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Taking into account the "purpose" of the interview, and in relation to the consultative interview:
It has a non-therapeutic and advisory objective.
It usually has a focal objective, with a very specific purpose, in which the interviewee is not going to continue with subsequent clinical work.
Its purpose is to effect a change in a direction agreed upon by both, the interviewer and interviewee.
Psychology
It is aimed at establishing a diagnosis in a patient.
104
1
20e42861-929e-487e-a5dc-4998ff4bd845
2020
What level of within-session sampling are we using if, in a class session, a student is sampled every 30 seconds to see if they maintain the correct position?
Of events.
Continuing throughout the entire session.
Focal.
Psychology
Temporal.
105
3
e3a4dcde-0778-4a82-9457-ecdceda6791a
2020
From the "expert systems", promoted by the development of Artificial Intelligence, programs have been created aimed at:
The construction of computerized adaptive tests.
Develop neuropsychological batteries.
Emulate the process that the clinician follows in the evaluation to produce diagnostic conclusions.
Psychology
The use of "virtual reality".
106
4
abfe612d-22c1-4d99-a830-845380d2446c
2020
When the Wechsler Intelligence Scale (WPPSI-IV) is applied to children under four years old, it includes:
Arithmetic.
Drawing test.
Similarities Test.
Psychology
Searching for animals.
107
1
26329532-f067-48df-8bf2-c9a26426a310
2020
In the psychophysiological evaluation of electrodermal activity, the most frequent parameters to measure skin conductance are response amplitude and:
The latency period.
The recovery period.
The variability of the response throughout the entire measurement process.
Psychology
The resistance.
108
2
788289f9-0e94-40b0-967a-063108dd4279
2020
Which temperamental risk factor is related to obsessive-compulsive disorder (DSM-5)?:
Reduced positive emotionality.
Extraversion.
Internalization symptoms.
Psychology
Disruptive behavior.
109
4
5b8c1c43-c048-44d3-bff5-eaab53f78650
2020
Regarding the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder, the DSM-5 establishes the minimum duration of the core symptoms (indicate the correct answer):
One month.
Two weeks.
Six months.
Psychology
Three months.
110
4
d6049ee8-9d19-4ac3-867b-cba2c141bc63
2020
Regarding Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD), the following can be affirmed:
In general, studies show that the lifetime prevalence is 3-4%.
Males present an earlier age of onset of disorder symptoms than women.
OCD often begins in childhood.
Psychology
The presence of OCD is not universal.
111
1
4a0ab7a6-6dea-463e-a669-326f39cd028b
2020
Indicate the correct statement regarding night terrors:
It is a parasomnia of REM sleep.
They generally occur in the last third of the main sleep period.
The content of dreams is often largely remembered.
Psychology
They are part, along with sleepwalking, of the same diagnostic category (DSM 5).
112
3
c92dffb2-6d54-4e0e-a11c-8669fe5a8491
2020
The diagnosis of narcolepsy, although essentially clinical, ideally should be confirmed in a sleep laboratory through:
Sleep polygraphy followed by the Romberg Test the following morning.
Sleep polygraphy followed by tonometry the next morning.
Nighttime polysomnography, followed the next morning by capnography.
Psychology
Overnight polysomnography, followed by the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) the next morning.
113
3
e4e723de-1218-494e-aa04-701419612c1f
2020
In moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea/hypopnea syndrome (OSAHS) with symptoms (daytime sleepiness), the treatment of choice is:
An anxiolytic drug.
A hypnotic drug.
Neurofeedback.
Psychology
Continuous positive airway pressure.
115
3
8287bd8a-c721-4ff6-9cb0-2a760d16b61c
2020
Indicate which of the following phenomena is less characteristic and definitional of dissociative identity disorder (DSM 5):
Recurring gaps in remembering everyday events.
Experiences of distancing and unreality in relation to the environment.
Alterations in affect, behavior, consciousness, and memory.
Psychology
It would be discontinuity in the sense of identity.
116
1
792509cc-4b60-467c-a65b-ba636ff60fa6
2020
Which of the following behavioral symptoms is most characteristic of dissociative amnesia?:
Analgesia.
Mechanical behavior.
Macropsia or micropsia.
Psychology
Self-harm and suicide attempts.
117
3
515750b4-41ee-414b-bc66-14b7de73148e
2020
What is the main cognitive bias of the pathological gambler?
Denial and the lie.
The illusion of control.
