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The ATP synthase enzyme involved in mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is found in:
The mitochondrial intermembrane space.
The mitochondrial matrix.
The outer mitochondrial membrane.
Biology
The inner mitochondrial membrane.
52
3
db291f66-74fe-4881-9497-586d338795df
2024
Regarding primary lysosomes, it is known that:
Basic hydrolases are found in the lysosomal lumen.
Lysosomal enzymes are incorporated by protein translocation.
Most lysosomal membrane proteins are heavily glycosylated.
Biology
The ATPases of the lysosomal membrane pump protons from the lysosomal lumen to the cytosol.
53
4
9b160297-d859-411f-8325-b5d66a0e0e1b
2024
Which of the following structures is not associated with cytoskeleton filaments?
Watertight junctions (also called hermetic or occlusive).
Communicating junctions or gap type.
Desmosomes.
Biology
Adherent junctions.
54
1
f35f4661-4d25-4966-9274-da4b609e5399
2024
What is the secretion mechanism of the sebaceous glands in the skin?
Apocrine.
Eccrine.
Molecular.
Biology
Holocrine.
55
3
ca86cdd3-b6cd-410d-a47d-288e9f40cb7a
2024
In which tissue is type II collagen abundant?
Cartilaginous tissue.
Dense fibrous connective tissue.
Bone tissue.
Biology
Adipose tissue.
56
2
75883aa6-b37d-46ce-b26e-9e82af2fcf2a
2024
Which cell type of bone tissue originates from precursor cells present in the bone marrow?:
The osteocytes.
The osteoclasts.
The osteoprogenitor cells.
Biology
The osteoblasts.
57
1
b147756f-98ec-49ba-9c4c-f09b35f5be88
2024
What is the structure that connects cardiomyocytes?
The T-tubules.
The Z lines.
The cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Biology
The intercalated discs.
58
3
49ec452d-b172-4c72-9b3e-a887e7d64f80
2024
In the neuromuscular spindles, two different types of modified muscle fibers can be distinguished, which are easily distinguished by:
Because some receive synaptic contacts and others do not.
The arrangement of their cellular nuclei.
Based on their position in the center or on the periphery of the spindle.
Biology
Because some detect stretching and others tension.
59
1
11d569f7-cfca-40a2-a64d-e49ec2b9d62d
2024
In the liver tissue, the Disse spaces are delimited by:
Centrilobular vein and sinusoids.
Hepatocytes and bile canaliculi.
Endothelium of the sinusoids and hepatocytes.
Biology
Kupffer cells.
60
4
4d0567b4-63b8-4bdc-8287-0d1503550ab3
2024
In tissues that have a relationship with the external environment (skin, digestive tract, lung, etc.) "dendritic" cells are observed, whose main function is:
Vary the permeability of the blood vessels.
Renew the fundamental substance of connective tissue.
Transmit electrical signals to the diffuse endocrine system.
Biology
Present antigens for the lymphocytes.
61
3
a4e7d492-0213-48e3-a481-51ec53a7fca0
2024
Indicate which of the following structures can never be observed in the umbilical cord:
Artery.
Mesenchymal cells.
Vein.
Biology
Trophoblast.
62
3
dc6d6673-4bc1-4d9f-9994-e29d60accbb7
2024
What cells do plasma cells derive from?:
T lymphocytes.
B Lymphocytes.
Monocytes.
Biology
Macrophages.
63
1
1a8fcebe-cc96-4a16-a4b9-c8779bb4b63c
2024
What characterizes myoepithelial cells?
They are exclusive to large blood vessels.
They are associated with the intestine.
They are characteristic of hollow organs such as the gallbladder.
Biology
They are cells associated with secretory glands.
64
3
9df97687-65b4-42bc-a1f6-afe8dd0bd353
2024
What are the layers of the thick epidermis, like that of the palm of the hands, from the innermost to the outermost?
Basal layer, spiny, lucid, granular and horny.
