question
stringlengths 7
1.06k
| op2
stringlengths 2
358
| op1
stringlengths 2
370
| op4
stringlengths 2
399
| category
stringclasses 6
values | op3
stringlengths 2
355
| exam_id
int64 1
210
| cop
int64 0
4
| unique_id
stringlengths 36
36
| year
stringclasses 5
values |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
In relation to syphilis, indicate the false answer: | The etiological agent is Treponema pallidum. | The treatment of choice is colistin. | In the advanced stage, it can affect the central nervous system. | Pharmacology | It is a sexually transmitted infection. | 24 | 1 | 335c8ef9-610a-478e-8761-c43e0be61409 | 2024 |
In the cultivation of a cerebrospinal fluid sample, after 24 hours of incubation at 35 ºC, growth is observed on chocolate agar and blood agar, but not on MacConkey agar. The grown colonies are mucous, alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative, and show sensitivity to optochin. What would be the most likely microorganism?: | Klebsiella pneumoniae. | Streptococcus pneumoniae. | Staphylococcus aureus. | Pharmacology | Escherichia coli. | 25 | 1 | 025c461e-6773-4f19-be70-f7f94ac39dc4 | 2024 |
Indicate the incorrect statement regarding Clostridioides difficile: | It is an obligate anaerobe. | It is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus. | There are epidemic strains that have caused outbreaks and are associated with greater severity and mortality. | Pharmacology | The treatment of choice for the infections it causes is intravenous vancomycin. | 26 | 3 | 5ac7c64b-3808-45d6-a6ac-ce28d3f25449 | 2024 |
Which of the following answers is correct regarding the SARS-CoV-2 virus?: | Recognizes the human ACE2 receptor (angiotensin converting enzyme 2). | It is a double-stranded RNA virus with helical symmetry. | It belongs to the Orthomyxoviridae family. | Pharmacology | The structural S gene is identical to that of the SARS-CoV-1 virus. | 27 | 2 | dd3598f1-ec2b-48f0-9de3-9f95fa721f32 | 2024 |
Which of the following etiological agents of endocarditis could not be detected by the blood culture method?: | Bartonella spp. | Staphylococcus aureus. | Aggregatibacter spp. | Pharmacology | Streptococcus viridans. | 29 | 2 | aee79990-34a5-4970-8dc5-a7f0e3d040aa | 2024 |
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the microbiological diagnosis of Legionella pneumophila? | Immunoassays are used to detect specific lipopolysaccharide antigens of Legionella from all serogroups excreted in the urine of affected patients. | The culture medium that is usually used for its isolation is the BCYE agar (buffered charcoal yeast extract agar). | For their growth, they need culture mediums devoid of L-cysteine. | Pharmacology | In the Gram stain, they appear as fine, pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli, weakly stained. | 30 | 1 | 822408a4-a8a5-4b3b-80f0-7d080a33fefc | 2024 |
Which of the following associations is not correct?: | Bite infection-Eikenella corrodens. | Burn infection-Pseudomonas aeruginosa. | Impetigo-Clostridioides difficile. | Pharmacology | Necrotizing fasciitis-Streptococcus pyogenes. | 31 | 4 | a90c5935-9b0a-4fa0-bcea-ffbe7de4c54d | 2024 |
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Listeria monocytogenes?: | They show β-hemolysis on lamb's blood agar. | They are gram-negative bacilli. | The oxidase test comes back positive. | Pharmacology | They are strict anaerobes. | 32 | 2 | 6ede8b03-819a-4353-a586-71b086acdf0a | 2024 |
Which of the following methods used to study the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial is not a quantitative method?: | Concentration gradient strip. | Broth microdilution. | Kirby-Bauer Method. | Pharmacology | Broth macrodilution. | 33 | 4 | 6ed70274-8426-43fa-ba8b-2227a029e22a | 2024 |
What factor (or factors) does Haemophilus influenzae require to grow in culture?: | Factors V and IX. | Factors V and X. | Only factor V. | Pharmacology | Factors IX and X. | 34 | 1 | 5d726514-d14a-4cfe-86bb-f7e2355654a3 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct answer regarding the Nocardia genus: | In Gram staining, they are usually seen as thin and branched gram-negative bacilli. | They are strictly anaerobic bacteria. | They are encapsulated bacteria. | Pharmacology | They are partially acid-alcohol resistant. | 35 | 3 | 1159e7a1-5744-4479-80ee-cf9e0c978fb9 | 2024 |
Which of the following infectious diseases is a zoonosis?: | Leptospirosis. | Legionellosis. | Whipple's Disease. | Pharmacology | Whooping cough. | 36 | 2 | 8af14d52-cc73-4ee3-9198-550b7611d8a5 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct answer in relation to Streptococcus pneumoniae: | Produces beta-hemolysis in blood agar. | There are 23 capsular serotypes. | Resistance to beta-lactams is mediated by a beta-lactamase. | Pharmacology | The solubility test in bile is positive. | 37 | 3 | a2f0b590-fa09-40fa-8183-594101bf6553 | 2024 |
What ectoparasite has the following taxonomic order: phylum Arthropoda, class Insecta, order Diptera? | Sarcoptes. | Pediculus. | Pulex. | Pharmacology | Chrysomya. | 38 | 3 | f8008d58-6c87-4318-9d31-507f20392faf | 2024 |
A 32-year-old patient who has had their spleen removed and is HIV positive, goes to the emergency room with a fever of 40⁰C (104ºF), headache, and intense joint pain that has been developing over 72 hours. The patient reports a tick bite. In the peripheral blood smear, the presence of an intraerythrocytic microorganism forming a cross image (tetrad in the division of the microorganism) is observed, which is pathognomonic. What disease does this correspond to? | Babesiosis. | Lyme Disease. | Human granulocytic anaplasmosis. | Pharmacology | Ehrlichiosis. | 39 | 2 | 06ba98a6-a55e-4c93-ba09-568e3a774b02 | 2024 |