The idea that the more one plays, the more chances of winning.
Psychology
Biased evaluation of the results.
118
1
396c1d39-ea3c-4968-96ee-c82a8a958035
2020
What are the main effects of amphetamines?
After the initial euphoric effects, a clear amotivational syndrome quickly follows, along with suppression of normal sleep for weeks.
Elevation of mood and reduction of feelings of fatigue and appetite.
State of complete well-being, euphoria, sensation of floating and disappearance of inhibitions.
Psychology
Consumption leads to excessive sleep.
119
1
bbe14bf1-e2f8-484f-bb94-6d42d52ca283
2020
Which of the following drugs produces a strong psychological dependence but little physical dependence:
Alcohol.
Caffeine.
Heroin.
Psychology
Cocaine.
120
3
1a28d2f4-da26-4371-b21e-1f410de98677
2020
Among existing drugs, the regular use of heroin and morphine is characterized because:
Health damages only occur in the long term.
They rapidly develop tolerance and dependence in consumers.
They produce a characteristic amotivational state in their consumers.
Psychology
They produce a strong physical dependence but not a psychological one.
121
1
bdfce845-edc7-4dc4-9ee1-8cffd3706748
2020
The ability of a substance to cause dependence in those who consume it is known as:
Psychological dependence.
Physical dependence.
Addictive potential of a drug.
Psychology
Increase in tolerance.
122
4
aca04733-a762-4116-b851-36275408a3f4
2020
Which would not be a characteristic of a good prognosis in Schizophreniform Disorder:
Confusion or perplexity.
Appearance of notable psychotic symptoms within the first four weeks.
Absence of flattened or blunted affect.
Psychology
That the episode is triggered by a manic episode.
123
3
907c4d7d-d530-4750-8ee8-ffdf6bc9d693
2020
What is the name of the phenomenon in which an existing word is given a meaning different from its actual meaning?
Palilalia.
Neologism.
Glossolalia.
Psychology
Paralogism.
124
3
5cd845d2-4056-4ed2-b20c-cf340749fbbf
2020
What is the name of the phenomenon that occurs if a patient is convinced that another person has been physically transformed into themselves?
Delusion of doubles.
Intermetamorphosis Syndrome.
Subjective doubles syndrome.
Psychology
Fregoli Syndrome.
125
4
4685eb5c-ebcf-412c-9559-d24aed3f70bf
2020
Which of the following answers is correct with regard to the factitious disorder?:
The production of symptoms is not intentional.
There is no deceptive or feigned behavior if there isn't an external incentive.
In the factitious disorder imposed on another, the diagnosis applies to both the perpetrator and the victim.
Psychology
The usual course is in the form of intermittent episodes.
126
3
86020dba-6e8f-4b43-9778-72f3713b4ed1
2020
Which of the following answers is correct in regard to bulimia nervosa?:
Binge episodes must occur, at least, three times a week, for four consecutive months, in order to diagnose the disorder.
It is more prevalent in young women than anorexia nervosa.
Binge eating usually involves food that they also normally consume between episodes.
Psychology
Unlike what happens in anorexia nervosa, body weight does not unduly influence a person's self-assessment.
127
1
54296f6f-4c54-4cf4-b846-e2b95ef3c12f
2020
When suspecting the presence of depression in a person, which of the following aspects related to the diagnosis should be addressed first?:
The possible comorbidity with anxiety disorders.
The existence of a medical or organic etiology.
The implementation of a functional analysis to explain the origin and maintenance of the disorder.
Psychology
The specification of cognitive distortions present in the case.
128
1
e41366ad-bbf4-4214-aab6-4486f89f06e9
2020
According to the Response Styles Theory (Nolen-Hoksema), the fundamental element for the consolidation of a depressive disorder would be:
The limitation in coping abilities for those losses.
The experience of loss events.
Ruminative responses.
Psychology
Low self-esteem.
129
4
1f3442e7-e287-4c1d-95f7-a0b91900f41d
2020
According to the DSM-5, which of the following is a defining characteristic of melancholic depressive disorders during the most severe phase of the current episode?
Loss of pleasure in all or almost all activities.
Reactivity or increase in mood in response to actual or potential positive events.
Feeling of nerves or tension.
Psychology
Appearance and remission of depressive episodes during certain times of the year.
130
2
6a18588b-fb12-4517-9eb9-2e83ddbff143
2020
According to the permissive hypothesis of depression:
The increase in serotonergic neurotransmission leads to the onset of depression.
