being present is called as seal limb. Phocomelia is an extremely rare congenital disorder involving the limbs. Although various numbers of factors can cause phocomelia, the prominent roots come from the drug use of thalidomide and from genetic inheritance
1
Defect in development of long bones
Defect in development of flat bones
Defect in intramembranous ossification
Defect in cartilage replacement by bones
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
9a60b528-fc24-4286-8b8c-6558a11d15fe
single
Large antigen - antibody reaction is required to cause -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ahus reaction
2
Serum sickness
Ahus reaction
Uicaria
Anaphylactic-reaction
Pathology
null
f2a8c798-c83a-4974-9897-1ca28aa7ae4b
single
All are sphincters of lower genito urinary tract of female except
In males and females, both internal and external urethral sphincters function to inhibit the release of urine. In males, the internal sphincher muscle of urethra functions to prevent reflux of seminal fluids into the male bladder during ejaculation. Females do have a more elaborate external sphincter muscle than males as it is made up of three pas: the sphincter urethrae, urethrovaginal muscle, and the compressor urethrae. Ref - semantischolar.org
3
Pubovaginalis
External urethral sphincter
Internal urethral sphincter
Bulbospongiosus
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
c30ea5e5-36ef-4c0e-a2a9-2be36da74634
multi
Bird beak appearance on barium swallow study is seen in -
’’Bird beak appearance on barium study is seen in achalasia cardia.              Important esophageal signs
1
Achlasia cardia
Carcinoma esophagus
Hiatus hernia
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Radiology
null
09c9168c-59b4-4751-9412-e61d77ac31c0
multi
The symptoms of Hyperparathyroidism include -
null
4
Constipation & muscle weakness
Anorexia & weight loss
Polydipsia & polyuria
All of the above
Surgery
null
aee2ec43-c56f-4f65-8418-342be643a4fe
multi
Bradykinin Causes -
Bradykinin causes Increases vascular permeability Aeriolar dilation Bronchial smooth muscle contraction Pain at the site of inflammation ref robbins 9th ed page 52
2
Vasoconstriction
Pain at the site of inflammation
Bronchodilatation
Decreased Vascular permeability
Pathology
General pathology
4d1d4351-d699-4569-bbcb-1fec1a63adb1
single
True statement regarding Atrioventricular block with atrial tachycardia is -
null
4
Seen in WPW syndrome
Is a complication of pacemaker
Can occur in normal person occasionally.
Seen in Digitalis toxicity with K+ depletion
Medicine
null
bc1213c1-bac0-4f1d-9a72-a36d4036f661
multi
Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Elbow Myositis ossificans is the extraskeletal hetrotropic ossification that occurs in muscles and other soft tissues. Trauma is the most impoant cause of myositis ossificans. Usually there is history of severe single injury. It is more common in children. Most commonly involved joint is elbow followed by hip. There is history of trauma around the elbow, i.e. fracture supracondylar humerus, dislocation of elbow or surgery with extensive periosteal stripping. Massage to the elbow and vigorous passive stretching to restore movements are aggravating factor. It occurs in muscles which are vulnerable to tear under heavy loads, such as quadriceps, adductors, brachicilis, biceps, and deltoid. X-ray finding is characteristic and shows distinct peripheral margin of mature ossification and a radiolucent center of immature osteoid & primitive mesenchymal tissue
2
Knee
Elbow
Shoulder
Wrist
Surgery
null
8e3bb91d-be97-42e0-be3c-0d20486e0553
single
Alcohol in substrate inducer for which gene?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pol III gene Alcohol induces pol III gene (RNA polymerase III-dependent genes) transcription in vivo and in vitro. Brfl specifically regulates pol III gene transcription. Changes in pol III gene and Brfl expression tightly link to cell transformation and tumor formation. Alcohol induced deregulation of pol III genes may be fundamental to the development of breast cancer.
1
Pol III gene
Myc Oncogene
P53
NF1
Pharmacology
null
343a745a-81e2-4eb2-9142-7b63b5c9c5be
single
True about Barret's esophagus -a) Premalignantb) Predispose to sq. cell Cac) Can be diagnosed by seeing under endoscoped) Biopsy is necessary to diagnosee) Stricture may be present in high esophagus
Diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus - The diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus is suspected on endoscopy when there is difficulty in visualizing the squamo-columnar junction at its normal location and by the appearance of pink, more luxuriant columnar mucosa in the lower esophagus instead of gray-pink squamous mucosa. -  the diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy. Strictures in Barrett's esophagus occur at the squamo-columnar junction and move high up as the squamo-columnar junction moves up with progressive injury.