A 50-year-old patient from Equatorial Guinea with abdominal pain and diarrhea for 8 days. In the parasitological study, Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites are observed. No other pathogen is isolated. What would be the treatment of choice? | Paromomycin 500 mg/8h orally. | Exclusively symptomatic, the use of antimicrobials is not recommended in these cases. | Tinidazole 500 mg/8h oral. | Pharmacology | Metronidazole 1 g orally, in a single dose. | 40 | 2 | 830dd967-6926-400d-b5af-54ca4b52453b | 2024 |
How is the concept of intrinsic dissolution rate defined? | Dissolution rate under the condition of maintaining the intrinsic properties of an amorphous substance. | Dissolution rate of a tablet formulation under the condition of constant surface area maintenance, avoiding the use of disintegrants. | Dissolution rate of a pure substance after its compaction under the condition of constant maintenance of the surface area. | Pharmacology | Dissolution rate under the condition of maintaining the intrinsic properties of a crystalline substance. | 41 | 4 | 8262f6a1-7b16-471f-b543-26625d5473b9 | 2024 |
What practical implication does it have if a liquid or semi-solid preparation presents a dilatant rheological behavior? | That it expands with the decrease in temperature, this should be controlled throughout the mixing process. | That expands with the increase in temperature, this should be controlled throughout the mixing process. | That decreases its viscosity when the speed or stirring force is increased in the mixing tanks. | Pharmacology | That increases its viscosity when the speed or stirring force is increased in the mixing tanks. | 42 | 3 | 8ffb25a0-f931-4f81-99b9-8d70ea523539 | 2024 |
Can a formulation in the form of powders for cutaneous administration be applied to open wounds or seriously damaged skin? | Yes, but only if the final preparation is sterile. | No. In no case. The potential abrasive effect of powdery mixtures is incompatible with damaged skin. | Yes, as long as the preparation possesses proven bactericidal or bacteriostatic properties, or includes an appropriate preservative. | Pharmacology | Yes, but only if they are presented in pressurized containers adapted for topical application. | 43 | 2 | e7b472f1-e7de-4574-9000-62f39633e4b2 | 2024 |
Which of the following methods is effective for the depyrogenation of primary packaging material, constituting the reference method described in the European Pharmacopoeia? | Treatment with moist heat at minimum conditions of temperature and exposure time of 250°C for 5 hours. | Dry heat treatment under minimal conditions of temperature and exposure time of 180ºC for 3 hours. | Dry heat treatment under minimum conditions of temperature and exposure time of 250ºC for 5 hours. | Pharmacology | Treatment with moist heat under minimum conditions of temperature and exposure time of 180°C for 3 hours. | 44 | 1 | a91f0fe6-4f28-476a-adb3-566d56771b03 | 2024 |
Dispersed systems consist of a substance dispersed in a dispersing medium. The mist aerosol consists of a colloidal dispersed system with the following composition: | Dispersed substance - solid; dispersing medium - liquid. | Dispersed substance - gas; dispersing medium - liquid. | Dispersed substance - gas; dispersing medium - solid. | Pharmacology | Dispersed substance - liquid; dispersing medium - gas. | 45 | 3 | 5eab4f1e-1338-47b3-9b56-f3eab04f3837 | 2024 |
Indicate the false answer in relation to emulsions: | The O/W emulsions produce a certain occlusive effect and reduce water evaporation, which makes them more effective at maintaining skin hydration than the W/O emulsions. | The sign of the emulsion is selected based on the route of administration and, in general, the application for which it is intended. | Emulsions intended for intramuscular administration can be of type A/O and O/A. | Pharmacology | The O/W emulsions allow the incorporation of flavorings in the aqueous phase to improve their organoleptic characteristics. | 46 | 2 | f537ed68-aea1-456c-bc82-38a1fad813e0 | 2024 |
The resting coronary blood flow in humans reaches an average of 250 mL/min. Approximately what percentage of the total cardiac output does this represent? | 5%. | 1%. | 15%. | Pharmacology | 10%. | 48 | 2 | 6b49501f-bfde-47cf-9f67-a5f257f6b65d | 2024 |
The speed of blood flow is directly proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius, which means that, the greater the thickness, the greater the blood flow. This statement is determined by the equation or law of: | Frank-Starling. | Fick. | Ohm. | Pharmacology | Poiseuille. | 50 | 3 | 09415096-2c37-48ce-b4b7-5fa379242986 | 2024 |
Regarding the classification of nerve fibers, those that conduct temperature belong to the group: | Ib. | 1a. | III. | Pharmacology | II. | 51 | 4 | 4ea9c4fb-b7b6-4d9b-a7a3-85117b6e4eed | 2024 |
Indicate the type of cells that secrete the gastric inhibitory peptide: | I Cells. | G Cells. | S. Cells | Pharmacology | K cells. | 52 | 3 | afa2da51-7774-4818-9848-0790ad8f5e62 | 2024 |
In erythroid maturation, which of the following cells is found between the polychromatic erythroblast and the reticulocyte?: | Red Blood Cell. | Proerythroblast. | Basophilic erythroblast. | Pharmacology | Orthochromatic erythroblast. | 53 | 3 | 50f2c1c0-d0ec-4e1c-a0e4-6fd4abeb3f22 | 2024 |
Regarding the digestive system, indicate the correct answer: | The elastase and the aminopeptidase are activated by trypsin. | Colipase is a glycolytic enzyme. | Carboxipeptidases A and B are endopeptidases. | Pharmacology | The main lipolytic enzymes are the dipeptidases. | 54 | 2 | 8895d2ed-4b8b-483c-8848-29a8d44e0dd6 | 2024 |