The deficit in serotonergic neurotransmission leads to the onset of depression.
A deficiency in serotonergic neurotransmission predisposes an individual to the onset of depression. The depressive state occurs if there is also an increase in catecholaminergic neurotransmission.
Psychology
A deficit in serotonergic neurotransmission predisposes one to the onset of depression, with the depressive state occurring if there is also a deficit in catecholaminergic neurotransmission.
131
3
dd17d00b-a0b7-4ab3-955f-f5ec76fa5c09
2020
According to the DSM-5, post-traumatic stress disorder is specified as "with delayed expression" when:
The onset of the first symptoms occurs at least one month after the traumatic event.
It is not preceded by an acute stress disorder.
The full set of diagnostic criteria is not met until at least six months after the traumatic event.
Psychology
The onset of the first symptoms occurs at least six months after the traumatic event.
132
4
78af64c9-8d8d-4020-a41e-218e7dc3ca57
2020
Regarding hallucinoid images, it can be stated that:
The individual gives them a sense of reality.
They occur in the absence of specific stimuli that activate them.
They are a type of mnemonic image.
Psychology
It refers to a concept synonymous with eidetic image.
133
1
cfc989cc-ce87-4de8-bcac-baa452797f6b
2020
The Information Processing Theory applied to post-traumatic stress disorder focuses on the explanation of:
The avoidance behaviors of stimuli that remind of the trauma.
The re-experiencing of the traumatic event.
Hyperactivation and extreme anxiety.
Psychology
Affective problems, loss of interest and apathy.
135
1
f21c7f82-3cba-46a9-a041-2aedbaf6f1e3
2020
Indicate the correct statement regarding suicide rates in relation to mood disorders:
They are similar in major depression and in bipolar disorder.
They are higher in major depression than in bipolar disorder.
The data comes from studies that do not allow for any assertions on the matter.
Psychology
They are greater in bipolar disorder than in major depression.
136
3
52295a09-0851-4801-a778-62a0cf578a3b
2020
According to the DSM 5, a person with a first-degree relative with a specific phobia of animals is significantly more likely to have:
Any other specific phobia.
The same specific phobia.
Any other anxiety disorder.
Psychology
Any other phobia.
137
1
6dc1353b-546d-4313-b207-a96a3deb3886
2020
What is the minimum duration required to make a diagnosis of selective mutism according to DSM 5?
Three months.
One month.
Twelve months.
Psychology
Six months.
138
1
356a56b9-a5a6-48ab-93c0-df09f6f053a0
2020
Indicate which of the following statements about separation anxiety disorder is false:
It can be hereditary.
It often develops after a vital stress (e.g., the death of a family pet).
The indirect expression of fear of separation may be more common in males.
Psychology
Boys show a greater reluctance to attend school than girls.
139
3
b066347a-fdaf-4314-9586-471050f9233c
2020
The falsifications of memory that appear in a state of lucid consciousness associated with organic amnesia and without the patient intending to lie are called:
False recognitions.
Pseudologies or fantastic pseudologies.
Reduplicative paramnesias.
Psychology
Confabulations.
140
3
61396f5c-effd-494a-932e-b9c1c8bdc982
2020
A patient who has a vivid sensation that their veins are twisting around themselves is experiencing a:
Paresthesia.
Cenesthetic hallucination.
Tactile hallucination.
Psychology
Vascular hallucination.
141
1
1c28af09-2bd4-484f-8c6c-58b7f974cec6
2020
What are the anomalous images that can be perceived during the transition moments from wakefulness to sleep called:
Mnemonic images.
Hypnopompic images.
Parasitic images.
Psychology
Hypnagogic images.
142
3
d6e5d791-7f17-4bcb-91a0-22caf3dbc621
2020
What is the term for the use or creation of unusual words whose meaning is only known by the individual?
Approximation of words.
Asyntaxia.
Alexia.
Psychology
Neologisms.
143
3
5b7b7fd7-78bb-4075-889e-28da13c9520e
2020
What is the term for difficulty in articulation and expression of words caused by lesions in the nervous system?
Speech Disorder.
Aphasia.
Dysarthria.
Psychology
Dysglossia.
144
4
c3ee5d2c-5e2a-4b6a-84f2-8302438200fe
2020
The statement "the television host wants to warn me that I am in serious danger and that's why she has worn a green dress" is an example of:
Delusional occurrence.