Basal layer, lucid, spiny, granular and horny.
Basal layer, spiny, granular, lucid and horny.
Biology
Basal layer, granular, spinous, lucid, and horny.
65
4
e2577373-c877-4274-97f9-a9aa63b1f998
2024
The Glisson's capsule covers:
Liver.
Spleen.
Lung.
Biology
Kidney.
66
2
b408e471-33c9-462d-ae29-3fb4c29e9fa2
2024
Which epithelium is exclusive to the urinary tract?:
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Simple Cuboidal Epithelium.
Simple columnar epithelium.
Biology
Transitional epithelium.
67
3
4d8488ad-59d7-4cce-9221-394f5d0d3d6b
2024
Indicate which of the following statements is not correct to introduce an exogenous gene into a target cell:
Microinjection allows the introduction of the gene of interest through the membrane of the target cell using a micro-needle.
Electroporation uses an electric current that opens pores in the membrane of the target cell.
The use of viruses that contain the exogenous gene can increase the specificity and efficiency of delivery in target cells.
Biology
The use of mild detergents is a chemical method that opens pores in the cell membrane to allow the passage of the exogenous gene into the target cell.
68
3
61b7660e-c495-490f-8405-62e60ed63180
2024
The daughters of a couple in which only the father exhibits a dominant trait linked to the X chromosome with 100% penetrance:
It will be manifested in 25% of the cases.
They will never exhibit the characteristic.
They will always display the characteristic.
Biology
It will manifest in 50% of the cases.
69
4
52ca3068-6f70-4d39-9122-8cf0dc231d45
2024
Can a person with Down syndrome have only 46 chromosomes in their karyotype?
Yes, as a result of certain Robertsonian translocations.
NO, in no case.
Yes, as a result of certain inversions.
Biology
Yes, as a result of certain deletions.
70
2
15cc0f38-f074-4935-bfa5-6b779ad5d12a
2024
Can more than one allele of a gene that exhibits mitochondrial inheritance be inherited?
No, because the DNA repair systems prevent it.
No, because the mitochondrial genome is inherited exclusively from the mother.
Yes, but only in the case of two codominant alleles.
Biology
Yes, as a result of maternal heteroplasmy.
71
3
ae263512-5152-42a4-af6c-ed68a50755e6
2024
In familial studies of the heritability of quantitative traits, what information does the variance of monozygotic twins provide?
Exclusively genetic variance.
Exclusively environmental variance.
The sum of the environmental variance and half of the genetic one.
Biology
The sum of genetic and environmental variances.
72
1
e02088c5-f0e0-4df9-8c9e-7d9f1eaf59d7
2024
Which of the following phenomena contribute to the generation of spontaneous mutations?:
The isomerization of the nitrogenous bases of DNA by tautomerism.
The presence of STOP codons.
The accumulation of cholesterol in the nuclear envelope.
Biology
The co-transcriptional maturation of pre-messenger RNA.
73
2
069d017f-0830-477a-8c41-5cc3bcd0ccc8
2024
Indicate which of the following nitrogenous bases are classified as purines:
Adenine and thymine.
Guanine and adenine.
Cytosine and thymine.
Biology
Cytosine and adenine.
74
1
9743abda-6e3e-42a6-a172-a47fde39f26a
2024
Select the phase of the cell cycle where the chromosomes are arranged in the equatorial plane:
Metaphase.
Prophase.
Anaphase.
Biology
Telophase.
75
2
3f5178cd-e3e3-49da-9d13-93dec3e690ca
2024
Define what a microsatellite consists of:
Transposable DNA sequences that can move to other locations within the genome.
Region of repetitive DNA sequences at the end of a chromosome.
Short DNA sequences of 10 to 40 base pairs in length, moderately repeated scattered throughout the genome.
Biology
DNA sequences of 10 to 100 base pairs in length that are found in segments of approximately 3000 repeats.