Which of the following phenomena favors the shift to the right of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?: | Increase in pH. | Increase in temperature. | Decrease in the concentration of 2,3- di-phosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). | Pharmacology | Decrease in CO2. | 55 | 1 | 15b5c109-bf0b-4a83-8586-6416983b4d42 | 2024 |
Which of the following substances causes a decrease in glomerular filtration?: | Prostaglandins. | Nitric oxide. | Angiotensin II. | Pharmacology | Norepinephrine. | 56 | 3 | 628d09db-3805-4836-9110-025ecdbfd0fa | 2024 |
Sertoli cells secrete a protein called: | Androgen Binding Protein (ABP). | Testosterone Binding Protein (TBP). | Meiotic Binding Protein (MBP). | Pharmacology | Acrosomal Granular Protein (AGP). | 57 | 2 | 52c67025-28aa-47ba-bfa2-8104014e4a48 | 2024 |
Which of the following elements derives from the Megakaryocytic Colony Forming Unit (CFU-Meg)?: | Red blood cell. | Platelet. | Neutrophil. | Pharmacology | Lymphocyte. | 58 | 1 | a4f18766-fb4f-4a57-a697-28dad1751f51 | 2024 |
The countercurrent multiplier system of the kidney consists of the exchange of water and ions between the renal interstitium and: | The blood from the peritubular capillary network. | The filtration of the proximal convoluted tubule. | The filtration of the Henle's loop. | Pharmacology | The blood from the straight part. | 59 | 4 | eb1e0670-acf0-45af-831c-4d6f3189df78 | 2024 |
What is the name given to the enlarged and hypersegmented granulocytes? | Mott Cells. | Megalocytes. | Pleocariocytes. | Pharmacology | Centrocytes. | 60 | 4 | 22762a63-3c90-40c8-af81-6c2e8a593561 | 2024 |
What is the most common erythrocyte morphology in peripheral blood in autoimmune hemolytic anemias? | Polychromasia, spherocytes, schistocytes and exceptionally some isolated erythroblast. | Microcytosis and hypochromia. | Macrocytosis and acanthocytes. | Pharmacology | Polychromasia, anisopoikilocytosis and sickle cells. | 61 | 2 | 9e9241dc-f991-4738-adbc-d3d6e64e7bea | 2024 |
What type of anemia is Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria? | Autoimmune hemolytic. | Congenital hemolytic. | Secondary iron deficiency. | Pharmacology | Acquired Hemolytic. | 62 | 3 | 2d863df2-71eb-479d-8d54-9748d42fb4e0 | 2024 |
What is the half-life of a red blood cell under physiological conditions? | 60 days. | 30 days. | 150 days. | Pharmacology | 120 days. | 63 | 3 | fa8605fb-4459-4e3e-adc0-1ca9a7d9a740 | 2024 |
What finding is typical of Acute Myeloid Leukemia with t(15;17)(q22;q12)? | Neutrophilia. | Thrombocytosis. | Polycythemia. | Pharmacology | Leukopenia. | 64 | 3 | 2c0adc30-42aa-4672-adb5-708e9a11409f | 2024 |
A blood count reflects a low number of red blood cells accompanied by macrocytosis and a marked increase in hemoglobin. Upon observing the smear, the red blood cells are normocytic and normochromic but form clusters. What situation causes this finding? | Cryoglobulins. | Iron deficiency. | Myeloproliferative Neoplasm type Polycythemia Vera. | Pharmacology | Anticoagulant EDTA. | 65 | 3 | 301a6646-9d29-4633-b6f7-f6d739a3b408 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct option about HELLP syndrome: | Its etiology is due to endothelial dysfunction. | It is a syndrome that presents with neutropenia, but not with hemolysis. | Various organs, such as the lungs or the heart, are affected, but it usually does not affect the liver. | Pharmacology | The patients present a marked thrombocytosis. | 66 | 2 | 4d5f85ff-453e-4399-aedc-de8bbbde8142 | 2024 |
Which of the following mediators is decreased in the vascular endothelium in the early stages of cardiovascular disease?: | Norepinephrine. | Nitric oxide. | Endothelin. | Pharmacology | Angiotensin II. | 67 | 1 | 8bddc706-52e8-4daa-856e-e24fc6ac0880 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct answer in relation to the case of a patient who presents potassium levels of 6.5 mEq/L (reference values: 3.5-5 mEq/L): | Unlike hypokalemia, the use of calcium gluconate would not be of interest, as calcium does not counteract the effects on cell membranes caused by potassium. | The sodium zirconium cyclosilicate, which promotes the excretion of the cation, is a very selective potassium exchanger used in hyperkalemias. | The use of beta blockers is of interest in patients with high potassium, as it decreases its plasma concentration by promoting its penetration into the cytoplasm of cells. | Pharmacology | Insulin is a drug that is used to safely reduce potassium levels, as when it is higher than 5 mEq/L, it does not have a hypoglycemic effect. | 68 | 1 | 4398c2af-6f55-4152-aed2-cf349a5373ef | 2024 |
A 75-year-old male patient is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension by his cardiologist. Which of the following statements is not true?: | It is possible to diagnose pulmonary hypertension in this patient without the presence of an underlying respiratory disease. | It is likely that the patient may experience weight gain due to peripheral edema. | This patient was in Sub-Saharan Africa 10 years ago; one possibility is that the pulmonary hypertension they present is secondary to an infection by Schistosoma spp. | Pharmacology | One of the available treatment options would be the use of phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors along with endothelin receptor agonists. | 69 | 3 | 0febfb94-bad5-46db-a612-31e6791cbffc | 2024 |