Delirious mood or temperament.
Delusional representation.
Psychology
Delusional perception.
145
3
07aa968d-fd1b-48e4-b155-7850c5e3b187
2020
Which of the following alterations is considered a perceptual distortion?:
Hypnagogic image.
Dysmorphopsia.
Autoscopic image.
Psychology
Pseudo-hallucination.
146
1
de55b3fa-845f-491f-8d71-e86a8b3e605d
2020
When a perceptual experience is maintained and/or activated even though the initial stimulus that produced it is no longer accessible to the sensory organs, it is very likely that it will be experienced:
A reflective hallucination.
A pareidolia.
A visual pseudo-hallucination.
Psychology
A parasitic image.
147
3
5350b7f7-11b6-4a34-bc4d-5e721f7b57cb
2020
What is the name of the thought disorder in which the patient stops speaking in the middle of the sentence and changes the subject in response to nearby stimuli (for example, the interviewer's tie)?
Tangentiality.
Speech pressure.
Distracted speech.
Psychology
Circumstantiality.
148
4
8712f9b8-40d0-4afd-8784-16b48659ee1d
2020
Cerebral flexibility, negativism, or catalepsy - which may be present as symptoms of catatonia according to DSM 5-are manifested:
When the patient decides to make a voluntary movement, since these symptoms are under their voluntary control.
When the patient is induced to perform certain actions or movements.
When the patient is at rest.
Psychology
When the patient makes an involuntary movement.
149
1
3b00b046-e791-4c57-aaf5-4f6db5e5d8a8
2020
Which of these memory disturbances more properly constitutes a paramnesia of the memory?
Confabulation.
Agnosia.
Cryptomnesia.
Psychology
Reduplicative amnesia.
150
2
6d0e6014-a163-4a65-a5dd-0fec8f3bf10d
2020
Regarding the incidence of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder in the general population:
It occurs more in men than in women.
It occurs more in women than in men.
The methodological weaknesses of the studies do not allow for reliable conclusions in this regard.
Psychology
It has been found to be consistent between men and women.
151
2
8ba8bfe1-9fd8-4d01-92bc-33ecbd713fa7
2020
Indicate which of the following neuroanatomical or neurophysiological abnormalities is not typical of schizophrenia:
Reduction in the volume of the thalamus.
Decrease in cortical grooves.
Decrease in glucose metabolism in the frontal lobes.
Psychology
Decrease in frontal and temporal lobes.
152
1
b4b42cd9-073c-4e6b-979b-df357b162d7c
2020
Indicate the correct statement regarding narcissistic personality disorder:
Its presence in the clinical population is from 7 to 1 (DSM 5).
Its presence in the general population is less than 1% (DSM 5).
Genetic factors appear to explain the largest percentage of variance in the disorder.
Psychology
The greatest comorbidity occurs with paraphilias and sexual dysfunctions.
153
1
00e3b0c7-f33b-4efb-8a05-d0904bb86f43
2020
Regarding the depersonalization disorder, it can be stated that:
The course of the "disorder" is usually episodic, not chronic.
The duration of the "episodes" is always brief (not persistent).
During the course of the disorder, reality testing is altered.
Psychology
Among its clinical characteristics are obsessive rumination and somatic concerns.
154
3
13a545f2-7ae7-4c09-925b-f52ce94d0a42
2020
Regarding obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), indicate the correct option:
The rate of spontaneous remission is very high.
Boys are less affected than girls.
The onset usually occurs abruptly/suddenly in response to stressful situations.
Psychology
Compared to individuals with anxiety and depression disorders, patients with OCD are more likely to be single and unemployed.
155
3
368c4806-5b93-4246-8f34-f2b67f673dcc
2020
Some of the limitations of the Classic Test Theory as compared to the Item Response Theory come from:
The absence of invariance and the consideration of a uniform level of precision.
The lesser reliability of the instruments and the greater mathematical complexity of the old models.
The degree of difficulty of the items and the lesser content validity.
Psychology
The absence of invariance and the absence of predictive validity.
156
2
e5d63305-97b4-4de5-98f1-6c8ca2c1a081
2020
The Spearman-Brown formula is used to estimate the change in the reliability coefficient of a test that occurs when it increases.
The length of a test is extended by adding parallel items to those of the original test.
The variability of a new sample in which the test is being analyzed.
The difficulty of the items in a new version of the test.