76
4
2f830f30-7fc8-4044-900c-856c8eac8bbd
2024
Choose the type of chromosomes that have the centromere in the middle of their structure:
Acrocentric.
Metacentric.
Submetacentric.
Biology
Telocentric.
77
1
9550ded3-50f7-4599-9cc7-35b526e3ace2
2024
Select the cause of familial Down syndrome:
A deletion in chromosome 21.
An inversion in chromosome 21.
An extra X chromosome.
Biology
A translocation between chromosome 14 and 21.
78
3
73ef81ff-bea8-4027-b810-8b9f07cdcb6e
2024
Select the definition of monosomy:
Loss of a single chromosome in a diploid genome.
Gain of a single chromosome in a diploid genome.
Loss of two chromosomes in a diploid genome.
Biology
Gain of a single chromosome in a haploid genome.
79
2
52a180f5-4cc1-4682-bbc3-58afa7efa38c
2024
The Meselson and Stahl experiment demonstrated that:
The transcription is dispersive.
Transcription is semiconservative.
The replication is semiconservative.
Biology
The replication is conservative.
80
4
cad54d6a-975a-482f-b8b5-038e5126c6d0
2024
The degenerate genetic code means that:
A certain amino acid can be specified by more than one codon.
Mutations that involve a change in the reading frame are tolerated.
The genetic code is not universal in all organisms.
Biology
The mRNA degrades rapidly.
81
2
0134fc0a-d700-4c68-9b41-97a88bc180d7
2024
Select the stop codons:
UAG, UUA and UGA.
UAG, UAA, and UGA.
UAG, CAG and UGA.
Biology
UAG, GUG, and GCA.
82
1
6b41ad8d-1d0b-402f-9aec-2b030ad8ce92
2024
In which life cycle of the bacteriophage is the phage's DNA incorporated into the bacterial chromosome?
In the lysogenic cycle.
In the lytic cycle.
Neither in the lytic cycle nor in the lysogenic cycle.
Biology
Both in the lytic cycle and in the lysogenic cycle.
83
2
3a501e07-339c-47ee-b1bd-8ae78f62e824
2024
Which enzyme does a retrovirus use to make a DNA copy of its genome?
RNA polymerase.
DNA polymerase.
Integrase.
Biology
Reverse transcriptase.
84
3
a4d188e3-cf73-4b90-a1bf-f906a7c001b1
2024
Which of the following relationships would be true in a double-stranded DNA molecule?:
A + T = G + T.
A + T = G + C.
A/T = G/T.
Biology
A + C = G + T.
85
3
0ccf7b21-2d03-4092-8293-30ec6fba0f24
2024
In the DNA chain, the phosphate connects the 3' carbon of a deoxyribose with:
The 3' carbon of the adjacent deoxyribose.
The 5' carbon of the adjacent deoxyribose.
The nitrogenous base of the following nucleotide.
Biology
The nitrogenous base of the previous nucleotide.
86
1
ab6533ad-bb89-4988-a62e-5ac9a656e03a
2024
How many copies of histone H2B will be found in a chromatin that contains 50 nucleosomes?
5.
1.
100.
Biology
50.
87
4
b3fed417-5712-4917-9529-b9f917c9d601
2024
A mutation in a gene that reverses the phenotype of a mutation in a different gene is:
An intragenic suppressor mutation.
An intergenic suppressor mutation.
A neutral mutation.
Biology
A positional effect.
88
1
1b6c5bf5-d7c4-4419-b4e1-32248941c806
2024
The repair of double-strand DNA breaks is carried out by:
The photolyase.
The union of non-homologous ends.
It cannot be repaired.
Biology
Nucleotide excision repair.
89
1
38ff150b-1a7f-4a88-bc3d-458934b377ae
2024
The locus of the Retinoblastoma gene (RB1) is on the chromosome:
12.
11.
17.
Biology
13.
90
3
635d2c26-5399-49e9-9c7e-a0dbf5db6b43
2024
The genes exhibiting imprinting are expressed differently:
According to the sex of the individual.