BS is a 71-year-old woman who comes to the pharmaceutical care consultation for using alectinib to treat her stage IV lung cancer. Which of the following statements is true?: | The "driver" mutation of this patient is usually associated with non-smokers. | It is most likely that you are using alectinib because you have a mutation in exon 19 or 21 of the EGFR gene. | If you were to have a squamous type lung cancer, it would correspond to a subtype of small cell lung cancer. | Pharmacology | As it is a stage IV lung cancer, the optimal approach to treatment to achieve the complete cure of the disease is to perform a lung resection of the tumor. | 70 | 2 | 4ffdecc9-196f-41a2-9d9b-86aae3f6c177 | 2024 |
Which of the following diseases is not caused by antibodies?: | Guillain-Barré Syndrome. | Effector Cell-Associated Neurotoxicity Syndrome (ICANS). | Graves' Disease. | Pharmacology | Pemphigus vulgaris. | 71 | 1 | b3c8b13f-1bac-4a96-b6e1-685f28a82fe0 | 2024 |
Which of these findings is not expected to be found in a patient diagnosed with Liddle syndrome? | Hypertension. | Hypernatremia. | Hypokalemia. | Pharmacology | Metabolic acidosis. | 72 | 3 | 22cb1351-e98c-4d0b-a7f2-4c0ece0a3f21 | 2024 |
CA has undergone a genetic study. Through a polymerase chain reaction (PCR), an expansion of the CTG triplet has been detected on chromosome 19, with about 60 repetitions. With what disease could this anomaly be related to? | Huntington's Chorea. | Myotonic dystrophy. | Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. | Pharmacology | Becker Muscular Dystrophy. | 73 | 1 | 0801fea7-fb4e-4a9a-be38-bcf07c2661cf | 2024 |
Indicate the correct answer regarding Wernicke's encephalopathy: | It is a more advanced, irreversible and prolonged phase of Korsakoff's syndrome, which is an acute phase that precedes it. | It occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B3 in alcoholic patients. | Being subjected to intermittent hemodialysis sessions poses a risk factor for suffering from it. | Pharmacology | In case of suspicion of this encephalopathy, the first recommendation is to administer glucose serum, and, once completed, the corresponding vitamins. | 74 | 4 | 29fa09a7-dd5d-4c20-b160-16c77574d6e8 | 2024 |
The X-linked hypophosphatemia is a rare disease in which there are mutations that induce the excessive and uncontrolled production of fibroblast growth factor 23. Knowing that this factor reduces the expression of the transporters responsible for the reabsorption of phosphorus in various locations of the body, and that it reduces the expression of the renal hydroxylase of vitamin D, which statement is correct?: | One of the complications that may arise from your treatment with high doses of phosphate salts and calcitriol is nephrocalcinosis. | The onset of this disease in childhood causes osteoporosis as the main bone manifestation. | A treatment strategy to compensate for a hypophosphatemia refractory to initial measures is to add high doses of calcium salts to the treatment. | Pharmacology | Colecalciferol should be administered as the preferred form of vitamin D to compensate for phosphate deficiency. | 75 | 2 | 578633b8-23dd-4b6e-8045-80331f842264 | 2024 |
Regarding breast cancer, indicate the correct option: | Adjuvant hormone therapy with tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors is indicated in premenopausal patients, but not postmenopausal, since in this second group the production of estrogens is minimal. | A patient with a tumor measuring more than 50 mm, but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes, is at stage IV. | The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are pathognomonic of breast cancer. | Pharmacology | The luminal subtype tends to present high levels of expression of estrogen and/or progesterone receptors, but not an overexpression of the HER2 protein (human epidermal growth factor receptor-2). | 76 | 3 | f87d2fad-4a77-46fb-ad94-102e4af26eea | 2024 |
Regarding glaucoma, select the correct option: | In order to establish a diagnosis of glaucoma, the intraocular pressure must always be above 21 mmHg. | The use of topical prostaglandins several times a day is a more useful strategy to decrease intraocular pressure than using combinations of drugs. | The increase in intraocular pressure is mainly due to the increased production of vitreous humor. | Pharmacology | If acute glaucoma develops, it is most likely to be narrow-angle glaucoma. | 77 | 3 | 1813643f-0a8e-43e7-9a53-80b2a6b1e85d | 2024 |
Which of the following findings would be most expected in a patient with severe ulcerative colitis?: | Severe malnutrition due to malabsorption. | Anemia that might require the need for a transfusion. | Formation of perianal fistulas. | Pharmacology | Very marked elevation of procalcitonin in the feces. | 78 | 1 | bb72d679-f6e7-46ef-bfb8-b10841b01443 | 2024 |
The ASA-triad syndrome or Samter's triad is characterized by intolerance to aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, the presence of nasal polyps and: | Asthma. | Rheumatoid arthritis. | Alzheimer's Disease. | Pharmacology | Systemic lupus erythematosus with antinuclear antibodies. | 79 | 2 | bf1972fe-fbd0-48ec-b8b0-7d4ca4339e9f | 2024 |
An 8-year-old patient weighing 30 kg is admitted to the infectious diseases unit with a fever of 38 ºC and suspected generalized bacteremia. He cannot tolerate oral intake, therefore, he is prescribed maintenance fluid therapy. What would be the volume to administer as well as the infusion rate according to the Holliday-Segar method?:
Daily maintenance volume:
Weight 0-10 kg: 100 mL/kg.
Weight 11-20 kg: 1,000 mL + 50 mL/kg for each kg >10 kg.