Psychology
The size of a new sample in which the test is analyzed.
157
2
2d019c4e-da08-49a6-a4e0-e16f90e04d81
2020
To properly interpret the results obtained through a factorial analysis of variance, one must take into account (indicate the incorrect statement):
The analysis of simple effects involves interpreting the effect of one factor when considering a single level of another factor.
When the interaction effect is statistically significant, the interest in the main effects is somewhat reduced since their interpretation depends on the levels of the rest of the factors.
The interaction effect will only be statistically significant if the main effects are also significant.
Psychology
The analysis of simple effects only makes sense when the interaction between the factors is statistically significant.
158
4
3ad6f309-2a04-4000-9639-68040f139f90
2020
An investigator wishes to analyze the impact of an intervention aimed at improving reading and writing skills. For this, before applying the intervention, they measure the reading and writing ability in the sample and establish a cutoff point. Subjects scoring above the cutoff point will constitute the control group, and those below the cutoff point will receive the intervention (experimental group). After the intervention, the researcher will again measure the reading and writing ability of all subjects. Based on this statement, indicate the incorrect option:
This is about a regression discontinuity design.
A non-random but known assignment rule has been used.
A quasi-experimental pretest-posttest design with a control group has been used.
Psychology
This refers to a design with a non-equivalent control group.
161
3
4b081159-a674-4fa6-b10a-f50e9a8a12d2
2020
In relation to research designs in Psychology, indicate which of the following statements is incorrect:
The Solomon four-group design allows for the analysis of the possible sensitization effect of the pretest on the treatment effect.
The purpose of the block design, among other things, is the analysis of the interaction between the treatment variable and the blocking variable.
Covariance experimental designs aim to reduce error variance by including quantitative variables as covariates.
Psychology
In repeated measures designs, the main problem is derived from the sequence in which the treatments are applied.
162
1
eed03db7-adb6-49c7-bf3f-0651cf746f92
2020
Regarding the validity of statistical conclusion, indicate which of the following statements is correct:
The type II error refers to the fact of detecting a relationship between variables when in fact such a relationship does not exist in the population.
Power is complementary to Type I error and is defined as the ability of a statistical test to detect a relationship between variables.
The sample size has an inversely proportional relationship with the power of the statistical test.
Psychology
The probability of making a Type I error is called alpha and refers to rejecting the null hypothesis when said hypothesis is true.
163
3
b3fabdf3-f44a-4b84-a0bc-ff6a5d49faec
2020
The drug tolerance conditioning model attributes tolerance to:
Overexposure to the unconditioned stimulus (drug) that results in the extinction of the associated pleasure.
To the compensatory effect of homeostasis.
To the conditioned responses to environmental stimuli that are associated with the administration of the drug.
Psychology
To counter-conditioning of the positive influences from the family and social environment to encourage drug cessation.
164
4
885d4d19-27b8-456e-93df-ca32a4dd7c00
2020
In the shadowing task devised by Cherry (1953), dichotic listening was used and two messages were presented, one for each ear. The participant had to repeat word by word the message from the attended ear. When asked about the ignored (unattended) message, the participants detected:
The meaning of the message.
The change of language.
The speaker's voice change.
Psychology
The semantic relationship between the attended and unattended message.
165
4
cb91ac79-886d-48c1-abcc-2b20f01d71e5
2020
What two conditions or cues (signals) are used in the Attentional Network Test (ANT) to calculate the score corresponding to the orientation network?
The central clue (signal), and the double clue (signal).
The central cue (signal), and the spatial or peripheral cue (signal).
The no-cue (no signal), and the cue (signal) spatial or peripheral.
Psychology
The double cue (signal), and the no cue (no signal).
166
1
2672a64d-4ce8-457f-a39b-c318e2c809af
2020
According to studies by Tulving and other authors on the retrieval of information from memory, what retrieval cues are the most effective for retrieving a certain content from episodic memory?
The keys that, in addition to the content we want to retrieve, are associated with more different contents from our episodic memory.
The keys that are most strongly semantically related to the content we want to retrieve.
The keys that were present during the encoding and were encoded along with the content that we now want to retrieve.
Psychology
The keys that receive less attention during recovery.
167
4
46adf8a4-8d34-48ad-92de-6709e68ad795
2020
According to Kelley's covariation model, what types of information do subjects use to make attributions about the causes of another person's behavior?
Coherence/consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus.
External/Internal Locus, stability, and controllability.