In the adult compared to the embryo.
Depending on whether they come from the paternal or maternal gamete.
Biology
Before and after sexual development.
91
4
1d3f236b-d3d3-4398-b8ba-5cdfd12a39b1
2024
The inheritance of one of the following diseases is autosomal recessive:
Marfan Syndrome.
Huntington's Chorea.
Acute Intermittent Porphyria.
Biology
Alkaptonuria.
92
3
e384e133-34ce-4f7e-b210-fa96e3750c6e
2024
In a 52-year-old man who is receiving radiotherapy and cytotoxic chemotherapy against the bone marrow to be able to receive a transplant and fight the cancer he is suffering from. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur?:
Decrease in the production of B lymphocytes but not of T lymphocytes.
Normal production of all blood cells due to compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Decrease in the production of lymphocytes, B and T cells, monocytes, neutrophils, and red blood cells.
Biology
Decrease in the production of neutrophils and monocytes but not B lymphocytes.
93
4
acfcb364-ea92-4078-88dd-6729c1e44867
2024
Which of the following lymphoid organs is considered a primary lymphoid organ?:
Thymus.
Tonsils.
Lymph node.
Biology
Peyer's Patches.
94
2
98b31a45-0aa9-4f1e-9b5b-f7778e77eb87
2024
Affinity maturation in germinal centers means that:
The affinity is greater in primary responses than in secondary ones.
Mutations appear in the DNA that encode the constant regions of the immunoglobulins.
The affinity of the antibodies for the antigen increases with antigenic stimulation.
Biology
When a B lymphocyte is stimulated, it can express the second parental allele of the immunoglobulin gene.
95
4
5d795074-976a-4368-91a2-372ba566a7c8
2024
The CD8 molecule:
It is expressed in memory B lymphocytes.
Interacts partially with the presented antigen.
It is expressed in cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
Biology
It has structural homology with TLR4.
96
4
d8fa5bf5-be94-4b59-be9b-833e7d05d77a
2024
Which two cell types, when merged, generate a hybridoma that produces monoclonal antibodies?
B lymphocyte and myeloma cell.
B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte.
B lymphocyte and tumoral eosinophil.
Biology
Myeloma cell and T lymphocyte.
97
2
b3ec71e0-4718-47dc-bc0a-e993905881d9
2024
What is the ligand of the Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4)?
Bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
Bacterial DNA.
Flagellin.
Biology
Viral genetic material.
98
2
f559560f-0876-431d-8df0-4aa4c33ff979
2024
What type of allergic reactions are the mast cells present in the skin and mucous membranes responsible for?
Mediated by immune complexes.
Mediated by IgE.
Mediated by T lymphocytes.
Biology
Mediated by cytotoxic reactions.
99
1
bb323692-8e99-49cb-9564-fef60dd348fb
2024
Which receptor forms the association of the Igβ, Igα, and IgM molecules?
TLR.
TCR.
RIG.
Biology
BCR.
100
3
da6db035-e57f-436b-bdd8-902f3da38737
2024
What type of antibodies are involved in type I allergic reactions?
IgG.
IgE.
IgM.
Biology
IgA.
101
1
29d7f9e6-0385-413a-b990-13b8918fb541
2024
Which of the following immune-based diseases is associated with an immediate or type I hypersensitivity reaction?:
Pulmonary tuberculosis.
Hay fever.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.
Biology
Contact dermatitis due to nickel.
102
1
4f48524a-8838-4f04-ae2f-5342c2324949
2024
Which of the following immune system cells is not of myeloid lineage?:
Basophils.
Monocytes.
Mast cells.
Biology
ILC3.
103
3
85c3f1d9-ed47-46ff-8527-b729abbb4cc2
2024
Which of the following mediators released by mast cells during anaphylaxis is routinely used in the diagnosis of this reaction?:
Leukotrienes.
Tryptase.
Histamine.
Biology
PAF.