4
bce
bde
abcd
acde
Surgery
null
91df9774-e231-404b-9e1e-9dc8064f25f7
multi
Best approach to study a rare disease is:
null
1
Case control study
Cross-sectional study
Cohort study
Clinical trial
Dental
null
2ba2267b-46cd-4030-8f31-a51e88c9d637
single
The following are consistent with pheochromocytoma except-
there is constipation not diarrhea Ref- ( Harrison 17 pg 2270)
1
Episodic diarrhea
Episodic flushing of skin
Episodes of hypeension
Paroxysm, palpitation and sweating
Medicine
Endocrinology
f2ad40ac-6141-44b7-a91e-076048469dcb
multi
Characteristic Symptom in induced psychotic disorder is
C i.e. Accepting delusions of other person
3
Insomnia
Profound mood disturbance
Accepting delusions of other person
Suicidal Ideation
Psychiatry
null
a7baf99b-645c-4995-bf3e-2afc6a83ba8d
single
A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in the evening and blurring of vision for last few days with normal 10P :
A i.e.Prodromal phase of angle closure glaucoma
1
Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Chronic glaucoma
Epidemic dropsy
Ophthalmology
null
69738efa-3af9-494d-b8de-59aa9be2e7f5
single
All of the following statements are FALSE regarding multiple sclerosis except ?
MS is a autoimmune disease mainly targetting MBP( Myelin basic protein) Multiple Sclerosis Hallmark - Demyelination occur secondary to damage myelin component (autoimmunity) More common in females than male. In all demyelinating disorder peripheral nervous system is spared. Condition is almost always benign and is resolved spontaneously. Environmental risk factor- vitamin- D deficiency
4
Involves peripheral nervous system
Condition is almost always malignant and is resolved spontaneously
More common in males
Autoimmune disease mainly targetting MBP
Medicine
Demyelinating disorder
7c09e5cb-d1ef-441d-9163-3b36dda8e17a
multi
Dyskeratosis is seen in:
Darier's disease is characterized by defect in Ca+2 pump that is necessary for desmosome function, due to mutation in ATP2A2 gene. Both HHD and Darier's disease are characterized by acantholysis and suprabasal blister, but dysteratosis (premature keratinization in epidermis) is seen classically with Darier's disease.
3
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bullous Pemphigoid
Darier's disease
Hailey-Hailey disease
Dental
null
a3262af4-f823-4c84-8c24-229f44269542
single
Which of the following is NOT a branch of intracranial part of Internal carotid artery(103 - BDC- 3) 4th edition
(Anterior communicating) (103- BDC-3, 4th edition, 750 Snell 8th)Branches of the Internal Carotid Artery* There are no branches in the neck** (Cervical), Many important branches, however are given off in the skull* Cerebral part branches(i) Opthalmic(ii) Anterior cerebral(iii) Posterior communicting(iv) Middle cerebral(v) Anterior choroidal* Of these the opthalmic artery supplies structures in the orbit while the others supply the brain
1
Anterior communicating
Anterior cerebral
Middle cerebral
Posterior communicating
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
a1e9a62b-ff73-4011-a169-f3c38ca5c1cb
single
With help of the drug shown below, serotonin is synthesized from which of the following precursor amino acid?
Tryptophan. Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytrptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then conveed to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase which needs Pyridoxal Phosphate as a cofactor Ref : vasudevan 7th ed
1
Tryptophan
Glycine
Threonine
Methionine
Biochemistry
All India exam
111cb9f6-71fc-477a-9135-d0af9895ff76
single
Which of the following is silent thyroiditis?
Silent thyroiditis / Post-Paum thyroiditis It is an autoimmune mediated destruction of gland. It occurs after 3-6 months post-paum in about 5% of pregnancies. Patient first develops thyrotoxicosis which is followed by hypothyroidism and then resolution. It is characterised by: Normal ESR and presence of TPO antibodies RAIU is supressed No role of steroids Recovery is the rule
4
Acute thyroiditis
Subacute thyroiditis
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Post-paum thyroiditis
Medicine
Diseases of Thyroid
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single
Apparant lenghthening is seen in TB Hip of
null
1
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Orthopaedics
null
723c1bf8-a55f-4dc0-b29d-6c42a5dbd37c
single