Correspondence, agency, and causality.
Psychology
Uncommon effects, hedonic relevance and personalism.
168
2
cb106c58-a9d6-414d-9ea8-0517897604ee
2020
According to the model of the Theory of Reasoned Action, which component determines the general attitude towards a behavior?
Belief that the person has about the consequences of behavior.
The behavioral intention.
Normative beliefs.
Psychology
The subjective norm.
169
2
ca301261-805c-47c7-9737-68b0bafc045e
2020
According to the Self-Categorization Theory, the "salience" of a social category in a specific situation is a function of two processes called:
Anchoring and comparison.
Prototypicality and homogeneity.
Attribution and Heterogeneity.
Psychology
Accessibility and adjustment.
170
3
9a0faa63-47db-46ac-b998-5f6fca3e816a
2020
Which of the following options does not reflect one of the strategies for obtaining positive social identity proposed by Social Identity Theory?
Individual mobility.
Social Creativity.
Social facilitation.
Psychology
Social Competition.
171
4
e8502bc2-fcd6-45b4-bb01-8b245b28f523
2020
Which of the following models establishes the existence of a "central route" and a "peripheral route" in persuasion processes:
The automatic activation model.
The Elaboration Likelihood Model.
The continuity model.
Psychology
The planned behavior model.
172
1
e4c8fdf0-1292-45f5-bc73-6214bbb2bc41
2020
When an individual conforms to the expectations of a group due to fear of social disapproval, or group punishment, a process of:
Conversion.
Informative Influence.
Psychological reactance.
Psychology
Normative influence.
173
3
2229cc6e-0ff7-444e-8764-243b73a2e161
2020
Which of the following is not a factor favoring the emergence of the so-called "group think" according to the model proposed by Janis?:
The heterogeneity of the members in attitudes and ideology.
High group cohesion.
The existence of a high stress context.
Psychology
The isolation of the group from external influence.
174
2
fb8139ab-8bc1-4f37-890b-9d28c64c4f25
2020
Which of the following is not a research paradigm on cognitive dissonance?:
The paradigm of induced complacency.
The paradigm of effort justification.
The paradigm of free choice.
Psychology
The adaptation-level paradigm.
175
3
1c16bb05-a320-4a29-8469-1a0de9f5d7e3
2020
The three-stratum structure of the Catell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model on intelligence states that in stratum II are situated:
The G factor or general ability.
Intellectual abilities (for example, fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, etc.)
The tasks that make up the intelligence test.
Psychology
The factors related to each second-order intellectual ability.
176
1
2999573d-24bc-44a9-b996-7d0dcf1e03d6
2020
According to the DSM 5, when a 10-year-old child achieves a Global IQ of 65 in the assessment conducted with a WISC-V, we can conclude that the patient's current severity corresponds to:
A Moderate Intellectual Disability.
A mild intellectual disability.
We cannot determine the different levels of severity if we do not know the adaptive functioning and the level of support required.
Psychology
In addition to the Total IQ, we need to know the verbal and manipulative intelligence indices in order to specify the disability and functionality.
177
4
00269222-1127-43ae-8224-090d689e6019
2020
Indicate the correct answer regarding gender dysphoria (GD), according to the DSM 5:
The main difference between Generalized Anxiety (GA) in children and adolescents is the duration criteria (6 months in children and 12 in adolescents).
This refers to a new disorder introduced in the DSM 5 within the general category of sexual dysfunctions.
In children, the main criterion (A1) is described as: "a powerful desire to be of the other sex or an insistence that he or she is of the opposite sex (or of an alternate sex different from the one assigned to them)".
Psychology
If there is another diagnosis of sexual development (for example, a congenital androgenital disorder such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia) the diagnosis of GD should not be made.
178
4
72d93132-c15e-4b1d-bd66-f5e3c24aef01
2020
Which type of panic attack from Barlow's typology corresponds to the situationally bound limited panic attack proposed by Klein?
Unexpected/Unsignaled panic attack.
Marked/unexpected panic attack.
Spontaneous panic attack.
Psychology
Signaled/Expected panic attack.
179
3
275fb5d2-ddee-4a07-b3e4-9cd0c822e9e6
2020
Of the different specific phobias, which one has a later age of onset?
Natural environment.
Situational.
Blood-injection-injury.
Psychology
Animal.