104
1
a05f4129-b7df-43ef-904f-0a7f8aaf66cc
2024
Which of the following receptors is not found on the cell surface (plasma membrane) of macrophages?:
TLR2.
TLR1.
TLR4.
Biology
TLR3.
105
3
0a7b381b-c62a-44c5-bfdc-15d2f24f98b6
2024
Which of the following statements regarding the biological actions of type I interferons (IFN) is incorrect?:
The strongest stimulus for the synthesis of type I IFN is IL-2 produced by CD4 T lymphocytes.
Type I IFNs are produced by cells infected by viruses in response to intracellular signals (TLR).
The functional defect of Type I IFN has been implicated with increased severity of the COVID-19 disease caused by SARS CoV 2.
Biology
Type I IFNs are capable of inhibiting the synthesis of certain viral proteins.
106
2
099cd33b-b62e-494f-89f9-0c6385ee346d
2024
They are food allergens that must be declared (European Regulation 1169/2011; Royal Decree 126/2015) in restaurants in Spain and Europe, all of the following except:
Milk.
Fish.
Mustard.
Biology
Rosaceous fruits.
107
3
ef3b727a-152f-4473-9878-f5d63b7cf7e0
2024
The Jurkat cells:
They are an immortalized T lymphocyte cell line.
They are an immortalized B lymphocyte cell line.
They originate from a human melanoma tumor.
Biology
They originate from a human myeloma.
108
2
34640680-bb92-4e11-ace9-733a24989f0c
2024
Which vascularized organ can eliminate old and damaged blood cells, opsonized microorganisms and is involved in initiating adaptive immune responses against antigens?
Thymus.
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
Lymph node.
Biology
Spleen.
109
3
09062349-0774-42f1-8c3a-db4cb7d1920a
2024
Which specific organ disease listed is not due to the interaction of self-reactive T lymphocytes with own antigens?:
Type 2 Diabetes.
Multiple sclerosis.
Type 1 Diabetes.
Biology
Psoriasis.
111
2
f12a24c2-cebd-46b9-a100-34630346641e
2024
Which effector function involved in innate immunity and specific humoral immunity is not characteristic of the complement system?
Mediate in the phagocytosis of microorganisms.
Stimulate inflammation.
Induce the osmotic lysis of microorganisms.
Biology
Avoid opsonization.
112
3
17ea0fba-dde0-4c29-813d-fa8b5623a640
2024
What is the term for the immediate systemic hypersensitivity reaction with edema in many tissues and a drop in blood pressure secondary to vasodilation?
Systemic desensitization.
Immediate allergic reaction.
Anaphylaxis.
Biology
Type III Hypersensitivity.
113
4
f789bc55-8322-4113-8e61-44ed24e96153
2024
Which of the options is a secondary immunodeficiency?:
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
Chronic granulomatous disease.
Common variable immunodeficiency syndrome.
Biology
X-linked Agammaglobulinemia.
114
2
fd9bddf4-450a-4f36-b74f-bb8bd6c4eee8
2024
What type of hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis?
Type II or antibody-mediated.
Type I or immediate.
Type IV or delayed.
Biology
Type III or immune complex-mediated.
115
4
569cafa8-06ce-42d6-8975-944dd8e0e147
2024
Opsonization:
Phagocytosis decreases.
It occurs through the union of opsonins on the surface of microbes.
It is increased in individuals with C3 deficiency.
Biology
It is inhibited by the complement.
116
1
fb824eec-5ec9-45a9-a869-64043497e40c
2024
Which of the following pattern recognition molecules of the innate immune system is not soluble?:
Complement factors.
C-type lectin-like receptors (CLRs).
Collectins.
Biology
Pentraxins.
117
1
b2666f68-4857-42b3-8e2d-4c92bdcb2fd4
2024
Indicate which of the following TLRs recognize double-stranded RNA molecules:
TLR3.
TLR2.
TLR9.
Biology
TLR7.