Weight >20 kg: 1,500 mL + 20 mL/kg for each kg >20 kg.
Infusion rate:
Weight 0-10 kg: 4 mL/kg/h.
Weight 11-20 kg: 40 mL/h + 2 mL/kg/h for each kg >10 kg.
Weight >20 kg: 60 mL/h + 1 mL/kg/h for each kg >20 kg. | 1,700 mL; 70 mL/h. | 2,100 mL; 88.5 mL/h. | 850 mL; 35 mL/h. | Pharmacology | 1,500 mL; 62.5 mL/h. | 80 | 2 | bf65bb36-09c8-4672-ae7c-c60f11cfe9bd | 2024 |
Indicate the incorrect answer regarding chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): | The count of eosinophils in peripheral blood is used as a biomarker to determine the treatment in exacerbations. | Severe alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is a risk factor for the development of the disease. | The triple inhaled therapy with a long-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator, a long-acting muscarinic antagonist bronchodilator and a corticosteroid, may be suitable for certain patients. | Pharmacology | Tiotropium has a shorter half-life than ipratropium, so it is administered twice a day. | 81 | 3 | 49030fb9-2b66-487e-be32-4a51176e7c17 | 2024 |
Patient with insomnia that does not respond to hygiene measures and other behavioral methods. They have a sleep pattern characterized by a long onset latency, without experiencing anxiety during the day. Which of the following drugs is most indicated for their treatment?: | Triazolam. | Lorazepam. | Clorazepate. | Pharmacology | Flurazepam. | 82 | 2 | b0bbd708-e4b4-4310-8c46-9f8011c6903d | 2024 |
Indicate the incorrect answer in relation to the case of a patient diagnosed with cryptococcal meningitis without concomitant immunosuppression, who presents with headache, fever, lethargy, sensory and memory deficits, paresis of cranial pairs, visual deficiency and meningeal signs of several weeks of evolution: | The penetration of flucytosine into the cerebrospinal fluid results in a rapid decrease of the cryptococcal load. | The induction treatment consists of a combination of liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine due to the synergy of the drugs. | The prevention of cryptococcal disease involves the administration of oral fluconazole in high-risk patients. | Pharmacology | The main adverse effect of flucytosine is renal toxicity and those of liposomal amphotericin B are bone marrow suppression and liver toxicity. | 83 | 3 | dd91d8a6-e15f-4740-86f1-bbcfdafbaa91 | 2024 |
Indicate which of the following associations is incorrect: | Furosemide- treatment for hypocalcemia. | Zoledronic acid - treatment for tumoral hypercalcemia. | Paricalcitol - treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism. | Pharmacology | Denosumab-inhibition of RANK ligand (RANK-L). | 84 | 2 | e4be6fce-ec69-4d08-92bf-afc62a3fb161 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct drug - mechanism of action relationship: | Tacrolimus - calcineurin inhibitor. | Everolimus - calcineurin inhibitor. | Azathioprine - mTOR inhibitor. | Pharmacology | Ciclosporin - mTOR inhibitor. | 85 | 2 | 92db004e-2bb8-4cbc-a0d7-c1f81d9d87ba | 2024 |
Which of the following drugs for the treatment of multiple sclerosis is a sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator?: | Dimethyl fumarate. | Teriflunomide. | Alemtuzumab. | Pharmacology | Siponimod. | 86 | 3 | 4020385f-c5d7-463d-892f-56d11c896fc3 | 2024 |
Which of the following drugs can produce teratogenic effects in the fetus and has a pregnancy prevention plan? | Valproic acid. | Folic acid. | Levothyroxine. | Pharmacology | Cholecalciferol. | 87 | 2 | a0b4d996-41e9-49cb-800c-1850057183f6 | 2024 |
Regarding immunotherapy, indicate the correct answer: | Ipilimumab is a human IgG1 monoclonal antibody that binds to CTLA-4 and was the first immune checkpoint inhibitor approved in Spain for the treatment of cancer. | The monoclonal antibodies that block CTLA-4, PD-1 or PD-L1 are used to decrease the immune response. | The adverse effects of immunotherapy are treated in the same way as those of conventional chemotherapy. | Pharmacology | Nivolumab is a human IgG4 monoclonal antibody that binds to the CDK4/6 protein, enhancing the immune response. | 88 | 2 | 09c31d45-a913-46f1-b901-e572fb9c38ee | 2024 |
What treatment would be most appropriate to prescribe to a patient diagnosed with severe uncontrolled asthma with inhaled glucocorticoids (ICS) at high doses + long-acting adrenergic agonist (LABA) + montelukast, who also has refractory atopic dermatitis? | Reslizumab, as it also has the indication in the technical data sheet for the treatment of atopic dermatitis. | Dupilumab, as it also has the indication in the technical sheet for the treatment of atopic dermatitis. | Ocrelizumab, due to its good safety profile in patients with atopic dermatitis. | Pharmacology | Bevacizumab, as it also has the indication in the technical sheet for the treatment of atopic dermatitis. | 89 | 1 | c0ab81d6-28d0-4825-87f7-963086c8ca27 | 2024 |
A 70-year-old smoker patient suffers from moderate-severe plaque psoriasis. Treatments with cyclosporine, methotrexate and PUVA have failed. She is simultaneously diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following treatment options is correct?: | You should immediately start treatment with certolizumab, as it is the only anti-TNF that is not contraindicated in case of active tuberculosis. | You should immediately start treatment with a Janus Kinase (JAK) inhibitor drug due to its better safety profile. | You should carry out antitubercular prophylaxis with isoniazid + rifampicin before starting a biological treatment. | Pharmacology | You should first undergo treatment for tuberculosis and then start treatment for psoriasis with a biological drug, for example, adalimumab. | 90 | 3 | 1325564f-2fee-4bdd-ac59-b83d38005779 | 2024 |