180
1
150cb7e9-369b-4304-9fc2-6250cdb04ccb
2020
Regarding antidepressant treatment for bulimia nervosa, it can be said that:
Shows worse results than Cognitive Behavioral Therapy.
It produces a greater reduction of binge episodes than psychological treatments, in the long term.
Antidepressants have not been shown to be effective for short-term reduction of binging and purging.
Psychology
Opioid antagonists are more effective than antidepressants.
181
2
2a71ae52-7877-4a1e-b5e3-60b17dd891e7
2020
Which of the following clinical features of a patient with "endogenous" depression (unipolar or bipolar) does not constitute an indication to start treatment with electroconvulsive therapy?:
Having suffered three relapses.
The presence of severe malnutrition or significant dehydration.
Serious risk of suicide.
Psychology
History of pharmacological failure in their treatment.
182
2
3614c1b0-6d1e-4cc2-8926-0e6dc9d4c7da
2020
A therapist tries to address a chronic depression through the Schema-Focused Therapy developed by Young (1990). Indicate which of these steps does not correspond to this therapy:
Use imagery to access the schema mode of the vulnerable child.
Explore the origins of schema modes in childhood and adolescence.
Foster and lead dialogues between the different modes of the schemas.
Psychology
Request a daily record of dysfunctional automatic thoughts associated with the schemas.
183
3
d10bb209-6fcc-435e-8edd-e425f8a12fe7
2020
The "prolonged exposure" suggested by E. Foa and colleagues, was primarily developed for treatment:
About agoraphobia.
About panic disorder.
About obsessive compulsive disorder.
Psychology
Of post-traumatic stress disorder.
184
3
7dd15512-6116-4a41-a153-4ad264a3071a
2020
Regarding type I collagen, indicate the correct answer:
The presence of the hydroxylated amino acids 4-hydroxylysine and 5-hydroxyproline contributes to stabilizing their structure.
It is a fibrous protein that is very soluble in water.
Cysteine is its most abundant amino acid.
Chemistry
It presents a right-handed superhelical twist, in the opposite direction to the left-handed helix of its alpha chains.
1
3
a621beac-7e65-4f88-b6b2-785d6dc6dba4
2024
Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at neutral pH?:
Aspartate.
Lysine.
Serine.
Chemistry
Glutamate.
2
1
d973b27b-617b-446f-bc1a-c31d2a935494
2024
Which of the following metabolic pathways allows the production of glucose from fatty acids?:
Cori Cycle.
Krebs Cycle.
Pentose phosphate pathway.
Chemistry
Glyoxylate cycle.
3
3
53432abb-6f5e-4d77-ae4c-5598b41aeb73
2024
The mitochondrial ATP synthase is:
A NADH channel.
Complex I of the electron transport chain.
A proton channel.
Chemistry
Complex III of the electron transport chain.
4
4
812dcdcf-5b66-4cf8-aa8e-ab6c13c1c670
2024
Which of the following disaccharides lacks reducing power?:
Lactose.
Maltose.
Cellobiose.
Chemistry
Sucrose.
5
3
7a3c3806-8a33-4767-87fd-4a63302871a3
2024
Which lipoproteins collect the excess cholesterol deposited in peripheral tissues and transport it to the liver?:
VLDL.
Chylomicrons.
HDL.
Chemistry
LDL.
6
4
be53d81d-5105-466b-926a-2a1d17c2b894
2024
The mechanism of "splicing":
Remove the introns and leave the exons joined in a mature messenger RNA.
Separates the non-coding DNA fragments.
It takes place in the cytoplasm, before the message is translated.
Chemistry
It is a universal mechanism in all organisms.
7
2
533200ed-fe28-442a-b86a-aa63730394f3
2024
The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA molecule will be lower when:
Has a higher proportion of purines.
Have a higher proportion of pyrimidines.
Higher proportion of A and T it has.
Chemistry
The higher proportion of G and C it has.
8
4
db6dc41f-927c-45d6-adaf-fadfcaedb916
2024
Which of the following statements about the effect of reversible inhibitors on the kinetics of an enzyme is not true?:
Non-competitive inhibitors do not modify the Km.
Competitive inhibitors increase the Km.
Competitive inhibitors decrease the Vmax, while non-competitive inhibitors do not modify it.
Chemistry
Competitive inhibitors do not modify the Vmax, while non-competitive inhibitors decrease it.
9
4
92a7b419-a84a-4f6d-b17d-1424487e0d38
2024
Which of the following statements about the α-helix structure of proteins is not true?:
The side chains of the amino acids are arranged towards the outside of the helix.