118
2
13d976ca-fdbc-45f6-b913-83431e124d55
2024
In a box plot (also known as "Box-plot" or "Boxand-Whisker plot") that we use to describe a set of quantitative values, the values that delimit the central box are:
The limits of the confidence interval for the mean at 95%.
The median and the 95% quantile.
The first and the third quartile.
Biology
The mean plus/minus the interquartile range.
120
4
9a64210b-6b50-49be-ba42-d2b7da3dc6dc
2024
The probability distribution that is necessary to use to calculate the confidence interval of a normal population is:
The Student's t-distribution.
The normal distribution.
The uniform distribution.
Biology
The chi-square distribution.
121
3
4fa5b0af-05f2-4dfa-8915-c1804bc0e0d7
2024
As a result of a hypothesis contrast to test the null hypothesis H0, a p-value (or P value) of 0.025 is obtained. So:
H0 is rejected at significance levels 0.05 and 0.01.
H0 is accepted at the significance level of 0.05 and rejected at 0.01.
H0 is accepted at the significance levels of 0.05 and 0.01.
Biology
H0 is rejected at the significance level of 0.05 and accepted at 0.01.
122
3
60d1c3be-1cc5-45a3-b79a-8939df7ff3a7
2024
One of the fundamental hypotheses in a simple regression model (Y=a+bX+e) is that:
The data are independent.
The residues (e) are all equal to zero.
The sum of the response values (Y) is zero.
Biology
The covariable (X) is estimated by least squares methods.
123
2
ba4cd987-d27b-4343-97a1-4abc1fa01b92
2024
The appropriate graph to represent the frequencies of a continuous quantitative variable that we have grouped into intervals of different lengths is:
A pie chart.
A Pareto diagram.
A box plot diagram ("Box-plot").
Biology
A histogram.
124
3
353dcdb0-da28-4fc9-98ff-e4250afa706d
2024
According to the KDIGO 2020 guide for the management of diabetes in chronic kidney disease (CKD):
Microalbuminuria should be used to monitor glycemic control in patients with diabetes and CKD (Chronic Kidney Disease).
Basal glycemia must be used to monitor glycemic control in patients with diabetes and CKD (Chronic Kidney Disease).
Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) should be used to monitor glycemic control in patients with diabetes and CKD (Chronic Kidney Disease).
Biology
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) should NOT be used to monitor glycemic control in patients with diabetes and CKD (Chronic Kidney Disease).
125
4
c09896b7-81f0-4153-b515-603b818d1f77
2024
Which of the following causes does not provoke hematuria:
Cystitis.
Nephrolithiasis.
Trauma.
Biology
Liver diseases.
126
3
87da6514-385a-4146-92c8-d1cfa4cb56f9
2024
Which of the following enzymes does not participate in the metabolism of galactose:
Galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
UDP-Galactose-4-epimerase.
Galactose-6-P-Uridyltransferase.
Biology
Galactokinase.
127
4
1d10b194-9717-4341-bd5c-6d7b7d148ae8
2024
The deficiency of Fructose-1-P-Aldolase manifests with:
Hyperuricemia.
Hyperglycemia.
Increase in N-glycosylation of proteins.
Biology
Metabolic alkalosis.
128
2
9bf450f6-77ba-4926-b721-0f89dbad16a2
2024
The most sensitive marker of tubular proteinuria is:
Albumin.
Alpha-1-microglobulin.
Immunoglobulin A.
Biology
Alpha-2-macroglobulin.
129
1
61644dbb-dc43-4bdc-b445-316bab2630ad
2024
What type of anticoagulant is most suitable for carrying out an arterial or venous blood gas analysis?
Liquid sodium heparin.
Unfractionated Heparin.
Low molecular weight heparin.
Biology
Lithium Heparin.
130
3
45938ea5-165e-44de-93fd-0fe68054aa58
2024
In the human body, where is the largest reserve of usable iron located?
Bound to hemosiderin.
Bound to transferrin.
In the form of free iron in the blood plasma.