In relation to the treatment of HIV disease, indicate the incorrect association: | Lamivudine - reverse transcriptase inhibitor. | Bictegravir - integrase inhibitor. | Lopinavir - protease inhibitor. | Pharmacology | Cabotegravir - protease inhibitor. | 91 | 3 | 501a78c0-b25b-46a9-8d33-a2434ba7adfb | 2024 |
What treatment would be indicated to prescribe to a 45 year old patient diagnosed with ulcerative colitis, without other relevant pathologies, who is not controlled with mesalazine and azathioprine? | Benralizumab. | Galcanezumab. | Ranibizumab. | Pharmacology | Infliximab. | 92 | 3 | c60ecda3-f788-469e-81af-9ba385ce4586 | 2024 |
In the context of a splenectomized patient, they are asking the Pharmacy department for the dispensing of encapsulated bacteria vaccines as a prevention of infections to which these patients are especially sensitive. Which of the following vaccines would not be dispensed?: | Antimeningococcal vaccine. | Pneumococcal vaccine. | Vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae type B. | Pharmacology | Vaccine against Bordetella pertussis. | 93 | 3 | 5e2a4b33-70ff-4457-85d5-249aac3753fa | 2024 |
Indicate the incorrect relationship between drug - therapeutic use: | Deferoxamine - iron poisoning. | Copper sulfate supplements - Wilson's disease. | Vitamin B12 - megaloblastic anemia. | Pharmacology | Vitamin B1 - Chronic alcoholism. | 94 | 1 | 7185dcff-4618-4fa4-be4a-e54d445a87e6 | 2024 |
Which of the following drugs is not a lipid-modifying agent used for the treatment of dyslipidemia?: | Inclisiran. | Alirocumab. | Obeticholic acid. | Pharmacology | Evolocumab. | 95 | 4 | 28a9fc69-4581-4ca8-96f9-88124cabab95 | 2024 |
Indicate the false answer about Adotrastuzumab emtansine: | Its target of action is Trop-2. | It is a conjugated antibody. | DM1, the cytotoxic component of trastuzumab emtansine, binds to tubulin, causing cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase. | Pharmacology | One of the possible side effects is cardiac dysfunction. | 96 | 2 | a8466b8b-7129-4aca-922e-6a1663defb4b | 2024 |
Indicate the true answer about emicizumab: | Replaces the activity of factor VII. | It is a bispecific monoclonal antibody against factor VII and VIII. | The preferred route of administration is intramuscular. | Pharmacology | It is indicated for routine prophylaxis of bleeding episodes in patients with hemophilia A. | 97 | 3 | be037c7a-8750-4ddd-94eb-1698ee256307 | 2024 |
What characteristic defines a partial agonist drug? | Its relative efficacy (α) has a value around 1. | The maximum effect it always produces is less than that produced by a pure agonist in the study system (organ, organism, etc.). | Its pharmacological effect is determined by its affinity to the receptor. | Pharmacology | Its effects cannot be blocked by a competitive antagonist drug of the same receptor. | 98 | 1 | ef496837-8253-48a4-92ab-e343485b1007 | 2024 |
Regarding the drug transport mechanism known as passive diffusion, which of the following statements is correct?: | The ionized fraction of drugs is the one that crosses membranes more easily. | It is performed through a carrier protein with energy consumption. | It is the main mechanism of drug absorption and follows Fick's law. | Pharmacology | It occurs against the concentration gradient of the drug. | 99 | 4 | 9ffe2349-28aa-4a8b-92cc-c4d20b565f8e | 2024 |
Of the following statements, which one characterizes the Kd (dissociation constant of a drug for its target)? | Its value depends on the effect that the drug produces on its target. | It corresponds to a value of the concentration of the drug under study, which occupies more than half of the receptors. | Its value is independent of the slope according to the Scatchard graphical representation. | Pharmacology | Its value will be lower the greater the affinity of the drug for the receptor. | 100 | 3 | a6ef64c5-4582-47e5-847d-b5702f8bf242 | 2024 |
Which of the following pharmacological targets belongs to the group of catalytic receptors or with intrinsic enzymatic activity?: | The GABA type A receptor (GABAA). | The muscarinic receptor for acetylcholine. | Steroid receptors. | Pharmacology | The insulin receptor. | 101 | 3 | 211733e1-717b-4ab5-b6f4-fba05755aaa1 | 2024 |
What characteristic do G protein-coupled receptors fulfill? | They have serine and threonine residues, susceptible to phosphorylation, an essential process in the cellular signaling they mediate. | They possess intrinsic ATPase activity. | They act as intracellular receptors for hormones. | Pharmacology | They are formed by four subunits: alpha, beta, gamma, and zeta. | 102 | 2 | 5f39a287-0e73-4807-b013-e8a66af8db3b | 2024 |
Regarding the P-glycoprotein (P-gp), which of the following options is correct?: | The P-gp is overexpressed in some neoplastic cells. | The P-gp is one of the main mechanisms for introducing xenobiotics into the central nervous system. | The genetic polymorphisms of P-gp, which confer low activity, lead to a reduction in the absorption of some drugs, such as digoxin. | Pharmacology | The downregulation of this protein expression is responsible for resistance to some antitumor drugs. | 103 | 2 | 0d3d1408-3a54-4b2d-add2-7f3c2d2f0d47 | 2024 |
Regarding carbamazepine, indicate the incorrect option: | Carriers of certain genetic polymorphisms of the HLAB leukocyte antigen have an increased risk of severe dermatological reactions when treated with this drug. | Rapid metabolizers, carriers of some genetic polymorphisms of CYP2D6, have a higher risk of adverse drug reactions. | The plasma half-life of carbamazepine gradually decreases during the initial stages of treatment. | Pharmacology | It is an inducer of CYP3A4. | 104 | 1 | 5c3072b6-155b-4af2-b14c-5179149b07cc | 2024 |