The rotation is to the left.
They are also called 3.613 helices because there are 3.6 amino acids and 13 atoms per turn.
Chemistry
It is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the CO group and the NH group, both from the peptide bond, located several residues away.
10
1
da035583-a8b2-4ab8-a660-d1b50cbbed5f
2024
The synthesis of urea is mainly regulated by:
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase.
Arginase.
Ornithine transcarbamylase.
Chemistry
Argininosuccinate synthetase.
11
2
d46dcec6-a4d0-4280-85db-25a1d13e2fa2
2024
Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?:
C.
A.
K.
Chemistry
D.
12
2
905840af-25c7-4987-b38a-c2ee39e2b3d6
2024
Regarding the enzymes glucokinase and hexokinase, it is true that:
Hexokinase has a lower affinity for glucose than glucokinase.
The Michaelis constant (Km) of glucokinase is greater than that of hexokinase.
Hexokinase is not present in the liver.
Chemistry
Glucokinase is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate.
13
1
27664e80-bb3f-44db-b70d-59d99928c049
2024
The succinate dehydrogenase:
It is an enzyme in the mitochondrial matrix that oxidizes fumarate to succinate.
Promotes the synthesis of succinate from succinyl-CoA.
It uses NAD+ as an electron acceptor.
Chemistry
It is an integral flavoprotein of the inner mitochondrial membrane that oxidizes succinate to fumarate.
14
3
2fe04f4b-ebd0-42dd-b1c0-eeaea9f3f03f
2024
In the regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes, an "enhancer" (enhancer or amplifier):
It is a protein that modulates the initiation of transcription.
It is a sequence of messenger RNA located at the start point of transcription.
It can be located far from the genes on which it acts, even on a different chromosome.
Chemistry
It is a short sequence of DNA located at the start point of transcription.
15
4
4df88dca-48a0-49cf-a6f7-2fe45f89dc0b
2024
What does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate?
That amino acids can be encoded by a sequence of 3 or 4 nucleotides.
That the same sequence can be translated in both directions (5'→3' and 3'→5').
That there are several start codons for translation.
Chemistry
That an amino acid can be encoded by more than one codon.
16
3
7ba797a7-8fce-4c5f-9122-e46910171cc7
2024
What coenzyme does pyruvate carboxylase require for the conversion of pyruvate into oxaloacetate?:
Biotin.
Thiamine pyrophosphate.
Tetrahydrofolate.
Chemistry
Lipoate.
17
2
42e2bf31-3625-4993-ae15-6f329a1f51a1
2024
Which of the following monosaccharides does not have 6 carbon atoms?
Glucose.
Ribulose.
Mannose.
Chemistry
Fructose.
18
1
d649d773-6e38-4636-a3d7-f2fa5aabc631
2024
On allosteric enzymes:
Allosteric enzymes exhibit sigmoidal kinetics.
The binding of the allosteric effector to the enzyme is irreversible.
Allosteric effectors transform the holoenzyme into apoenzyme.
Chemistry
The allosteric effector binds to the active site of the enzyme.
19
2
4a55ae01-f0da-42c8-b1bd-1019a0829e1d
2024
Which of the following complexes of the mitochondrial respiratory chain does not contain any subunit encoded by mitochondrial DNA?:
Complex II (Succinate Dehydrogenase).
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase).
Complex IV (Cytochrome oxidase).
Chemistry
Complex III (Ubiquinone, cytochrome C oxidoreductase).
20
2
6e588795-9be5-4fd9-91a5-74d22eb56f66
2024
Which of the following amino acids is considered essential?:
Serine.
Alanine.
Asparagine.
Chemistry
Leucine.
21
3
cb59a0da-84b3-471d-a95b-21c28d0a99e7
2024
Which of the following processes takes place in more than one cellular compartment?:
Glycolysis.
Fatty acid biosynthesis.
Pentose phosphate pathway.
Chemistry
Urea cycle.
23
3
75414c5d-492e-48a0-afc8-9b714c91d10f
2024
What is the difference between synthase enzymes and synthetase enzymes?
The synthase enzymes are the precursors of the synthetases.
Synthase enzymes do not use ATP.
There is no difference between the two.
Chemistry
The synthase enzymes catalyze hydrolysis reactions.
24
1
49e3542f-068e-449a-8039-baab7e4ae7a7
2024