Biology
Being part of the hemoglobin contained in the erythrocytes.
131
3
62edee9e-730d-41ea-909f-f47b24f448f6
2024
Which of the following hormones is characterized by varying its secretion throughout the day?:
Androstenedione.
Aldosterone.
Cortisol.
Biology
Antidiuretic hormone.
132
4
f327e0c3-f14b-4efd-9ec9-06eb12ae8703
2024
After a suspicion obtained by prenatal screening, what test should be requested in amniotic fluid to confirm or rule out a trisomy 21?
Quantification of the beta fraction of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG).
Quantification of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
Calculation of the lecithin / sphingomyelin ratio.
Biology
Performing a karyotype.
133
3
2f55c49d-2f5f-4693-8b24-5c998afc200e
2024
Which of the following biological markers can help confirm the diagnostic suspicion of a mucopolysaccharidosis?:
Glycosaminoglycans in urine.
Amino acids in plasma.
Very long chain fatty acids in plasma.
Biology
Organic acids in urine.
134
2
09b714a6-988a-4034-af5f-e1f416491aa7
2024
In relation to hereditary fructose intolerance, it is TRUE that:
Acute symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, sweating, and dehydration, among others, may appear.
It is a disease of autosomal dominant inheritance.
Currently, there is no effective treatment.
Biology
It is caused by a deficiency of fructokinase.
135
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1898cd2a-6945-4991-aa11-75f36f8ef442
2024
In regenerative anemias:
The main causes are hemorrhages and hemolysis.
There is an underproduction of erythroblasts in the bone marrow.
Under physiological conditions, the red blood cells formed in the bone marrow circulate for 60 days in peripheral blood.
Biology
This may be due to a defect in the pluripotent stem cell or to an alteration in erythroblastic maturation.
136
2
3514da9a-b26b-487d-8847-ab2f4be2f862
2024
Regarding classic galactosemia, caused by a deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT), it is incorrect:
The typical "oil drop" nuclear cataract develops in the lens.
The serious and early liver damage leads to cholestasis, fibrosis and progressive cirrhosis.
A decrease in plasma galactose and galactitol occurs.
Biology
The presence of sepsis caused by Escherichia coli is common in the neonatal period.
137
4
1eb9273b-99e9-4269-8400-dbb2e918043c
2024
Regarding glycogen storage diseases or glycogenosis:
Glycogenosis type III occurs due to a deficiency of one of the components of the glucose-6-phosphatase enzyme system.
The diagnosis should be based on the combination of the clinical, biochemical, and genetic analysis.
Glycogenosis type IV is characterized by intolerance to physical exercise.
Biology
In most glycogen storage diseases, the goal of treatment is to prevent hyperglycemia.
138
1
ba9ddd8f-41de-4989-bbe0-c4f64b1da786
2024
Regarding hemoglobinopathies, indicate the false answer:
Thalassemias are characterized by a decrease in the hemoglobin content of the red blood cell (hypochromia).
They can be due to quantitative alterations due to a decrease in the synthesis of a normal globin chain.
In sickle cell anemia, erythrocytes easily pass through the microcirculation of tissues.
Biology
In β-thalassemia, the presence of red blood cells "in the shape of a fish" is characteristic.
139
4
9ad7f082-7b80-47ef-8948-3689f7cb720c
2024
In relation to the anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH), it is true that:
AMH is expressed in women, during the reproductive phase, by the theca cells of the pre-ovulatory follicles.
The serum concentrations of AMH are related to the size of the ovarian follicular reserve, thus being a marker of this reserve.
Serum concentrations of AMH are undetectable in males under 2 years of age.
Biology
In polycystic ovary syndrome, AMH levels are lower than the appropriate reference values for age.
140
1
04604a61-4eab-4779-ae9f-21f0f1304777
2024
Which of the following syndromes presents with a hormonal profile of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?:
Kallmann Syndrome.
Turner Syndrome.