In a given system, two drugs, A and B, have affinity for the same receptor and act simultaneously. If the intrinsic efficacy of B is less than that of A, then: | A is a non-competitive antagonist of B. | B is a competitive antagonist of A. | A is a functional antagonist of B. | Pharmacology | B is a non-competitive antagonist of A. | 105 | 1 | edc8c4e7-15ca-40cd-9d1a-5fbc08dc13c1 | 2024 |
Which of the following is a medication with an α1-adrenergic agonist mechanism of action? | Isoproterenol. | Oxymetazoline. | Dobutamine. | Pharmacology | Salbutamol. | 106 | 1 | 5e2048e7-0120-4bed-8299-c370c2d08522 | 2024 |
In relation to the hemodynamic effects of calcium channel antagonists, select the correct option: | All calcium channel antagonists reduce coronary vascular resistance. | Verapamil is a more potent vasodilator than dihydropyridines. | Calcium channel antagonists indirectly decrease sympathetic activity. | Pharmacology | Dihydropyridines produce a direct negative inotropic effect at concentrations lower than those needed to reduce arteriolar resistance. | 107 | 2 | 31c88156-ce10-45f9-a258-cd9e17ccd899 | 2024 |
Which of the following drugs binds to a specific binding site in the GABAA receptor macromolecular complex, different from the one used by the GABA neurotransmitter to exert its action?: | Chlorazepate. | Sertraline. | Citalopram. | Pharmacology | Trazodone. | 108 | 2 | c2cc457d-f0b3-4a28-b1c0-abfc8aba92c8 | 2024 |
In relation to the extraction of active ingredients from plant material, considering their solubility characteristics, the use of the Soxhlet method consists of: | Perform a percolation on the drug. | Add boiling water to the drug and keep it like that for a certain amount of time. | Perform a continuous extraction with maceration and percolation. | Pharmacology | Place the drug in contact with the solvent for an extended period at room temperature. | 109 | 4 | b868ead2-d2ca-4fea-ab7b-005d0702db80 | 2024 |
Indicate which of the following statements is true: | Paclitaxel/taxol is found in the root of Taxus brevifolia. | Vincamine is a nitrogenous diterpene with antimitotic action. | Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene lactone with antitussive properties. | Pharmacology | Ephedrine is an alkaloid that lacks a heterocyclic nitrogen. | 110 | 3 | 707ee932-0296-48e9-be2b-3e018a36c0c5 | 2024 |
Which of the following statements about Cynara scolymus is false?: | It has an antiemetic effect. | Its active ingredients are phenolic acids and organic acids. | Aqueous extracts of the leaf are used for their pharmacological properties. | Pharmacology | It also contains sesquiterpene lactones, which give it a bitter taste. | 111 | 2 | 0dfdb9b0-c471-4b08-b79f-ccfb7cc54f25 | 2024 |
If we want to administer a drug to an intubated patient through a transpyloric probe, we must consider that: | Drugs administered in this way do not undergo the first-pass liver effect, achieving higher serum concentrations. | A drug that requires a decarboxylation process in an acidic environment to be active could see its efficacy reduced. | The administration of highly osmotic presentations may lead to significant adverse effects such as paralytic ileus. | Pharmacology | It is recommended to administer crushed extended-release medications to achieve a fast effect. | 112 | 1 | 79f3a591-07e9-4863-8565-d004e090edb8 | 2024 |
A hematological patient begins antifungal prophylaxis with posaconazole. Which of the following interactions with other drugs the patient is receiving should we be alert to?: | The induction of UGT1A1 caused by posaconazole could result in increased elimination of edoxaban. | It may be necessary to reduce the dose of venetoclax as posaconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4. | It may be necessary to increase the dose of posaconazole since tacrolimus is an inducer of CYP2C19. | Pharmacology | Using an intravenous formulation of posaconazole, we would avoid its pharmacokinetic interactions. | 113 | 1 | 5b1e0193-e040-4d8a-9eb2-bb09c3a94d77 | 2024 |
Choose which of the following drug-pharmacokinetic parameter pairs would you use for adequate monitoring of the treatment: | Vancomycin - target area under the curve (AUC)/MIC between 400-600 mg*h/L. | Amikacin - >80% of time between doses with concentration higher than the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). | Phosphomycin - trough concentration between 20-40 mcg/mL to determine its safety. | Pharmacology | Ceftazidime/avibactam - peak concentration > 40 mcg/mL to determine its efficacy. | 114 | 2 | 4140cbca-52e6-4ae2-9529-b0cc0416a96e | 2024 |
AM is going to start treatment with capecitabine to treat colon carcinoma. Which of the following actions related to pharmacogenetics would be correct?: | Request a determination of mutations in the DPD gene. If a decrease in enzyme activity is demonstrated, it may be recommended to start with a higher than usual dose to maintain efficacy. | Request a determination of mutations in the dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) gene. In case of a demonstrated decrease in enzyme activity, it may be recommended to start with a reduced dose to avoid adverse effects. | Request a determination of mutations in the UGT1A gene. If a decrease in enzyme activity is demonstrated, it may be recommended to start with a higher than usual dose to maintain efficacy. | Pharmacology | Request a determination of mutations in the UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 A (UGT1A) gene. If a decrease in enzyme activity is demonstrated, it may be recommended to start with a reduced dose to avoid adverse effects. | 115 | 1 | e14da7cd-1b49-481e-8165-1408ca8f61b9 | 2024 |
For a drug that has a high hepatic extraction rate (EH > 0.7), which statement would be true?: | In a malnourished patient, developing hypoalbuminemia, their hepatic clearance would be significantly reduced. | In a patient who develops acute heart failure, their liver clearance would be significantly reduced. | In a patient who has been taking rifampicin (a potent enzymatic inducer) for 3 months, their hepatic clearance would be significantly increased. | Pharmacology | In a patient who, for some reason, has an increase in hepatic flow, their hepatic extraction rate would also be significantly increased. | 116 | 1 | 1cdff737-ca01-41fa-8213-6776f19e5025 | 2024 |
What are the main parameters that influence Tmax (time to reach maximum drug concentration in plasma) after its extravascular administration? | F (bioavailability), Ka and Ke. | Ka (absorption rate constant) and Ke (elimination rate constant). | Vd (volume of distribution), dose and Ke. | Pharmacology | Dosage and F. | 117 | 1 | d48d4e8d-07d2-4bfc-897b-ffc75f3de5db | 2024 |
A drug with a beta-lactam antibiotic structure, like amoxicillin, is primarily absorbed after its oral administration by: | Pore diffusion. | Active transport. | Ion pairs. | Pharmacology | Endocytosis. | 118 | 1 | 5d47080e-4183-48f4-9942-6798b01455c9 | 2024 |
An antibiotic is administered to an 80 kg patient via intravenous infusion. The plasma elimination half-life of the drug is 7 hours, and the volume of distribution represents 25% of body weight. The Css (drug concentration at steady state) is 10 mcg/mL. What is the loading dose to be administered in bolus to reach this level?: | 130 mg. | 250 mg. | 200 mg. | Pharmacology | 300 mg. | 119 | 4 | 58a9edc1-183e-4321-9853-10f8144bd236 | 2024 |
Non-linear pharmacokinetics may occur in the absorption process of a drug in the following case: | Change in urinary volume over time due to the effect of the dose. | High solubility of the drug from the dosage form, which results in an increase of the dissolved drug as the dose is increased. | Saturation of the enzymatic systems responsible for the drug's metabolism as the administered dose increases. | Pharmacology | Low solubility of the drug from the dosage form, with a decrease in the fraction of dissolved drug as the dose increases. | 120 | 3 | 28d87a2e-2890-4307-879f-fb66131a5480 | 2024 |
Which of the following statements is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of valproic acid?: | The oral absorption of valproic acid is erratic, therefore its bioavailability is less than 50%. | The primary route of metabolism for the drug is hepatic through oxidation mechanisms via cytochrome CYP3A4. | The percentage of binding to plasma proteins depends on the drug concentration, reaching a binding percentage of approximately 90% at plasma concentrations greater than 75 mcg/mL. | Pharmacology | Combination with phenobarbital can increase the plasma concentrations of the drug, thus increasing the risk of valproic acid toxicity. | 121 | 4 | a9aee2d9-7915-4f16-858a-0405c9e6419f | 2024 |
Regarding the degradation of the carbon skeletons of amino acids, it is true that: | Tetrahydrofolate and S-adenosylmethionine are two of the most important cofactors of enzymes involved in the transfer of amino groups. | Threonine is an example of a solely ketogenic amino acid. | In fasting conditions, leucine significantly contributes to ketosis. | Pharmacology | The amino acids that come from the degradation of proteins and end up producing fumarate are considered ketogenic. | 123 | 4 | f7c91566-d9a6-4dac-9d5b-5f4d3dce726b | 2024 |
MLS is a patient who requires the use of home parenteral nutrition due to a postsurgical short bowel syndrome. What element would you not expect to add to her parenteral nutrition, if no further patient data was known? | Bromine. | Calcium. | Magnesium. | Pharmacology | Zinc. | 124 | 2 | 7f4bc721-dfc4-4e48-9210-c970111cf1f6 | 2024 |
Indicate the correct statement regarding the pentose phosphate pathway: | The first reaction of the non-oxidative phase consists of the oxidation of glucose 6-P to 6-phosphogluconolactone. | In the oxidative phase, glucose 6-P is converted into ribulose 5-P, producing 4 molecules of NADPH. | The first reaction of the non-oxidative phase consists of an epimerization reaction. | Pharmacology | The enzyme glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of glucose 6-P to 6-phosphogluconolactone. Individuals with a deficiency of this enzyme have a higher susceptibility to infection by Plasmodium falciparum. | 125 | 4 | de27966f-4c03-471b-a31f-3f81a5fd5c8b | 2024 |
The routes of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are essential for the proper functioning of the human body. In relation to them, indicate the true option: | The reaction catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase during glycolysis is the first process that produces reducing power in the form of NADH. | Out of the 10 reactions that take place in glycolysis, 5 are common to gluconeogenesis, but they occur in the reverse direction. | Glucokinase is a type of hexokinase that is highly selective for glucose, primarily found in skeletal muscle to optimize energy acquisition in it. | Pharmacology | The phosphorylation of fructose-6P at position 1 is favored by the presence of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. | 127 | 3 | f3aed236-f1a9-4457-a0c1-73678011bd47 | 2024 |
Which of the following enzymes would we not expect to find in a red blood cell?: | Phosphofructokinase-1. | Lactate dehydrogenase. | Bisphosphoglycerate mutase. | Pharmacology | Pyruvate dehydrogenase. | 128 | 3 | 71693105-4578-4183-9db3-afe3296084ea | 2024 |
Subsets and Splits
No saved queries yet
Save your SQL queries to embed, download, and access them later. Queries will appear here once saved.