Ulrich Noonan Syndrome.
Biology
Klinefelter Syndrome.
141
2
9bd53a48-35da-4c73-9900-3664e0c02527
2024
Testosterone is the main hormone secreted by:
The Sertoli cells.
The theca cells.
The granulosa cells.
Biology
The Leydig cells.
142
3
8e5bacf6-364e-4a19-bcb5-7931aafc44ab
2024
Which of the following situations is associated with hyperchloremic normal anion GAP?
Ketoacidosis.
Severe anemia.
Lactic acidosis.
Biology
Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis.
143
3
b8a7f343-f7e6-409a-8ac5-1fd7d5e87376
2024
In relation to Cushing's syndrome, which of the following causes could be considered the origin of it?
Secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by non-pituitary tumors.
Chronic under-secretion of the pituitary adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH).
Biology
Hypersecretion of prolactin.
144
2
6f43126a-18eb-497f-bdf3-da444bbb7ddb
2024
Which of the following lipoproteins could be found in patients with biliary obstructive disease, disappearing from circulation when the cholestasis that originated it is resolved?:
Lipoprotein x.
Lipoprotein a.
Very low-density lipoproteins.
Biology
Chylomicrons.
145
2
3290744f-4b67-4ac3-84e8-4c588b213047
2024
Which increase in apolipoprotein is related to heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia?
Apolipoprotein B.
Apolipoprotein E.
Apolipoprotein AI.
Biology
Apolipoprotein CII.
146
2
94df2c95-bcb4-4550-897a-e5bc8735772b
2024
In relation to the biochemical markers for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction, indicate the CORRECT response:
Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is the marker of choice for the management of myocardial infarction.
The accumulation of lactate is one of the first signs of muscle ischemia.
Most of the enzymes that are initially released after a heart attack are of mitochondrial origin.
Biology
The ultrasensitive troponin is not a reliable marker of myocardial damage.
147
1
f74ac5b6-9817-41c9-8a2c-e45f06496608
2024
Which of the following parameters is not included in the latest guidelines of the European Society of Arteriosclerosis for the estimation of the SCORE (Systematic Coronary Risk Estimation):
Blood pressure.
Triglycerides.
Non-HDL Cholesterol.
Biology
Sex.
148
1
adaa3c54-f601-4343-a955-ce80f62e0fd6
2024
Among the objectives of semen preparation techniques for fertility study, the following is not included:
Preserve glycoproteins and peptides that inhibit capacitation.
Separate the spermatozoa from the seminal plasma that contains incapacitating substances, prostaglandins and lymphokines.
Provide a culture medium that contains sterol-capturing molecules (albumin) and an ionic composition that supports the homeostasis of the spermatozoon and facilitates transduction signals (calcium, bicarbonate).
Biology
Remove dead sperm, leukocytes, round cells and infectious agents.
149
2
e45f2690-4586-4d0c-847d-64b2df4dca45
2024
The carcinoid syndrome is characterized by an increase in circulating levels of:
Serotonin.
Calcitonin.
Dopamine.
Biology
Histamine.
150
2
1f88b864-012f-4265-94db-a22033f1a02e
2024
Where is the BRCA-2 gene located, whose mutation predisposes to the development of breast and ovarian cancers?
13q.
13p.
17q.
Biology
17p.
151
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59142c3c-626b-4d83-891e-ca8348d20a96
2024
Which gene is most frequently associated with acquired mutations in melanoma?
EGFR.
KRAS.
BRAF.
Biology
TP53.
152
4
f41c5569-74d1-456d-b7d6-5d52b60ad37d
2024
Which of the following parameters is generally decreased in prostate cancer in relation to patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?:
Prostate-Specific Antigen Density (dPSA).
Total Prostate Specific Antigen (total PSA).
Prostate-specific antigen complex (PSA complex).
Biology
Percentage of free prostate antigen (free PSA).
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ac156e3e-f23a-4731-84f4-3a196fc64d46
2024